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General Subjects

QMED ...........................................................................................................Pages 2-94

Assistant Engineers-DDE ............................................................................Page 95-281

First Assistant-Chief Engineer, Limited ....................................................Pages 282-387

1 August 2014
United States Coast Guard General Subjects-QMED
National Maritime Center March 2014

1. (1.2.7.1-1) If both the shell-and-tube lube oil cooler and shell-and-tube jacket water cooler of a
diesel engine are seawater cooled, what statement is true?

o (a) Seawater flows through the shells of both the lube-oil and jacket-water coolers.
o (b) Seawater flows through the tubes of the lube-oil cooler and through the shell of the jacket-
water cooler.
o (c) Seawater flows through the tubes of the jacket-water cooler and through the shell of the lube-
oil cooler.
 (d) Seawater flows through the tubes of both the lube-oil and jacket-water coolers.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

2. (1.2.7.1-7) If a heat exchanger is designed to condense refrigerant vapor using central cooling fresh
water as a condensing medium, what statement is true?

o (a) The refrigerant vapor loses latent heat, the central cooling fresh water loses latent heat.
o (b) The refrigerant vapor loses sensible heat, the central cooling fresh water gains latent heat.
 (c) The refrigerant vapor loses latent heat, the central cooling fresh water gains sensible heat.
o (d) The refrigerant vapor gains latent heat, the central cooling fresh water loses sensible heat.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

3. (1.2.7.1-8) What type of flow pattern would be associated with a forced-convection finned-coil heat
exchanger such as an air-cooled hydraulic oil cooler?

o (a) Counter flow


o (b) Series flow
o (c) Parallel flow
 (d) Cross flow

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

4. (1.2.7.1-9) If a seawater-cooled shell-and-tube lubricating oil cooler has the seawater inlet and
outlet connections on the opposite end water boxes, in terms of the number of passes, what
statement is true?

o (a) The number of fluid passes cannot be determined.


o (b) The tube-side fluid flow pattern is four-pass.
 (c) The tube-side fluid flow pattern is single-pass.
o (d) The tube-side fluid flow pattern is two-pass.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

5. (1.2.7.1-10) The general purpose of a heat exchanger is to __________.

o (a) maintain steady pressure in a system


o (b) eliminate hot air from the condenser
 (c) heat, or cool one fluid by means of another fluid
o (d) reduce the engine room temperature in tropical climates

2 August 2014
United States Coast Guard General Subjects-QMED
National Maritime Center March 2014

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

6. (1.2.8.1-1) Pressure in an operating hydraulic system is developed __________.

o (a) solely by the charge applied by the accumulators


 (b) by resistance to the fluid flow through the system
o (c) only by the pump as its primary function
o (d) by the thermal input to the system's fluid

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

7. (1.2.8.1-2) In the system illustrated, which of the following readings should be indicated on the
pressure gage, if the load (x) is 8000 lbs (3632 kg) and the piston area (y) is 10 sq. in (64.5 sq.
cm)? GS-0062

o (a) 80 psi (5.63 kg/cm2)


 (b) 800 psi (56.31 kg/cm2)
o (c) 8,000 psi (563.1 kg/cm2)
o (d) 80,000 psi (5631 kg/cm2)

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

8. (1.2.8.1-3) Which characteristic or condition will have the greatest effect on increasing a hydraulic
oil's viscosity?

 (a) Pressure
o (b) Pour point
o (c) Cloud point
o (d) Vacuum

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

9. (1.2.8.1-4) The by-products of oxidation, as a result of water contamination of hydraulic oil, are
generally __________.

o (a) harmless and have no effect on system components


o (b) always neutralized by oil additives
 (c) gums, varnishes, and acids
o (d) removed by cellulose type filters

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

10. (1.2.8.1-5) Energy losses occurring in a hydraulic system are ultimately absorbed by the
__________.

o (a) reservoir expansion chamber


o (b) hydraulic piping flexibility
 (c) atmosphere as heat
o (d) fluid as friction

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

3 August 2014
United States Coast Guard General Subjects-QMED
National Maritime Center March 2014

11. (1.2.8.2-2) The illustrated hydraulic pump graphic symbol is used to depict a __________. GS-0098

o (a) two-stage, pump unit


 (b) combined, pump unit
o (c) duplex, pump unit
o (d) parallel, pump unit

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

12. (1.2.8.2-3) An arrow superimposed on a hydraulic graphic symbol at approximately 45°, as shown
in the illustrated figures A, B, and C, indicates the component __________. GS-0068

o (a) is pilot controlled


o (b) allows flow in one direction only
 (c) can be adjusted or varied
o (d) is pressure compensated

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

13. (1.2.8.2-5) Item "F" shown in the illustration represents two hydraulic pumps that are __________.
GS-0103

o (a) motor operated with one pump located in the engine room at the shaft alley door and the other
in a common passage way
o (b) manually operated with one pump located at the shaft alley door and the other in a common
passage way
o (c) motor operated with one pump located on the engine room side and the other on the shaft
alley side of the water tight door
 (d) manually operated with one located in the engine room and the other in the shaft alley of the
water tight door

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

14. (1.2.8.2-1) The illustrated hydraulic pump graphic symbol is used to depict a/an __________. GS-
0097

o (a) combined pump unit


o (b) series-flow pump unit
o (c) two-stage pump unit
 (d) double pump unit

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

4 August 2014
United States Coast Guard General Subjects-QMED
National Maritime Center March 2014

15. (1.2.8.2-4) Item "B" shown in the illustrated hydraulic circuit is used to __________. GS-010

 (a) shut down the remotely operated electric motor driven pump when the watertight door has
closed
o (b) act as a power source to operate the pumps indicated as "F"
o (c) act as a power source to operate the pump indicated as "E"
o (d) shut down the operation of pump "E" when the watertight door has closed

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

16. (1.2.8.3-1) Energy imparted to the hydraulic fluid in an operating hydraulic system is stored in the
__________.

o (a) ram
o (b) actuator
o (c) reservoir
 (d) accumulator

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

17. (1.2.8.3-4) The component which is used to thoroughly separate small, fine, dust-like particulate
contamination from hydraulic fluid is a/an __________.

o (a) accumulator
o (b) separator
o (c) strainer
 (d) filter

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

18. (1.2.8.3-5) Of the hydraulic tubing fittings illustrated, the flared fitting for high pressure use is
represented by figure __________. GS-010

 (a) A or B
o (b) A or C
o (c) B or C
o (d) C or D

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

19. (1.2.8.3-6) The portion of a hydraulic hose that determines its overall strength is the __________.

o (a) inner tube


o (b) outer cover
o (c) outer armor
 (d) braided inner layer(s)

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

5 August 2014
United States Coast Guard General Subjects-QMED
National Maritime Center March 2014

20. (1.2.8.3-7) The discharge capacity of the axial piston hydraulic pump, shown in the illustration, is
__________. GS-0058

o (a) increased by adding a shorter cylinder block


 (b) fixed by the pump housing angle
o (c) decreased by adding a longer cylinder block
o (d) increased by adding a longer cylinder block

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

21. (1.2.8.3-8) To convert a vane type hydraulic pump to a hydraulic motor, which of the following
would have to be done?

o (a) Provide one additional slot and vane.


 (b) Provide small springs between the vanes and the base of the vane slots.
o (c) Install an enlarged control ring around the rotor.
o (d) Double the casing thickness.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

22. (1.2.8.3-3) In a hydraulic system using the device illustrated, the high pressure return is provided by
__________. GS-0118

o (a) C
 (b) A
o (c) B
o (d) D

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

23. (1.2.8.3-2) Return lines in a non-pressurized hydraulic system reservoir should enter the tank well
below the fluid surface level to __________.

o (a) prevent moisture accumulation


o (b) prevent vacuum formation
 (c) prevent foaming
o (d) accommodate thermal expansion

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

24. (1.2.9.1-1) Which of the following direct-reading pressure gauges is capable of measuring and
displaying both positive and negative pressures?

o (a) Simplex gauge


o (b) Differential pressure gauge
o (c) Duplex gauge
 (d) Compound gauge

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

6 August 2014
United States Coast Guard General Subjects-QMED
National Maritime Center March 2014

25. (1.2.9.1-2) Which of the following direct-reading pressure gauges is capable of measuring and
displaying two pressures simultaneously?

o (a) Compound gauge


 (b) Duplex gauge
o (c) Differential pressure gauge
o (d) Simplex gauge

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

26. (1.2.9.1-3) Which of the following direct-reading pressure gauges is capable of measuring two
pressures and displaying the difference between the two?

o (a) Simplex gauge


o (b) Compound gauge
 (c) Differential pressure gauge
o (d) Duplex gauge

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

27. (1.2.9.1-4) Which of the following direct-reading gauges would most likely be used in the application
of a pump suction pressure gauge?

o (a) Differential pressure gauge


o (b) Vacuum gauge
 (c) Compound gauge
o (d) Standard pressure gauge

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

28. (1.2.9.1-10) If a standard bourdon tube type pressure gauge that is designed to measure and
display gauge pressure reads 43.8 psig, what would be the equivalent absolute pressure?

o (a) 29.1 psia


o (b) 43.8 psia
 (c) 58.5 psia
o (d) 61.2 psia

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

29. (1.2.9.2-1) What type of direct reading thermometer works on the principle of thermal volumetric
expansion of a liquid as the temperature rises and features a linear scale?

o (a) Thermocouple pyrometer


 (b) Liquid-in-glass thermometer
o (c) Bourdon tube thermometer
o (d) Bimetallic thermometer

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

7 August 2014
United States Coast Guard General Subjects-QMED
National Maritime Center March 2014

30. (1.2.9.2-2) What type of direct reading thermometer works on the principle of differential expansion
of dissimilar metals as the temperature rises and features a rotary dial scale?

 (a) Bimetallic thermometer


o (b) Liquid-in-glass thermometer
o (c) Bourdon tube thermometer
o (d) Thermocouple pyrometer

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

31. (1.2.9.2-4) What is the application for a temperature measuring device known as a thermocouple
pyrometer?

o (a) Low to moderate temperature applications such as refrigeration and air conditioning.
o (b) Extremely low temperature applications such as cryogenics.
 (c) Extremely high temperature applications such as boiler or engine exhaust temperatures.
o (d) Moderate to high temperature applications such as engine cooling and lubrication.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

32. (1.2.9.2-10) If the mercury has become separated in a liquid-in-glass thermometer, what can be
done to correct this situation?

o (a) After removing the thermometer, hold the thermometer by the upper end and try to recombine
the mercury by several full arm swings.
o (b) Repeatedly tap the side of the thermometer until the mercury recombines.
 (c) After removing the thermometer, hold the thermometer by the lower end and try to recombine
the mercury by several full arm swings.
o (d) It is not possible to correct this situation.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

33. (1.2.9.3-1) What statement is true concerning the vent pipes and sounding tubes associated with a
vented tank?

o (a) Both the vent pipe and the sounding tube attach to and end at an opening at the top of the
tank.
 (b) The vent pipe attaches to and ends at an opening at the top of the tank, and the sounding
tube passes through the tank top and extends almost to the tank bottom.
o (c) Both the vent pipe and the sounding tube pass through the tank top and extend almost to the
tank bottom.
o (d) The sounding tube attaches to and ends at an opening at the top of the tank, and the vent
pipe passes through the tank top and extends almost to the tank bottom.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

8 August 2014
United States Coast Guard General Subjects-QMED
National Maritime Center March 2014

34. (1.2.9.3-2) What statement best represents the characteristics of an innage tape and bob for the
purposes of taking a vented tank sounding?

o (a) The bob has a cupped end and sinks in the liquid when lowered by the tape.
 (b) The bob has a pointed end and sinks in the liquid when lowered by the tape.
o (c) The bob has a cupped end and floats on the surface of the liquid when lowered by the tape.
o (d) The bob has a pointed end and floats on the surface of the liquid when lowered by the tape.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

35. (1.2.9.3-3) What statement best represents the characteristics of an ullage tape and bob for the
purposes of taking a vented tank sounding?

o (a) The bob has a pointed end and sinks in the liquid when lowered by the tape.
o (b) The bob has a cupped end and sinks in the liquid when lowered by the tape.
 (c) The bob has a cupped end and floats on the surface of the liquid when lowered by the tape.
o (d) The bob has a pointed end and floats on the surface of the liquid when lowered by the tape.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

36. (1.2.9.3-4) What statement best represents the characteristics of innage and ullage tank
soundings?

o (a) Innage is the distance between the surface of the liquid and the top of the tank, and ullage is
the distance between the surface of the liquid and the bottom of the tank.
o (b) Innage is the distance between the oil/water interface and bottom of the tank, and ullage is the
distance between the oil/water interface and the top of the tank.
o (c) Innage is the distance between the oil/water interface and top of the tank, and ullage is the
distance between the oil/water interface and the bottom of the tank.
 (d) Innage is the distance between the surface of the liquid and the bottom of the tank, and ullage
is the distance between the surface of the liquid and the top of the tank.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

37. (1.2.9.3-5) When determining the level of a potable water hydro pneumatic header tank fitted with a
tubular sight glass, what must be taken into consideration?

o (a) The sight glass must be drained, blown down, and re-filled before each reading is taken.
o (b) The actual water level in the hydro pneumatic header tank is somewhat higher than the level
shown in the sight glass.
o (c) The actual water level in the hydro pneumatic header tank is somewhat lower than the level
shown in the sight glass.
 (d) The actual water level in the hydro pneumatic header tank is identical to the level shown in the
sight glass.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

9 August 2014
United States Coast Guard General Subjects-QMED
National Maritime Center March 2014

38. (1.2.9.4-1) Which of the following measurements would be an example of total flow?

 (a) cubic meters


o (b) cubic meters per hour
o (c) pounds per hour
o (d) gallons per minute

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

39. (1.2.9.4-2) Which of the following measurements would be an example of flow rate?

o (a) barrels
o (b) meters per second
 (c) cubic meters per hour
o (d) gallons

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

40. (1.2.9.4-3) Which of the following is an example of a flow meter which has associated with it a float
for flow indication purposes?

o (a) A turbine type flow meter


o (b) A differential pressure flow meter
 (c) A variable volume flow meter (rotameter)
o (d) A nutating disc flow meter

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

41. (1.2.10-1) For any piece of equipment requiring lubrication, what is the single most important
lubricating oil property in meeting the operating conditions?

o (a) Total base number


o (b) Flash point
o (c) Pour point
 (d) Viscosity

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

42. (1.2.10-2) For a lubricating oil, what is the relationship between viscosity and temperature?

o (a) As the temperature of a lubricating oil increases, the viscosity of the lubricating oil may
increase or decrease, depending upon the lubricant.
o (b) As the temperature of a lubricating oil varies in either direction, the viscosity of the lubricating
oil remains constant.
o (c) As the temperature of a lubricating oil increases, the viscosity of the lubricating oil also
increases.
 (d) As the temperature of a lubricating oil increases, the viscosity of the lubricating oil decreases.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

10 August 2014
United States Coast Guard General Subjects-QMED
National Maritime Center March 2014

43. (1.2.10-3) What statement is true concerning viscosity index as it applies to lubricating oils?

o (a) An oil with a high viscosity index would have a relatively high rate of change of viscosity as the
pressure changes.
 (b) An oil with a high viscosity index would have a relatively low rate of change of viscosity as the
temperature changes.
o (c) An oil with a high viscosity index would have a relatively low rate of change of viscosity as the
pressure changes.
o (d) An oil with a high viscosity index would have a relatively high rate of change of viscosity as the
temperature changes.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

44. (1.2.10-4) What type of grease is the most commonly used aboard ship?

o (a) Lime-based grease


 (b) Lithium-based grease
o (c) Calcium-based grease
o (d) Aluminum-based grease

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

45. (1.2.10-7) If an engine lubricating oil's viscosity is given as 20W-50, what does this mean?
o
 (a) The oil is formulated to meet the low temperature requirements of SAE 20W oil and the 100 C
(high) temperature requirements of SAE 50 oil and as such is a year-round oil.
o
o (b) The oil is formulated to meet the 100 C (high) temperature requirements of SAE 20W oil and
the low temperature requirements of SAE 50 oil and as such is a year-round oil.
o (c) The oil is a mixture of equal amounts of SAE 20W and SAE 50 oil and as such is a year-round
oil.
o (d) The oil is a mixture of equal amounts of SAE 20W and SAE 50W oil and as such is a year-
round oil.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

46. (1.2.1.1-1) An air compressor is equipped with an intercooler and an after cooler to __________.

o (a) reduce the compressed air charge density


o (b) prevent overheating of first stage valves
o (c) inject water vapor into the compressed air
 (d) increase compressor efficiency and economy

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

11 August 2014
United States Coast Guard General Subjects-QMED
National Maritime Center March 2014

47. (1.2.1.1-3) For any given volume of compressed air produced by a multistage air compressor,
interstage cooling will __________.

o (a) allow isothermal compression of the air charge


 (b) decrease the power required for compression
o (c) increase the power required for compression
o (d) allow the compressed air volume to remain constant

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

48. (1.2.2.1-5) The usual method of unloading a low pressure air compressor at start-up is
accomplished by __________.

o (a) temporarily discharging to the air receiver


o (b) the use of a precharged accumulator
 (c) holding the suction valve open
o (d) holding the discharge valve open

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

49. (1.2.1.1-7) Which one of the following is a difference between a typical relief valve and a typical
safety valve?

o (a) The actuator closing spring on a relief valve is in a compressed state whereas the actuator
closing spring on a safety valve acts in tension.
o (b) Relief valves are capable of being gagged whereas safety valves are not.
 (c) A relief valve gradually opens as pressure increases above set point pressure whereas a
safety valve fully opens at the set point pressure.
o (d) The blow down of a relief valve is greater than the blow down of a safety valve.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

50. (1.2.1.1-9) One of the functions of the component labeled "E", shown in the illustration, is to
__________. GS-0119

o (a) act as a cyclonic oil separator


o (b) act solely as a heat exchanger
 (c) act as a lube oil sump
o (d) provide storage for compressed cryogenic gases

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

12 August 2014
United States Coast Guard General Subjects-QMED
National Maritime Center March 2014

51. (1.2.1.1-11) One of the functions of the component labeled "E", shown in the illustration, is to
__________. GS-0119

o (a) act solely as a heat exchanger


o (b) act as a cyclonic pneumatic dehydrator
o (c) provide storage for compressed cryogenic gases
 (d) act as a lube oil sump

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

52. (1.2.1.2-1) The components indicated as "7" and "8" as shown in the illustration, are known as the
__________. GS-0153

o (a) first stage oil separator and drip pan


o (b) second stage oil separator and drip pan
o (c) outlet weir and outlet baffle
 (d) inlet weir and inlet baffle

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

53. (1.2.1.2-3) The function of item "7" shown in the illustration is to __________. GS-0153

o (a) direct the flow of the oily-water mixture against the coalescer bed
o (b) support the tank access panel
 (c) prevent separated oil from mixing with the incoming bilge water
o (d) allow the oil accumulated to exit the device, while remaining separated from the liquid

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

54. (1.2.1.2-5) The line labeled "C", as shown in the illustration would be identified as the ______. GS-
0175

o (a) oil discharge line


 (b) clean water flushing line
o (c) oily bilge water inlet
o (d) tank drain line

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

55. (1.2.1.2-7) The line labeled "G", as shown in the illustration would be identified as the ______. GS-
0175

 (a) separated oil outlet


o (b) oily bilge water inlet
o (c) clean water flushing line
o (d) processed bilge water outlet

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

13 August 2014
United States Coast Guard General Subjects-QMED
National Maritime Center March 2014

56. (1.2.1.2-9) If item "1" shown in the illustration is a compound gage indicating zero psig and the
water level in the bilges is one foot high, the unit is __________. GS-0153

 (a) not turned on


o (b) damaged and should not be used
o (c) processing the bilge water
o (d) in the oil discharge mode

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

57. (1.2.1.3-1) In order to obtain the best performance with a lube oil purifier, the lube oil inlet
temperature should __________.

o (a) never exceed the highest main engine bearing temperature


 (b) be maintained in a temperature range of 160°F to a maximum of 180°F
o (c) be equal to the normal lube oil cooler outlet temperature
o (d) be equal to main lube oil sump temperature

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

58. (1.2.1.3-3) Which of the following statements concerning the operation of a lube oil purifier is
correct?

 (a) They should be operated at maximum design speed and recommended operating capacity.
o (b) They should be operated as slowly as possible to ensure a long service life.
o (c) They should not be primed with water when operated as a separator.
o (d) They should be operated as clarifiers for optimum moisture removal.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

59. (1.2.1.3-5) The water seal in a centrifuge, operating at normal speed, prevents the lube oil from
discharging from the water outlet. Another function of the seal is to __________.

o (a) provide a means of 'washing' the oil as it passes through the bowl
o (b) keep the bowl at a temperature below that of the lube oil input
o (c) develop permanent emulsions with the lube oil
 (d) provide an area for separated water to pass and create a path to remove the water from the
bowl

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

60. (1.2.1.3-7) Of the many impurities commonly found in marine lubricating oil, which of the following
CANNOT be removed by a centrifugal purifier at normal operating speeds and temperatures?

 (a) Diesel fuel oil


o (b) Metal particles
o (c) Water
o (d) Carbon particles

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

14 August 2014
United States Coast Guard General Subjects-QMED
National Maritime Center March 2014

61. (1.2.1.4-1) Which of the listed substances can be satisfactorily removed from diesel fuel by
centrifuging?

 (a) Sludge
o (b) Gasoline
o (c) Fuel oil
o (d) Lube oil

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

62. (1.2.1.4-2) Whether using a centrifuge or a simple filter, oil cleaning and filtration will be the most
effective when the oil is at a __________.

o (a) high temperature and a high viscosity


 (b) high temperature and a low viscosity
o (c) low temperature and a high viscosity
o (d) low temperature and a low viscosity

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

63. (1.2.1.4-3) For optimum results, centrifugal purification of heavy fuel oil should be accomplished
with the fuel at the lowest practicable __________.

 (a) throughput
o (b) additive percent
o (c) cetane number
o (d) TBN number

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

64. (1.2.1.4-4) Which factor determines the size of the ring dam for a fuel oil centrifugal purifier?

o (a) The viscosity of the fuel.


o (b) The quantity of water to be removed from the fuel.
 (c) The specific gravity of the fuel.
o (d) The quantity of dirt to be removed from the fuel.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

65. (1.2.4.5-2) Which of the following sewage handling technologies would be associated with
maintaining a culture of aerobic bacteria?

 (a) Biological sewage plant


o (b) Sewage holding tank
o (c) Direct overboard sewage discharge
o (d) Chemical treatment plant

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

15 August 2014
United States Coast Guard General Subjects-QMED
National Maritime Center March 2014

66. (1.2.4.5-3) By what means is biological sewage treatment plant effluent disinfected before
discharge overboard?

o (a) Disinfection is not required on biological sewage treatment plants.


o (b) Ultraviolet light irradiation is the only approved means of disinfection.
 (c) Hypochlorite tablets or liquid solution and ultraviolet irradiation are both approved means of
disinfection.
o (d) Hypochlorite tablets or liquid solution is the only approved means of disinfection.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

67. (1.2.5-5) Besides promoting mixing of the bacterial population with the fecal waste material, what is
the purpose of aeration system as used in a biological sewage treatment plant?

o (a) The air provides an oxygen source for the aerobic bacteria required for metabolism, and it
helps promote settling in the aeration chamber.
o (b) The air provides an oxygen source for the anaerobic bacteria required for metabolism, and it
helps promote settling in the aeration chamber.
o (c) The air provides an oxygen source for the anaerobic bacteria required for metabolism, and it
helps prevent settling in the aeration chamber.
 (d) The air provides an oxygen source for the aerobic bacteria required for metabolism, and it
helps prevent settling in the aeration chamber.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

68. (1.2.4.6-1) Auxiliary boilers are divided into several classifications, one of which is __________.

o (a) water-tube supercritical circulation


 (b) water-tube forced circulation
o (c) fire-tube controlled circulation
o (d) fire-tube express circulation

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

69. (1.2.4.6-3) Bottom blow valves are installed on auxiliary water-tube boilers to __________.

o (a) completely drain the boiler in an emergency


o (b) prevent sludge from forming in the steam drum
o (c) remove floating impurities from the boiler water surface
 (d) remove settled solids from the water drum

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

70. (1.2.4.6-4) The purpose of try-cocks used on an auxiliary boiler is to __________.

 (a) provide an alternate means of determining the water level, if the gage glass fails
o (b) provide a means of adding chemical feed to the boiler water
o (c) provide a means for blowing down the gage glass
o (d) act as a steam sentinel valve, if any of the fusible plugs should melt

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

16 August 2014
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71. (1.2.4.6-7) The tube sheets installed in a fire-tube auxiliary boiler are normally connected by
__________.

o (a) girder stays


 (b) fire-tubes and stay-tubes
o (c) external boiler plating
o (d) separate crown sheets

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

72. (1.2.4.6-10) The primary function of a flame safeguard system, as used on an automatically fired
auxiliary boiler, is to prevent __________.

o (a) accidental dry firing and overpressure


o (b) uncontrolled fires in the furnace
 (c) explosions in the boiler furnace
o (d) overheating of the pressure parts

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

73. (1.2.4.7-1) The control of exhaust temperature on a solid waste/sludge incinerator is critical. How
this temperature is normally controlled?

o (a) The exhaust temperature is controlled by regulating by the admission of combustion air into
the combustion chamber.
o (b) The exhaust temperature is controlled by regulating the admission of auxiliary fuel to the
burner.
o (c) The exhaust temperature is controlled by regulating the exhaust gas flow.
 (d) The exhaust temperature is controlled by regulating the admission of relatively cool ambient
air into the exhaust stream.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

74. (1.2.4.7-2) How is solid trash and garbage generally admitted to a solid-waste incinerator on most
ships?

o (a) The trash is admitted via a ram feed system.


o (b) The trash is admitted via screw feed system.
 (c) The trash is admitted manually via a loading door.
o (d) The trash is admitted via a chute.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

17 August 2014
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75. (1.2.4.7-3) In burning oily-waste sludge in a solid-waste/sludge incinerator, what statement is true?

o (a) Cooling of the sludge is required to obtain the correct viscosity, and auxiliary fuel is required if
the water content of the sludge is too low to support combustion on sludge alone.
 (b) Heating of the sludge is required to obtain the correct viscosity, and auxiliary fuel is required if
the water content of the sludge is too high to support combustion on sludge alone.
o (c) Cooling of the sludge is required to obtain the correct viscosity, and auxiliary fuel is required if
the water content of the sludge is too high to support combustion on sludge alone.
o (d) Heating of the sludge is required to obtain the correct viscosity, and auxiliary fuel is required if
the water content of the sludge is too low to support combustion on sludge alone.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

76. (1.2.2-1) Back injuries are one of the most common injuries that result in lost work time. What is the
proper technique for lifting an object?

o (a) Bend over and grasp the object firmly. While keeping the legs straight, lift the object by
straightening the back. Move the object while standing erect and keep object away from the body.
o (b) Bend the knees and grasp the object loosely. While keeping the back straight, lift the object by
straightening the legs. Move the object while standing erect and keep object away from the body.
o (c) Bend over and grasp the object loosely. While keeping the legs straight, lift the object by
straightening the back. Move the object while standing erect and keep object close to the body.
 (d) Bend the knees and grasp the object firmly. While keeping the back straight, lift the object by
straightening the legs. Move the object while standing erect and keep object close to the body.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

77. (1.2.2-2) What is the best protection against hand injuries from pinch points associated with being
required to perform maintenance or repairs on rotating machinery?

o (a) Donning the appropriate head protection such as a hard hat.


 (b) Properly locking out and tagging out the machine before work begins.
o (c) Donning the appropriate hand protection such as work gloves.
o (d) Donning the appropriate foot protection such as steel-toed safety shoes.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

78. (1.2.2-4) Steel-toed safety shoes are recommended for many types of work. What type of work
activity would be an exception to the rule and where steel-toed shoes would NOT be
recommended?

o (a) Welding fabrications work


o (b) Rigging and hoisting work
o (c) Machine shop work
 (d) Electrical maintenance work

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

18 August 2014
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79. (1.2.2-5) What type of eye protection affords the best protection from dust and air-borne abrasives?

o (a) Standard safety glasses


o (b) Side-shielded safety glasses
 (c) Eyecup safety goggles
o (d) Full-face shield

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

80. (1.2.2-8) What type of respiratory protection provides the greatest protection from the various
respiratory hazards, is specifically designed for emergency and rescue situations, but has time
constraints associated with its use?

o (a) Emergency escape breathing apparatus


o (b) Powered air-purifying respirator
o (c) Reusable full-mask respirator
 (d) Self-contained breathing apparatus

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

81. (1.2.3.1-1) The size of ball and roller bearings can be identified by the __________.

o (a) rolling member size


o (b) inner race cone width
 (c) manufacturer's numerical code
o (d) outer ring width

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

82. (1.2.3.1-2) Which of the following statements describes the characteristics of precision
manufactured roller bearings?

o (a) They have a relatively high power loss due to friction.


o (b) They are not capable of maintaining alignment over long periods of time.
o (c) Their lubrication is complicated and requires constant attention.
 (d) They are well adapted to variable speed operation.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

83. (1.2.3.1-3) Which of the listed types of bearings is an example of a half bearing?

o (a) Thrust bearing


o (b) Piston pin bushing
 (c) Spring bearing
o (d) All of the above.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

19 August 2014
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84. (1.2.3.1-4) An example of an anti-friction bearing is a __________.

o (a) line shaft or spring bearing


o (b) Kingsbury thrust bearing
o (c) rubber cutlass strut bearing
 (d) ball bearing

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

85. (1.2.3.1-4) Which bearing will carry the load on two small points diametrically opposite to each
other?

 (a) Ball
o (b) Roller
o (c) Tapered roller
o (d) Needle

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

86. (1.2.3.1-6) Why do roller bearings have higher loading capacities than ball bearings?

o (a) They have a greater tolerance for high speed applications.


o (b) They are subject to less pitting and metal fatigue.
 (c) They have a greater contact area.
o (d) They are installed with tighter clearances.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

87. (1.2.3.2-3) In a compression type automatic grease cup, the lubricant is forced into the bearing by
__________.

 (a) spring force


o (b) a pressure gun
o (c) a zerk fitting
o (d) gravity flow

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

88. (1.2.3.2-6) To ensure adequate lubrication and to prevent a high operating temperature, the
recommended amount of grease injected into a ball or roller bearing is approximately __________.

o (a) 75-95% of the original void space in the bearing


o (b) 10-25% of the original void space in the bearing
o (c) 50-75% of the original void space in the bearing
 (d) 25-50% of the original void space in the bearing

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

20 August 2014
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89. (1.2.3.2-1) Machinery with ball bearings designed to be filled with grease should have the relief plug
temporarily removed while grease is being added. This plug should remain out until the machinery
has been operated and sufficiently warmed up to ensure that __________.

o (a) all air pockets are vented from the grease


o (b) dirt and grit are flushed from the bearing housing
o (c) the grease is properly distributed within the bearing
 (d) a path of expansion is provided for the grease

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

90. (1.2.3.2-2) When replacing ball bearings on an electric motor shaft, you should __________.

o (a) apply even pressure to the outer race


o (b) apply pressure evenly to both the inner and outer races
 (c) apply even force to the inner race
o (d) tap the outer race with a mallet

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

91. (1.2.3.2-5) Which of the listed tools should be used to remove a tapered roller bearing from a shaft?

o (a) An acetylene torch and hammer


o (b) A tapered 'come-a-long'
o (c) A steel drift pin and hammer
 (d) An arbor press

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

92. (1.2.3.2-4) Which of the following statements is correct concerning antifriction bearings installed on
pumps?

o (a) The inner race should be free to turn on the shaft.


o (b) The outer race should be free to turn in its housing.
o (c) Alignment is not a critical factor in their installation.
 (d) They are usually pressed onto their shafts.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

93. (1.2.3.3-1) Packing extremely soft grease into a roller bearing will cause __________.

o (a) excessive channeling of the grease


 (b) high temperatures to develop as result of churning
o (c) emulsification of the thickener additive
o (d) gelling of the base oil

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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94. (1.2.3.3-2) A ball bearing will overheat if __________.

o (a) filled with grease to 65% of the total open spaces within the bearing
o (b) operated at designed high speed
 (c) completely packed full of grease
o (d) in use for a long time

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

95. (1.2.4-2) What material is most commonly used as a sacrificial anode for the purposes of
minimizing the galvanic corrosion of steel and cast iron?

o (a) Bronze
o (b) Platinum
 (c) Zinc
o (d) Brass

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

96. (1.2.4-3) When an aluminum plate is bolted to a steel plate, what is required at the bolted joint to
minimize bimetallic corrosion?

 (a) The plates should be electrically insulated from one another by use of non-conductive gaskets
and non-conductive ferrule sleeves with the bolts.
o (b) The plates should be bonded together electrically by joining the plates by a bonding strap in
addition to bolting together.
o (c) Steel and aluminum are so close together on the Noble series that no particular provision
need be made for bolting steel and aluminum plates together.
o (d) The plates should be bolted together in such a way as to ensure good electrical contact
between the plates.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

97. (1.2.4-4) Before primers and finish coats may be applied to a metal surface, the surface must be
properly prepared. What statement is true concerning surface preparation?

o (a) Dirt, oil and grease must be removed. Rust and mill scale may remain.
o (b) All dirt, rust and mill scale must be removed. Oil and grease can remain.
 (c) All dirt, oil, grease, rust, mill scale, and loose paint must be removed.
o (d) All previous paint must be removed.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

22 August 2014
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98. (1.2.4-7) In preparing the surface of a metal for application of primers and finish coats, which of the
listed hand tools is appropriate for surfaces with significant pitting?

o (a) Chipping hammer


o (b) Sandpaper
 (c) Wire brush
o (d) Hand scraper

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

99. (1.2.4-8) What is meant by the term "boxing" paint?

 (a) Thoroughly mixing paint by pouring paint back and forth between two cans.
o (b) Thoroughly mixing paint by using a mechanical stirrer.
o (c) Removing the "skin" that has formed on the surface of the paint in the can.
o (d) Stacking paint cans within a suitable box.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

100. (1.2.4-9) When applying paint with a brush, which of the following pairs of techniques are
recommended?

o (a) Brushes should be dipped into the paint to cover the entire length of the bristles, and the paint
should be applied in parallel strokes only.
o (b) Brushes should be dipped into the paint to cover only the ends of the bristles, and the paint
should be applied in cross strokes only.
o (c) Brushes should be dipped into the paint to cover the entire length of the bristles, and the paint
should be applied in cross strokes only.
 (d) Brushes should be dipped into the paint to cover only the ends of the bristles, and the paint
should be applied in parallel strokes only.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

101. (1.2.12-1) When installing DANGER tags when performing a tag-out and lock-out procedure in
preparation for accomplishing maintenance, what is the color of these tags?

o (a) Orange
 (b) Red
o (c) Yellow
o (d) Green

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

23 August 2014
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102. (1.2.12-2) Under what circumstances could equipment be operated when tagged with DANGER
tags?

o (a) Whenever you feel that it is safe to do so.


o (b) Whenever permission is granted by your supervisor.
o (c) Whenever there is a break in the actual maintenance activity.
 (d) Under NO circumstances should the equipment be operated when tagged.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

103. (1.2.12-3) When installing CAUTION tags when performing a tag-out and lock-out procedure in
preparation for accomplishing maintenance, what is the color of these tags?

o (a) Red
 (b) Yellow
o (c) Orange
o (d) Green

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

104. (1.2.12-4) Under what conditions is a DANGER tag installed at equipment control stations in
preparation for performing maintenance or repairs?

 (a) When operation of the equipment will endanger personnel OR harm the equipment.
o (b) When operation of the equipment requires unusual caution to be exercised.
o (c) When operation of the equipment will harm the equipment ONLY.
o (d) When operation of the equipment will endanger personnel ONLY.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

105. (1.2.14.1-1) What is an engine room bilge oily-water separator designed to do?

 (a) Remove small amounts of oil from large amounts of water.


o (b) Remove small amounts of oil from small amounts of water.
o (c) Remove small amounts of water from large amounts of oil.
o (d) Remove small amounts of oil from small amounts of water.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

106. (1.2.14.1-2) What type of fuel oil as part of an oily-water mixture is most likely to have a density
approaching that of water?

o (a) Light distillate oil.


o (b) Marine diesel oil.
o (c) Distillate/residual fuel oil blends.
 (d) Heavy residual fuel oil.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

24 August 2014
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107. (1.2.14.1-3) What statement is true concerning the effect of elevating the temperature of the oily-
water mixture associated with an oily-water separator?

o (a) Heating the oily-water mixture decreases the viscosity of the oil and decreases the specific
gravity differential between the oil and water.
o (b) Heating the oily-water mixture increases the viscosity of the oil and decreases the specific
gravity differential between the oil and water.
 (c) Heating the oily-water mixture decreases the viscosity of the oil and increases the specific
gravity differential between the oil and water.
o (d) Heating the oily-water mixture increases the viscosity of the oil and increases the specific
gravity differential between the oil and water.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

108. (1.2.14.1-4) What statement is true concerning the polishing coalescer filter of an oily-water
separator?

o (a) The coalescing filter is typically a hydrophilic filter meaning that small droplets of
entrained water of the oily-water mixture coalesce on the filter and form large globules of water
that sink to the bottom of the filter housing.
o (b) The coalescing filter is typically an oleophilic filter meaning that small droplets of entrained oil
of the oily-water mixture coalesce on the filter and form large globules of oil that sink to the
bottom of the filter housing.
o (c) The coalescing filter is typically a hydrophilic filter meaning that small droplets of entrained
water of the oily-water mixture coalesce on the filter and form large globules of water that rise to
the top of the filter housing.
 (d) The coalescing filter is typically an oleophilic filter meaning that small droplets of entrained oil
of the oily-water mixture coalesce on the filter and form large globules of oil that rise to the top of
the filter housing.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

109. (1.2.14.1-5) Referring to the illustration, note that the solenoid in line "C" is closed. The check
valve in line "E" is open. The separator service pump is running. The check valve in line "G" is
closed. Valve "B" is closed. Valve "D" is open. What is the operational status of the oily-water
separator unit? (GS-0175)

o (a) The oily-water separator is in the bilge water separation processing mode with water
discharging back to the bilge water holding tank with an oil content less than 15 ppm.
o (b) The oily-water separator is in the bilge water separation processing mode with water
discharging overboard with an oil content less than 15 ppm.
 (c) The oily-water separator is in the bilge water separation processing mode with water
discharging back to the bilge water holding tank with an oil content greater than 15 ppm.
o (d) The oily-water separator is in the bilge water separation processing mode with water
discharging overboard with an oil content greater than 15 ppm.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

25 August 2014
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110. (1.2.15-2) Which of the listed characteristics of fuel oil establishes the danger point as far as
transferring, pumping, and firing procedures are concerned?

o (a) Viscosity
o (b) Fire point
o (c) Specific gravity
 (d) Flash point

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

111. (1.2.15-3) Which characteristic of fuel oil is the most significant when determining the temperature
to which the fuel oil must be heated for proper atomization?

o (a) Flash point


 (b) Viscosity
o (c) Pour point
o (d) Specific gravity

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

112. (1.2.15-1) The property of a fuel oil which is a measurement of its available energy is known as its
__________.

o (a) cetane index


o (b) cetane number
 (c) heating value
o (d) viscosity index

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

113. (1.2.15-4) The BTU value of fuel oil is determined by a/an __________.

o (a) viscosimeter
 (b) calorimeter
o (c) open cup test
o (d) hydrometer

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

114. (1.2.15-6) Which combustible element in fuel oil is considered a significant and major source of
air pollution?

 (a) Sulfur
o (b) Vanadium
o (c) Nitrogen
o (d) Hydrogen

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

26 August 2014
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115. (1.2.17-1) What is the primary purpose of a reach rod as used as a valve remote operator?

o (a) It changes the type of motion normally required to operate the valve.
o (b) It decreases the turning effort required to operate the valve.
o (c) It reverses the direction of rotation normally required to operate the valve.
 (d) It allows for the operation of valves that would otherwise be out of reach.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

116. (1.2.17-3) In what application is a remote valve operator most likely to be located outside the
machinery space when the valve itself is located within the machinery space?

o (a) A valve located in a compressed air line.


o (b) A valve located in potable-water transfer line.
o (c) A valve located in a sea-water cooling line.
 (d) A valve located in a fuel oil transfer line.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

117. (1.2.17-4) Suppose a remote valve operator is fitted with a gearbox. What is the purpose of the
gearbox?

o (a) The gearbox may be used to change the orientation of the hand wheel to the valve stem, or it
may be used to reduce the turning effort, but NEVER both.
 (b) The gearbox may be used to change the orientation of the hand wheel to the valve stem, or it
may be used to reduce the turning effort, OR both.
o (c) The gearbox is strictly used to change the orientation of the hand wheel to the valve stem. The
gearbox is never used to reduce the turning effort.
o (d) The gearbox is strictly used to reduce the turning effort. The gearbox is never used to change
the orientation of the hand wheel to the valve stem.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

118. (1.2.17-5) In what application is an emergency shutdown most likely to be located outside the
machinery space when the pump itself is located within the machinery space?

 (a) Fuel oil transfer pump


o (b) Steering pump
o (c) Lube oil circulating pump
o (d) Fire pump

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

119. (1.2.17-7) What type of valve would be fitted with a quarter-turn power actuator, such as a rack-
and-pinion?

o (a) Non-rising stem gate valve


o (b) Rising stem gate valve
o (c) Globe valve
 (d) Butterfly valve

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

27 August 2014
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120. (1.2.18-1) On a ship with a continuously manned engine room, with a three-person watch
rotation, what is the watch and rest period rotation?

o (a) 8 hours on watch followed by 8 hours rest


o (b) 6 hours on watch followed by 6 hours rest
o (c) 8 hours on watch followed by 4 hours rest
 (d) 4 hours on watch followed by 8 hours rest

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

121. (1.2.18-2) On a ship with a continuously manned engine room, ratings may form part of the
engineering watch. For engine room watch ratings, what is the customary time to relieve the watch?

o (a) On the hour


o (b) Thirty minutes before the hour
o (c) Fifteen minutes after the hour
 (d) Fifteen minutes before the hour

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

122. (1.2.18-5) In terms of the personal safety of an engine room watch standing rating, which alarm
response would be the most immediately critical?

o (a) M/E low lube oil pressure alarm


o (b) M/E high coolant temperature alarm
 (c) E/R fixed CO2 impending release alarm
o (d) General emergency alarm

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

123. (1.2.19.1-3) Setting up a welding job, where the work is the positive pole and the electrode is the
negative pole for the arc, is known as a/an __________.

o (a) inert-arc welding circuit


o (b) reverse polarity welding circuit
 (c) straight polarity welding circuit
o (d) shielded-arc welding circuit

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

124. (1.2.19.1-11) In certain circumstances, weldments are preheated before each pass to
__________.

o (a) increase the temperature gradient in the weld area


o (b) allow the use of smaller welding rods
 (c) reduce internal stresses
o (d) eliminate the need for post heating

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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125. (1.2.19.1-14) The root opening dimension shown in the illustration is used to indicate the
__________. GS-0076

o (a) width across the bottom of the weldment


o (b) penetration depth of the desired weld
o (c) maximum thickness of the completed weld
 (d) distance across the bottom of the "V" groove

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

126. (1.2.19.1-4) The welding process using an electric arc developed between a flux covered
electrode and the metal being welded is known as __________.

o (a) flux cored arc welding


 (b) shielded metal arc welding
o (c) submerged arc welding
o (d) resistance spot welding

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

127. (1.2.19.1-8) The designation E7028-A1 is typically located on an arc welding electrode. Which of
the listed letters and/or digits correctly identifies the welding position for which the electrode is
recommended?

o (a) E
o (b) 70
o (c) A1
 (d) 2

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

128. (1.2.19.2-9) Protective equipment to be used while carrying out oxy-acetylene welding should
always include __________.

 (a) goggles
o (b) ear plugs
o (c) steel toe safety shoes
o (d) non-sparking tools

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

129. (1.2.19.2-4) When welding with an oxy-acetylene outfit, __________.

o (a) open the acetylene valve until the hose pressure is 26 PSIG
o (b) a flashback of flame into the hose is normal
o (c) a leaking hose must be repaired by binding with tape
 (d) open the acetylene cylinder valve only 1/4 to 1/2 turn and leave the wrench on the valve stem

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

29 August 2014
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130. (1.2.19.2-8) Which of the following practices is considered to be safe for the handling and use of
compressed gas cylinders?

o (a) Using oxygen as a substitute for compressed air for pneumatic tools.
o (b) Cracking the valve on a hydrogen cylinder to clear dust and dirt.
 (c) The storage of the cylinders in a well ventilated compartment.
o (d) Routinely greasing or lubricating the valves on oxygen cylinders.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

131. (1.2.19.2-3) When securing an oxy-acetylene cutting outfit for an extended period, you should
close the __________.

 (a) cylinder valves and close torch valves when pressure in hoses and regulators is zero
o (b) cylinder valves and close torch valves with 4 to 5 pounds of pressure in the hoses
o (c) cylinder valves only
o (d) hand valves on the torch only

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

132. (1.2.19.2-10) Which of the following is true concerning the hose threads on compressed gas oxy-
acetylene regulators and torches?

o (a) The torch oxygen inlet hose thread connection is "left handed".
o (b) The acetylene regulator hose outlet thread connection is "right handed".
o (c) The oxygen regulator hose outlet thread connection is "left handed".
 (d) The torch acetylene inlet hose thread connection is "left handed".

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

133. (1.2.19.3-4) Solder is an alloy of __________.

o (a) copper and lead


o (b) beryllium and antimony
 (c) tin and lead
o (d) silicon and selenium

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

134. (1.2.19.3-1) Solder used for joining metal surfaces should have a __________.

 (a) melting point lower than that of the metals being joined
o (b) coating of Borax flux to raise the melting point
o (c) composition of lead and tin if the solder is the 'hard' type
o (d) fusing point much higher than that of the metals being joined

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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135. (1.2.19.3-2) Tinning a soldering iron will __________.

o (a) add extra weight to the tip


o (b) prevent the tip from overheating
 (c) prevent tip oxidation when heated
o (d) protect the tip from scratches

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

136. (1.2.19.3-3) Flux is used when soldering, in order to __________.

o (a) ensure proper tinning


o (b) make the solder "flow"
o (c) decrease the melting point of the solder
 (d) clean the joint area

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

137. (1.2.11.6-4) The purpose of annealing any metal is to make the metal __________.

o (a) tougher
o (b) harder
o (c) smoother
 (d) softer

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

138. (1.2.11.6-1) The ability of a metal to be hammered, or rolled out is called its __________.

o (a) ductibility
o (b) elasticity
 (c) malleability
o (d) fusibility

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

139. (1.2.11.6-3) When hardened metal is heat-treated by a process known as tempering, what
metallurgical properties are achieved?

o (a) increase in brittleness


o (b) increase in corrosion resistance
o (c) increase in hardening
 (d) decrease in brittleness

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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140. (1.2.11.6-5) Ferrous metals are metals containing __________.

o (a) a large percentage of copper


o (b) no iron
o (c) a large percentage of aluminum
 (d) a large percentage of iron

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

141. (1.2.11.6-2) Reheating a hardened component to a temperature lower than the hardening
temperature and then cooling it is known as __________.

o (a) case hardening


o (b) low temperature hardening
o (c) annealing
 (d) tempering

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

142. (1.2.11.8.1-3) If the distances "A" and/or "B" as shown in the illustration are excessively
increased, the tool will __________. GS-0085

o (a) take a deeper cut in the work


o (b) slip in the tool post
 (c) chatter
o (d) take a shallow cut

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

143. (1.2.11.8.1-8) The taper produced by a lathe taper attachment is determined by setting the
__________.

o (a) automatic cross feed


o (b) tailstock off center
 (c) guide (swivel) bar
o (d) compound rest angle

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

144. (1.2.11.8.1-9) To obtain a 1/2 inch per foot taper on an 18 inch work piece, the tailstock of the
lathe must be set over __________.

o (a) 3/4 inch


o (b) 7/8 inch
 (c) 3/8 inch
o (d) 1/2 inch

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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145. (1.2.11.8.1-1) Which of the following statements represents the difference between a four-jaw
independent chuck and a three-jaw universal chuck?

o (a) The jaws on the three-jaw chuck can be individually adjusted.


o (b) Since the three-jaw universal chuck is automatically self-centering, it is always more accurate
than the four-jaw independent chuck.
 (c) The jaws on the four-jaw chuck can be individually adjusted.
o (d) The three-jaw chuck will hold square, round, and irregular shapes in either a concentric or an
eccentric position.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

146. (1.2.11.8.1-2) A tailstock 'dead center' has been given that name because it __________.

o (a) is dead centered on the tailstock spindle


o (b) must be removed by clamping in the chuck
o (c) fits into the dead center of the work piece
 (d) does not revolve

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

147. (1.2.11.8.2-4) If you are machining work held between lathe centers, and the lathe centers begin
to squeal, you should first __________.

o (a) run the lathe at a slower speed


 (b) stop the lathe
o (c) change the cutting bit
o (d) lubricate the centers

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

148. (1.2.11.8.1-5) For proper support when turning a long thin piece of work between lathe centers,
you should use a __________.

o (a) compound rest


o (b) draw-in collet chuck
 (c) steady rest
o (d) faceplate

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

149. (1.2.11.8.1-6) A follower rest should be used with a lathe to machine __________.

o (a) round stock to a finished dimension


o (b) large diameter stock between centers
o (c) work mounted on the lathe carriage
 (d) threads on long slender shafts

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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150. (1.2.11.8.1-7) Work that cannot readily be mounted between lathe centers is usually held in a
__________.

o (a) spindle
o (b) lathe dog
o (c) crotch center
 (d) chuck

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

151. (1.2.11.8.1-10) The best tool to use to measure the number of threads per inch on a bolt is a
__________.

o (a) pair of outside calipers


o (b) micrometer
o (c) tap
 (d) screw pitch gauge

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

152. (1.2.11.8.2-5) The tool shown in the illustration is called a __________. GS-0072

 (a) center gage


o (b) crotch center
o (c) thread gage
o (d) drill gage

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

153. (1.2.11.8.2-8) The lathe tool shown as figure "U" in the illustration is commonly known as a/an
__________. GS-0090

o (a) left cut side-facing tool


o (b) right side end facing tool
 (c) cutting-off tool
o (d) universal turning tool

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

154. (1.2.11.8.2-9) Which of the illustrated lathe tools would be used to produce a smooth finish cut for
figure I? GS-0009

 (a) A
o (b) F
o (c) G
o (d) D

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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155. (1.2.11.8.2-11) The lathe tool shown as figure "T" in the illustration is commonly known as a/an
__________. GS-0090

o (a) left-cut knurling tool


o (b) right-cut side-facing tool
o (c) left-cut side-facing tool
 (d) right-cut roughing tool

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

156. (1.2.11.8.2-12) The lathe tools shown as figure "M" in the illustration are commonly known as
__________. GS-0090

o (a) universal turning tools


o (b) parting tools
 (c) form tools
o (d) curvature cutting tools

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

157. (1.2.11.8.2-1) Which single illustrated lathe tool could be used to turn down the stock in figure II?
GS-0009

o (a) C
o (b) A
 (c) B
o (d) G

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

158. (1.2.11.8.2-4) The lathe tool shown as "Q" in the illustration is a __________. GS-0090

o (a) cutting-off tool


o (b) universal turning tool
 (c) left hand side facing tool
o (d) right hand turning tool

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

159. (1.2.11.8.2-6) The main difference between a common lathe dog and a safety lathe dog is that
the latter __________.

o (a) allows for misaligned center holes


o (b) has a spring loaded catch
 (c) has a headless set screw
o (d) is more easily centered

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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160. (1.2.11.8.2-7) Which of the illustrated figures represents the use of a right hand roughing tool?
GS-0090

o (a) Figure S
o (b) Figure V
 (c) Figure T
o (d) Figure P

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

161. (1.2.11.8.2-10) The lathe tool shown as figure "R" in the illustration would best be used to
__________. GS-0090

o (a) perform a left-cut rough turning operation


o (b) form a left-cut groove
 (c) form a right-cut square shoulder
o (d) perform a right-cut rough turning operation

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

162. (1.2.11.8.2-2) In machine shop practice, a center gage is used for checking the angle of
__________.

o (a) drill points


 (b) 60° thread cutting tools
o (c) screw threads
o (d) screw thread pitch

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

163. (1.2.11.8.2-3) Which lathe tool shown in the illustration would best be used on a work piece to
perform a right hand facing operation? GS-0090

o (a) V
 (b) R
o (c) Q
o (d) P

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

164. (1.2.11.9-6) If a micrometer were opened to a distance of 0.0001 inch, you would say the reading
is __________.

o (a) ten millionths of an inch


 (b) one ten thousandth of an inch
o (c) one millionth of an inch
o (d) ten one thousandths of an inch

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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165. (1.2.11.9-7) A micrometer screw has a pitch of __________.

o (a) 100 threads per inch


o (b) 50 threads per inch
o (c) 75 threads per inch
 (d) 40 threads per inch

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

166. (1.2.11.9-8) One turn of the micrometer barrel will linearly move the spindle __________.

o (a) 0.250 inch


 (b) 0.025 inch
o (c) 0.205 inch
o (d) 0.110 inch

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

167. (1.2.11.9-3) To check the thickness of a piece of thin shim stock before using it to make a bearing
shim, you should use a __________.

o (a) machinist's rule


o (b) feeler gage
 (c) micrometer
o (d) depth gage

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

168. (1.2.11.9-9) The most accurate method of measuring the setting of an inside caliper is to use a/an
__________.

 (a) outside micrometer


o (b) dial indicator
o (c) engineer's scale
o (d) thread micrometer

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

169. (1.2.11.9-11) Many micrometers are equipped with a ratchet stop at the end of the thimble to
__________.

o (a) click at each increment of measure


 (b) prevent the user from closing the tool with too much force
o (c) stop the spindle from sliding out of the barrel
o (d) eliminate ratchet movement

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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170. (1.2.11.9-1) To determine the diameter of a small hole, which of the listed tools must be used with
inside calipers to get an accurate reading?

o (a) None of the above


 (b) Micrometer
o (c) A Center gage
o (d) Wire gage

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

171. (1.2.11.9-2) To measure the diameter of a piece of round stock, you should use a __________.

o (a) dial indicator


o (b) wire gauge
 (c) micrometer
o (d) circular slide rule

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

172. (1.2.11.9-4) The correct torque value for a micrometer torque wrench is reached when
__________.

o (a) a dial lights on the handle


o (b) the scale is read on the handle
o (c) the dial is read on the handle
 (d) an audible click is heard and the handle releases

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

173. (1.2.11.9-5) The rotating part of a micrometer is the known as the __________.

 (a) thimble
o (b) frame
o (c) sleeve
o (d) anvil

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

174. (1.2.11.1.1-3) Which of the listed types of files is the best for producing a fine finish on metal?

o (a) Float
o (b) Second cut
 (c) Mill
o (d) Warding

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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175. (1.2.11.1.1-5) A file handle is fitted to the file's __________.

 (a) tang
o (b) taper
o (c) point
o (d) heel

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

176. (1.2.11.1.1-1) Which of the following types of files is generally used for finishing?

o (a) A double cut file


 (b) A single cut file
o (c) Any bastard cut file
o (d) Only a double bastard cut file

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

177. (1.2.11.1.1-4) A metal file has become clogged with filings and should be cleaned with a file
__________.

o (a) scraper
 (b) card
o (c) dressing tool
o (d) oilstone

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

178. (1.2.11.1.1-2) Double cut files are most effective when used for __________.

o (a) finish work


 (b) rough work
o (c) draw filing
o (d) sharpening tools

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

179. (1.2.11.1.1-6) Heavy pressure on the ends of a file will cause the work surface to become
__________.

o (a) smooth
o (b) rough
 (c) rounded
o (d) tapered

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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180. (1.2.11.1.2-2) To properly install a new blade in a hand hacksaw frame, the __________.

o (a) teeth should point toward the handle


o (b) blade can be installed in any position for normal use
o (c) blade should be kept loose in the frame
 (d) teeth should point away from the handle

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

181. (1.2.11.1.2-3) Proper hacksaw cutting is accomplished when pressure is applied only on the
__________.

o (a) front of the hacksaw frame


o (b) backward stroke
 (c) forward stroke
o (d) top of the hacksaw frame

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

182. (1.2.11.1.2-5) When coming to the end of a cut using a hand hacksaw, you should __________.

 (a) reduce cutting speed and pressure


o (b) increase cutting speed and pressure
o (c) change to a finer cut blade
o (d) stop applying the cutting fluid

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

183. (1.2.11.1.2-8) When cutting sheet metal too thin to be held in your hand while using a hand held
hacksaw, the sheet metal should be placed between two __________.

o (a) pieces of sand paper


o (b) pieces of cloth
o (c) blocks of steel
 (d) blocks of wood

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

184. (1.2.11.1.2-9) Which of the saws listed would be more suitable for cutting metal in tight quarters
or flush to a surface where a hand held hacksaw frame could not be used?

o (a) Coping saw


 (b) Stab saw
o (c) Hole saw
o (d) Back saw

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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185. (1.2.11.1.2-10) A saw blade produced of bonded tungsten-carbide particles and mounted in a
hacksaw frame is known as a __________.

 (a) rod saw blade


o (b) hardened blade
o (c) flexible blade
o (d) wave set blade

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

186. (1.2.11.1.2-1) To cut angle iron and heavy pipe with a hand hacksaw, you should use a blade
with what number of teeth per inch?

o (a) 32
 (b) 24
o (c) 18
o (d) 14

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

187. (1.2.11.1.2-6) The term referring to the number of teeth per inch on a hacksaw blade is known as
the __________.

o (a) set
 (b) pitch
o (c) rake
o (d) thread gauge

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

188. (1.2.11.1.2-7) When using a hand held hacksaw the correct maximum rate of speed for cutting
should be __________.

o (a) 70 to 80 strokes per minute


 (b) 40 to 50 strokes per minute
o (c) 10 to 20 strokes per minute
o (d) 80 to 100 strokes per minute

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

189. (1.2.11.1.2-4) A hacksaw blade will start a cut more easily if you __________.

 (a) file a nick where the cut is to be started


o (b) turn the saw blade at right angles to the saw frame
o (c) coat the saw blade with soap before starting the cut
o (d) apply maximum pressure at the start of the cut

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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190. (1.2.11.1.2-11) A hacksaw blade will break if __________.

o (a) the blade becomes loose in the frame


 (b) all the above
o (c) the rate of cutting is too great
o (d) too much pressure is applied to the blade

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

191. (1.2.11.1.3-4) Open end wrenches are __________.

o (a) intended for gripping round objects


o (b) used with a speeder handle
 (c) nonadjustable solid wrenches
o (d) not suitable for tubing fittings

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

192. (1.2.11.1.3-7) A pipe, or Stillson wrench functions best when __________.

o (a) the wrench jaws are at the widest open setting


 (b) the bite is taken midway up the jaw teeth
o (c) a maximum pull is exerted with one hand
o (d) an extension is placed on the wrench handle

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

193. (1.2.11.1.3-8) Large size pipe can be easily rotated with a __________.

o (a) strong back


 (b) chain pipe wrench
o (c) basin wrench
o (d) monkey wrench

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

194. (1.2.11.1.3-2) Needle nosed pliers are best used to __________.

o (a) tighten electrical wire clamps


 (b) grasp items positioned in tight places
o (c) cut recessed cotter pins
o (d) strip insulation from electric wire or cable

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

195. (1.2.11.1.3-3) Which of the wrenches listed practically eliminates the possibility of its slipping off
while tightening a nut or bolt?

o (a) Open end wrench


 (b) Box end wrench
o (c) Crescent wrench

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o (d) Monkey wrench

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

196. (1.2.11.1.3-1) The open end wrench size for a 3/4 inch American National Standard hex head
machine bolt is __________.

o (a) 1 1/2 inches


o (b) 3/4 inch
o (c) 7/8 inch
 (d) 1 1/4 inches

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

197. (1.2.11.1.3-5) In order to tighten the bolts of a crankpin bearing to the exact tension specified by
the engine manufacturer, you should use a/an __________.

o (a) offset box end


 (b) torque wrench
o (c) dial wrench
o (d) hook spanner

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

198. (1.2.11.1.4-5) What precautions should be followed when using a chisel having a mushroomed
head?

 (a) Remove the ragged edges by grinding.


o (b) Knock off the ragged edges with a hammer.
o (c) Use only light hammer blows with the chisel.
o (d) Do not strike the mushroomed portion.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

199. (1.2.11.1.4-8) Which of the listed punches can be properly used to free a tapered pin 'frozen' in its
hole?

o (a) Prick punch


 (b) Drift punch
o (c) Center punch
o (d) Aligning punch

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

200. (1.2.11.1.4-9) An aligning punch is commonly used to __________.

 (a) line up corresponding holes in adjacent symmetrical parts


o (b) tighten tapered pins
o (c) loosen jammed bolts
o (d) remove snap rings

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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201. (1.2.11.1.4-3) A chisel with a mushroom head should not be used because __________.

 (a) pieces may fly off the chisel and injure your eyes
o (b) it must be held firmly by the head to strike it
o (c) the chisel cannot be struck squarely
o (d) the hammer head may be chipped

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

202. (1.2.11.1.4-7) Diamond point chisels are best used for cutting __________.

 (a) V-grooves and inside sharp angles


o (b) oil grooves in bearings
o (c) keyways having square corners
o (d) holes through metal plate

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

203. (1.2.11.1.4-6) Which of the chisels listed should be used for cutting oil grooves?

o (a) Square nose


o (b) Diamond point
 (c) Round nose
o (d) Flat cold

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

204. (1.2.11.1.4-1) When using a chisel, you should __________.

o (a) wear gloves


o (b) be certain it is a nonsparking type
o (c) hold the tool lightly
 (d) wear safety glasses

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

205. (1.2.11.1.4-2) The best type of chisel to use for cutting a keyway is the __________.

o (a) round nose chisel


 (b) cape chisel
o (c) flat cold chisel
o (d) diamond point chisel

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

206. (1.2.11.1.4-4) The temper is likely to be drawn out from a chisel edge when you __________.

o (a) soak it in hot oil for lengthy periods


o (b) hold it next to a wet grinding wheel
o (c) grind the cutting angle too small
 (d) grind it for long periods of time with excessive pressure

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If choice d is selected set score to 1.

