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Bacterial Genetics
4. Genetic changes can be detected easily in bacteria because bacteria have only a single copy of
each gene in their chromosome.
A. true b. false
5. 5-Bromuracil induces mutations because it
A. replaces a T and binds to G rather than A
b. replaces a G and binds to A rather than C
c. changes the binding affinity of G
d. changes the binding affinity of T
6. __________ radiation induces mutations because it causes abnormal bonds to form in DNA.
a. X b. gamma C. ultraviolet d. infrared
8. When 5-bromuracil is inducing a mutation, it takes _____ cell division(s) before there is a
complete base pair change.
a. one b. two C. more than two
9. An organism that has lost its ability to synthesize its own histidine is called a(an)
A. auxotroph b. donor cell c. prototroph d. revertant
10. The Ames test is a screening test used to predict whether a chemical is likely to cause
__________ in human cells.
A. cancer b. recombination c. auxotrophic mutations d. resistance to antibiotics
11. In the Ames test, if a his- organism exposed to chemical XYZ undergoes a mutation and
becomes his+, will it be able to grow on a medium without histidine?
A. yes b. no
13. Antibiotic resistance, pigment loss, and resistance to virus infection are all examples of
__________ mutations.
a. auxotrophic b. prototrophic c. lethal D. sublethal
14. In recombination, genetic change results from inserting a new section of DNA into a cell’s
chromosome. The cell that undergoes the genetic change is the
a. donor cell B. recipient cell
15. The F pilus and the genetic information needed to synthesize it are part of a ________ mating
type.
A. donor b. recipient
16. In the preparation of human DNA fragments for making recombinant DNA, the first step is to
use a(an) _________ to cut the fragment from a chromosome.
a. ligase (glue enzyme) B. restriction endonuclease (scissors enzyme)
17. To seal a human DNA fragment into a bacterial plasmid, you need a(an)
A. ligase (glue enzyme) b. restriction endonuclease (scissors enzyme)
18. Usually, the recombinant plasmid is put back into a bacterial cell by the process called
a. conjugation b. transduction c. gene cloning D. transformation
19. When the bacteria make many copies of the recombinant plasmid, and the copied human gene
is harvested from the cells, the process involved is called
a. recombination B. gene cloning c. translation d. transformation
Antimicrobial Chemotherapy
1. An antibiotic that interferes with the structure or function of (the) ____________ would be
most likely to have serious side effects.
a. cell membrane B. DNA c. protein d. cell wall
3. Mycobacterium and ____________ are genera that are particularly resistant to treatment with
antibiotics.
a. Escherichia b. Proteus c. Streptococcus D. Pseudomonas
4. When a person is prescribed an antibiotic for a bacterial illness, but they stop taking the
antibiotic before they finish it, what population of bacteria remain in their body?
a. the ones most sensitive to the antibiotic B. the ones most resistant to the antibiotic
5. A substance which must be synthesized by bacteria but which humans obtain through their diet
is
a. sulfanilamide b. PASA c. PABA D. folic acid
6. An antimicrobial agent which is a structural analog of a substance required for synthesis of the
substance named in the preceding question is
a. chloramphenicol B. PASA c. PABA d. folic acid
7. Bacteria that are resistant to penicillin and related antibiotics produce an enzyme that breaks
the ______________ in these antibiotics.
a. side groups (R groups) b. benzene ring C. beta-lactam ring d. disulfide bonds
9. An antimicrobial agent that acts only on actively growing cells engaged in cell wall synthesis is
a. amphotericin B b. chloramphenicol c. streptomycin D. penicillin
10. An antimicrobial agent that can be used as an antifungal drug because of its ability to bind to
sterols in the membrane and change membrane fluidity is
A. amphotericin B b. chloramphenicol c. streptomycin d. rifampin
11. Many bacteria acquire antibiotic resistance by the transfer of _____________ from a resistant
organism to a sensitive one.
a. pili b. mutations C. plasmids d. endospores
Pathogenesis
4. The most common mode of transmission for pneumonia, diphtheria, and tuberculosis is
a. direct contact B. in aerosols c. contaminated water d. vectors
6. The time between exposure to a pathogen and the appearance of symptoms is called the
a. virulent period b. contagious interval C. incubation period
7. Good control of diseases spread by fecal contamination of food or water is best achieved by
a. vaccination of the majority of the population B. improved sanitation sewers and water
purification
c. vector control d. prompt tracing of sexual contacts of those infected
8. Mycobacterium tuberculosis might be more likely to grow in the lungs of a host than in the
host's GI tract because
a. it prefers an acid pH B. it prefers abundant oxygen c. it cannot tolerate body temperature
9. A toxic virulence factor that can be used to prepare a toxoid, is relatively heat-sensitive, and
made of protein is more likely to be an
a. endotoxin B. exotoxin
10. Nontoxic virulence factors that enable bacteria to resist the outward fluid flow of mucous
secretions in the respiratory tract are most likely to be
a. capsule b. flagella C. pili d. aggressins