2006 Chemistry Trial Paper

Centre Number
CATHOLIC SECONDARY SCHOOLS Student Number

ASSOCIATION OF NEW SOUTH WALES
2006
TRIAL HIGHER SCHOOL CERTIFICATE
EXAMINATION
Chemistry
Afternoon Session
Friday 4 August 2006
Total marks – 100
Section I Pages 3-21

General Instructions 75 marks
This section has two parts, Part A and Part B
• Reading time – 5 minutes
Part A – 15 marks
• Working time – 3 hours • Attempt Questions 1-15
• Write using blue or black pen • Allow about 30 minutes for this part
• Draw diagrams using pencil Part B – 60 marks

• Board-approved calculators may be used • Attempt Questions 16-29
• Allow about 1 hour and 45 minutes for this
• Use the Data Sheet and Periodic Table part
provided
• Use the Multiple Choice Answer Sheet Section II Pages 25-34
provided
25 marks
• Write your Centre Number and Student
• Attempt ONE question from Questions 30-34
Number at the top of this page and on
• Allow about 45 minutes for this section
page 9
Disclaimer
Every effort has been made to prepare these ‘Trial’ Higher School Certificate Examinations in accordance with the Board of Studies documents,
Principles for Setting HSC Examinations in a Standards-Referenced Framework (BOS Bulletin, Vol 8, No 9, Nov/Dec 1999), and Principles for
Developing Marking Guidelines Examinations in a Standards Referenced Framework (BOS Bulletin, Vol 9, No 3, May 2000). No guarantee or
warranty is made or implied that the ‘Trial’ Examination papers mirror in every respect the actual HSC Examination question paper in any or all
courses to be examined. These papers do not constitute ‘advice’ nor can they be construed as authoritative interpretations of Board of Studies
intentions. The CSSA accepts no liability for any reliance use or purpose related to these ‘Trial’ question papers. Advice on HSC examination issues is
only to be obtained from the NSW Board of Studies.
2801-1
EXAMINERS
Bronwen Hegarty (convenor) Educational Consultant

Dallas Demeny Ravenswood School, Gordon
Jo McGrouther St. Vincent’s College, Potts Point
Troy McMurrich Oakhill College, Castle Hill
Mark Shore Queenwood School, Mosman
Alan Wilson Caroline Chisholm College, Glenmore Park
Source
Question 28 – http://www.csiro.au/files/mediaRelease/mr1999/Ozone.htm
2
Section I
75 marks
Part A – 15 marks
Attempt Questions 1-15
Allow about 30 minutes for this part
Use the Multiple Choice Answer Sheet provided
1 Why can ethylene be transformed readily into other compounds?
(A) It is a product of both fossil fuels and biomass.

(B) It has a highly reactive double bond.
(C) It easily loses two H atoms.
(D) It can be catalytically cracked to form many different alkanes.
2 n (HO-C6H10O4-OH) → H-(O-C6H10O4)n-OH + (n-1) H2O
What type of reaction is this?
(A) catalytic cracking

(B) condensation polymerisation
(C) addition polymerisation
(D) oxidation and reduction
3 A student was investigating the heat of combustion of ethanol. She used an ethanol
burner that had an initial mass of 68.0 g. She then lit the burner and placed it under a
beaker containing 500 mL of water. After a few minutes, she noticed that the water
temperature had risen from 24oC to 38oC and the burner now weighed 66.5 g.
She made the assumption that only the water was heated.
What would be the student’s value for the heat of combustion for ethanol?
(A) 87.8 J mol-1

(B) 29.3 kJ mol-1
(C) 899 kJ mol-1
(D) 1350 kJ mol-1
3
4 Consider the following reaction involving hydrogen ions.
2Na(s) + 2H+(aq) → H2(g) + 2Na+(aq)
Which statement about the hydrogen ions in this reaction is correct?
(A) They undergo an increase in oxidation state.