207. (1.2.11.1.5-1) Some heavy duty screwdrivers are made with a square shank to __________.

o (a) prevent the shank from bending


 (b) allow turning with a wrench
o (c) permit striking with a hammer
o (d) allow it to be used as a pry bar

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

208. (1.2.11.1.5-2) An offset screwdriver is best used for __________.

o (a) tightening Allen head screws only


o (b) tightening or loosening "offset type" machine screws
 (c) screws you cannot reach with a straight shaft screwdriver
o (d) driving self-tapping screws only

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

209. (1.2.11.1.5-3) Which of the screwdriver tips listed will fit screws with a four way or cross type slot?

o (a) Standard screwdriver


 (b) Both B and C are correct
o (c) Phillips screwdriver
o (d) Reed and Prince screwdriver

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

210. (1.2.11.1.5-5) Which type of screwdriver listed would have a 'Keystone' type vertical cross-
sectional tip?

o (a) Torx
 (b) Standard
o (c) Phillips
o (d) Allen

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

211. (1.2.11.1.5-9) Screwdrivers designed for electrical use should have __________.

 (a) insulated handles


o (b) larger than normal shanks
o (c) shorter than normal shanks
o (d) longer than normal shanks

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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212. (1.2.11.1.5-6) Which of the screwdrivers listed is designed for the precision assembly of small
parts?

o (a) Square-shanked
o (b) Allen head
o (c) Ratchet
 (d) Jeweler’s

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

213. (1.2.11.1.5-4) Which of the screwdrivers listed has a tip surrounded by parallel fluted ridges
resembling the ridges of a splined socket wrench?

o (a) Standard
o (b) Reed and Prince
o (c) Phillips
 (d) Torx

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

214. (1.2.11.1.5-7) Which of the screwdrivers listed is fastest and most convenient when tightening
many screws?

o (a) Square shank


o (b) Offset
 (c) Ratchet
o (d) Standard

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

215. (1.2.11.1.5-8) Which of the screwdrivers listed is designed with the shaft made from double coil
wire or tightly coiled steel?

o (a) Square shank


o (b) Jeweler’s
 (c) Flexible shaft
o (d) Ratchet

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

216. (1.2.11.1.6-1) A grease gun is generally used to lubricate a __________.

o (a) main turbine bearing


 (b) condensate pump ball bearing
o (c) diesel engine wrist pin bearing
o (d) generator crosshead bearing

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

46 August 2014
United States Coast Guard General Subjects-QMED
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217. (1.2.11.1.6-5) Ball peen hammers are sized according to their __________.

o (a) overall length


o (b) face diameter
 (c) head weight
o (d) peen head size

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

218. (1.2.11.1.6-2) The tool best suited for cutting pipeline flange gaskets to the correct size is
__________.

 (a) a gasket cutter


o (b) a pair of tin snips
o (c) a jack knife
o (d) a ball peen hammer

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

219. (1.2.11.1.6-4) The best tool to use when attempting to widen the opening of a flanged joint, in
preparation for renewing the gasket, is a __________.

o (a) gasket cutter


o (b) scraper
 (c) flange spreader
o (d) spud wrench

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

220. (1.2.11.1.6-6) Why should the use of metallic or semi-metallic packing hooks or pullers be
avoided on bronze or brass shafts, rods, plungers, or sleeves?

o (a) Bonnet corrosion may result.


 (b) Scoring may result.
o (c) Valve seat will be damaged.
o (d) Heat transfer is restricted.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

221. (1.2.11.2-4) If you are hand tapping holes in cast iron, you should __________.

o (a) start tapping with a plug tap


o (b) chamfer the edges of the holes
o (c) flood the tap with mineral oil
 (d) tap the holes without cutting oil

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

47 August 2014
United States Coast Guard General Subjects-QMED
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222. (1.2.11.2-7) When internal threading for piping where the work permits the tap to be run entirely
through you can begin and end the tapping of the hole by using a __________.

 (a) taper tap


o (b) bottoming tap
o (c) plug tap
o (d) finishing tap

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

223. (1.2.11.2-2) If you are cutting external threads by hand and you start the die at an angle, the
threads will __________.

o (a) straighten out after the third revolution


o (b) be out of round on the work
 (c) be cut crooked on the work
o (d) be rough, weak, and easily broken

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

224. (1.2.11.2-6) The proper tool used for cutting new external threads is called a thread __________.

 (a) die
o (b) chaser
o (c) tap
o (d) broach

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

225. (1.2.11.2-1) The names plug, bottom, and taper refer to __________.

o (a) pipe fittings


 (b) machinist's hand taps
o (c) measuring instruments
o (d) drill press parts

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

226. (1.2.11.2-3) With respect to machine shop "taps and dies", a plug tap is correctly used for
__________.

o (a) reversing the threads in a hole


 (b) the second cut when threading a blind hole
o (c) chasing the threads on a circular rod
o (d) starting the threads on a circular rod

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

48 August 2014
United States Coast Guard General Subjects-QMED
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227. (1.2.11.2-5) If a bolt or stud were to break off flush at the surface, which of the listed actions
would probably be the best first step to begin the process of its removal?

o (a) Use a tapered screw extractor only.


o (b) Heat the bolt with an oxyacetylene torch.
 (c) Drill a hole in the center of the broken stud.
o (d) Tap the bolt with a starting punch extractor.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

228. (1.2.11.3-3) The number of screw threads per inch for a Standard National Coarse 1/2 inch bolt is
__________.

 (a) 13
o (b) 18
o (c) 16
o (d) 20

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

229. (1.2.11.3-11) Which of the figures illustrated would be LEAST desirable for use as a set screw?
GS-0080

o (a) figure L
o (b) figure G
 (c) figure A
o (d) figure F

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

230. (1.2.11.3-16) The device "F" shown in the illustration is best used to __________. GS-0080

o (a) secure tapered pins in position


o (b) fasten pump casing flanges together
 (c) assist in securing a coupling half to its shaft
o (d) bolt motor frames to bedplates

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

231. (1.2.11.3-7) The locking plates shown in the illustration are used in many marine applications.
Which figure indicates the improper method for using these devices? GS-0156

o (a) "A"
o (b) "D"
o (c) "B"
 (d) "C"

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

49 August 2014
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232. (1.2.11.3-15) Which of the figures in illustration GS-0080 would be used in conjunction with figure
"B" of the device shown in illustration GS-0124? GS-0080

o (a) figure G
o (b) figure B
 (c) figure F
o (d) figure C

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

233. (1.2.11.3-4) The letters 'NC' in '1/4-20 NC' indicates the bolt is __________.

 (a) threaded with national coarse threads


o (b) made of nickel-cadmium metal
o (c) made of non-corrosive metal
o (d) not clad with any coating

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

234. (1.2.11.3-8) What is the primary function of the devices shown in the illustration? GS-0156

o (a) The transit washers transmit the rotary motion of the cap screw to the actuating assembly.
 (b) The locking plates are used to prevent the fastening devices from vibrating loose.
o (c) The grounding straps help prevent electrolysis by improving the conductivity between the
components.
o (d) These abrasion resistors prevent damage to the surface around the bolt holes when tightening
the bolts.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

235. (1.2.11.3-10) When should the nut lock shown in the illustration, be replaced with standard lock
washers or other similar devices used in the industry? GS-0156

 (a) Replacement with another nut locking device is unnecessary.


o (b) Flat locks are no longer used in the marine industry and should be replaced during the next
maintenance procedure.
o (c) Bellevue washers are the ideal substitute for these locking devices provided a thread locking
adhesive is used.
o (d) When torque values of 25 foot pounds or greater are being used, replacement with spring
washers is mandatory.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

236. (1.2.11.4-8) Which of the devices shown in the illustration is designed for both inside and outside
measurements? GS-0073

o (a) A
o (b) D
o (c) B
 (d) C

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

50 August 2014
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237. (1.2.11.4-6) To set the dividers to the proper radius, you should use a __________.

o (a) calipers
 (b) steel rule
o (c) micrometer
o (d) scribing circle

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

238. (1.2.11.4-4) The center head of a combination square set is used to __________.

o (a) check the angle of thread cutting tools


 (b) locate the center on round stock
o (c) find right angles
o (d) check degrees of angle

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

239. (1.2.11.4-10) Which of the instruments listed is used to measure the gauge of a piece of sheet
metal?

o (a) Inside micrometer


o (b) Circular mil
 (c) Wire gauge
o (d) Gauge calibrator

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

240. (1.2.11.4-9) To measure the circumference of a piece of pipe, you should use a __________.

o (a) hook rule


 (b) flexible steel rule
o (c) folding rule
o (d) machinist's steel rule

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

241. (1.2.11.4-2) The purpose of the instrument illustrated is to __________. GS-0079

o (a) gage resistors


o (b) strip insulation from wire
 (c) measure wire diameter
o (d) measure insulation thickness

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

51 August 2014
United States Coast Guard General Subjects-QMED
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242. (1.2.11.4-1) A metal scribe commonly found on a Combination Square measuring tool should only
be used to __________.

o (a) clean file teeth


o (b) punch gasket holes
o (c) remove packing
 (d) mark on metal

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

243. (1.2.11.4-7) A dial indicator is used to measure __________.

 (a) shaft eccentricity


o (b) torque of a shaft
o (c) scribed layout lines on vertical surfaces
o (d) positive readings only

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

244. (1.2.11.4-5) To get an accurate measurement using a 12 inch machinist's steel rule, you should
measure __________.

o (a) on the unmarked edge of the rule


 (b) from the one inch graduation mark
o (c) on the narrow edge of the rule
o (d) from the zero end on the scale

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

245. (1.2.11.4-3) Which of the devices shown in the illustration should be used with a bridge gage?
GS-0073

o (a) C
 (b) A
o (c) B
o (d) D

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

246. (1.2.11.5-5) All portable electric tools should have a ground connection to prevent __________.

 (a) electric shock if the tool is shorted


o (b) grounding the plastic case through a short
o (c) burning out the motor from an overload
o (d) overloading the motor from a short

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

52 August 2014
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247. (1.2.11.5-1) A grinding wheel is trued with a __________.

 (a) dressing tool


o (b) round file
o (c) lathe tool
o (d) garnet stone

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

248. (1.2.11.5-3) A coolant is usually used when cutting metal in a power hacksaw to prevent the
__________.

o (a) heat of friction


 (b) blade from overheating
o (c) cut from clogging
o (d) blade from bending

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

249. (1.2.11.5-2) Which practices should be followed at all times when using an electric grinding
machine?

o (a) Wear goggles or face shield.


o (b) Be certain that the frame is properly grounded.
o (c) Be properly trained in the use of this tool.
 (d) Each of the above practices.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

250. (1.2.11.5-4) The blade for a power hacksaw should be installed with the teeth __________.

o (a) pointing toward the motor if using a 4 or 6 tooth blade and away from the motor if using a 10
or 14 tooth blade
o (b) pointing either toward or away from the motor end of the machine
o (c) pointing away from the motor end of the machine
 (d) pointing toward the motor end of the machine

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

251. (1.2.16.1.1-7) Air leakage between the shaft and stuffing box packing in a centrifugal pump is
prevented by __________.

o (a) lantern rings between the packing rings


o (b) a compressed packing gland
 (c) a liquid seal
o (d) the stuffing box gland

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

53 August 2014
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252. (1.2.16.1.1-6) The function of seal cages, or lantern rings installed in the centrifugal pump stuffing
boxes, is to __________.

o (a) lubricate the packing


 (b) distribute the sealing liquid within the stuffing box
o (c) seal air from entering along the shaft
o (d) cool the shaft

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

253. (1.2.16.1.1-8) Permanent centrifugal pump shaft damage due to erosion, corrosion, and wear at
the stuffing box is usually prevented by __________.

o (a) wearing rings


o (b) internally flooded lantern rings
 (c) renewable sleeves
o (d) a hardened sprayed metal coating

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

254. (1.2.16.1.1-2) The pressure of a liquid leaving the pump can be referred to as the __________.

 (a) discharge head


o (b) total head
o (c) suction head
o (d) net positive suction head

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

255. (1.2.16.1.1-1) Which of the following terms is used to identify the pressure of a liquid entering a
centrifugal pump?

 (a) Suction head


o (b) Pump head
o (c) Discharge head
o (d) Total head

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

256. (1.2.16.1.1-4) A pump is defined as a device that __________.

o (a) produces pressure


o (b) creates a vacuum to move a liquid in all installations
o (c) is to develop a pressure differential
 (d) imparts energy to a fluid to move it from point "A" to point "B"

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

54 August 2014
United States Coast Guard General Subjects-QMED
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257. (1.2.16.1.1-5) The basic function of the centrifugal pump impeller is to __________.

o (a) separate air from the liquid being pumped


 (b) directly increase the velocity of the liquid being pumped
o (c) directly increase the pressure of the liquid being pumped
o (d) convert the potential energy of the liquid to kinetic energy

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

258. (1.2.16.1.1-3) Which of the following statements is true concerning centrifugal pumps?

o (a) They are particularly suited for pumping high viscosity fluids.
o (b) They are always mounted in a horizontal position.
 (c) The flow of liquid is developed by imparting energy due to the rotation of an impeller.
o (d) They are started with the discharge valve opened.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

259. (1.2.16.1.2-4) When repacking a stuffing box fitted with a lantern ring, which of the following
precautions should be observed?

o (a) Be certain that all packing is fitted loosely to the shaft.


 (b) Replace all of the packing rings.
o (c) For good lubrication, apply a fine grade lapping compound between the shaft and packing.
o (d) Block off the sealing water connection.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

260. (1.2.16.1.2-3) A centrifugal pump gradually develops insufficient discharge pressure. What
corrective action is required?

o (a) Throttle in on the discharge valve.


 (b) Replace the wearing rings.
o (c) Replace the lantern rings.
o (d) Throttle in on the suction valve.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

261. (1.2.16.1.2-5) When renewing spiral packing in a centrifugal pump stuffing box, after the packing
is firmly seated, the packing gland nuts should be __________.

 (a) loosened, and then retightened with the pump running under normal conditions
o (b) loosened until the gland clears the stuffing box
o (c) left in that position
o (d) tightened an additional 10% to compress the packing

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

55 August 2014
United States Coast Guard General Subjects-QMED
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262. (1.2.16.1.2-1) What should be done if localized scoring is discovered on a pump shaft sleeve
during routine maintenance inspection?

o (a) Reassemble the pump and provide more water leak off for lubrication.
o (b) Reassemble the pump and set the governor to obtain a slower speed.
o (c) Check for parallel alignment of the sleeve radial face to the sleeve bore.
 (d) Correct the cause of scoring and install a new shaft sleeve.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

263. (1.2.16.1.2-7) Why should the use of metallic or semi-metallic packing hooks or pullers be
avoided on bronze or brass shafts, rods, plungers, or sleeves?

 (a) Scoring may result.


o (b) Bonnet corrosion may result.
o (c) Heat transfer is restricted.
o (d) Valve seat will be damaged.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

264. (1.2.16.1.2-2) To prevent overheating and scoring of the shaft after repacking the stuffing box,
which of the following procedures should be carried out?

o (a) Operating the pump slowly and applying oil freely to the shaft until the packing is properly
seated.
o (b) Tightening the gland in all the way and then backing it off slightly.
o (c) Lubricate the lantern ring with cylinder oil before installing new turns of packing.
 (d) Tighten the packing in small increments while the pump is operating.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

265. (1.2.16.1.2-6) A pump shaft that is bent or distorted should normally be __________.

o (a) reconditioned by metalizing and machining


o (b) straightened by applying heat and torsion
 (c) replaced with a satisfactory spare
o (d) repaired by a suitable welding process

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

266. (1.2.16.1.3-6) Excessive air leakage into the suction side of a centrifugal pump would be
indicated by which of the following operational problems?

 (a) The pump delivers full capacity when started, but gradually slackens off to an abnormally low
flow.
o (b) The motor over current protective device continually shuts the pump down.
o (c) The pump packing gland overheats after short operating periods.
o (d) Pounding noises can be heard at the pump suction chest.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

56 August 2014
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267. (1.2.16.1.3-4) Pitting in the suction areas of a centrifugal pump bronze impeller is usually caused
by __________.

 (a) cavitation
o (b) corrosion
o (c) electrolysis
o (d) abrasion

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

268. (1.2.16.1.3-3) Reduced capacity, accompanied by vibration and noise at the suction of a
centrifugal pump, results from cavitation in the fluid being pumped. Cavitation describes the
formation of __________.

 (a) vapor pockets


o (b) steam knock
o (c) fluid friction
o (d) water hammer action

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

269. (1.2.16.1.3-1) You suspect a problem with the centrifugal fire pump on your ship, and begin to
slowly close the discharge valve. Your suspicion is confirmed when the __________.

o (a) suction valve is closed off, and the discharge pressure begins to decrease
o (b) suction valve is closed off, yet the relief valve does not lift
o (c) discharge valve is 80% closed and the relief valve lifts
 (d) discharge valve is closed off and there is no change in the discharge pressure

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

270. (1.2.16.1.3-2) A centrifugal pump may fail to deliver water when first started if the __________.

o (a) seal ring is improperly located


 (b) pump is not primed
o (c) water seal pipe is plugged
o (d) impeller is flooded

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

271. (1.2.16.1.3-5) Charring or glazing of the inner circumference of the packing rings in a centrifugal
pump is caused by __________.

o (a) under tightening the packing


 (b) insufficient lubrication of the packing
o (c) failure to seat the packing rings
o (d) packing ring rotation

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

57 August 2014
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272. (1.2.16.2.1-2) The three basic parts of any eductor are the nozzle, the suction chamber, and the
__________.

o (a) compressor
o (b) injector
o (c) siphon
 (d) diffuser

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

273. (1.2.16.2.1-3) A distinguishing feature of an eductor, when compared to other pumps, is the
__________.

o (a) small size of impeller


o (b) ease at which the wearing rings may be changed
 (c) lack of moving parts
o (d) discharge end being smaller than the suction end

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

274. (1.2.16.2.1-1) Which of the following methods applies to how a vacuum is created by a jet pump
or an eductor?

o (a) A reciprocating plunger directly applying force to a fluid.


 (b) A rapidly moving stream of fluid passing through a nozzle.
o (c) A propeller drawing a fluid through a Venturi nozzle.
o (d) Centrifugal force converted into potential energy.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

275. (1.2.16.3.1-6) Which of the devices listed is used to maintain a snug interface between the
rotating and stationary seal members shown in the illustration? GS-0071

o (a) notch and keyway


o (b) bellows
 (c) spring
o (d) seal retaining ring

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

276. (1.2.16.3.1-7) Spring reinforced oil seals are generally installed with the tail or lip of the seal
facing __________. GS-0152

o (a) away from the oil pressure being sealed


o (b) away from the bearing housing recess
o (c) toward the bearing preload washer
 (d) toward the oil pressure being sealed

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

58 August 2014
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277. (1.2.16.3.1-8) One disadvantage of using a mechanical shaft seal instead of mechanical packing
is that __________.

 (a) seal failure usually requires the immediate removal of the pump from service
o (b) it requires periodic disassembly and adjustment
o (c) it is unsuitable for high pressure applications
o (d) it is unsuitable for high temperature applications

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

278. (1.2.16.3.1-9) When installing a mechanical shaft seal on a pump, it is important to ______.

o (a) run the pump "dry" for initial break-in of the shaft seal
o (b) polish the seating faces with emery cloth prior to assembly
o (c) make the final spring collar adjustments with the pump running
 (d) ensure that correct spring pressure is applied to the seating faces

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

279. (1.2.16.3.1-4) Which of the listed types of seals is used effectively for pumps handling toxic or
highly flammable liquids that cannot be permitted to escape into the atmosphere?

o (a) Conventional stuffing box


 (b) Double mechanical seal
o (c) Rubber bellows mechanical seal
o (d) External mechanical seal

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

280. (1.2.16.3.1-3) Which of the following statements is true regarding mechanical seals?

o (a) They may be used in lieu of conventional packing glands for any service other than saltwater.
o (b) Once placed into service, leakage between the dynamic seal surfaces may be reduced by
monthly adjustment of the spring compression.
o (c) They are not suitable for use on fuel oil transfer pumps.
 (d) They are normally lubricated and cooled by the fluid being pumped.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

281. (1.2.16.3.1-2) Which of the materials listed is used as the dynamic seal material on mechanical
seals installed on most centrifugal pumps used in water service?

o (a) Copper and carbon.


o (b) Copper.
 (c) Carbon.
o (d) Bronze.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

59 August 2014
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282. (1.2.16.3.1-5) Mechanical shaft seals used on water service pumps require lubrication of the seal
faces to minimize deposits of foreign matter on those surfaces. Which of the following pressures
and lubricants are required?

o (a) Water under negative pressure.


 (b) Water under positive pressure.
o (c) Oil under positive pressure.
o (d) Oil under negative pressure.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

283. (1.2.16.3.1-1) Which of the following statements represents the main difference between a
stuffing box gland and a mechanical seal for sealing the shaft of a centrifugal pump?

 (a) If packing fails, the pump can be kept running temporarily by tightening the gland, but if a
mechanical seal fails it must be totally renewed to stop the leakage.
o (b) Packed stuffing box glands are subject to wear, but mechanical seals are not.
o (c) The sealing surface of a mechanical seal is parallel to the shaft, but the sealing surface of a
packed gland is perpendicular to the shaft.
o (d) Packed stuffing box glands must be cooled by the liquid being pumped, but mechanical seals
do not require cooling.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

284. (1.2.16.4.1-3) Which of the pumping systems listed for use aboard ship will most likely use a
propeller type pump?

o (a) Fuel oil service booster system


o (b) Fluid power transmission system
o (c) Steering gear system
 (d) Main circulating system

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

285. (1.2.16.4.1-1) One of the main differences between a propeller pump and a centrifugal pump is
the absence of a __________.

o (a) reciprocating piston in the centrifugal type pump


 (b) volute in the propeller type pump
o (c) velocity nozzle in the centrifugal type pump
o (d) volute in the centrifugal type pump

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

286. (1.2.16.4.1-2) Which type of pump would normally be used to transfer fairly large quantities of
fluids at relatively low pressures?

o (a) gear type


o (b) reciprocating type
o (c) screw type
 (d) propeller type

60 August 2014
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If choice d is selected set score to 1.

287. (1.2.16.5.1-1) Which of the following is NOT an identifiable characteristic of a steam reciprocating
pump?

o (a) Direct-acting
o (b) Vertical
 (c) Diffuser
o (d) High-pressure

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

288. (1.2.16.5.1-2) Which of the following valve arrangements permits the reciprocating pump liquid
piston to take suction from the suction chamber, and simultaneously discharge through the
discharge chamber during the up and down strokes?

o (a) Two relief valves, one on each of the liquid cylinder.


 (b) Two sets of valves, one set each for suction and discharge located in the water chest.
o (c) One set of valves in the water chest and another set in the liquid cylinder.
o (d) Two sets of suction and discharge valves in the liquid cylinder.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

289. (1.2.16.5.1-4) Which of the listed devices is used to control the admission of steam to the steam
cylinder of a reciprocating pump?

o (a) Valve operating differential


 (b) Pilot valve and operating rod
o (c) Pump rod
o (d) Crosshead arm

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

290. (1.2.16.5.1-5) Which of the listed reciprocating pump parts control the position of the pilot slide
valve?

o (a) Moving tappets


 (b) Movement of the main piston through the steam cylinder
o (c) Adjusting of the tappet collars
o (d) Stay rods

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

291. (1.2.16.5.1-3) The suction-force principle of operation is a typical characteristic of __________.

o (a) centrifugal pumps


o (b) jet pumps
 (c) reciprocating pumps
o (d) propeller pumps

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

61 August 2014
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292. (1.2.16.5.1-6) The total length of stroke in a reciprocating steam pump can be adjusted by
__________.

o (a) twisting the stay rod in a clockwise direction


o (b) variations in the throttle adjustment
o (c) increasing or decreasing the number of packing rings around the piston rod
 (d) changing the setting of the tappet collars on the pilot valve operating rod

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

293. (1.2.16.5.1-8) When securing a steam reciprocating pump, which of the valves listed should
remain open?

o (a) Water cylinder drain valve


 (b) Steam cylinder drain valve
o (c) Steam supply valve
o (d) Steam exhaust valve

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

294. (1.2.16.5.1-9) When the danger of freezing exists, all steam driven reciprocating pumps and deck
equipment should be __________.

o (a) watched carefully while idled


 (b) cycled at least once a day
o (c) cycled once every week
o (d) cycled once every 4 days

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

295. (1.2.16.5.1-7) When a reciprocating pump is operating at maximum speed, the cushioning valves
should be __________.

 (a) almost completely closed


o (b) wide opened
o (c) half opened
o (d) 3/4 opened

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

296. (1.2.16.5.2-4) When repacking a reciprocating pump with more than four rings of packing, the
packing is cut square, installed with the ends abutted, and each succeeding ring staggered with the
butted ends __________.

o (a) 120° apart


o (b) 180° apart
 (c) 90° apart
o (d) 45° apart

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

62 August 2014
United States Coast Guard General Subjects-QMED
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297. (1.2.16.5.2-5) To safely remove the piston rod packing from the steam end of a reciprocating
pump, you should __________.

o (a) open the throttle valve and 'blow' the old packing out
o (b) do nothing, as this type of pump utilizes O-rings in lieu of packing
o (c) open the steam chest and pry the packing loose with a scraper
 (d) use a packing hook

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

298. (1.2.16.5.2-2) Which of the listed types of steam end piston rod packing should be used in a
steam reciprocating pump?

o (a) Reinforced rubber packing


o (b) Wire impregnated high temperature packing
 (c) High pressure graphite packing
o (d) Low pressure braided asbestos packing

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

299. (1.2.16.5.2-1) Which of the lubricants listed is the best to use on a reciprocating pump rod?

o (a) Vegetable oil.


 (b) Graphite and oil.
o (c) Engine oil.
o (d) Oil mixed with kerosene.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

300. (1.2.16.5.2-3) The first step when resetting the slide valves on a duplex reciprocating pump is to
__________.

o (a) position the steam pistons on 3/4 stroke


 (b) place the steam pistons in the mid stroke position
o (c) ensure the balance piston is on the down stroke
o (d) measure the present port openings to ensure reassembly will be the same

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

301. (1.2.16.5.3-5) Excessive lost motion in the valve mechanism of a duplex reciprocating pump will
cause the __________.

 (a) pump to operate sluggishly


o (b) pump to short stroke continuously at both ends of the stroke for both cylinders
o (c) cushioning valves to wear
o (d) pistons to stop in mid-stroke

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

63 August 2014
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302. (1.2.16.5.3-1) An inadequate reciprocating bilge pump discharge is most often caused by
__________.

 (a) clogged suction strainers


o (b) clogged drain valves
o (c) scarred cylinder walls
o (d) defective intake valves

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

303. (1.2.16.5.3-4) A pounding noise occurring in one cylinder of a steam reciprocating general service
pump could be caused by __________.

o (a) lower than normal supply steam pressure


 (b) improper adjustment of steam cushion valves
o (c) loss of air charge in the pump discharge plenum chamber
o (d) lower than normal supply steam temperature

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

304. (1.2.16.5.3-3) When piston rod packing persists in leaking on a reciprocating steam pump, the
cause may be __________.

 (a) misalignment of the crosshead guide


o (b) a loose tappet collar
o (c) an open snifter valve
o (d) clogged suction strainers

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

305. (1.2.16.5.3-2) Which of the following conditions would prevent a steam reciprocating pump from
delivering its rated capacity?

o (a) All of the above


o (b) Air trapped in the discharge expansion chamber
o (c) A leaking snifter valve allowing air to enter the suction side of the pump
 (d) Excessive suction lift

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

306. (1.2.16.6.1-11) The function of the section labeled "C" in the device illustrated is to provide a/an
__________. GS-0075

o (a) area for pump packing


o (b) passage for sealing liquid to enter the pump
o (c) bearing surface for the rotor shaft
 (d) passage for gas to be discharged

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

64 August 2014
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307. (1.2.16.6.1-3) Liquid is kept from leaking out at the shaft ends of a helical gear pump by
__________.

o (a) the use of shaft end caps


 (b) a stuffing box
o (c) overlapping spaces between gear teeth
o (d) a roller bearing

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

308. (1.2.16.6.1-2) Which of the listed parts is used in a lobe-type rotary pump to allow for wear on the
lobe edges?

o (a) Spur gear adjusters


o (b) Replaceable liner plates
o (c) Casing gear thrust bearings
 (d) Replaceable gib inserts

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

309. (1.2.16.6.1-10) What type of pump is shown in the illustration? GS-0144

o (a) Double screw rotary pump


o (b) Deep well centrifugal pump
o (c) Simplex reciprocating pump
 (d) Triple screw rotary pump

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

310. (1.2.16.6.1-1) The output volume of a positive fixed displacement pump can be changed only by
__________.

o (a) changing the angle of the tilting plate


o (b) moving the shaft trunnion block
 (c) changing the speed of the pump
o (d) moving the slide block and rotor

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

311. (1.2.16.6.1-4) Positive displacement, helical gear pumps are well suited for pumping oil because
__________.

o (a) these pumps are designed with extreme tooth angles


o (b) it is not necessary to closely maintain design clearances with this pump
 (c) they are essentially self-priming and capable of a high suction lift
o (d) stuffing boxes eliminate the leakage problems usually associated with other gear pumps

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

65 August 2014
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312. (1.2.16.6.1-5) The capacity of a gear type rotary pump, when operated at a constant speed, will
decrease with an increase in the pump __________.

o (a) suction pressure


o (b) discharge volume
o (c) torque rating
 (d) rotor clearances

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

313. (1.2.16.6.1-6) A spur gear pump should be operated with the discharge valves __________.

 (a) fully opened


o (b) halfway opened
o (c) throttled
o (d) slightly opened

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

314. (1.2.16.6.1-7) How does the viscosity of a fluid being pumped affect the operation of a spur gear
pump?

o (a) The pump can only be used for fluids of high viscosity.
o (b) The pump can only be used for light oils.
 (c) The viscosity of the fluid is relatively unimportant in the pump operation.
o (d) The pump cannot handle fluids more viscous than lubricating oil.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

315. (1.2.16.6.1-8) Why is the discharge pressure of a herringbone gear pump steadier than the
discharge pressure of a simple spur gear pump?

 (a) One discharge phase begins before the previous discharge phase has been completed.
o (b) The herringbone gear pump has four spur gears instead of two.
o (c) Clearance between the gear teeth and casing is smaller.
o (d) The gear teeth are smaller than those of the simple spur gear pump.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

316. (1.2.16.6.1-9) One of the main differences between the various types of screw pumps is in the
__________.

o (a) stuffing box diameter


 (b) pitch of the screws
o (c) direction of rotation of the screws
o (d) type of driving gears

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

66 August 2014
United States Coast Guard General Subjects-QMED
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317. (1.2.16.6.3-1) An increase in rotor clearances in a rotary pump will __________.

 (a) decrease pump capacity


o (b) decrease pump cavitation
o (c) increase discharge pressure
o (d) decrease reaction ring clearance

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

318. (1.2.13.1.1-7) To anneal a copper gasket, you should heat the gasket __________.

o (a) and let cool slowly in the air


o (b) and quench it in oil
o (c) and carbonize it
 (d) cherry red and quench in water

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

319. (1.2.13.1.1-5) When replacing a gasket in a six-bolt flanged joint, in what order should the bolts
be tightened?

 (a) Install and tighten bolts in pairs which are opposite each other in the flange (1-4, 2-5, and 3-6).
o (b) Each bolt should be installed and tightened in consecutive order in the counterclockwise
direction.
o (c) Each bolt should be installed and tightened in consecutive order in the clockwise direction.
o (d) Install and tighten bolts 1, 3, 4, 2, 5, and 6, in that order.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

320. (1.2.13.1.1-6) If you were uncertain as to what type of gasket material to install in a pipeline, you
should __________.

o (a) make up the joint without a gasket until you can check with the chief
 (b) check the ship's plans or manufacturer's instructions
o (c) turn the old gasket over and install it again
o (d) leave the old gasket in and cover it with Permatex

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

321. (1.2.13.1.1-3) To properly make and fit a new gasket to a flange, you should __________.

o (a) cut grooves into the flange with a chisel to ensure good gasket contact
o (b) place the gasket over the flange and knock off the excess material with a lead mallet
o (c) make up the flanged joint to make an impression of the flange surfaces to insure a pattern for
proper alignment
 (d) remove excess gasket material by trimming with scissors or tin snips

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

67 August 2014
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322. (1.2.13.1.1-1) The best gasket material to use in cargo fuel oil lines is __________.

 (a) oil-resistant sheet packing


o (b) cork sheet packing
o (c) unvulcanized packing
o (d) sheet asbestos

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

323. (1.2.13.1.1-2) Which of the gasket types listed is typically used on high pressure steam flange
joints?

 (a) Spiral wound flexitallic


o (b) Wire-impregnated sheet plastic
o (c) High temperature neoprene
o (d) Wire-impregnated rubber

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

324. (1.2.13.1.1-8) Which pipe listed has the largest outside diameter?

o (a) A 3/4" pipe with a double extra strong wall thickness.


o (b) A 3/4" pipe with an extra strong wall thickness.
o (c) A 3/4" pipe with a standard wall thickness.
 (d) All have the same outside diameter.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

325. (1.2.13.1.1-10) Piping cross-sections over 12 inches in diameter are sized by the __________.

 (a) outside diameter


o (b) wall thickness
o (c) threaded diameter
o (d) inside diameter

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

326. (1.2.13.1.1-9) Which of the listed pipe sizes is not commonly used?

o (a) 3/4 inch


o (b) 3/8 inch
o (c) 1/2 inch
 (d) 5/8 inch

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

68 August 2014
United States Coast Guard General Subjects-QMED
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327. (1.2.13.1.2-2) Copper tubing is manufactured and classified as type K, L, and M. Which type
would offer the greatest wall thickness for a given nominal size?

o (a) Type M
o (b) Type L and M have identical wall thicknesses
 (c) Type K
o (d) Type L

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

328. (1.2.13.1.2-1) Tubing is sized by __________.

o (a) nominal inside diameter


o (b) allowed working pressure
o (c) cross-section area
 (d) nominal outside diameter

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

329. (1.2.13.1.3-1) A gate valve installed in a piping system should be used __________.

o (a) to throttle the flow of liquid


o (b) only for lube oil service
o (c) only with the stem facing down
 (d) in either fully closed or fully opened positions

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

330. (1.2.13.1.3-3) Which of the following statements is true concerning the valve shown in the
illustration. GS-0047

o (a) The valve only requires one turn of the hand wheel to fully open.
o (b) The valve seats cannot be replaced or repaired.
o (c) The valve is normally used to throttle the flow of liquid.
 (d) The valve is a non-rising stem design.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

331. (1.2.13.1.3-2) What type of valve is shown in the illustration? GS-0047

o (a) Check valve


o (b) Butterfly valve
o (c) Globe valve
 (d) Gate valve

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

69 August 2014
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332. (1.2.13.1.3-4) The illustrated valve is known as a __________. GS-0056

o (a) lift gate valve


o (b) butterfly lift valve
 (c) swing check valve
o (d) swing globe valve

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

333. (1.2.13.1.3-5) The use of a needle valve in a piping system is recommended when requiring
__________.

o (a) no back flow


o (b) high pressure drops
 (c) close regulation of flow
o (d) no pressure drops

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

334. (1.2.13.1.3-6) The seat of a butterfly valve will most likely be constructed of __________.

o (a) admiralty metal


o (b) Monel
o (c) stellite
 (d) a resilient material

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

335. (1.2.13.1.3-7) The valve depicted in the illustration shown is a __________. GS-0055

o (a) gate valve


 (b) butterfly valve
o (c) globe valve
o (d) check valve

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

336. (1.2.13.2.1-1) To remove a hand held right-handed straight cut reamer after it has gone all the
way through a hole, you should __________.

o (a) work the reamer side to side to dislodge it


o (b) tap the reamer out with a soft faced hammer
o (c) turn the tap wrench counterclockwise, simultaneously raising the reamer
 (d) turn the tap wrench clockwise, simultaneously raising the reamer

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

70 August 2014
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337. (1.2.13.2.1-4) Before making up a flanged joint, you should __________.

o (a) cut grooves in the flange face with a chisel


 (b) be certain that the flanges line up squarely
o (c) heat the pipeline to expand the bolt holes
o (d) have a second spare gasket on hand

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

338. (1.2.13.2.1-9) A thread chaser is a hand tool that should only be used for __________.

o (a) enlarging existing threads


o (b) straightening tapered threads
 (c) restoring damaged threads
o (d) cutting original threads

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

339. (1.2.13.2.1-3) The tool used for cutting external pipe threads is called a pipe __________.

o (a) cutter
o (b) ratchet cutter
o (c) threader
 (d) stock and die

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

340. (1.2.13.2.1-2) Taps and dies used for threading pipe are __________.

o (a) not hardened


o (b) not fluted
o (c) straight
 (d) tapered

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

341. (1.2.13.2.1-7) When cutting external threads on a steel pipe with a die, you should __________.

o (a) tap the die with a hammer to break up the chips


 (b) continue turning until the end of the pipe has gone through the die and is flush with the die
face
o (c) never use a lubricant
o (d) start the die at a slight angle with the work to create tapered threads

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

71 August 2014
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342. (1.2.13.2.1-8) A thread die will be easier to start if the end of the shaft to be threaded is slightly
__________.

o (a) center drilled


o (b) peened
o (c) reamed
 (d) chamfered

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

343. (1.2.13.2.1-6) Which of the illustrations depicts the correct procedure for applying pipe dope? GS-
0046

o (a) D
o (b) C
 (c) B
o (d) A

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

344. (1.2.13.2.1-5) Before disconnecting a joint in a pipeline, you should __________.

o (a) have a first aid kit on hand


o (b) determine the size of the gasket
o (c) hang a bucket under the joint
 (d) be sure no pressure exists in the line

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

345. (1.2.13.2.2-1) Copper coil tubing is best cut with a __________.

o (a) flare cutter


 (b) tubing cutter
o (c) pipe cutter
o (d) hand hacksaw

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

346. (1.2.13.2.2-2) The tool used to prepare copper tubing for the installation of fittings is called a
__________.

 (a) flaring tool


o (b) spreader
o (c) stretcher
o (d) swaging tool

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

72 August 2014
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347. (1.2.13.2.2-3) After cutting a piece of tubing to be flared, you should __________.

o (a) crimp the tube end in order to slip on the fitting


o (b) flare the tube before removing the burrs
o (c) rough up the outside surface of the tube end with a file
 (d) remove inside burrs with a reamer

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

348. (1.2.13.2.2-4) Enlarging one tube end so the end of another tube of the same size will fit inside is
termed __________.

 (a) swaging
o (b) flaring
o (c) stretching
o (d) belling

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

349. (1.2.5.1.2-1) While riding at anchor, the anchor chain should be secured by the __________.

o (a) riding spindle


o (b) windlass brake only
 (c) chain stopper or riding pawl
o (d) anchor shackle

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

350. (1.2.5.1.2-2)The part of the anchor windlass that engages the anchor chain for lifting is called the
__________.

o (a) capstan
o (b) fairlead
o (c) warping head
 (d) wildcat

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

351. (1.2.5.1.2-3) What color is used to indicate the last shot of anchor chain?

o (a) Yellow
 (b) Red
o (c) Blue
o (d) White

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

73 August 2014
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352. (1.2.5.1.2-4) A shot of anchor chain has a length of __________.

o (a) 12 fathoms
o (b) 6 fathoms
 (c) 15 fathoms
o (d) 45 fathoms

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

353. (1.2.5.1.2-5) A shot of anchor chain is equal to __________.

o (a) 90 fathoms
o (b) one - 15 foot segment
o (c) one chain link
 (d) one - 90 foot segment

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

354. (1.2.5.1.3-1) A mooring winch should be equipped with mechanical brakes capable of holding
__________.

o (a) half the breaking strength of the mooring line


o (b) 50% over the working tension of the mooring line
 (c) the full breaking strength of the mooring line
o (d) the maximum expected tension of the mooring line

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

355. (1.2.5.1.3-2) When the hydraulic control lever for a deck winch is placed in the neutral or off
position, the spring set brake on the fluid motor drive shaft is __________.

o (a) opened hydraulically and held open by spring action whenever the electrical supply is secured
o (b) engaged by spring action plus hydraulic pressure
 (c) engaged by spring action and only released by hydraulic pressure
o (d) released by spring action and hydraulically locks the winch when the drum ceases rotating

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

356. (1.2.5.1.3-3) The clutch band of a constant tensioning mooring winch must be set up tight enough
to drive the winch drum and should slip only when __________.

o (a) automatic operation of the winch is desired


o (b) minimum pull is being exerted by the winch
 (c) excessive loads are placed on the winch
o (d) wire is being retrieved at the maximum rate

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

74 August 2014
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357. (1.2.5.2-2) If you are given the job of adding hydraulic fluid to a mooring winch, and are not
certain as to the type of fluid to use, you should __________.

o (a) add any oil that has the same viscosity as the hydraulic fluid
o (b) add fluid that is the same color as the fluid in the reservoir
o (c) add turbine oil because it is always a good substitute
 (d) check the winch manufacturer's instruction book

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

358. (1.2.5.2-3) Winch gears must be maintained in proper alignment to prevent __________.

o (a) wear on the braking system


 (b) damage to the teeth
o (c) over speeding of the motor
o (d) overheating of the lube oil

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

359. (1.2.5.2-4) The hydraulic pump which would be mounted on the unit shown in the illustration, may
begin to cavitate if __________. GS-0118

o (a) "A" is allowed to remain open


 (b) "D" is not kept clean
o (c) "H" were to be removed and the system operated for thirty minutes without it being replaced
o (d) "B" is over tightened

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

360. (1.2.5.2-5) If a lifeboat winch allows a lifeboat to descend to the water at an excessive speed, you
should __________.

 (a) adjust the centrifugal brake mechanism


o (b) engage the motor friction clutch bands
o (c) adjust the davit mounted limit switches
o (d) remove unnecessary weight from the boat

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

361. (1.2.5.2-1) The best method of fixing a winch motor bearing of the sealed type that is running hot
is to __________.

o (a) apply a light oil to the bearing housing


 (b) replace the bearing with a new one
o (c) allow the winch to run at slower speeds only
o (d) add grease through the zerk fitting

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

75 August 2014
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362. (1.2.5.3-4) In the hydraulic anchor windlass system illustrated, if the power to the electric motor is
on, but the wildcat turns slowly or not at all, even without a load being applied, and nearly normal
pressure is indicated on the high side of the system, the probable cause is the __________. GS-
0160

o (a) manual transfer valve is in the wrong position for the main pump being operated
 (b) relief valve "L" is not closing
o (c) replenishing pump coupling is broken
o (d) pressure from "E" has failed to bleed off when "J" is placed in the operating position

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

363. (1.2.5.3-5) In the hydraulic anchor windlass system illustrated, if the power to the electric motor is
on, but the wildcat does not turn, the pressure developed on either side of the system increases to
half of the normal operating pressure regardless of the direction of movement in which the servo
control is placed, the probable cause is the __________. GS-0160

o (a) replenishing pump coupling is broken


o (b) relief valve is not opening
 (c) manual transfer valve is in the wrong position for the main pump being operated
o (d) spring set point for "I" is too high

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

364. (1.2.5.3-6) In the hydraulic anchor windlass system illustrated, the main pressure relief valve
opens as the load increases its strain on the system. The probable cause is the __________. GS-
0160

 (a) manual transfer valve is in the wrong position for the main pump being operated
o (b) replenishing pump discharge check valves are continuously open
o (c) spring set point "I" is set too high for normal loads
o (d) relief valve control shuttle has shifted to the wrong position during windlass operation

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

365. (1.2.5.3-2) The hydraulic system of a deck winch has been drained, flushed, and refilled with
hydraulic fluid. An erratic knocking noise from the hydraulic motor when the winch is started would
indicate __________.

o (a) the fluid level in the reservoir is too high


o (b) clogged suction line fluid filters
 (c) air trapped in the system
o (d) abrasive matter circulating in the oil

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

76 August 2014
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366. (1.2.5.3-1) Which problems can occur if the brake band lining of a wildcat brake becomes
excessively worn?

o (a) The anchor will immediately drop.


o (b) The clutch will overheat.
 (c) The brake's effectiveness will be reduced.
o (d) The driving engine will over speed.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

367. (1.2.5.3-3) Overheating of the hydraulic fluid in an electro-hydraulic anchor windlass can result
from a/an __________.

o (a) low fluid viscosity around the shaft seal


 (b) low fluid level in the reservoir
o (c) high oil level in the sump
o (d) overload on the pump motor

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

368. (1.6.1.1-2) In a two stage centrifugal air conditioning system, the liquid refrigerant passes through
the condenser directly to what component?

o (a) chiller
o (b) expansion valve
 (c) economizer
o (d) evaporator

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

369. (1.6.1.1-4) What is one benefit of maintenance of proper air circulation in an air conditioned cargo
space?

 (a) reduced slime and mold


o (b) increased moisture content
o (c) increased density of the air
o (d) more temperature differential

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

370. (1.6.1.1-6) In general, the thermal bulb for a thermal expansion valve used in a reciprocating air
conditioning system is usually charged with what substance?

 (a) the same refrigerant as the system


o (b) bees wax
o (c) distilled water
o (d) mercuric sulfate

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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371. (1.6.1.1-8) Which of the processes listed would be the most satisfactory method to use to lower
the humidity of the air being circulated by an air conditioning system?

o (a) Cooling the air to a temperature just above dew point.


 (b) Cooling the air to a point below dew point, and then reheating it.
o (c) Heating the air to a point at which moisture will boil off, then recooling it.
o (d) Heating the air and then cooling it to a point below dew point.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

372. (1.6.1.1-10) If outside air at 80 degrees F and 70 percent relative humidity is conditioned, what
will be the resulting dew point temperature of the air just before it comes into contact with the
cooling coil? See Illustration GS-RA-22

o (a) 67 degrees F
o (b) 73 degrees F
o (c) 64 degrees F
 (d) 70 degrees F

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

373. (1.6.1.2-1) To add small amounts of refrigerant to the low side of an air conditioning system, the
refrigerant should be introduced through a particular valve and in a particular state. What valve and
state combination is correct?

 (a) suction service valve as a vapor


o (b) discharge service valve as a vapor
o (c) discharge service valve as a liquid
o (d) suction service valve as a liquid

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

374. (1.6.1.2-2) When pumping down an air conditioning system to test the low pressure cutout switch,
assuming that the compressor is running, what should be done to initiate the test?

 (a) close the "king" valve


o (b) stop the circulating pump
o (c) secure the condenser
o (d) stop the compressor

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

78 August 2014
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375. (1.6.1.2-3) The compressor used in a water-cooled air conditioning system is short cycling. A
service check determines that the suction pressure remains above the normal cut-in point during
cycling and that the discharge pressure rapidly builds up to the cut-out point while running and
gradually falls to the cut-in point during the off cycle. What is likely the cause?

o (a) back seated discharge service valve


 (b) reduction in condenser water flow (scaled condenser)
o (c) front seated liquid line service valve
o (d) loosely fitted compressor drive belt

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

376. (1.6.1.2-4) Concerning the arrangement of equipment and associated hoses shown in the
illustration, what statement is true? Illustration GS-RA-58

o (a) When recovering refrigerant from the centrifugal chiller using this method, it is possible to
achieve the recovery levels required by law without any further recovery.
o (b) When recovering refrigerant from the centrifugal chiller using this method, the vent hose
connection should be closed.
o (c) When recovering refrigerant from the centrifugal chiller using this method, it is permissible to
exceed 90% of the weight capacity of the refrigerant drum.
 (d) When recovering refrigerant from the centrifugal chiller using this method, it minimizes the risk
of chiller tube freeze-up.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

377. (1.6.1.3-1) The surging that occurs in a centrifugal air conditioning compressor is a result of what
conditions?

o (a) low pressure in the condenser at low load


o (b) low pressure in the condenser at high load
o (c) low pressure in the evaporator at high load
 (d) low pressure in the evaporator at low load

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

378. (1.6.1.3-2) In an air conditioning system, low discharge head pressure associated with a
reciprocating compressor can be the result of what condition?

 (a) leaky suction valves


o (b) air in the evaporator coils
o (c) air in the condenser
o (d) insufficient cooling water to the condenser

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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379. (1.6.1.3-3) The air temperature associated with a direct reciprocating air conditioning plant is
found to be too warm, and the compressor is not operating. A service check determines the
compressor suction pressure to be above the normal cut-in point, with a normal head pressure, and
high evaporator superheat. Which of the following could be the cause of this problem?

o (a) Cooling water flow to the condenser is excessive.


 (b) The low pressure control contacts are stuck open.
o (c) A liquid line solenoid valve has failed closed.
o (d) A liquid line solenoid valve is stuck open.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

380. (1.6.1.3-4) Sludge may form in the crankcase of an air conditioning compressor as a result of
what condition?

o (a) lowered compressor operating temperatures


o (b) excessive foaming of the oil in the crankcase
o (c) reducing the cloud or floc point of the oil
 (d) overheating and carbonization of the oil in the crankcase

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

381. (1.6.1.3-5) As shown in the illustrated LP centrifugal chiller high efficiency purge recovery unit
piping schematic, what statement is true concerning the vacuum pump? See Illustration GS-RA-55

 (a) The vacuum pump is designed to remove refrigerant vapor from the carbon filter tank and
transfer these vapors to the evaporator to minimize the loss of refrigerant to the atmosphere.
o (b) The vacuum pump is designed to remove air and non-condensable gases from the evaporator
and transfer these gases to the carbon filter tank for eventual venting to the atmosphere.
o (c) The vacuum pump is designed to remove refrigerant vapor from the carbon filter tank and
transfer these vapors to the purge chamber to blow the float valve clear.
o (d) The vacuum pump is designed to perform a dehydration evacuation on the system prior to
charging with refrigerant.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

382. (1.6.2.1-1) Expansion tanks when used in a ships hot water heating system may be of the open
or closed type. In a closed type system, what would be the normal temperature range of the water?

o (a) 260°F to 280°F


o (b) 320°F to 360°F
o (c) 180°F to 212°F
 (d) 220°F to 240°F

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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383. (1.6.2.2-2) Water hammer in a steam heating system can be caused by __________.

o (a) filling the auxiliary boiler with cold water


 (b) steam admitted to a cold pipe
o (c) filling the auxiliary boiler with hot water
o (d) draining a soot blower line before cracking the steam supply valve

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

384. (1.6.2.2-1) Which of the following guidelines is considered to reflect good design practices for
shipboard steam heating systems?

 (a) Provide a dirt pocket and strainer ahead of the steam trap on a unit heater return.
o (b) Wherever possible install vertical runs for condensate piping.
o (c) Provide all units with a dirt trap and gate valve in the supply and a check valve on the return.
o (d) Provide orifice-type bypasses for all traps and automatic valves.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

385. (1.6.3.1-4) Salt water ballast is to be discharged into the #6 port and starboard wing tanks. Which
combination of valves, illustrated, must be opened, and which valves should be closed? GS-0139

o (a) 3, 4, 7 and 9 open; 1, 2, 5, 6 and 10 closed.


o (b) 1, 2, 7 and 9 open; 3, 4, 5, 6, 8 and 10 closed.
 (c) 1, 3, 5, 6, 8 and 10 open; 2, 4, 7 and 9 closed.
o (d) 1, 2, 5 and 6 open; 4, 7, 8 and 9 closed.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

386. (1.6.3.1-3) In order to take suction on the lube oil drain tank cofferdam with the bilge pump shown
in the illustration, how many suction side valves must be open? GS-0042

o (a) One
 (b) Two
o (c) Three
o (d) Four

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

387. (1.6.3.1-5) One of the consequences in continuing to operate a centrifugal bilge pump with the
discharge valve closed, is that the __________.

o (a) motor overload will open


o (b) motor will overheat
o (c) relief valve will open
 (d) pump will overheat

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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388. (1.6.3.1-2) The emergency bilge suction valve is typically used __________.

o (a) to inject cleaning additives when the bilges are extremely dirty
o (b) when the main condenser becomes fouled, in order to provide additional cooling water
circulation
o (c) to connect the rose box to the independent bilge suction
 (d) if the bilges become flooded and they cannot be emptied by any other means

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

389. (1.6.3.1-1) Accidental flooding of the engine room bilges through the bilge system is prevented by
__________.

o (a) installing a swing check before each bilge valve


o (b) using a positive displacement reciprocating bilge pump
o (c) installing eductors in all bilge rose boxes
 (d) stop-check valves installed in the bilge suction manifolds

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

390. (1.6.4-1) Which of the listed pumps, shown in the illustration, discharges directly to the fuel oil
settling tanks of a diesel engine main propulsion plant? Illustration MO-0058

o (a) Booster pump


 (b) Transfer pump
o (c) Auxiliary bilge pump
o (d) Centrifuge transfer and discharge pumps

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

391. (1.6.4-2) Fuel oil is regularly transferred to the day tank in order to __________.

o (a) make fuel available for immediate use


o (b) allow for decanting of water
o (c) allow impurities to settle out of the fuel
 (d) all of the above

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

392. (1.6.4-3) Fuel oil day tanks for diesel engines must be checked and cleaned at regular intervals in
order to remove __________.

o (a) sludge
o (b) water
o (c) micro-organism growth
 (d) all of the above

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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393. (1.6.4-4) The depth of fuel oil in a tank is normally measured through the __________.

o (a) vent line


o (b) overflow line
o (c) feed line
 (d) sounding tube

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

394. (1.6.4-5) Standby or emergency diesel generator day tanks should always be kept full to reduce
the possibility of __________.

o (a) sediment contamination


o (b) fuel filter clogging
 (c) moisture formation from condensation
o (d) inadequate transfer pump suction head

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

395. (1.6.5-1) Hydraulically, servo-operated, automatic, change over valves, utilized in a two ram
hydraulic steering gear, serve to __________.

 (a) prevent either main pump from being hydraulically motored when idle by cross pressure flow
o (b) prevent both units from operating simultaneously which could result in doubling the flow of oil
and pressure leading to over pressurization of the system
o (c) allow an alternate main pump to start in the fully loaded condition thus developing immediate
full torque
o (d) all of the above

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

396. (1.6.5-2) The rudder torque capacity of the four ram steering gear illustrated is rated at
44,210,000 inch-pounds with one power unit in operation. If the four ram system was able to be
operated as a two ram system with both power units on line, what would be the available torque?
GS-0067

o (a) 11,052,500 inch pounds


 (b) 22,105,000 inch pounds
o (c) 44,210,000 inch pounds
o (d) 88,420,000 inch pounds

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

397. (1.6.5-3) The device shown in the illustration is a/an __________. GS-0116

o (a) mechanical shaft seal


 (b) vane type steering gear
o (c) diesel engine motor mount
o (d) oil scraper ring stuffing box for a crosshead engine

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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398. (1.6.5-4) If it is necessary to prevent the rudder from moving while a repair is made on the
steering system using the illustrated actuator __________. GS-0116

o (a) tighten the locking screws in item "S"


o (b) tighten the locking pins, item "H" at each position of item "I" to keep the rudder from swinging
 (c) secure the valves in the supply and return lines
o (d) screw in the locking pin, item "J"

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

399. (1.6.5-5) In the illustrated schematic, the device used to replace the six-way valve, as found on
many older type steering gears, is the component labeled as __________. GS-0123

 (a) "A"
o (b) "B"
o (c) "F"
o (d) "H"

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

400. (1.6.5-6) Rudder position is shown on the bridge by the __________.

 (a) rudder angle indicator


o (b) follow-up gear
o (c) telemotor position
o (d) Rapson slide indicator

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

401. (1.6.6-1) With respect to a lubricating oil's viscosity and the bearing loading characteristics at the
points of lubrication, what statement is true?

o (a) The viscosity should be low enough to withstand the greatest anticipated torque load and low
enough to minimize power losses.
o (b) The viscosity should be high enough to withstand the greatest anticipated torque load
and high enough to minimize power losses.
 (c) The viscosity should be high enough to withstand the greatest anticipated torque load, but the
viscosity should be low enough to minimize power losses.
o (d) The viscosity should be low enough to withstand the greatest anticipated torque load, but the
viscosity should be high enough to minimize power losses.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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402. (1.6.6-2) Which statement concerning a lubricating oil's viscosity and bearing loading
characteristics is true?

o (a) Shaft bearings associated with relatively low torque loads and high rotational speeds require a
lubricating oil with a relatively high viscosity.
 (b) Shaft bearings associated with relatively high torque loads and low rotational speeds require a
lubricating oil with a relatively high viscosity.
o (c) The viscosity requirements of a lubricating oil are not dependent on the relative torque load or
rotational speed of a shaft bearing.
o (d) Shaft bearings associated with relatively high torque loads and low rotational speeds require a
lubricating oil with a relatively low viscosity.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

403. (1.6.6-4) Greases used for most marine applications would have what National Lubricating
Grease Institute (NLGI) grade?

o (a) 00
 (b) 2
o (c) 4
o (d) 6

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

404. (1.6.6-6) A bearing using an oiling ring as a means of static oil feed must occasionally be serviced
by removing the wear particles, grit, and moisture. How is this accomplished?

o (a) Changing the filter element.


o (b) Rotating the handle of the lube oil strainer.
o (c) Draining the bottom of the strainer housing.
 (d) Draining the bottom of the bearing lube oil sump.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

405. (1.6.6-9) On a bearing using an oiling ring as means of static oil feed, unless adverse conditions
would indicate otherwise, how often should the oil be completely changed at a minimum?

o (a) Weekly
o (b) Quarterly
o (c) Monthly
 (d) Annually

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

85 August 2014
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406. (1.6.7.1-5) When any low pressure distilling plant is operated with less than the designed
vacuum, the __________.

o (a) scale formation decreases


o (b) heat level drops
 (c) heat level rises
o (d) capacity increases

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

407. (1.6.7.1-4) In the production of freshwater from seawater through a process of heating and
cooling, the cooling phase of production is usually called __________.

o (a) dehydration
 (b) condensation
o (c) evaporation
o (d) distillation

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

408. (1.6.7.1-3) The process of boiling seawater in order to separate it into freshwater vapor and brine
is usually defined as __________.

o (a) dehydration
o (b) dissolution
o (c) condensation
 (d) evaporation

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

409. (1.6.7.1-2) The primary reason low pressure evaporators produce distillate more efficiently, and
with less scale formation, than high pressure evaporators is __________.

 (a) evaporation is accomplished in a vacuum


o (b) evaporation in a submerged medium produces more distillate
o (c) due to the higher temperature of the incoming feed
o (d) due to the latent heat of evaporation principle

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

410. (1.6.7.1-1) Which of the following statements is correct relative to distillation plant operation?

 (a) Distillation is the process of boiling seawater to produce vapor which is condensed into fresh
water.
o (b) Evaporation is the second part of the distillation process where brine is removed.
o (c) Distillate is the product resulting from the evaporation of fresh water vapor.
o (d) Brine is the result of condensed sea water vapor.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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411. (1.6.7.2-1) The efficiency of a flash type evaporator can be increased by __________.

o (a) increasing the saltwater feed heater temperature


 (b) decreasing the absolute pressure of each stage
o (c) lowering brine discharge density
o (d) increasing the pressure at the spray pipe

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

412. (1.6.7.2-2) Why would a flash type distilling unit be more efficient when operated in cooler
seawater temperatures?

 (a) Evaporator vacuum is increased.


o (b) Steam carryover between stages is reduced.
o (c) Feed water flow from the feed water heater is increased.
o (d) The amount of available flash steam is decreased.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

413. (1.6.7.2-4) In a two-stage flash evaporator, the sea water feed temperature is increased as it
passes through the __________.

o (a) first-stage distilling condenser


o (b) second-stage distilling condenser
o (c) salt water feed heater
 (d) all of the above

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

414. (1.6.7.2-5) Which of the following descriptions best identifies the operating principal of a flash-
type evaporator?

o (a) Sea water is heated to boiling temperature while under a vacuum.


o (b) Sea water is passed over heated plates in a thin film.
 (c) Heated sea water is injected into a vacuum chamber.
o (d) Sea water is forced through a heated eductor.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

415. (1.6.7.2-6) In a flash evaporator, heated water under pressure is converted into vapor by
suddenly __________.

 (a) decreasing its pressure


o (b) increasing its velocity
o (c) decreasing its density
o (d) increasing its temperature

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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416. (1.6.7.3-2) What is the function of device "A" shown in the illustration? MO-0110

o (a) It aids in removing condenser tube bundles.


o (b) It provides a conduit for incoming feed water.
o (c) It is only used as a lifting beam during installation.
 (d) It serves as a hinge for ease of opening the shell.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

417. (1.6.7.3-1) Diesel engine jacket water is used in the fresh water distillation process as the
__________.

o (a) primary means of producing a vacuum within the distiller


 (b) means of heating the feed water
o (c) coolant for the brine cooler
o (d) coolant for the distillate

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

418. (1.6.7.3-3) Which of the following represents the motivating power fluid used in conjunction with
the ejector pumps on plate type evaporators?

o (a) The ejectors do not require a motive power.


o (b) The motive power is the jacket water flowing through the ejectors.
 (c) The motive power is the feed water supply.
o (d) The motive power is the brine pump output, prior to being discharged overboard.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

419. (1.6.7.3-4) The primary function of line 'J' shown in the illustration is to __________. MO-0110

 (a) remove air and non-condensable gases from the unit


o (b) remove condensable gases from the unit
o (c) allow for removal of produced distillate
o (d) prevent backflow of eductor discharge

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

420. (1.6.7.3-5) The function of device "O" shown in the illustration is to __________. MO-0110

o (a) provide a positive suction head for the brine pump


o (b) regulate the amount of brine entering the unit
o (c) control the amount of brine exiting the evaporator
 (d) control the amount of feed water entering the evaporator

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

88 August 2014
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421. (1.6.8-1) What is used to prevent contamination of a potable water system supplying a plumbing
fixture such as a galley sink from a backup of sewage sanitary drains?

o (a) Location of the potable water spigots below the rim of the galley sink.
 (b) Location of the potable water spigots above the rim of the galley sink.
o (c) A "P" trap in the drain line draining sewage waste from the galley sink.
o (d) Check valves in the potable water supply lines delivering water to the galley sink.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

422. (1.6.8-2) Suppose the pressure switch used to control the "lead" potable water pump is set at 45
psig cut-in for pump start and 55 psig cut-out for pump stop. What would be an appropriate setting
for the "lag" potable water pump?

