YOUR LBP ASSESSMENT PAPER 2/1

EASA MODULE 2 CATEGORY B1 B2

PHYSICS
To be completed after studying the module.
If the module has more than one assessment paper then to be
completed after studying the appropriate part of the module.

After completion mark the paper using the marking guide at the rear.
Double check any corrected answers.

It is recommended that you sit this assessment as

if you are doing an actual CAA examination. After-all,
it is more a learning tool than an examination. In this
way it gets you used to the examination environment
and helps in the learning process.

The CAA allow 1.3 minutes per question so you can gauge the
approximate time in which to complete this paper.
Licence By Post EASA 66 2/1

MODULE 2 – PHYSICS ISSUE 3

MULTIPLE CHOICE PAPER

1. The smallest particle that a substance can chemically be broken down to

is:

(a) A molecule.
(b) An atom.
(c) An element

2. The name given to the force that holds molecules of one particular
substance together is:

(a) A cohesive force.

(b) An adhesive force.
(c) A stiction force.

3. The negatively charged particle in the structure of the atom is:

(a) A proton.
(b) A neutron
(c) An electron

4. The latent heat of fusion is the heat required to:

(a) Change a solid to a liquid.

(b) Produce a rise in temperature if a liquid.
(c) Change a liquid to a vapour.

5. distance ‘s1’
Force
‘P’
BEAM

PIVOT Ignoring the weight of the beam, the

moment of the force ‘P’ is
distance
s2 (a) P x s1 clockwise
(b) P x s2 clockwise
(c) s1 x s2 anticlockwise

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6. P1 P2 P3
s1 s2 s3

BEAM

For the beam (shown above) to be in equilibrium of rotation:

(a) (P1 x s1) = (P2 x s2) + (P3 x s3)

(b) (P1 x s1) = (P2 x s2) + P3 (s2 + s3)
(c) (P1 x s1) = P2(s1 + s2) + P3(s2 + s3)

7. The resultant moment of a couple is called:

(a) A torque.
(b) A turning force.
(c) Inertia.

8. A scalar quantity is one which possesses:

(a) Magnitude only.

(b) Magnitude and sense only.
(c) Magnitude, sense and direction.

9. The magnitude of the resultant force (in Newtons), for the arrangement of
forces shown below is:

3N (a) 1N
(b) 7N
(c) 5N
4N

10. The equilibrant of an arrangement of forces is:

(a) Equal in magnitude, but opposite in sense to the resultant.

(b) Equal in sense but opposite in direction to the resultant.
(c) Equal in magnitude but opposite in direction to the resultant.

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11. In the vector diagram show below, the final completing vector (the dotted
line), drawn from the start to the finish is known as:

finish (a) Equilibrant.

(b) A scalar.
start (c) The resultant.

12. The centre of gravity of a body is defined as the point where:

(a) All the weight of a body occurs.

(b) Lift is present.
(c) The mass of a body appears to be concentrated.

13. For the cone shown below, having a perpendicular height of ‘l’, the centre
of gravity, as measured from the base (h) is:

(a) h= 1 l4
(b) h= 1 l
3
(c) h= 1 l
2
l
h

14. The load readings taken on the nose and main wheels of an aircraft are
as shown below. The position of the C of G from the nose wheel (x) is:

MAIN
C of G WHEEL
NOSE
WHEEL

10kN 4m 90kN

(a) 3.1m
(b) 3.6m
(c) 2m

15. Hooke's original law, relating to the stretching of materials, is the

relationship between:

(a) Load and extension.

(b) Stress and strain.
(c) Load and stress.

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16. A tie-rod of cross-sectional area 400mm2 is subjected to a tensile load of
80kN. The resulting stress in the rod is:

(a) 5kN/mm2
(b) 32kN/mm2
(c) 0.2kN/mm2

17. Given that under a certain load the stress suffered by a component is
100kN/m2 and the corresponding strain is 0.5 x 10-6 the value of
Young’s Modulus of Elasticity is:

(a) 500GN/m2
(b) 200GN/m2
(c) 50GN/m2

18. The pressure measured from a complete vacuum is known as the:

(a) Gauge pressure.