(B) They are classified as the oxidising agent.
(C) They lose electrons.
(D) They undergo an acid-base reaction with the sodium metal.
5 The graph shows the radioactive decay of strontium-90.
What is the approximate half-life of strontium-90?
(A) 30 years
(B) 50 years
(C) 80 years
(D) 140 years
4
6 An unknown chemical was extracted from a soil sample and sent to your laboratory.
One of the first tests you carried out was to determine the pH of the chemical by using
indicators. The following are the results:
Indicator Colour
Phenolphthalein Colourless
Methyl orange Yellow
Bromothymol blue Blue
How should your laboratory classify the soil sample?
(A) strongly acidic

(B) slightly acidic
(C) neutral
(D) slightly alkaline
7 The pH of a 0.1 mol L-1 solution of a monoprotic acid was measured by a student and
found to be close to 3. What proportion of the acid molecules remains unconverted to
ions?
(A) 0 %
(B) 1%
(C) 60 %
(D) 99 %
8 Which of the following curves would represent the change in pH in a conical flask when
a solution of hydrochloric acid (from a burette) is added to a solution of sodium
hydroxide (in the conical flask)?
(A) (B)
pH pH
(C) (D)
pH pH
5
9 The following diagrams show equipment you have used in carrying out first-hand
investigations in the school laboratory.
P Q R S T
Students were asked to perform an experiment in 3 steps:
Step1: The ester, ethyl propanoate, was prepared from ethanol, propanoic acid and a
small amount of concentrated sulfuric acid.
Step 2: An impure sample of the ester was then separated from any unreacted acid,
alcohol and sulfuric acid.
Step 3: A pure sample of the ester was collected.
The equipment used in each step of this experiment was:
Step 1 Step 2 Step 3

(A) P T Q
(B) P Q S
(C) Q R T
(D) Q T S
10 Calculate the mass of carbon dioxide formed when 74.4 L of oxygen gas at 100 kPa and
25 oC completely combusts a sample of ethanol.
(A) 44 g
(B) 50 g
(C) 88 g
(D) 132 g
11 Identify the catalyst used in the Haber process.
(A) a zeolite
(B) concentrated sulfuric acid
(C) dilute sulfuric acid
(D) iron oxide
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12 Identify the ion present in an unknown solution that produces bubbles with the addition
of dilute nitric acid.
(A) Cl-
(B) CO32-
(C) PO43-
(D) SO42-
13 The three equations below summarise a series of reactions occurring in the atmosphere.
CCl3F + UV radiation → Cl. + .CCl2F
Cl. + O3 → .ClO + O2
.ClO + O → Cl. + O2
What do these three equations explain?
(A) Production of oxygen gas in the troposphere.

(B) Formation of ozone in the stratosphere.
(C) Absorption, by ozone, of harmful UV radiation.
(D) Production, destruction and regeneration of chlorine atoms.
14 CHCl2CF3 and CHClFCClF2 are
(A) isomers
(B) isotopes
(C) allotropes
(D) CFCs
15 The treatment of water to make it suitable for human consumption is a process which
occurs in steps.
Identify the INCORRECT statement relating to this process.
(A) The pH of the water is increased by the addition of lime or sodium hydroxide to
assist in coagulation.
(B) Salts such as alum or iron (III) chloride are added to bring about coagulation and
sedimentation of suspended materials.
(C) Chloride ions are added to kill bacteria in the water.
(C) Fluoride salts may be added to assist in the prevention of tooth decay in children.
7
BLANK PAGE
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CATHOLIC SECONDARY SCHOOLS ASSOCIATION OF NEW SOUTH WALES
2006 TRIAL HIGHER SCHOOL CERTIFICATE EXAMINATION
Centre Number
Chemistry
Section I (continued)
Student Number
Part B – 60 marks
Attempt Questions 16-29
Allow about 1 hour and 45 minutes for this part
Answer the questions in the spaces provided.
Show all relevant working in questions involving calculations.
Question 16 (3 marks) Marks
(a) Using a labelled diagram, demonstrate how polystyrene can be produced from its 2
monomer.
(b) Explain ONE use of this polymer in terms of ONE of its physical properties. 1
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9
In order to produce a cell with a voltage between 1.1 V and 1.2 V, a student constructed the
following galvanic cell.
copper silver
KCl (aq)
Cu2+ Ag+
(a) Label the cathode on the above diagram. 1
(b) Explain why KCl (aq) would be an inappropriate choice for the salt bridge in this cell. 2
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(c) Calculate the cell potential, showing relevant half-equations, in order to evaluate the 3
student’s selection of electrodes and electrolytes. (Assume standard conditions.)
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Name an isotope used in industry. Explain how its use is related to its properties. 2
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Cobalt – 60 forms when cobalt – 59 captures a neutron.