 (a) 40 psig cut-in for pump start and 55 psig cut-out for pump stop.
o (b) 45 psig cut-in for pump start and 50 psig cut-out for pump stop.
o (c) 45 psig cut-in for pump start and 60 psig cut-out for pump stop.
o (d) 50 psig cut-in for pump start and 60 psig cut-out for pump stop.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

423. (1.6.8-3) What type of disinfection system has the disadvantage that it would fail to provide
residual disinfectant in the potable water?

o (a) A chlorinator located at the potable water storage tank recirculation line.
o (b) A brominator located at the desalinator discharge piping to the potable water storage tank.
 (c) An ultraviolet irradiator at the desalinator discharge to the potable water storage tank.
o (d) A chlorinator located at the desalinator discharge piping to the potable water storage tank.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

424. (1.6.8-4) Which of the following desalination plants will always require a sterilizer when providing
water to a potable water system?

o (a) Submerged tube type unit


o (b) Titanium plate type unit
 (c) Reverse-osmosis type unit
o (d) Multi-stage flash type unit

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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425. (1.6.8-5) Which of the following statements concerning the arrangements of a potable water
system is true?

o (a) Potable water pumps of the positive displacement type require a vacuum-priming system if
located above the potable water storage tanks.
o (b) Potable water pumps of the non-positive displacement type require a vacuum-priming system
if located below the potable water storage tanks.
 (c) Potable water pumps of the non-positive displacement type require a vacuum-priming system
if located above the potable water storage tanks.
o (d) Potable water pumps of the positive displacement type require a vacuum-priming system if
located below the potable water storage tanks.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

426. (1.6.9-1) In order for microbiological growths to thrive in a fuel tank it is necessary for
__________.

o (a) vanadium to be present


o (b) low temperatures to exist
 (c) moisture or water to be present
o (d) electrolysis to be occurring

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

427. (1.6.9-2) Why are heavy fuels not usually prone to the problems of microbiological infection?

o (a) Heavy fuels are subjected to better refining processes which prevent the formation of these
growths.
o (b) Most heavy fuels contain chemicals which prevent the growth of fungi and other bacteria.
o (c) Microbiological infection does not affect marine fuel but rather the personnel who are involved
with the handling, storage and purification of the fuel.
 (d) The necessary nutrients that the organisms feed on are in a more complex form and not
available for microbial degradation.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

428. (1.6.9-3) Fuels as produced in a refinery are generally sterile; however, contamination can occur
as fuels are __________.

o (a) stored at the refinery


o (b) stored on the vessel
o (c) transported to the distribution sites
 (d) All of the above are correct.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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429. (1.6.9-4) Most type(s) of microbiological growths in fuel are __________.

o (a) bacteria
o (b) fungi
o (c) yeasts
 (d) All of the above

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

430. (1.6.9-5) The microbiological growths that affect fuel supplies can easily be transported from one
location to another by __________.

o (a) roaches and other insects


 (b) air, solids, or liquids
o (c) other non-hydrocarbon fuels
o (d) All of the above

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

431. (1.6.10.1-1) An air compressor is equipped with an intercooler and an after cooler to __________.

o (a) inject water vapor into the compressed air


o (b) prevent overheating of first stage valves
 (c) increase compressor efficiency and economy
o (d) reduce the compressed air charge density

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

432. (1.6.10.1-2) The cylinders and intercoolers of most low pressure air compressor's are cooled by
__________.

 (a) air
o (b) CO2
o (c) oil
o (d) water

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

433. (1.6.10.1-3) For any given volume of compressed air produced by a multistage air compressor,
inter stage cooling will __________.

 (a) decrease the power required for compression


o (b) allow the compressed air volume to remain constant
o (c) allow isothermal compression of the air charge
o (d) increase the power required for compression

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

91 August 2014
United States Coast Guard General Subjects-QMED
National Maritime Center March 2014

434. (1.6.10.1-4) The unloading system on an air compressor will __________.

o (a) reduce the compressor frictional load when starting


o (b) increase compressor discharge pressure on demand
o (c) increase compressor operating speed as necessary
 (d) allow the motor to turn the compressor opposed only by friction

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

435. (1.6.10.1-5) The usual method of unloading a low pressure air compressor at start-up is
accomplished by __________.

o (a) the use of a precharged accumulator


o (b) temporarily discharging to the air receiver
o (c) holding the discharge valve open
 (d) holding the suction valve open

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

436. (1.6.10.2-1) Which of the listed devices would be installed at a control system air pressure
reducing station?

o (a) Non-return valve


o (b) Vacuum breaker
o (c) Lubricator
 (d) Moisture separator

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

437. (1.6.10.2-2) If an air compressor is used to supply air primarily to the combustion control system
and other pneumatic controllers, the entire system is known as the __________.

 (a) control air system


o (b) ships service air system
o (c) forced draft air system
o (d) supply air system

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

438. (1.6.10.3-1) One function of the air receiver in a compressed air system is to __________.

o (a) remove all traces of oil from the air


o (b) dry the air discharged from the intercooler
 (c) minimize the system's line pulsations
o (d) receive exhaust air from pneumatic accessories

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

92 August 2014
United States Coast Guard General Subjects-QMED
National Maritime Center March 2014

439. (1.6.10.3-2) When the compressed air reservoir is placed in line with an air compressor and is
used as an after cooler, the reservoir must be __________.

o (a) fitted with a moisture trap at the inlet


 (b) frequently drained of condensed water
o (c) fitted with a manhole
o (d) fitted with a sight glass

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

440. (1.6.10.4-1) The device shown in the illustration is commonly used to __________? GS-0120

o (a) generate electricity


o (b) pump heavy liquids
 (c) compress air
o (d) pump refrigerant

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

441. (1.6.10.4-4) One of the functions of the component labeled "E", shown in the illustration, is to
__________. GS-0119

o (a) act solely as a heat exchanger


o (b) provide storage for compressed cryogenic gases
 (c) act as a lube oil sump
o (d) act as a cyclonic pneumatic dehydrator

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

442. (1.6.10.4-6) As demand on the device shown in the illustration fluctuates in the pressure range of
100 to 110 psi, the output of the unit is controlled by __________. GS-0119

o (a) proportional modulation of the compressor speed


 (b) the modulation of the opening of a butterfly valve located in the air intake
o (c) change in control pressure to modulate the discharge of compressed air to the atmosphere
o (d) complete shut down until the lower pressure limit is reached causing it to restart

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

443. (1.6.11-1) Which of the following statements correctly describes the construction of the close
coupled sanitary pump shown in the illustration? GS-0070

o (a) The pump housing and motor frame provide for radial adjustment of the shaft coupling.
o (b) The pump impeller is classified as double suction.
 (c) The pump and motor have a common shaft.
o (d) The pump suction and discharge connections are made with screwed pipe fittings.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

93 August 2014
United States Coast Guard General Subjects-QMED
National Maritime Center March 2014

444. (1.6.11-2) The device shown in the illustration is a __________. GS-0155

o (a) relief valve


 (b) flushometer valve
o (c) hydro-kineter
o (d) back pressure regulator

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

445. (1.6.11-3) The diaphragm orifice labeled "H", as shown in the illustration is used as a/an
__________. GS-0155

o (a) check valve


o (b) pressure reducer
 (c) time delay
o (d) injector

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

446. (1.6.11-4) According to the illustration, which of the following statements represents the order of
events required to occur for the device to close? GS-0155

o (a) A vacuum is created in chamber "III" as water flows from the toilet, drawing "C" into the closed
position.
 (b) Once "C" has lifted, "A" will reseat with water passing through "H", pressure gradually builds in
chamber "I", developing sufficient force to reseat "C".
o (c) A vacuum is created in chamber "III" as a result of the high flow rate of water passing through
this chamber, drawing "C" down on its seat.
o (d) Releasing "E" physically draws "C" down on its seat.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

447. (1.6.11-5) The drains of lavatory sinks are fitted with P-type or S-type traps to __________.

o (a) reduce water velocity and minimize erosion


o (b) create a strong siphon effect
o (c) provide a cushion of water to reduce the effects of water hammer
 (d) provide a seal against sewer gas rising into the compartment

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

448. (1.6.12.1-3) A viscous film of oil collected between the valve face and seat of a low pressure
reciprocating air compressor will __________.

o (a) prevent the valve from wire drawing


o (b) have no effect on compressor operation
 (c) retard the opening and closing of the valve
o (d) provide quieter valve operation

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

94 August 2014
United States Coast Guard General Subjects-QMED
National Maritime Center March 2014

449. (1.6.12.1-4) Operating a reciprocating air compressor without an air filter will cause __________.

o (a) carbon deposits on valves and pistons


o (b) excessive compressor discharge pressure
 (c) excessive wear on valves and cylinder liners
o (d) a clogged air intake

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

450. (1.6.12.1-5) Carbon deposits forming on the discharge valves of an air compressor are caused by
oil deterioration under high pressure. The first step in reducing these deposits would be to
__________.

o (a) increase the oil volatility


o (b) use a high viscosity oil
 (c) reduce the discharge temperatures with intercoolers
o (d) increase the compression ratio

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

451. (1.6.12.1-6) Excessively low air pressure occurring in the intercooler of a reciprocating air
compressor is caused by __________.

o (a) insufficient intercooler cooling


o (b) low ambient air pressure
o (c) leaky discharge valves on the HP cylinder
 (d) leaky discharge valves on the LP cylinder

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

452. (1.6.12.1-7) Leaking valves in an air compressor can be a result of __________.

o (a) excessive discharge pressure


o (b) irregular compression strokes
 (c) abrasion, dust, and dirt
o (d) excessive compressor speed

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

453. (1.6.12.2-1) As routine maintenance, the bilge manifold valves are periodically removed and
examined. Prior to resecuring the valve bonnets, the valve __________.

o (a) bonnet flange gaskets should be renewed if they were cut or torn
o (b) stem packing should be renewed if the packing has hardened
o (c) disks and seats should be checked and lapped if necessary
 (d) all of the above

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

95 August 2014
United States Coast Guard General Subjects
National Maritime Center Assistant Engineers-DDE

1. (2.2.1.1-1) One of the consequences in continuing to operate a centrifugal bilge pump with the
discharge valve closed, is that the __________.

o (a) motor overload will open


o (b) relief valve will open
o (c) motor will overheat
 (d) pump will overheat

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

2. (2.2.1.1-2) In order to take suction on the lube oil drain tank cofferdam with the bilge pump shown in
the illustration, how many suction side valves must be open? GS-0042

o (a) One
 (b) Two
o (c) Three
o (d) Four

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

3. (2.2.1.1-3) The emergency bilge suction valve is typically used __________.

o (a) to inject cleaning additives when the bilges are extremely dirty
o (b) when the main condenser becomes fouled, in order to provide additional cooling water
circulation
o (c) to connect the rose box to the independent bilge suction
 (d) if the bilges become flooded and they cannot be emptied by any other means

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

4. (2.2.1.1-4) Accidental flooding of the engine room bilges through the bilge system is prevented by
__________.

 (a) stop-check valves installed in the bilge suction manifolds


o (b) using a positive displacement reciprocating bilge pump
o (c) installing eductors in all bilge rose boxes
o (d) installing a swing check before each bilge valve

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

5. (2.2.1.1-5) Under what conditions is it permissible to pump machinery space bilges directly
overboard without processing by an oily water separator?

o (a) When the bilge water holding tank is full.


 (b) When presented with a flooding emergency.
o (c) When operating in international waters beyond the 200 mile limit.
o (d) When, by visual inspection, the bilges appear to be free of oil.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

96 August 2014
United States Coast Guard General Subjects
National Maritime Center Assistant Engineers-DDE

6. (2.2.1.1-6) What is meant by the term independent bilge suction?

o (a) The means by which the machinery space bilge is pumped out by a pump not normally used
as a bilge pump but using either bilge manifolds or automatic bilge suction valves.
 (b) The means by which the machinery space bilge is pumped out by a pump normally used as a
bilge pump but independent of any bilge manifolds or automatic bilge suction valves.
o (c) The means by which a cargo hold bilge is pumped out by a pump normally used as a bilge
pump but independent of any bilge manifolds or automatic bilge suction valves.
o (d) The means by which a cargo hold bilge is pumped out by a pump not normally used as a bilge
pump but using either bilge manifolds or automatic bilge suction valves.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

7. (2.2.1.1-7) What is meant by the term emergency bilge suction?

o (a) The means by which the machinery space bilge is pumped out by a pump not normally used
as a bilge pump and drawing a suction on the bilge through either bilge manifolds or automatic
bilge suction valves.
 (b) The means by which the machinery space bilge is pumped out by a pump not normally used
as a bilge pump and drawing a suction directly on the bilge independent of any bilge manifolds or
automatic bilge suction valves.
o (c) The means by which the machinery space bilge is pumped out by a pump normally used as a
bilge pump and drawing a suction directly on the bilge independent of any bilge manifolds or
automatic bilge suction valves.
o (d) The means by which the machinery space bilge is pumped out by a pump normally used as a
bilge pump and drawing a suction on the bilge through either bilge manifolds or automatic bilge
suction valves.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

8. (2.2.1.1-8) Which of the following bilge pumping applications would most likely use a non-automated
centrifugal pump under manual supervision?

o (a) Shaft alley bilges


o (b) Machinery space bilges
o (c) Engine room bilges
 (d) Dry cargo hold bilges

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

9. (2.2.1.2-1) Salt water ballast is to be discharged into the #6 port and starboard wing tanks. Which
combination of valves, illustrated, must be opened, and which valves should be closed? GS-0139

o (a) 3, 4, 7 and 9 open; 1, 2, 5, 6 and 10 closed.


o (b) 1, 2, 7 and 9 open; 3, 4, 5, 6, 8 and 10 closed.
 (c) 1, 3, 5, 6, 8 and 10 open; 2, 4, 7 and 9 closed.
o (d) 1, 2, 5 and 6 open; 4, 7, 8 and 9 closed.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

97 August 2014
United States Coast Guard General Subjects
National Maritime Center Assistant Engineers-DDE

10. (2.2.1.2-2) Which of the following ballasting operations performed in conjunction with off-loading
cargo could be accomplished without the use of a ballast pump?

o (a) Filling a salt water ballast tank located above the waterline.
o (b) Draining a salt water ballast tank located above the waterline.
o (c) Draining a salt water ballast tank located below the waterline.
 (d) Filling a salt water ballast tank located below the waterline.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

11. (2.2.1.2-3) Which of the following deballasting operations performed in conjunction with loading
cargo could be accomplished without the use of a ballast pump?

 (a) Draining a salt water ballast tank located above the waterline.
o (b) Filling a salt water ballast tank located below the waterline.
o (c) Filling a salt water ballast tank located above the waterline.
o (d) Draining a salt water ballast tank located below the waterline.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

12. (2.2.1.2-4) With regard to a ballast system associated with a dry cargo ship, what is the primary
purpose of the forepeak and aft peak tanks?

o (a) Adjusting the overall draft of the vessel.


 (b) Adjusting the trim of the vessel.
o (c) Correcting a list condition on the vessel.
o (d) Correcting a condition of hogging or sagging of the vessel.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

13. (2.2.1.2-5) With regard to a ballast system associated with a dry cargo ship, what is the primary
purpose of the double-bottom ballast tanks?

 (a) Adjusting the overall draft of the vessel or correcting a condition of list.
o (b) Adjusting the trim of the vessel.
o (c) Correcting a condition of sagging of the vessel.
o (d) Correcting a condition of hogging of the vessel.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

98 August 2014
United States Coast Guard General Subjects
National Maritime Center Assistant Engineers-DDE

14. (2.2.1.2-6) With regard to ballast system operations associated with a dry cargo ship, what is meant
by the term "ballasting"?

o (a) Ballasting is the operation associated with draining ballast tanks to compensate for loading
cargo.
o (b) Ballasting is the operation associated with re-distributing ballast water to correct for a
condition of list.
 (c) Ballasting is the operation associated with filling ballast tanks to compensate for off-loading
cargo.
o (d) Ballasting is the operation associated with re-distributing ballast water to correct for a
condition of hogging or sagging.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

15. (2.2.1.2-7) With regard to ballast system operations associated with a dry cargo ship, what is meant
by the term "deballasting"?

o (a) Ballasting is the operation associated with re-distributing ballast water to correct for a
condition of hogging or sagging.
 (b) Ballasting is the operation associated with draining ballast tanks to compensate for loading
cargo.
o (c) Ballasting is the operation associated with filling ballast tanks to compensate for off-loading
cargo.
o (d) Ballasting is the operation associated with re-distributing ballast water to correct for a
condition of list.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

16. (2.2.1.2-8) With regards to a ballast system associated with an oil tanker, what is meant by the term
"segregated" ballast?

o (a) Segregated ballast is dedicated clean ballast water introduced into tanks that are completely
separate from engine room bilge systems.
 (b) Segregated ballast is dedicated clean ballast water introduced into tanks that are completely
separate from cargo or fuel oil systems.
o (c) Segregated ballast is dedicated clean ballast water introduced into tanks that are completely
separate from sea water circulating or fire main systems.
o (d) Segregated ballast is dedicated clean ballast water introduced into tanks that are completely
separate from clean bilge systems.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

99 August 2014
United States Coast Guard General Subjects
National Maritime Center Assistant Engineers-DDE

17. (2.2.1.2-9) Besides retention of ballast water onboard or use of approved onboard ballast water
treatment equipment, what is another acceptable means for a vessel to be in compliance with the
ballast water management regulations?

o (a) Perform a complete ballast water exchange in an area no less than 3 nautical miles from any
shore prior to discharging ballast in U.S. waters.
o (b) Perform a complete ballast water exchange in an area no less than 12 nautical miles from any
shore prior to discharging ballast in U.S. waters.
o (c) Perform a complete ballast water exchange in an area no less than 25 nautical miles from any
shore prior to discharging ballast in U.S. waters.
 (d) Perform a complete ballast water exchange in an area no less than 200 nautical miles from
any shore prior to discharging ballast in U.S. waters.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

18. (2.2.1.2-10) What is the primary reason why the ballast water management regulations exist as
applicable to vessels equipped with ballast tanks operating in U.S. waters?

 (a) Prevent invasion of non-indigenous foreign marine species into U.S. waters.
o (b) Prevent oil pollution of environmentally sensitive areas within U.S. waters.
o (c) Prevent changes in salinity or salt content of coastal U.S. waters.
o (d) Prevent sedimentary deposits in ports and harbor areas of U.S. waters.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

19. (2.2.2.1-1) After coolers are used with air compressors to __________.

o (a) dampen pressure pulses in the discharge air


o (b) ensure complete expansion of the compressed air
o (c) decrease the density of compressed air
 (d) reduce the temperature of compressed air

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

20. (2.2.2.1-2) The device shown in the illustration is used to __________. GS-0029

o (a) reduce the pressure in the ship's service air system


o (b) maintain correct tension on the drive belts while the compressor is in operation
o (c) grind sewage prior to entering the sewage treatment plant
 (d) unload the cylinders of an air compressor

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

100 August 2014


United States Coast Guard General Subjects
National Maritime Center Assistant Engineers-DDE

21. (2.2.2.1-3) If all of the air charge has been lost from a ship service air receiver, the compressor
mechanical unloading system will __________.

 (a) fail to function as designed, but the compressor having no load will start with little or no
difficulty
o (b) still function normally at start-up
o (c) fail to work, and the drive motor will trip the circuit breaker as the compressor will be
overloaded
o (d) Still function normally, but the safety interlock will stop the drive motor

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

22. (2.2.2.1-4) Over pressurization of an air compressor intercooler is prevented by the __________.

o (a) first-stage unloader


 (b) intercooler relief valve
o (c) last-stage unloader
o (d) after cooler relief valve

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

23. (2.2.2.1-5) The air charge leaving an intercooler, or after cooler of an air compressor can be
expected to be __________.

 (a) at or below the dew point


o (b) superheated
o (c) super cooled
o (d) all of the above

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

24. (2.2.2.1-6) Which of the listed valve types is typically used for suction and discharge valves on
modern low pressure air compressors?

o (a) Sliding
o (b) Rotary
 (c) Reed
o (d) Poppet

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

101 August 2014


United States Coast Guard General Subjects
National Maritime Center Assistant Engineers-DDE

25. (2.2.2.1-7) In order to distribute the side pressures over a wide area of the cylinder walls and liners,
which of the listed types of pistons are used in modern low pressure air compressors?

o (a) Barrel
o (b) Valve-in-head
 (c) Trunk
o (d) Differential

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

26. (2.2.2.1-8) Which of the following compressors would be used for a cold-ship start-up of a ship's
service diesel generator on a motor ship?

o (a) Ship's service air compressor


o (b) Starting air compressor
o (c) Topping air compressor
 (d) Emergency air compressor

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

27. (2.2.2.1-9) Which of the following compressors on a motor ship would most likely operate at
approximately 100 psig?

o (a) Starting air compressor


o (b) Topping air compressor
o (c) Emergency air compressor
 (d) Ship's service air compressor

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

28. (2.2.2.1-10) If an air compressor is fitted with a hand-off-auto (H-O-A) control station, what statement
concerning operation is true?

 (a) In the hand mode, the compressor will run continuously with unloading.
o (b) In the hand mode, the compressor will cycle on and off.
o (c) In the auto mode, the compressor will run continuously with unloading.
o (d) In the off mode, the compressor will cycle on and off.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

29. (2.2.2.2-1) If the drive belts on an air compressor were squealing during startup, you should
__________.

o (a) check for a defective high pressure cut-out switch


o (b) check the air filter
 (c) check the operation of the unloaders
o (d) check for a receiver outlet valve which may be partially closed

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

102 August 2014


United States Coast Guard General Subjects
National Maritime Center Assistant Engineers-DDE

30. (2.2.2.2-2) If one drive belt on an air compressor is found to be worn you should __________.

o (a) replace that belt only


o (b) adjust belt tension
o (c) dress the worn belt
 (d) replace all of the belts

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

31. (2.2.2.2-3) The main bearings of a reciprocating air compressor are tapered roller bearings. When
mounted, these bearings are given a 'cold' end clearance to __________.

 (a) allow for longitudinal expansion of the crankshaft as the unit warms up
o (b) reduce torsional vibration in the crankshaft
o (c) prevent longitudinal thrust in the crankshaft
o (d) allow for crank web deflection

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

32. (2.2.2.2-4) After disassembly, the safest way to remove carbon deposits from air compressor inlet
and discharge valves is to use __________.

o (a) gasoline
 (b) diesel oil
o (c) naphtha
o (d) ammonia

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

33. (2.2.2.2-5) How often should the air receivers on a compressed air system be drained of moisture
and emulsions?

o (a) Quarterly
o (b) Weekly
 (c) Daily
o (d) Monthly

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

34. (2.2.2.2-6) When checking the oil level on a reciprocating air compressor fitted with a dipstick, under
what conditions should the oil level be checked?

o (a) With the compressor running at speed and unloaded.


o (b) With the compressor running at speed and loaded.
o (c) With the compressor in the auto mode and currently not running.
 (d) With the compressor in the off mode incapable of starting.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

103 August 2014


United States Coast Guard General Subjects
National Maritime Center Assistant Engineers-DDE

35. (2.2.2.2-7) As an indication that an air compressor air intake filter needs to be replaced or cleaned,
what statement is true?

o (a) For a given air demand, the compressor would run for shorter periods and the air intake
pressure as measured between the filter and the compressor inlet would be more negative than
with a clean filter.
o (b) For a given air demand, the compressor would run for longer periods and the air intake
pressure as measured between the filter and the compressor inlet would be less negative than
with a clean filter.
 (c) For a given air demand, the compressor would run for longer periods and the air intake
pressure as measured between the filter and the compressor inlet would be more negative than
with a clean filter.
o (d) For a given air demand, the compressor would run for shorter periods and the air intake
pressure as measured between the filter and the compressor inlet would be less negative than
with a clean filter.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

36. (2.2.2.2-8) Which of the following statements represents the proper procedural sequence for
adjusting the metering rate of an in-line lubricator as used in a ship's service air system hose
station? Assume that the pressure regulator has been properly set.

 (a) Establish normal air flow. Determine drip rate. Further open needle valve to increase drip rate
or further close needle valve to decrease drip rate, as appropriate.
o (b) Establish normal air flow. Determine drip rate. Further open needle valve to decrease drip rate
or further close needle valve to increase drip rate, as appropriate.
o (c) Temporarily shut-off air flow. Determine drip rate. Further open needle valve to decrease drip
rate or further close needle valve to increase drip rate, as appropriate. Re-establish normal air
flow.
o (d) Temporarily shut-off air flow. Determine drip rate. Further open needle valve to increase drip
rate or further close needle valve to decrease drip rate, as appropriate. Re-establish normal air
flow.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

37. (2.2.2.2-9) Which of the following statements represents the proper criteria to decide when to drain a
filter/moisture separator as used in a ship's service air system hose station?

o (a) The bowl should be drained daily with no need to check the moisture level.
o (b) The bowl should be drained whenever moisture droplets appear in the bowl.
 (c) The bowl should be drained before the moisture level reaches the lower baffle.
o (d) The bowl should be drained after the bowl completely fills with moisture.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

104 August 2014


United States Coast Guard General Subjects
National Maritime Center Assistant Engineers-DDE

38. (2.2.2.2-10) In a twin-tower desiccant type air dryer using silica gel as an adsorbing agent, what is
the procedure for rejuvenating the tower presently on service when the desiccant becomes saturated
with moisture?

o (a) The towers are shifted, and the off-going tower is refrigerated.
o (b) Heat is applied to the tower on service and it remains on service while heating.
o (c) The tower on service is refrigerated and it remains on service while cooling.
 (d) The towers are shifted, and heat is applied to the off-going tower.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

39. (2.2.2.3-3) Excessively low air pressure occurring in the intercooler of a reciprocating air compressor
is caused by __________.

o (a) leaky discharge valves on the HP cylinder


 (b) leaky discharge valves on the LP cylinder
o (c) low ambient air pressure
o (d) insufficient intercooler cooling

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

40. (2.2.2.3-1) A viscous film of oil collected between the valve face and seat of a low pressure
reciprocating air compressor will __________.

o (a) prevent the valve from wire drawing


o (b) provide quieter valve operation
 (c) retard the opening and closing of the valve
o (d) have no effect on compressor operation

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

41. (2.2.2.3-2) Operating a reciprocating air compressor without an air filter will cause __________.

o (a) a clogged air intake


o (b) carbon deposits on valves and pistons
 (c) excessive wear on valves and cylinder liners
o (d) excessive compressor discharge pressure

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

42. (2.2.2.3-4) Which of the following problems would be the probable cause for the faulty operation of a
reciprocating air compressor suction valve?

o (a) Carbon build up in the piston ring belt.


o (b) Lifting of intercooler relief valve.
o (c) compressor operation in an area of high relative humidity.
 (d) Faulty operation of a cylinder unloader.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

105 August 2014


United States Coast Guard General Subjects
National Maritime Center Assistant Engineers-DDE

43. (2.2.2.3-5) In a low pressure air compressor, the loss of volumetric efficiency normally results from
__________.

 (a) heating of the air leaving the cylinders


o (b) constant enlargement of the clearance expansion volume
o (c) adiabatic compression in the intercooler
o (d) inaccurate valve timing

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

44. (2.2.2.3-6) Which of the following causes would most likely result in excessively high belt-driven
reciprocating air compressor drive motor running current draw?

 (a) Excessive drive belt tension.


o (b) Insufficient drive belt tension.
o (c) Excessive internal running clearances.
o (d) Clogged air intake filter.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

45. (2.2.2.3-7) If a reciprocating air compressor was operating at a compression ratio that exceeded its
design parameters, what would be the effect?

 (a) Higher than normal discharge pressure and lower than normal displacement capacity.
o (b) Lower than normal discharge pressure and higher than normal displacement capacity.
o (c) Higher than normal discharge pressure and higher than normal displacement capacity.
o (d) Lower than normal discharge pressure and lower than normal displacement capacity.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

46. (2.2.2.3-8) If a belt-driven reciprocating air compressor is operating at a lower than design
displacement capacity (in cubic feet per minute), which of the following would be a cause?

 (a) Insufficiently tensioned drive belts.


o (b) Misalignment between the compressor and its driver.
o (c) Improperly lubricated bearings.
o (d) Excessively tensioned drive belts.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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United States Coast Guard General Subjects
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47. (2.2.2.3-9) If a reciprocating air compressor has cylinder suction or discharge valves that fail to
properly seat, what statement is true concerning the result?

o (a) The compressor would have longer running periods at higher displacement capacity between
operating cycles.
o (b) The compressor would have shorter running periods at lower displacement capacity between
operating cycles.
o (c) The compressor would have shorter running periods at higher displacement capacity between
operating cycles.
 (d) The compressor would have longer running periods at lower displacement capacity between
operating cycles.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

48. (2.2.2.3-10) What statement is true concerning carbon deposit formation on reciprocating
compressor cylinder valves?

 (a) The rate of carbon deposit formation is directly proportional to the extent of cylinder oil
pumping and directly proportional to the cylinder compression temperatures.
o (b) The rate of carbon deposit formation is directly proportional to the extent of cylinder oil
pumping and inversely proportional to the cylinder compression temperatures.
o (c) The rate of carbon deposit formation is inversely proportional to the extent of cylinder oil
pumping and inversely proportional to the cylinder compression temperatures.
o (d) The rate of carbon deposit formation is inversely proportional to the extent of cylinder oil
pumping and directly proportional to the cylinder compression temperatures.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

49. (2.2.3.1-1) Which of the listed central operating system types requires conversion of continuous
analog signals from the sensing and transmitting devices to discrete bits of information that can be
understood by the system computer for the purposes of processing and control.

o (a) Pneumatic
 (b) Digital
o (c) Electric/electronic
o (d) Direct connected

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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United States Coast Guard General Subjects
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50. (2.2.3.1-2) As shown in figure "B" of the illustrated block diagram of a central operating system
configured for supervisory control, which statement is true concerning the block "COMPUTER" with
respect to closed-loop control processes? Illustration EL-0094

o (a) The computer normally has no role in the various closed-loop control processes. It is only
used for backup control purposes.
o (b) The computer has no role in the various closed-loop control processes regardless of the
control mode.
 (c) The computer provides the set point input data to the analog controllers, but the analog
controllers actually control the closed-loop processes.
o (d) The computer provides the set point input data to the process control loop, as well as the
measured variable data. The analog controllers are only used for manual backup control.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

51. (2.2.3.1-3) As shown in figure "B" in the illustrated block diagram of a central operating system
configured for supervisory control, what is the function of the block "ANALOG (A-D MUX)"? (EL-
0094)

 (a) A high speed solid-state switching device called a multiplexer capable of scanning a large
number of analog sensors in a short period of time and converting these to signals to digital
values for processing by the CPU.
o (b) A low speed solid-state switching device called a multiplexer capable of scanning a small
number of analog sensors in a long period of time and converting these to signals to digital values
for processing by the CPU.
o (c) A low speed solid-state switching device called a multiplexer capable of scanning a small
number of digital sensors in a long period of time and converting these to signals to analog values
for processing by the CPU.
o (d) A high speed solid-state switching device called a multiplexer capable of scanning a large
number of digital sensors in a short period of time and converting these to signals to analog
values for processing by the CPU.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

52. (2.2.3.1-4) As shown in figure "B" of the illustrated block diagram for a central operating system
configured for supervisory control, what is becoming the industry standard for transmission of analog
signals for a measured variable? (EL-0094)

o (a) -10 volts to +10 volts


o (b) 1 volt to 5 volts
 (c) 4 milliamps to 20 milliamps
o (d) 10 milliamps to 50 milliamps

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

108 August 2014


United States Coast Guard General Subjects
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53. (2.2.3.1-5) As shown in figure "A" of the illustrated block diagram of a central operating system
configured for direct digital control, what does the output system block "ANALOG D/A" represent?
(EL-0095)

o (a) It receives analog outputs from the CPU and converts these to digital signals for transmission
to the digital actuators.
o (b) It receives analog outputs from the CPU and conditions these to analog signals for
transmission to the analog actuators.
 (c) It receives digital outputs from the CPU and converts these to analog signals for transmission
to the analog actuators.
o (d) It receives digital outputs from the CPU and conditions these to digital signals for transmission
to the digital actuators.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

54. (2.2.3.1-6) As shown in figure "A" of the illustrated block diagram of a central operating system
configured for direct digital control, what does the output system block "DIGITAL OUTPUT"
represent? (EL-0095)

 (a) It receives digital outputs from the CPU and conditions these to digital signals for transmission
to the digital actuators.
o (b) It receives analog outputs from the CPU and converts these to digital signals for transmission
to the digital actuators.
o (c) It receives digital outputs from the CPU and converts these to analog signals for transmission
to the analog actuators.
o (d) It receives analog outputs from the CPU and conditions these to analog signals for
transmission to the analog actuators.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

55. (2.2.3.1-7) As shown in figure "A" of the illustrated block diagram of a central operating system
configured for direct digital control, what does the output system block "ANALOG A/D" represent?
(EL-0095)

 (a) It receives analog outputs from the analog device sensors and converts these to digital signals
for CPU processing.
o (b) It receives digital outputs from the binary device sensors and conditions these as digital
signals for CPU processing.
o (c) It receives digital outputs from the binary device sensors and converts these to analog signals
for CPU processing.
o (d) It receives analog outputs from the analog device sensors and conditions these as analog
signals for CPU processing.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

109 August 2014


United States Coast Guard General Subjects
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56. (2.2.3.1-8) As shown in figure "A" of the illustrated block diagram of a central operating system
configured for direct digital control, what does the output system block "DIGITAL CONTACT"
represent? (EL-0095)

o (a) It receives analog outputs from the analog device sensors and conditions these as analog
signals for CPU processing.
o (b) It receives digital outputs from the binary device sensors and converts these to analog signals
for CPU processing.
o (c) It receives analog outputs from the analog device sensors and converts these to digital signals
for CPU processing.
 (d) It receives digital outputs from the binary device sensors and conditions these as digital
signals for CPU processing.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

57. (2.2.3.1-9) As shown in the illustrated block diagram for a distributed automation system, what
statement is true concerning the area networks? (EL-0096)

o (a) The LAN is a dual redundant network and the partitioned CAN is also a dual redundant
network, with no interconnectivity between the two networks.
 (b) The LAN is a dual redundant network and the partitioned CAN is also a dual redundant
network, with both networks being interconnected.
o (c) The LAN is a single non-redundant network and the partitioned CAN is a dual redundant
network, with both networks being interconnected.
o (d) The LAN is a single non-redundant network and the partitioned CAN is a dual redundant
network, with no interconnectivity between the two networks.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

58. (2.2.3.1-10) As shown in the illustrated block diagram for a distributed automation system, what
statement is true concerning the workstations labeled "LOS" associated with the port power
management system? (EL-0096)

 (a) These are local operating system workstations that allow local control of processes related to
the operation and control of the port switchboard and its associated generators.
o (b) These are local oil system workstations that allow local control of processes related to the
lubrication of the port generators.
o (c) These are local operating system workstations that allow local control of processes related to
the lubrication of all machinery within the engineering plant.
o (d) These are local operating system workstations that allow local control of processes related to
the operation and control of all functions within the engineering plant.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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United States Coast Guard General Subjects
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59. (2.2.3.1-11) As shown in the illustrated block diagram for a distributed automation system, what
statement is true concerning the data communication pathways labeled "Dual CAN"? (EL-0096)

o (a) These are control area networks providing supply and return pathways for communication.
 (b) These are control area networks providing redundancy so as to maintain communications
despite a bus failure.
o (c) These are communication access nodes providing redundancy so as to maintain
communications despite a node failure.
o (d) These are communication access nodes providing supply and return pathways for
communication.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

60. (2.2.3.1-12) As shown in the illustrated block diagram for a distributed automation system, what
statement is true concerning the units labeled "WCU" in the accommodations? (EL-0096)

o (a) These are watch cabin units extending the alarm system to engineer staterooms vessels with
engine rooms requiring 24-hour manning of watches.
o (b) These are watch control units extending remote operating system functionality to engineer
staterooms vessels with periodically unmanned engine rooms.
o (c) These are watch control units extending remote operating system functionality to engineer
staterooms vessels with engine rooms requiring 24-hour manning of watches.
 (d) These are watch cabin units extending the alarm system to engineer staterooms vessels with
periodically unmanned engine rooms.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

61. (2.2.3.1-13) As shown in the illustrated block diagram for a distributed automation system, what
statement is true concerning the units labeled "ROS" which are remote operating system
workstations? Illustration EL-0096

 (a) Operator access to control functions among the various ROS locations differ depending on
system configuration and need.
o (b) The ROS located in the ship's office is designated as the master ROS.
o (c) The ROS located in the wheelhouse is designated as the master ROS.
o (d) Operator access to control functions among the various ROS locations are all identical.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

62. (2.2.3.2-2) What type of temperature transmitter would be most suitable for measuring running gear
bearing temperatures in a diesel engine in that it requires no contact with the bearing?

o (a) Thermistor probe


 (b) Radiation pyrometer
o (c) Resistance temperature detector
o (d) Thermocouple pyrometer

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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United States Coast Guard General Subjects
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63. (2.2.3.2-3) What type of temperature transmitter would be most suitable for measuring diesel engine
exhaust and boiler stack temperatures and generates its own electromotive force?

o (a) Thermistor probe


o (b) Resistance temperature detector
o (c) Radiation pyrometer
 (d) Thermocouple pyrometer

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

64. (2.2.3.2-4) What is another name for the control mode used in a process control system that uses
two-point control?

o (a) Integral control


o (b) Derivative control
o (c) Proportional control
 (d) On-off control

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

65. (2.2.3.2-5) In a closed-loop process control system, what term is used to describe the action of
measuring the difference between the actual result and the desired result and using that difference
to drive the actual result toward the desired result?

o (a) Gain
 (b) Feedback
o (c) Instability
o (d) Dead band

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

66. (2.2.3.2-6) In a closed-loop process control system, what statement concerning feedback is true as it
relates to stability and the direction of error displacement?

o (a) Negative feedback is used to minimize instability by pushing the system in the same direction
as the error displacement.
o (b) Positive feedback is used to minimize instability by pushing the system in the same direction
as the error displacement.
 (c) Negative feedback is used to minimize instability by pushing the system in the opposite
direction as the error displacement.
o (d) Positive feedback is used to minimize instability by pushing the system in the opposite
direction as the error displacement.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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67. (2.2.3.2-7) In a closed-loop process control system featuring negative feedback, what is the function
of the error detector within the controller?

o (a) The error detector computes the sum of the measured value of the controlled variable and the
desired value (set point).
o (b) The error detector computes the quotient of the measured value of the controlled variable and
the desired value (set point).
 (c) The error detector computes the difference between the measured value of the controlled
variable and the desired value (set point).
o (d) The error detector computes the product of the measured value of the controlled variable and
the desired value (set point).

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

68. (2.2.3.2-8) What type of primary element for a pressure transmitter would be most suitable for
measuring oil-fired boiler furnace and forced-draft pressures?

o (a) Bellows pressure sensor


 (b) Diaphragm pressure sensor
o (c) Bourdon tube pressure sensor
o (d) Strain gage pressure sensor

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

69. (2.2.3.2-9) Which of the following rotational shaft speed sensors produces a digital signal?

 (a) Optical tachometer


o (b) Brush-type DC tachometer
o (c) Brushless DC tachometer
o (d) AC tachometer

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

70. (2.2.3.2-10) Which of the following liquid level sensors would be most suitable for measuring the
liquid level in a pressure vessel such a water-tube boiler steam drum?

o (a) Capacitance probe


 (b) Differential pressure sensor
o (c) Static pressure sensor
o (d) Displacement float level sensor

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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United States Coast Guard General Subjects
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71. (2.2.4.1-7) Concerning the start-up of plain bearings utilizing the three modes of hydrodynamic
lubrication, what is the correct sequence of modes from start-up through coming up to operational
speed?

o (a) First full-film lubrication, followed by boundary lubrication, then finally mixed-film lubrication.
 (b) First boundary lubrication, followed by mixed-film lubrication, then finally full-film lubrication.
o (c) First boundary lubrication, followed by full-film lubrication, then finally mixed-film lubrication.
o (d) First mixed-film lubrication, followed by boundary lubrication, then finally full-film lubrication.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

72. (2.2.4.1-8) Which of the following bearing types would be an example of a rolling-element bearing
which substitutes fluid friction for rolling contact friction?

o (a) a sleeve bearing


o (b) a plain bearing
 (c) a ball bearing
o (d) a journal bearing

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

73. (2.2.4.1-9) Which of the following bearing types would be an example of a plain bearing which
substitutes fluid friction for sliding friction?

 (a) a journal bearing


o (b) a roller bearing
o (c) a needle bearing
o (d) a ball bearing

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

74. (2.2.4.1-10) Which of the following roller bearing types would be limited to radial thrust load
applications?

o (a) single row spherical roller bearing


o (b) single row tapered roller bearing
o (c) double row spherical roller bearing
 (d) single row cylindrical roller bearing

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

114 August 2014


United States Coast Guard General Subjects
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75. (2.2.4.1-11) What statement is true concerning the hydrostatic lubrication of plain bearings?

 (a) An outside pressure source is required for lubrication and full-film lubrication is present at any
shaft speed.
o (b) An outside pressure source is not required for lubrication and full-film lubrication is
present only at operational speed.
o (c) An outside pressure source is required for lubrication and full-film lubrication is present only at
operational speed.
o (d) An outside pressure source is not required for lubrication and full-film lubrication is present at
any shaft speed.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

76. (2.2.4.2-5) A dented race in an antifriction bearing could be caused by __________.

o (a) water in the bearing


o (b) dirt in the bearing
 (c) vibration while the bearing is not in operation
o (d) abrasives in the lubricant

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

77. (2.2.4.2-2) In a compression type automatic grease cup, the lubricant is forced into the bearing by
__________.

o (a) a pressure gun


o (b) a zerk fitting
 (c) spring force
o (d) gravity flow

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

78. (2.2.4.2-3) Antifriction bearings can be removed undamaged from a shaft by using an arbor press, or
wheel puller with a________.

o (a) split die


 (b) split washer or backup ring
o (c) jack screw
o (d) ring gage

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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United States Coast Guard General Subjects
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79. (2.2.4.2-1) After adding grease to a ball bearing with a handheld grease gun, you should
__________.

o (a) close the bearing housing drain and add a little extra grease to compensate for air pockets in
the bearing
 (b) run the machine with the bearing housing drain plug open for a short while
o (c) save the used grease for chemical analysis
o (d) remove the grease fitting and leave open to allow excess grease to escape

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

80. (2.2.4.2-4) A roller bearing should normally be filled to what fraction of its space cavity?

o (a) Less than 1/4


 (b) 1/3 to 1/2
o (c) 1/2 to 3/4
o (d) More than 3/4

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

81. (2.2.4.2-6) A ball or roller bearing has an interference fit with the shaft upon which it is being installed
with a hydraulic or arbor press. Upon what surface should the sleeve of the press be applied?

o (a) the shaft


 (b) the inner race
o (c) the outer race
o (d) the housing

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

82. (2.2.4.2-7) A ball or roller bearing has an interference fit with the housing in which it is being installed
with a hydraulic or arbor press. Upon what surface should the sleeve of the press be applied?

o (a) the shaft


o (b) the housing
o (c) the inner race
 (d) the outer race

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

83. (2.2.4.2-8) A roller bearing has an interference fit with the shaft upon which it is being installed. What
thermal method of mounting the bearing would be most appropriate?

 (a) Heating the bearing in an oil-bath bearing heater.


o (b) Cooling the bearing with dry ice.
o (c) Cooling the shaft with liquid refrigerant.
o (d) Heating the bearing with an oxyacetylene torch.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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United States Coast Guard General Subjects
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84. (2.2.4.2-9) Rolling element bearings may experience fatigue failure after a length of service. What is
the first evidence of the beginnings of fatigue failure?

o (a) Discoloration of the races or rolling elements.


o (b) The presence of metallic particles in the lubricant.
o (c) The presence of small cracks in the rolling elements.
 (d) The presence of small cracks in the races.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

85. (2.2.4.2-10) What is the primary indication of a grease lubricated bearing that is over-lubricated in
terms of the quantity of grease in the housing?

o (a) The bearing temperature would tend to produce unusual vibrations.


o (b) The bearing temperature would tend to run cooler than normal for the load.
o (c) The bearing would tend to produce a noticeable change in sound.
 (d) The bearing temperature would tend to run hotter than normal for the load.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

86. (2.2.4.2-11) Which of the following statements concerning antifriction bearings installed on pumps is
true?

o (a) The outer race should be free to turn its housing.


o (b) Alignment is not a critical factor in their installation.
 (c) They are usually pressed on to their shafts.
o (d) The inner race should be free to turn on the shaft.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

87. (2.2.5.4.1-1) Regarding a freshwater generator of the reverse-osmosis type, what statement is true?

 (a) The solute is salt and the solvent is fresh water.


o (b) The solute is fresh water and the solvent is salt.
o (c) The solute is saltwater and the solvent is salt.
o (d) The solute is salt and the solvent is saltwater.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

88. (2.2.5.4.1-6) Reverse-osmosis freshwater generators usually feature multiple membrane modules,
typically of the spiral-wound membrane type. How are these multiple membrane modules piped?

o (a) The multiple membrane modules are always connected in parallel.


 (b) The multiple membranes may be connected in series, parallel, or in some combination of
series and parallel.
o (c) The multiple membrane modules are always connected in series.
o (d) The multiple membranes may be connected in series or parallel, but never in
some combination of series and parallel.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

117 August 2014


United States Coast Guard General Subjects
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89. (2.2.5.4.1-3) Regarding a reverse-osmosis type freshwater generator using multiple spiral-wound
membrane modules, what statement is true?

o (a) Modules may be piped in series to increase the freshwater throughput.


 (b) Modules may be piped in series to increase the freshwater purity.
o (c) Modules may be piped in parallel to increase the freshwater purity.
o (d) Modules may be piped in series to decrease the likelihood of fouling.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

90. (2.2.5.4.1-10) To ensure potable water of drinking quality, chemical treatment is required for reverse-
osmosis freshwater generators. What is the purpose of chemical pre-treatment?

o (a) Chemical pre-treatment removes particulate matter and suspended solids from the sea water
inlet to the unit to prevent fouling of the membrane modules.
o (b) Chemical pre-treatment removes particulate matter and suspended solids from the freshwater
leaving the unit prior to distribution to the various freshwater storage tanks.
 (c) Chemical pre-treatment sterilizes the sea water entering the unit to prevent bacteria from
becoming resident in the reverse-osmosis unit filters and membrane modules.
o (d) Chemical pre-treatment sterilizes the freshwater leaving the unit prior to distribution to the
various freshwater storage tanks.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

91. (2.2.5.4.1-2) Regarding the operating principle of a reverse-osmosis type freshwater generator, what
statement is true?

o (a) External pressure is applied to the side of strong concentration forcing salt through the semi-
permeable membrane to the side of weak concentration.
o (b) External pressure is applied to the side of weak concentration forcing salt through the semi-
permeable membrane to the side of strong concentration.
o (c) External pressure is applied to the side of weak concentration forcing freshwater through the
semi-permeable membrane to the side of strong concentration.
 (d) External pressure is applied to the side of strong concentration forcing freshwater through the
semi-permeable membrane to the side of weak concentration.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

92. (2.2.5.4.1-7) Regarding the high-pressure pump of a reverse-osmosis freshwater generator, what
statement is true?

o (a) The high-pressure pump is typically a two-stage centrifugal pump, but may be a two-
stage rotary pump.
o (b) The high-pressure pump is typically a single-cylinder reciprocating pump, but may be a single-
stage centrifugal pump.
 (c) The high-pressure pump is typically a multiple-cylinder reciprocating pump, but may be a
multi-stage centrifugal pump.
o (d) The high-pressure pump is typically a two-stage rotary pump, but may be a two-stage
centrifugal pump.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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93. (2.2.5.4.1-5) For the successful operation of a reverse-osmosis freshwater generator, why is the high
pressure pump required to operate in the 750 to 1200 psig range for a discharge pressure?

o (a) To overcome the pore size of the semi-permeable membrane.


o (b) To successfully force the salt water through the chemical pre-treatment device.
 (c) To overcome the osmotic pressure generated by the difference in solution concentrations.
o (d) To successfully force the salt water through the pre-filter (or pre-filters).

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

94. (2.2.5.3.3-3) If the orifice in the loop seal of a flash evaporator were to become significantly enlarged
through erosion, the __________.

o (a) salt water feed heater absolute pressure would increase to that of the evaporator second
stage
o (b) evaporator absolute pressure would eventually equalize in both stages to that of the first stage
o (c) distillate produced in the second stage would flow towards the first stage
 (d) evaporator absolute pressure could eventually equalize in both stages to that of the second
stage

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

95. (2.2.5.3.3-4) If the distilling plant first stage absolute pressure is higher than normal, while the
second stage absolute pressure remains satisfactory, the probable fault is due to __________.

o (a) priming in the second stage


 (b) an air leak through a vacuum gage line in the first stage
o (c) loss of the distillate loop seal between the stages
o (d) failure of the brine pump

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

96. (2.2.5.3.3-1) A high reading is only indicated at the salinity cells labeled "W" and "6" shown in the
illustration. This would be the probable result of __________. GS-0053

o (a) a tube leak in item 'IV', which contributes to a surging absolute pressure in "III"
o (b) carryover from "III"
 (c) a faulty cell at location "6" and a tube leak in item "I"
o (d) erosion of item "3" or the valve opened too wide if used

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

97. (2.2.5.3.3-2) Scale formation in a flash-type evaporator is usually found in the __________.

o (a) flash chamber walls


o (b) tubes of the distiller condenser
 (c) tubes of the salt water feed heater
o (d) tubes of the air ejector condenser

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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98. (2.2.5.3.3-5) On which of the following heated surfaces of a flash type evaporator would you be more
likely to find soft scale formation?

 (a) Feed water heater internal tube surfaces.


o (b) Internal distillate cooler tubes.
o (c) Flash chamber vertical surfaces.
o (d) Distilling condenser tubes.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

99. (2.2.5.3.1-3) Small droplets of water entrained in the flashed vapor produced in a flash-type
evaporator are removed by the __________.

o (a) condensers
 (b) demisters
o (c) splash baffles
o (d) spray pipes

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

100. (2.2.5.3.1-1) A vacuum is initially created in a flash type distilling plant by __________.

o (a) the flashing of the feed water


 (b) air ejectors, eductors, or a separate vacuum pump
o (c) the condensation of the saltwater feed
o (d) condensation of the distillate

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

101. (2.2.5.3.1-2) Early models of the flash-type evaporators used a separate shell-and-tube heat
exchanger as the air ejector condenser. More recent models use a combined air ejector condenser
with the __________.

o (a) flash chamber


 (b) salt water feed heater
o (c) distillate cooler
o (d) distilling condenser

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

102. (2.2.5.3.1-5) The brine level in the second-stage of a flash-type evaporator is determined in part
by the feed rate, the rate of evaporation in both stages, and the __________.

 (a) throughput of the brine overboard pump


o (b) steam flow rate to the air ejectors
o (c) float controlled level of the feed heater
o (d) capacity of the distillate pump

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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103. (2.2.5.2.2.2-4) What would be the first indication that a tube leak has occurred in area "23"?
Illustration MO-0111

o (a) The level in area "3" would decrease.


o (b) The level in area "3" would increase.
o (c) The level in area "1" would increase.
 (d) The level in area "1" would decrease.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

104. (2.2.5.2.2.2-1) When securing a jacket-water heated submerged tube evaporator for an extended
period of time, you should __________.

o (a) fill the unit with saltwater


o (b) fill the unit with descaling compound
 (c) completely drain the unit
o (d) tightly seal the unit to exclude air

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

105. (2.2.5.2.2.2-2) Which of the following acids is preferable and most commonly used for scale
removal from the heating surfaces of the jacket-water heated submerged-tube evaporator?

o (a) Concentrated hydrochloric acid


 (b) Citric or sulfuric acid
o (c) Concentrated sulfuric acid
o (d) Muriatic acid

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

106. (2.2.5.2.1.1-5) What occurs in the space labeled "G" of the device shown in the illustration? MO-
0110

o (a) Jacket water is heated in the boiling chamber.


 (b) The feed water enters the device and vaporizes under vacuum conditions.
o (c) The feed water is cooled prior to being pumped into section "F".
o (d) Scale accumulates at position "E".

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

107. (2.2.5.2.1.1-4) Which of the following conditions occurs in the section labeled "F" of the device
shown in the illustration? MO-0110

o (a) Non-condensable vapors are removed and water vapors are preheated.
o (b) The sea water flowing through device "I" is cooled.
o (c) The jacket water flowing through device "I" is heated.
 (d) The vapors produced in section "G" are condensed and the non-condensable gases are
removed.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

121 August 2014


United States Coast Guard General Subjects
National Maritime Center Assistant Engineers-DDE

108. (2.2.5.2.1.1-2) What is the function of device "B" shown in the illustration? MO-0110

o (a) It serves to boil off incoming feed water.


 (b) It condenses the vapors formed in section "G".
o (c) It removes sensible heat from the jacket water.
o (d) It serves to cool incoming feed water.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

109. (2.2.5.2.1.1-1) What is the function of device 'C' shown in the illustration? MO-0110

o (a) The division plate creates a pressure drop between the two stages.
o (b) It allows for access into section 'F'.
o (c) It controls the amount of vapor produced in section 'F'.
 (d) It removes moisture entrained in the vapors produced in section 'G'.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

110. (2.2.5.2.1.1-3) What is the function of item 'D' shown in the illustration? MO-0110

o (a) It condenses the distillate.


 (b) It heats the entering feed water.
o (c) It causes the jacket water to evaporate.
o (d) It heats the jacket water entering the device.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

111. (2.2.5.4.2-10) For the successful operation of a reverse-osmosis freshwater generator, the setting
of the brine back pressure regulator is critical. What statement regarding the set point of this
regulator is true?

 (a) If the regulator setting is set too high, the membrane modules may be damaged. If the
regulator setting is too low, the freshwater production will be too low.
o (b) If the regulator setting is set too low, the membrane modules may become fouled. If the
regulator setting is too high, the freshwater production will be too low.
o (c) If the regulator setting is set too high, the membrane modules may become fouled. If the
regulator setting is too low, the freshwater production will be too low.
o (d) If the regulator setting is set too low, the membrane modules may be damaged. If the
regulator setting is too high, the freshwater production will be too low.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

112. (2.2.5.4.2-8) If a reverse-osmosis freshwater generating unit has a high salinity alarm associated
with the freshwater outlet, what should be done?

o (a) The pre-filters should be serviced by cleaning or replacement.


o (b) The post-treatment sterilizer should be serviced.
o (c) The pre-treatment chemical doser should be serviced.
 (d) The membrane modules should be flushed and cleaned.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

122 August 2014


United States Coast Guard General Subjects
National Maritime Center Assistant Engineers-DDE

113. (2.2.5.4.2-2) What is the BEST indication that the pre-treatment filter (or filters) of a reverse-
osmosis freshwater generator must be serviced by cleaning or replacement?

o (a) An insufficient freshwater production by the unit.


o (b) An excessive pressure drop across the membrane modules.
 (c) An excessive pressure drop across the pre-treatment filter.
o (d) An excessive salinity of the freshwater output.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

114. (2.2.5.4.2-9) What component of a reverse-osmosis freshwater generator could be isolated and
replaced with the unit remaining in service?

o (a) A series-connected membrane module.


 (b) A parallel-connected membrane module.
o (c) The secondary pre-treatment filter.
o (d) The primary pre-treatment filter.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

115. (2.2.5.4.2-3) What is the BEST indication that the membrane modules of a reverse-osmosis
freshwater generator must be serviced by flushing or cleaning?

o (a) A lower than normal feed pressure.


o (b) An insufficient pressure drop across the membrane modules.
 (c) An excessive pressure drop across the membrane modules.
o (d) An excessive pressure drop across the pre-treatment filter.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

116. (2.2.5.4.2-7) Under what conditions would the pre-treatment capabilities of a reverse-osmosis
freshwater generator MOST likely be overloaded, and as a result, these conditions should generally
be avoided?

o (a) Entering open seas.


 (b) Entering harbors.
o (c) Entering high temperature seas.
o (d) Entering low temperature seas.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

117. (2.2.5.4.2-6) What is the BEST indication that the membrane module is damaged and is no longer
semi-permeable and allowing the solute to pass through?

o (a) Higher than normal brine overboard back pressure.


o (b) Lower than normal freshwater production.
o (c) Low freshwater outlet salinity.
 (d) High freshwater outlet salinity.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

123 August 2014


United States Coast Guard General Subjects
National Maritime Center Assistant Engineers-DDE

118. (2.2.5.4.2-1) When a reverse-osmosis freshwater generator is shutdown, what must be


accomplished?

 (a) The unit must be flushed with freshwater and treated with an anti-bacterial growth inhibitor.
o (b) The unit must be flushed with freshwater if anti-bacterial growth inhibitor is unavailable.
o (c) The unit is left filled with saltwater and treated with anti-bacterial growth inhibitor.
o (d) The unit must be treated with an anti-bacterial growth inhibitor if the unit is not flushed with
freshwater.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

119. (2.2.5.2.1.2-2) Which of the tools listed must be used when retightening the plate type heat
exchangers used in the device shown in the illustration? Illustration MO-0110

o (a) Torque wrench


o (b) Pneumatic impact wrench
 (c) Steel ruler or tape measure
o (d) Cantilever wrench

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

120. (2.2.5.2.1.2-5) Failure to establish sufficient vacuum when starting up the unit shown in the
illustration may be the result of __________. MO-0110

o (a) improper operation of the brine pump


 (b) neglecting to close the vent shell
o (c) improper operation of the distillate pump
o (d) neglecting to latch the dump valve

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

121. (2.2.5.2.1.2-4) Which of the following conditions can cause high salinity of the distillate due to sea
water leakage in the illustrated device. MO-0110

o (a) Improper venting during start-up.


o (b) Improper venting during operation.
o (c) Failure to properly tighten the bolts of the evaporator heat exchanger.
 (d) Failure to properly tighten the bolts of the condenser heat exchanger.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

124 August 2014


United States Coast Guard General Subjects
National Maritime Center Assistant Engineers-DDE

122. (2.2.5.2.1-1) When tightening the plate type heat exchangers shown in the illustration, care must
be taken to __________. MO-0110

 (a) use a specific opposing pattern while measuring the distance to which the plates have been
compressed
o (b) avoid fracturing the backing plate
o (c) avoid using a torque wrench that has not been recently calibrated
o (d) prevent damage to the aluminum plates

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

123. (2.2.5.1-7) Which of the freshwater generators listed below is operated without a source of heat?

o (a) Titanium plate type


o (b) Flash type
 (c) Reverse-osmosis type
o (d) Submerged tube type

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

124. (2.2.5.1-6) Which of the following freshwater generators has an operating principle that requires it
to run under a substantially positive pressure?

o (a) Submerged tube unit


o (b) Titanium plate unit
 (c) Reverse-osmosis unit
o (d) Flash type unit

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

125. (2.2.5.1-10) In which of the following freshwater generators would an air ejector be unnecessary?

 (a) Reverse-osmosis unit


o (b) Submerged tube unit
o (c) Titanium plate unit
o (d) Flash type unit

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

126. (2.2.5.1-8) Which of the freshwater generators listed below requires a source of heat and
evaporates sea water at a location other than a heat exchanger surface?

o (a) Submerged tube type


o (b) Reverse-osmosis type
o (c) Titanium plate type
 (d) Flash type

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

125 August 2014


United States Coast Guard General Subjects
National Maritime Center Assistant Engineers-DDE

127. (2.2.5.3.2-6) Other than taking a scale thickness through a zinc plug opening of the water box of a
feed water heater of a flash evaporator, what would be the BEST indication for a need to remove
scale build-up?

o (a) A drop in the feed water heater shell temperature and a rise in the feed water heater shell
absolute pressure (decrease in vacuum).
o (b) A rise in the feed water heater shell temperature and a drop in the feed water heater shell
absolute pressure (increase in vacuum).
o (c) A drop in the feed water heater shell temperature and a drop in the feed water heater shell
absolute pressure (increase in vacuum).
 (d) A rise in the feed water heater shell temperature and a rise in the feed water heater shell
absolute pressure (decrease in vacuum).