(b) Absolute pressure.
(c) Vacuum pressure.

19. Given that the atmospheric pressure is 101.3kN/m2 and the gauge
pressure is 20kN/m2, the absolute pressure would be:

(a) 121.3kN/m2
(b) 5.065kN/m2
(c) 2026N/m2

20. Mercury has a density of 13600kg/m3. If a column of mercury, in a

simple mercury-in-glass barometer shows a height reading of 0.76
metres, the absolute pressure is:

(a) 182.4kN/m2
(b) 105.5kN/m2
(c) 101.4kN/m2

21. Velocity is defined as the:

(a) Rate of change of distance.

(b) Rate of change of displacement.
(c) Product of speed and time.

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22. The directions and distances covered by a light aircraft, travelling from A
to B are shown in the diagram below. If the total time taken is 30
minutes, the average speed is:

20km B (a) 200km/h

(b) 120km/h
(c) 160km/h
60km

A
20km

23. For the same journey as in Q22, the average velocity is:

(a) 200km/h
(b) 120km/h
(c) 160km/h

24. An aircraft, starting from rest, takes 20 seconds to reach a take-off speed
of 60m/s. This represents an acceleration of:

(a) 3.0m/s2
(b) 1.2km/s2
(c) 0.33m/s2

25. For the same conditions as in Q24 the length of runway required is:

(a) 2.4km
(b) 1200m
(c) 600m

26. A free falling body, falling from a height of 2km, and assuming
g = 10m/s2, will strike the ground in a time of:

(a) 20 seconds
(b) 80 seconds
(c) 400 seconds

27. The number of radians in a circle (360°) is:

(a) 12
(b) 2π
(c) exactly six.

28. What is the angular velocity of a shaft rotating at 300rpm in rad/sec?

(a) 5π rad/s.
(b) 2π rad/s.
(c) 10π rad/s.

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29. The tip speed, in m/s of a 4m diameter propeller, revolving at an angular
velocity of 3000rpm is:

(a) 1256.8m/s
(b) 6000m/s
(c) 628.3m/s

30. The force that acts on a body to cause it to rotate in a circular path is
called the:

(a) Centripetal force.

(b) Centrifugal force.
(c) Inertia force.

31. The acceleration of a body that moves with simple harmonic motion
(SHM) is:

(a) Constant.
(b) Always directed towards a fixed point in its path.
(c) A maximum when it’s displacement is zero.

32. A natural frequency is described as the frequency of a freely vibrating

system:

(a) With friction.

(b) Without friction.
(c) With damping.

33. ‘Work’ is considered as the product of:

(a) Effort and load.

(b) Energy and distance.
(c) Force and distance.

34. If a load of 50N is moved by an effort of 5N, the mechanical advantage is:

(a) 250
(b) 10
(c) 0.1

35. If a machine has a mechanical advantage of 10 and a velocity ratio of 20,

the efficiency of the machine is:

(a) 2
(b) 0.5
(c) 200%

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36. The mass of a body, once known, is usually considered as being:

(a) Equal to its weight.

(b) Constant.
(c) Dependent on temperature.

37. The weight of a body, near the Earth’s surface, where g = 9.81m/s2, has
a mass of 20kg, is:

(a) 196.2N
(b) 2.04N
(c) 20N

38. The reluctance of a body to change it’s current state of rest or uniform
motion in a straight line, is called:

(a) Drag.
(b) Inertia.
(c) Restitution.

39. Power is defined as the:

(a) Capacity to do work.

(b) Rate at which speed is achieved.
(c) Rate of doing work.

40. The power developed by an aircraft travelling at 300m/s, whilst exerting

a thrust of 30kN is:

(a) 9MW
(b) 100MW
(c) 9000W

41. Energy is defined as:

(a) The rate of doing work.