(a) Write a balanced nuclear equation for this reaction. 1
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(b) Explain why cobalt – 60 is produced in a nuclear reactor rather than a cyclotron 1
(particle accelerator).
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Fossil fuels are currently the dominant source of both energy and raw materials needed for 7
the production of polymers. However, the supply of fossil fuels is finite and rapidly
diminishing. In the near future, a replacement source of both energy and polymer raw
materials will need to be found and one potential source is ethanol.
Using appropriate chemical equations, assess the potential of ethanol as a resource to replace
fossil fuels for the supply of both polymers and energy.
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12
(a) SO2, K2O, N2O5, CaO
From the list of oxides above, identify:
(i) a basic oxide ………………………………………………….. 1
(ii) an acidic oxide ………………………………………………... 1
(b) Write a balanced equation for a reaction which illustrates the acidic or basic nature of 1
one of the oxides you identified in part (a).
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(c) Aluminium oxide is classified as amphoteric. Define the term amphoteric. 1
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(a) State an industrial use for a named ester. 1
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(b) (i) Draw the structural formula for the ester produced in the reaction between 1
1-butanol and ethanoic acid, in the presence of concentrated sulfuric acid.
(ii) Name this ester. 1
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13
Hydrogen sulfide gas is extremely toxic if inhaled, has an unpleasant smell (rotten eggs) and
is highly flammable. Stringent precautions are required when handling it.
(a) Explain why hydrogen sulfide is classified as a WEAK acid. 1
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(b) Explain (with the aid of a chemical equation) why H2S is considered a Bronsted-Lowry 2
acid.
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(c) Identify ONE conjugate acid-base pair involved in the equation you have written in (b) 1
above.
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Question 23 continues on page 15
14
Question 23 (continued) Marks
(d) Hydrogen sulfide (g) is formed when hydrochloric acid reacts with zinc sulfide.
ZnS (s) + 2HCl (aq) → ZnCl2 (aq) + H2S (g)
In an experiment performed in a fume cupboard 50.0 mL of 0.10M HCl was added to

0.11 g of solid zinc sulfide.
(i) Which reagent is in excess? Show Your Working. 2
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(ii) What volume of hydrogen sulfide (g) is produced at 298K and 100 kPa in this 2
experiment
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End of Question 23
15
Caustic soda (sodium hydroxide) can be used to strip paint off furniture.
A 3.0 g container of caustic soda was dissolved in water and the volume of the solution was
made up to 3.0 L.
The sodium hydroxide solution was then titrated with 0.026 mol L-1 hydrochloric acid
solution.
(a) Calculate the concentration of the sodium hydroxide solution in mol L-1. Show your 1
working.
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(b) Determine the pH of the hydrochloric acid solution. 1
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(c) Evaluate the use of sodium hydroxide as a primary standard. 3
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The Haber Process has been used for over 90 years for the industrial production of ammonia. 4
This process must be carefully managed and monitored by industrial chemists.
Analyse the impact of changes in pressure and temperature on the yield and rate of
production of ammonia during the Haber Process.
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Explain why incomplete combustion of carbon-based fuels is considered a problem for the 2
environment and identify how scientists can reduce the possibility of incomplete combustion
occurring.
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(a) Identify the purpose of using standard solutions in atomic absorption spectroscopy 1
(AAS).
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(b) Assess the impact of atomic absorption spectroscopy (AAS) on scientific 4

