a.Ataxia b.Epilepsy c. Dysdiadochokinesis d. Telangiecstasia e. Dysmetria 2. Which of the following is FALSE with regards to generalised seizure disorders a. Usually heralded by an aura b. There is no warning c. There is bilateral synchronous seizure discharge on EEG d. The seizure is symmetrical e. There is always a loss of consciousness 3. What is this describing: Transient loss of muscle tone causing a sudden fall to the floor or drop of the head. a. Tonic seizures b. Absence seizures c. Tonic-clonic seizures d. Myoclonic seizures e. Atonic seizures 4. Febrile convlsions occur in ___% of children between the ages of 6 months and 5 years a. 10 b. 1 c. 15 d. 20 e. 3 5. A term used to describe seizures which arise form one hemisphere or part of one hemisphere a. focal b. petite c. generalised d. myonic e. tonic 6. What is this describing: Brief, often repetitive jerking movements of the limbs, neck or trunk. a. Absence seizures b. Myoclonic seizures c. Tonic-clonic seizures d. Tonic seizures e. Atonic seizures 7. Cutaneous features consist of ash leaf shaped patches, shagreen patches, & adenoma sebaceum. Neurological features are; infantile spasms and developmental delay, epilepsy, & intellectual impairment. a. Neurofibromatosis type 1 b. Tuberous sclerosis c. Juvenile myasthenia d. Neurofibromatosis type 2 e. Sturge Weber syndrome 8. CPK is markedly elevated. Children present with a waddling gait. The average age of diagnosis is 5.5 years. Death ensues in the late teens or early twenties from respiratory failure. a. Dermatomyositis b. Dystrophia myotonica c. Becker’s muscular dystrophy d. Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy e. Myasthenia gravis 9. What is this describing: Generalised increase in tone a. Tonic seizures b. Tonic-clonic seizures c. Myoclonic seizures d. Absence seizures e. Atonic seizures 10. The need to turn prone to rise from a supine to a standing position a. Arnold Chari’s sign b. Dandy-Walker’s sign c. Guillan-Barre’s sign d. Gower’s sign e. Becker’s sign 11. Clinical features include corneal clousing, thickened skin, coarse facies, valvular lesions, thickened skull, hepatosplenomegaly a. Huntington’s disease b. Mucopolysaccharidoses c. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis d. Wilson’s disease e. X-linked adrenoleucodystropy 12. A periodic disorder characterised by paroxysmal headache, often unilateral, and is characteristically throbbing a. Torticollis b. Cluster headache c. Migraine d. Sinusitis e. Tension headache 13. What is this describing: Transient loss of consciousness with abrupt onset and termination, unaccompanied by motor phenemenon except flickering of eyelids and minor alteration in motor tone. a. Absence seizures b. Tonic seizures c. Atonic seizures d. Myoclonic seizures e. Tonic-clonic seizures 14. Epilepsy has a prevalence of about a. 1.0% b. 2.0% c. 1.5% d. 0.1% e. 0.5% 15. In children aged under 5 years, prolonged seizures (> 5 minutes) may be treated using a. buccal midazolam b. oral benzodiazepine c. high dose aspirin d. sodium valproate e. digoxin 16. A 5-HT antagonist used in headache prophylaxis. Can cause weight gain and sleepiness. a. Propranolol b. Metoclopramide c. Pizotifen d. Prochlorperazine e. Sumatriptan 17. Side effects include rash, neutropaenia, hyponatraemia and ataxia a. Valproate b. Gabapentin c. Carbamazepine d. Vigabatrin e. Lamotrigine 18. Occur mostly between 4-6 months. Violent flexor spasms of the head, trunk and limbs, followed by extension of the arms. a. Lennox-Gastaut syndrome b. Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy c. Benign rolandic epilepsy d. Petit mal absence seizures e. Infantile spasms 19. This presents as abnormal muscle fatiguability which improves with rest or anticholinesterase drugs a. Juvenile myasthenia b. Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy c. Myasthenia gravis d. Bell’s palsy e. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease 20. Presents woith excessive increase in head circumference, separation of skull sutures bulging of the anterior fontanelle, distention of scalp veins and sun setting of the eyes a. Spina bifida occulta b. Myelomeningocele c. Anencephaly d. Hydrocephalus e. Encephalocele 21. A sporadic disorder with a port wine stain in the distribution of the trigeminal nerve associated with a similar lesion intracranially a, Tuberous sclerosis b. Juvenile myasthenia c. Neurofibromatosis type 2 d. Sturge Weber syndrome e. Neurofibromatosis type 1 22. The diagnosis of epilepsy requires ___ or more unprovoked seizures a. 4 b. 3 c. 2 d. 5 e. 1 23. Which of the following is a cause of stroke in childhood? a. Sickle cell disease b. SLE c. Moyamoya disease d. Endocarditis e. All of these 24. A disorder of the anterior horn cell a. Bell’s Palsy b. Myasthenia gravis c. Poliomyelitis d. Duchenne Muscular dystrophy e. Guillan Barre 25. An autosomal recessive condition. Disorder of DNA repair. The gene ATM has been identified. There may be mild delay in motor development in infancy and oculomotor problems. a. Epilepsy b. Fredreich’s ataxia c. Dysdiadochokinesis d. Ataxia telangiectasia e. Dysmetria 26. Results from a deletion of chromosome material on the short arm of the X chromosome (Xp21 site). This site is known to code for a protein called dystrophin. a. Dermatomyositis b. Dystrophia myotonica c. Myasthenia gravis d. Becker’s muscular dystrophy e. Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy 27. An isolated lower motor neuron paresis of the VIIth cranial nerve. It is probably post infection with an association with Herpes simplex virus in adults a. Myasthenia gravis b. Juvenile myasthenia c. Bell’s palsy d. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease e. Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy 28. Failure of development of most of the cranium and brain. Affected infants are stillborn or die shortly after birth a. Encephalocele b. Anencephaly c. Hydrocele d. Myelomeningocele e. Spina bifida occulta 29. Difficulty in performing repetitive and alternating movements a. Telangiecstasia b. Ataxia c. Epilepsy d. Dysdiadochokinesis e. Dysmetria 30. Constitute approximately 90% of migraines a. With aura b. Complicated c. Without aura d. Cluster e. Nystigmal 31. The most common cause of epilepsy is a. neurodegenerative disorders b. idiopathic c. cerebral tumour d. cerebral vascular occlusion e. neurocutaneous syndromes 32. Presentation is typically 2-3 weeks after an upper respiratory tract infection or campylobacter gastroenteritis. The prominent feature is an ascending symmetrical weakness with loss of reflexes and autonomic involvement. a. Myasthenia gravis b. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease c. Guillan Barre syndrome d. Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy e. Juvenile myasthenia 33. Dominantly inherited and cause dby a trinucleotide repeat expansion. Older children can present with learning difficulties. Adults can develop cataracts and males baldness and testicular atrophy. a. Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy b. Dermatomyositis c. Myasthenia gravis d. Becker’s muscular dystrophy e. Dystrophia myotonica 34. Side effects include restriction of visual fields and sedation a. Lamotrigine b. Valproate c. Carbamazepine d. Gabapentin e. Vigabatrin 35. A seizure lasting 30 minutes or repeated seizures for 30 minutes without recovery of consciousness a. telangiectasia b. status epilepticus c. Friedrich's fit d. SUDEP e. ataxia 36. Children who experience complex febrile seizures (i.e. focal, prolonged or repeated in the same illness) have a _____ risk of subsequent epilepsy a. 20-30% b. 4-12% c. 30-40% d. 10-20% e. 1-5% 37. Due to binding of antibody to acetylcholine receptors on the post-junctional synaptic membrane. Presentation is usually after 10 years of age with opthalmoplegia and ptosis, aloss of facial expression and difficulty chewing. a. Juvenile myasthenia b. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease c. Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy d. Myasthenia gravis e. Bell’s palsy 38. Features include the accumulation of copper which may cause changes in behaviour and additional involuntary movements or a mixture of neurological and hepatic symptoms a. Huntington’s disease b. Wilson’s disease c. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis d. X-linked adrenoleucodystropy e. Lysosomal storage disorders 39. Small areas of visual loss a. Fortification spectra b. Opthalmoplegia c. Hemianopia d. Scotoma e. Aura 40. The most common type, may result in strange warning feelings or aura with smell and taste abnormalities. Lip smacking, plucking at one's clothing and automatisms may be seen. a. Temporal lobe seizures b. Frontal seizures c. Occipital seizures d. Parietal lobe seizures e. Spastic seizures 41. Comprises 15% of all childhood epilepsies. EEG shows sharp focal waves from the centrotemporal area. A, Benign occipital epilepsy b. Lennox-Gastaut syndrome c. Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy d. Benign rolandic epilepsy e. Petit mal absence seizures 42. Protrusion of the meninges, spinal cord, and nerve roots through a gap in the spine, accompanied by paralysis of the legs and urinary incontinence a. Myelomeningocele b. Encephalocele c. Anencephaly d. Spina bifida occulta e. Hydrocele 43. Associated with neurological phenomena such as opthalmoplegia, hemiparesis, paraesthesiae or hemidysaesthesia a. Complicated b. Without aura c. Cluster d. With aura e. Nystigmal 44. A delayed response in adolescence to a previous measles infection causing neurological regression with a characteristic EEG a. Huntington’s disease b. X-linked adrenoleucodystropy c. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis d. Wilson’s disease e. Lysosomal storage disorders 45. Consists of a downward displacement of the cerebellar tonsils and the medulla through the foramen magnum, sometimes causing hydrocephalus a. Spina bifida occulta b. Encephalocele c. Arnold Chari malformation d. Dandy Walker malformaton e. Anencephaly 46. Presentation is usually with acute onset of headache pain, neck stiffness and occasionally fever. A CT scan of the head usually identified blood in the CSF. a. Myelomeningocele b. Subdural haematoma c. Subarachnoid haemorrhage d. Extradural haemorrhage e. Encephalocele 47. Onset is in the first decade with distal atrophy and pes cavus. The legs are more affected than the arms. a. Myasthenia gravis b. Guillan Barre syndrome c. Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy d. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease e. Juvenile myasthenia 48. Results from tearing of the veins as they cross the subdural space. May be caused by shaking or direct trauma. Occasionally seen following a fall from a considerable height. a. Subarachnoid haemorrhage b. Encephalocele c. Subdural haematoma d. Extradural haemorrhage e. Myelomeningocele 49. Involve the motor cortex. May lead to clonic movements, which may travel proximally (Jacksonian march) a. Spastic seizures b. Temporal lobe seizures c. Occipital seizures d. Parietal lobe seizures e. Frontal seizures 50. The cause is often an aneurysm or arteriovenous malformation. Retinal haemorrhage is usually present. a. Subarachnoid haemorrhage b. Myelomeningocele c. Encephalocele d. Extradural haemorrhage e. Subdural haematoma 51. Congenital deformity of the foot usually marked by a curled shape or twisted position of the ankle and heel and toes a, Arnold Chari malformation b. Myasthenia gravis c. Becker’s deformity d. Talipes e. Dandy-Walker malformation 52. Diagnosis is made by observing improvement following the administration of intravenous edrophonium and can be further confirmed by testing for acetylcholine receptor antibodies. Treatments include neostigmine or pyridostigmine. a. Myasthenia gravis b. Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy c. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease d. Bell’s palsy e. Juvenile myasthenia 53. Presents with worsening ataxia, distal wasting in the legs, absent lower limb reflexes, pes cavus and dysarthria. There is impairment of joint position and vibration sense. a. Fredreich’s ataxia b. Ataxia telangiectasia c. Dysmetria d. Epilepsy e. Dysdiadochokinesis 54. Which of the following is FALSE? a. Anti-epileptic drug therapy can usually be discontinued after 2 years free of seizures b. Phenytoin has predictable pharmacokinetics c. Carbamazepine can make myoclonic seizures worse d. Not all seizures require anti-epileptic drug therapy e. Carbamazepine can make absence sizures worse 55. A symmetrical headache of gradual onset, often described as tightness, a band or pressure. a. Migraine b. Torticollis c. Tension headache d. Sinusitis e. Cluster headache 56. Usually associated with a skull fracture. There may be focal neurological signs with dilatation of the ipsilateral pupil and paresis of the contralateral limbs. Diagnosis is confirmed with a CT scan. a. Subarachnoid haemorrhageEncephalocele b. Subdural haematoma c. Extradural haemorrhage d. Myelomeningocele 57. What is this describing: Rhythmical contraction of muscle groups following a generalised increase in muscle tone. a. Absence seizures b. Tonic-clonic seizures c. Tonic seizures d. Myoclonic seizures e. Atonic seizures 58. Cause distortion of vision a. Temporal lobe seizures b. Parietal lobe seizures c. Occipital seizures d. Spastic seizures e. Frontal seizures 59. Failure of fusion of the vertebral arch. Often an incidental finding on X-ray, but there may be an overlying skin lesion such as a tuft of hair a. Myelomeningocele b. Anencephaly c. Hydrocele d. Spina bifida occulta e. Encephalocele 60. Which of the following is NOT characteristic of a headache due to a space occupying lesion? a. Papilloedema b. Visual field defects c. Torticollis d. Abnormal gait e. Eased on lying down 61. There is extrusion of the brain and meninges through a midline skull defect a, Anencephaly b. Hydrocele c. Encephalocele d. Myelomeningocele e. Spina bifida occulta 62. Bilateral acoustic neuromata are the predominant feature and present with deafness and sometimes a cerebellopontine angle syndrome a. Neurofibromatosis type 1 b. Tuberous sclerosis c. Juvenile myasthenia d. Neurofibromatosis type 2 e. Sturge Weber syndrome 63. This disorder is usually autosomal recessive and due to degeneration of the anterior horn cells, leading to progressive weakness and wasting of skeletal muscles a. Poliomyelitis b. Spinal muscular atrophy c. Guillan Barre d. Duchenne Muscular dystrophy e. Myasthenia gravis 64. Treatment for this is with acyclovir. Hypertension should be excluded. There is an association with coarctation of the aorta. a. Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy b. Juvenile myasthenia c. Bell’s palsy d. Myasthenia gravis e. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease 65. Constitute approximately 10% of migraines a. Nystigmal b. Without aura c. Cluster d. With aura e. Complicated 66. Which of the following is NOT a typical sign of Werdnig- Hoffman disease? a. Increased foetal movements during pregnancy b. Absent deep tendon reflexes c. Intercostal recession d. Lack of antigravity power in hip flexors e. Fasciculation of the tongue 67. Cause contralateral dysaesthesias (altered sensation), or distorted body image. a. Temporal lobe seizures b. Parietal lobe seizures c. Spastic seizures d. Frontal seizures e. Occipital seizures 68. Some functional dystrophin is produced. Average age of onset is 11 years. Leads to inability to walk in the late twenties and death in the 40’s, although this is very variable. a. Myasthenia gravis b. Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy c. Dystrophia myotonica d. Dermatomyositis e. Becker’s muscular dystrophy 69. Occur mostly between 1-3 years. Multiple seizure types but mostly astatic seizures, tonic seizures, and atypical absences. Also neurodevelopmental arrest or regression. a. Benign rolandic epilepsy b. Petit mal absence seizures c. Lennox-Gastaut syndrome d. Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy e. Infantile spasms 70. Side effects include weight gain and hair loss a. Valproate b. Lamotrigine c. Gabapentin d. Vigabatrin e. Carbamazepine 71. Most common between 4 - 10 years of age. Tonic-clonic seizures in sleep, or awareness of abnormal feelings in the tongue and distortion of the face. a. Infantile spasms b. Lennox-Gastaut syndrome c. Petit mal absence seizures d. Benign rolandic epilepsy e. Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy 72. A disorder of neuromuscular transmission a. Duchenne Muscular dystrophy b. Myasthenia gravis c. Poliomyelitis d. Guillan Barre e. Bell’s Palsy 73. This is a systemic illness, possibly due to an angiopathy. Usual onset is between 5 and 10 years. There is a characteristic violaceous (heliotrope) rash to the eyelids, and periorbital oedema. Leads to symmetrical muscle weakness. a. Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy b. Dystrophia myotonica c. Dermatomyositis d. Becker’s muscular dystrophy e. Myasthenia gravis 74. Most common in adolescence - adulthood. Tonic-clonic seizures and absences may occur, mostly shortly after walking. A typical history is throwing drinks or cornflakes about in the morning. a. Lennox-Gastaut syndrome b. Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy c. Infantile spasms d. Petit mal absence seizures e. Benign rolandic epilepsy 75. The most common hereditary motor sensory neuropathy (usually dominantly inherited). a. Myasthenia gravis b. Guillan Barre syndrome c. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease d. Juvenile myasthenia e. Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy 76. Describes incoordination of movement, speech and posture a. Dysmetria b. Ataxia c. Telangiecstasia d. Epilepsy e. Dysdiadochokinesis 77. Occur mostly between 4 - 12 years. Stare momentarily and stop moving, may twitch their eyelids or a hand minimally. Lasts no longer than 30 seconds. a. Infantile spasms b. Lennox-Gastaut syndrome c. Benign rolandic epilepsy d. Petit mal absence seizures e. Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy 78. Most common between 1 and 14 years. In younger children it is characterised by periods of unresponsiveness, eye deviation and vomiting. In older children it is characterised by headaches and visual disturbances. a. Petit mal absence seizures b. Benign rolandic epilepsy c. Lennox-Gastaut syndrome d. Benign occipital epilepsy e. Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy 79. The seeing of zigzag lines a. Aura b. Hemianopia c. Fortification spectra d. Opthalmoplegia e. Scotoma 80. In order to make the diagnosis, two or more of the following must be present: six or more café au lait spots > 5mm in size before puberty or >15 mm after puberty; > 1 neurofibroma, axillary freckles, optic glioma, Lisch nodule, bony lesions from sphenoid dysplasia, first degree relative with the condition a. Neurofibromatosis type 2 b. Neurofibromatosis type 1 c. Tuberous sclerosis d. Juvenile myasthenia e. Sturge Weber syndrome Key 1. E 2. A 3. E 4. E 5. A 6. B 7. B 8. D 9. A 10. D 11. B 12. C 13. A 14. E 15. A 16. C 17. C 18. E 19. C 20. D 21. D 22. C 23. E 24. C 25. D 26. E 27. C 28. B 29. D 30. C 31. B 32. C 33. E 34. E 35. B 36. B 37. A 38. B 39. D 40. A 41. D 42. A 43. A 44. C 45. C 46. C 47. D 48. C 49. E 50. A 51. D 52. E 53. A 54. B 55. C 56. C 57. B 58. C 59. D 60. E 61. C 62. D 63. B 64. C 65. D 66. A 67. B 68. E 69. C 70. A 71. D 72. B 73. C 74. B 75. C 76. B 77. D 78. D 79. C 80. B