(b) The capacity to do work.
(c) Work done.

42. The kinetic energy of an aircraft of mass 200,000kg travelling at a speed

of 200m/s is:

(a) 4 x 109J
(b) 1000MJ
(c) 8GJ

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43. The potential energy of an aircraft of mass 200,000kg, flying at an
altitude of 10km is:

(a) 2 x 106J
(b) 5.47MJ
(c) 19.62GJ

44. For a body attached to the end of a spring moving with simple harmonic
motion (SHM) as shown, the maximum acceleration occurs at:

(a) Position X.
(b) Position Y.
(c) Position C.

SHM Y

Z = MEAN POSITION

45. An aircraft of mass 110 000kg is taxiing at a velocity of 4.47m/s. It’s

momentum is:

(a) 2460.85kg.m/s
(b) 491,700Ns
(c) 49.17kN/s

46. For the arrangement shown below, where two masses are approaching
each other in the same straight line, the total momentum of the system
before impact occurs is:

(a) -100kgm/s
50kg (b) 300kgm/s
(c) 360kgm/s
2m/s 10m/s
20kg

47. For the same arrangement as in Q46, the total momentum after impact
is:

(a) -100kgm/s
(b) 300kgm/s
(c) 360kgm/s

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48. The resultant torque produced by the arrangement of forces, forming a
couple as shown is:

6N (a) 1.2Nm
(b) 2.4Nm
(c) 7.2Nm

0.2m

6N

49. The arrangement below shows a revolving flywheel supported and

positioned with it’s spindle lying along the centre line front to rear of a
power boat. If B is caused to rise the tendency would be (looking forward)
for the boat to:

(a) Swing to the right.

(b) Swing to the left.
(c) Slow down. A B
Tail end rotation
(clockwise looking
forward)

50. For a body of weight 20N to slide across a surface with constant velocity
as a result of the application of an applied force of 2N, the coefficient of
friction between the surfaces is:

(a) 0.4
(b) 10
(c) 0.1

51. With a driven wheel the friction force between wheel and road surface:

(a) Assists wheel rotation.

(b) Opposes wheel rotation.
(c) Acts in the same direction as with a rolling wheel.

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52. If the velocity entering the nozzle shown is 60m/s, the velocity at exit is:

(a) 120m/s
(b) 6m/s
(c) 240m/s

60m/s
FLOW
DIAMETER
DIAMETER 10mm
20mm

53. If at position ←, in the tapering tube shown below, the potential energy is
200J, the pressure energy is 250J and the kinetic energy is 6000J, the
total energy at position ↑ is:

(a) 6450J
(b) <6450J
(c) >6450J ↑

FLOW

← (assuming no frictional losses)

54. A temperature of 41°F (Fahrenheit) is, in °C (Celsius):

(a) 5°C
(b) 9°C
(c) 7°C

55. 22°C (Celsius) is equal, in the absolute scale of temperature, to:

(a) 22K
(b) 122K
(c) 295.15K

56. ‘Heat’ is defined as:

(a) The stored energy in a hot body.

(b) Energy in transit.
(c) A high temperature.

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57. Which of the following has the greatest ‘specific heat capacity’ ?

(a) Steel.
(b) Air.
(c) Water.

58. When using the combined gas law:

(a) The temperatures must be in absolute units.

(b) The pressures must be gauge pressures.
(c) PV must be a constant.

59. An adiabatic expansion or compression of a gas is one in which:

(a) The temperature of the gas remains constant.

(b) No heat flows across the boundaries of the system during the
process.
(c) The pressure of the gas remains unaltered.

60. The First Law of Thermodynamics states that: (where Q is heat and W is
work)

(a) Q=W
(b) Q>W
(c) Q<W

61. The ray that causes a reflected ray is known as the:

(a) Pre-reflected ray.

(b) Incident ray.
(c) Principle ray

62. Refraction is when a ray:

(a) Moves from one transmitting medium to another.