understanding of the effects of ONE trace element that you have studied.
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18
This graph summarises the atmospheric ozone concentrations measured at Halley Bay.
(a) Identify the trends or patterns described by the graph. 2
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(b) Explain ONE method of obtaining the data in the graph. 2
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The hardness of a sample of water was investigated using the following methods.
Method A Method B
25.0 mL samples of water were titrated Three drops of detergent were added to
against ethylenediamine tetra-acetic acid separate vials containing 5 mL samples of
(EDTA) with Eriochrome Black T indicator. distilled water, hard water and the sample.
21.7 mL of EDTA was required. The After shaking the vials ten times the heights
hardness was calculated to be equivalent to of froth were compared. The procedure was
17 mg/L of CaCO3. repeated twice. As the amount of froth in the
three samples was only slightly less than in
the distilled water the sample was determined
to be soft.
(a) Identify which of the TWO methods is classified as qualitative. 1
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(b) Using the following table, the results from Method A indicated the sample was soft. 1
Water Hardness Scale

Concentration of Classification
CaCO3
less than 20 ppm soft
20-60 ppm slightly hard
60-120 ppm moderately hard
more than 120 ppm hard
Justify this conclusion.
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(c) Compare the appropriateness of Method A and Method B for determining the 3
hardness of the water.
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End of Question 29
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CATHOLIC SECONDARY SCHOOLS ASSOCIATION OF NEW SOUTH WALES
Chemistry
Section II
25 marks
Attempt ONE question from Questions 30-34
Allow about 45 minutes for this section
Answer the question in a SEPARATE writing booklet.
Show all relevant working in questions involving calculations.
Page
Question 30 Industrial Chemistry ............................................................................... 26-27
Question 31 Shipwrecks, Corrosion and Conservation .............................................. 28-29
Question 32 The Biochemistry of Movement............................................................. 30-31
Question 33 The Chemistry of Art....................................................................................32
Question 34 Forensic Chemistry................................................................................. 33-34
2801-1
25
Question 30 – Industrial Chemistry (25 marks) Marks
(a) The gas carbon oxyfluoride (COF2) decomposes to the gas tetrafluoromethane (CF4)
and carbon dioxide.
2COF2(g) ⇔ CF4(g) + CO2(g)
The reaction is carried out at 200oC in a fixed volume 5.00 L container. Initially
0.400 mol of carbon oxyfluoride is present in the flask. At equilibrium 0.080 mol of
carbon oxyfluoride remains.
(i) Write the expression for the equilibrium constant for this reaction. 1
(ii) Determine the value of the equilibrium constant. 3
(iii) An increase in temperature results in 0.090 mol of carbon 1