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

128. (2.2.5.3.2-9) While circulating heated sulfuric acid through a feed water heater of a flash
evaporator for the purposes of scale removal, what would be the indication of the continued
presence of scale?

o (a) Change in color (turning to orange with a pH of 4.0) and no more venting of carbon dioxide
gas.
o (b) No change in color (remaining at red with a pH of 2.0) and continued venting of carbon dioxide
gas.
o (c) No change in color (remaining at red with a pH of 2.0) and no more venting of carbon dioxide
gas.
 (d) Change in color (turning to orange with a pH of 4.0) and continued venting of carbon dioxide
gas.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

129. (2.2.5.3.2-10) When should mechanical cleaning of feed water heater tubes be accomplished?

o (a) Any time when increased steam flow to the feed water heater shell is required to maintain
distillate production capacity.
 (b) Only when chemical cleaning fails to restore distillate production capacity to normal.
o (c) During regularly scheduled maintenance.
o (d) Any time there is a drop-off on distillate production capacity.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

130. (2.2.5.3.2-7) What procedure can be used to reduce the rate of scale formation on the heating
surfaces of a flash evaporator while still maintaining the desired rate of distillate production?

o (a) Decreasing the feed water heater shell absolute pressure (increase in vacuum).
o (b) Increasing the feed water heater shell absolute pressure (decrease in vacuum).
 (c) Chemically treating the incoming feed water.
o (d) Chemically treating the outgoing brine.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

126 August 2014


United States Coast Guard General Subjects
National Maritime Center Assistant Engineers-DDE

131. (2.2.5.3.2-8) While circulating heated sulfuric acid through a feed water heater of a flash
evaporator for the purposes of scale removal, what would be the indication of successful removal of
the scale?

o (a) No change in color (remaining at red with a pH of 2.0) and continued venting of carbon dioxide
gas.
 (b) No change in color (remaining at red with a pH of 2.0) and no more venting of carbon dioxide
gas.
o (c) Change in color (turning to orange with a pH of 4.0) and continued venting of carbon dioxide
gas.
o (d) Change in color (turning to orange with a pH of 4.0) and no more venting of carbon dioxide
gas.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

132. (2.2.5.2.2.1-3) Device '27' shown in the illustration is used to __________. Illustration MO-0111

o (a) relieve excess pressure


o (b) add de-scaling chemicals as needed
 (c) regulate maximum vacuum during normal operation
o (d) purge the unit of non-condensable gases

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

133. (2.2.5.2.2.1-4) What occurs within the tubes of the device labeled "23" shown in the illustration?
Illustration MO-0111

o (a) The heat being transferred is subliminal; therefore expansion is taking place within the tubes.
o (b) The heat from the jacket water passing within the tubes is being transferred to the feed water
on the outside of the tubes.
 (c) The feed water flowing through the inside of the tubes is being heated by the jacket water on
the outside of the tubes.
o (d) The heat of combustion from the engine is being transferred azeotropically, adding latent heat
to the entering jacket water.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

134. (2.2.5.2.2.1-2) The operation of the lube oil cooler, shown in the illustration as item #4, will be
characterized by which of the following statements? Illustration MO-0111

 (a) The temperature of the sea water entering the cooler will be higher when operating with the
distiller on line.
o (b) The pressure of the lube oil to the cooler will increase whenever the distiller is on line.
o (c) The pressure of the sea water to the lube oil cooler will increase with the distiller on line.
o (d) The temperature of the lube oil entering the cooler will decrease whenever the distiller is on
line.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

127 August 2014


United States Coast Guard General Subjects
National Maritime Center Assistant Engineers-DDE

135. (2.2.5.2.2.1-1) What is a function of the device labeled "1" shown in the illustration? MO-0111

o (a) It provides a low pressure point for combustion air filtration.


o (b) It relieves the excessive pressure developed in the jacket water cooler.
o (c) It aids in the removal of combustible gases formed in the crankcase.
 (d) It provides a low pressure point for adding chemicals into the jacket water system.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

136. (2.2.5.2.2.1-13) What is the function of the device labeled "3" shown in the illustration? Illustration
MO-0111

o (a) The heat exchanger serves to heat the jacket water during cold water operation.
 (b) The cooler removes sensible heat from the jacket water.
o (c) The jacket water cooler is used to raise the temperature of the sea water flowing through it.
o (d) The device specifically serves to remove the latent heat of vaporization from the jacket water.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

137. (2.2.6-1) What is used to prevent contamination of a potable water system supplying a plumbing
fixture such as a galley sink from a backup of sewage sanitary drains?

o (a) Check valves in the potable water supply lines delivering water to the galley sink.
 (b) Location of the potable water spigots above the rim of the galley sink.
o (c) A "P" trap in the drain line draining sewage waste from the galley sink.
o (d) Location of the potable water spigots below the rim of the galley sink.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

138. (2.2.6-2) What type of disinfection system has the disadvantage that it would fail to provide
residual disinfectant in the potable water?

o (a) A chlorinator located at the desalinator discharge piping to the potable water storage tank.
o (b) A chlorinator located at the potable water storage tank recirculation line.
 (c) An ultraviolet irradiator at the desalinator discharge to the potable water storage tank.
o (d) A brominator located at the desalinator discharge piping to the potable water storage tank.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

139. (2.2.6-3) Which of the following desalination plants will always require a sterilizer when providing
water to a potable water system?

o (a) Titanium plate type unit


o (b) Multi-stage flash type unit
o (c) Submerged tube type unit
 (d) Reverse-osmosis type unit

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

128 August 2014


United States Coast Guard General Subjects
National Maritime Center Assistant Engineers-DDE

140. (2.2.6-4) Which of the following statements concerning the arrangements of a potable water
system is true?

 (a) Potable water pumps of the non-positive displacement type require a vacuum-priming system
if located above the potable water storage tanks.
o (b) Potable water pumps of the positive displacement type require a vacuum-priming system if
located above the potable water storage tanks.
o (c) Potable water pumps of the non-positive displacement type require a vacuum-priming system
if located below the potable water storage tanks.
o (d) Potable water pumps of the positive displacement type require a vacuum-priming system if
located below the potable water storage tanks.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

141. (2.2.6-5) On most commercial cargo vessels with a relatively small crew size and few users of the
potable water system, how is the potable water system pressure maintained?

o (a) Cycling the potable water pump on and off by the action of potable water storage tank level
switches in response to system demand changes.
o (b) Allowing the potable water pump to run continuously while recirculating during periods of zero
demand for potable water.
o (c) Allowing the potable water pump to run continuously against a shut-off head during periods of
zero demand for potable water.
 (d) Cycling the potable water pump on and off by the action of the potable water hydro pneumatic
tank pressure switch in response to system demand changes.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

142. (2.2.6-6) What is the primary purpose of the lead-lag arrangement of the two potable water
pumps supporting a typical potable water system?

 (a) Enabling the lead pump to cycle on and off during periods of relatively low demand and the
lag pump to assist the lead pump only when the demand is high.
o (b) Enabling the lead pump to pump against a shut-off head during periods of relatively low
demand and the lag pump to recirculate when the demand is high.
o (c) Enabling the lag pump to cycle on and off during periods of relatively low demand and the lead
pump to assist the lag pump only when the demand is high.
o (d) Enabling both potable water pumps to cycle on and off together in response to system
demand changes.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

143. (2.2.6-7) What design feature is used to minimize potable water wastage associated with hot
water distribution piping for a potable water system?

 (a) Use of hot water recirculation loops.


o (b) Use of instantaneous type hot water heaters only.
o (c) Use of storage type hot water heaters only.
o (d) Use of hot water heaters with multiple heat sources.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

129 August 2014


United States Coast Guard General Subjects
National Maritime Center Assistant Engineers-DDE

144. (2.2.6-8) Hot water heaters used in potable water systems may have multiple heat sources, such
as an electric heating element and a jacket water heated tube bundle. What is the primary purpose
of such an arrangement?

o (a) Allow the designated backup heat source to be used in the event of failure of the designated
primary heat source, whether in port or underway.
o (b) Allow jacket water to be used in port and electricity to be used while underway.
o (c) Allow both the heat sources to be used when the demand for hot water is high, whether in port
or underway.
 (d) Allow electricity to be used in port and jacket water to be used while underway.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

145. (2.2.6-9) What are the operating characteristics of a "waterlogged" potable water system hydro
pneumatic header tank that needs to be recharged with compressed air?

o (a) Failure of the potable water pump to start with demand on the system.
o (b) Extremely long running and idle periods for the potable water pump.
 (c) Very short and frequent running and idle periods for the potable water pump.
o (d) Failure of the potable water pump to stop with zero demand on the system.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

146. (2.2.6-10) Suppose the pressure switch used to control the "lead" potable water pump is set at 45
psig cut-in for pump start and 55 psig cut-out for pump stop. What would be an appropriate setting
for the "lag" potable water pump?

 (a) 40 psig cut-in for pump start and 55 psig cut-out for pump stop.
o (b) 45 psig cut-in for pump start and 50 psig cut-out for pump stop.
o (c) 45 psig cut-in for pump start and 60 psig cut-out for pump stop.
o (d) 50 psig cut-in for pump start and 60 psig cut-out for pump stop.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

147. (2.2.7-1) Which of the following speed control devices is used strictly as a safety device to
prevent prime mover damage and acts by shutting down the prime mover?

o (a) Over speed governor


o (b) Speed-limiting governor
 (c) Over speed trip
o (d) Under speed trip

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

130 August 2014


United States Coast Guard General Subjects
National Maritime Center Assistant Engineers-DDE

148. (2.2.7-2) Suppose a prime mover rotates at a steady speed of 900 rpm at rated full load and
rotates at a steady speed of 1000 rpm at no load. Assuming that no adjustments have been made to
the governor speed control setting, what is the speed regulation of the prime mover expressed in per
cent?

o (a) 10.0 %
 (b) 11.1%
o (c) 88.9 %
o (d) 90.0 %

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

149. (2.2.7-3) Which of the following statements is true concerning the application for an isochronous
governor?

o (a) An isochronous governor is ideally suited for a ship's geared propulsion drive driving
through a fixed pitch propeller.
o (b) An isochronous governor is ideally suited for a pump drive associated with maintaining a
constant pump discharge pressure.
o (c) An isochronous governor is ideally suited for a ship's direct-reversible propulsion drive driving
through a fixed pitch propeller.
 (d) An isochronous governor is ideally suited for a ship's service alternator drive associated with
maintaining a constant system frequency.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

150. (2.2.7-4) Concerning governor speed-droop, what statement is true?

o (a) If speed droop is temporary, the prime mover's final speed is different for each amount of
loading.
 (b) If speed droop is permanent, the prime mover's final speed is different for each amount of
loading.
o (c) If speed droop is temporary, there will be no transient speed changes associated with load
changes.
o (d) If speed droop is permanent, the prime mover's final speed is constant regardless of the load.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

151. (2.2.7-5) Which term represents the ability of a speed control governor to maintain prime mover
speed without hunting?

o (a) Dead band


 (b) Stability
o (c) Promptness
o (d) Sensitivity

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

131 August 2014


United States Coast Guard General Subjects
National Maritime Center Assistant Engineers-DDE

152. (2.2.7-7) Which term represents the how rapidly a speed control governor will complete a
corrective action as the result of a load change?

o (a) Sensitivity
o (b) Power
 (c) Promptness
o (d) Dead band

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

153. (2.2.7-8) What is meant by the term "hunting" as it applies to prime mover speed control
governors?

 (a) Hunting is the repeated and sometimes rhythmic variation of speed due to over control by the
governor.
o (b) Hunting is the result of the transient speed changes of a prime mover as the governor
responds to load changes.
o (c) Hunting is the change in speed required before the governor will initiate a corrective action as
the result of a load change.
o (d) Hunting is the repeated variation of speed due to under control by the governor and a lack of
governor power.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

154. (2.2.7-9) What is meant by the term "dead band" as it applies to prime mover speed control
governors?

o (a) Dead band is the repeated variation of speed due to under control by the governor and a lack
of governor power.
 (b) Dead band is the change in speed required before the governor will initiate a corrective action
as the result of a load change.
o (c) Dead band is the repeated and sometimes rhythmic variation of speed to over control by the
governor.
o (d) Dead band is the result of transient speed changes of a prime mover as the governor
responds to load changes.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

155. (2.2.7-10) What is statement is true concerning the term "isochronous" as it applies to prime
mover speed control governors?

o (a) Isochronous governors are able to maintain constant prime mover load regardless of speed by
employing temporary speed droop.
o (b) Isochronous governors are able to maintain constant prime mover load regardless of speed by
employing permanent speed droop.
 (c) Isochronous governors are able to maintain constant prime mover speed regardless of load by
employing temporary speed droop.
o (d) Isochronous governors are able to maintain constant prime mover speed regardless of load by
employing permanent speed droop.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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United States Coast Guard General Subjects
National Maritime Center Assistant Engineers-DDE

156. (2.2.8.1-1) The general purpose of a heat exchanger is to __________.

o (a) reduce the engine room temperature in tropical climates


 (b) heat, or cool one fluid by means of another fluid
o (c) maintain steady pressure in a system
o (d) eliminate hot air from the condenser

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

157. (2.2.8.1-2) With regard to the relative flow patterns through the tubes and the shell of shell-and-
tube heat exchangers, what statement is true?

 (a) In a counter-flow heat exchanger, the flow through the tubes and the flow through the shell are
in opposite directions.
o (b) In a counter-flow heat exchanger, the flow through the tubes and the flow through the shell are
in the same direction.
o (c) In a parallel-flow heat exchanger, the flow through the tubes and the flow through the shell are
in opposite directions.
o (d) In a cross-flow heat exchanger, the flow through the tubes and the flow through the shell are
in opposite directions.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

158. (2.2.8.1-3) With regard to the number of passes through the tubes of shell-and-tube heat
exchangers, what statement is true?

o (a) In two-pass and four-pass heat exchangers, the inlet and outlet tube-side fluid connections
are at opposite ends.
o (b) In single-pass and two-pass heat exchangers, the inlet and outlet tube-side fluid connections
are at opposite ends.
o (c) In single-pass and two-pass heat exchangers, the inlet and outlet tube-side fluid connections
are at the same end.
 (d) In two-pass and four-pass heat exchangers, the inlet and outlet tube-side fluid connections
are at the same end.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

159. (2.2.8.1-4) If a heat exchanger is designed to cool lubricating oil using sea water as a cooling
medium, what statement is true?

o (a) The lubricating oil loses sensible heat, and the sea water loses sensible heat.
 (b) The lubricating oil loses sensible heat, and the sea water gains sensible heat.
o (c) The lubricating oil loses latent heat, and the sea water gains latent heat.
o (d) The lubricating oil gains sensible heat, and the sea water loses sensible heat.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

133 August 2014


United States Coast Guard General Subjects
National Maritime Center Assistant Engineers-DDE

160. (2.2.8.1-5) If a heat exchanger is designed to heat heavy fuel oil using steam as a heating
medium, what statement is true?

 (a) The heavy fuel oil gains sensible heat, and the steam loses latent heat.
o (b) The heavy fuel oil loses sensible heat, and the steam gains latent heat.
o (c) The heavy fuel oil gains latent heat, and the steam loses sensible heat.
o (d) The heavy fuel oil gains sensible heat, and the steam loses sensible heat.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

161. (2.2.8.1-6) If a heat exchanger is designed to evaporate sea water using diesel engine jacket
water as an evaporating medium, what statement is true?

o (a) The sea water gains latent heat, and the diesel engine jacket water loses latent heat.
o (b) The sea water loses latent heat, and the diesel engine jacket water gains sensible heat.
o (c) The sea water gains sensible heat, and the diesel engine jacket water loses latent heat.
 (d) The sea water gains latent heat, and the diesel engine jacket water loses sensible heat.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

162. (2.2.8.1-7) If a heat exchanger is designed to condense refrigerant vapor using central cooling
fresh water as a condensing medium, what statement is true?

o (a) The refrigerant vapor loses latent heat, the central cooling fresh water loses latent heat.
 (b) The refrigerant vapor loses latent heat, the central cooling fresh water gains sensible heat.
o (c) The refrigerant vapor loses sensible heat, the central cooling fresh water gains latent heat.
o (d) The refrigerant vapor gains latent heat, the central cooling fresh water loses sensible heat.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

163. (2.2.8.1-8) What type of flow pattern would be associated with a forced-convection finned-coil
heat exchanger such as an air-cooled hydraulic oil cooler?

o (a) Parallel flow


o (b) Series flow
o (c) Counter flow
 (d) Cross flow

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

134 August 2014


United States Coast Guard General Subjects
National Maritime Center Assistant Engineers-DDE

164. (2.2.8.1-9) If a seawater-cooled shell-and-tube lubricating oil cooler has the seawater inlet and
outlet connections on the opposite end water boxes, in terms of the number of passes, what
statement is true?

o (a) The number of fluid passes cannot be determined.


 (b) The tube-side fluid flow pattern is single-pass.
o (c) The tube-side fluid flow pattern is four-pass.
o (d) The tube-side fluid flow pattern is two-pass.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

165. (2.2.8.1-10) If both the shell-and-tube lube oil cooler and shell-and-tube jacket water cooler of a
diesel engine are seawater cooled, what statement is true?

o (a) Seawater flows through the shells of both the lube-oil and jacket-water coolers.
o (b) Seawater flows through the tubes of the lube-oil cooler and through the shell of the jacket-
water cooler.
 (c) Seawater flows through the tubes of both the lube-oil and jacket-water coolers.
o (d) Seawater flows through the tubes of the jacket-water cooler and through the shell of the lube-
oil cooler.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

166. (2.2.8.2-1) Which of the following provisions for thermal expansion for shell-and-tube heat
exchangers only requires a single tube sheet located at one end?

o (a) A shell-and-tube heat exchanger featuring a floating tube sheet.


 (b) A shell-and-tube heat exchanger featuring U-tube type tubes.
o (c) A shell-and-tube heat exchanger featuring a packed tube sheet.
o (d) A shell-and-tube heat exchanger featuring bayonet type tubes.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

167. (2.2.8.2-2) Which of the following provisions for thermal expansion for shell-and-tube heat
exchangers has a tube arrangement featuring a "tube-within-a-tube"?

o (a) A shell-and tube heat exchanger featuring a packed tube sheet.


o (b) A shell-and-tube heat exchanger featuring a floating tube sheet.
 (c) A shell-and-tube heat exchanger featuring bayonet type tubes.
o (d) A shell-and-tube heat exchanger featuring U-tube type tubes.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

135 August 2014


United States Coast Guard General Subjects
National Maritime Center Assistant Engineers-DDE

168. (2.2.8.2-3) In a shell-and-tube heat exchanger, which of the following tube types would be LEAST
susceptible to tube-side fouling?

o (a) Coated-surface tubes


o (b) Corrugated tubes
 (c) Plain tubes
o (d) Finned tubes

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

169. (2.2.8.2-4) For a given shell diameter and tube sizes for a shell-and-tube heat exchanger, which
tube pitch pattern would be the most compact design allowing for the most tubes?

o (a) Rotated triangular tube pitch


o (b) Rotated square tube pitch
 (c) Triangular tube pitch
o (d) Square tube pitch

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

170. (2.2.8.2-5) For a shell-and-tube heat exchanger, which tube pitch pattern would feature "see-
through" lanes and would most easily allow external mechanical cleaning of the tubes?

o (a) Rotated triangular tube pitch


 (b) Square tube pitch
o (c) Triangular tube pitch
o (d) Rotated square tube pitch

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

171. (2.2.8.2-6) Concerning the baffles of a shell-and-tube heat exchanger, what statement is true?

o (a) The baffles are used to support the tubes, guide flow, and decrease the velocity of the fluid
flowing through the shell.
o (b) The baffles are used to support the tubes, guide flow, and increase the velocity of the fluid
flowing through the tubes.
 (c) The baffles are used to support the tubes, guide flow, and increase the velocity of the fluid
flowing through the shell.
o (d) The baffles are used to support the tubes, guide flow, and decrease the velocity of the fluid
flowing through the tubes.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

136 August 2014


United States Coast Guard General Subjects
National Maritime Center Assistant Engineers-DDE

172. (2.2.8.2-7) For marine-type shell-and-tube heat exchangers, what is the most common
arrangement for baffles?

 (a) Segmental
o (b) Disc
o (c) Doughnut
o (d) Solid

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

173. (2.2.8.2-8) What prevents the two fluids in a plate type heat exchanger from coming into direct
contact with each other and mixing?

o (a) The chevrons and corrugations between the individual heat transfer plates.
o (b) The metal-to-metal seal between the individual heat transfer plates.
o (c) The metal-to-metal seal between the covers (pressure plates).
 (d) The gasket to groove seals between the individual heat transfer plates.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

174. (2.2.8.2-9) With regard to the flow patterns associated with plate type heat exchangers, which
flow pattern is able to achieve counter-flow on opposite sides of each heat exchange plate?

o (a) The flow pattern where one fluid makes a single pass and the other makes multiple passes
through the heat exchanger.
o (b) The flow pattern where each fluid makes multiple passes through the heat exchanger.
 (c) The flow pattern where each fluid makes a single pass through the heat exchanger.
o (d) It is not possible for each heat exchanger plate to achieve counter flow on opposite sides.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

175. (2.2.8.2-10) What is the most common arrangement for a compact heat exchanger such as that
used on an air conditioning cooling coil located in a ventilation supply duct?

o (a) Plate-fin set up as a serpentine plate.


 (b) Finned-tube set up as a serpentine coil.
o (c) Finned-tube set up as a spiral coil.
o (d) Finned-tube set up as a helical coil.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

137 August 2014


United States Coast Guard General Subjects
National Maritime Center Assistant Engineers-DDE

176. (2.2.8.3-1) When placing a shell-and-tube heat exchanger with a removable tube bundle such as
a bayonet-tube heavy fuel oil service heater into service, to avoid thermal shock what statement
represents the correct operating procedure?

o (a) Introduce the heavy fuel oil and steam simultaneously establishing full flow of both fluids
immediately to avoid thermal shock.
o (b) Introduce both the heavy fuel oil and steam simultaneously and gradually to avoid thermal
shock.
o (c) Introduce the steam first, then gradually introduce the heavy fuel oil until full flow is
established to avoid thermal shock.
 (d) Introduce the heavy fuel oil first, then gradually introduce the steam until full flow is
established to avoid thermal shock.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

177. (2.2.8.3-2) When placing a shell-and-tube heat exchanger with a removable tube bundle such as
a bayonet-tube heavy fuel oil service heater into service, to prevent water hammer what statement
represents the correct operating procedure?

o (a) Crack open the condensate drains first. Gradually introduce the steam, then close the
condensate drains when no longer draining condensate and issuing dry steam. Finally, introduce
the heavy fuel oil.
o (b) Introduce the heavy fuel oil first, then crack open the condensate drains. Gradually introduce
the steam, then close the condensate drains when no longer issuing dry steam and draining
condensate.
o (c) Crack open the condensate drains first. Gradually introduce the steam, then close the
condensate drains when no longer issuing dry steam and draining condensate. Finally, introduce
the heavy fuel oil.
 (d) Introduce the heavy fuel oil first, then crack open the condensate drains. Gradually introduce
the steam, then close the condensate drains when no longer draining condensate and issuing dry
steam.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

178. (2.2.8.3-3) When taking a shell-and-tube heat exchanger with a removable tube bundle such as a
bayonet-tube type heavy fuel oil service heater out of service, to avoid thermal shock what statement
represents the correct operating procedure?

o (a) Secure both the steam and heavy fuel oil simultaneously and immediately to avoid thermal
shock.
o (b) Secure the heavy fuel oil first, then gradually secure the steam to avoid thermal shock.
o (c) Secure the steam and heavy fuel oil simultaneously and gradually to avoid thermal shock.
 (d) Gradually secure the steam first, then secure the heavy fuel oil to avoid thermal shock.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

138 August 2014


United States Coast Guard General Subjects
National Maritime Center Assistant Engineers-DDE

179. (2.2.8.3-4) When taking a shell-and-tube heat exchanger with a removable tube bundle such as a
bayonet-tube heavy fuel oil service heater out of service, to prevent water hammer what statement
represents the correct operating procedure?

o (a) Open wide the condensate drains first. Gradually close down and secure the steam, then
close the condensate drains when no longer issuing dry steam. Finally, secure the heavy fuel oil.
o (b) Secure the heavy fuel oil first, then crack open the condensate drains. Gradually close down
and secure the steam, then close the condensate drains when no longer issuing dry steam.
 (c) Crack open the condensate drains first. Gradually close down and secure the steam, then
close the condensate drains when no longer draining condensate. Finally, secure the heavy fuel
oil.
o (d) Secure the heavy fuel oil first, then crack open the condensate drains. Gradually close down
and secure the steam, then close the condensate drains when no longer draining condensate.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

180. (2.2.8.3-5) When placing a shell-and-tube heat exchanger with a non-removable tube bundle
such as a lube oil cooler with fixed tube sheets into service, to avoid thermal shock what statement
represents the correct operating procedure?

o (a) Introduce the cooling water first, then gradually introduce the lube oil until full flow is
established to avoid thermal shock.
o (b) Introduce the lubricating oil first, then gradually introduce the cooling water until full flow is
established to avoid thermal shock.
 (c) Introduce both the cooling water and the lubricating oil simultaneously and gradually to avoid
thermal shock.
o (d) Introduce both the cooling water and the lubricating oil simultaneously establishing full flow of
both fluids immediately to avoid thermal shock.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

181. (2.2.8.3-6) When placing a shell-and-tube heat exchanger such as a jacket water cooler into
service, to insure optimal heat transfer what statement represents the correct operating procedure?

 (a) Both the water box and shell vent valves should be opened to expel any entrapped air and
then reclosed.
o (b) Both the water box and shell drain valves should be opened to expel any entrapped air and
then reclosed.
o (c) Both the water box and shell vent valves should be opened to expel any entrapped sediment
and then reclosed.
o (d) Both the water box and shell drain valves should be opened to expel any entrapped sediment
and then reclosed.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

139 August 2014


United States Coast Guard General Subjects
National Maritime Center Assistant Engineers-DDE

182. (2.2.8.3-7) When securing a seawater-cooled shell-and-tube heat exchanger for an extended
period of time, what statement represents the recommended operating procedure?

o (a) The seawater side of the heat exchanger should be drained, then flushed with freshwater and
left completely filled with freshwater.
o (b) The seawater side of the heat exchanger should be drained by opening the drain valves, while
insuring that the vent valves remain closed while draining.
o (c) The seawater side of the heat exchanger should be left completely filled with seawater.
 (d) The seawater side of the heat exchanger should be drained by opening the drain valves, while
insuring that the vent valves remain open while draining.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

183. (2.2.8.3-8) When shifting heat exchangers such as main engine lube-oil coolers, what statement
represents the recommended operating procedure if the shift is to occur during engine operation?

o (a) First, secure cooling water to the off-going cooler, then secure lube oil to the off-going cooler.
Next, introduce lube oil to the on-coming cooler, then introduce cooling water to the on-coming
cooler.
o (b) First, introduce lube oil to the on-coming cooler, then introduce cooling water to the on-coming
cooler. Next, secure cooling water to the off-going cooler, then secure lube oil to the off-going
cooler.
 (c) First, introduce cooling water to the on-coming cooler, then introduce lube oil to the on-coming
cooler. Next, secure lube oil to the off-going cooler, then secure cooling water to the off-going
cooler.
o (d) First, secure lube oil to the off-going cooler, then secure cooling water to the off-going cooler.
Next, introduce cooling water to the on-coming cooler, then introduce lube oil to the on-coming
cooler.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

184. (2.2.8.3-9) Suppose a diesel engine is fitted with seawater-cooled lube oil and jacket water
coolers. What statement is true concerning the system operating pressures?

o (a) The jacket water pressure is maintained lower than the sea water pressure in the jacket water
cooler, and the lube oil pressure is maintained higher than the sea water pressure in the lube oil
cooler.
o (b) The jacket water pressure is maintained lower than the sea water pressure in the jacket water
cooler, and the lube oil pressure is maintained lower than the sea water pressure in the lube oil
cooler.
o (c) The jacket water pressure is maintained higher than the sea water pressure in the jacket water
cooler, and the lube oil pressure is maintained lower than the sea water pressure in the lube oil
cooler.
 (d) The jacket water pressure is maintained higher than the sea water pressure in the jacket
water cooler, and the lube oil pressure is maintained higher than the sea water pressure in the
lube oil cooler.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

140 August 2014


United States Coast Guard General Subjects
National Maritime Center Assistant Engineers-DDE

185. (2.2.8.3-10) What is the primary indication of fouling of a heat exchanger?

o (a) A decreased pressure drop associated with the side where the fouling exists and a decreased
temperature differential between the two fluids exchanging heat.
o (b) A decreased pressure drop associated with the side where the fouling exists and an increased
temperature differential between the two fluids exchanging heat.
o (c) An increased pressure drop associated with the side where the fouling exists and a decreased
temperature differential between the two fluids exchanging heat.
 (d) An increased pressure drop associated with the side where the fouling exists and an
increased temperature differential between the two fluids exchanging heat.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

186. (2.2.8.4-1) For soft scale deposits on the inside of the tubes of a seawater-cooled shell-and-tube
heat exchanger, what is typically the preferred method of cleaning?

o (a) Blowing out with compressed air or a steam lance.


 (b) Mechanical cleaning with specially designed brushes and/or flushing with hot freshwater.
o (c) Chemical cleaning with descaling compounds
o (d) Mechanical cleaning with specially designed reamers or cutting tools.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

187. (2.2.8.4-2) For stubborn, hard scale deposits on the inside of the tubes of a seawater-cooled
shell-and-tube heat exchanger, what is typically the preferred method of cleaning?

o (a) Mechanical cleaning with specially designed brushes.


o (b) Flushing with hot fresh-water.
o (c) Mechanical cleaning with specially designed reamers.
 (d) Chemically cleaning with descaling compounds.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

188. (2.2.8.4-3) For removal of sludge from in the inside of the shell of a fuel oil heater or lube oil
cooler, what is typically the preferred method of cleaning?

 (a) Circulating hot distillate oil.


o (b) Blowing out with compressed air or a steam lance.
o (c) Chemical cleaning with descaling compounds.
o (d) Mechanical cleaning with specially designed brushes.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

189. (2.2.8.4-4) What would be the most likely indication that a plate type jacket water cooler had an
internal leak permitting mixing of the two fluids?

o (a) Rising level and overflowing of the jacket water expansion tank.
o (b) Drop in concentration of corrosion inhibitor package of jacket water.
o (c) Excessive scale build-up on the various cylinder jacket surfaces.
 (d) Dropping level and frequent need to top off jacket water expansion tank.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

141 August 2014


United States Coast Guard General Subjects
National Maritime Center Assistant Engineers-DDE

190. (2.2.8.4-5) Which saltwater-cooled heat exchanger arrangement and location would be
MOST problematic in terms of keeping the seawater side filled?

o (a) Vertically arranged cooler located below the water line.


 (b) Horizontally arranged cooler located above the water line.
o (c) Horizontally arranged cooler located below the water line.
o (d) Vertically arranged cooler located above the water line.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

191. (2.2.8.4-6) Which saltwater-cooled heat exchanger arrangement and location would be the
LEAST likely to become air-bound on the seawater side?

 (a) Vertically arranged cooler located below the water line.


o (b) Horizontally arranged cooler located above the water line.
o (c) Vertically arranged cooler located above the water line.
o (d) Horizontally arranged cooler located below the water line.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

192. (2.2.8.4-7) How may a suspected tube leak on a shell-and-tube jacket water cooler most easily be
located?

 (a) Isolate, drain, and dry the salt water side of the heat exchanger. Remove the water box
inspection plates. Visually inspect the tube sheets for signs of seepage at each of the tube ends.
o (b) Isolate, drain, and dry the salt water side of the heat exchanger. Pressurize the seawater side
with compressed air. Visually inspect the jacket water expansion tank for bubbles.
o (c) Isolate, drain, and dry both the salt water and jacket water sides of the heat exchanger.
Remove the water box inspection plates. Visually inspect the tube sheets for signs of seepage at
each of the tube ends.
o (d) Isolate, drain, and dry the jacket water side of the heat exchanger. Remove the shell
inspection plates. Visually inspect the tubes along the tube lengths for seepage.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

193. (2.2.8.4-8) What would be the most likely indication that a shell-and-tube lube oil cooler had in
internal leak permitting mixing of the two fluids?

 (a) Dropping level and frequent need to add make-up oil to engine sump.
o (b) Corrosion of engine internal parts in contact with lube oil.
o (c) Rising level in engine lube oil sump.
o (d) Drop in viscosity of engine lube oil.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

142 August 2014


United States Coast Guard General Subjects
National Maritime Center Assistant Engineers-DDE

194. (2.2.8.4-9) Besides a visual inspection upon disassembly, what method can be used to check for
suspected leakage through a heat transfer plate of a plate type heat exchanger?

o (a) One side of the plate is cleaned and coated with a water-seeking paste, and the other side is
sprayed with water.
o (b) One side of the plate is cleaned and sprayed with a fluorescent dye penetrant, and the other
side is viewed with an infra-red heat source.
 (c) One side of the plate is cleaned and sprayed with a fluorescent dye penetrant, and the other
side is viewed with an ultra-violet light.
o (d) One side of the plate is cleaned and sprayed with a fluorescent dye penetrant, and the other
side is viewed with an ordinary flashlight.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

195. (2.2.8.4-10) If a fluorescent dye penetrant and ultra-violet light are used for leak detection on a
heat exchanger, what would be the indication of a confirmed leak?

 (a) A bright green glow at the site of leakage.


o (b) A bright orange glow at the site of leakage.
o (c) A bright purple glow at the site of leakage.
o (d) A bright red glow at the site of leakage.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

196. (2.2.9.1-1) The pressure of an operating hydraulic system, as indicated by a pressure gauge, is a
result of the fluid flow overcoming __________.

o (a) the load applied to the system


o (b) resistance of the internal components
o (c) internal resistance to flow
 (d) all of the above

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

197. (2.2.9.1-3) Which characteristic or condition will have the greatest effect on increasing a hydraulic
oil's viscosity?

o (a) Vacuum
 (b) Pressure
o (c) Cloud point
o (d) Pour point

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

143 August 2014


United States Coast Guard General Subjects
National Maritime Center Assistant Engineers-DDE

198. (2.2.9.1-2) With an increase in temperature, the volume of hydraulic fluid __________.

 (a) increases
o (b) contracts
o (c) remains constant if pressure decreases
o (d) remains the same

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

199. (2.2.9.1-4) Energy losses occurring in a hydraulic system are ultimately absorbed by the
__________.

o (a) reservoir expansion chamber


 (b) atmosphere as heat
o (c) hydraulic piping flexibility
o (d) fluid as friction

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

200. (2.2.9.2-2) An arrow superimposed on a hydraulic graphic symbol at approximately 45°, as shown
in the illustrated figures A, B, and C, indicates the component __________. GS-0068

o (a) is pilot controlled


o (b) allows flow in one direction only
o (c) is pressure compensated
 (d) can be adjusted or varied

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

201. (2.2.9.2-1) The illustrated hydraulic pump graphic symbol is used to depict a/an __________. GS-
0097

o (a) combined pump unit


o (b) series-flow pump unit
 (c) double pump unit
o (d) two-stage pump unit

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

144 August 2014


United States Coast Guard General Subjects
National Maritime Center Assistant Engineers-DDE

202. (2.2.9.2-3) Item "B" shown in the illustrated hydraulic circuit is used to __________. GS-0103

o (a) act as a power source to operate the pump indicated as "E"


o (b) shut down the operation of pump "E" when the watertight door has closed
o (c) act as a power source to operate the pumps indicated as "F"
 (d) shut down the remotely operated electric motor driven pump when the watertight door has
closed

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

203. (2.2.9.2-4) Item "E" shown in the illustration is used in the hydraulic circuit as __________. GS-
0103

o (a) one of two motor driven remotely operated pumps to open and close the water tight door
 (b) the manually operated pump located in a common passage way to close the water tight door
in an emergency
o (c) the manually operated pump used to open or close the water tight door from the engine room
side
o (d) motor driven pump used to close the water tight door from the navigation bridge in an
emergency

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

204. (2.2.9.3-2) For the various sizes of tubing and wall thickness used in a hydraulic system, the
inside diameter can be determined if it is remembered that the inside diameter equals the outside
diameter less __________.

o (a) the wall thickness


o (b) 1.5 times the wall thickness
 (c) 2 times the wall thickness
o (d) 2.5 times the wall thickness

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

205. (2.2.9.3-4) The hydraulic tubing installation shown as figure "D" is INCORRECT and will probably
leak when in operation because the tubing __________. GS-0065

o (a) will contract in diameter and expand in length under pressure


o (b) will stretch and overstress the male threads on the fitting
 (c) and its fittings cannot be properly installed and tightened
o (d) cannot flex at right angles to the pressure applied by the fluid because it is not properly
twisted

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

145 August 2014


United States Coast Guard General Subjects
National Maritime Center Assistant Engineers-DDE

206. (2.2.9.3-3) The determining factor for the strength of a flexible rubber hydraulic hose is the
__________.

o (a) Teflon sleeve


 (b) braided layer
o (c) synthetic rubber inner tube
o (d) external cover

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

207. (2.2.9.3-1) Of the hydraulic tubing fittings illustrated, the flared fitting for high pressure use is
represented by figure __________. GS-0100

o (a) A or C
 (b) A or B
o (c) B or C
o (d) C or D

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

208. (2.2.9.3-5) A flare-type tubing connector is used in the hydraulic hatch-cover system and has
developed a slight leak. To stop the leak you should __________.

 (a) shut down the power unit and use two wrenches to avoid damaging the tubing when
tightening
o (b) replace both the tubing sections and the fitting
o (c) keep the system in operation and tighten the flare nut
o (d) stop the system and use only one wrench to tighten the flare nut

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

209. (2.2.9.4-6) Which of the following components listed is shown in the illustration? GS-0041

 (a) Filter
o (b) Variable displacement pump
o (c) Heat exchanger
o (d) All of the above

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

210. (2.2.9.4-3) Strainers are commonly used in hydraulic systems to __________.

o (a) prevent solid particles from entering the filter


o (b) protect the pump from fine soluble contaminants
o (c) protect the directional control valves
 (d) prevent solid particles from entering the pump

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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United States Coast Guard General Subjects
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211. (2.2.9.4-1) An internal bypass is provided on some hydraulic system suction strainers to help
reduce the possibility of __________.

o (a) spongy actuator movements


o (b) aeration of the oil
 (c) pump cavitation
o (d) contamination of the oil

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

212. (2.2.9.4-2) An improperly maintained filter used in a hydraulic system can __________.

o (a) rupture the pump discharge piping


 (b) reduce or stop the output action of the actuator
o (c) cause leaking of the flexible line connections
o (d) all of the above

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

213. (2.2.9.4-4) The device shown in the illustration is commonly known as a/an __________. GS-
0071

o (a) soft-packing seal


o (b) quad seal
 (c) mechanical seal
o (d) spring seal

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

214. (2.2.9.4-5) In application, which of the listed sealing devices is most similar to an O-ring?

o (a) V-ring
o (b) U-ring
 (c) Quad ring
o (d) Cup seal

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

215. (2.2.9.5-2) The device illustrated would be best used as a __________. GS-0058

o (a) power take-off driven lube oil pump


o (b) variable capacity pump
o (c) hydraulic hatch supply pump
 (d) variable or constant speed motor

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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United States Coast Guard General Subjects
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216. (2.2.9.5-4) If the flow rate and pressurized oil from a variable capacity pump were supplied to the
device illustrated, the __________. GS-0058

o (a) speed would decrease, horsepower and torque would increase


 (b) horsepower, torque, and speed would increase proportionally
o (c) horsepower, torque, and speed would decrease proportionally
o (d) speed would increase, horsepower and torque would decrease

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

217. (2.2.9.5-1) A two stage hydraulic pump unit is used to __________.

o (a) produce twice the flow rate than if only one element were to be used
o (b) supply two individual flows to the same segments of the system if one of the pump elements
were to fail
 (c) develop the same flow rate across both pump elements with the discharge pressure of the
second pump element being substantially higher than that of the first stage
o (d) establish two individual flows to segregated segments of one system

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

218. (2.2.9.5-5) Both the direction of flow and fluid flow rate of a variable displacement radial piston
pump are determined by the relative positions of the __________.

o (a) pump shaft and central valve


 (b) floating ring and cylinder body
o (c) floating ring and pump shaft
o (d) pump shaft and horizontal ports

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

219. (2.2.9.5-3) To convert a vane type hydraulic pump to a hydraulic motor, which of the following
would have to be done?

 (a) Provide small springs between the vanes and the base of the vane slots.
o (b) Provide one additional slot and vane.
o (c) Double the casing thickness.
o (d) Install an enlarged control ring around the rotor.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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United States Coast Guard General Subjects
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220. (2.2.9.6-1) A hydraulic fluid flow control circuit, controlling linear actuator speed during extension,
with the pump operating at system pressure, is known as a __________.

o (a) metered-out circuit


 (b) metered-in circuit
o (c) bleed-in circuit
o (d) bleed-off circuit

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

221. (2.2.9.6-2) A hydraulic system flow-control circuit is shown in the illustration and is known as a
__________. GS-0105

o (a) bleed-off circuit


 (b) metered-in circuit
o (c) bleed-in circuit
o (d) metered-out circuit

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

222. (2.2.9.6-3) A hydraulic fluid flow control circuit, used to control linear actuator speed during
retraction, with the pump operating at above maximum pressure, is known as a __________.

o (a) bleed-off circuit


o (b) metered-in circuit
o (c) bleed-in circuit
 (d) metered-out circuit

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

223. (2.2.9.7-1) If the device shown in the illustration is being used to control the output of an axial
piston pump, when part "A" is moved to the right, then part "B" __________. Illustration GS-0039

o (a) will move to the right, and "C" will move to the left, but lagging behind "B"
 (b) will move to the left, and "C" will move to the right, but will lag behind the movement of "A"
o (c) will move to the right, as will "C"
o (d) will move to the left, as will "C"

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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United States Coast Guard General Subjects
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224. (2.2.9.7-2) Which of the following statements will be true if the position of the manual control
lever, shown in the illustration, remains unchanged after the pump is placed on stroke. Illustration
GS-0039

 (a) Although oil will leak past part 'B,' the amount of pump stroke will be maintained until the
control handle position is changed.
o (b) Although the control handle position was set, the pump displacement will fluctuate from zero
to maximum flow rate until the handle is placed in its neutral position.
o (c) Regardless of the control handle position, the pump will gradually move to full stroke.
o (d) Regardless of the control handle position, the pump will gradually return to neutral stroke.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

225. (2.2.9.7-3) A variable displacement pump is fitted with the illustrated device, the discharge flow
rate will be reduced as described by which of the following statements? Illustration GS-0040

o (a) When part "D" rotates counterclockwise, part "E" will rotate clockwise allowing part "G" to slide
towards the set point spring 'F.'
 (b) Part "H" will move to block the replenishing pump oil flow across part "G" as flow across
hydraulic motor decreases.
o (c) The increase in high side pressure will gradually increase the tilting box angle of the variable
displacement pump.
o (d) As high side pressure increases part "A", "B", and "C" will work together to reestablish the
original tilting box angle.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

226. (2.2.9.7-4) One function of a replenishing pump installed in many pressure-closed hydraulic
systems, is to supply fluid flow to __________.

o (a) the main system accumulators under all operating conditions


 (b) a servo control circuit
o (c) position a manually controlled valve
o (d) the reservoir

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

227. (2.2.9.8-3) Compensated flow control, or constant flow valves are used in hydraulic systems to
__________.

o (a) assure constant fluid temperature


 (b) allow for changes in pressure and temperature within the system
o (c) compensate for major leaks in the system
o (d) maintain the original fluid viscosity

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

150 August 2014


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228. (2.2.9.8-4) Which of the valves listed is NOT considered to be a hydraulic system directional
control valve?

 (a) Counterbalance valve


o (b) Two-position valve
o (c) Three-position valve
o (d) Detented-position valve

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

229. (2.2.9.8-8) The counter balance valve (5) in the winch circuit shown in the illustration ________.
GS-0161

o (a) regulates the amount of oil to the brake release cylinder


o (b) aligns the pump's discharge to the winch's hydraulic motor
 (c) helps prevent slung loads from dropping prematurely
o (d) prevents over-travel of the winch when retrieving

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

230. (2.2.9.8-1) Plug valves installed in hydraulic systems are most suitable for use as __________.

 (a) two position flow control valves


o (b) main supply line throttle valves
o (c) variable flow control valves
o (d) check and choke valves

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

231. (2.2.9.8-2) The purpose of a restrictor valve, as it is used in a hydraulic hatch cover system, is to
__________.

o (a) prevent oil backflow to the actuators


o (b) prevent the hydraulic pump from overheating
o (c) restrict the oil supply to the hatch covers not in use
 (d) control the speed of the hatch cover movement while closing

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

232. (2.2.9.8-6) Which of the listed pressure-control valves would be used in a hydraulic system to
temporarily divert some, or all of the pump discharge until the additional flow was required?

o (a) compound, pressure-relief valve


 (b) unloading valve
o (c) counterbalance valve
o (d) sequence valve

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

151 August 2014


United States Coast Guard General Subjects
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233. (2.2.9.8-5) Which of the listed pressure control valves would be used to permit the completion of
one action of a hydraulic system before a second action would be permitted?

o (a) Unloading valve


 (b) Sequence valve
o (c) Counterbalance valve
o (d) Pressure-reducing valve

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

234. (2.2.9.8-7) Which of the statements is true concerning the illustrated hydraulic circuit when the
directional control valve is centered? GS-0105

o (a) Oil pressure to both sides of the actuator will be equal as the pump discharge flow is directed
across the relief valve.
o (b) A pressure differential will exist between the two ends of the actuator, with pump discharge
lower than normal due to flow across the unloading valve.
o (c) The oil pressure will equalize at both ends of the actuator and the pump will discharge through
the reducing valve to the sump.
 (d) The load on the actuator may cause a difference in pressure to exist between the rod and cap
end, and oil discharging to the sump across the relief valve with the pump operating.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

235. (2.2.9.9-1) If solenoid "A" illustrated is energized, the __________. GS-0041

o (a) cylinder should retract


o (b) pump should discharge directly to the reservoir
 (c) cylinder should extend
o (d) pump should reverse the direction of flow

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

236. (2.2.9.9-2) For which of the following reasons is a linear actuator fitted with a cushioning device?

o (a) To allow the pump to temporarily operate at a pressure 10% above the relief valve setting
without lifting the relief valve.
 (b) To slow the action of the piston preventing shock and damage due to hammering effects.
o (c) To regulate actuator speed through the entire stroke length.
o (d) All of the above.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

237. (2.2.9.9-3) Which of the following statements concerning the operation of a single-acting hydraulic
ram is correct?

o (a) Hydraulic force is applied simultaneously in two directions against the ram by directional ports.
 (b) The single-acting ram is not retracted by means of hydraulic force.
o (c) The single-acting ram is both extended and retracted by means of hydraulic force.
o (d) Hydraulic force applied to a single-acting ram results in a pulling motion.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

152 August 2014


United States Coast Guard General Subjects
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238. (2.2.9.10-1) The component used in a hydraulic system to store potential energy in the form of
hydraulic fluid under pressure, is the __________.

o (a) ram
o (b) pump
 (c) accumulator
o (d) piping

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

239. (2.2.9.10-2) Which of the listed components of a hydraulic system would enable the pump to be
temporarily shutdown, and yet still provide an instantaneous source of hydraulic force?

 (a) Accumulator
o (b) Modulator
o (c) Pressure compensator valve
o (d) Sump actuator

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

240. (2.2.9.10-7) A precharged bladder-type accumulator used in a hydraulic system, can be


potentially dangerous if __________.

o (a) the bladder contacts the top of the poppet


o (b) the inert gas is exposed to hydraulic oil
o (c) it is precharged with dry nitrogen
 (d) the charging valve stem breaks while at normal working pressure

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

241. (2.2.9.10-3) Which of the following statements describes the functions of a reservoir used in a
hydraulic system?

o (a) Separate air from the oil


o (b) Trap foreign matter
o (c) Dissipate heat
 (d) All of the above

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

242. (2.2.9.10-4) The baffle plate used in the reservoir of a hydraulic system serves to __________.

o (a) minimize the amount of contamination deposited from return lines entering the system
o (b) reduce fluid turbulence at the pump suction
o (c) minimize the entrance of entrained air through the pump inlet line
 (d) all of the above

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

153 August 2014


United States Coast Guard General Subjects
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243. (2.2.9.10-5) A reservoir, as used in hydraulic systems aboard ship, is used to store hydraulic oil.
Another function is to __________.

o (a) eliminate pressure surges in the system


o (b) maintain the stored oil under pressure
o (c) act as a shock absorber
 (d) act as a base or foundation for the power unit

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

244. (2.2.9.10-6) In a hydraulic system using the device illustrated, the high pressure return is provided
by __________. GS-0118

o (a) C
o (b) D
o (c) B
 (d) A

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

245. (2.2.9.11-1) In a shell-and-tube type hydraulic fluid cooler, the amount of heat transferred from
the hydraulic fluid to the cooling water depends upon __________.

o (a) the temperature of the hydraulic fluid


o (b) the flow rate of both the cooling water and the hydraulic fluid
o (c) the temperature of the cooling water
 (d) all of the above

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

246. (2.2.9.11-2) If a hydraulic system is in continuous operation, and is equipped with an air cooled
heat exchanger, the fan should __________.

 (a) be in continuous operation as long as the main pump prime mover is in operation
o (b) come on only after the main pump prime mover is secured
o (c) be controlled by a thermostat to maintain the oil temperature at less than 190°F (87.8°C)
o (d) never be needed, except when the ambient temperature exceeds 90°F (32.2°C)

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

247. (2.2.9.11-3) In which of the listed hydraulic systems will the installation of an oil cooler be
necessary?

o (a) Hatch cover system


o (b) Watertight door system
o (c) Internal combustion engine hydraulic starter system
 (d) Constant tension mooring winch system

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

154 August 2014


United States Coast Guard General Subjects
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248. (2.2.9.12-1) If you attempt to tighten a leaking hydraulic fitting with pressure on the system, you
will __________.

o (a) dislodge any scale in the tubing, and it will damage the system
o (b) cause the system to vibrate
 (c) find that the pressure will prevent the components from being tightened
o (d) be successful every time

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

249. (2.2.9.12-2) To charge a bladder type hydraulic accumulator __________.

o (a) remove all hydraulic system pressure and bring the pneumatic pressure to the system's
design pressure
o (b) increase the pneumatic pressure until the hydraulic system reaches its design pressure
 (c) remove all hydraulic system pressure and bring the pneumatic pressure to the accumulator
preload pressure
o (d) allow the accumulator to completely fill with gas charge at atmospheric pressure, shut off the
air chamber, and add hydraulic fluid until proper pressure is reached

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

250. (2.2.9.12-3) How can the chance of contaminating hydraulic fluid be decreased when working on
hydraulic systems?

o (a) Place drip pans under leaky fittings.


o (b) Coat all threads with graphite oil.
 (c) Clean the fittings before they are disconnected.
o (d) Seal any cracks in lines with Permatex.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

251. (2.2.9.12-4) When normal operating pressure is applied to the hydraulic oil in a high-pressure
system, the oil __________.

 (a) viscosity will increase


o (b) viscosity will decrease
o (c) volume will increase
o (d) floc point will increase

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

252. (2.2.9.12-5) Purging air from a hydraulic system is necessary when __________.

o (a) the system has been idle for a long period of time
o (b) adding small amounts of oil to the system
o (c) the system has been overheated
 (d) the system has been drained and then filled with new oil

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

155 August 2014


United States Coast Guard General Subjects
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253. (2.2.9.12-6) New piping and tubing to be installed in a hydraulic system can be safely degreased
by using __________.

o (a) alcohol
o (b) carbon tetrachloride
o (c) a water-based detergent
 (d) a special petroleum solvent

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

254. (2.2.10.1-1) In which lubrication application is a detergent type oil most likely to be used?

o (a) Air compressor lubricating oil.


 (b) Trunk type diesel engine lubricating oil.
o (c) Steam turbine lubricating oil.
o (d) Crosshead diesel engine bearing lubricating oil.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

255. (2.2.10.1-2) What is the operating principle of detergent type lubricating oil that provides the oil
with its unique properties?

 (a) Detergent and dispersant additives are able to hold solids in suspension.
o (b) Detergent and dispersant additives chemically dissolve the solids.
o (c) Detergent and dispersant additives convert the solids into a soap-like substance.
o (d) Detergent and dispersant additives cause the solids to settle out.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

256. (2.2.10.1-3) With respect to lubricating oils, what statement is true concerning viscosity and
viscosity index?

 (a) Viscosity is a measure of an oil's internal resistance to flow and viscosity index is a measure
of an oil's ability to resist change in viscosity as the temperature changes.
o (b) Viscosity is a measure of an oil's resistance to emulsification and viscosity is a measure of an
oil's ability to resist change in viscosity as the temperature changes.
o (c) Viscosity is a measure of an oil's lubricity and viscosity index is a measure of an oil's ability to
resist change in lubricity as the pressure changes.
o (d) Viscosity is a measure of an oil's ability to resist oxidation and viscosity index is a measure of
an oil's ability to resist change in viscosity as the temperature changes.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

257. (2.2.10.1-4) Which statement is true concerning alkaline reserve as it applies to a lubricating oil?

o (a) Alkaline reserve represents the ability of an oil to maintain the oil in an alkaline condition.
o (b) Alkaline reserve represents the ability of an oil to neutralize bases as they are formed.
o (c) Alkaline reserve represents the ability of an oil to maintain the oil in an acidic condition.
 (d) Alkaline reserve represents the ability of an oil to neutralize acids as they are formed.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

156 August 2014


United States Coast Guard General Subjects
National Maritime Center Assistant Engineers-DDE

258. (2.2.10.1-5) In which lubrication application is a lubricating oil with an alkaline reserve most likely
to be used?

 (a) Trunk type diesel engine lubricating oil.


o (b) Stern tube bearing lubricating oil.
o (c) Steam turbine lubricating oil.
o (d) Crosshead diesel engine bearing lubricating oil.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

259. (2.2.10.2-1) A bearing using an oiling ring as a means of static oil feed must occasionally be
serviced by removing the wear particles, grit, and moisture. How is this accomplished?

 (a) Draining the bottom of the bearing lube oil sump.


o (b) Rotating the handle of the lube oil strainer.
o (c) Draining the bottom of the strainer housing.
o (d) Changing the filter element.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

260. (2.2.10.2-2) On a bearing using an oiling ring as a means of static oil feed, at what oil level is the
bearing maintained?

o (a) The bearing is maintained at a level where the shaft is half-submerged in oil.
o (b) The bearing is maintained at any level that guarantees that the shaft is partially submerged in
oil.
o (c) The bearing is maintained in a flooded state where the shaft is completely submerged in oil.
 (d) The bearing is maintained at a level below the shaft, but high enough so that the ring dips into
the oil.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

261. (2.2.10.2-3) On a bearing using an oiling ring as a means of static oil feed, how often should the
bottom of the bearing sump be drained of impurities?

o (a) Annually
o (b) Every round
o (c) Daily
 (d) Bimonthly

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

157 August 2014


United States Coast Guard General Subjects
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262. (2.2.10.2-4) If the bearings of a piece of machinery are fed by a gravity feed lubricating oil
system, what statement is true?

o (a) The lube oil pump draws a suction on the lube oil gravity tank and discharges directly to the
bearings. The return oil then gravity drains to the lube oil gravity tank.
o (b) The lube oil pump draws a suction on the lube oil reservoir/sump and discharges directly to
the bearings. The return oil then gravity drains to the lube oil gravity tank which overflows to the
lube oil reservoir/sump.
o (c) The lube oil pump draws a suction on the lube oil reservoir/sump and discharges directly to
the bearings. The return oil then gravity drains to the lube oil reservoir/sump.
 (d) The lube oil pump draws a suction on the lube oil reservoir/sump and discharges to the lube
oil gravity tank. The oil then gravity feeds the bearings and the return oil drains to the lube oil
reservoir/sump.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

263. (2.2.10.2-5) If the bearings of a piece of machinery are force-fed by a pressure feed lubricating oil
system, which statement is true?

o (a) The lube oil pump draws a suction on the lube oil reservoir/sump and discharges directly to
the bearings. The return oil then gravity drains to the lube oil gravity tank which overflows to the
lube oil reservoir/sump.
o (b) The lube oil sump draws a suction on the lube oil reservoir/sump and discharges to the lube
oil gravity tank. The oil then gravity feeds the bearings and the return oil drains to the lube oil
reservoir/sump.
 (c) The lube oil pump draws a suction on the lube oil reservoir/sump and discharges directly to
the bearings. The return oil then gravity drains to the lube oil reservoir/sump.
o (d) The lube oil pump draws a suction on the lube oil gravity tank and discharges directly to the
bearings. The return oil then gravity drains to the lube oil gravity tank.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

264. (2.2.10.2-6) If the bearings of a piece of machinery are fed by a gravity feed lubricating oil
system, what statement is true concerning the vertical arrangement of the lube oil tanks?

o (a) The lube oil gravity tank and the lube oil reservoir/sump are both below the points of
lubrication.
o (b) The lube oil gravity tank is below the points of lubrication and the lube oil reservoir/sump
is above the points of lubrication.
 (c) The lube oil gravity tank is above the points of lubrication and the lube oil reservoir/sump is
below the points of lubrication.
o (d) The lube oil gravity tank and the lube oil reservoir/sump are both above the points of
lubrication.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

158 August 2014


United States Coast Guard General Subjects
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265. (2.2.10.2-7) On a bearing using an oiling ring as means of static oil feed, unless adverse
conditions would indicate otherwise, how often should the oil be completely changed at a minimum?

o (a) Weekly
o (b) Monthly
 (c) Annually
o (d) Quarterly

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

266. (2.2.10.2-8) Which type of lubricating oil method is LEAST likely to have a lube oil strainer or
filter?

o (a) Gravity-feed
o (b) Pressure-feed
 (c) Static-feed
o (d) Force-feed

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

267. (2.2.10.2-9) In a forced-feed lubrication system, what statement is true concerning lube oil
reservoir/sump residence time?

o (a) The higher the oil level, the shorter the residence time, and the hotter the oil will be as
delivered by the pump.
 (b) The higher the oil level, the longer the residence time, and the cooler the oil will be as
delivered by the pump.
o (c) The higher the oil level, the shorter the residence time, and the cooler the oil will be as
delivered by the pump.
o (d) The higher the oil level, the longer the residence time, and the hotter the oil will be as
delivered by the pump.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

268. (2.2.10.2-10) In a forced-feed lubrication system, what statement is true concerning lube oil
reservoir/sump residence time?

o (a) The lower the oil level, the longer the residence time, and the cooler the oil will be delivered by
the pump.
 (b) The lower the oil level, the shorter the residence time, and the hotter the oil will be as
delivered by the pump.
o (c) The lower the oil level, the longer the residence time, and the hotter the oil will be as delivered
by the pump.
o (d) The lower the oil level, the shorter the residence time, and the cooler the oil will be as
delivered by the pump.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

159 August 2014


United States Coast Guard General Subjects
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269. (2.2.10.3-1) Adsorption filters are not commonly used in steam turbine or diesel engine lubricating
systems because they __________.

o (a) are only effective at temperatures below 100°F


 (b) remove additives from the lube oil
o (c) can adsorb no more than five times their weight in water
o (d) utilize exotic and expensive filtering media making them too costly for use.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

270. (2.2.10.3-2) The greatest difference between absorbent and adsorbent filters is that absorbent
filters __________.

 (a) soak up liquid contaminants directly into the filter media


o (b) will remove additives from the lube oil
o (c) do not create pressure drops in the lube oil system
o (d) attract or have liquid contaminants stick to the surface of the filter media

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

271. (2.2.10.3-3) Which of the following statements best describes the straining ability of a fine mesh
metal lube oil strainer?

o (a) A 100 wire mesh screen will prevent passage of smaller particles than 200 wire mesh screen.
 (b) A 200 wire mesh screen will prevent passage of smaller particles than a 100 wire mesh
screen.
o (c) A 200 wire mesh screen and a 100 wire mesh screen both prevent passage of the same size
particles, but each allows a different number of particles to pass through.
o (d) A 200 mesh screen has larger wires than a 100 mesh screen.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

272. (2.2.10.3-4) Which of the following lube oil filters would be considered acceptable for use with
today's high detergent additive type oils?

 (a) Cotton waste packed in perforated metal containers or cylindrical cartridges.


o (b) Foamed polyurethane of the impingement type supported on perforated metal rings.
o (c) Cylindrical elements containing fuller’s earth combined with cellulose.
o (d) Chemically treated paper and waste in cartridges.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

273. (2.2.10.3-5) Which of the filter/strainer units listed permits you to replace or clean the element
while leaving the system on the line?

o (a) Simplex
o (b) Bypass
o (c) Canister
 (d) Duplex

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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274. (2.2.10.3-6) Which of the following types of diesel engine lubricating oil filtration schemes must be
equipped with a bypass relief valve to insure that the engine bearings are not starved of oil if the
filter element should become severely restricted or blocked?

o (a) Batch filter


o (b) Shunt filter
 (c) Full-flow filter
o (d) Bypass filter

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

275. (2.2.10.3-7) Which of the following types of lubricating oil filters is not fitted with a replaceable
filter element and is serviced by cleaning?

o (a) Cartridge filter


 (b) Centrifugal filter
o (c) Spin-on filter
o (d) Canister filter

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

276. (2.2.10.3-8) What type of diesel engine lubricating oil filtration scheme filters the entire output of
the lubricating oil pump prior to delivery to the lubricating oil supply manifold of the engine?

o (a) Bypass filter


 (b) Full-flow filter
o (c) Shunt filter
o (d) Batch filter

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

277. (2.2.10.3-9) What type of diesel engine lubricating oil filtration scheme filters a small portion of the
output of the lubricating oil pump prior to delivery back to the sump via a fine filter?

 (a) Bypass filter


o (b) Batch filter
o (c) Full-flow filter
o (d) Shunt filter

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

278. (2.2.10.3-10) What is the BEST indication that a diesel engine full-flow lubricating oil filter must be
serviced?

o (a) Abnormally high lubricating oil pump discharge pressure.


o (b) Insufficient pressure drop across the filter.
 (c) Excessive pressure drop across the filter.
o (d) Abnormally low lubricating oil supply manifold pressure.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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279. (2.2.12.1-1) The ability of a metal to be hammered, or rolled out is called its __________.

o (a) elasticity
o (b) ductility
o (c) fusibility
 (d) malleability

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

280. (2.2.12.1-2) Reheating a hardened component to a temperature lower than the hardening
temperature and then cooling it is known as __________.

o (a) case hardening


o (b) low temperature hardening
o (c) annealing
 (d) tempering

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

281. (2.2.12.1-3) When hardened metal is heat-treated by a process known as tempering, what
metallurgical properties are achieved?