(b) Is reflected back from a concave surface.
(c) Is reflected back from a convex surface.

63. The greater the angle to the normal a ray strikes the core/cladding
interface of a fibre optic cable the:

(a) More likely it is to escape.

(b) Less likely it is to escape.
(c) Effect will be to increase the losses.

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64. A fibre optic cable can have:

(a) An infinite number of modes.

(b) A single mode only.
(c) A finite number of modes.

65. Attenuation in fibre optics:

(a) Can be caused by absorption, scatter and reflection.

(b) Is not affected by wavelength.
(c) Is best kept as high as possible to reduce scatter.

66. Non-confinement loss is caused by:

(a) The low incident ray acceptance angles.

(b) High ray acceptance angles.
(c) Small bend radii in the fibre optic.

67. An optical fibre has a glass core refractive index of 1.5 and a glass
cladding refractive index of 1.4. The refractive index from the dense glass
to the less dense glass is:

(a) 1.07
(b) 0.93
(c) 2.9

68. What is the effective length of a 10km fibre optic cable for a ray of light at
its limit of reflection with the critical angle at 82°?

(a) 9.89km.
(b) 10km.
(c) 10.098km.

69. Star couplers:

(a) Have several inputs and one output.

(b) Have one input and one output.
(c) May be reflective or transmissive.

70. Combining sound waves with the same frequency and phase means:

(a) The resultant amplitude is increased with the same frequency.

(b) The resultant amplitude is reduced with the same frequency.
(c) The frequency is increased but the amplitude remains the same.

””””””””

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Licence By Post EASA 66 2/1

MULTI CHOICE ANSWER PAPER ISSUE 3

Name …………………………………. Student number ………… Date ………….

Subject Physics EASA Module 2 B1/B2 Licence

Assessment number 1 of 1

A B C A B C A B C A B C A B C
1 21 41 61 81

2 22 42 62 82

3 23 43 63 83

4 24 44 64 84

5 25 45 65 85

6 26 46 66 86

7 27 47 67 87

8 28 48 68 88

9 29 49 69 89

10 30 50 70 90

11 31 51 71 91

12 32 52 72 92

13 33 53 73 93

14 34 54 74 94

15 35 55 75 95

16 36 56 76 96

17 37 57 77 97

18 38 58 78 98

19 39 59 79 99

20 40 60 80 100

WHEN COMPLETE MARK YOUR PAPER USING THE CORRECT RESPONSES BELOW. DOUBLE CHECK ANY
INCORRECT RESPONSES ON YOUR PAPER. PASS MARK 75%
LBP Multiple choice answers (answers should be checked)

EASA Part 66 B1/B2 licence module 2 Physics Assessment 2/1

Q1 (b) Q2 (a) Q41 (b) Q61 (b)

Q3 (c) Q4 (a) Q42 (a) Q62 (a)
Q5 (b) Q6 (b) Q43 (c) Q63 (b)
Q7 (a) Q8 (a) Q44 (a) Q64 (c)
Q9 (c) Q10 (a) Q45 (b) Q65 (a)
Q11 (c) Q12 (c) Q46 (a) Q66 (a)
Q13 (a) Q14 (b) Q47 (a) Q67 (a)
Q15 (a) Q16 (c) Q48 (a) Q68 (c)
Q17 (b) Q18 (b) Q49 (a) Q69 (c)
Q19 (a) Q20 (c) Q50 (c) Q70 (a)
Q21 (b) Q22 (a) Q51 (b)
Q23 (b) Q24 (a) Q52 (c)
Q25 (c) Q26 (a) Q53 (a)
Q27 (b) Q28 (c) Q54 (a)
Q29 (c) Q30 (a) Q55 (c)
Q31 (b) Q32 (b) Q56 (b)
Q33 (c) Q34 (b) Q57 (c)
Q35 (b) Q36 (b) Q58 (a)
Q37 (a) Q38 (b) Q59 (b)
Q39 (c) Q40 (a) Q60 (a)