oxyfluoride being present at equilibrium. Is the decomposition of carbon
oxyfluoride exothermic or endothermic? Explain your answer
(b) Outline the steps and conditions necessary for the industrial production of 4
H2SO4 from its raw materials.
(c) During the course of your studies you performed a first-hand investigation to
identify the products of electrolysis of NaCl.
(i) Use equations to identify the products when both concentrated NaCl and dilute 4
NaCl solutions are electrolysed. Explain the tests you used to identify the
products in each case.
(ii) What would be the products of electrolysis of molten sodium chloride? 1
(d) During the past 50 years, different classes of synthetic detergents have been 5
developed to replace soap as the dominant cleaning agent. Assess the impact on the
environment of the use of these synthetic detergents as a replacement for soap.
26
(e) The flow chart below summarises the Solvay Process.
(i) What are the raw materials needed for this industrial process? 1
(ii) Write equations for the steps in the process which result in the formation of 2
sodium hydrogen carbonate and ammonium chloride.
(iii) The outputs of the Solvay process include sodium carbonate and a waste 3
chemical product. Identify this waste product and explain how the disposal of
this waste influences the choice of location of the manufacturing plant.
End of Question 30
27
Question 31 – Shipwrecks, Corrosion and Conservation (25 marks) Marks
(a) (i) Minerals are leached by rainwater from terrestrial environments into the 1
oceans.
Identify another significant source of minerals in the ocean.
(ii) Describe the processes that occur when a saturated solution evaporates and 2
relate this to the potential damage to drying artefacts.
(iii) Discuss a chemical procedure for removing salts from a metal artefact. 3
(b) The chemical analysis of TWO steels is summarised in this table.
Steel X Steel Y
Element % Element %
C 0.08 C 0.95
Mn 2.00 Mn 1.1
Si 0.75 Cr 0.6
Cr 16.0 W 0.6
Mo 2.0 V 0.1
Ni 10.0 Si 0.25
(i) Identify the main element in steel. 1
(ii) Outline the steps that could be carried out to make a valid comparison of the 3
corrosion rates of these TWO steels in a marine environment.
(iii) Justify the selection of Steel X for handrails on a marine vessel. 2
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(c) The diagram below shows an application of cathodic protection.
steel side of ship

magnesium bar
bolted to ship
seawater
Copy the diagram into your answer book.
(i) On your diagram, label the anode. 1
(ii) On your diagram, indicate the flow of electrons. 1
(iii) Write the reduction half equation. 1
(d) Explain how an understanding of electron transfer reactions can be used to clarify the 6
role of bacteria in accelerating the corrosion of deeply submerged wrecks.
(e) In an investigation to predict the rate of corrosion of a metal at great depths, the
following items of information were discovered.
GRAPH: Pressure versus Ocean Depth
3500
3000
Pressure (kPa)
2500
2000
1500
1000
500
0
0 50 100 150 200 250 300
Depth (m)
TABLE: Solubility (g/100g H2O)
Pressure (atm) O2 N2 CO2

5 0.08 0.04 0.8
10 0.16 0.08 1.6
(i) Use the items to deduce the qualitative relationship between depth and 1
solubility of gases.
(ii) Evaluate the relevance of these TWO items to the investigation. 3
End of Question 31
29
Question 32 – The Biochemistry of Movement (25 marks) Marks
(a) (i) Describe how amino acids bond to form peptide chains. Include an equation or 2
diagram of a peptide bond in your answer.
(ii) Identify the amino acid which makes disulfide bonding possible and sketch 2
TWO appropriate sections of amino acid chains connected by a disulfide
bond.
(iii) Assess the influence of disulfide bonds on the shape of a protein. 4
(b) The diagram below summarises the aerobic release of energy in cells.
Glycolysis is the first step in this process. 3
Summarise the process of glycolysis. Ensure that you include in your summary:
– the identity of the raw material used
– the form in which the energy is captured
– the end product of the process.
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(c) (i) Identify the chemical cause of muscle cell contractions. 1
(ii) Outline the role of ATP in muscle contraction movement. 1
(d) Assess the relative importance of triacylglycerols (TAGs) and carbohydrates as 8

energy resources for humans.
(e) In your study of enzymes, you performed a first-hand investigation of factors which 2
can affect the reactions of an enzyme.
Identify the enzyme you studied and TWO factors which you investigated.
(f) Explain when anaerobic respiration occurs and outline a problem associated with 2
anaerobic respiration.
End of Question 32
31
Question 33 – The Chemistry of Art (25 marks) Marks
(a) Identify the element whose neutral atom has the following electronic configuration: 1
1s2 2s2 2p3
(b) The first FOUR ionisation energies for boron are: 1