 (a) decrease in brittleness


o (b) increase in hardening
o (c) increase in brittleness
o (d) increase in corrosion resistance

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

282. (2.2.12.1-4) When metal is tempered, it becomes __________.

 (a) less brittle


o (b) more brittle
o (c) less tough
o (d) harder

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

283. (2.2.12.1-5) What is the purpose of heat treating steel?

o (a) Develop ductility


o (b) Improve machining qualities
o (c) Relieve stresses
 (d) All of the above

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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284. (2.2.12.1-6) Monel metal is an alloy composed mainly of __________.

 (a) nickel and copper


o (b) zinc and copper
o (c) bronze and tin
o (d) copper and tin

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

285. (2.2.12.1-7) When a metal is undergoing heat treatment, what happens when the metal is heated
above its critical temperature?

o (a) The metal changes from the solid state to the molten state.
o (b) The metal changes from a molten state to a vapor state.
 (c) The metal undergoes a change in crystalline structure.
o (d) The metal undergoes thermal contraction.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

286. (2.2.12.1-8) When a metal is undergoing heat treatment for the purposes of annealing, besides
refining the grain structure, what is the determining characteristic of the metal?

o (a) Change in chemical composition


 (b) Softened condition
o (c) High tensile strength
o (d) Induction of toughness

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

287. (2.2.12.1-9) When a low carbon steel is undergoing heat treatment for the purposes of
casehardening, what is the process that distinguishes this procedure from other hardening methods?

 (a) After the steel is heated above its critical temperature, it is quenched in a carbon bath.
o (b) After the steel is heated above its critical temperature, it is quenched in cold water.
o (c) After the steel is heated above its critical temperature, it is allowed to cool slowly in air.
o (d) After the steel is heated above its melting temperature, it is quenched in a carbon bath.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

288. (2.2.12.1-10) What effect does preheating, concurrent heating, or post heating have on a welding
a joint?

 (a) Decreasing the temperature gradient in the weld area and relieving internal stresses.
o (b) Increasing the temperature gradient in the weld area and relieving internal stresses.
o (c) Decreasing the temperature gradient in the weld area and intensifying internal stresses.
o (d) Increasing the temperature gradient in the weld area and intensifying internal stresses.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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289. (2.2.12.1-11) What is meant by the term tensile strength of a material?

o (a) The ability to resist shearing stresses.


o (b) The ability to resist bending stresses.
o (c) The ability to resist compression stresses.
 (d) The ability to resist stretching stresses.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

290. (2.2.12.1-12) What is meant by the term toughness as it applies to a material?

o (a) The ability to resist penetration.


 (b) The ability to resist repeated application and release of force.
o (c) The ability to resist continuous tension.
o (d) The ability to resist continuous compression.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

291. (2.2.12.3-5) Referring to the illustration, suppose after initiating the oil discharge mode, the oily-
water separator fails to come out of the oil discharge mode in a timely fashion. Cracking open the
upper sampling valve reveals the presence of water exiting under a positive pressure. What is most
likely the cause? (GS-0175)

o (a) The lower oil/water interface detection probe fails to initiate the oil discharge mode.
o (b) The clean water supply solenoid fails to open, and as a result provides no discharge pressure.
o (c) The oil discharge check valve fails to open, and as a result no oil actually discharges.
 (d) The upper oil/water interface detection probe fails to end the oil discharge mode.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

292. (2.2.12.3-10) Referring to the illustration, what would be the result if the lower oil/water interface
detection probe became faulty? (GS-0175)

o (a) The unit would not be able to transition from ending the oil discharge mode to initiating the
separation processing mode.
o (b) The unit would not be able to transition from the overboard discharge mode to the re-
circulation mode while in the separation processing mode.
 (c) The unit would not be able to transition from ending the separation processing mode to
initiating the oil discharge mode.
o (d) The unit would not be able to come out of the oily-water separator idle mode and begin
processing bilge water.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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293. (2.2.12.3-2) If item "1" shown in the illustration is a compound gage indicating zero psig and the
water level in the bilges is one foot high, the unit is __________. GS-0153

o (a) in the oil discharge mode


o (b) processing the bilge water
o (c) damaged and should not be used
 (d) not turned on

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

294. (2.2.12.3-1) If item "1" in the illustrated oily water separator indicates an abnormally deep
vacuum, which of the following conditions is the most probable cause? GS-0153

o (a) Process water inlet valve, item "5", is open.


 (b) Suction line inlet strainer is obstructed.
o (c) No problem exists as a high vacuum should be maintained in the chamber whose vacuum is
to be measured.
o (d) Coalescer beds are severely fouled.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

295. (2.2.12.1-4) What type of fuel oil as part of an oily-water mixture is most likely to have a density
approaching that of water?

 (a) Heavy residual fuel oil.


o (b) Marine diesel oil.
o (c) Distillate/residual fuel oil blends.
o (d) Light distillate oil.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

296. (2.2.12.1-7) What statement is true concerning the effect of elevating the temperature of the oily-
water mixture associated with an oily-water separator?

o (a) Heating the oily-water mixture decreases the viscosity of the oil and decreases the specific
gravity differential between the oil and water.
o (b) Heating the oily-water mixture increases the viscosity of the oil and increases the specific
gravity differential between the oil and water.
o (c) Heating the oily-water mixture increases the viscosity of the oil and decreases the specific
gravity differential between the oil and water.
 (d) Heating the oily-water mixture decreases the viscosity of the oil and increases the specific
gravity differential between the oil and water.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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297. (2.2.12.1-1) What is an engine room bilge oily-water separator designed to do?

o (a) Remove small amounts of water from large amounts of oil.


o (b) Remove small amounts of oil from small amounts of water.
o (c) Remove small amounts of oil from small amounts of water.
 (d) Remove small amounts of oil from large amounts of water.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

298. (2.2.12.1-10) What statement is true concerning the polishing coalescer filter of an oily-water
separator?

 (a) The coalescing filter is typically an oleophilic filter meaning that small droplets of entrained oil
of the oily-water mixture coalesce on the filter and form large globules of oil that rise to the top of
the filter housing.
o (b) The coalescing filter is typically an oleophilic filter meaning that small droplets of entrained oil
of the oily-water mixture coalesce on the filter and form large globules of oil that sink to the
bottom of the filter housing.
o (c) The coalescing filter is typically a hydrophilic filter meaning that small droplets of
entrained water of the oily-water mixture coalesce on the filter and form large globules of water
that sink to the bottom of the filter housing.
o (d) The coalescing filter is typically a hydrophilic filter meaning that small droplets of entrained
water of the oily-water mixture coalesce on the filter and form large globules of water that rise to
the top of the filter housing.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

299. (2.2.12.1-6) In order to facilitate separation of oil from an oily-water mixture in an oily-water
separator, what statement is true concerning the flow pattern of the oily-water?

o (a) Ideally the flow of the oily-water should be low in flow rate and high in turbulence.
o (b) Ideally the flow of the oily-water should be high in flow rate and high in turbulence.
 (c) Ideally the flow of the oily-water should be low in flow rate and low in turbulence.
o (d) Ideally the flow of the oily-water should be high in flow rate and low in turbulence.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

300. (2.2.12.1-5) What type of oil as part of an oily-water mixture is most likely to require heating to
facilitate separation in an oily-water separator?

 (a) Heavy residual fuel oil.


o (b) Diesel engine lubricating oil.
o (c) Marine diesel oil.
o (d) Steam turbine lubricating oil.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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301. (2.2.12.1-2) What statement is true with regard to the basic operating principle of gravity
associated with an oily-water separator?

 (a) The density of oil is less than that of water and as a result the oil droplets in an oily-water
mixture will tend to rise.
o (b) The density of oil is greater than that of water and as a result the oil droplets in an oily-water
mixture will tend to sink.
o (c) The density of oil is greater than that of water and as a result the oil droplets in an oily-water
mixture will tend to rise.
o (d) The density of oil is less than that of water and as a result the oil droplets in an oily-water
mixture will tend to sink.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

302. (2.2.12.1-8) If an oily-water separator uses an inclined plate pack to facilitate separation, what
statement concerning the plate pack is true?

 (a) The oil droplets collect on the underside of the plates and rise when they have reached the
outer edge of the plate pack. Solid particles collect on the upper side of the plates and sink when
they have reached the inner edge of the plate pack.
o (b) The oil droplets collect on the upper side of the plates and sink when they have reached the
outer edge of the plate pack. Solid particles collect on the underside of the plates and rise when
they have reached the inner edge of the plate pack.
o (c) The oil droplets collect on the upper side of the plates and rise when they have reached the
outer edge of the plate pack. Solid particles collect on the underside of the plates and sink when
they have reached the inner edge of the plate pack.
o (d) The oil droplets collect on the underside of the plates and sink when they have reached the
outer edge of the plate pack. Solid particles collect on the upper side of the plates and rise when
they have reached the inner edge of the plate pack.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

303. (2.2.12.2-8) The line labeled "G", as shown in the illustration, would be identified as the ______.
GS-0175

 (a) waste oil outlet line


o (b) processed water outlet line
o (c) clean water inlet line
o (d) oily bilge water inlet line

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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304. (2.2.12.2-4) What is the normal direction of flow through the device shown in the illustration while
operating in the processing mode? GS-0153

 (a) The oily-water mixture enters through valve "5" and exits the separator through valve "14" as
processed liquid.
o (b) The oily-water mixture enters through valve "4" and exits as processed liquid through valve
"14".
o (c) The oily-water mixture enters through valve "14" and exits with the processed liquid through
valve "4".
o (d) The oily-water mixture enters through the pressure control valve "2" and exits with the
processed liquid through valve "14".

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

305. (2.2.12.2-7) The line labeled "E", as shown in the illustration, would be identified as the ______.
GS-0175

o (a) processed water outlet line


o (b) clean water inlet line
o (c) waste oil outlet line
 (d) oily bilge water inlet line

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

306. (2.2.12.2-1) The components indicated as "7" and "8" as shown in the illustration, are known as
the __________. GS-0153

o (a) first stage oil separator and drip pan


 (b) inlet weir and inlet baffle
o (c) second stage oil separator and drip pan
o (d) outlet weir and outlet baffle

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

307. (2.2.12.2-3) The function of item "7" shown in the illustration is to __________. GS-0153

o (a) direct the flow of the oily-water mixture against the coalescer bed
o (b) support the tank access panel
o (c) allow the oil accumulated to exit the device, while remaining separated from the liquid
 (d) prevent separated oil from mixing with the incoming bilge water

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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308. (2.2.12.2-6) The line labeled "C", as shown in the illustration, would be identified as the ______.
GS-0175

o (a) processed water outlet line


 (b) clean water inlet line
o (c) oily bilge water inlet line
o (d) waste oil discharge line

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

309. (2.2.12.2-2) When the oily water separator, shown in the illustration, is in operation and
processing clear bilge water, what should be the internal water level? GS-0153

o (a) The water level in the tank should be slightly above the upper coalescer bed "9".
o (b) The water level should be located in the lower section of the tank as controlled by flow control
valve "14".
 (c) The water level should be located in the upper section of the tank.
o (d) No water level is maintained in the tank.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

310. (2.2.13.2-6) How would the pressure setting of the illustrated self-contained, internal-pilot, piston-
operated steam pressure-reducer be reduced to a lower set point? (GS-0044)

o (a) The adjusting spring would need to have its compression load reduced by rotating the
adjusting screw clockwise further into the adjusting spring chamber.
 (b) The adjusting spring would need to have its compression load reduced by rotating the
adjusting screw counter-clockwise further out of the adjusting spring chamber.
o (c) The adjusting spring would need to have its compression load increased by rotating the
adjusting screw counter-clockwise further out of the adjusting spring chamber.
o (d) The adjusting spring would need to have its compression load increased by rotating the
adjusting screw clockwise further into the adjusting spring chamber.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

311. (2.2.13.2-4) Suppose the illustrated self-contained, internal-pilot, piston-operated steam pressure-
reducing valve is part of a 600-to150 psig reducing station. If there was an increase in demand for
steam downstream, what statement correctly represents how the valve would initially respond? (GS-
0044)

o (a) The downstream pressure would drop, causing the control diaphragm to flex upward and
further close the pilot valve.
 (b) The downstream pressure would drop, causing the control diaphragm to flex downward and
further open the pilot valve.
o (c) The downstream pressure would rise, causing the control diaphragm to flex upward and
further close the pilot valve.
o (d) The downstream pressure would rise, causing the control diaphragm to flex downward and
further open the pilot valve.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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United States Coast Guard General Subjects
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312. (2.2.13.2-2) In the illustrated self-contained, internal-pilot, piston-operated steam pressure-


reducing valve, what statement is true concerning the opening and closing forces acting upon the
control diaphragm? (GS-0044)

 (a) The spring (F) force acting on the control diaphragm is a pilot valve opening force, and the
downstream pressure (J) acting on the control diaphragm is a pilot valve closing force.
o (b) The spring (F) force acting on the control diaphragm is a pilot valve opening force, and the
upstream pressure (C) acting on the control diaphragm is a pilot valve closing force.
o (c) The spring (F) force acting on the control diaphragm is a pilot valve closing force, and the
upstream pressure (C) acting on the control diaphragm is a pilot valve opening force.
o (d) The spring (F) force acting on the control diaphragm is a pilot valve closing force, and the
downstream pressure (J) acting on the control diaphragm is a pilot valve opening force.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

313. (2.2.13.2-11) How would the illustrated valve respond to a complete loss of charge from the
remote bulb-to-control diaphragm power element if the valve is used as a temperature control valve
for a steam-heated heavy fuel oil service heater? Refer to Illustration GS-0045

o (a) The valve would fail in the fully-closed position, resulting in a low fuel oil temperature alarm.
 (b) The valve would fail in the fully-open position, resulting in a high fuel oil temperature alarm.
o (c) It is not possible to predict how the valve will respond to a complete loss of charge from the
power element.
o (d) The valve would fail in the exact position it was in before the power element lost its complete
charge, resulting in a fluctuation in fuel oil temperature as demand changes.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

314. (2.2.13.2-8) In the illustrated self-contained, internal-pilot, piston-operated temperature control


valve, what statement is true concerning the pilot and main valves? (GS-0045)

o (a) The pilot valve is downward seating and the main valve is upward seating.
 (b) The pilot valve is upward seating and the main valve is upward seating.
o (c) The pilot valve is downward seating and the main valve is downward seating.
o (d) The pilot valve is upward seating and the main valve is downward seating.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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315. (2.2.13.2-10) Suppose the illustrated self-contained, internal-pilot, piston-operated temperature


control valve is part of the temperature control system for a steam-heated heavy fuel oil service
heater for a steam boiler. If there was an increase in demand for fuel by the boiler, what statement
correctly represents how the valve would initially respond? (GS-0045)

o (a) The fuel oil heater fuel outlet temperature would increase, causing the remote bulb pressure
to increase and the control diaphragm to flex downward and through lever action, further close
the pilot valve.
 (b) The fuel oil heater fuel outlet temperature would decrease, causing the remote bulb pressure
to decrease and the control diaphragm to flex upward and through lever action, further open the
pilot valve.
o (c) The fuel oil heater fuel outlet temperature would decrease, causing the remote bulb pressure
to decrease and the control diaphragm to flex downward and through lever action, further close
the pilot valve.
o (d) The fuel oil heater fuel outlet temperature would increase, causing the remote bulb pressure
to increase and the control diaphragm to flex upward and through lever action, further open the
pilot valve.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

316. (2.2.13.3-8) As it pertains to safety valves, what is the definition of blow down?

o (a) Blow down is the feature of a valve that allows drainage of condensate away from the disc to
prevent sticking.
o (b) Blow down is the difference between the maximum allowable working pressure and the valve
popping pressure.
 (c) Blow down is the difference between the valve popping pressure and the valve reseating
pressure.
o (d) Blow down is the difference between the maximum allowable working pressure and the valve
reseating pressure.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

317. (2.2.13.3-10) Referring to the illustrated huddling-chamber safety valve, what statement
concerning the blow down adjusting ring (B) is true? (SG-0018)

o (a) Lowering the blow down adjusting ring further increases the area of exposure to pressure after
the valve pops and as a result, the valve blow down will decrease.
o (b) Lowering the blow down adjusting ring further decreases the area of exposure to pressure
after the valve pops and as a result, the valve blow down will increase.
 (c) Lowering the blow down adjusting ring further decreases the area of exposure to pressure
after the valve pops and as a result, the valve blow down will decrease.
o (d) Lowering the blow down adjusting ring further increases the area of exposure to pressure after
the valve pops and as a result, the valve blow down will increase.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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318. (2.2.13.3-3) Concerning safety valves, what statement is true?

 (a) Safety valves are designed to open wide when lifted by excessive pressure and only reseat
when the pressure has dropped significantly.
o (b) Safety valves are always set to relieve at a pressure exceeding the maximum allowable
working pressure of the system.
o (c) Safety valves are designed to throttle and adjust the flow rate to just keep up with the capacity
of the pressure source.
o (d) Safety valves are designed to open wide when lifted by excessive pressure and immediately
reseat when the pressure has dropped by a very small amount.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

319. (2.2.13.3-7) Referring to the illustrated huddling-chamber safety valve, what statement is true
concerning the adjustment of the popping pressure? (SG-0018)

o (a) Popping pressure is adjusted by rotating the adjusting ring (B).


o (b) Popping pressure is adjusted by rotating the release nut (A).
 (c) Popping pressure is adjusted by rotating the compression screw after first loosening the
compression screw locking nut (C).
o (d) Popping pressure is adjusted by rotating the seat bushing (G).

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

320. (2.2.13.3-5) Which of the following listed valves would require "blow down" to insure proper
operation and prevent damage due to repeated and rapid opening and closing?

o (a) Pressure-reducing valve


o (b) Pressure-relief valve
 (c) Safety valve
o (d) Pressure-regulating relief valve

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

321. (2.2.13.3-1) Concerning pressure-relief valves, what statement is true?

 (a) No stop isolation valve may be installed between the relief valve and its source of pressure,
and no stop isolation valve may be installed in the relief valve discharge piping.
o (b) It is permissible to install a stop isolation valve between the relief valve and its source of
pressure, but no stop isolation valve may be installed in the relief valve discharge piping.
o (c) It is permissible for a stop isolation valve to be installed between the relief valve and its source
of pressure, and it is permissible for a stop isolation valve to be installed in the relief valve
discharge piping.
o (d) No stop isolation valve may be installed between the relief valve and its source of pressure,
but it is permissible for a stop isolation valve to be installed in the relief valve discharge piping.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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322. (2.2.13.3-2) Concerning sentinel valves, what statement is true?

o (a) The set point of the sentinel valve is usually above the maximum allowable working pressure
of the system.
o (b) The capacity of a sentinel valve must exceed the capacity of the pressure source.
 (c) The sentinel valve's sole purpose is to warn personnel of excessive system pressure.
o (d) The set point of a sentinel valve is normally set below the normal working pressure of the
system.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

323. (2.2.13.4-2) Referring to the illustrated pneumatically-operated diaphragm-actuated control valve,


what statement is true? (GS-0051)

o (a) The control valve has a single disc which is upward seating.
o (b) The control valve has a single disc which is downward seating.
o (c) The control valve has two discs which are both upward seating.
 (d) The control valve has two discs which are both downward seating.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

324. (2.2.13.4-10) Suppose the illustrated pneumatically-operated diaphragm-actuated control valve is


used to control the fuel oil outlet temperature of a steam-heated heavy fuel oil heater by controlling
the steam flow. What would be the result if the stem packing was over-tightened and the stem was
unable to vertically move in either direction? Illustration GS-0051

o (a) The valve would fail in the fully-closed position, most likely resulting in a low fuel oil
temperature alarm condition.
o (b) It is not possible to predict how the valve would respond to over-tightened valve stem packing.
 (c) The valve will lose control of the fuel oil temperature with the result that the fuel temperature
will fluctuate with changes in fuel demand.
o (d) The valve would fail in the fully-open position, most likely resulting in a high fuel oil
temperature alarm condition.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

325. (2.2.13.4-3) Assuming that the flow is from left to right on the illustrated pneumatically-operated
diaphragm-actuated control valve, what statement is true? (GS-0051)

o (a) Inlet pressure acts on the upper surface of the top disc and the lower surface of the bottom
disc for the purpose of achieving hydraulic balance so that inlet pressure does not influence the
valve position.
 (b) Inlet pressure acts on the lower surface of the top disc and the upper surface of the bottom
disc for the purpose of achieving hydraulic balance so that inlet pressure does not influence the
valve position.
o (c) Inlet pressure acts on the upper surface of the top disc and the upper surface of the bottom
disc for the purpose of achieving a hydraulic assist to aid in valve closing.
o (d) Inlet pressure acts on the lower surface of the top disc and the lower surface of the bottom
disc for the purpose of achieving a hydraulic assist to aid in valve opening.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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326. (2.2.13.4-4) In the illustrated pneumatically-operated diaphragm-actuated control valve, what


statement is true concerning the opening and closing forces acting upon the control diaphragm?
(GS-0051)

o (a) The spring force acting on the control diaphragm is a valve opening force, and the pilot
pressure acting on the bottom of the control diaphragm is a valve closing force.
o (b) The spring force acting on the control diaphragm is a valve closing force, and the pilot
pressure acting on the top of the control diaphragm is a valve opening force.
 (c) The spring force acting on the control diaphragm is a valve opening force, and the pilot
pressure acting on the top of the control diaphragm is a valve closing force.
o (d) The spring force acting on the control diaphragm is a valve closing force, and the pilot
pressure acting on the bottom of the control diaphragm is a valve opening force.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

327. (2.2.13.4-1) Referring to the illustrated pneumatically-operated diaphragm-actuated control valve,


what statement is true? (GS-0051)

 (a) The control valve is direct-acting and normally open (NO).


o (b) The control valve is indirect-acting and normally open (NO).
o (c) The control valve is direct-acting and normally closed (NC).
o (d) The control valve is indirect-acting and normally closed (NC).

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

328. (2.2.13.4-5) Suppose the pilot pressure range is from 3 to 15 psig for the illustrated
pneumatically-operated diaphragm-actuated control valve. Assuming the control valve is trimmed for
a linear response and the travel position indicator is calibrated in percentage, what would the
approximate valve position with a 9 psig pilot pressure? (GS-0051)

o (a) 25% open


o (b) 33% open
 (c) 50% open
o (d) 75% open

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

329. (2.2.12.1-11) Suppose a steam trap's primary purpose is to insure good heat transfer of a steam-
heated heat exchanger. What statement is true concerning the outcome of a steam trap failure?

o (a) Steam trap failure in a fully open position would result in exceptionally good heat transfer, and
steam trap failure in a full closed position would result in exceptionally poor heat transfer.
 (b) Steam trap failure in either a fully open or fully closed position would both result in
exceptionally poor heat transfer.
o (c) Steam trap failure in a fully open position would result in exceptionally poor heat transfer, and
steam trap failure in a full closed position would result in exceptionally good heat transfer.
o (d) Steam trap failure in either a fully open or fully closed position would both result in
exceptionally good heat transfer.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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330. (2.2.13.1-2) What statement representing the primary purpose of a steam trap is true?

 (a) By draining the low point of a horizontal run of steam piping, a steam trap is used primarily to
keep the steam line dry and eliminate water hammer.
o (b) By draining the high point of a horizontal run of steam piping, a steam trap is used primarily to
keep the steam line dry and eliminate water hammer.
o (c) By draining the high point of a vertical run of steam piping, a steam trap is used primarily to
keep the steam line dry and eliminate water hammer.
o (d) By draining the low point of a horizontal run of steam piping, a steam trap is used primarily to
insure good heat transfer efficiency.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

331. (2.2.12.1-9) What type of steam trap is most susceptible to damage if allowed to come into
contact with superheated steam?

o (a) Mechanical traps relying on the principle of buoyancy.


o (b) Thermodynamic traps relying on the principle of condensate undergoing a pressure drop and
flashing.
o (c) Thermostatic traps relying on the principle of differing expansion rates for dissimilar metals.
 (d) Thermostatic traps relying on the principle of expansion/contraction of a volatile fluid.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

332. (2.2.13.1-7) Referring to the illustrated bellows-type thermostatic steam trap, what statement is
true concerning its operation? (GS-0005)

 (a) When the bellows comes into contact with relatively cool condensate, the vapor within the
bellows condenses resulting in bellows contraction and valve opening.
o (b) When the bellows comes into contact with relatively hot steam, the vapor within the bellows
condenses resulting in bellows contraction and valve opening.
o (c) When the bellows comes into contact with relatively cool condensate, the liquid within the
bellows vaporizes resulting in bellows expansion and valve closing.
o (d) When the bellows comes into contact with relatively hot steam, the liquid within the
bellows vaporizes resulting in bellows contraction and valve opening.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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333. (2.2.13.1-5) Referring to the illustrated impulse steam trap, what would be the effect of threading
the control cylinder "E" downward further into the trap body? (GS-0002)

o (a) The clearance between the reverse taper of the control cylinder's inner wall and the periphery
of the valve disk will decrease, and as a result, the pressure drop across the periphery of the
valve disk will decrease.
o (b) The clearance between the reverse taper of the control cylinder's inner wall and the periphery
of the valve disk will decrease, and as a result, the pressure drop across the periphery of the
valve disk will increase.
o (c) The clearance between the reverse taper of the control cylinder's inner wall and the periphery
of the valve disk will increase, and as a result, the pressure drop across the periphery of the valve
disk will increase.
 (d) The clearance between the reverse taper of the control cylinder's inner wall and the periphery
of the valve disk will increase, and as a result, the pressure drop across the periphery of the valve
disk will decrease.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

334. (2.2.13.1-4) In order for a steam trap to be effective in accomplishing its intended purpose, what
statement is true regarding its installation?

o (a) The steam trap should never be painted, but should be covered with insulation.
o (b) The steam trap should be painted to reduce corrosion and should be covered with insulation.
o (c) The steam trap should be painted to reduce corrosion but should never be covered with
insulation.
 (d) The steam trap should never be painted and should never be covered with insulation.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

335. (2.2.14.3-1) In the illustration shown, an efficient seal is maintained between the suction cover
and the volute by __________. GS-0012

o (a) good metal-to-metal contact


o (b) sealant between the two parts
 (c) an asbestos gasket
o (d) compressing the packing rings

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

336. (2.2.14.3-5) In the pump shown in the illustration, what is the distance from the bottom of the inlet
to the bottom end of the motor shaft? GS-0011

o (a) 45 1/4 inches


o (b) 45 5/16 inches
o (c) 53 5/8 inches
 (d) 57 5/8 inches

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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337. (2.2.14.3-3) What is the length of the stud used to secure the packing gland shown in the
illustration? GS-0012

o (a) 1 inch
o (b) 1 1/4 inches
o (c) 1 1/2 inches
 (d) 2 1/2 inches

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

338. (2.2.14.3-2) Which of the speeds listed represents the synchronous speed rating of the lube oil
pump motor shown in the illustration? GS-0011

o (a) 1,000 RPM


o (b) 1,150 RPM
 (c) 1,200 RPM
o (d) 1,250 RPM

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

339. (2.2.14.3-6) The working depth of the gear illustrated is represented by __________. Refer to
Illustration GS-0111

o (a) C
o (b) I
 (c) A
o (d) B

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

340. (2.2.14.3-4) What is the distance between the center of the discharge outlet and the top of the
motor illustrated? GS-0011

o (a) 34 5/8 inches


o (b) 35 inches
o (c) 35 5/8 inches
 (d) 36 inches

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

341. (2.2.14.3-8) Which letter represents the gear tooth working depth of the gear set illustrated? Refer
to Illustration GS-0111

 (a) A
o (b) B
o (c) C
o (d) D

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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342. (2.2.14.4-9) The illustration is drawn to a scale of 3/8 inch = 1 inch. What is the full size
dimension of "X", if the scale lengths for "E" = 5/8", "F" = 1 3/8", "G" = 2 1/8", and "H" = 5 3/4"? GS-
0007

o (a) 1.625 inches


 (b) 4.333 inches
o (c) 6.094 inches
o (d) 15.333 inches

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

343. (2.2.14.4-2) The physical feature indicated for each of the smallest diameter ends of the device
illustrated is that they are __________. GS-0008

 (a) threaded
o (b) smooth surfaced with opposing machined flats
o (c) smoothed surfaced only
o (d) threaded with opposing machined flats

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

344. (2.2.14.4-3) Which of the following statements is correct regarding the device shown in the
illustration? GS-0008

 (a) The areas dimensioned 0.64 in length are flats on the shaft.
o (b) The areas dimensioned 0.64 in length are steps in the shaft diameter.
o (c) If the piece is symmetrical about the 3/16 hole, the threaded ends have longitudinal tolerance
dimensions of 0.789 inch to 0.825 inch.
o (d) All the 0.03 under cuts must be taken into account when adjusting lengths to meet the
specified tolerances.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

345. (2.2.14.4-4) Figure "B", shown in the illustration, is dimensioned to indicate a/an __________.
GS-0019

 (a) interference fit


o (b) clearance of .005 inch
o (c) running fit
o (d) tolerance of .005 inch

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

346. (2.2.14.4-1) The dimension of the sensing gap in the left hand limit sensor assembly shown in the
illustration is __________. GS-0010

 (a) 1/8 inch


o (b) 1/4 inch
o (c) 3/8 inch
o (d) 1/2 inch

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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347. (2.2.14.4-10) The shaft shown in the illustration has an overall length of 42 inches in addition to
the following dimensions of "A" = 8", "B" = 8", "C" = 10", and "D"=8 3/16" The tapered length "X" is
__________. GS-0133

o (a) 6.375 inches


 (b) 7.812 inches
o (c) 8.185 inches
o (d) 8.312 inches

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

348. (2.2.14.4-7) The letters 'NPT' used in the notation 1/8-27 NPT as shown in the illustration,
indicates the __________. GS-0010

 (a) thread series


o (b) thread profile
o (c) class of finish
o (d) class of fit

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

349. (2.2.14.4-6) The illustration shown represents a blueprint of a metal __________. GS-0028

 (a) rod with a conventional break


o (b) tube with a broken out section
o (c) pipe with a missing center section
o (d) bar with a sawn out section

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

350. (2.2.14.2-2) In the illustration, line "C" is a __________. GS-0006

 (a) dimension line


o (b) leader line
o (c) cutting plane line
o (d) phantom line

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

351. (2.2.14.2-7) In the figure shown in the illustration, the standard blueprint symbols above the
letters "A", "B", and "C" indicate __________. GS-0036

 (a) the use of internal threads


o (b) hole tolerance
o (c) finished diameter
o (d) interference fit

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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352. (2.2.14.2-3) How many hidden lines are shown in the right side (end) view of the drawing
illustrated? GS-0021

 (a) None
o (b) Two
o (c) Four
o (d) Six

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

353. (2.2.14.2-6) In the illustration, line "D" is a/an __________. GS-0006

 (a) hidden line


o (b) sectioning line
o (c) outline
o (d) phantom line

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

354. (2.2.14.2-9) A 'centerline' depicted in a drawing or blueprint is represented by which of the figures
shown in the illustration? GS-0031

o (a) A
 (b) B
o (c) C
o (d) D

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

355. (2.2.14.2-1) In the illustration shown, what is the proper description of the hole represented by
"C"? GS-0015

 (a) Counter bored


o (b) Countersunk
o (c) Counter drilled
o (d) Spot faced

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

356. (2.2.14.2-10) In the illustration, line "J" is used to depict a _________? GS-0006

o (a) hidden line


 (b) cutting plane line
o (c) outline
o (d) centerline

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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357. (2.2.14.2-5) In the illustration, line "C" is a __________. GS-0006

 (a) dimension line


o (b) leader line
o (c) cutting plane line
o (d) phantom line

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

358. (2.2.14.2-8) A 'centerline' depicted in a drawing or blueprint is represented by which of the figures
shown in the illustration? GS-0031

o (a) A
 (b) E
o (c) D
o (d) C

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

359. Using the information in the illustration shown, the tail of the welding symbol will __________.GS-
0030

o (a) designate the type of weldment


 (b) designate the welding specifications
o (c) specify the size of weldment
o (d) specify the direction of welding

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

360. (2.2.14.1-1) As shown in the illustration, if figure "21" indicates the "TOP VIEW" of an
orthographic projection, and figure "11" indicates the "FRONT VIEW", which figure would best
represent the correct "RIGHT SIDE VIEW"? GS-0165

o (a) Figure "2"


 (b) Figure "10"
o (c) Figure "8"
o (d) Figure "15"

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

361. (2.2.14.1-3) Which of the projections represents the left side view of the object "X" in the
illustration? GS-0022

 (a) A
o (b) B
o (c) C
o (d) D

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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National Maritime Center Assistant Engineers-DDE

362. (2.2.14.1-4) The exploded drawing shown in the illustration is intended to show the __________.
GS-0025

o (a) total number of parts in the assembled component


 (b) parts aligned for the correct order of reassembly
o (c) disassembled component in a one point perspective view
o (d) parts without using hidden lines

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

363. (2.2.14.1-7) Of the views labeled "1", "2", "3", and "4", select the one that correctly represents the
right side view of the unnumbered object in the illustration. GS-0003

o (a) 1
o (b) 2
o (c) 3
 (d) 4

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

364. (2.2.14.1-2) Which of the figures shown in the illustrations depicts an orthographic projection?
GS-0142

 (a) A
o (b) B
o (c) C
o (d) D

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

365. (2.2.20.1-1) In order for heat transfer to take place between two substances, what essential
condition must exist?

o (a) The two substances must be of different state of matter.


o (b) The two substances must be of different specific gravity.
o (c) The two substances must be of different pressure.
 (d) The two substances must be of different temperature.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

366. (2.2.20.1-2) What mode of heat transfer is associated with the transport of thermal energy from
one location to another by fluid in motion?

o (a) Sublimation
 (b) Convection
o (c) Radiation
o (d) Conduction

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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367. (2.2.20.1-3) What mode of heat transfer is associated with the transport of thermal energy within
a body or between two bodies in direct contact?

o (a) Radiation
 (b) Conduction
o (c) Sublimation
o (d) Convection

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

368. (2.2.20.1-4) What mode of heat transfer is associated with the transport of thermal energy
through a transparent medium by means of electro-magnetic energy in the infrared spectrum?

o (a) Conduction
o (b) Sublimation
 (c) Radiation
o (d) Convection

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

369. (2.2.20.1-7) Overall heat transfer processes often involve two or more modes of heat transfer.
Specifically, when heat is being transferred from one side of an air compressor cylinder wall to the
opposite side, what mode of heat transfer is associated with that particular part of the
overall process?

o (a) Radiation
o (b) Natural convection
o (c) Forced convection
 (d) Conduction

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

370. (2.2.20.1-8) What statement is true concerning the heat transfer rates through a heat exchanger
boundary wall by conduction?

o (a) Heat transfer rates are inversely proportional to the temperature gradient across the wall, and
directly proportional to the area of the wall and the wall thickness.
o (b) Heat transfer rates are inversely proportional to the temperature gradient across the wall and
the area of the wall, and directly proportional to the wall thickness.
o (c) Heat transfer rates are directly proportional to the temperature gradient across the wall, and
inversely proportional to the area of the wall and the wall thickness.
 (d) Heat transfer rates are directly proportional to the temperature gradient across the wall and
the area of the wall, and inversely proportional to the wall thickness.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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371. (2.2.20.1-9) What statement is true concerning heat transfer rates by the heat transfer mode of
natural convection?

 (a) Heat transfer rates are directly proportional to the difference in fluid densities which, in turn, is
directly proportional to the temperature gradient.
o (b) Heat transfer rates are inversely proportional to the difference in fluid densities which, in
turn, is directly proportional to the temperature gradient.
o (c) Heat transfer rates are directly proportional to the difference in fluid densities which, in turn, is
inversely proportional to the temperature gradient.
o (d) Heat transfer rates are inversely proportional to the difference in fluid densities which, in
turn, is inversely proportional to the temperature gradient.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

372. (2.2.20.2-1) What statement represents the first law of thermodynamics?

o (a) When heat is transferred from one body to another, the internal energy given up by the first
body must be exceed the internal energy taken up by the second body.
o (b) When heat is transferred from one body to another, there is no mathematical relationship
between the internal energy given up by the first body and the internal energy taken up by the
second body.
o (c) When heat is transferred from one body to another, the internal energy given up by the first
body must be less than the internal energy taken up by the second body.
 (d) When heat is transferred from one body to another, the internal energy given up by the first
body must be equal to the internal energy taken up by the second body.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

373. (2.2.20.2-2) What statement represents the second law of thermodynamics?

o (a) When heat is transferred from one body to another, the direction of heat flow is uni-directional
from the relatively cold body to the relatively hot body.
o (b) When heat is transferred from one body to another, the direction of heat flow between the two
bodies is unpredictable.
 (c) When heat is transferred from one body to another, the direction of heat flow is uni-directional
from the relatively hot body to the relatively cold body.
o (d) When heat is transferred from one body to another, the direction of heat flow is bi-directional
from the relatively hot body to the relatively cold body and from the relatively cold body to the
relatively hot body.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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374. (2.2.20.2-3) If Boyles' law describes the relationship between the pressure and volume of ideal
gases, what statement is true?

o (a) If the temperature remains constant, the volume of a given mass of gas is directly proportional
to its pressure.
 (b) If the temperature remains constant, the volume of a given mass of gas is inversely
proportional to its pressure.
o (c) If the pressure remains constant, the volume of a given mass of gas is directly proportional to
its temperature.
o (d) If the pressure remains constant, the volume of a given mass of gas is inversely proportional
to its temperature.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

375. (2.2.20.2-4) If Charles' law describes the relationship between the temperature and volume of
ideal gases, what statement is true?

o (a) If the pressure remains constant, the volume of a given mass of gas is inversely proportional
to its temperature.
o (b) If the temperature remains constant, the volume of a given mass of gas is inversely
proportional to its pressure.
 (c) If the pressure remains constant, the volume of a given mass of gas is directly proportional to
its temperature.
o (d) If the temperature remains constant, the volume of a given mass of gas is directly proportional
to its pressure.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

376. (2.2.20.2-5) What term is defined as the quantity of heat necessary to raise the temperature of a
unit mass of a substance one degree?

o (a) Specific volume


o (b) Specific gravity
o (c) Latent heat
 (d) Specific heat

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

377. (2.2.20.2-6) What statement represents the ideal gas law?

o (a) For a given mass of a gas, the volume is inversely proportional to its pressure and inversely
proportional to its temperature.
o (b) For a given mass of a gas, the volume is directly proportional to its pressure and directly
proportional to its temperature.
 (c) For a given mass of a gas, the volume is inversely proportional to its pressure and directly
proportional to its temperature.
o (d) For a given mass of a gas, the volume is directly proportional to its pressure and inversely
proportional to its temperature.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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378. (2.2.20.2-7) What term is defined as the amount of heat required to convert a unit mass of a
substance from a liquid to a vapor at constant temperature and pressure?

o (a) Latent heat of fusion


o (b) Specific heat of vaporization
o (c) Sensible heat of vaporization
 (d) Latent heat of vaporization

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

379. (2.2.20.2-8) What term is defined as the rate of doing work?

 (a) Power
o (b) Kinetic energy
o (c) Mechanical work
o (d) Potential energy

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

380. (2.2.20.2-9) What statement is true concerning thermal energy in transition?

o (a) Thermal energy in transition is called heat which is the result of a temperature difference. The
resulting heat flow may produce two possible outcomes. Sensible heat transfer results in a
change of state of the substance. Latent heat transfer results in a change of temperature of the
substance.
 (b) Thermal energy in transition is called heat which is the result of a temperature difference. The
resulting heat flow may produce two possible outcomes. Sensible heat transfer results in a
change of temperature of the substance. Latent heat transfer results in a change of state of the
substance.
o (c) Thermal energy in transition is called heat which is the result of differences in state. The
resulting heat flow may produce two possible outcomes. Sensible heat transfer results in a
change of temperature of the substance. Latent heat transfer results in a change of state of the
substance.
o (d) Thermal energy in transition is called heat which is the result of differences in state. The
resulting heat flow may produce two possible outcomes. Sensible heat transfer results in a
change of state of the substance. Latent heat transfer results in a change of temperature of the
substance.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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381. (2.2.20.2-10) What statement is true concerning the internal energy of a substance?

o (a) The internal potential and kinetic molecular energies of a substance is a function of the state
of matter of the substance, whereas the internal potential and kinetic molecular energies of a
substance are in no way related to the temperature of a substance.
o (b) The internal potential and kinetic molecular energies of a substance is a function of
the temperature of the substance, whereas the internal potential and kinetic molecular energies of
a substance are in no way related to the state of matter of a substance.
 (c) The internal potential molecular energy of a substance is a function of the state of matter of
the substance, whereas the internal kinetic molecular energy of a substance is a function of the
temperature of the substance.
o (d) The internal potential molecular energy of a substance is a function of the temperature of the
substance, whereas the internal kinetic molecular energy of a substance is a function of the state
of matter of the substance.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

382. (2.2.15.1-1) Which of the following propulsor types represents the proper terminology for a Kort
nozzle?

 (a) Ducted propeller


o (b) Vane wheel
o (c) Cycloidal propeller
o (d) Tandem propellers

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

383. (2.2.15.1-2) Which of the following propulsor types represents the proper terminology for a Voith-
Schneider drive?

o (a) Ducted propeller


o (b) Tandem propellers
o (c) Vane wheel
 (d) Cycloidal propeller

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

384. (2.2.15.1-3) Which of the following propulsor types represents the proper terminology for a screw
propeller of the conventional design?

 (a) Fixed pitch propeller


o (b) Cycloidal propeller
o (c) Detachable-blade (built-up) propeller
o (d) Controllable-pitch propeller

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

187 August 2014


United States Coast Guard General Subjects
National Maritime Center Assistant Engineers-DDE

385. (2.2.15.1-4) When an electricity generating plant features shaft-driven generators, what type of
propulsor is generally used for main propulsion?

o (a) Tandem propellers


o (b) Detachable-blade (built-up) propeller
 (c) Controllable-pitch propeller
o (d) Fixed-pitch propeller

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

386. (2.2.15.1-5) Which of the following propulsor types would be used with unidirectional propulsion
shafting rotation?

o (a) Fixed-pitch propeller


 (b) Controllable-pitch propeller
o (c) Tandem propellers
o (d) Detachable-blade (built-up) propeller

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

387. (2.2.15.1-6) What type of propeller consists of a flat disc set flush with the under surface of the
vessel's hull with a number of vertical, rudder like blades projecting from it?

o (a) Contra-rotating propeller


o (b) Tandem propeller
o (c) Helicoidal propeller
 (d) Cycloidal propeller

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

388. (2.2.15.1-7) Which of the following propulsor types represents the proper terminology for a Z-
drive?

 (a) Azimuthing propulsor


o (b) Jet drive
o (c) Cycloidal propeller
o (d) Azipod propulsor

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

389. (2.2.15.1-8) Which of the following propulsor types represents the proper terminology for electric
propulsion where the drive motors are outside the ship's hull?

o (a) Jet drive


o (b) Azimuthing propulsor
 (c) Azipod propulsor
o (d) Cycloidal propeller

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

188 August 2014


United States Coast Guard General Subjects
National Maritime Center Assistant Engineers-DDE

390. (2.2.15.1-9) Concerning the operating mechanism of a controllable-pitch propeller, what


statement is true?

o (a) If the hydraulic actuator is outboard, a mechanical pull-push rod is located within the propeller
shaft. If the hydraulic actuator is inboard, hydraulic oil pipes are located within the propeller shaft.
o (b) If the hydraulic actuator is inboard or outboard, the blade rotating mechanism is actuated by a
mechanical pull-push rod located within the propeller shaft.
o (c) If the hydraulic actuator is inboard or outboard, hydraulic oil pipes are located within the
propeller shaft in either case.
 (d) If the hydraulic actuator is inboard, a mechanical pull-push rod is located within the propeller
shaft. If the hydraulic actuator is outboard, hydraulic oil pipes are located within the propeller
shaft.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

391. (2.2.15.1-10) Which of the following propulsor types does not require the use of a separate rudder
for steerage?

 (a) Cycloidal propellers.


o (b) Contra-rotating propellers.
o (c) Tandem propellers.
o (d) Conventional fixed-pitch propeller.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

392. (2.2.15.2-1) If a main propulsion shafting arrangement is such that no strut or strut bearing is
required, what is an alternative name given to the propeller shaft, which is the section of shafting that
the propeller is attached to?

o (a) Line shaft


 (b) Tail shaft
o (c) Thrust shaft
o (d) Head shaft

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

393. (2.2.15.2-3) What statement is true concerning the lubrication of line shaft bearings?

o (a) Line shaft bearings are generally lubricated by wick lubrication.


o (b) Line shaft bearing are generally lubricated by force-feed lubrication.
o (c) Line shaft bearings are generally lubricated by gravity feed lubrication.
 (d) Line shaft bearings are generally lubricated by oiling rings or discs

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

189 August 2014


United States Coast Guard General Subjects
National Maritime Center Assistant Engineers-DDE

394. (2.2.15.2-5) What statement is true concerning the ability of a line shaft bearing to adapt to shaft
misalignment as the ship's hull flexes?

 (a) Some line shaft bearings may have only a bottom half bearing shell, which allows for
deflection upwards only. Other line shaft bearings may be spherically-seated self-aligning
bearings or conventional non-aligning type bearings.
o (b) All line shaft bearings have only a top half bearing shell, which allows for deflection
downwards only. As such no provision is made for allowing for deflection in other directions.
o (c) All line shaft bearings have only a bottom half bearing shell, which allows for deflection
upwards only. As such no provision is made for allowing for deflection in other directions.
o (d) Some line shaft bearings may have only a top half bearing shell, which allows for deflection
downwards only. Other line shaft bearings may be spherically-seated self-aligning bearings or
conventional non-aligning type bearings.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

395. (2.2.15.2-7) Which line shaft bearing is most likely to have both upper and lower half bearing
shells on merchant ships?

o (a) The intermediate line shaft bearing.


o (b) The forward most line shaft bearing.
o (c) All line shaft bearings have only a lower bearing shell.
 (d) The aftermost line shaft bearing.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

396. (2.2.15.2-9) Concerning the arrangements of a disk-oiled line shaft bearing, what statement is
true?

o (a) The disk is clamped to the shaft with the lowermost part immersed in oil, and the distribution
of the oil to the bearing is by the action of an oil wick.
o (b) The disk fits loosely on the shaft with the lowermost part immersed in oil, and the distribution
of the oil to the bearing is by wick action
 (c) The disk is clamped to the shaft with the lowermost part immersed in oil, and the distribution of
the oil to the bearing is by the action of an oil scraper.
o (d) The disk fits loosely on the shaft with the lowermost part immersed in oil, and the distribution
of the oil to the bearing is similar to the action of oiling rings.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

190 August 2014


United States Coast Guard General Subjects
National Maritime Center Assistant Engineers-DDE

397. (2.2.15.3-2) What statement is true with respect to the back of a propeller blade?

o (a) The back of the propeller blade is the side of the blade which faces upstream during ahead
motion and is the side of the blade known as the pressure side.
o (b) The back of the propeller blade is the side of the blade which faces downstream during ahead
motion and is the side of the blade known as the pressure side.
o (c) The back of the propeller blade is the side of the blade which faces downstream during ahead
motion and is the side of the blade known as the suction side.
 (d) The back of the propeller blade is the side of the blade which faces upstream during ahead
motion and is the side of the blade known as the suction side.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

398. (2.2.15.3-3) What is meant by the term "left-handed" propeller?

o (a) A "left-handed" propeller is a propeller located on the starboard side and which can rotate in
either direction.
o (b) A "left-handed" propeller is a propeller located on the port side and which can rotate in either
direction.
o (c) A "left-handed" propeller is a propeller which rotates in the counter-clockwise direction when
viewed from ahead.
 (d) A "left-handed" propeller is a propeller which rotates in the counter-clockwise direction when
viewed from astern.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

399. (2.2.15.3-4) What is meant by the term "right-handed" propeller?

o (a) A "right-handed" propeller is a propeller located on the port side and which can rotate in either
direction.
 (b) A "right-handed" propeller is a propeller which rotates in the clockwise direction when viewed
from astern.
o (c) A "right-handed" propeller is a propeller located on the starboard side and which can rotate in
either direction.
o (d) A "right-handed" propeller is a propeller which rotates in the clockwise direction when viewed
from ahead.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

191 August 2014


United States Coast Guard General Subjects
National Maritime Center Assistant Engineers-DDE

400. (2.2.15.4-1) Concerning transverse fixed tunnel thrusters, what statement is true?

o (a) Transverse fixed tunnel thrusters are oriented fore-to-aft, usually located at the stern of a
vessel, and used for docking, undocking, and low-speed maneuvering.
o (b) Transverse fixed tunnel thrusters are oriented athwartships, usually located at the bow of a
vessel, and used to supplement main propulsion for higher sustained speeds.
 (c) Transverse fixed tunnel thrusters are oriented athwartships, usually located at the bow of a
vessel, and used for docking, undocking, and low-speed maneuvering.
o (d) Transverse fixed tunnel thrusters are oriented fore-to-aft, usually located at the stern of a
vessel, and used to supplement main propulsion for higher sustained speeds.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

401. (2.2.15.4-2) Concerning steerable internal duct thrusters, what statement is true?

o (a) The thrust direction of the steerable internal duct thruster is determined by the direction of
rotation of the pump.
o (b) The thrust direction of the steerable internal duct thruster is determined by reversing the pitch
angle of the pump impeller.
o (c) The thrust direction of the steerable internal duct thruster is determined by the orientation of
the pump inlet guide vanes.
 (d) The thrust direction of the steerable internal duct thruster is determined by the orientation of
the water discharge vectoring ring.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

402. (2.2.15.4-3) With respect to the vectoring ring of a steerable internal duct thruster, what statement
represents the operating principle of the vectoring ring?

o (a) The vectoring ring is used to control the orientation of the inlet guide vanes to the pump inlet.
 (b) The vectoring ring is used to control the orientation of the deflector vanes of the pump
discharge.
o (c) The vectoring ring is used to control the speed and direction of rotation of the pump.
o (d) The vectoring ring is used to control the orientation of the vanes on the pump impeller.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

403. (2.2.15.4-4) What statement represents the fundamental difference between an azimuthing
thruster and a podded propulsor?

 (a) With an azimuthing thruster the prime mover is located inside the hull, and with a podded
propulsor the prime mover is located outside the hull.
o (b) With an azimuthing thruster the prime mover is located outside the hull, and with a podded
propulsor the prime mover is located inside the hull.
o (c) With an azimuthing thruster the thruster is not steerable, and with a podded propulsor the
propulsor is steerable.
o (d) With an azimuthing thruster the thruster is steerable, and with a podded propulsor the
propulsor is not steerable.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

192 August 2014


United States Coast Guard General Subjects
National Maritime Center Assistant Engineers-DDE

404. (2.2.15.4-5) With respect to a "pusher" type azimuthing thruster, what statement is true?

o
o (a) With an azimuthing angle of 0 , the azimuthing thruster's propeller is directly abaft of the gear
unit, but the gear unit is in the wake of the azimuthing thruster's propeller.
o
o (b) With an azimuthing angle of 0 , the gear unit is directly abaft of and in the wake of the
azimuthing thruster's propeller.
o
o (c) With an azimuthing angle of 0 , the gear unit is directly abaft of the azimuthing thruster's
propeller, but the azimuthing thruster's propeller is in the wake of the gear unit.
o
 (d) With an azimuthing angle of 0 , the azimuthing thruster's propeller is directly abaft of and in
the wake of the gear unit.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

405. (2.2.15.4-6) With respect to a "tractor" type azimuthing thruster, what statement is true?

o
 (a) With an azimuthing angle of 0 , the gear unit is directly abaft of and in the wake of the
azimuthing thruster's propeller.
o
o (b) With an azimuthing angle of 0 , the azimuthing thruster's propeller is directly abaft of and in
the wake of the gear unit.
o
o (c) With an azimuthing angle of 0 , the gear unit is directly abaft of the azimuthing thruster's
propeller, but the azimuthing thruster's propeller is in the wake of the gear unit.
o
o (d) With an azimuthing angle of 0 , the azimuthing thruster's propeller is directly abaft of the gear
unit, but the gear unit is in the wake of the azimuthing thruster's propeller.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

406. (2.2.15.4-7) By what means is electric current conveyed to the electric drive motor of a podded
propulsor?

o (a) Current is conveyed from the source to a set of stationary brushes, then through a single
rotating slip ring and then on to the motor windings.
o (b) Current is conveyed from the source to a set of stationary slip rings, then through a set of
rotating brushes and then on to the motor windings.
 (c) Current is conveyed from the source to a set of stationary brushes, then through a set of
rotating slip rings and then on to the motor windings.
o (d) Current is conveyed from the source to the stator of a synchronous transmitter, and by
synchro action to the rotor of a synchronous receiver.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

407. (2.2.15.4-8) What type of propulsor is typically used in electric motor driven, transverse, tunnel
bow thrusters to limit the starting current of the single speed drive motor?

o (a) Fixed-pitch propeller


o (b) Detachable-blade (built-up) propeller
o (c) Cycloidal propeller
 (d) Controllable-pitch propeller

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

193 August 2014


United States Coast Guard General Subjects
National Maritime Center Assistant Engineers-DDE

408. (2.2.15.4-9) What is the primary advantage of transverse bow and stern tunnel thrusters when
installed on ships?

o (a) They provide increased overall propulsive reverse thrust.


 (b) They provide increased maneuverability at low ship speeds.
o (c) They provide increased overall propulsive forward thrust.
o (d) They provide increased maneuverability at high ship speeds.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

409. (2.2.15.4-10) Which set of operating conditions would be most problematic in terms of the
deterioration of the insulation resistance of the drive motor of an electric motor driven transverse
tunnel bow thruster?

o (a) Frequently used thrusters where the bow thruster machinery compartment is particularly cold.
o (b) Frequently used thrusters where the bow thruster machinery compartment is particularly
warm.
 (c) Infrequently used thrusters where the bow thruster machinery compartment is particularly
cold.
o (d) Infrequently used thrusters where the bow thruster machinery compartment is particularly
warm.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

410. (2.2.15.5-1) The gears used for virtually all marine propulsion reduction gear sets are of what
type?

o (a) Single spur gears


o (b) Single helical gears
 (c) Double helical gears
o (d) Double bevel gears

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

411. (2.2.15.5-2) Of the following propulsion modes, which one would operate with a geared-drive
featuring a single reduction?

o (a) Slow speed diesel


 (b) Medium speed diesel
o (c) Steam turbine
o (d) Gas turbine

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

412. (2.2.15.5-3) What is an example of an epicyclic gear?

 (a) Planetary gear


o (b) Articulated gear
o (c) Nested gear
o (d) Locked train gear

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

194 August 2014


United States Coast Guard General Subjects
National Maritime Center Assistant Engineers-DDE

413. (2.2.15.5-4) For a parallel axis single reduction gear, what statement is true?

 (a) The drive pinion is the smaller of the two gears and rotates at a relatively high speed. The
driven gear is the larger of the two gears and rotates at a relatively low speed.
o (b) The drive pinion is the smaller of the two gears and rotates at a relatively low speed. The
driven gear is the larger of the two gears and rotates at a relatively high speed.
o (c) The drive pinion is the larger of the two gears and rotates at a relatively high speed. The
driven gear is the smaller of the two gears and rotates at a relatively low speed.
o (d) The drive pinion is the larger of the two gears and rotates at a relatively low speed. The driven
gear is the smaller of the two gears and rotates at a relatively high speed.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

414. (2.2.15.5-5) Which of the listed reduction gear sets has the input and output shafts in-line with
one another?

o (a) Parallel axis gearing


o (b) Bevel gearing
o (c) Worm gearing
 (d) Epicyclic gearing

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

415. (2.2.15.5-6) Which of the following couplings or clutches would be able to prevent the
transmission of torsional vibrations from an engine to a reduction gear?

o (a) Inflatable tire-type pneumatic clutch


 (b) Hydraulic fluid-type clutch
o (c) Multiple disk friction clutch
o (d) Solid coupling

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

416. (2.2.15.5-7) Which of the following couplings or clutches allows, within limits, a certain degree of
slip?

o (a) Inflatable tire type clutch


o (b) Flexible coupling
o (c) Multiple disk friction clutch
 (d) Electro-magnetic clutch

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

195 August 2014


United States Coast Guard General Subjects
National Maritime Center Assistant Engineers-DDE

417. (2.2.15.5-8) Concerning main propulsion reduction gears, what statement is true?

 (a) The reduction gear allows the prime mover to rotate efficiently at relatively high speed and low
torque and allows the propeller to rotate efficiently at relatively low speed and high torque.
o (b) The reduction gear allows the prime mover to rotate efficiently at relatively high speed
and high torque and allows the propeller to rotate efficiently at relatively low speed and low
torque.
o (c) The reduction gear allows the prime mover to rotate efficiently at relatively low speed and low
torque and allows the propeller to rotate efficiently at relatively high speed and high torque.
o (d) The reduction gear allows the prime mover to rotate efficiently at relatively low speed and high
torque and allows the propeller to rotate efficiently at relatively high speed and low torque.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

418. (2.2.15.5-9) What is a shipboard application for a worm gear drive?

o (a) Main propulsion reduction gear.


o (b) Turbo-generator reduction gear.
 (c) Main engine turning gear.
o (d) Auxiliary power take-off gear.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

419. (2.2.15.5-10) Of the following propulsion modes, which one would operate with a geared-drive
featuring a double reduction?

o (a) Slow speed diesel


o (b) Medium speed diesel
o (c) High speed diesel
 (d) Gas turbine

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

420. (2.2.16.3.4-3) The basic function of the centrifugal pump impeller is to __________.

o (a) separate air from the liquid being pumped


o (b) convert the potential energy of the liquid to kinetic energy
 (c) directly increase the velocity of the liquid being pumped
o (d) directly increase the pressure of the liquid being pumped

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

196 August 2014


United States Coast Guard General Subjects
National Maritime Center Assistant Engineers-DDE

421. (2.2.16.3.4-2) The primary function of a centrifugal pump volute is to __________.

o (a) develop a high velocity liquid


o (b) limit hydraulic end thrust
o (c) initiate flow
 (d) convert velocity to pressure

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

422. (2.2.16.3.4-4) Which of the following statements is true concerning centrifugal pumps?

o (a) They are always mounted in a horizontal position.


o (b) They are started with the discharge valve opened.
 (c) The flow of liquid is developed by imparting energy due to the rotation of an impeller.
o (d) They are particularly suited for pumping high viscosity fluids.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

423. (2.2.16.3.4-1) Which of the following statements is true concerning centrifugal pumps?

 (a) A flow is developed by imparting kinetic energy to the fluid by the rotation of an impeller.
o (b) They operate best under negative suction pressure conditions.
o (c) They are particularly well suited for pumping high viscosity fluids.
o (d) They operate more efficiently when mounted in a horizontal position.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

424. (2.2.16.4.1-8) Which of the listed types of seals is used effectively for pumps handling toxic or
highly flammable liquids that cannot be permitted to escape into the atmosphere?

o (a) Rubber bellows mechanical seal


 (b) Double mechanical seal
o (c) External mechanical seal
o (d) Conventional stuffing box

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

425. (2.2.16.4.1-3) Which of the listed parts is used in a lobe-type rotary pump to allow for wear on the
lobe edges?

 (a) Replaceable gib inserts


o (b) Casing gear thrust bearings
o (c) Spur gear adjusters
o (d) Replaceable liner plates

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

197 August 2014


United States Coast Guard General Subjects
National Maritime Center Assistant Engineers-DDE

426. (2.2.16.4.1-9) One disadvantage of using a mechanical shaft seal instead of mechanical packing
is that __________.

 (a) seal failure usually requires the immediate removal of the pump from service
o (b) it is unsuitable for high pressure applications
o (c) it requires periodic disassembly and adjustment
o (d) it is unsuitable for high temperature applications

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

427. (2.2.16.4.1-10) Which of the devices listed is used to maintain a snug interface between the
rotating and stationary seal members shown in the illustration? GS-0071

 (a) spring
o (b) notch and keyway
o (c) seal retaining ring
o (d) bellows

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

428. (2.2.16.4.1-1) The function of the section labeled "C" in the device illustrated is to provide a/an
__________. GS-0075

o (a) passage for sealing liquid to enter the pump


o (b) bearing surface for the rotor shaft
o (c) area for pump packing
 (d) passage for gas to be discharged

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

429. (2.2.16.4.1-4) What type of pump is shown in the illustration? GS-0144

o (a) Deep well centrifugal pump


o (b) Simplex reciprocating pump
 (c) Triple screw rotary pump
o (d) Double screw rotary pump

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

430. (2.2.16.4.1-7) Spring reinforced oil seals are generally installed with the tail or lip of the seal
facing __________. GS-0152

o (a) away from the bearing housing recess


o (b) toward the bearing preload washer
o (c) away from the oil pressure being sealed
 (d) toward the oil pressure being sealed

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

198 August 2014


United States Coast Guard General Subjects
National Maritime Center Assistant Engineers-DDE

431. (2.2.16.4.1-5) The output volume of a positive fixed displacement pump can be changed only by
__________.

o (a) moving the slide block and rotor


o (b) changing the angle of the tilting plate
o (c) moving the shaft trunnion block
 (d) changing the speed of the pump

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

432. (2.2.16.3.3-5) Why should the use of metallic or semi-metallic packing hooks or pullers be
avoided on bronze or brass shafts, rods, plungers, or sleeves?

 (a) Scoring may result.


o (b) Valve seat will be damaged.
o (c) Heat transfer is restricted.
o (d) Bonnet corrosion may result.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

433. (2.2.16.3.3-4) What should be done if localized scoring is discovered on a pump shaft sleeve
during routine maintenance inspection?

o (a) Reassemble the pump and set the governor to obtain a slower speed.
o (b) Reassemble the pump and provide more water leak off for lubrication.
o (c) Check for parallel alignment of the sleeve radial face to the sleeve bore.
 (d) Correct the cause of scoring and install a new shaft sleeve.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

434. (2.2.16.3.3-1) When repacking a stuffing box fitted with a lantern ring, which of the following
precautions should be observed?

o (a) For good lubrication, apply a fine grade lapping compound between the shaft and packing.
 (b) Replace all of the packing rings.
o (c) Block off the sealing water connection.
o (d) Be certain that all packing is fitted loosely to the shaft.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

435. (2.2.16.3.3-8) When installing a mechanical shaft seal on a pump, it is important to ______.