I1 = 807 kJ mol-1
I2 = 2433 kJ mol-1
I3 = 3666 kJ mol-1
I4 = 25033 kJ mol-1
Explain why there is such a large difference between the third and fourth ionisation
energies.
(c) (i) Explain how flame tests could be used to distinguish between potassium 1
chloride and strontium nitrate.
(ii) Describe, with an example, how you could show that the metal ions in a 2
compound are responsible for the flame colour and not the anions.
(d) A green complex is identified as [Ni(H2O)6] 2+.
(i) For the above complex identify the metal ion and its oxidation state. 1
(ii) Identify the property of the atoms within the ligand that allow it to be bonded 1
to the metal ion.
(iii) Identify the block in the Periodic Table which contains elements that tend to 5
form coloured compounds. Explain, in terms of electronic configurations and
using a specific example, why these compounds are coloured.
(e) With reference to a particular pigment, explain why pigments used for cave 2
paintings, self decoration or burial needed to be insoluble in most substances.
(f) Discuss the merits and limitations of the Bohr model of the atom. 4
(g) You have carried out a first hand investigation to demonstrate that potassium
permanganate is a STRONG oxidising agent.
(i) What is the oxidation state of manganese in the permanganate ion? 1
(ii) Describe your experimental procedure and the observations you made. 3
(iii) Write half equations and an overall equation for the reactions you describe. 3
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Question 34 – Forensic Chemistry (25 marks) Marks
(a) An illegal shipment of endangered snakes was confiscated at Kingsford Smith

Airport.
The major mineral compositions and possible origins of a sample of soil found in
the container are shown in the table below.
Atomic emission analysis was performed on the sample and on soil samples taken
from THREE possible sites A, B and C, to confirm its origin.
Possible origin Minerals present Chemical composition of mineral

Site A cinnabar HgS
azurite CuCO3.Cu(OH)2
Site B calcite CaCO3
malachite CuCO3.Cu(OH)2
Site C haematite Fe2O3
cuprite Cu2O
Atomic Absorption Data
(i) Use the data provided to identify the origin of the sample. 1
(ii) Outline the conditions necessary for elements to emit light. 2
(b) (i) Describe a simple procedure that can be used to distinguish between organic 2
and inorganic compounds.
(ii) Name TWO classes of organic compounds. For each class, draw the structural 2
formula of a compound which is a member of this class and circle the
functional group in the compound.
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(c) (i) Use an appropriate example to describe when destructive testing is a problem 1
in forensic analysis.
(ii) Name ONE non-destructive method for testing small samples. 1
(d) (i) Use a diagram or equation to explain the chemical difference between 2
reducing and non-reducing sugars.
(ii) Outline the procedure that you followed to distinguish between a reducing and 3
a non-reducing sugar.
(e) (i) Proteins can be grouped on the basis of their function. Distinguish between the 2
TWO main groups of proteins.
(ii) Chromatography and electrophoresis are TWO procedures regularly used by 4

forensic chemists. Compare and contrast these TWO procedures.
(f) Advances in DNA technology have changed the way in which evidence can affect 5
the outcome of civil and criminal proceedings. However, the use of DNA
technology has raised ethical issues for society.
Discuss these statements.
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CATHOLIC SECONDARY SCHOOLS ASSOCIATION
CHEMISTRY – MARKING GUIDELINES
The sample answers indicate features that should be found in a response that receives full marks.
For the extended response questions, a set of guidelines is included rather than a sample answer.
Section I
Part A – 15 marks
Questions 1-15 (1 mark each)
Question Correct Response Outcomes Assessed Targeted