 (a) ensure that correct spring pressure is applied to the seating faces
o (b) polish the seating faces with emery cloth prior to assembly
o (c) run the pump "dry" for initial break-in of the shaft seal
o (d) make the final spring collar adjustments with the pump running

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

199 August 2014


United States Coast Guard General Subjects
National Maritime Center Assistant Engineers-DDE

436. (2.2.16.3.3-2) A centrifugal pump gradually develops insufficient discharge pressure. What
corrective action is required?

o (a) Throttle in on the suction valve.


o (b) Replace the lantern rings.
 (c) Replace the wearing rings.
o (d) Throttle in on the discharge valve.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

437. (2.2.16.3.3-7) A pump shaft that is bent or distorted should normally be __________.

 (a) replaced with a satisfactory spare


o (b) straightened by applying heat and torsion
o (c) repaired by a suitable welding process
o (d) reconditioned by metalizing and machining

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

438. (2.2.16.3.3-3) When renewing spiral packing in a centrifugal pump stuffing box, after the packing
is firmly seated, the packing gland nuts should be __________.

 (a) loosened, and then retightened with the pump running under normal conditions
o (b) loosened until the gland clears the stuffing box
o (c) left in that position
o (d) tightened an additional 10% to compress the packing

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

439. (2.2.16.4.4-2) The capacity of a gear type rotary pump, when operated at a constant speed, will
decrease with an increase in the pump __________.

o (a) discharge volume


o (b) suction pressure
o (c) torque rating
 (d) rotor clearances

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

440. (2.2.16.4.4-4) Why is the discharge pressure of a herringbone gear pump steadier than the
discharge pressure of a simple spur gear pump?

 (a) One discharge phase begins before the previous discharge phase has been completed.
o (b) The gear teeth are smaller than those of the simple spur gear pump.
o (c) The herringbone gear pump has four spur gears instead of two.
o (d) Clearance between the gear teeth and casing is smaller.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

200 August 2014


United States Coast Guard General Subjects
National Maritime Center Assistant Engineers-DDE

441. (2.2.16.4.4-3) How does the viscosity of a fluid being pumped affect the operation of a spur gear
pump?

o (a) The pump can only be used for light oils.


 (b) The viscosity of the fluid is relatively unimportant in the pump operation.
o (c) The pump cannot handle fluids more viscous than lubricating oil.
o (d) The pump can only be used for fluids of high viscosity.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

442. (2.2.16.4.4-1) Positive displacement, helical gear pumps are well suited for pumping oil because
__________.

o (a) it is not necessary to closely maintain design clearances with this pump
o (b) these pumps are designed with extreme tooth angles
o (c) stuffing boxes eliminate the leakage problems usually associated with other gear pumps
 (d) they are essentially self-priming and capable of a high suction lift

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

443. (2.2.16.1-1) The pressure of a liquid leaving the pump can be referred to as the __________.

o (a) suction head


o (b) net positive suction head
 (c) discharge head
o (d) total head

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

444. (2.2.16.1-2) If the existing vapor pressure is subtracted from the indicated pressure at the pump
suction, the remainder is the __________.

 (a) apparent net positive suction head


o (b) pump head
o (c) discharge head
o (d) total suction head

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

445. (2.2.16.1-4) A pump is defined as a device that __________.

 (a) imparts energy to a fluid to move it from point "A" to point "B"
o (b) creates a vacuum to move a liquid in all installations
o (c) produces pressure
o (d) is to develop a pressure differential

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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446. (2.2.16.1-3) Which of the following terms is used to identify the pressure of a liquid entering a
centrifugal pump?

o (a) Discharge head


 (b) Suction head
o (c) Pump head
o (d) Total head

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

447. (2.2.16.3.1-4) Water leaking from a pump packing gland is kept away from the bearing housing by
the use of __________.

o (a) shaft sleeves


o (b) water seals
 (c) water flingers
o (d) lantern rings

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

448. (2.2.16.3.1-8) A recirculating, or bleed off line is installed on a centrifugal pump in order to
__________.

o (a) equalize pressure on both sides of the suction valve disc


o (b) establish a back pressure at the labyrinth seal to eliminate leakage
 (c) prevent the pump from overheating when operating at shutoff head
o (d) decrease the net positive suction head

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

449. (2.2.16.3.1-7) Permanent centrifugal pump shaft damage due to erosion, corrosion, and wear at
the stuffing box is usually prevented by __________.

o (a) a hardened sprayed metal coating


o (b) internally flooded lantern rings
 (c) renewable sleeves
o (d) wearing rings

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

450. (2.2.16.3.1-9) Which of the following statements represents the main difference between a
stuffing box gland and a mechanical seal for sealing the shaft of a centrifugal pump?

o (a) Packed stuffing box glands are subject to wear, but mechanical seals are not.
o (b) Packed stuffing box glands must be cooled by the liquid being pumped, but mechanical seals
do not require cooling.
 (c) If packing fails, the pump can be kept running temporarily by tightening the gland, but if a
mechanical seal fails it must be totally renewed to stop the leakage.
o (d) The sealing surface of a mechanical seal is parallel to the shaft, but the sealing surface of a
packed gland is perpendicular to the shaft.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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451. (2.2.16.3.1-3) The shaft sleeve for the pump illustrated is identified by the item numbered as
__________. GS-0143

o (a) 68
o (b) 27
 (c) 14
o (d) 17

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

452. (2.2.16.3.1-10) Which of the materials listed is used as the dynamic seal material on mechanical
seals installed on most centrifugal pumps used in water service?

o (a) Bronze.
 (b) Carbon.
o (c) Copper and carbon.
o (d) Copper.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

453. (2.2.16.3.1-1) Item "B" in the pump illustration is the __________. GS-0129

o (a) wearing ring


o (b) stuffing box
o (c) shaft sleeve
 (d) packing gland

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

454. (2.2.16.3.1-5) Why are removable sleeves installed on centrifugal pump shafts?

o (a) They can be removed when it is necessary to lighten the weight of the pump.
 (b) They can be economically replaced as they wear out.
o (c) They increase the strength of the shaft.
o (d) They make it easier to replace the pump shaft packing.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

455. (2.2.16.3.1-6) The function of seal cages, or lantern rings installed in the centrifugal pump stuffing
boxes, is to __________.

o (a) cool the shaft


o (b) lubricate the packing
 (c) distribute the sealing liquid within the stuffing box
o (d) seal air from entering along the shaft

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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456. (2.2.16.6-2) Which type of pump would normally be used to transfer fairly large quantities of fluids
at relatively low pressures?

o (a) reciprocating type


o (b) screw type
o (c) gear type
 (d) propeller type

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

457. (2.2.16.6-1) Which of the pumping systems listed for use aboard ship will most likely use a
propeller type pump?

o (a) Steering gear system


 (b) Main circulating system
o (c) Fuel oil service booster system
o (d) Fluid power transmission system

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

458. (2.2.16.6-2) One of the main differences between a propeller pump and a centrifugal pump is the
absence of a __________.

o (a) velocity nozzle in the centrifugal type pump


o (b) volute in the centrifugal type pump
 (c) volute in the propeller type pump
o (d) reciprocating piston in the centrifugal type pump

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

459. (2.2.16.5.4-2) The suction-force principle of operation is a typical characteristic of __________.

 (a) reciprocating pumps


o (b) jet pumps
o (c) centrifugal pumps
o (d) propeller pumps

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

460. (2.2.16.5.4-1) If you have a duplex, single acting, reciprocating pump making 140 strokes/minute
with a 3" diameter cylinder, and a 12" stroke with a 94% volumetric efficiency, what is the capacity of
this pump?

o (a) 58 gpm
 (b) 48 gpm
o (c) 38 gpm
o (d) 28 gpm

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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461. (2.2.16.5.3-2) To safely remove the piston rod packing from the steam end of a reciprocating
pump, you should __________.

 (a) use a packing hook


o (b) do nothing, as this type of pump utilizes O-rings in lieu of packing
o (c) open the throttle valve and 'blow' the old packing out
o (d) open the steam chest and pry the packing loose with a scraper

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

462. (2.2.16.5.3-4) Which of the lubricants listed is the best to use on a reciprocating pump rod?

o (a) Oil mixed with kerosene.


 (b) Graphite and oil.
o (c) Engine oil.
o (d) Vegetable oil.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

463. (2.2.16.5.3-5) The first step when resetting the slide valves on a duplex reciprocating pump is to
__________.

o (a) position the steam pistons on 3/4 stroke


o (b) measure the present port openings to ensure reassembly will be the same
o (c) ensure the balance piston is on the down stroke
 (d) place the steam pistons in the mid stroke position

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

464. (2.2.16.5.3-1) When repacking a reciprocating pump with more than four rings of packing, the
packing is cut square, installed with the ends abutted, and each succeeding ring staggered with the
butted ends __________.

o (a) 45° apart


 (b) 90° apart
o (c) 120° apart
o (d) 180° apart

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

465. (2.2.16.5.3-3) Which of the listed types of steam end piston rod packing should be used in a
steam reciprocating pump?

 (a) High pressure graphite packing


o (b) Wire impregnated high temperature packing
o (c) Low pressure braided asbestos packing
o (d) Reinforced rubber packing

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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466. (2.2.16.4.2-1) A spur gear pump should be operated with the discharge valves __________.

o (a) slightly opened


o (b) halfway opened
o (c) throttled
 (d) fully opened

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

467. (2.2.16.5.2-4) Excessive lost motion in the valve mechanism of a duplex reciprocating pump will
cause the __________.

o (a) cushioning valves to wear


 (b) pump to operate sluggishly
o (c) pump to short stroke continuously at both ends of the stroke for both cylinders
o (d) pistons to stop in mid-stroke

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

468. (2.2.16.5.2-2) When the danger of freezing exists, all steam driven reciprocating pumps and deck
equipment should be __________.

o (a) watched carefully while idled


 (b) cycled at least once a day
o (c) cycled once every 4 days
o (d) cycled once every week

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

469. (2.2.16.5.2-5) An inadequate reciprocating bilge pump discharge is most often caused by
__________.

o (a) scarred cylinder walls


 (b) clogged suction strainers
o (c) clogged drain valves
o (d) defective intake valves

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

470. (2.2.16.5.2-8) Which of the following conditions would prevent a steam reciprocating pump from
delivering its rated capacity?

o (a) Air trapped in the discharge expansion chamber


o (b) A leaking snifter valve allowing air to enter the suction side of the pump
 (c) Excessive suction lift
o (d) All of the above

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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471. (2.2.16.5.2-6) A pounding noise occurring in one cylinder of a steam reciprocating general service
pump could be caused by __________.

o (a) lower than normal supply steam temperature


o (b) loss of air charge in the pump discharge plenum chamber
 (c) improper adjustment of steam cushion valves
o (d) lower than normal supply steam pressure

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

472. (2.2.16.5.2-7) When piston rod packing persists in leaking on a reciprocating steam pump, the
cause may be __________.

o (a) a loose tappet collar


o (b) an open snifter valve
o (c) clogged suction strainers
 (d) misalignment of the crosshead guide

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

473. (2.2.16.5.2-1) When securing a steam reciprocating pump, which of the valves listed should
remain open?

o (a) Water cylinder drain valve


 (b) Steam cylinder drain valve
o (c) Steam exhaust valve
o (d) Steam supply valve

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

474. (2.2.16.3.2-7) You suspect a problem with the centrifugal fire pump on your ship, and begin to
slowly close the discharge valve. Your suspicion is confirmed when the __________.

o (a) suction valve is closed off, and the discharge pressure begins to decrease
o (b) discharge valve is 80% closed and the relief valve lifts
o (c) suction valve is closed off, yet the relief valve does not lift
 (d) discharge valve is closed off and there is no change in the discharge pressure

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

475. (2.2.16.3.2-2) A centrifugal bilge pump requires priming __________.

o (a) primarily to lubricate the shaft seals


 (b) due to the inability of this type of pump to lift water to cover the suction (eye) of the impeller
o (c) in order to overcome the potential energy of water in the discharge line
o (d) to initially unload the pump by having its head pressure equal to discharge pressure

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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476. (2.2.16.3.2-1) The simplest method to use for determining if a centrifugal pump is operating as
designed, is to __________.

o (a) use a clamp on ammeter and compare the readings to past records
 (b) close off the discharge valve, and watch for a rise in pressure
o (c) closely observe the pump discharge temperature
o (d) momentarily close off the suction valve, and watch for a rise in pressure

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

477. (2.2.16.3.2-4) Excessive air leakage into the suction side of a centrifugal pump would be
indicated by which of the following operational problems?

o (a) The motor over current protective device continually shuts the pump down.
o (b) The pump packing gland overheats after short operating periods.
 (c) The pump delivers full capacity when started, but gradually slackens off to an abnormally low
flow.
o (d) Pounding noises can be heard at the pump suction chest.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

478. (2.2.16.3.2-8) A centrifugal pump may fail to deliver water when first started if the __________.

o (a) seal ring is improperly located


o (b) water seal pipe is plugged
o (c) impeller is flooded
 (d) pump is not primed

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

479. (2.2.16.3.2-9) Charring or glazing of the inner circumference of the packing rings in a centrifugal
pump, is caused by __________.

o (a) failure to seat the packing rings


o (b) packing ring rotation
o (c) under tightening the packing
 (d) insufficient lubrication of the packing

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

480. (2.2.16.3.2-3) If a centrifugal pump were continually operated with the discharge valve closed, the
__________.

o (a) motor controller overload would open


 (b) pump would eventually overheat
o (c) relief valve would continuously cycle open
o (d) motor would overheat

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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481. (2.2.16.3.3-5) Pitting in the suction areas of a centrifugal pump bronze impeller is usually caused
by __________.

 (a) cavitation
o (b) abrasion
o (c) corrosion
o (d) electrolysis

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

482. (2.2.16.5.1-5) The total length of stroke in a reciprocating steam pump can be adjusted by
__________.

 (a) changing the setting of the tappet collars on the pilot valve operating rod
o (b) variations in the throttle adjustment
o (c) twisting the stay rod in a clockwise direction
o (d) increasing or decreasing the number of packing rings around the piston rod

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

483. (2.2.16.5.1-4) Which of the listed reciprocating pump parts control the position of the pilot slide
valve?

o (a) Adjusting of the tappet collars


 (b) Movement of the main piston through the steam cylinder
o (c) Moving tappets
o (d) Stay rods

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

484. (2.2.16.5.1-3) Which of the listed devices is used to control the admission of steam to the steam
cylinder of a reciprocating pump?

o (a) Pump rod


o (b) Valve operating differential
o (c) Crosshead arm
 (d) Pilot valve and operating rod

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

485. (2.2.16.5.1-1) Which of the following is NOT an identifiable characteristic of a steam reciprocating
pump?

o (a) Vertical
o (b) Direct-acting
o (c) High-pressure
 (d) Diffuser

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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486. (2.2.16.5.1-2) Which of the following valve arrangements permits the reciprocating pump liquid
piston to take suction from the suction chamber, and simultaneously discharge through the
discharge chamber during the up and down strokes?

o (a) Two sets of suction and discharge valves in the liquid cylinder.
o (b) One set of valves in the water chest and another set in the liquid cylinder.
o (c) Two relief valves, one on each of the liquid cylinder.
 (d) Two sets of valves, one set each for suction and discharge located in the water chest.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

487. (2.2.16.7-1) The three basic parts of any eductor are the nozzle, the suction chamber, and the
__________.

o (a) injector
 (b) diffuser
o (c) compressor
o (d) siphon

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

488. (2.2.16.7-2) A distinguishing feature of an eductor, when compared to other pumps, is the
__________.

o (a) discharge end being smaller than the suction end


o (b) ease at which the wearing rings may be changed
o (c) small size of impeller
 (d) lack of moving parts

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

489. (2.2.16.7-3) Which of the following methods applies to how a vacuum is created by a jet pump or
an eductor?

o (a) A propeller drawing a fluid through a Venturi nozzle.


o (b) A reciprocating plunger directly applying force to a fluid.
 (c) A rapidly moving stream of fluid passing through a nozzle.
o (d) Centrifugal force converted into potential energy.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

490. (2.2.18-12) According to the illustration, which of the following conditions would most likely cause
pump "A" to short cycle? GS-0173

 (a) The hydro-pneumatic expansion tank is operating with an insufficient air charge.
o (b) The hydro-pneumatic tank is operating with a low water level.
o (c) A low water level exists in the potable water storage tank.
o (d) Pump "A" wearing rings have excessive clearance.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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National Maritime Center Assistant Engineers-DDE

491. (2.2.18-6) The flame screens installed on sewage system tank vents prevent explosions by
__________.

o (a) allowing the escape of flammable vapors


 (b) dissipating the heat of a flame
o (c) absorbing any flammable vapors in the vicinity
o (d) preventing flammable vapors from entering the tank

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

492. (2.2.18-8) If water continues to flow excessively from the device shown in the illustration, the
problem is most likely due to __________. GS-0155

o (a) "E" being stuck or held in a position other than indicated in the illustration
o (b) a hole being formed in the outboard edge of "C"
 (c) item "H" being fouled or plugged
o (d) a hole developing in "B"

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

493. (2.2.18-10) Which type of Marine Sanitation Device (MSD) is used solely for the storage of
sewage and flush water at ambient air pressure and temperature?

o (a) Type I
o (b) Type II
 (c) Type III
o (d) Type IV

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

494. (2.2.18-11) A constant pressure range is maintained in the potable water system of many vessels
by using __________.

o (a) constant speed supply pumps


o (b) variable speed supply pumps
 (c) an air cushion in the hydro-pneumatic tank
o (d) a pressure regulator in the pressure tank discharge piping

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

495. (2.2.18-7) If water continues to trickle into the toilet bowl after the device shown in the illustration
has apparently closed, the problem is likely due to __________. GS-0155

o (a) "E" being stuck or held in a position other horizontal


o (b) a problem with "H" that allows continuous low flow across the device
o (c) "A" being cocked into a fully open position
 (d) "C" having developed a warp or ripple at the seating surface

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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496. (2.2.18-9) A vessel is in compliance with federal regulations regarding the discharge of sewage
by __________.

o (a) holding all sewage onboard


o (b) treating sewage in an approved system
o (c) pumping the sewage ashore to an approved container
 (d) all of the above

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

497. (2.2.21.1-1) Expansion tanks when used in a ship's low temperature hot water heating system
may be of the open or closed type. In a closed type system, what would be the normal temperature
range of the water?

o (a) 180°F to 200°F


 (b) 220°F to 240°F
o (c) 260°F to 280°F
o (d) 320°F to 360°F

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

498. (2.2.21.1-2) Expansion tanks when used in a ship's low temperature hot water heating system
may be of the open or closed type. Referring to the illustrated central-station hookup for a hot-water
heating system drawing, what would be the normal temperature range of the water? Illustration GS-
0151

o o
 (a) 180 F to 200 F
o o
o (b) 220 F to 240 F
o o
o (c) 260 F to 280 F
o o
o (d) 320 F to 360 F

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

499. (2.2.21.1-3) Referring to the illustrated diagram for a central-station hookup for a hot-water
heating system, what statement represents the configuration of the system? (GS-0151)

o (a) The system is a single zone system, with multiple circulating pumps and multiple heating coils
o (b) The system is a multi-zone system, with multiple circulating pumps and multiple heating coils.
o (c) The system is a single zone system, with one circulating pump and one heating coil.
 (d) The system is a multi-zone system, with one circulating pump and one heating coil.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

500. (2.2.21.1-4) What type of pump is invariably used as a circulator in a hydronic heating system?

o (a) Diaphragm pump


o (b) Reciprocating pump
 (c) Centrifugal pump
o (d) Rotary pump

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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501. (2.2.21.1-5) Referring to the illustrated drawing of the central-station hookup for a hot-water
heating system, what statement is true concerning the air separator on the heated water outlet of the
converter? (GS-0151)

o (a) The air separator removes the entrained air introduced within the converter and ultimately
released by the expansion tank vent.
o (b) The air separator removes the entrained air introduced by the heating steam and ultimately
released by the condensate returns gravity draining to the atmospheric drains tank.
 (c) The air separator removes the entrained air introduced with the makeup water at the
expansion tank and ultimately released by the heating process within the converter.
o (d) The air separator removes the entrained air introduced by the heated air via the zone return
lines and ultimately released by the heating process within the converter.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

502. (2.2.21.1-6) What statement is true concerning a one-pipe hydronic heating system?

o (a) Each heating coil inlet temperature is different, as the hot water inlet temperature to each
heating coil progressively rises as the water passes through each successive series-connected
coil.
o (b) Each heating coil inlet temperature is identical, as the hot water inlet temperature to each
heating coil progressively rises as the water passes through each successive series-connected
coil.
o (c) Each heating coil inlet temperature is identical, as the hot water inlet temperature to each
heating coil progressively drops as the water passes through each successive series-connected
coil.
 (d) Each heating coil inlet temperature is different, as the hot water inlet temperature to each
heating coil progressively drops as the water passes through each successive series-connected
coil.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

503. (2.2.21.1-7) What statement is true concerning a two-pipe hydronic heating system?

o (a) Each heating coil inlet temperature is identical, as each series-connected heating coil has its
own separate supply teeing off a supply main.
 (b) Each heating coil inlet temperature is identical, as each parallel-connected heating coil has its
own separate supply teeing off a supply main.
o (c) Each heating coil inlet temperature is different, as each series-connected heating coil has its
own separate supply teeing off a supply main.
o (d) Each heating coil inlet temperature is different, as each parallel-connected heating coil has its
own separate supply teeing off a supply main.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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504. (2.2.21.1-8) It is absolutely essential that hydronic heating system hot water piping be kept free of
air. Assuming that a system is initially properly filled with water, what is the primary source of air
contamination?

o (a) The introduction of air with the convector steam supply.


 (b) The introduction of air via the makeup water.
o (c) The introduction of air via the expansion tank vent.
o (d) The introduction of air via the atmospheric drains tank vent.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

505. (2.2.21.1-9) What advantage does a 4-pipe hydronic heating/cooling heating system have over a
2-pipe hydronic heating/cooling system?

o (a) A 4-pipe hydronic heating/cooling system can serve twice as many zones as a 2-pipe hydronic
heating/cooling system.
o (b) A 4-pipe hydronic heating/cooling system requires double the amount of piping as compared
to a 2-pipe hydronic heating/cooling system serving the same number of zones.
 (c) A 4-pipe hydronic heating/cooling system allows simultaneous heating and cooling of different
zones, whereas a 2-pipe hydronic heating/cooling system does not.
o (d) A 4-pipe hydronic heating/cooling system requires one-half the amount of piping as compared
to a 2-pipe hydronic heating/cooling system serving the same number of zones.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

506. (2.2.21.2-2) Water hammer in a steam heating system can be caused by __________.

o (a) filling the auxiliary boiler with cold water


 (b) steam admitted to a cold pipe
o (c) filling the auxiliary boiler with hot water
o (d) draining a soot blower line before cracking the steam supply valve

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

507. (2.2.21.2-1) Which of the following guidelines is considered to reflect good design practices for
shipboard steam heating systems?

 (a) Provide a dirt pocket and strainer ahead of the steam trap on a unit heater return.
o (b) Provide all units with a dirt trap and gate valve in the supply and a check valve on the return.
o (c) Wherever possible install vertical runs for condensate piping.
o (d) Provide orifice-type bypasses for all traps and automatic valves.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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508. (2.2.21.2-3) What type of fan is most commonly used in ducted air-conditioning systems?

o (a) Propeller fan


 (b) Centrifugal fan
o (c) Vane-axial fan
o (d) Tube-axial fan

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

509. (2.2.21.2-4) What type of centrifugal fan is characterized by the highest operating efficiency?

o (a) Forward-curved blade fans


 (b) Backward-curved blade fans
o (c) Flat blade fans
o (d) Radial blade fans

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

510. (2.2.21.2-5) What pressure drop across an air-conditioning filter is indicative of a need to replace
or clean the filter as appropriate?

o (a) 0.1 inches of water column


 (b) 0.5 inches of water column
o (c) 1.0 inches of water column
o (d) 5.0 inches of water column

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

511. (2.2.21.2-6) Concerning air-conditioning system steam heating coils, what statement is true?

o (a) Steam heating coils are usually the serpentine type and, if possible, vertically installed.
o (b) Steam heating coils are usually the header type and, if possible, horizontally installed.
o (c) Steam heating coils are usually the serpentine type and, if possible, horizontally installed.
 (d) Steam heating coils are usually the header type and, if possible, vertically installed.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

512. (2.2.21.2-7) Concerning air-conditioning system hot-water heating coils, what statement is true?

o (a) Steam heating coils are usually the header type and vertically installed.
o (b) Steam heating coils are usually the header type and horizontally installed.
 (c) Steam heating coils are usually the serpentine type and horizontally installed.
o (d) Steam heating coils are usually the serpentine type and vertically installed.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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513. (2.2.21.2-8) What type of heating coil is generally preferred in heating spaces with electronic
equipment?

o (a) Hot-water heating coil


o (b) Steam heating coil
 (c) Electric-resistance heating coil
o (d) Thermal-oil heating coil

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

514. (2.2.21.2-9) What statement is true concerning steam-heated, hot-water heated, or electric-
heated convectors?

o (a) Convectors draw in relatively cool air through an opening at the top and discharge relatively
warm air through an outlet grille at the bottom and are located on bulkheads near the deck.
o (b) Convectors draw in relatively cool air through an opening at the top and discharge relatively
warm air through an outlet grille at the bottom and are located on bulkheads near the overhead.
 (c) Convectors draw in relatively cool air through an opening at the bottom and discharge
relatively warm air through an outlet grille at the top and are located on bulkheads near the deck.
o (d) Convectors draw in relatively cool air through an opening at the bottom and discharge
relatively warm air through an outlet grille at the top and are located on bulkheads near the
overhead.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

515. (2.2.21.2-10) Concerning air-conditioning system dry-expansion cooling coils, what statement is
true?

 (a) Dry expansion cooling coils are usually the finned-coil type and horizontally installed.
o (b) Dry expansion cooling coils are usually the finned-coil type and vertically installed.
o (c) Dry expansion cooling coils are usually the bare-coil type and horizontally installed.
o (d) Dry expansion cooling coils are usually the bare-coil type and vertically installed.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

516. (2.2.21.3-1) Concerning cargo-hold dehumidification, what statement is true?

 (a) Cargo hold moisture content is reduced by supplying relatively dry air from the outside and
exhausting relatively humid air to the outside.
o (b) Cargo hold moisture content is reduced by supplying relatively humid air from the outside and
exhausting relatively dry air to the outside.
o (c) Cargo hold moisture content is increased by supplying relatively dry air from the outside and
exhausting relatively humid air to the outside.
o (d) Cargo hold moisture content is increased by supplying relatively humid air from the outside
and exhausting relatively dry air to the outside.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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517. (2.2.21.3-2) Which statement is true concerning a liquid desiccant cargo-hold dehumidification
system?

o (a) Water from the humid air inlet from the cargo hold is evaporated and driven out of the liquid
desiccant by means of a heating coil located in the humidification chamber.
o (b) Water from the humid air inlet from the cargo hold is evaporated and driven out of the liquid
desiccant by means of a cooling coil located in the humidification chamber.
 (c) Water vapor from the humid air inlet from the cargo hold is condensed and absorbed into the
liquid desiccant by means of a cooling coil located in the humidification chamber.
o (d) Water vapor from the humid air inlet from the cargo hold is condensed and absorbed into the
liquid desiccant by means of a heating coil located in the humidification chamber.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

518. (2.2.21.3-3) What statement is true concerning a liquid desiccant cargo-hold dehumidification
system?

 (a) Water absorbed in the liquid desiccant is evaporated and driven out of the desiccant by
means of a heating coil located in the regeneration chamber.
o (b) Water absorbed in the liquid desiccant is condensed and absorbed into the desiccant by
means of a cooling coil located in the regeneration chamber.
o (c) Water absorbed in the liquid desiccant is condensed and absorbed in to the desiccant by
means of a heating coil located in the regeneration chamber.
o (d) Water absorbed in the liquid desiccant is evaporated and driven out of the desiccant by
means of a cooling coil located in the regeneration chamber.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

519. (2.2.21.3-4) With regard to the cooling and heating coils and humidification and regeneration
chambers of a liquid cargo-hold dehumidification system, which statement is true?

 (a) The chamber that processes the cargo-hold air contains the cooling coil and is known as the
humidification chamber. The chamber that processes the outside air contains the heating coil and
is known as the regeneration chamber.
o (b) The chamber that processes the outside air contains the cooling coil and is known as the
humidification chamber. The chamber that processes the cargo-hold air contains the heating coil
and is known as the regeneration chamber.
o (c) The chamber that processes the cargo-hold air contains the heating coil and is known as the
humidification chamber. The chamber that processes the outside air contains the cooling coil and
is known as the regeneration chamber.
o (d) The chamber that processes the cargo-hold air contains the cooling coil and is known as
the regeneration chamber. The chamber that processes the outside air contains the heating coil
and is known as the humidification chamber.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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520. (2.2.21.3-5) To prevent damage to dry cargoes, the cargo hold ventilation and dehumidification
systems play a key role. In terms of the maintained dew point, what statement is true?

o
o (a) The dew point temperature of the cargo hold is normally maintained 10 F above the surface
temperature of the cargo or ship structure.
o (b) The dew point temperature of the cargo hold is normally maintained at a constant temperature
regardless of the surface temperature of the cargo or ship structure.
o
 (c) The dew point temperature of the cargo hold is normally maintained 10 F below the surface
temperature of the cargo or ship structure.
o (d) The dew point temperature of the cargo hold is normally maintained at the surface
temperature of the cargo or ship structure.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

521. (2.2.21.3-6) To determine the average cargo hold dew point temperature, at what location would
the dew point be measured?

o (a) The dew point is taken near the bottom of the cargo hold.
 (b) The dew point is taken at the ventilation exhaust trunk.
o (c) The dew point is taken at the ventilation supply trunk.
o (d) The dew point is taken near a central location of the cargo hold.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

522. (2.2.21.3-7) What common feature is found on both liquid-desiccant and solid-desiccant cargo-
hold dehumidification systems?

o (a) Both systems require a continuous source of cooling water to absorb moisture into the
desiccant.
o (b) Both systems require a continuous source of heat to absorb moisture into the desiccant.
 (c) Both systems require a continuous source of heat to drive the moisture out of the desiccant.
o (d) Both systems require a continuous source of cooling water to drive the moisture out of the
desiccant.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

523. (2.2.21.4-1) What type of HVAC system is ideally designed to serve a large public space?

 (a) A single zone system


o (b) A terminal reheat system
o (c) A dual duct system
o (d) A variable air volume system

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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524. (2.2.21.4-2) What type of HVAC system is characterized by poor air distribution and ventilation
and low system heat loads?

 (a) A variable air volume system


o (b) A single zone system
o (c) A dual duct system
o (d) A terminal reheat system

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

525. (2.2.21.4-3) Referring to illustrated diagram, what type of HVAC system is shown? (GS-RA-09)

o (a) A dual duct system


o (b) A terminal reheat system
o (c) A variable air volume system
 (d) A single zone system

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

526. (2.2.21.4-4) Referring to illustrated diagram, what type of HVAC system is shown? (GS-RA-42)

o (a) A single zone system


 (b) A terminal reheat system
o (c) A dual duct system
o (d) A variable air volume system

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

527. (2.2.21.4-5) Referring to illustrated diagram, what type of HVAC system is shown? (GS-RA-43)

 (a) A dual duct system


o (b) A variable air volume system
o (c) A single zone system
o (d) A terminal reheat system

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

528. (2.2.21.4-6) What type of HVAC system is characterized by a having a split supply air stream,
with one for cold air and the other for hot air?

 (a) A dual duct system


o (b) A single zone system
o (c) A terminal reheat system
o (d) A variable air volume system

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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529. (2.2.21.4-7) What type of HVAC system is characterized by having control dampers in locations
other than the outside air supply, outside air exhaust, and recirculation damper applications?

o (a) A terminal reheat system


o (b) A single zone system
o (c) A dual duct system
 (d) A variable air volume system

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

530. (2.2.21.5-1) In the illustrated single zone HVAC system, what prevents the simultaneous flow of
steam through the preheat coil and flow of chilled water through the cooling coil? (GS-RA-09)

o (a) Simultaneous steam flow through the preheater and chilled water flow through the cooling coil
is permitted for the purposes of space humidity control.
o (b) The supply air duct thermostat controlling the steam flow is set several degrees higher than
the design off-coil temperature associated with the cooling coil.
 (c) The supply air duct thermostat controlling the steam flow is set several degrees lower than the
design off-coil temperature associated with the cooling coil.
o (d) The supply air duct thermostat controlling the steam flow is set equal to the design off-coil
temperature associated with the cooling coil.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

531. (2.2.21.5-2) In the illustrated single zone HVAC system, what statement represents the
functioning of the diverting relay as it controls the cooling coil flow and the exhaust, outside air and
recirculation dampers? (GS-RA-09)

o (a) The diverting relay processes the humidistat control signal as long as the space humidity is
below the humidistat set point. The diverting relay processes the room thermostat control signal if
the space humidity exceeds the humidistat set point.
 (b) The diverting relay processes the room thermostat control signal as long as the space
humidity is below the humidistat set point. The diverting relay processes the room humidistat
control signal if the space humidity exceeds the humidistat set point.
o (c) The diverting relay processes the room thermostat control signal as long as the
space temperature is below the thermostat set point. The diverting relay processes the room
humidistat control signal if the space temperature exceeds the thermostat set point.
o (d) The diverting relay processes the humidistat control signal as long as the space temperature
is below the thermostat set point. The diverting relay processes the room thermostat control
signal if the space temperature exceeds the thermostat set point.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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532. (2.2.21.5-3) In the illustrated single zone HVAC system, what statement represents the
relationship between the exhaust, outside air and recirculation dampers? (GS-RS-09)

 (a) The more the exhaust and outside air dampers are open, the more the recirculation damper is
closed, and vice versa.
o (b) The more the exhaust and recirculation dampers are open, the more the outside air damper is
closed, and vice versa.
o (c) The the exhaust, outside air, and recirculation dampers are all open or closed to the same
degree for all operating conditions.
o (d) The more the outside air and recirculation dampers are open, the more the exhaust damper is
closed, and vice versa.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

533. (2.2.21.5-4) In the illustrated terminal reheat multiple zone system, what statement represents the
functioning of the winter outside air duct thermostat? (GS-RA-42)

 (a) During the heating season, the winter thermostat senses the outside air temperature and
closes the exhaust and outside air dampers when the outside air temperature is significantly
lower than typical indoor air temperatures.
o (b) During the heating season, the winter thermostat senses the inside air temperature and opens
the exhaust and outside air dampers when the inside air temperature is significantly lower than
typical indoor air temperatures.
o (c) During the heating season, the winter thermostat senses the outside air temperature and
opens the exhaust and outside air dampers when the outside air temperature is significantly lower
than typical indoor air temperatures.
o (d) During the heating season, the winter thermostat senses the inside air temperature and closes
the exhaust and outside air dampers when the inside air temperature is significantly lower than
typical indoor air temperatures.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

534. (2.2.21.5-5) In the illustrated terminal reheat multiple zone system, what statement represents the
functioning of the summer outside air duct thermostat? (GS-RA-42)

 (a) During the cooling season, the summer thermostat senses the outside air temperature and
closes the exhaust and outside air dampers when the outside air temperature is significantly
higher than typical indoor air temperatures.
o (b) During the cooling season, the summer thermostat senses the outside air temperature and
opens the exhaust and outside air dampers when the outside air temperature is significantly
higher than typical indoor air temperatures.
o (c) During the cooling season, the summer thermostat senses the inside air temperature and
closes the exhaust and outside air dampers when the inside air temperature is significantly higher
than typical indoor air temperatures.
o (d) During the cooling season, the summer thermostat senses the inside air temperature and
opens the exhaust and outside air dampers when the inside air temperature is significantly higher
than typical indoor air temperatures.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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535. (2.2.21.5-6) In the illustrated terminal reheat multiple zone system, what statement represents the
functioning of the supply air duct thermostats controlling the preheater steam flow and the cooling
coil chilled water flow? (GS-RA-42)

 (a) The thermostat controlling the preheater steam flow is set several degrees lower than
the design cooling coil off-coil temperature to prevent simultaneous flows.
o (b) The thermostat controlling the preheater steam flow is set several degrees higher than
the design cooling coil off-coil temperature to prevent simultaneous flows.
o (c) The thermostat controlling the preheater steam flow is set at the design cooling coil off-coil
temperature to allow simultaneous flows.
o (d) The thermostat controlling the preheater steam flow is set at the design cooling coil off-coil
temperature to prevent simultaneous flows.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

536. (2.2.21.5-7) Referring to the illustrated single zone HVAC system diagram, what statement is true
concerning the damper controls? (GS-RA-09)

 (a) The exhaust and outside air dampers are normally open and the recirculation damper is
normally closed and all three dampers are controlled by a single pilot air signal.
o (b) The exhaust and outside air dampers are normally closed and the recirculation damper is
normally open and each damper is controlled by its own pilot air signal.
o (c) The exhaust and outside air dampers are normally closed and the recirculation damper is
normally open and all three dampers are controlled by a single pilot air signal.
o (d) The exhaust and outside air dampers are normally open and the recirculation damper is
normally closed and each damper is controlled by its own pilot air signal.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

537. (2.2.21.5-8) Referring to the illustrated dual duct multiple zone HVAC system, how is the space
temperature directly controlled? (GS-RA-43)

 (a) The space air temperature is controlled by automatically proportioning the cold and hot air
streams at the mixing unit.
o (b) The space air temperature is controlled by automatically controlling the chilled water flow
through the cooling coil.
o (c) The space air temperature is controlled by automatically controlling the steam flow through the
reheat coil.
o (d) The space air temperature is controlled by automatically controlling the steam flow through the
preheat coil.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

538. (2.2.21.6-1) What temperature associated with the psychrometric properties of air is measured by
an ordinary thermometer?

o (a) The saturation temperature


 (b) The dry-bulb temperature
o (c) The dew-point temperature
o (d) The wet-bulb temperature

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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539. (2.2.21.6-2) What temperature associated with the psychrometric properties of air is measured
with a sling psychrometer?

 (a) The wet-bulb temperature


o (b) The dew-point temperature
o (c) The saturation temperature
o (d) The dry-air temperature

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

o
540. (2.2.21.6-3) Referring to the illustrated psychrometric chart, if the dry bulb temperature is 70 F
and the relative humidity is 50%, what is the absolute humidity? (GS-RA-22)

o (a) 38 grains of moisture per pound of dry air


 (b) 45 grains of moisture per pound of dry air
o (c) 51 grains of moisture per pound of dry air
o (d) 58 grains of moisture per pound of dry air

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

541. (2.2.21.6-4) Referring to the illustrated psychrometric chart, if the measured dry-bulb temperature
o o
is 80 F and the measured wet-bulb temperature is 70 F, what is the determined relative humidity?
(GS-RA-22)

o (a) 45%
 (b) 60%
o (c) 70%
o (d) 95%

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

542. (2.2.21.6-5) Referring to the illustrated psychrometric chart, suppose air at a dry-bulb temperature
o
of 60 F and a relative humidity of 52% passes over a heating coil, resulting in sensible heat gain,
o
and the off-coil temperature is now 80 F. What is off-coil relative humidity? (GS-RA-22)

o (a) 19%
 (b) 27%
o (c) 55%
o (d) 70%

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

543. (2.2.21.6-6) Referring the illustrated psychrometric chart, suppose during the heating season that
air passes over a heating coil, and this results in sensible heat gain with no change in moisture
content. What statement represents the direction of the air conditioning process line? (GS-RA-22)

 (a) The air conditioning process line is horizontal with the coil outlet to the right of the coil inlet.
o (b) The air conditioning process line is vertical with the coil outlet above the coil inlet.
o (c) The air conditioning process line is horizontal with the coil outlet to the left of the coil outlet.
o (d) The air conditioning process line is vertical with the coil outlet above the coil inlet.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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544. (2.2.21.6-7) Referring the illustrated psychrometric chart, suppose during the cooling season that
air passes over a cooling coil with a mean surface temperature above the dew point temperature,
and this results in sensible heat loss with no change in moisture content. What statement represents
the direction of the air conditioning process line? (GS-RA-22)

o (a) The air conditioning process line is vertical with the coil outlet below the coil inlet.
 (b) The air conditioning process line is horizontal with the coil outlet to the left of the coil inlet.
o (c) The air conditioning process line is vertical with the coil outlet above the coil inlet.
o (d) The air conditioning process line is horizontal with the coil outlet to the right of the coil inlet.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

545. (2.2.21.6-8) Referring the illustrated psychrometric chart, suppose during the cooling season that
air passes over a cooling coil with a mean surface temperature below the dew point
temperature, and this results in sensible heat loss and dehumidification. What statement represents
the direction of the air conditioning process line? (GS-RA-22)

 (a) The air conditioning process line is diagonal with the coil outlet to the left and below the coil
inlet.
o (b) The air conditioning process line is diagonal with the coil outlet to the right and below the coil
inlet.
o (c) The air conditioning process line is diagonal with the coil outlet to the left and above the coil
inlet.
o (d) The air conditioning process line is diagonal with the coil outlet to the right and above the coil
inlet.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

546. (2.2.21.6-9) Referring to the illustrated psychrometric chart, under what conditions are the dry-
bulb, wet-bulb, and dew point temperatures for air all equal in value? (GS-RA-22)

o (a) When the grains of moisture per pound of dry air is zero.
o (b) When the relative humidity is 0%.
 (c) When the air is completed saturated with moisture and the relative humidity is 100%.
o (d) It is impossible for the dry-bulb, wet-bulb, and dew point temperatures to be the same value.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

547. (2.2.21.6-10) Referring the illustrated psychrometric chart, suppose during the heating season
where steam is injected into the air stream, this results in sensible heat gain and humidification.
What statement represents the direction of the air conditioning process line? (GS-RA-22)

o (a) The air conditioning process line is diagonal with the coil outlet to the right and below the coil
inlet.
o (b) The air conditioning process line is diagonal with the coil outlet to the left and above the coil
inlet.
o (c) The air conditioning process line is diagonal with the coil outlet to the left and below the coil
inlet.
 (d) The air conditioning process line is diagonal with the coil outlet to the right and above the coil
inlet.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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548. You are unable to pump out the aft starboard engine room bilge well that is fouled, with one foot
of water over the top of the bilge well, what action should be carried out?

o (a) Simultaneously operate all available bilge pumps.


o (b) It is only necessary to transfer half the contents of a drum of degreaser into the bilge well.
o (c) Send the wiper into the well with only a scoop and pail.
 (d) Remove the bilge manifold valve and attempt to back flush the line.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

549. (2.2.23-1) Probably the most useful troubleshooting tools used in a predictive maintenance
management program for shipboard machinery are vibration meters, analyzers, and monitors. What
is the term that represents the distance a mass travels in a given direction as a result of a part
vibrating during its periodic or oscillatory motion?

o (a) Vibration frequency


o (b) Vibration velocity
 (c) Vibration displacement
o (d) Vibration acceleration

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

550. (2.2.23-3) Probably the most useful troubleshooting tools used in a predictive maintenance
management program for shipboard machinery are vibration meters, analyzers, and monitors. What
is the term that represents the rate of change of the velocity as a result of a part vibrating during its
periodic or oscillatory motion?

o (a) Vibration frequency


o (b) Vibration displacement
 (c) Vibration acceleration
o (d) Vibration velocity

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

551. (2.2.23-5) What is the standard unit of measure for vibration displacement?

o (a) Ten thousandths of an inch (.0001), peak to peak


 (b) Thousandths of an inch (.001), peak to peak.
o (c) Hundredths of an inch (.01), peak to peak
o (d) Tenths of an inch (.1), peak to peak

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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552. (2.2.23-7) When performing a vibration analysis for rotating machinery, what is essential?

o (a) A baseline vibration signature should be established as a reference, but no historical record of
periodic analyses need be maintained. Vibration amplitudes at various frequencies are compared.
 (b) A baseline vibration signature should be established as a reference, and a historical record of
periodic analyses should be maintained. Vibration amplitudes at various frequencies are
compared.
o (c) A historical record of periodic analyses should be maintained, but no baseline vibration
signature need be established as a reference. Vibration amplitudes at various frequencies are
compared.
o (d) A baseline vibration signature should be established as a reference, and a historical record of
periodic analyses should be maintained. Vibration amplitudes are compared with no need to
examine frequencies.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

553. (2.2.23-9) What is meant by a critical speed for rotating machinery?

o (a) The critical speed of a shaft is the speed at which it will shear due to excessive torque placed
upon it by the prime mover in driving the load.
o (b) The critical speed of a shaft is the speed of rotation that is out of harmonic synchronism with
the shaft's natural vibration frequency which produces excessive vibration.
 (c) The critical speed of a shaft is the speed of rotation that is in harmonic synchronism with the
shaft's natural vibration frequency which produces excessive vibration.
o (d) The critical speed of a shaft is the speed at which it will fly apart due to excessive centrifugal
forces associated with excessive speed.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

554. (2.2.25.2-1) If a micrometer were opened to a distance of 0.0001 inch, you would say the reading
is __________.

o (a) one millionth of an inch


 (b) one ten thousandth of an inch
o (c) ten one thousandths of an inch
o (d) ten millionths of an inch

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

555. (2.2.25.2-9) The reading on the vernier caliper scale shown in figure "G" in the illustration is
__________. GS-0082

o (a) 2.965 inches


 (b) 2.368 inches
o (c) 2.380 inches
o (d) 2.308 inches

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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556. (2.2.25.2-3) One turn of the micrometer barrel will linearly move the spindle __________.

o (a) 0.110 inch


 (b) 0.025 inch
o (c) 0.250 inch
o (d) 0.205 inch

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

557. (2.2.25.2-10) To determine the diameter of a small hole, which of the listed tools must be used
with inside calipers to get an accurate reading?

o (a) Wire gage


o (b) A Center gage
 (c) Micrometer
o (d) None of the above

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

558. (2.2.25.2-8) Many micrometers are equipped with a ratchet stop at the end of the thimble to
__________.

 (a) prevent the user from closing the tool with too much force
o (b) stop the spindle from sliding out of the barrel
o (c) eliminate ratchet movement
o (d) click at each increment of measure

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

559. (2.2.25.2-7) For greater accuracy, some micrometers have a vernier scale making it possible to
read in increments of __________.

o (a) twenty five thousands of an inch


o (b) one fortieth of an inch
o (c) five thousands of an inch
 (d) ten thousands of an inch

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

560. (2.2.25.2-4) A reading of 0.625 inch on a micrometer with a 2 to 3 inch range would be equal to
__________.

o (a) 3 1/8 inches


 (b) 2 5/8 inches
o (c) 2 7/16 inches
o (d) 3 9/16 inches

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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561. (2.2.25.2-5) To check the thickness of a piece of thin shim stock before using it to make a bearing
shim, you should use a __________.

 (a) micrometer
o (b) feeler gage
o (c) depth gage
o (d) machinist’s rule

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

562. (2.2.25.3-4) The proper tool used for cutting new external threads is called a thread __________.

o (a) tap
o (b) chaser
o (c) broach
 (d) die

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

563. (2.2.25.3-7) If a bolt or stud were to break off flush at the surface, which of the listed actions
would probably be the best first step to begin the process of its removal?

 (a) Drill a hole in the center of the broken stud.


o (b) Heat the bolt with an oxyacetylene torch.
o (c) Tap the bolt with a starting punch extractor.
o (d) Use a tapered screw extractor only.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

564. (2.2.25.3-6) With respect to machine shop "taps and dies", a plug tap is correctly used for
__________.

o (a) chasing the threads on a circular rod


o (b) reversing the threads in a hole
o (c) starting the threads on a circular rod
 (d) the second cut when threading a blind hole

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

565. (2.2.25.3-5) The names plug, bottom, and taper refer to __________.

o (a) pipe fittings


 (b) machinist's hand taps
o (c) drill press parts
o (d) measuring instruments

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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566. (2.2.25.1-11) The best tool to use to measure the number of threads per inch on a bolt is a
__________.

o (a) pair of outside calipers


 (b) screw pitch gauge
o (c) micrometer
o (d) tap

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

567. (2.2.25.1-7) A metal scribe commonly found on a Combination Square measuring tool should only
be used to __________.

o (a) remove packing


 (b) mark on metal
o (c) clean file teeth
o (d) punch gasket holes

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

568. (2.2.25.1-3) The center head of a combination square set is used to __________.

o (a) check the angle of thread cutting tools


o (b) check degrees of angle
 (c) locate the center on round stock
o (d) find right angles

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

569. (2.2.25.1-1) Which of the devices shown in the illustration is designed for both inside and outside
measurements? GS-0073

o (a) B
 (b) C
o (c) A
o (d) D

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

570. (2.2.25.1-2) To set the dividers to the proper radius, you should use a __________.

o (a) micrometer
o (b) calipers
o (c) scribing circle
 (d) steel rule

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

229 August 2014


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National Maritime Center Assistant Engineers-DDE

571. (2.2.25.1-4) Which of the instruments listed is used to measure the gauge of a piece of sheet
metal?

o (a) Gauge calibrator


 (b) Wire gauge
o (c) Inside micrometer
o (d) Circular mil

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

572. (2.2.25.1-5) To measure the circumference of a piece of pipe, you should use a __________.

o (a) folding rule


o (b) hook rule
 (c) flexible steel rule
o (d) machinist's steel rule

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

573. (2.2.25.1-8) A dial indicator is used to measure __________.

o (a) positive readings only


 (b) shaft eccentricity
o (c) torque of a shaft
o (d) scribed layout lines on vertical surfaces

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

574. (2.2.25.1-9) To get an accurate measurement using a 12 inch machinist's steel rule, you should
measure __________.

o (a) on the unmarked edge of the rule


o (b) on the narrow edge of the rule
o (c) from the zero end on the scale
 (d) from the one inch graduation mark

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

575. (2.2.25.4-9) Which of the figures in illustration GS-0080 would be used in conjunction with figure
"B" of the device shown in illustration GS-0124? GS-0080

 (a) figure F
o (b) figure C
o (c) figure B
o (d) figure G

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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United States Coast Guard General Subjects
National Maritime Center Assistant Engineers-DDE

576. (2.2.25.4-4) Which of the figures illustrated is not suitable for use as a hex head set screw? GS-
0080

o (a) figure C
o (b) figure G
o (c) figure L
 (d) figure D

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

577. (2.2.25.4-6) With regards to the American National Screw Thread nomenclature, 'pitch' is the
__________.

o (a) number of threads divided by the length of the threaded portion of the screw
o (b) angle of taper formed by the centerline of the screw and the crests of the thread
o (c) angle formed by adjacent flanks of a thread
 (d) distance between corresponding points on adjacent threads

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

578. (2.2.25.4-1) The number of screw threads per inch for a Standard National Coarse 1/2 inch bolt is
__________.

o (a) 18
 (b) 13
o (c) 20
o (d) 16

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

579. (2.2.25.4-10) The designation '1/4-20' describes __________.

o (a) steel plate thickness


o (b) pipe thread die size
o (c) cutting torch tips size
 (d) machine bolt size and threads per inch

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

580. (2.2.25.4-8) Which of the figures illustrated is known as an Allen head set screw? GS-0080

 (a) figure F
o (b) figure G
o (c) figure B
o (d) figure C

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

231 August 2014


United States Coast Guard General Subjects
National Maritime Center Assistant Engineers-DDE

581. (2.2.25.4-7) The locking plates shown in the illustration are used in many marine applications.
Which figure indicates the improper method for using these devices? GS-0156

 (a) "C"
o (b) "B"
o (c) "D"
o (d) "A"

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

582. (2.2.25.4-3) Which of the figures illustrated would be LEAST desirable for use as a set screw?
GS-0080

o (a) figure G
 (b) figure A
o (c) figure F
o (d) figure L

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

583. (2.2.25.4-2) Which of the following is true when comparing the different "class of fit" for machine
threads on bolts and nuts?

o (a) A class 1 fit always has fewer threads per inch.


o (b) A class 1 fit is tighter than a class 2 fit.
o (c) A class 4 fit always has more threads per inch.
 (d) A class 2 fit is looser than a class 4 fit.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

584. (2.2.28.1-1) As it pertains to the automatic hydraulic brake of a horizontal electro-hydraulic anchor
windlass, what statement is true?

o (a) The brake is hydraulically set and spring released, and the brake automatically sets when the
pump is brought to zero stroke or there is a loss of servo power hydraulic pressure.
 (b) The brake is spring set and hydraulically released, and the brake automatically sets when the
pump is brought to zero stroke or there is a loss of servo power hydraulic pressure.
o (c) The brake is spring set and hydraulically released, and the brake automatically releases when
the pump is brought to zero stroke or there is a loss of servo power hydraulic pressure.
o (d) The brake is hydraulically set and spring released, and the brake automatically releases when
the pump is brought to zero stroke or there is a loss of servo power hydraulic pressure.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

232 August 2014


United States Coast Guard General Subjects
National Maritime Center Assistant Engineers-DDE

585. (2.2.28.1-2) As it pertains to the automatic electric brake of a horizontal electro-mechanical


anchor windlass, what statement is true?

o (a) The brake is electrically set and spring released, and the brake automatically releases when
power is removed from the electric drive motor.
 (b) The brake is spring set and electrically released, and the brake automatically sets when
electric power is removed from the electric drive motor.
o (c) The brake is spring set and electrically released, and the brake automatically releases when
electric power is removed from the electric drive motor.
o (d) The brake is electrically set and spring released, and the brake automatically sets when
electric power is removed from the electric drive motor.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

586. (2.2.28.1-3) A horizontal electro-mechanical anchor windlass is equipped with two warping heads,
two wildcats, two manual brake hand wheels, two clutch control levers, and a multipoint lever-
operated pedestal-mounted controller. What statement is true as it pertains to the operation of the
windlass clutch control levers?

 (a) The clutch control levers are used to engage and disengage the wildcats only. They have no
control over the warping heads.
o (b) The clutch control levers are used to engage and disengage the warping heads only. They
have no control over the wildcats.
o (c) The clutch control levers are used to engage and disengage both the warping heads and the
wildcats.
o (d) The clutch control levers are used to either engage and disengage the warping heads or the
wildcats, depending upon the windlass design.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

587. (2.2.28.1-4) A horizontal electro-mechanical anchor windlass is equipped with two warping heads,
two wildcats, two manual brake hand wheels, two clutch control levers, and a multipoint lever-
operated pedestal-mounted controller. What statement is true as it pertains to the operation of the
pedestal-mounted controller?

o (a) The pedestal-mounted controller allows the wildcats to rotate in either direction of rotation, but
the warping heads in only one direction of rotation at discrete speeds from zero to maximum.
 (b) The pedestal-mounted controller allows both the warping heads and the wildcats to rotate in
either direction of rotation at discrete speeds from zero to maximum.
o (c) The pedestal-mounted controller allows both the warping heads and the wildcats to rotate in
only one direction of rotation at discrete speeds from zero to maximum.
o (d) The pedestal-mounted controller allows the warping heads to rotate in either direction of
rotation, but the wildcats in only one direction of rotation at discrete speeds from zero to
maximum.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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National Maritime Center Assistant Engineers-DDE

588. (2.2.28.1-5) A horizontal electro-mechanical anchor windlass is equipped with two warping heads,
two wildcats, two manual brake hand wheels, two clutch control levers, and a multipoint lever-
operated, pedestal-mounted controller. What statement is true as it pertains to the operation of the
manual brake hand wheels?

o (a) The manual brake hand wheels control band brakes that are associated with both the wildcats
and the warping heads.
o (b) The manual brake hand wheels control band brakes that are associated with the warping
heads only.
 (c) The manual brake hand wheels control band brakes that are associated with the wildcats only.
o (d) The manual brake hand wheels control band brakes that are associated with either the
wildcats or the warping heads, depending upon the windlass design.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

589. (2.2.28.1-6) A horizontal electro-mechanical anchor windlass is equipped with two warping heads,
two wildcats, two manual brake hand wheels, two clutch control levers, and a multipoint lever-
operated, pedestal-mounted controller. What statement is true as it pertains to the operation of the
warping heads and wildcats?

o (a) The warping heads can be rotated in either direction of rotation without rotating the wildcats by
disengaging the wildcat clutches. As long as electric power is applied to the electric drive motor,
the wildcats will rotate.
o (b) The wildcats can be rotated in either direction of rotation without rotating the warping heads by
disengaging the warping head clutches. As long as electric power is applied to the electric drive
motor, the wildcats will rotate.
 (c) The warping heads can be rotated in either direction of rotation without rotating the wildcats by
disengaging the wildcat clutches. As long as electric power is applied to the electric drive motor,
the warping heads will rotate.
o (d) The wildcats can be rotated in either direction of rotation without rotating the warping heads by
disengaging the warping head clutches. As long as electric power is applied to the electric drive
motor, the warping heads will rotate.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

590. (2.2.28.1-7) In attempting to start the hydraulic pump drive motor of a horizontal electro-hydraulic
anchor windlass, what condition would prevent the electric motor from starting?

 (a) Failure to start could be the result of an electrical interlock associated with the hydraulic pump
stroke control being in other than the neutral position.
o (b) Failure to start could be the result of an electrical interlock associated with the wildcat clutches
being disengaged.
o (c) Failure to start could be the result of an electrical interlock associated with hand wheel
operated wildcat band brakes being set.
o (d) Failure to start could be the result of an electrical interlock associated with the hydraulic pump
stroke control being in the neutral position.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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591. (2.2.28.1-8) As it pertains to raising and lowering an anchor with a horizontal electro-hydraulic or
electro-mechanical anchor windlass, what statement is true?

o (a) The anchor can be either raised or lowered under power with the windlass by disengaging the
wildcat clutch. The anchor can be lowered by gravity by controlling the anchor chain payout with
the wildcat manual brake with the wildcat clutch engaged.
o (b) The anchor can only be raised (and not lowered) under power with the windlass by
disengaging the wildcat clutch. The anchor can be lowered by gravity by controlling the
anchor chain payout with the wildcat manual brake with the wildcat clutch engaged.
o (c) The anchor can only be raised (and not lowered) under power with the windlass by engaging
the wildcat clutch. The anchor can be lowered by gravity by controlling the anchor chain
payout with the wildcat manual brake with the wildcat clutch disengaged.
 (d) The anchor can be either raised or lowered under power with the windlass by engaging the
wildcat clutch. The anchor can be lowered by gravity by controlling the anchor chain payout with
the wildcat manual brake with the wildcat clutch disengaged.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

592. (2.2.28.2-1) As it pertains to the automatic electric brake of a capstan, what statement is true?

o (a) The brake is electrically set and spring released, and the brake automatically releases when
power is removed from the electric drive motor.
o (b) The brake is spring set and electrically released, and the brake automatically releases when
electric power is removed from the electric drive motor.
 (c) The brake is spring set and electrically released, and the brake automatically sets when
electric power is removed from the electric drive motor.
o (d) The brake is electrically set and spring released, and the brake automatically sets when
electric power is removed from the electric drive motor.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

593. (2.2.28.2-2) Which capstan drive arrangement requires a flexible coupling between the reduction
gear output shaft and the capstan head input shaft?

o (a) The drive arrangement where the drive motor, electric brake, gear reducer, and capstan head
are all located on the weather deck.
o (b) The drive arrangement where the drive motor, electric brake, gear reducer are hung from the
underside of the weather deck, and only the capstan head is located on the weather deck.
 (c) The drive arrangement where the drive motor, electric brake, gear reducer are mounted on the
deck below the weather deck, and only the capstan head is located on the weather deck.
o (d) A flexible coupling is required on all three drive arrangements listed above.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

235 August 2014


United States Coast Guard General Subjects
National Maritime Center Assistant Engineers-DDE

594. (2.2.28.2-3) Concerning a conventional mooring winch, what statement is true?