Performance Bands
1 B H8, H9 2-3
2 B H9, H13 2-3
3 C H7,H9, H10 4-5
4 B H6, H8, H13 3-4
5 A H7, H13 3-4
6 D H8, H14 4-5
7 D H8, H10, H13 5-6
8 C H8, H13 2-3
9 A H8, H9, H11 3-4
10 C H6, H9, H10 3-4
11 D H8, H13 2-3
12 B H8 2-3
13 D H6, H7, H8 4-5
14 A H9, H13 3-4
15 C H4, H8 3-4
DISCLAIMER
The information contained in this document is intended for the professional assistance of teaching staff. It does not constitute advice to students. Further it is not the intention of CSSA
to provide specific marking outcomes for all possible Trial HSC answers. Rather the purpose is to provide teachers with information so that they can better explore, understand and
apply HSC marking requirements, as established by the NSW Board of Studies.
No guarantee or warranty is made or implied with respect to the application or use of CSSA Marking Guidelines in relation to any specific trial exam question or answer. The CSSA
assumes no liability or responsibility for the accuracy, completeness or usefulness of any Marking Guidelines provided for the Trial HSC papers.
2801-2
Section I
75 marks
Part B – 60 marks
Question 16
(a) (2 marks)
Outcomes Assessed: H9, H13
Targeted Performance Bands: 3-4
Criteria Mark
• Identifies structure of styrene AND demonstrates addition polymerisation 2
• Identifies structure of styrene OR demonstrates addition polymerisation 1
Sample Answer
Styrene (the monomer) combines with the free radical initiator R•. This combination in turn
pulls an electron out of the double bond of another styrene molecule, to increase the length of
the chain. Polystyrene is formed after this process is repeated many times.
(b) (1 mark)
Outcomes Assessed: H9
Criteria Mark
• Identifies ONE significant use AND relates that use to a physical property 1
Sample Answer
Many responses possible.
Polystyrene is a very stiff, stable polymer. This makes it suited as a raw material for the
production of outdoor furniture.
2
DISCLAIMER
Question 17
(a) (1 mark)
Criteria Mark
• Identifies the cathode 1
Sample Answer
Student labels the silver electrode as the cathode.
(b) (2 marks)
Outcomes Assessed: H1, H7, H13
Criteria Marks
• Explains why the formation of a precipitate makes KCl an inappropriate
2
choice
• Identifies the formation of a precipitate 1
Sample Answer
KCl is inappropriate as it reacts with silver ions to form a precipitate. Consequently, chloride
ions would not be able to migrate to the oxidation half cell to balance the production of
positive copper ions. The precipitate would also remove silver ions from solution therefore
preventing them from being reduced at the cathode.
3
DISCLAIMER
(c) (3 marks)
Criteria Marks
• Evaluates choice by referring to correct half equations and cell voltage
3
calculation
• Evaluates choice by referring to partially correct half equations and cell
voltage calculations
2
OR
• Produces correct half equations and cell voltage calculation
• Evaluates choice without using appropriate or correct half equations or
providing a cell voltage calculation
OR
1
• Identifies a correct half equation
OR
• Calculates the cell potential
Sample Answer
The copper electrode will be oxidised:
Cu(s) → Cu2+(aq) + 2e- E° = -0.34 V
and the silver ions in solution at the cathode will be reduced:

Ag+(aq) + e- → Ag(s) E° = 0.80 V
Overall equation:
Cu(s) + Ag+ (aq) → Cu2+(aq) + Ag(s) overall E° = 0.46 V
The selected electrodes and electrolytes are inappropriate for producing a cell voltage
between 1.1 and 1.2 V.
Question 18 (2 marks)
Criteria Marks
• Explains the use of a named isotope in terms of its properties 2
• Explains the use OR properties only 1
• Name of isotope only 0
Sample Answer
Many responses possible.
Cobalt-60 is a gamma ray producer. The gamma rays will kill bacteria (by destroying DNA
structure), so is used for sterilising in the food canning industry and for sterilising medical
supplies such as dressings and bandages. It has a reasonably long half-life (5.3 years), so that
the isotope does not need replacing for several years.
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DISCLAIMER
(a) (1 mark)
Criteria Mark
• Writes correct nuclear equation 1
Sample Answer
(b) (1 mark)
Criteria Mark
• Gives correct explanation 1
Sample Answer
Cyclotrons are required to accelerate positively charged particles towards a positive target.
Neutrons have no charge so no such acceleration is required. Thus, a nuclear reactor is
appropriate for the production of cobalt-60.
Outcomes Assessed: H1, H3, H5, H13
Criteria Marks
• Assesses the potential of ethanol as a replacement for fossil fuels
• Explains, using appropriate equations, how ethanol can be used as a source 6-7
of energy and a source of polymers
• Assesses the potential of ethanol as a replacement for fossil fuels AND
• Explains how ethanol can be used as a source of energy and a source of
polymers OR 4-5
• Explains, using appropriate equations, how ethanol can be used as a source
of energy and a source of polymers
• Outlines some advantages AND disadvantages of the use of ethanol as a
source of energy and polymers OR
2-3
• Describes how ethanol can be used as a source of energy and a source of
polymers
• Outlines a feature of the use of ethanol for energy OR for polymers 1
5
DISCLAIMER
Sample Answer
Many possible responses.
Ethanol is a potential source of raw material for many of the world’s most widely used
polymers because it can be dehydrated to form ethylene:
conc H2SO4
C2H5OH(l) → C2H4(g) + H2O(l)