 (a) A high capacity brake is required to hold a load approaching the breaking strength of the
mooring line, but it is required to slip at a lower tension to avoid mooring line breakage.
o (b) A high capacity brake is required to hold a load equal to the breaking strength of the mooring
line. For reasons of safety, no slippage of the brake is permitted.
o (c) A high capacity brake is required to hold a load exceeding the breaking strength of the
mooring line. For reasons of safety, no slippage of the brake is permitted.
o (d) A low capacity brake is required to hold a load far below the breaking strength of the mooring
line, but it is required to slip at a lower tension to avoid mooring line breakage.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

595. (2.2.28.2-4) As it pertains to a "constant-tension" mooring winch, what statement is true?

o (a) A constant-tension mooring winch is set to automatically render, but not recover, mooring line
using the prime mover when the mooring line tension varies above a certain preset tension.
o (b) A constant-tension mooring winch is set to automatically recover, but not render, mooring line
using the prime mover when the mooring line tension varies below a certain preset tension.
o (c) A constant-tension mooring winch is set to automatically render, but not recover, mooring line
using the brake when the mooring line tension varies above certain preset tension.
 (d) A constant-tension mooring winch is set to automatically render and recover mooring line
using the prime mover when the mooring line tension varies outside of narrow preset adjustable
tension limits.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

596. (2.2.28.2-5) As it pertains to the automatic hoist winch brake of an electro-hydraulic cargo-
handling pedestal-type deck crane, what statement is true?

o (a) The brake is hydraulically set and spring released, and the brake automatically releases when
the hoist pump is brought to zero stroke or there is a loss of servo power hydraulic pressure.
 (b) The brake is spring set and hydraulically released, and the brake automatically sets when the
hoist pump is brought to zero stroke or there is a loss of servo power hydraulic pressure.
o (c) The brake is hydraulically set and spring released, and the brake automatically sets when the
hoist pump is brought to zero stroke or there is a loss of servo power hydraulic pressure.
o (d) The brake is spring set and hydraulically released, and the brake automatically releases when
the hoist pump is brought to zero stroke or there is a loss of servo power hydraulic pressure.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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United States Coast Guard General Subjects
National Maritime Center Assistant Engineers-DDE

597. (2.2.28.2-6) As it pertains to the luffing motion limits associated with an electro-hydraulic cargo-
handling pedestal-type deck crane, what statement is true?

o (a) When the hoist block is raised to a maximum permissible height with respect to the boom, the
luffing pump shall be placed on stroke and the luffing winch brake released.
o (b) When the hoist block is raised to a maximum permissible height with respect to the boom, the
luffing pump shall be stroked to zero and the luffing winch brake set.
 (c) When the boom is raised to a maximum permissible height or lowered to a minimum
permissible height, the luffing pump shall be stroked to zero and the luffing winch brake set.
o (d) When the boom is raised to a maximum permissible height or lowered to a minimum
permissible height, the luffing pump shall be placed on stroke and the luffing winch brake
released.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

598. (2.2.28.2-7) As it pertains to the hoist motion limits associated with an electro-hydraulic cargo-
handling pedestal-type deck crane, what statement is true?

o (a) When the boom is raised to a maximum permissible height or lowered to a minimum
permissible height, the hoist pump shall be placed on stroke and the hoist winch brake released.
o (b) When the hoist cable is payed out to a nearly empty drum condition or when the hoist block is
raised to a maximum permissible height relative to the boom, the hoist pump shall be placed on
stroke and the hoist winch brake released.
 (c) When the hoist cable is payed out to a nearly empty drum condition or when the hoist block is
raised to a maximum permissible height relative to the boom, the hoist pump shall be stroked to
zero and the hoist winch brake set.
o (d) When the boom is raised to a maximum permissible height or lowered to a minimum
permissible height, the hoist pump shall be stroked to zero and the hoist winch brake set.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

599. (2.2.28.2-8) For an electro-hydraulic cargo-handling pedestal-type deck crane, what event would
result in an immediate stop to all crane motions, including slewing, hoisting, and luffing?

o (a) All motions are stopped by the action of the boom maximum outreach and minimum
outreach limit switches.
o (b) All motions are stopped by the action of the slewing platform limit switches.
 (c) All motions are stopped by the loss of electric power to the crane.
o (d) All motions are stopped by the action of the safe working load cutout switch or the slack wire
limit switch.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

237 August 2014


United States Coast Guard General Subjects
National Maritime Center Assistant Engineers-DDE

600. (2.2.28.2-9) What statement is true concerning the door interlock devices associated with a
winding drum or traction drive passenger elevator onboard ship?

 (a) Door interlocks are used to prevent elevator operation if the doors are still open and only allow
elevator operation if the doors are proved closed.
o (b) Door interlocks are used to prevent elevator operation if the doors are still closed and only
allow elevator operation if the doors are proved open.
o (c) Door interlocks are used to prevent elevator operation in a shipboard emergency when
elevators are not to be used.
o (d) Door interlocks are used to over-ride elevator emergency status in a shipboard emergency
when elevators are required to be used.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

601. (2.2.28.2-10) What statement is true concerning the platform interlock devices associated with a
winding drum or traction drive cargo elevator onboard ship?

o (a) Platform interlocks are used to over-ride elevator emergency status in a shipboard emergency
when elevators are required to be used.
o (b) Platform interlocks are used to prevent elevator operation in a shipboard emergency when
elevators are not to be used.
 (c) Platform interlocks are used to prevent door operation if the platform is at other than a deck
level and only allow door operation when the platform is proved at a deck level.
o (d) Platform interlocks are used to prevent door operation if the platform is proved at a deck level
and only allow door operation when the platform is at a position other than a deck level.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

602. (2.2.27.1-1) Which of the following filled thermal systems used as a


temperature transmitting/receiving system usually is associated with a display with a non-uniform
scale?

o (a) Mercury-filled systems


o (b) Liquid-filled systems
 (c) Vapor-pressure systems
o (d) Gas-filled systems

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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United States Coast Guard General Subjects
National Maritime Center Assistant Engineers-DDE

603. (2.2.27.1-3) If it is desired to determine the average temperature across a large duct, what
thermocouple wiring technique can be used to generate an emf proportional to the average
temperature?

 (a) Multiple thermocouples can be used if they are wired in parallel, where the sum of the
individual voltages is divided by the number of thermocouples.
o (b) Multiple thermocouples can be used if they are wired series-opposing, where the sum of the
individual voltages is divided by the number of thermocouples.
o (c) Multiple thermocouples can be used if they are wired series-aiding, where the sum of the
individual voltages is divided by the number of thermocouples.
o (d) Only one thermocouple can be used, and the hot junction must be strategically located to get
an effective average temperature.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

604. (2.2.27.1-5) Which of the listed temperature sensors consists of finely coiled wire, such as
platinum, where the resistance varies directly with temperature?

o (a) Thermistor
o (b) Bimetallic device
 (c) Resistance temperature detector
o (d) Thermocouple

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

605. (2.2.27.1-7) What is the application for a temperature measuring device known as a pyrometer?

o (a) Moderate to high temperature applications such as engine cooling and lubrication.
o (b) Extremely low temperature applications such as cryogenics.
o (c) Low to moderate temperature applications such as refrigeration and air conditioning.
 (d) Extremely high temperature applications such as boiler or engine exhaust temperatures.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

606. (2.2.27.1-9) For a pneumatic transmission system for instrumentation purposes, if a pneumatic
o
temperature indicator has a calibrated scale of -40 to +40 F, what would be the actual measured
temperature if the transmitted pneumatic signal pressure to the indicator is 9 psig, assuming the
industry standard of 3 to 15 psig is used for instrument air?

o
o (a) -10 F
o
 (b) 0 F
o
o (c) +10 F
o
o (d) +25 F

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

239 August 2014


United States Coast Guard General Subjects
National Maritime Center Assistant Engineers-DDE

607. (2.2.27.2-1) Which of the following direct pressure measuring instruments is most appropriately
used for measuring pressures very close to atmospheric pressure such as boiler furnace draft
pressure?

 (a) Diaphragm type pressure gauge


o (b) Bellows type pressure gauge
o (c) Spiral or helical type pressure gauge
o (d) Bourdon tube pressure gauge

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

608. (2.2.27.2-2) For a pneumatic transmission system for instrumentation purposes, if a pneumatic
pressure indicator has a calibrated scale of 0 to 1000 psig, what would be the actual measured
pressure if the transmitted pneumatic signal pressure to the indicator is 9 psig, assuming the
industry standard of 3 to 15 psig is used for instrument air?

o (a) 300 psig


 (b) 500 psig
o (c) 600 psig
o (d) 750 psig

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

609. (2.2.27.2-3) For an analog electronic transmission system for instrumentation purposes, if an
analog pressure indicator has a calibrated scale of 0 to 30 psig, what would be the actual measured
pressure if the transmitted analog signal current to the indicator is 12 mA, assuming the industry
standard of 4 to 20 mA is used for instrument current?

o (a) 8 psig
o (b) 12 psig
 (c) 15 psig
o (d) 24 psig

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

610. (2.2.27.2-4) For a pneumatic transmission system for instrumentation purposes, if a pneumatic
pressure indicator has a calibrated scale of 0 to 5000 psig, what would be the actual measured
pressure if the transmitted pneumatic signal pressure to the indicator is 6 psig, assuming the
industry standard of 3 to 15 psig is used for instrument air?

o (a) 1000 psig


 (b) 1250 psig
o (c) 1500 psig
o (d) 1800 psig

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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National Maritime Center Assistant Engineers-DDE

611. (2.2.27.2-5) Which of the following pressure sensing mechanisms in a linear-scaled pneumatic
indicator is generally used to sense pneumatic pressure as received from a pneumatic pressure
transmitter?

o (a) Diaphragm
o (b) Bourdon tube
 (c) Bellows
o (d) Spiral or helical coil

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

612. (2.2.27.2-7) In which of the following applications would a mechanical pressure seal be used with
a pressure measuring instrument?

o (a) Isolation of high-temperature products from the measuring element.


o (b) Isolation of high-pressure products from the measuring element.
o (c) Isolation of non-viscous products from the measuring element.
 (d) Isolation of corrosive products from the measuring element.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

613. (2.2.27.2-9) Which of the following direct pressure measuring instruments is most appropriately
used for measuring extremely high pressures up to 80,000 psig?

o (a) Bellows type pressure gauge


o (b) Diaphragm type pressure gauge
 (c) Helical type pressure gauge
o (d) Bourdon tube pressure gauge

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

614. (2.2.27.2-11) Which of the following direct pressure measuring instruments is most appropriately
used for measuring most pressures, typically above 10 psig and is by far the most common type?

o (a) Diaphragm type pressure gauge


 (b) Bourdon tube pressure gauge
o (c) Spiral or helical type pressure gauge
o (d) Bellows type pressure gauge

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

241 August 2014


United States Coast Guard General Subjects
National Maritime Center Assistant Engineers-DDE

615. (2.2.27.2-15) What is used to protect a direct sensing steam pressure gauge from damage from
contact with steam?

o (a) The installation of a damping needle valve in the entrance to the gauge.
o (b) The installation of a siphon tube (pig-tail) oriented horizontally in the entrance to the gauge.
o (c) The installation of thermal insulation on the gauge.
 (d) The installation of a siphon tube (pig-tail) oriented vertically in the entrance to the gauge.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

616. (2.2.27.3-1) What statement is true concerning the operating principle of a liquid level sensing
and transmitting system of the capacitance type?

 (a) The capacitance method is generally used with non-conductive liquids and works on the
principle of the substantial difference between the dielectric constant of air and that of the liquid in
the tank.
o (b) The capacitance method is generally used with conductive liquids and works on the principle
of the substantial difference between the dielectric constant of air and that of the liquid in the tank.
o (c) The capacitance method is generally used with conductive liquids and works on the principle
of the substantial difference between the specific gravity of air and that of the liquid in the tank.
o (d) The capacitance method is generally used with non-conductive liquids and works on the
principle of the substantial difference between the specific gravity of air and that of the liquid in
the tank.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

617. (2.2.27.3-3) For an analog electronic transmission system for instrumentation purposes, if an
electronic level indicator has a calibrated scale of 0 to 1800 mm, what would be the actual measured
liquid level of the tank if the transmitted signal current is 12 mA, assuming the industry standard of 4
to 20 mA is used for instrument current?

o (a) 800 mm
 (b) 900 mm
o (c) 1000 mm
o (d) 1080 mm

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

618. (2.2.27.3-5) What type of liquid level indicator which senses head or pressure requires a supply of
compressed air?

o (a) Differential pressure transmitter


o (b) Float type
o (c) Diaphragm box
 (d) Bubble tube system

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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619. (2.2.27.3-9) Which of the following level indicating system sensor types is ideally suited for
discrete-level detection as opposed to continuous-level detection?

o (a) Capacitance probes


o (b) Float operated potentiometer
 (c) Float actuated limit switches
o (d) Differential pressure transmitter

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

620. (2.2.27.4-1) What type of flow measuring device would measure totalized flow volume as
opposed to an instantaneous flow rate?

o (a) Variable area type, such as a rotameter


o (b) Constriction type, differential head such as a venturi tube
 (c) Positive displacement meter, such as nutating disk
o (d) Velocity flowmeter such as a turbine type

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

621. (2.2.27.4-3) With a constriction type, differential head flow meter, which of the following would be
an example of a primary device?

o (a) Pneumatic or electronic transmitter


o (b) Diaphragm or bellows meter
o (c) Mercury manometer
 (d) Orifice plate or venturi tube

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

622. (2.2.27.4-5) Which of the following flow meter primary devices works on the constriction type,
differential head principle?

o (a) Turbine
o (b) Vortex
 (c) Venturi tube
o (d) Magnetic

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

623. (2.2.27.4-7) What is the operating principle of a variable area flow meter, such as a rotameter?

o (a) The float or rotor is less dense than the fluid being measured and is positioned so that the
gravitational force down is balanced by the upward motion of the fluid flow.
o (b) The float or rotor is less dense than the fluid being measured and is positioned so that the
gravitational force up is balanced by the downward motion of the fluid flow.
o (c) The float or rotor is more dense than the fluid being measured and is positioned so that the
gravitational force up is balanced by the downward motion of the fluid flow.
 (d) The float or rotor is more dense than the fluid being measured and is positioned so that the
gravitational force down is balanced by the upward motion of the fluid flow.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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624. (2.2.27.4-9) For a pneumatic transmission system for instrumentation purposes, if a


pneumatic instantaneous flow indicator has a calibrated scale of 0 to 1000 gpm, what would be the
actual measured instantaneous flow rate if the transmitted pneumatic signal pressure to the indicator
is 9 psig, assuming the industry standard of 3 to 15 psig is used for instrument air?

o (a) 375 gpm


 (b) 500 gpm
o (c) 625 gpm
o (d) 750 gpm

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

625. (2.2.27.5-2) Suppose the photodetector of an optical tachometer detects a time interval of 0.05
seconds between the leading edges of the pulses created by the reflective stripe during shaft
rotation. What is the rpm of the shaft?

o (a) 900 rpm


o (b) 1000 rpm
 (c) 1200 rpm
o (d) 1800 rpm

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

626. (2.2.27.5-4) What statement is true concerning the arrangement and operation of the viscosity
transmitter as used for indicating the viscosity of heavy fuel oil?

 (a) The viscosity transmitter is a differential pressure transmitter receiving both capillary tube inlet
and outlet pressures from the viscosity sensor and delivering a single viscosity signal to the
viscosity indicator.
o (b) The viscosity transmitter is a differential temperature transmitter receiving both capillary tube
inlet and outlet temperatures from the viscosity sensor and delivering a single viscosity signal to
the viscosity indicator.
o (c) The viscosity transmitter is a single temperature transmitter receiving capillary tube inlet
temperature from the viscosity sensor and delivering a single viscosity signal to the viscosity
indicator.
o (d) The viscosity transmitter is a single pressure transmitter receiving capillary tube inlet pressure
from the viscosity sensor and delivering a single viscosity signal to the viscosity indicator.

If choice a is selected set score to 1

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627. (2.2.27.5-6) What statement is true concerning the operation of a distilling plant or boiler feed
water salinometer?

o (a) The greater the salt content of water, the greater the conductivity of the water, and
temperature correction is unnecessary because conductivity does not change with changes in
temperature.
o (b) The greater the salt content of water, the lower the conductivity of the water, and temperature
correction is necessary because conductivity decreases with a rise in temperature.
o (c) The greater the salt content of water, the lower the conductivity of the water, and temperature
correction is necessary because conductivity increases with a rise in temperature.
 (d) The greater the salt content of water, the greater the conductivity of the water, and
temperature correction is necessary because conductivity increases with a rise in temperature.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

628. (2.2.27.5-8) If an oil-in-water content monitor uses a lamp emitting light in the visible spectra in
conjunction with a reference photo-cell and a sampling photocell, what is the operating principle
upon which this oil-in-water content monitor works?

o (a) The monitor works on the fluorescence principle where the greater the oil content, the less the
amount of ultra-violet light detected by the sampling photo-electric cell as compared to the
reference photo-electric cell.
 (b) The monitor works on the absorption/scattering principle where the greater the oil content, the
less the amount of visible light detected by the sampling photo-electric cell as compared to the
reference photo-electric cell.
o (c) The monitor works on the fluorescence principle where the greater the oil content, the greater
the amount of ultra-violet light detected by the sampling photo-electric cell as compared to the
reference photo-electric cell.
o (d) The monitor works on the absorption/scattering principle where the greater the oil content, the
greater the amount of visible light detected by the sampling photo-electric cell as compared to the
reference photo-electric cell.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

629. (2.2.27.6-1) For a pneumatic transmission system for instrumentation and control purposes, what
is a common industry standard for pneumatic signal pressure range?

o (a) 0 to 100 psig


 (b) 3 to 15 psig
o (c) 0 to 10 psig
o (d) 3 to 150 psig

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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630. (2.2.27.6-2) For an analog electronic transmission system for instrumentation and control
purposes, what is a common industry standard for electronic signal current range?

o (a) 4 to 20 A
o (b) 1 to 10 A
 (c) 4 to 20mA
o (d) 0 to 10 mA

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

631. (2.2.31-2) On a ship with a periodically unmanned engine room, the duty engineer is responsible
for making machinery space rounds when the engine room is unattended. How often should these
machinery space rounds be performed by the duty engineer?

o (a) Every two hours


 (b) Every four hours
o (c) Every twelve hours
o (d) Every hour

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

632. (2.2.31-4) On a ship with a periodically unmanned engine room, the duty engineer is responsible
for making machinery space rounds when the engine room is unattended. Between machinery
space rounds, what is the responsibility of the duty engineer?

o (a) The duty engineer is only required to make periodic machinery space rounds.
Acknowledgement and response to any machinery space alarms are the responsibility of
the junior engineering officer onboard.
 (b) The duty engineer is on call and should be prepared to acknowledge and respond to any
machinery space alarms by remaining in range of the remote alarm stations in his or her cabin or
the various public spaces.
o (c) The duty engineer is only required to make periodic machinery space rounds.
Acknowledgement and response to any machinery space alarms are the responsibility of
the Chief Engineer.
o (d) The duty engineer is only required to make periodic machinery space rounds.
Acknowledgement and response to any machinery space alarms are the responsibility of the First
Assistant Engineer.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

633. (2.2.31-6) On a ship with a periodically unmanned engine room, under what conditions must the
propulsion console be continuously manned?

 (a) Under standby conditions or while maneuvering


o (b) Under standby conditions only
o (c) While maneuvering only
o (d) During the day work period

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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634. (2.2.31-8) Preferably when should the bridge be informed when engine room situations may
affect the speed, maneuverability, power supply, or other essentials for the safe operation of the
ship?

o (a) The bridge should be informed after any changes are made, as soon as practical.
o (b) The bridge need not be informed of any changes being made, as it will soon be obvious.
 (c) The bridge should be informed before any changes are made, if at all possible.
o (d) The bridge should be informed simultaneously as any changes are made, if at all possible.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

635. (2.2.30.1-1) On deep-draft ships, what statement is true concerning high and low sea suctions for
machinery space sea water cooling systems?

 (a) A high sea suction is located near the turn of the bilge and is used primarily in port or when
operating in shallow water, and a low sea suction is located near the bottom of the ship and is
used primarily while underway.
o (b) A low sea suction is located near the turn of the bilge and is used primarily in port or when
operating in shallow water, and a high sea suction is located near the bottom of the ship and is
used primarily while underway.
o (c) A high sea suction is located near the turn of the bilge and is used primarily while underway,
and a low sea suction is located near the bottom of the ship and is used primarily in port or when
operating in shallow water.
o (d) A low sea suction is located near the turn of the bilge and is used primarily while underway,
and a high sea suction is located near the bottom of the ship and is used primarily in port or when
operating in shallow water.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

636. (2.2.30.1-3) What operating condition (or conditions) would necessitate shifting from a high sea
suction to a low sea suction for a machinery space sea water cooling system?

 (a) Underway operations or encountering rough seas.


o (b) Increasing the number of sea water cooled heat exchangers on service.
o (c) Reducing the total number of sea water cooled heat exchangers on service.
o (d) Entering port or shallow water.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

637. (2.2.30.1-4) What operating condition (or conditions) would necessitate shifting from a low sea
suction to a high sea suction for a machinery space sea water cooling system?

o (a) Reducing the total number of sea water cooled heat exchangers on service.
o (b) Increasing the number of sea water cooled heat exchangers on service.
o (c) Underway operations or encountering rough seas.
 (d) Entering port or shallow water.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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638. (2.2.30.1-5) What provision is made for sea chests for removal of solid debris restricting the entry
grating into the sea chest of a machinery space sea water cooling system?

o (a) The debris is continuously removed by blowing the sea chest clear with either compressed air
or steam by cracking open the blow valve, as appropriate.
 (b) The debris may be removed by blowing the sea chest clear with either compressed air or
steam, as appropriate.
o (c) The debris may be removed by draining the sea chest clear by opening a drain valve located
at the bottom of the sea chest.
o (d) The debris is continuously removed by draining the sea chest clear by cracking open a drain
valve located at the bottom of the sea chest.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

639. (2.2.30.1-2) What provision is made for sea chests for removal of air ingested into the sea chest
of a machinery space sea water cooling system?

o (a) The air may be continuously removed by an open valve located in the vent line originating
from the top of the sea chest and terminating in the bilges.
 (b) The air may be continuously removed by an open valve located in the vent line originating
from the top of the sea chest and terminating above the deep-draft load line.
o (c) The air may be continuously removed by an open valve located in the drain line originating
from the bottom of the sea chest and terminating in the bilges.
o (d) The air may be continuously removed by an open valve located in the drain line originating
from the bottom of the sea chest and terminating above the deep-draft load line.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

640. (2.2.30.1-6) What provision is made for sea chests for removal of ice from within the sea chest of
a machinery space sea water cooling system during operation in icy waters?

o (a) The ice may be removed by using the chemical de-icing anti-freeze connection, if provided.
o (b) The ice may be removed by using the fire main flushing connection, if provided.
 (c) The ice may be removed by using the steaming out sea chest blow connection, if provided.
o (d) The ice may be removed by using the compressed air sea chest blow connection, if provided.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

641. (2.2.30.1-7) Referring to the illustrated steam plant seawater cooling system drawing, which
pump can be used to pump out the main machinery space bilge in a flooding emergency? (SP-SW-
01)

 (a) The two-speed main sea water circulating pump can be used for this purpose.
o (b) The single-speed main sea water circulating pump can be used for this purpose.
o (c) Any of the sea water service pumps can be used for this purpose.
o (d) The auxiliary sea water circulating pump can be used for this purpose.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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642. (2.2.30.1-8) Referring to the illustrated steam plant seawater cooling system drawing, which
pump is considered a high-head pump operating with the highest discharge pressure? Refer to
Illustration SP-SW-01

o (a) The auxiliary sea water circulating pump is considered a high-head pump.
o (b) The two-speed main sea water circulating pump is considered a high-head pump.
o (c) The single-speed main sea water circulating pump is considered a high-head pump.
 (d) Any of the sea water service pumps are considered high-head pumps.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

643. (2.2.30.1-9) Referring to illustrated steam plant seawater cooling system drawing, what statement
is true concerning seawater service system to auxiliary circulating seawater system cross-connect
capability? (SP-SW-01)

 (a) In the event of auxiliary circulating pump failure, multiple seawater service pumps may be
used to supply both the seawater service system and auxiliary circulating sea water system heat
exchangers.
o (b) In the event of auxiliary circulating pump failure, multiple seawater service pumps may be
used to supply the seawater service, main circulating seawater, and auxiliary circulating sea
water system heat exchangers.
o (c) In the event of multiple seawater service system pump failures, the auxiliary circulating pump
may be used to supply both the seawater service system and auxiliary circulating sea water
system heat exchangers.
o (d) In the event of multiple seawater service system pump failures, multiple main circulating
pumps may be used to supply the seawater service, main circulating sea water, and auxiliary
circulating sea water system heat exchangers.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

644. (2.2.30.1-10) Referring to illustrated steam plant seawater cooling system drawing, what
statement is true concerning main circulating to auxiliary circulating seawater system cross-connect
capability? (SP-SW-01)

 (a) It is possible to use the auxiliary circulating pump to supplement the main circulating pump(s),
and it is possible to use the main circulating pump(s) to supplement the auxiliary circulating
pump.
o (b) In the event of multiple seawater service system pump failures, multiple main circulating
pumps may be used to supply the seawater service, main circulating sea water, and auxiliary
circulating sea water system heat exchangers.
o (c) While it may be possible to use the main circulating pump(s) to supplement the auxiliary
circulating pump, it is not possible to use the auxiliary circulating pump to supplement the main
circulating pump(s).
o (d) While it may be possible to use the auxiliary circulating pump to supplement the main
circulating pump(s), it is not possible to use the main circulating pump(s) to supplement the
auxiliary circulating pump.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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645. (2.2.30.1-11) Classification society requirements stipulate that main sea water cooling pumps be
furnished with redundancy with either two dedicated pumps or with one dedicated pump and
one standby pump available for other seawater services. Referring to the illustrated motor ship
seawater cooling system drawing, what statement is true concerning meeting these classification
society requirements? (MP-CW-01)

o (a) The standby main seawater cooling pump may also function as a fire pump.
o (b) Both main seawater cooling pumps are dedicated to main engine cooling only.
o (c) The standby main seawater cooling pump may also function as a clean bilge pump.
 (d) The standby main seawater cooling pump may also function as a ballast pump.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

646. (2.2.30.2-1) Referring to the illustrated motor ship fresh water cooling system drawing, what
statement is true concerning the main engine jacket water cooling temperature control system? (MP-
CW-06)

 (a) The main engine jacket water 3-way temperature control valve is setup as a mixer and is used
to control the main engine jacket water inlet header temperature.
o (b) The main engine jacket water 3-way temperature control valve is setup as a diverter and is
used to control the main engine jacket water inlet header temperature.
o (c) The main engine jacket water 3-way temperature control valve is setup as a mixer and is used
to control the main engine jacket water outlet header temperature.
o (d) The main engine jacket water 3-way temperature control valve is setup as a diverter and is
used to control the main engine jacket water outlet header temperature.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

647. (2.2.30.2-2) Referring to the illustrated motor ship fresh water cooling system drawing, what
statement is true concerning the main engine jacket water cooling system heat recovery capability
as associated with generating fresh water? (MP-CW-06)

o (a) The main engine jacket water heater is used as a main engine heat recovery device for use in
generating fresh water at the evaporator.
o (b) The main engine jacket water cooler is used as a main engine heat recovery device for use in
generating fresh water at the evaporator.
o (c) The evaporator standby heater is used as a main engine heat recovery device for use in
generating fresh water at the evaporator.
 (d) The evaporator itself is used as a main engine heat recovery device for use in generating
fresh water at the evaporator.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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648. (2.2.30.2-3) Referring to the illustrated motor ship fresh water cooling system drawing, what
statement is true concerning the jacket water heater? (MP-CW-06)

 (a) The jacket water heater is used only when the engine is idle to keep the engine warm.
o (b) The jacket water heater is used under low engine load conditions to provide supplemental
heat for the evaporator.
o (c) The jacket water heater is used only when the engine is idle for the sole purpose of generating
fresh water at the evaporator.
o (d) The jacket water heater is used under high engine load conditions to dissipate excess engine
heat.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

649. (2.2.30.2-4) Referring to the illustrated motor ship fresh water cooling system drawing, what
statement is true concerning the standby heating coil? Refer to Illustration MP-CW-06

o (a) The standby heating coil is used under high engine load conditions to supplement the jacket
water cooler.
o (b) The standby heating coil is used only when the engine is idle to keep the engine warm.
 (c) The standby heating coil is used under low engine load conditions to provide supplemental
heat for the evaporator.
o (d) The standby heating coil is used under high engine load conditions to dissipate excess engine
heat.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

650. (2.2.30.2-5) For a typical diesel engine jacket water cooling system, what location would be
generally used to introduce water treatment chemicals?

 (a) Jacket water expansion tank.


o (b) Jacket water outlet header
o (c) Jacket water inlet header.
o (d) Jacket water pump vent.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

651. (2.2.30.2-6) Referring to the illustrated motor ship fresh water cooling system drawing, what
statement is true concerning the evaporator? Refer to Illustration MP-CW-06

o (a) The evaporator uses heat recovered from the main engine cooling water as a heat source to
generate fresh water and is piped in series with and after the jacket water cooler.
o (b) The evaporator uses heat recovered from the jacket water cooler seawater as a heat source
to generate fresh water and is piped in series with and prior to the jacket water cooler.
 (c) The evaporator uses heat recovered from the main engine cooling water as a heat source to
generate fresh water and is piped in series with and prior to the jacket water cooler.
o (d) The evaporator uses heat recovered from the main engine cooling water as a heat source to
generate fresh water and is piped in parallel with the jacket water cooler.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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National Maritime Center Assistant Engineers-DDE

652. (2.2.30.2-7) Referring to the illustrated motor ship fresh water cooling system drawing, what
statement is true concerning the turbocharger bypass line associated with the jacket water cooling
system? (MP-CW-06)

o (a) The turbocharger cooling water bypass line with the control orifice proportions the cooling
water flow so that the turbocharger receives a greater flow rate of cooling water as compared
to the main engine cooling water jackets.
o (b) The turbocharger cooling water bypass line with the control orifice works in conjunction with
the deaerator to remove entrained air from the jacket water outlet.
 (c) The turbocharger cooling water bypass line with the control orifice proportions the cooling
water flow so that the turbocharger receives a lesser flow rate of cooling water as compared
to the main engine cooling water jackets.
o (d) The turbocharger cooling water bypass line with the control orifice proportions the cooling
water flow so that the turbocharger receives the same flow rate of cooling water as does the main
engine cooling water jackets.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

653. (2.2.30.2-8) Referring to the illustrated motor ship fresh water cooling system drawing, which set
of cooling water pumps would MOST likely require a priming maintenance system or the use of deep
well pumps? (MP-CW-06)

o (a) The main engine jacket cooling fresh water pumps.


 (b) The main engine piston cooling fresh water pumps.
o (c) The main engine injector cooling fresh water pumps.
o (d) The ship's service diesel generator fresh water cooling pumps.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

654. (2.2.30.2-9) Referring to the illustrated motor ship fresh water cooling system drawing, which
cooling system has cooling water passing through passages within components that are
continuously undergoing motion? (MP-CW-06)

o (a) The main engine jacket water cooling system.


o (b) The SSDG cooling water systems
 (c) The main engine piston cooling water system.
o (d) The main engine injector cooling water system.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

655. (2.2.30.2-10) Referring to the illustrated motor ship fresh water cooling system drawing, which
cooling system tanks are MOST likely to have oil separation capability? (MP-CW-06)

o (a) SSDG fresh water expansion tank and main engine jacket water cooling expansion tank.
 (b) Injector cooling water tank and piston cooling water drain tank.
o (c) Piston cooling water drain tank and main engine jacket water cooling expansion tank.
o (d) Injector cooling water tank and main engine jacket water cooling expansion tank.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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656. (2.2.29.1-1) What type of bottom construction is used on most commercial deep-draft vessels
with the exception of tankers?

o (a) Triple bottom construction


o (b) Single bottom construction
o (c) Double hull construction
 (d) Double bottom construction

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

657. (2.2.29.1-2) What is the name of an internal passage of watertight construction fitted along the
centerline between the double-bottoms of some ships, usually from the forepeak to the forward
machinery space bulkhead, used to carry pipe work along the length of the ship to the various holds
or tanks?

 (a) Duct keel


o (b) Vertical keel
o (c) Bar keel
o (d) Pipe keel

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

658. (2.2.29.1-3) What statement is true concerning the keel arrangements of a double-bottomed
ship?

o (a) A ship with an "duct keel" has a single continuous transverse girder positioned along the
centerline and perpendicular to the flat plate keel, and a ship with a "I-section keel" has two
continuous transverse girders spaced apart and positioned on either side of the centerline and
perpendicular to the flat plate keel.
o (b) A ship with an "I-section keel" has a single continuous transverse girder positioned along the
centerline and perpendicular to the flat plate keel, and a ship with a "duct keel" has two
continuous transverse girders spaced apart and positioned on either side of the centerline and
perpendicular to the flat plate keel.
o (c) A ship with an "duct keel" has a single continuous longitudinal girder positioned along the
centerline and perpendicular to the flat plate keel, and a ship with a "I-section keel" has two
continuous longitudinal girders spaced apart and positioned on either side of the centerline and
perpendicular to the flat plate keel.
 (d) A ship with an "I-section keel" has a single continuous longitudinal girder positioned along the
centerline and perpendicular to the flat plate keel, and a ship with a "duct keel" has two
continuous longitudinal girders spaced apart and positioned on either side of the centerline and
perpendicular to the flat plate keel.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

659. (2.2.29.1-4) For a transverse-framed ship of double-bottom construction, what structural


members supports the inner bottom shell (or tank-tops)?

o (a) Longitudinally arranged continuous vertical floors.


o (b) Transversely arranged continuous vertical girders.
o (c) Longitudinally arranged continuous vertical girders.
 (d) Transversely arranged continuous vertical floors.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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660. (2.2.29.1-5) What is usually contained within the double-bottom tanks associated with the
machinery spaces?

o (a) Machinery space double-bottom tanks generally contain liquid cargo.


o (b) Machinery space double-bottom tanks generally are kept dry and function as void spaces.
 (c) Machinery space double-bottom tanks generally contain fuel oil, lubricating oil, or fresh water.
o (d) Machinery space double-bottom tanks generally contain seawater ballast.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

661. (2.2.29.1-6) How is access to the double-bottom tanks usually provided for inspection, cleaning,
maintenance, and repairs of tank interiors?

o (a) Gasketed and bolted manholes associated with vertical tank boundaries
 (b) Gasketed and bolted manholes associated with the inner plating (tank tops).
o (c) Hinged hatches associated with the inner plating (tank tops).
o (d) Gasketed and bolted manholes associated with the outer plating.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

662. (2.2.29.1-7) While in dry-dock, what means are provided for completely draining the double
bottom tanks in preparation for inspection?

o (a) Sounding tubes.


o (b) Gasketed and bolted manholes.
o (c) Stripping eductor connections.
 (d) Docking plugs.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

663. (2.2.29.1-8) As it applies to a transverse-framed ship with double-bottom construction, what does
the term "floor" represent?

o (a) Floors are vertical longitudinal members supporting the inner-bottoms.


o (b) Floors are the actual inner-bottom tank tops.
o (c) Floors are the actual outer-bottom shell plating.
 (d) Floors are vertical transverse members supporting the inner-bottoms.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

664. (2.2.29.1-9) What is the name of the opening in a bilge margin bracket that reduces the weight of
the bracket without materially reducing its strength?

 (a) Lightening holes


o (b) Manholes
o (c) Air holes
o (d) Drain holes

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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665. (2.2.29.2-1) What statement concerning the orientation and welds of adjoining shell plates is
true?

 (a) The shell plates (or strakes) run horizontally in a fore and aft direction and any horizontal
welds are called "seams" and any vertical welds are called "butts".
o (b) The shell plates (or strakes) run vertically in a gunwales to keel direction and any horizontal
welds are called "butts" and any vertical welds are called "seams".
o (c) The shell plates (or strakes) run horizontally in a fore and aft direction and any horizontal
welds are called "butts" and any vertical welds are called "seams".
o (d) The shell plates (or strakes) run vertically in a gunwales to keel direction and any horizontal
welds are called "seams" and any vertical welds are called "butts".

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

666. (2.2.29.2-2) Even though bilge keels do provide some improvement in longitudinal strength at the
bilge radius, what is the primary purpose of the bilge keels?

o (a) Dampen the tendency the ship has to heave.


o (b) Dampen the tendency the ship has to yaw.
 (c) Dampen the tendency the ship has to roll.
o (d) Dampen the tendency the ship has to pitch.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

667. (2.2.29.2-3) In terms of ship construction framing methods, which statement is true concerning
the transverse framing system?

o (a) With transverse framing, transverse frames are horizontal and intercostal between vertical
girders which are continuous.
o (b) With transverse framing, transverse frames are horizontal and continuous and vertical
stiffeners are intercostal between frames.
o (c) With transverse framing, transverse frames are vertical and intercostal between longitudinal
girders which are horizontal and continuous.
 (d) With transverse framing, transverse frames are vertical and continuous and longitudinal
stiffeners are horizontal and intercostal between frames.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

668. (2.2.29.2-4) In terms of ship construction framing methods, what statement is true concerning
the longitudinal framing system?

 (a) With longitudinal framing, longitudinal frames are horizontal and continuous and vertical
stiffeners are intercostal between frames.
o (b) With longitudinal framing, longitudinal frames are horizontal and intercostal between vertical
girders which are continuous.
o (c) With longitudinal framing, longitudinal frames are vertical and continuous and horizontal
stiffeners are intercostal between frames.
o (d) With longitudinal framing, longitudinal frames are vertical and intercostal
between horizontal girders which are continuous.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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669. (2.2.29.2-5) What statement is true concerning the plating meeting at the gunwales of a ship?

o (a) The strakes of deck plating nearest to the sides are termed "sheerstrakes" and the side
plating nearest to the deck are termed "stringer plates". The sheerstrakes and stringer plates
meet at the gunwales.
 (b) The strakes of side plating nearest to the deck are termed "sheerstrakes" and the deck plating
nearest to the side are termed "stringer plates". The sheerstrakes and stringer plates meet at the
gunwales.
o (c) The strakes of side plating nearest to the deck and the deck plating nearest to the side are
both termed "sheerstrakes". These sheerstrakes meet at the gunwales.
o (d) The strakes of side plating nearest to the deck and the deck plating nearest to the side are
both termed "stringer plates". These stringer plates meet at the gunwales.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

670. (2.2.29.2-6) With a ship built with a transverse framing system, by what means are double-bottom
floors and the transverse frames joined?

 (a) By way of bilge margin brackets.


o (b) By way of bilge margin girders.
o (c) By way of bilge margin gussets.
o (d) By way of bilge margin stiffeners.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

671. (2.2.29.2-7) For a typical transverse-framed deep-draft commercial vessel, what is the normal
arrangement for the support of decks?

o (a) Deck beams are transversely arranged and deck girders are longitudinally arranged and the
deck beams are continuous with the exception of hatches and other openings. The deck girders
are intercostal.
 (b) Deck beams are transversely arranged and deck girders are longitudinally arranged and both
are continuous with the exception of hatches and other openings.
o (c) Deck beams are transversely arranged and deck girders are longitudinally arranged and the
deck girders are continuous with the exception of hatches and other openings. The deck beams
are intercostal.
o (d) Deck beams are longitudinally arranged and deck girders are transversely arranged and both
are continuous with the exception of hatches and other openings.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

672. (2.2.29.3-1) What is another name for the "collision" bulkhead?

 (a) Fore peak bulkhead


o (b) Forward engine room bulkhead
o (c) After engine room bulkhead
o (d) After peak bulkhead

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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673. (2.2.29.3-2) What term is used to represent the bulkhead type used for tank boundary bulkheads?

o (a) Watertight bulkheads


 (b) Oil tight bulkheads
o (c) Airtight bulkheads
o (d) Non-watertight bulkheads

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

674. (2.2.29.3-3) Which of the following listed bulkhead types has the most rigorous standard for
testing purposes?

o (a) Watertight bulkheads


 (b) Oil tight bulkheads
o (c) Non-watertight bulkheads
o (d) Wash bulkheads

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

675. (2.2.29.3-4) What statement is true concerning the construction of watertight bulkheads?

 (a) The strakes of the bulkhead are horizontal and the stiffeners are vertical and the bulkhead
must have increasingly greater strength towards the base.
o (b) The strakes of the bulkhead are horizontal and the stiffeners are vertical and the bulkhead
must have increasingly greater strength towards the top.
o (c) The strakes of the bulkhead are vertical and the stiffeners are horizontal and the bulkhead
must have increasingly greater strength towards the top.
o (d) The strakes of the bulkhead are vertical and the stiffeners are horizontal and the bulkhead
must have increasingly greater strength towards the base.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

676. (2.2.29.3-5) What is the name of the structural member that is designed to transfer load from one
deck to another?

o (a) Girders
o (b) Stiffeners
 (c) Pillars
o (d) Beams

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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677. (2.2.29.3-6) What statement is true concerning watertight doors fitted below the waterline of a
vessel?

o (a) Watertight doors below the waterline may be of the vertical or horizontal sliding type or the
swinging hinged type.
 (b) Watertight doors below the waterline may be either of the vertical or horizontal sliding type.
o (c) Watertight doors below the waterline may be either of the vertical sliding type or the swinging
hinged type.
o (d) Watertight doors below the waterline may be either of the horizontal sliding type or the
swinging hinged type.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

678. (2.2.29.4-1) What means of emergency escape from a shaft tunnel are provided?

 (a) Two means of escape are provided, one which is a sliding watertight door at the forward end
of the tunnel and the other a ladder and watertight trunk at the aft end of the tunnel.
o (b) Only one means of escape is provided which is a sliding watertight door at the aft end of the
tunnel.
o (c) Only one means of escape is provided which is a sliding watertight door at the forward end of
the tunnel.
o (d) Two means of escape are provided, one which is a sliding watertight door at the aft end of the
tunnel and the other a ladder and watertight trunk at the forward end of the tunnel.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

679. (2.2.29.4-2) What statement is true concerning the forward and after bulkheads of a shaft tunnel?

o (a) The shaft tunnel aft bulkhead is the aft peak bulkhead which is watertight, and the shaft tunnel
forward bulkhead is the machinery space aft bulkhead which is non-watertight.
o (b) The shaft tunnel aft bulkhead is the aft peak bulkhead, the shaft tunnel forward bulkhead is
the machinery space aft bulkhead, and both bulkheads are non-watertight.
o (c) The shaft tunnel aft bulkhead is the aft peak bulkhead which is non-watertight, and the shaft
tunnel forward bulkhead is the machinery space aft bulkhead which is watertight.
 (d) The shaft tunnel aft bulkhead is the aft peak bulkhead, the shaft tunnel forward bulkhead is
the machinery space aft bulkhead, and both bulkheads are watertight.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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680. (2.2.29.4-3) What is the arrangement of a shaft tunnel as fitted on a single-screw vessel?

o (a) The shaft tunnel is situated on the centerline of the vessel with walkways positioned on either
side of the shaft and any piping runs carried underneath the two walkways.
o (b) The shaft tunnel is offset from centerline of the vessel with a walkway positioned on one side
of the shaft any piping runs carried overhead above the shaft.
 (c) The shaft tunnel is offset from centerline of the vessel with a walkway positioned on one side
of the shaft any piping runs carried underneath the walkway.
o (d) The shaft tunnel is situated on the centerline of the vessel with walkways positioned on either
side of the shaft and any piping runs carried overhead above the shaft.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

681. (2.2.29.4-4) What is the general arrangement for bilge wells in the machinery spaces?

o (a) Generally a single bilge well is provided on the centerline forward since a vessel is typically
trimmed by the bow.
o (b) Generally a single bilge well is provided on the centerline aft since a vessel is typically
trimmed by the stern.
 (c) Generally a bilge wells are provided in the port and starboard aft corners since a vessel is
typically trimmed by the stern and to facilitate pump when the ship has a list.
o (d) Generally a bilge wells are provided in the port and starboard forward corners since a vessel
is typically trimmed by the bow and to facilitate pump when the ship has a list.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

682. (2.2.29.4-5) What provisions are generally made to reduce the noise and vibration emanating
from the propulsion machinery installation, especially on passenger ships?

o (a) The propulsion machinery is resiliently mounted to machinery beds integral to the double-
bottom structure, and power is transmitted without use of flexible couplings.
o (b) The propulsion machinery is rigidly bolted to machinery beds integral to the double-bottom
structure, and power is transmitted with use of flexible couplings.
o (c) The propulsion machinery is rigidly bolted to machinery beds integral to the double-bottom
structure, and power is transmitted without use of flexible couplings.
 (d) The propulsion machinery is resiliently mounted to machinery beds integral to the double-
bottom structure, and power is transmitted with use of flexible couplings.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

683. (2.2.29.4-6) What is the name associated with the dividing bulkheads separating the
accommodation spaces from the engine room of a ship?

 (a) Engine casing


o (b) Accommodation casing
o (c) Engine flat
o (d) Engine trunk

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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684. (2.2.29.4-7) What is the name associated with the surround and support for the various uptakes
to ensure the dispersion of exhaust gases to the atmosphere and away from the ship?

o (a) Uptakes
o (b) Flue
 (c) Funnel
o (d) Stack

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

685. (2.2.29.4-7) What is the name associated with a minor section of interior deck within a machinery
space serving as a seat or bed for a particular piece or set of machinery?

 (a) Flat or platform


o (b) Floor
o (c) Tween deck
o (d) Bulwark

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

686. (2.2.29.5-1) When making welding repairs to a ship's structural member, why is it important to
avoid weld faults?

o (a) The poor quality weld can lead to points of stress relief, which in addition to a weak joint, may
form the starting points for cracks.
o (b) The poor quality weld can lead to points of stress concentration, which in addition to a weak
joint, may cause plate distortion.
 (c) The poor quality weld can lead to points of stress concentration, which in addition to a weak
joint, may form the starting points for cracks.
o (d) The poor quality weld can lead to points of stress relief, which in addition to a weak joint, may
cause plate distortion.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

687. (2.2.29.5-2) When accomplishing welding repairs with an electric arc welding process, what is
generally the cause of slag inclusion when welding a single-V butt joint?

o (a) The weld was performed with too high a current setting.
o (b) The weld was performed with an improper rod angle.
 (c) The weld was performed with inadequate cleaning between passes.
o (d) The weld was performed with too low a current setting.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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National Maritime Center Assistant Engineers-DDE

688. (2.2.29.5-3) When accomplishing welding repairs using the electric arc welding process, what
statement is true concerning the characteristics of a good quality weld when welding a single-V butt
joint?

o (a) There should be no overlap, but there should be undercut at the toe of the weld.
o (b) There should be both overlap and undercut at the toe of the weld.
 (c) There should be no overlap and no undercut at the toe of the weld.
o (d) There should be overlap, but there should be no undercut at the toe of the weld.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

689. (2.2.29.5-4) When accomplishing welding repairs using the electric arc welding process, what
statement is true concerning the characteristics of a good quality weld when welding a single-V butt
joint?

o (a) There should be no reinforcement or build-up of material on the top surface, but there should
be root penetration along the bottom surface.
o (b) There should be a slight reinforcement or build-up of material on the top surface, but there
should be no root penetration along the bottom surface.
o (c) There should be a no reinforcement or build-up of material on the top surface, and there
should be no root penetration along the bottom surface.
 (d) There should be a slight reinforcement or build-up of material on the top surface, and there
should be root penetration along the bottom surface.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

690. (2.2.29.5-5) When accomplishing welding repairs using the electric arc welding process, what
statement is true concerning the characteristics of a good quality weld when welding a single-V butt
joint?

o (a) There should be no penetration at the sides of the weld, and there should be no penetration
between passes.
o (b) There should be no penetration at the sides of the weld, but there should be penetration
between passes.
 (c) There should be penetration at the sides of the weld, and there should be penetration between
passes.
o (d) There should be penetration at the sides of the weld, but there should be no penetration
between passes.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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691. (2.2.29.5-6) Before welding repairs are performed to repair a crack, what is the correct procedure
for performing an emergency crack stopper?

o (a) A 3/8-inch hole should be drilled at one end of the crack only, making sure that none of the
crack extends beyond the hole.
 (b) A 3/8-inch hole should be drilled at each end of the crack, making sure that none of the crack
extends beyond the two holes.
o (c) A 3/8-inch hole should be drilled at one end of the crack only, making sure that approximately
1/2-inch of the crack extends beyond the hole.
o (d) A 3/8-inch hole should be drilled at each end of the crack, making sure that 1/2-inch of the
crack extends beyond the two holes.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

692. (2.2.29.5-7) Before welding repairs are performed to repair a crack, after drilling a 3/8-inch hole at
each end of the crack, what is the correct procedure for welding overlays as an emergency crack
stopper?

 (a) A welded overlay of trapezoidal shape shall be deposited perpendicularly at each end of the
crack no closer than 1/2-inch from each drilled hole.
o (b) A welded overlay of trapezoidal shape shall be deposited perpendicularly at one end of the
crack only, no closer than 1/2-inch from the drilled hole.
o (c) A welded overlay of trapezoidal shape shall be deposited perpendicularly at each end of the
crack right up against each drilled hole.
o (d) A welded overlay of trapezoidal shape shall be deposited perpendicularly at one end of the
crack only, right up against the drilled hole.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

693. (2.2.29.5-8) In order to minimize distortion while performing the electric arc welding process while
joining two plates with a butt weld, besides using restraint procedures, what statement is true?

o (a) The greater the number of welding passes the less the distortion, and welding on only one
side of a joint with a single-V will minimize distortion.
o (b) The greater the number the welding passes the less the distortion, and symmetrical welding
on either side of a joint with a double-V will minimize distortion.
 (c) The fewer the number of welding passes the less the distortion, and symmetrical welding on
either side of a joint with a double-V will minimize distortion.
o (d) The fewer the number of welding passes the less the distortion, and welding on only one side
of a joint with a single-V will minimize distortion.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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694. (2.2.29.5-9) For long welding runs, either the "back-step" or the "skip" welding technique is often
used. For what purpose are these techniques utilized?

o (a) These techniques are used to minimize internal stresses.


 (b) These techniques are used to help minimize distortion.
o (c) These techniques are used to increase weld strength.
o (d) These techniques are used to maximize distortion.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

695. (2.2.29.5-10) If a welding fabrication becomes unacceptably distorted, what means of distortion
correction should be avoided?

o (a) Complete splitting of the joint followed by rewelding.


o (b) Gouging or grooving of the joint followed by rewelding.
 (c) Employing mechanical straightening techniques.
o (d) Strategic application of spot heating with an acetylene torch.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

696. (2.2.22.1.1-1) In accordance with international MARPOL Annex I regulations and federal
regulations under 33CFR Subchapter O, for vessels of 400 gross tons and above which are all
required to carry an oily-water separator to process bilge slops, what is the design criteria in terms of
maximum oil content of the overboard discharge?

o (a) 3 parts per million


 (b) 15 parts per million
o (c) 100 parts per million
o (d) 150 parts per million

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

697. (2.2.22.1.1-2) In accordance with federal regulations under 33CFR Subchapter O, for U.S non-
oceangoing ships, what is the required means for preventing pollution by oil as it pertains to handling
bilge slops?

 (a) The non-oceangoing ship is required to retain onboard all oily mixtures either in the bilges or
in a slops tank, and it is required to be equipped to discharge these mixtures to a reception
facility.
o (b) The non-oceangoing ship is required to be equipped with an approved 15 parts per million
oily-water separator, but it is NOT required to have a high oil-content bilge alarm or a means to
automatically stop the oily-water discharge when the oil content exceeds 15 ppm.
o (c) The non-oceangoing ship is required to retain onboard all oily mixtures in a slops tank, and it
is required to be equipped to discharge these mixtures to a reception facility.
o (d) The non-oceangoing ship is required to be equipped with an approved 15 parts per million
oily-water separator, AND it is required to have a high oil-content bilge alarm and a means to
automatically stop the oily-water discharge when the oil content exceeds 15 ppm.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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698. (2.2.22.1.1-3) In accordance with federal regulations under 33CFR Subchapter O, for oceangoing
ships of less than 400 gross tons, what is the required means for preventing pollution by oil as it
pertains to handling bilge slops?

o (a) The oceangoing ship of less than 400 gross tons is required to be equipped with an approved
15 parts per million oily-water separator, but it is NOT required to have a high oil-content bilge
alarm or a means to automatically stop the oily-water discharge when the oil content exceeds 15
ppm.
o (b) The oceangoing ship of less than 400 gross tons is required to be equipped with an approved
15 parts per million oily-water separator, AND it is required to have a high oil-content bilge
alarm and a means to automatically stop the oily-water discharge when the oil content exceeds
15 ppm.
 (c) The oceangoing ship of less than 400 gross tons is EITHER required to retain onboard all oily
mixtures either in the bilges or in a slops tank and required to be equipped to discharge these
mixtures to a reception facility, OR the ship is required to be equipped with an approved oily-
water separator.
o (d) The oceangoing ship of less than 400 gross tons is required to retain onboard all oily mixtures
in a slops tank, and it is required to be equipped to discharge these mixtures to a reception
facility.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

699. (2.2.22.1.1-4) In accordance with international MARPOL Annex I regulations and federal
regulations under 33CFR Subchapter O, for oceangoing ships of 400 gross tons and above but less
than 10,000 gross tons, what is the required means for preventing pollution by oil as it pertains to
handling bilge slops?

o (a) The oceangoing ship of 400 gross tons and above but less than 10,000 gross tons is required
to retain onboard all oily mixtures in a slops tank, and it is required to be equipped to discharge
these mixtures to a reception facility.
o (b) The oceangoing ship of 400 gross tons and above but less than 10,000 gross tons is required
to be equipped with an approved 15 parts per million oily-water separator, AND it is required to
have a high oil-content bilge alarm and a means to automatically stop the oily-water discharge
when the oil content exceeds 15 ppm.
o (c) The oceangoing ship of 400 gross tons and above but less than 10,000 gross tons is EITHER
required to retain onboard all oily mixtures either in the bilges or in a slops tank and required to
be equipped to discharge these mixtures to a reception facility, OR the ship is required to be
equipped with an approved oily-water separator.
 (d) The oceangoing ship of 400 gross tons and above but less than 10,000 gross tons is required
to be equipped with an approved 15 parts per million oily-water separator, but it is NOT required
to have a high oil-content bilge alarm or a means to automatically stop the oily-water discharge
when the oil content exceeds 15 ppm.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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700. (2.2.22.1.1-5) In accordance with international MARPOL Annex I regulations and federal
regulations under 33CFR Subchapter O, for oceangoing ships of 10,000 gross tons and above, what
is the required means for preventing pollution by oil as it pertains to handling bilge slops?

o (a) The oceangoing ship of 10,000 gross tons and above is required to be equipped with an
approved 15 parts per million oily-water separator, but it is NOT required to have a high oil-
content bilge alarm or a means to automatically stop the oily-water discharge when the oil content
exceeds 15 ppm.
o (b) The oceangoing ship of 10,000 gross tons and above is required to retain onboard all oily
mixtures in a slops tank, and it is required to be equipped to discharge these mixtures to a
reception facility.
o (c) The oceangoing ship of 10,000 gross tons and above is EITHER required to retain onboard all
oily mixtures either in the bilges or in a slops tank and required to be equipped to discharge these
mixtures to a reception facility, OR the ship is required to be equipped with an approved oily-
water separator.
 (d) The oceangoing ship of 10,000 gross tons and above is required to be equipped with an
approved 15 parts per million oily-water separator, AND it is required to have a high oil-content
bilge alarm and a means to automatically stop the oily-water discharge when the oil content
exceeds 15 ppm.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

701. (2.2.22.1.1-6) In what part of 33CFR can be found the recordkeeping requirements for specific
machinery space operations onboard all ships of 400 gross tons or above other than a tanker that
must be entered into an Oil Record Book?

o (a) 33CFR Part 151.15


 (b) 33CFR Part 151.25
o (c) 33CFR Part 151.55
o (d) 33CFR Part 151.2070

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

702. (2.2.22.1.1-7) In accordance with the international MARPOL Annex I regulations and the federal
regulations in 33CFR Subchapter O, specific machinery space operations onboard all ships of 400
gross tons or above other than a tanker must be documented in an Oil Record Book. This includes
disposal of oil residues and overboard discharge of bilge water that has accumulated in machinery
spaces, as well as other operations. Who is responsible for signing the Oil Record Book entry for the
specific operation?

o (a) The Master of the vessel


 (b) The officer in charge of the operation
o (c) The Chief Engineer
o (d) The First Assistant Engineer

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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703. (2.2.22.1.1-8) In accordance with the international MARPOL Annex I regulations and the federal
regulations in 33CFR Subchapter O, specific machinery space operations onboard all ships of 400
gross tons or above other than a tanker must be documented in an Oil Record Book. Which of the
listed machinery space operations must be documented in the Oil Record Book?

o (a) Discharge overboard of bilge water that has accumulated in the dry cargo holds.
o (b) Taking on ballast water into double-bottom sea water ballast tanks.
o (c) Discharge of ballast from double-bottom sea water ballast tanks.
 (d) Discharge of waste oil or sludge to a reception facility.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

704. (2.2.22.1.1-9) In accordance with the federal regulations in 33CFR Subchapter O, continuing
violations of The Federal Water Pollution Control Act and international MARPOL
regulations may constitute separate violations subject to civil penalties. Which of the following
statements is true?

o (a) Each week of a continuing violation constitutes a separate violation.


o (b) Each month of a continuing violation constitutes a separate violation.
o (c) Each hour of a continuing violation constitutes a separate violation.
 (d) Each day of a continuing violation constitutes a separate violation.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

705. (2.2.22.1.1-10) In accordance with the federal regulation in 33CFR Subchapter O, which
discharge of oil or oily mixture to sea is permissible?

 (a) When the discharge is necessary to for the purpose of securing the safety of a ship or saving
life at sea.
o (b) When the oil content of the effluent without dilution is less than 100 parts per million.
o (c) When the oil or oily mixture originates from tanker cargo pump room bilges.
o (d) When the oil or oily mixture is mixed with tanker cargo residues.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

706. (2.2.22.1.3-1) In accordance with international MARPOL Annex V regulations and federal
regulations under 33CFR Subchapter O, the discharge of what category of garbage is prohibited in
any waters?

o (a) Ground paper products, rags, glass, metal, bottles, and crockery.
o (b) Unground paper products, rags, glass, metal, bottles, and crockery.
o (c) Floating dunnage, lining, or packing material.
 (d) Plastic or garbage mixed with plastic.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

266 August 2014


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National Maritime Center Assistant Engineers-DDE

707. (2.2.22.1.3-2) In accordance with international MARPOL Annex V regulations and federal
regulations under 33CFR Subchapter O, the prohibition of the discharge of all garbage applies to a
vessel operating within how many nautical miles of the nearest land?

 (a) 3 nautical miles


o (b) 12 nautical miles
o (c) 25 nautical miles
o (d) 200 nautical miles

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

708. (2.2.22.1.3-3) In accordance with international MARPOL Annex V regulations and federal
regulations under 33CFR Subchapter O, the prohibition of the discharge of dunnage, lining, and
packing materials that float applies to a vessel operating within how many nautical miles of the
nearest land?

o (a) 3 nautical miles


o (b) 12 nautical miles
 (c) 25 nautical miles
o (d) 200 nautical miles

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

709. (2.2.22.1.3-4) In accordance with international MARPOL Annex V regulations and federal
regulations under 33CFR Subchapter O, the prohibition of the discharge of unground paper
products, rags, glass, metal, bottles, and crockery applies to a vessel operating within how many
nautical miles of the nearest land?

o (a) 3 nautical miles


 (b) 12 nautical miles
o (c) 25 nautical miles
o (d) 200 nautical miles

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

710. (2.2.22.1.3-5) In accordance with international MARPOL Annex V regulations and federal
regulations under 33CFR Subchapter O, the prohibition of the discharge of ground paper products,
rags, glass, metal, bottles, and crockery applies to a vessel operating within how many nautical
miles of the nearest land?

 (a) 3 nautical miles


o (b) 12 nautical miles
o (c) 25 nautical miles
o (d) 200 nautical miles

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

267 August 2014


United States Coast Guard General Subjects
National Maritime Center Assistant Engineers-DDE

711. (2.2.22.1.3-7) In accordance with international MARPOL Annex V regulations and federal
regulations under 33CFR Subchapter O, the discharge or disposal of garbage on vessels of 400
gross tons and above engaged in commerce requires recordkeeping. Which of the following
discharge or disposal operations requires a detailed description of the contents of the garbage?

o (a) Incineration on the ship.


 (b) Discharge overboard to sea.
o (c) Discharge to a reception facility.
o (d) Discharge to another ship.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

712. (2.2.22.1.2-1) Under the federal regulations of 33CFR Subchapter O, what is the definition of the
term "sewage"?

o (a) Victual or food wastes collected from galley sinks.


o (b) Various deck drains situated within the vessel's superstructure.
 (c) Human body wastes and the wastes from toilets and other receptacles intended to receive or
retain body waste.
o (d) Drains collected from sinks and showers from the various heads onboard ship.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

713. (2.2.22.1.2-2) Under the federal regulations of 33CFR Subchapter O, what is the definition of a
"Type I Marine Sanitation Device"?

o (a) A device that produces a fecal coliform bacteria count not greater than 200 per 100 milliliters
and suspended solids not greater than 150 milligrams per liter.
o (b) A device that is designed to prevent the overboard discharge of treated or untreated sewage
or any waste derived from sewage.
 (c) A device that produces a fecal coliform bacteria count not greater than 1,000 per 100 milliliters
and no visible floating solids.
o (d) A device that produces a fecal coliform bacteria count not greater than 200 per 100 milliliters
and no visible floating solids.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

714. (2.2.22.1.2-3) Under the federal regulations of 33CFR Subchapter O, what is the definition of a
"Type II Marine Sanitation Device"?

o (a) A device that produces a fecal coliform bacteria count not greater than 1,000 per 100 milliliters
and no visible floating solids.
o (b) A device that produces a fecal coliform bacteria count not greater than 200 per 100 milliliters
and no visible floating solids.
o (c) A device that is designed to prevent the overboard discharge of treated or untreated sewage
or any waste derived from sewage.
 (d) A device that produces a fecal coliform bacteria count not greater than 200 per 100 milliliters
and suspended solids not greater than 150 milligrams per liter.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

268 August 2014


United States Coast Guard General Subjects
National Maritime Center Assistant Engineers-DDE

715. (2.2.22.1.2-4) Under the federal regulations of 33CFR Subchapter O, what is the definition of a
"Type III Marine Sanitation Device"?

o (a) A device that produces a fecal coliform bacteria count not greater than 200 per 100 milliliters
and no visible floating solids.
 (b) A device that is designed to prevent the overboard discharge of treated or untreated sewage
or any waste derived from sewage.
o (c) A device that produces a fecal coliform bacteria count not greater than 200 per 100 milliliters
and suspended solids not greater than 150 milligrams per liter.
o (d) A device that produces a fecal coliform bacteria count not greater than 1,000 per 100 milliliters
and no visible floating solids.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

716. (2.2.22.1.2-5) Under the federal regulations of 33CFR Subchapter O, if a vessel equipped with a
Type III Marine Sanitation Device enters a body of water where the discharge of untreated sewage is
prohibited, which of the following methods of securing the device to prevent the discharge of sewage
is UNACCEPTABLE?

o (a) Using a non-releasable wire-tire to hold each valve leading to an overboard discharge in the
closed position.
o (b) Closing each valve leading to an overboard discharge and removing the handle.
 (c) Closing and tagging each valve leading to an overboard discharge.
o (d) Padlocking each valve leading to an overboard discharge in the closed position.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

717. (2.2.22.1.2-6) Under the federal regulations of 33CFR Subchapter O, if a vessel equipped with a
Type II Marine Sanitation Device enters a body of water where the discharge of treated or untreated
sewage is prohibited, which of the following methods of securing the device to prevent the discharge
of sewage is ACCEPTABLE if it is impractical to close the seacock and prevent its opening?

o (a) Making an announcement over the public address system advising all concerned that the
vessel is entering a "no discharge zone".
o (b) Placing a warning sign on the door to the space enclosing the toilets advising all concerned
that the vessel is entering a "no discharge zone".
 (c) Locking the door to the space enclosing the toilets with a padlock or door handle key lock to
prevent entry when the vessel is entering a "no discharge zone".
o (d) Placing of tape forming an "X" over toilet and urinal bowls to convey to all concerned that the
vessel is entering a "no discharge zone".

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

269 August 2014


United States Coast Guard General Subjects
National Maritime Center Assistant Engineers-DDE

718. (2.2.22.1.2-7) Under the international MARPOL regulations under Annex IV, if the ship is less
than 3 nautical miles from the nearest land, what statement is true?

o (a) The discharge of comminuted sewage is prohibited, but the discharge of disinfected sewage is
permitted.
o (b) The discharge of comminuted and disinfected sewage is permitted.
o (c) The discharge of disinfected sewage is prohibited, but the discharge of comminuted sewage is
permitted.
 (d) The discharge of any sewage, treated or untreated, is prohibited.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

719. (2.2.22.1.2-8) Under the international MARPOL regulations under Annex IV, if the ship is more
than 3, but less than 12 nautical miles from the nearest land, what statement is true?

 (a) The discharge of comminuted and disinfected sewage is permitted.


o (b) The discharge of disinfected sewage is prohibited, but the discharge of comminuted sewage is
permitted.
o (c) The discharge of comminuted sewage is prohibited, but the discharge of disinfected sewage is
permitted.
o (d) The discharge of any sewage, treated or untreated, is prohibited.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

720. (2.2.22.1.2-9) Under the international MARPOL regulations under Annex IV, if the ship is more
than 12 nautical miles from the nearest land, what statement is true?

o (a) The discharge of comminuted and disinfected sewage is prohibited.


 (b) The discharge of any sewage, treated or untreated, is permitted.
o (c) The discharge of comminuted sewage is prohibited, but the discharge of disinfected sewage is
permitted.
o (d) The discharge of disinfected sewage is prohibited, but the discharge of comminuted sewage is
permitted.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

721. (2.2.22.1.4-1) Which of the following fire extinguishing agents which may be found aboard ship is
designated as an ozone-depleting substance as defined in the Montreal Protocol on Substances that
Deplete the Ozone Layer and is controlled as a result?

o (a) CO2
 (b) Halon 1301
o (c) Cartridge-operated dry chemical
o (d) Cartridge-operated dry powder

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

270 August 2014


United States Coast Guard General Subjects
National Maritime Center Assistant Engineers-DDE

722. (2.2.22.1.4-2) Which of the following refrigerants which may be found aboard ship is designated
as an ozone-depleting substance as defined in the Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete
the Ozone Layer and is controlled as a result?

 (a) R-12
o (b) R-134a
o (c) R-404A
o (d) R-410A

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

723. (2.2.22.1.4-3) In accordance with the international MARPOL Annex VI regulations, the nitrous
oxide (NOx) emissions associated with certain diesel engines are required to operate under certain
acceptable limits. To which of the listed engine applications would the NO x emission regulations
apply?

 (a) Diesel engines with a power output of more than 130kW.


o (b) Diesel engines with a power output not greater than 130kW.
o (c) Diesel engines powering emergency diesel-generator sets.
o (d) Diesel engines powering lifeboats.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

724. (2.2.22.1.4-4) In accordance with the international MARPOL Annex VI regulations, the sulphur
content of any fuel oil used on board ships shall not exceed what percentage by weight?

o (a) 1.5%
o (b) 3.0%
 (c) 4.5%
o (d) 6.0%

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

725. (2.2.22.1.4-5) In accordance with the international MARPOL Annex VI regulations, in the absence
of an exhaust gas cleaning system, what is the maximum allowable sulphur content for a fuel to be
burned while the ship is operating in an emissions control area?

 (a) 1.5%
o (b) 3.0%
o (c) 4.5%
o (d) 6.0%

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

271 August 2014


United States Coast Guard General Subjects
National Maritime Center Assistant Engineers-DDE

726. (2.2.22.1.6-7) In accordance with the international MARPOL Annex VI regulations, which of the
listed substances is prohibited from being burned in a shipboard incinerator?

 (a) Polychlorinated biphenyls (PCBs)


o (b) Oil residue sludges
o (c) Unground garbage
o (d) Sewage waste sludges

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

727. (2.2.22.1.6-8) In accordance with the international MARPOL Annex VI regulations, which of the
listed substances is prohibited from being burned in a shipboard incinerator?

o (a) Refined petroleum products containing detergent additives.


o (b) Garbage containing trace amounts of heavy metals.
o (c) Oil residue and sewage waste sludges.
 (d) Refined petroleum products containing halogen compounds.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

728. (2.2.22.1.6-9) In accordance with the international MARPOL AnnexVI regulations, what is the
minimum allowable flue gas outlet temperature for a continuous-fed shipboard incinerator while in
operation?

o
o (a) 450 C
o
o (b) 650 F
o
 (c) 850 F
o
o (d) 1050 F

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

729. (2.2.22.1.6-10) In accordance with the international MARPOL Annex VI regulations, what is a
permissible alternative to burning oil residue sludge in an appropriate incinerator?

 (a) The oil sludge residue may be burned in a boiler OR engine, and it AND may be burned only
in unrestricted waters (other than in port, in harbors, or estuaries).
o (b) The oil sludge residue may be burned in a boiler OR engine, AND it may be burned without
restriction in terms of vessel location.
o (c) The oil sludge residue may be burned in a boiler only AND may be burned only in unrestricted
waters (other than in port, in harbors, or estuaries).
o (d) The oil sludge residue may be burned in a boiler only AND may be burned without restriction
in terms of vessel location.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

272 August 2014


United States Coast Guard General Subjects
National Maritime Center Assistant Engineers-DDE

730. (2.2.26.2.1-1) The tool shown in the illustration is called a __________. GS-0072

 (a) center gage


o (b) crotch center
o (c) drill gage
o (d) thread gage

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

731. (2.2.26.2.1-2) The lathe tool shown as figure "U" in the illustration is commonly known as a/an
__________. GS-0090

o (a) universal turning tool


o (b) right side end facing tool
o (c) left cut side-facing tool
 (d) cutting-off tool

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

732. (2.2.26.2.1-3) Which of the illustrated lathe tools would be used to produce a smooth finish cut for
figure I? GS-0009

 (a) A
o (b) D
o (c) F
o (d) G

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

733. (2.2.26.2.1-4) The lathe tool shown as figure "T" in the illustration is commonly known as a/an
__________. GS-0090

o (a) left-cut knurling tool


o (b) left-cut side-facing tool
 (c) right-cut roughing tool
o (d) right-cut side-facing tool

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

734. (2.2.26.2.1-5) The lathe tools shown as figure "M" in the illustration are commonly known as
__________. GS-0090

 (a) form tools


o (b) curvature cutting tools
o (c) parting tools
o (d) universal turning tools

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

273 August 2014


United States Coast Guard General Subjects
National Maritime Center Assistant Engineers-DDE

735. (2.2.26.2.1-6) Which single illustrated lathe tool could be used to turn down the stock in figure II?
GS-0009

o (a) C
o (b) G
o (c) A
 (d) B

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

736. (2.2.26.2.1-7) The lathe tool shown as "Q" in the illustration is a __________. GS-0090

 (a) left hand side facing tool


o (b) right hand turning tool
o (c) cutting-off tool
o (d) universal turning tool

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

737. (2.2.26.2.1-8) The main difference between a common lathe dog and a safety lathe dog is that
the latter __________.

o (a) is more easily centered


 (b) has a headless set screw
o (c) has a spring loaded catch
o (d) allows for misaligned center holes

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

738. (2.2.26.2.1-9) Which of the illustrated figures represents the use of a right hand roughing tool?
GS-0090

o (a) Figure P
o (b) Figure V
 (c) Figure T
o (d) Figure S

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

739. (2.2.26.2.1-10) The lathe tool shown as figure "R" in the illustration would best be used to
__________. GS-0090

 (a) form a right-cut square shoulder


o (b) perform a right-cut rough turning operation
o (c) perform a left-cut rough turning operation
o (d) form a left-cut groove

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

274 August 2014


United States Coast Guard General Subjects
National Maritime Center Assistant Engineers-DDE

740. (2.2.26.2.2-1) If the distances "A" and/or "B" as shown in the illustration are excessively
increased, the tool will __________. GS-0085

o (a) take a deeper cut in the work


o (b) take a shallow cut
 (c) chatter
o (d) slip in the tool post

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

741. (2.2.26.2.2-2) The taper produced by a lathe taper attachment is determined by setting the
__________.

o (a) automatic cross feed


o (b) compound rest angle
 (c) guide (swivel) bar
o (d) tailstock off center

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

742. (2.2.26.2.2-3) To obtain a 1/2 inch per foot taper on an 18 inch work piece, the tailstock of the
lathe must be set over __________.

o (a) 3/4 inch


o (b) 7/8 inch
 (c) 3/8 inch
o (d) 1/2 inch

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

743. (2.2.26.2.2-4) Which of the following definitions accurately describes 'tool feed' when referring to
lathe work?

o (a) The distance the work piece circumference moves past the cutting tool point in one minute.
o (b) The chip length that will be removed from the work in one minute.
o (c) The distance from the bottom of the cut to the uncut surface of the work piece.
 (d) The distance the tool advances with each revolution of the work.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

744. (2.2.26.2.2-5) If you are machining work held between lathe centers, and the lathe centers begin
to squeal, you should first __________.

o (a) change the cutting bit


o (b) run the lathe at a slower speed
 (c) stop the lathe
o (d) lubricate the centers

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

275 August 2014


United States Coast Guard General Subjects
National Maritime Center Assistant Engineers-DDE

745. (2.2.26.2.2-6) For proper support when turning a long thin piece of work between lathe centers,
you should use a __________.

 (a) steady rest


o (b) draw-in collet chuck
o (c) faceplate
o (d) compound rest

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

746. (2.2.26.2.2-7) A follower rest should be used with a lathe to machine __________.

o (a) work mounted on the lathe carriage


o (b) large diameter stock between centers
 (c) threads on long slender shafts
o (d) round stock to a finished dimension

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

747. (2.2.26.2.2-8) Work that cannot readily be mounted between lathe centers is usually held in a
__________.

o (a) crotch center


 (b) chuck
o (c) spindle
o (d) lathe dog

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

748. (2.2.26.2.2-9) A work piece has been mounted between centers and a test cut machined at each
end to check alignment of the lathe centers. If the test cut on the tailstock end is deeper than the test
cut on the headstock end, the tailstock must be moved __________.

o (a) toward you to correct alignment


 (b) away from you to correct alignment
o (c) closer to the headstock to reduce the amount of offset
o (d) away from the headstock to decrease the misalignment

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

749. (2.2.26.2.2-10) Which of the lathe operations listed is best done with the carriage locked in
position?

 (a) Facing work held in a chuck.


o (b) Threading internal threads.
o (c) Boring an angled hole.
o (d) Turning work held between centers.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

276 August 2014


United States Coast Guard General Subjects
National Maritime Center Assistant Engineers-DDE

750. (2.2.26.1.2-1) When drilling holes larger than 1/2 inch, drilling a smaller hole first is a good
practice. This is called a pilot hole, and the pilot drill should have a diameter __________.

 (a) slightly larger than the web thickness of the larger drill
o (b) smaller than the dead center of chisel edge of the larger drill
o (c) small enough to ensure the maximum cut by the larger drill
o (d) equal to at least 1/2 the diameter of the larger drill

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

751. (2.2.26.1.2-2) Which material can be drilled at the highest speed?

o (a) Copper
o (b) High carbon steel
 (c) Aluminum
o (d) Medium cast iron

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

752. (2.2.26.1.2-3) To drill a hole in round stock, perpendicular to the axis of the piece, the stock
should be mounted in a __________.

 (a) V-block
o (b) morse sleeve
o (c) clamp
o (d) collet

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

753. (2.2.26.1.2-4) When drilling blind holes with a standard drill press, the proper method of stopping
the progress of the drill boring through the work is by __________.

o (a) moving the working table


o (b) adjusting the spindle return spring
o (c) gaging chuck motion
 (d) using a depth stop

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

754. (2.2.26.1.2-5) One of the steps required to increase the drilling speed of a drill press is to
__________.

o (a) change the terminal connections of the drive motor


o (b) move the drive belt to a smaller diameter motor pulley
o (c) change to a larger diameter spindle
 (d) move the drive belt to a smaller diameter spindle pulley

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

277 August 2014


United States Coast Guard General Subjects
National Maritime Center Assistant Engineers-DDE

755. (2.2.26.1.2-6) A tapered shank drill is removed from the drill press spindle with a __________.

o (a) vice grip


 (b) drill drift
o (c) leather mallet
o (d) taper punch

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

756. (2.2..26.1.2-7) Before drilling a hole in a piece of metal, the location of the hole center should be
__________.

o (a) marked with chalk


o (b) blued
o (c) scribed
 (d) center punched

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

757. (2.2.26.1.2-8) Which of the listed metals can usually be drilled without lubrication?

o (a) Tungsten
o (b) Steel
 (c) Brass
o (d) Monel

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

758. (2.2.26.1.2-9) If the speed of a drill is too great, the drill will __________.

o (a) cut faster


o (b) not cut
o (c) cut slower
 (d) rapidly dull

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

759. (2.2.26.1.2-10) Before boring a blind tapered hole, a good shop practice to follow is to
__________.

o (a) drill to the large diameter of the taper


o (b) use a tapered reamer
o (c) bore a straight hole
 (d) drill to the small diameter of the taper

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

278 August 2014


United States Coast Guard General Subjects
National Maritime Center Assistant Engineers-DDE

760. (2.2.19.4-1) The action necessary to use the steering gear room trick wheel when transferring the
steering control from the wheelhouse to local control, is to __________.

 (a) align the trick wheel to the rudder angle position before engaging
o (b) set the six-way control valve in the trick wheel position
o (c) open the power transfer switch before engaging the trick wheel
o (d) always place the rudder in the midship position to engage the trick wheel

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

761. (2.2.19.4-2) A command signal input to the steering gear has initiated rudder movement for 20°
right rudder. The follow-up mechanism at the beginning of the rudder movement will __________.
Illustration GS-0123

 (a) be in motion with a null input


o (b) not be in motion, thus a null input
o (c) be in motion providing an input to place the variable stroke pump on maximum stroke
o (d) be in motion providing an input to place the variable stroke pump at null stroke

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

762. (2.2.19.4-3) Rudder position is shown on the bridge by the __________.

 (a) rudder angle indicator


o (b) follow-up gear
o (c) telemotor position
o (d) Rapson slide indicator

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

763. (2.2.19.4-4) When the helm angle position is changed, the series of corresponding events of the
steering gear will include __________. I. rate of steering gear ram movement will be proportional to
amount of helm angle input II. degree of tilting plate (box) angle will be proportional to the amount of
helm angle input

o (a) I only
o (b) II only
 (c) Both I and II
o (d) Neither I nor II

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

279 August 2014


United States Coast Guard General Subjects
National Maritime Center Assistant Engineers-DDE

764. (2.2.19.3.1-1) Hydraulically, servo-operated, automatic, change over valves, utilized in a two ram
hydraulic steering gear, serve to __________.

o (a) allow an alternate main pump to start in the fully loaded condition thus developing immediate
full torque
o (b) prevent both units from operating simultaneously which could result in doubling the flow of oil
and pressure leading to over pressurization of the system
 (c) prevent either main pump from being hydraulically motored when idle by cross pressure flow
o (d) all of the above

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

765. (2.2.19.1-2) The rudder torque capacity of the four ram steering gear illustrated, is rated at
44,210,000 inch-pounds with one power unit in operation. If the four ram system was able to be
operated as a two ram system with both power units on line, what would be the available torque?
GS-0067

o (a) 11,052,500 inch pounds


 (b) 22,105,000 inch pounds
o (c) 44,210,000 inch pounds
o (d) 88,420,000 inch pounds

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

766. (2.2.19.1-3) When responding to a 'right rudder' command from the amidships position, which
parts of the steering gear system illustrated will be subjected to the highest pressure? GS-0137

o (a) "C" and "F"


 (b) "E" and "B"
o (c) "F" and "E"
o (d) "B" and "C"

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

767. (2.2.19.1-4) In an electro-hydraulic steering system, damage due to rudder shock is prevented by
__________.

o (a) buffer springs


 (b) relief valves
o (c) oil flowing through the pumps
o (d) dashpots

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

280 August 2014


United States Coast Guard General Subjects
National Maritime Center Assistant Engineers-DDE

768. (2.2.19.2-1) The device shown in the illustration is a/an __________. GS-0116

 (a) vane type steering gear


o (b) oil scraper ring stuffing box for a crosshead engine
o (c) diesel engine motor mount
o (d) mechanical shaft seal

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

769. (2.2.19.2-2) If it is necessary to prevent the rudder from moving while a repair is made on the
steering system using the illustrated actuator __________. GS-0116

 (a) secure the valves in the supply and return lines


o (b) screw in the locking pin, item "J"
o (c) tighten the locking pins, item "H" at each position of item "I" to keep the rudder from swinging
o (d) tighten the locking screws in item "S"

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

770. (2.2.19.3.2-3) If oil under pressure is supplied to the area noted as "N" on the vane in the
illustration __________. GS-0116

o (a) "O" will be hydraulically locked in place even though oil is returned to the main pump from the
area between "M" and "I"
o (b) "O" will rotate clockwise as oil is returned from the area between "M" and "I"
 (c) "O" will rotate counter-clockwise as oil is returned from the area between "M" and "I"
o (d) "Q" will rotate counter-clockwise as oil is returned from the area between "M" and "I"

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

771. (2.2.19.2-4) The operation of the device shown in the illustration is dependent upon __________.
GS-0116

o (a) all items, similar to "I" move as the rudder stock rotates
 (b) all items, similar to "N" move as the rudder stock rotates
o (c) both "I" and "N" move as the rudder stock rotates
o (d) neither "I" nor "N" move as the rudder stock rotates

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

281 August 2014


United States Coast Guard General Subjects
National Maritime Center First Assistant-Chief Engineer Limited

1. (3.2.1.2-8) As a result of a load or set point change, in addition to minimizing the maximum value of
the error, what are the two additional objectives of a closed-loop control system?

o (a) The closed-loop control system should maximize the settling time and maximize the residual
error.
 (b) The closed-loop control system should minimize the settling time and minimize the residual
error.
o (c) The closed-loop control system should minimize the settling time and maximize the residual
error.
o (d) The closed-loop control system should maximize the settling time and minimize the residual
error.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

2. (3.2.1.2-11) What process control system control mode is most likely to have steady-state error (also
known as offset or residual error)?

 (a) Proportional mode


o (b) Proportional + Derivative mode
o (c) Proportional + Integral + Derivative mode
o (d) Proportional + Integral mode

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

3. (3.2.1.2-12) For a process control system using the proportional control mode, what statement is
true?

o (a) Increasing the proportional gain without limit will always decrease the steady-state error.
o (b) Increasing the proportional gain without limit will always increase the steady-state error.
 (c) Increasing the proportional gain within limits will decrease the steady-state error, but too much
gain may cause instability.
o (d) Decreasing the proportional gain within limits will decrease the steady-state error, but too little
gain may cause instability.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

4. (3.2.1.2-1) Suppose a temperature transmitter has an input range from 0 to 100 degrees Celsius and
an output range of 4 to 20 milliamps. Assuming that the transmitter has a linear response pattern,
what is the output current in milliamps if the input temperature is 40 degrees Celsius?

o (a) 16.00 mA
 (b) 10.40 mA
o (c) 13.60 mA
o (d) 6.40 mA

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

282 August 2014


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5. (3.2.1.1-5) In a closed-loop process control system, what is meant by the proportional mode of
control?

o (a) It is a control mode that produces a control action that is proportional to the gain.
o (b) It is a control mode that produces a control action that is proportional to the rate at which the
error is changing.
o (c) It is a control mode that produces a control action that is proportional to the accumulation of
error over time.
 (d) It is a control mode that produces a control action that is proportional to the error.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

6. (3.2.1.1-10) In a closed-loop process control system, what term is used to describe the progressive
reduction or suppression of oscillation in a component?

o (a) Saturation
 (b) Damping
o (c) Hysteresis
o (d) Dead band

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

7. (3.2.2.1-1) The size of ball and roller bearings can be identified by the __________.

o (a) inner race cone width


 (b) manufacturer's numerical code
o (c) outer ring width
o (d) rolling member size

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

8. (3.2.2.1-2) Which bearing will carry the load on two small points diametrically opposite to each
other?

o (a) Tapered roller


 (b) Ball
o (c) Needle
o (d) Roller

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

283 August 2014


United States Coast Guard General Subjects
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9. (3.2.2.1-3) Which of the following statements describes the characteristics of precision manufactured
roller bearings?

 (a) They are well adapted to variable speed operation.


o (b) They are not capable of maintaining alignment over long periods of time.
o (c) Their lubrication is complicated and requires constant attention.
o (d) They have a relatively high power loss due to friction.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

10. (3.2.2.1-4) Which of the listed types of bearings is an example of a half bearing?

o (a) Piston pin bushing


 (b) Spring bearing
o (c) Thrust bearing
o (d) All of the above.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

11. (3.2.2.4-3) In a compression type automatic grease cup, the lubricant is forced into the bearing by
__________.

o (a) a zerk fitting


 (b) spring force
o (c) gravity flow
o (d) a pressure gun

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

12. (3.2.2.4-4) Antifriction bearings can be removed undamaged from a shaft by using an arbor press, or
wheel puller with a________.

o (a) jack screw


o (b) ring gage
 (c) split washer or backup ring
o (d) split die

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

13. (3.2.2.2-3) When removing roller bearings from a shaft, the force of the puller should be applied to
the bearing __________.

o (a) outer race


o (b) retainer plate
o (c) raceway
 (d) inner race

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

284 August 2014


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14. (3.2.2.3-1) Packing extremely soft grease into a roller bearing will cause __________.

o (a) excessive channeling of the grease


o (b) gelling of the base oil
o (c) emulsification of the thickener additive
 (d) high temperatures to develop as result of churning

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

15. (3.2.2.3-2) As the speed of an oil lubricated ball bearing increases, fluid friction, due to churning,
generates heat. This condition may be avoided by __________.

 (a) reducing the quantity of lubricant until only a mist of oil is present on the ball bearings
o (b) installing oil rings on the ball bearings
o (c) adding more lubricant until the ball bearings are completely covered with a layer of oil
o (d) maintaining a continuous fluid film of oil on the bearings

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

16. (3.2.2.3-3) A dented race in an antifriction bearing could be caused by __________.

 (a) vibration while the bearing is not in operation


o (b) abrasives in the lubricant
o (c) dirt in the bearing
o (d) water in the bearing

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

17. (3.2.3.1-1) Salt water ballast is to be discharged into the #6 port and starboard wing tanks. Which
combination of valves, illustrated, must be opened, and which valves should be closed? GS-0139

o (a) 3, 4, 7 and 9 open; 1, 2, 5, 6 and 10 closed.


o (b) 1, 2, 7 and 9 open; 3, 4, 5, 6, 8 and 10 closed.
 (c) 1, 3, 5, 6, 8 and 10 open; 2, 4, 7 and 9 closed.
o (d) 1, 2, 5 and 6 open; 4, 7, 8 and 9 closed.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

18. (3.2.3.1-2) In order to take suction on the lube oil drain tank cofferdam with the bilge pump shown in
the illustration, how many suction side valves must be open? GS-0042

o (a) One
 (b) Two
o (c) Three
o (d) Four

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

285 August 2014


United States Coast Guard General Subjects
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19. (3.2.3.1-3) One of the consequences in continuing to operate a centrifugal bilge pump with the
discharge valve closed, is that the __________.

 (a) pump will overheat


o (b) relief valve will open
o (c) motor overload will open
o (d) motor will overheat

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

20. (3.2.3.1-4) The emergency bilge suction valve is typically used __________.

 (a) if the bilges become flooded and they cannot be emptied by any other means
o (b) to connect the rose box to the independent bilge suction
o (c) when the main condenser becomes fouled, in order to provide additional cooling water
circulation
o (d) to inject cleaning additives when the bilges are extremely dirty

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

21. (3.2.3.1-5) Accidental flooding of the engine room bilges through the bilge system is prevented by
__________.

o (a) using a positive displacement reciprocating bilge pump


o (b) installing a swing check before each bilge valve
o (c) installing eductors in all bilge rose boxes
 (d) stop-check valves installed in the bilge suction manifolds

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

22. (3.2.3.2-1) As routine maintenance, the bilge manifold valves are periodically removed and
examined. Prior to resecuring the valve bonnets, the valve __________.

o (a) disks and seats should be checked and lapped if necessary


o (b) bonnet flange gaskets should be renewed if they were cut or torn
o (c) stem packing should be renewed if the packing has hardened
 (d) all of the above

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

23. (3.2.3.3-1) The aft starboard bilge well is clogged, and back flushing has not been successful. The
next practical solution would be to __________.

o (a) place 20 gallons ( 75.7 L) of fuel oil tank wash into the affected bilge well to clear the blockage
o (b) change the trim of the ship to port in order to pump out the bilges for the remainder of the
voyage
 (c) properly and safely empty the well with a portable pump then manually muck it out
o (d) all of the above

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

286 August 2014


United States Coast Guard General Subjects
National Maritime Center First Assistant-Chief Engineer Limited

24. (3.2.3.3-2) The bilge system has been performing well; however, the aft starboard engine room
bilge-well suddenly fails to be pumped out. Which of the following should be done first to determine
the cause?

o (a) Open the bilge pump for inspection.


 (b) Attempt to pump out another bilge well to determine if the entire system is affected.
o (c) Remove each of the manifold valves.
o (d) Remove only the manifold valve to the affected bilge-well.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

25. (3.2.3.3-3) You are unable to pump out the aft starboard engine room bilge well that is fouled, with
one foot of water over the top of the bilge well, what action should be carried out?

o (a) Simultaneously operate all available bilge pumps.


o (b) It is only necessary to transfer half the contents of a drum of degreaser into the bilge well.
o (c) Send the wiper into the well with only a scoop and pail.
 (d) Remove the bilge manifold valve and attempt to back flush the line.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

26. (3.2.3.3-4) If one of the bilge system manifold valves does not properly seat, the __________.

o (a) bilge well connected to that valve, plus the second bilge well being pumped will be completely
emptied
o (b) bilge well aft connected to that valve will siphon its contents to the forward bilge wells
 (c) bilge system will lose vacuum and prevent the other bilges from being pumped out
o (d) all of the above

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

27. (3.2.3.3-5) If an operating bilge pump is developing good vacuum, but is unable to discharge any
water, which of the following problems is the most probable cause?

o (a) The discharge valve is clogged.


o (b) The wearing rings are excessively worn.
 (c) The suction strainer is clogged.
o (d) The shaft is worn.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

28. (3.2.3.3-6) If a bilge pump is able to develop vacuum, but is unable to sufficiently pump out the
bilges, you would check for all of the following EXCEPT __________.

 (a) the circuit breaker


o (b) for leaks in the suction piping
o (c) the suction strainer
o (d) relief valve is not properly seated

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

287 August 2014


United States Coast Guard General Subjects
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29. (3.2.4.1.1-2) Where a two-stage air ejector set is used in a two-stage flash evaporator, the first-stage
air ejector takes suction from the second stage of the evaporator, and the second stage air ejector
__________.

o (a) takes suction from the first stage of the evaporator


o (b) takes suction from the second stage of the evaporator as well
 (c) takes suction from the first stage ejector discharge
o (d) is normally idle and used mainly as a standby unit

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

30. (3.2.4.1.1-13) The brine level in the second-stage of a flash-type evaporator is determined in part by
the feed rate, the rate of evaporation in both stages, and the __________.

o (a) steam flow rate to the air ejectors


 (b) throughput of the brine overboard pump
o (c) capacity of the distillate pump
o (d) float controlled level of the feed heater

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

31. (3.2.4.2.1.1-1) In a flash type evaporator, all saltwater headers are vented through individual vent
cocks to the __________.

o (a) saltwater heater shell


 (b) atmosphere
o (c) second-stage condenser
o (d) second-stage flash chamber

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

32. (3.2.4.1.1-5) The second stage feed water temperature and shell absolute pressure in a multistage,
flash type, distilling plant is __________.

o (a) not related to the feed water temperature and absolute shell pressure
 (b) lower than the first stage feed water temperature and absolute shell pressure
o (c) the same as the first stage feed water temperature and absolute shell pressure
o (d) higher than the first stage feed water temperature and absolute shell pressure

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

33. (3.2.4.1.1-3) Steam supply for the operation of the low pressure evaporators may be obtained
directly from the __________.

 (a) turbine extraction line


o (b) turbo-generator steam supply line
o (c) main steam line
o (d) air ejector exhaust line

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

288 August 2014


United States Coast Guard General Subjects
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34. (3.2.4.1.1-4) The temperature of the steam flow to the saltwater feed heater, in a flash type
evaporator can be manipulated by a/an __________.

o (a) sensor wired in with the three-way salinity dump valve


o (b) pressure regulator within the supply orifice
 (c) attemporator in the steam supply piping
o (d) thermally actuated bypass valve

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

35. (3.2.4.1.1-7) A fixed orifice plate is generally installed in the live steam supply to a flash evaporator.
One of the functions of this orifice is to control the quantity of the supplied steam. A second function
is to __________.

o (a) produce a low salt water feed heater shell absolute pressure
o (b) guarantee that the steam supply will remain saturated
o (c) produce more useful desuperheated supply steam
 (d) reduce pressure fluctuations of the steam supply in the salt water feed heater

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

36. (3.2.4.1.1-10) The final heating of the feed water in a flash type distilling plant is carried out by
__________.

 (a) low pressure steam admitted to the feed water heater


o (b) heat exchange in the first-stage feedbox
o (c) heat exchange in each stage distiller condenser
o (d) vaporization in the first-stage flash chamber

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

37. (3.2.4.1.2-1) The thickest deposit of scale in a flash evaporator is most likely to occur in the tubes of
the __________.

o (a) distillate cooler


 (b) saltwater feed heater
o (c) flash chamber
o (d) first stage condenser

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

38. (3.2.4.1.2-9) In a flash evaporator, scale as a result of higher than normal temperatures is most likely
to occur in the __________.

o (a) second stage vapor separator


o (b) distillate cooler
o (c) second stage feed heater
 (d) saltwater feed heater

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

289 August 2014


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39. (3.2.4.1.2-5) The purpose of chill shocking an evaporator is to __________.

o (a) prepare for a hydrostatic test


 (b) break loose scale deposits formed on the tubes
o (c) stress relieve the tubes
o (d) test for leaks in the tubes

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

40. (3.2.4.1.2-11) The floating end of a shell-and-tube type cooler utilizes a packing ring to __________.

 (a) prevent leakage past the floating end tube sheet


o (b) modify to a mixer type cooler
o (c) dissipate heat
o (d) baffle cooling water so it can be directed on a multiple pass

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

41. (3.2.4.1.2-3) When conducting a hydrostatic test on the distillate cooler shell of a flash type
evaporator, liquid appears well inside one of the tubes. In order to correct this, you should
__________.

o (a) reroll the tube


 (b) plug the tube
o (c) seal weld the tube
o (d) all of the above would be considered satisfactory as a temporary repair until permanent
repairs may be conducted

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

42. (3.2.4.1.2-7) Scale accumulation on evaporator heat exchange surfaces __________.

o (a) increases brine density


o (b) increases distillate salinity
o (c) reduces metal corrosion
 (d) reduces heat transfer

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

43. (3.2.4.1.3-1) If a higher than normal water level is observed through the inspection port of a flash
evaporator, you should suspect __________.

o (a) a leak in the feed water heater


o (b) a clogged desuperheater water strainer
 (c) a malfunctioning brine pump
o (d) improper vacuum

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

290 August 2014


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44. (3.2.4.1.3-2) Carryover in a flash type distilling plant can be a result of __________.

o (a) low distillate conductivity


 (b) faulty operation of the brine overboard pump
o (c) high distillate conductivity
o (d) a pressure drop through the loop seal

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

45. (3.2.4.1.3-3) A high reading at a salinity cell located in the loop seal between two stages of a flash
type evaporator would indicate __________.

o (a) faulty operation of the brine overboard pump


o (b) chill shocking is necessary to remove scale
o (c) leakage at the second-stage condenser
 (d) carryover in the first-stage

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

46. (3.2.4.1.3-4) A high reading is indicated at the salinity cells labeled "Y", "Q", and "6" shown in the
illustration. This would be the probable result of __________. GS-0053

 (a) carryover from "III"


o (b) faulty cells at each location
o (c) a leak in item"I"
o (d) erosion of item "2"

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

47. (3.2.4.1.3-5) The quantity and density of brine discharged from the last effect of a flash type
evaporator should be kept at a constant value so as to __________.

 (a) ensure distillate quality and distilling plant efficiency


o (b) maintain a constant distillate outlet temperature
o (c) prevent scale accumulation in the first effect heat exchanger surfaces
o (d) prevent any salinity in the distillate produced

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

48. (3.2.4.1.3-7) While operating a two-stage flash-type evaporator, designed to operate in sea water of
70°F, the current seawater temperature is 50°F, while the salt water feed temperature is maintained
at 170°F. The three-way solenoid valve trips, directing the distillate pump discharge to the bilge.
Which of the following conditions is the probable cause for this occurrence?

 (a) Excessive and violent flashing in each stage.


o (b) Excessive amount of feed water being supplied to the first stage.
o (c) Insufficient vacuum developed as a result of the sea temperature.
o (d) Insufficient brine density being maintained in the second stage.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

291 August 2014


United States Coast Guard General Subjects
National Maritime Center First Assistant-Chief Engineer Limited

49. (3.2.4.1.3-10) While operating a two-stage flash-type evaporator, designed to operate in sea water
of 70°F, the current seawater temperature is 50°F, while the salt water feed temperature is
maintained at 170°F. The three-way solenoid valve trips, directing the distillate pump discharge to
the bilge. Which of the following conditions is the probable cause for this occurrence?

o (a) Insufficient brine density being maintained in the second stage.


 (b) Excessive and violent flashing in each stage.
o (c) Insufficient vacuum developed as a result of the sea temperature.
o (d) Excessive amount of feed water being supplied to the first stage.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

50. (3.2.4.1.3-13) Which of the listed problems could produce a high absolute pressure within a flash
type evaporator?

o (a) seawater feed temperature below 165°F


 (b) a cracked distillate pump vent line
o (c) production of high salinity distillate
o (d) a leak in the first stage demister

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

51. (3.2.4.1.3-16) The thickest deposit of scale in a flash evaporator is most likely to occur in the tubes
of the __________.

 (a) saltwater feed heater


o (b) distillate cooler
o (c) first stage condenser
o (d) flash chamber

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

52. (3.2.4.2.1-1) What is the function of device "B" shown in the illustration? MO-0110

 (a) It condenses the vapors formed in section "G".


o (b) It serves to cool incoming feed water.
o (c) It removes sensible heat from the jacket water.
o (d) It serves to boil off incoming feed water.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

53. (3.2.4.2.1-3) Which of the following conditions occurs in the section labeled "F" of the device shown
in the illustration? MO-0110

 (a) The vapors produced in section "G" are condensed and the non-condensable gases are
removed.
o (b) The jacket water flowing through device "I" is heated.
o (c) The sea water flowing through device "I" is cooled.
o (d) Non-condensable vapors are removed and water vapors are preheated.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

292 August 2014


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54. (3.2.4.2.1-5) For the operation of the illustrated device, what fluid flow would be expected at the
connection labeled "I"? MO-0110

 (a) The sea water used for condensing the water vapor.
o (b) Main engine jacket water.
o (c) The salt water feed.
o (d) The distillate discharge.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

55. (3.2.4.2.1-7) Which of the following is NOT a function of the water supply through item "P" shown in
the illustration? MO-0110

o (a) It supplies feed water to evaporator.


 (b) It supplies the operating medium used in the removal of the distillate.
o (c) It supplies the operating medium used in the removal of the brine.
o (d) It supplies the operating medium used in the removal of air and non-condensable gases.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

56. (3.2.4.2.1-9) The pipe identified by the letter "J" shown in the illustration is __________. MO-0110

o (a) directly connected to the jacket water supply line


 (b) attached to the air ejector
o (c) attached to the outlet of the brine ejector
o (d) directly connected to the feed water supply line

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

57. (3.2.4.2.2-1) When tightening the plate type heat exchangers shown in the illustration, care must be
taken to __________. MO-0110

o (a) avoid fracturing the backing plate


o (b) avoid using a torque wrench that has not been recently calibrated
o (c) prevent damage to the aluminum plates
 (d) use a specific opposing pattern while measuring the distance to which the plates have been
compressed

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

58. (3.2.4.2.2-2) Which of the tools listed must be used when retightening the plate type heat
exchangers used in the device shown in the illustration? Illustration MO-0110

 (a) Steel ruler or tape measure


o (b) Pneumatic impact wrench
o (c) Cantilever wrench
o (d) Torque wrench

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

293 August 2014


United States Coast Guard General Subjects
National Maritime Center First Assistant-Chief Engineer Limited

59. (3.2.4.2.3-1) If the demister used in the device shown in the illustration is improperly installed, which
of the following will occur? See Illustration MO-0110

o (a) The temperature of the device will decrease.


o (b) Interstage leakage will cause a decrease in output.
o (c) The vacuum of the device will increase.
 (d) There will be an increase of chlorides measured at the distillate pump salinity cell.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

60. (3.2.4.2.3-2) Which of the following conditions can cause high salinity of the distillate due to sea
water leakage in the illustrated device. MO-0110

o (a) Improper venting during operation.


o (b) Improper venting during start-up.
o (c) Failure to properly tighten the bolts of the evaporator heat exchanger.
 (d) Failure to properly tighten the bolts of the condenser heat exchanger.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

61. (3.2.4.3.1-1) Device '27' shown in the illustration is used to __________. Illustration MO-0111

o (a) add de-scaling chemicals as needed


o (b) relieve excess pressure
 (c) regulate maximum vacuum during normal operation
o (d) purge the unit of non-condensable gases

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

62. (3.2.4.3.1-3) Which of the following statements describes the approximate relation between the feed
water entering the unit shown in the illustration and brine being removed? Illustration MO-0111

 (a) Seventy-five percent of the feed water entering the unit is removed as brine.
o (b) The amount of feed water entering the distiller is dependent upon the condition of device "7",
while the amount of brine leaving is dependent upon the condition of device "21".
o (c) Twenty-five percent of the feed water entering the device is removed as brine.
o (d) The brine will be removed at a faster rate than feed water entering to prevent the possibility of
flooding.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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63. (3.2.4.3.1-5) Excess brine accumulated in the distiller, shown in the illustration, is removed during
normal operation by __________. Illustration MO-0111

 (a) the continuous action of ejector "22"


o (b) orifice "19" regulating the amount of feed water entering the distiller, thereby preventing
excess brine accumulation
o (c) the hydrokineter labeled "21"
o (d) opening the drain valve located to the left of orifice "19"

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

64. (3.2.4.3.1-7) Which of the following statements represents the two major functions provided by the
item labeled "20" shown in the illustration? Illustration MO-0111

o (a) The pump supplies the motive force to the ejectors and removes the excess distillate.
o (b) The pump is used to drain the shell when the unit is secured, in addition to powering the
ejectors.
o (c) The pump provides for venting of associated equipment while also powering the ejectors.
 (d) The pump supplies the motive fluid to the ejectors in addition to supplying the feed water to
the distiller.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

65. (3.2.4.3.1-9) Which of the following statements concerning the systems shown in the illustration is
correct? Illustration MO-0111

o (a) The jacket water primarily loses its heat at the cooler and is further heated in the evaporator
section.
 (b) The feed water gains heat in section "23", while the vapor gives up heat in section "24".
o (c) The jacket water absorbs heat in the evaporator section, while giving up its heat in the distiller
section.
o (d) The feed water acquires heat passing through devices "2"and "23".

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

66. (3.2.4.3.2-1) When securing a jacket-water heated submerged tube evaporator for an extended
period of time, you should __________.

o (a) fill the unit with descaling compound


o (b) tightly seal the unit to exclude air
 (c) completely drain the unit
o (d) fill the unit with saltwater

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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67. (3.2.4.3.2-2) Which of the following acids is preferable and most commonly used for scale removal
from the heating surfaces of the jacket-water heated submerged-tube evaporator?

o (a) Concentrated sulfuric acid


o (b) Concentrated hydrochloric acid
o (c) Muriatic acid
 (d) Citric or sulfuric acid

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

68. (3.2.4.3.2-3) In a jacket-water heated submerged tube evaporator, what is the primary factor that
determines the rate of scale build-up on the submerged tube bundle?

o (a) The chemical composition of the jacket water coolant additive package.
 (b) The jacket water inlet temperature to the submerged tube bundle.
o (c) The sea water inlet temperature to the evaporator section.
o (d) The salt content of the sea water inlet to the evaporator section.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

69. (3.2.4.3.3-1) What would be the first indication that a tube leak has occurred in area "23"? Illustration
MO-0111

o (a) The level in area "3" would decrease.


 (b) The level in area "1" would decrease.
o (c) The level in area "3" would increase.
o (d) The level in area "1" would increase.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

70. (3.2.4.3.3-2) Which of the conditions listed would indicate a large condenser tube leak within the
distiller shown in the illustration? See Illustration MO-0111

o (a) A slow continuous rise in the lube oil cooler outlet temperature indicated at device "4".
 (b) The activation of the salinity monitoring equipment's annunciator circuit.
o (c) A decrease in the level of the main engine expansion tank as indicated by a low level alarm.
o (d) An increase in distiller output resulting from the combination of jacket water and the distillate
produced.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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71. (3.2.4.3.3-3) If valve "H" shown in the illustration is opened wide while the distiller is in operation,
__________. Illustration MO-0111

o (a) the absolute pressure of the unit will increase with an associated decrease in shell
temperature.
o (b) the absolute pressure of the unit will increase due to the increased affect of the air ejector.
o (c) the absolute pressure of the unit will not be affected, but the rate of condensation will be
decreased.
 (d) the absolute pressure of the unit will increase with an associated increase in shell
temperature.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

72. (3.2.4.3.3-4) If the wearing rings of device "7" shown in the illustration become worn, how will the
evaporation rate in "23" be affected? Illustration MO-0111

 (a) The rate of evaporation will decrease.


o (b) Device "7" does not use wearing rings, as these are normally positive displacement pumps.
o (c) The rate of evaporation is dependent on the level of vacuum maintained within the unit, and
not the flow of water to the unit.
o (d) The rate of evaporation will not be affected as the standby pump, labeled "8" will be used
instead.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

73. (3.2.4.3.3-5) What would happen if valve "25" shown in the illustration, vibrated open with the unit in
operation? Illustration MO-0111

 (a) The absolute pressure of the unit would increase, causing a decrease in distillate output.
o (b) The unit would automatically shut down due to the closing of the low pressure contacts.
o (c) Jacket water would be automatically by-passed around the distiller.
o (d) The unit would continue to operate with no adverse effects.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

74. (3.2.4.3.3-6) If valve "D" is opened during the normal operation of the distiller shown in the
illustration, which of the events listed will occur? Illustration MO-0111

o (a) The jacket water cooler will be overloaded, eventually causing a critical engine alarm.
o (b) The amount of vapor formed in the evaporator will increase.
 (c) The amount of vapor being formed in the evaporator will decrease.
o (d) The output of pump "7" will increase with a corresponding increase in pressure.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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75. (3.2.4.4.2-1) Regarding a freshwater generator of the reverse-osmosis type, what statement is true?

 (a) The solute is salt and the solvent is fresh water.


o (b) The solute is fresh water and the solvent is salt.
o (c) The solute is salt and the solvent is saltwater.
o (d) The solute is saltwater and the solvent is salt.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

76. (3.2.4.4.1-2) Regarding a reverse-osmosis type freshwater generator using multiple spiral-wound
membrane modules, what statement is true?

o (a) Modules may be piped in series to increase the freshwater throughput.


 (b) Modules may be piped in series to increase the freshwater purity.
o (c) Modules may be piped in parallel to increase the freshwater purity.
o (d) Modules may be piped in series to decrease the likelihood of fouling.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

77. (3.2.4.4.1-3) For the successful operation of a reverse-osmosis freshwater generator, why is the high
pressure pump required to operate in the 750 to 1200 psig range for a discharge pressure?

o (a) To successfully force the salt water through the pre-filter (or pre-filters).
o (b) To successfully force the salt water through the chemical pre-treatment device.
o (c) To overcome the pore size of the semi-permeable membrane.
 (d) To overcome the osmotic pressure generated by the difference in solution concentrations.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

78. (3.2.4.4.1-4) Regarding the high-pressure pump of a reverse-osmosis freshwater generator, what
statement is true?

 (a) The high-pressure pump is typically a multiple-cylinder reciprocating pump, but may be a
multi-stage centrifugal pump.
o (b) The high-pressure pump is typically a two-stage rotary pump, but may be a two-stage
centrifugal pump.
o (c) The high-pressure pump is typically a two-stage centrifugal pump, but may be a two-
stage rotary pump.
o (d) The high-pressure pump is typically a single-cylinder reciprocating pump, but may be a single-
stage centrifugal pump.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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79. (3.2.4.4.1-5) In order for a reverse-osmosis freshwater generator to be able to overcome the osmotic
pressure without damaging the spiral-wound membrane modules, the pressure must be controlled.
What is the location of the pressure regulator?

o (a) Freshwater outlet from the membrane modules.


 (b) Brine outlet from the membrane modules.
o (c) Discharge side of the high-pressure pump.
o (d) Suction side of the high-pressure pump.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

80. (3.2.4.4.2-1) When a reverse-osmosis freshwater generator is shutdown, what must be


accomplished?

o (a) The unit is left filled with saltwater and treated with anti-bacterial growth inhibitor.
 (b) The unit must be flushed with freshwater and treated with an anti-bacterial growth inhibitor.
o (c) The unit must be flushed with freshwater if anti-bacterial growth inhibitor is unavailable.
o (d) The unit must be treated with an anti-bacterial growth inhibitor if the unit is not flushed with
freshwater.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

81. (3.2.4.4.2-2) What component of a reverse-osmosis freshwater generator could be isolated and
replaced with the unit remaining in service?

o (a) The primary pre-treatment filter.


 (b) A parallel-connected membrane module.
o (c) The secondary pre-treatment filter.
o (d) A series-connected membrane module.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

82. (3.2.4.4.2-3) For the successful operation of a reverse-osmosis freshwater generator, the setting of
the brine back pressure regulator is critical. What statement regarding the set point of this regulator
is true?

 (a) If the regulator setting is set too high, the membrane modules may be damaged. If the
regulator setting is too low, the freshwater production will be too low.
o (b) If the regulator setting is set too low, the membrane modules may be damaged. If the
regulator setting is too high, the freshwater production will be too low.
o (c) If the regulator setting is set too low, the membrane modules may become fouled. If the
regulator setting is too high, the freshwater production will be too low.
o (d) If the regulator setting is set too high, the membrane modules may become fouled. If the
regulator setting is too low, the freshwater production will be too low.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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83. (3.2.4.4.3-1) What is the BEST indication that the pre-treatment filter (or filters) of a reverse-osmosis
freshwater generator must be serviced by cleaning or replacement?

 (a) An excessive pressure drop across the pre-treatment filter.


o (b) An excessive salinity of the freshwater output.
o (c) An insufficient freshwater production by the unit.
o (d) An excessive pressure drop across the membrane modules.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

84. (3.2.4.4.3-2) If a reverse-osmosis freshwater generator has fouled membrane modules, what
statement is true?

o (a) The freshwater production rate would be higher than normal, and the feed pressure would be
higher than normal.
o (b) The freshwater production rate would be higher than normal, and the feed pressure would be
lower than normal.
 (c) The freshwater production rate would be lower than normal, and the feed pressure would be
higher than normal.
o (d) The freshwater production rate would be lower than normal, and the feed pressure would be
lower than normal.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

85. (3.2.4.4.3-3) What is the BEST indication that the membrane module is damaged and is no longer
semi-permeable and allowing the solute to pass through?

o (a) Lower than normal freshwater production.


o (b) Higher than normal brine overboard back pressure.
 (c) High freshwater outlet salinity.
o (d) Low freshwater outlet salinity.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

86. (3.2.4.4.3-4) Under what conditions would the pre-treatment capabilities of a reverse-osmosis
freshwater generator MOST likely be overloaded, and as a result, these conditions should generally
be avoided?

o (a) Entering low temperature seas.


 (b) Entering harbors.
o (c) Entering high temperature seas.
o (d) Entering open seas.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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87. (3.2.4.4.3-5) If a reverse-osmosis freshwater generating unit has a high salinity alarm associated
with the freshwater outlet, what should be done?

o (a) The pre-filters should be serviced by cleaning or replacement.


 (b) The membrane modules should be flushed and cleaned.
o (c) The pre-treatment chemical doser should be serviced.
o (d) The post-treatment sterilizer should be serviced.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

88. (3.2.4.5.1-1) A salinity indicator is used to determine the __________.

o (a) level of alkalinity in condensate


o (b) chemical makeup of feed water
o (c) cause of salt contamination
 (d) location of salt water contamination

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

89. (3.2.4.5.1-2) A salinity indicating system functions on the basic principle of measuring the
__________.

o (a) hydrogen ion concentration of water


o (b) specific gravity of water
o (c) electrical inductance of water
 (d) electrical conductivity of water

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

90. (3.2.4.5.1-3) The instrument always used in conjunction with a salinometer is a __________.

 (a) thermometer
o (b) pyrometer
o (c) hygrometer
o (d) hydrometer

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

91. (3.2.4.5.1-4) In a flash-type evaporator, an electrical salinity cell would be installed in the
__________.

o (a) distillate outlet from the distillate cooler


o (b) distillate inlet to the distillate cooler
o (c) condensate drains from the distiller feed water heater
 (d) all of the above

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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92. (3.2.4.5.1-5) Which of the following statements represents the basic principle of operation of an
electrical salinity indicator?

o (a) Measures the hydrogen ion concentration.


o (b) Measures the voltage of the chloride ions.
 (c) Measures the electrical resistance of the water.
o (d) Determines the conductivity of the dissolved oxygen.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

93. (3.2.4.5.2-1) Distilled water from an evaporator may be discharged into a potable water tank
__________.

o (a) after chemical analysis shows it is fit for consumption


o (b) after passing through an activated charcoal filter
o (c) through a detachable hose connection
 (d) through a solenoid operated three-way valve

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

94. (3.2.4.5.2-3) An automatic solenoid dump valve should be set to trip if the evaporator produces
distillate with salt content exceeding __________.

 (a) .25 gpg


o (b) .05 gpg
o (c) .15 gpg
o (d) .20 gpg

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

95. (3.2.4.5.2-4) Which of the following statements describes the proper operation of a three-way
solenoid trip/dump valve on a two stage flash-type evaporator?

 (a) The valve normally requires a manual reset.


o (b) The valve will trip if the distillate is too warm.
o (c) The valve is interlocked to trip only on de-energization of the solenoid.
o (d) The valve will trip if the sea water feed temperature drops below 175°F.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

96. (3.2.4.5.2-1) A solenoid-operated distillate three-way valve is installed in the discharge line between
the distilling plant and the potable water tanks. This valve will trip and dump the distillate discharge if
the __________.

 (a) distillate salinity is excessive


o (b) potable water tank has become contaminated
o (c) potable water tank has been filled with raw water
o (d) distillate temperature is excessive

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

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97. (3.2.5-3) What is used to prevent contamination of a potable water system supplying a plumbing
fixture such as a galley sink from a backup of sewage sanitary drains?

o (a) Location of the potable water spigots below the rim of the galley sink.
o (b) Check valves in the potable water supply lines delivering water to the galley sink.
o (c) A "P" trap in the drain line draining sewage waste from the galley sink.
 (d) Location of the potable water spigots above the rim of the galley sink.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

98. (3.2.5-4) Which of the following desalination plants will always require a sterilizer when providing
water to a potable water system?

 (a) Reverse-osmosis type unit


o (b) Titanium plate type unit
o (c) Submerged tube type unit
o (d) Multi-stage flash type unit

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

99. (3.2.5-5) On most commercial cargo vessels with a relatively small crew size and few users of the
potable water system, how is the potable water system pressure maintained?

 (a) Cycling the potable water pump on and off by the action of the potable water hydro pneumatic
tank pressure switch in response to system demand changes.
o (b) Allowing the potable water pump to run continuously against a shut-off head during periods of
zero demand for potable water.
o (c) Allowing the potable water pump to run continuously while recirculating during periods of zero
demand for potable water.
o (d) Cycling the potable water pump on and off by the action of potable water storage tank level
switches in response to system demand changes.

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

100. (3.2.5-6) What design feature is used to minimize potable water wastage associated with hot
water distribution piping for a potable water system?

o (a) Use of storage type hot water heaters only.


 (b) Use of hot water recirculation loops.
o (c) Use of hot water heaters with multiple heat sources.
o (d) Use of instantaneous type hot water heaters only.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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101. (3.2.5-7) What are the operating characteristics of a "waterlogged" potable water system hydro
pneumatic header tank that needs to be recharged with compressed air?

o (a) Failure of the potable water pump to start with demand on the system.
o (b) Extremely long running and idle periods for the potable water pump.
 (c) Very short and frequent running and idle periods for the potable water pump.
o (d) Failure of the potable water pump to stop with zero demand on the system.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

102. (3.2.6-1) Which of the following speed control devices is used strictly as a safety device to
prevent prime mover damage and acts by shutting down the prime mover?

 (a) Over speed trip


o (b) Speed-limiting governor
o (c) Under speed trip
o (d) Over speed governor

If choice a is selected set score to 1.

103. (3.2.6-2) Which of the following statements is true concerning the application for an isochronous
governor?

o (a) An isochronous governor is ideally suited for a ship's geared propulsion drive driving
through a fixed pitch propeller.
o (b) An isochronous governor is ideally suited for a pump drive associated with maintaining a
constant pump discharge pressure.
o (c) An isochronous governor is ideally suited for a ship's direct-reversible propulsion drive driving
through a fixed pitch propeller.
 (d) An isochronous governor is ideally suited for a ship's service alternator drive associated with
maintaining a constant system frequency.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

104. (3.2.6-3) Which term represents the ability of a speed control governor to maintain prime mover
speed without hunting?

o (a) Sensitivity
 (b) Stability
o (c) Dead band
o (d) Promptness

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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105. (3.2.6-4) What is meant by the term "hunting" as it applies to prime mover speed control
governors?

o (a) Hunting is the repeated variation of speed due to under control by the governor and a lack of
governor power.
o (b) Hunting is the result of the transient speed changes of a prime mover as the governor
responds to load changes.
 (c) Hunting is the repeated and sometimes rhythmic variation of speed due to over control by the
governor.
o (d) Hunting is the change in speed required before the governor will initiate a corrective action as
the result of a load change.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

106. (3.2.6-5) What is statement is true concerning the term "isochronous" as it applies to prime mover
speed control governors?

o (a) Isochronous governors are able to maintain constant prime mover speed regardless of load by
employing permanent speed droop.
o (b) Isochronous governors are able to maintain constant prime mover load regardless of speed by
employing permanent speed droop.
 (c) Isochronous governors are able to maintain constant prime mover speed regardless of load by
employing temporary speed droop.
o (d) Isochronous governors are able to maintain constant prime mover load regardless of speed by
employing temporary speed droop.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

107. (3.2.7.1-1) On deep-draft ships, what statement is true concerning high and low sea suctions for
machinery space sea water cooling systems?

o (a) A low sea suction is located near the turn of the bilge and is used primarily in port or when
operating in shallow water, and a high sea suction is located near the bottom of the ship and is
used primarily while underway.
 (b) A high sea suction is located near the turn of the bilge and is used primarily in port or when
operating in shallow water, and a low sea suction is located near the bottom of the ship and is
used primarily while underway.
o (c) A high sea suction is located near the turn of the bilge and is used primarily while underway,
and a low sea suction is located near the bottom of the ship and is used primarily in port or when
operating in shallow water.
o (d) A low sea suction is located near the turn of the bilge and is used primarily while underway,
and a high sea suction is located near the bottom of the ship and is used primarily in port or when
operating in shallow water.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

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108. (3.2.7.1-3) What provision is made for sea chests for removal of air ingested into the sea chest of
a machinery space sea water cooling system?

o (a) The air may be continuously removed by an open valve located in the drain line originating
from the bottom of the sea chest and terminating above the deep-draft load line.
o (b) The air may be continuously removed by an open valve located in the vent line originating
from the top of the sea chest and terminating in the bilges.
o (c) The air may be continuously removed by an open valve located in the drain line originating
from the bottom of the sea chest and terminating in the bilges.
 (d) The air may be continuously removed by an open valve located in the vent line originating
from the top of the sea chest and terminating above the deep-draft load line.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

109. (3.2.7.1-5) Referring to illustrated steam plant seawater cooling system drawing, what statement
is true concerning seawater service system to auxiliary circulating seawater system cross-connect
capability? See Illustration SP-SW-01

o (a) In the event of multiple seawater service system pump failures, multiple main circulating
pumps may be used to supply the seawater service, main circulating sea water, and auxiliary
circulating sea water system heat exchangers.
 (b) In the event of auxiliary circulating pump failure, multiple seawater service pumps may be
used to supply both the seawater service system and auxiliary circulating sea water system heat
exchangers.
o (c) In the event of auxiliary circulating pump failure, multiple seawater service pumps may be
used to supply the seawater service, main circulating seawater, and auxiliary circulating sea
water system heat exchangers.
o (d) In the event of multiple seawater service system pump failures, the auxiliary circulating pump
may be used to supply both the seawater service system and auxiliary circulating sea water
system heat exchangers.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

110. (3.2.7.1-7) Referring to the illustrated motor ship fresh water cooling system drawing, what
statement is true concerning the jacket water heater? (MP-CW-06)

o (a) The jacket water heater is used under low engine load conditions to provide supplemental
heat for the evaporator.
o (b) The jacket water heater is used under high engine load conditions to dissipate excess engine
heat.
o (c) The jacket water heater is used only when the engine is idle for the sole purpose of generating
fresh water at the evaporator.
 (d) The jacket water heater is used only when the engine is idle to keep the engine warm.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

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111. (3.2.8.1-1) As it pertains to the automatic hydraulic brake of a horizontal electro-hydraulic anchor
windlass, what statement is true?

o (a) The brake is spring set and hydraulically released, and the brake automatically releases when
the pump is brought to zero stroke or there is a loss of servo power hydraulic pressure.
o (b) The brake is hydraulically set and spring released, and the brake automatically releases when
the pump is brought to zero stroke or there is a loss of servo power hydraulic pressure.
o (c) The brake is hydraulically set and spring released, and the brake automatically sets when the
pump is brought to zero stroke or there is a loss of servo power hydraulic pressure.
 (d) The brake is spring set and hydraulically released, and the brake automatically sets when the
pump is brought to zero stroke or there is a loss of servo power hydraulic pressure.

If choice d is selected set score to 1.

112. (3.2.8.1-3) A horizontal electro-mechanical anchor windlass is equipped with two warping heads,
two wildcats, two manual brake hand wheels, two clutch control levers, and a multipoint lever-
operated pedestal-mounted controller. What statement is true as it pertains to the operation of the
windlass clutch control levers?

o (a) The clutch control levers are used to engage and disengage both the warping heads and the
wildcats.
 (b) The clutch control levers are used to engage and disengage the wildcats only. They have no
control over the warping heads.
o (c)
D. The clutch control levers are used to engage and disengage either the warping heads or the
wildcats, depending upon the windlass design.
o (d) The clutch control levers are used to engage and disengage the warping heads only. They
have no control over the wildcats.

If choice b is selected set score to 1.

113. (3.2.8.1-5) A horizontal electro-mechanical anchor windlass is equipped with two warping heads,
two wildcats, two manual brake hand wheels, two clutch control levers, and a multipoint lever-
operated, pedestal-mounted controller. What statement is true as it pertains to the operation of the
manual brake hand wheels?

o (a) The manual brake hand wheels control band brakes that are associated with both the wildcats
and the warping heads.
o (b) The manual brake hand wheels control band brakes that are associated with the warping
heads only.
 (c) The manual brake hand wheels control band brakes that are associated with the wildcats only.
o (d) The manual brake hand wheels control band brakes that are associated with either the
wildcats or the warping heads, depending upon the windlass design.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

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114. (3.2.8.1-7) In attempting to start the hydraulic pump drive motor of a horizontal electro-hydraulic
anchor windlass, what condition would prevent the electric motor from starting?

o (a) Failure to start could be the result of an electrical interlock associated with hand wheel
operated wildcat band brakes being set.
o (b) Failure to start could be the result of an electrical interlock associated with the hydraulic pump
stroke control being in the neutral position.
 (c) Failure to start could be the result of an electrical interlock associated with the hydraulic pump
stroke control being in other than the neutral position.
o (d) Failure to start could be the result of an electrical interlock associated with the wildcat clutches
being disengaged.

If choice c is selected set score to 1.

115. (3.2.8.1-8) As it pertains to raising and lowering an anchor with a horizontal electro-hydraulic or
electro-mechanical anchor windlass, what statement is true?

o (a) The anchor can be either raised or lowered under power with the windlass by disengaging the
wildcat clutch. The anchor can be lowered by gravity by controlling the anchor chain payout with
the wildcat manual brake with the wildcat clutch engaged.
o (b) The anchor can only be raised (and not lowered) under power with the windlass by engaging
the wildcat clutch. The anchor can be lowered by gravity by controlling the anchor chain
payout with the wildcat manual brake with the wildcat clutch disengaged.
o (c) The anchor can only be raised (and not lowered) un