Ethylene is currently derived from the cracking of alkanes extracted from crude oil and is
used as the starting point for the production of some of the world’s most important polymer
products, including PVC and polystyrene. The dehydration of ethanol to produce ethylene is
not currently practised in industry because alkane cracking is more economical, so the
adoption of this method of production would increase the price of the final polymer products.
Ethanol has also been used as a fuel for years. As a potential replacement for crude oil based
fuels, ethanol has major advantages. Firstly it is renewable, less polluting than petrol, burning
cleanly with sufficient oxygen to produce only carbon dioxide and water:
C2H5OH(l) + 3O2(g) → 2CO2(g) + 3H2O(l)
Ethanol is also able to be used in internal combustion engines with minor modifications. Most
of the infrastructure used to handle petrol can be used to handle ethanol.
Ethanol is a renewable fuel, but at a high price. Ethanol can be fermented from sugars in a
process which uses large amounts of both energy and time.
yeast
C6H12O6 (aq) → 2CO2 (g) + 2C2H6O (aq)

The cycle of photosynthesis and burning of ethanol is neutral with respect to greenhouse
gases but the processes of distillation and fertilizer production use large amounts of energy
and, for the moment, fossil fuels. Satisfying Australia’s entire transport energy demands with
ethanol would also require vast amounts of arable land to be given over to sugar cane
production at the expense of other farming industries.
Ethanol does have potential as a future source of both energy and polymers, but at a price and
only if the problems surrounding the sustainable supply of the raw materials are solved.
Question 21
(a) (i) (1 mark)
Criteria Mark
• Identifies a basic oxide 1
Sample Answer
K2O or CaO
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DISCLAIMER
(a) (ii) (1 mark)
Criteria Mark
• Identifies an acidic oxide 1
Sample Answer
SO2 or N2O5
(b) (1 mark)
Criteria Mark
• Writes a correct, balanced equation 1
Sample Answer
SO2(g) + H2O(l) → H2SO3 ⇔ H+ + HSO3-
(c) (1 mark)
Criteria Mark
• Defines the term amphoteric 1
Sample Answer
An amphoteric substance will react with both H+ and OH- solutions to form a salt and water.
Question 22
(a) (1 mark)
Criteria Mark
• Correctly states an INDUSTRIAL use for a named ester 1
Sample Answer
Ethyl ethanoate – used as a solvent in industry
(b) (i) (1mark)

Criteria Mark
• Draws correct structural formula 1
Sample answer
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(a)(ii) (1 mark)
Criteria Mark
• Correctly names the ester, OR correctly names ester drawn in part (i) 1
Sample Answer
1-butyl ethanoate
Question 23
(a) (1 mark)
Criteria Mark
• Correctly EXPLAINS why hydrogen sulfide is classified as a WEAK acid 1
Sample Answer
Hydrogen sulfide only PARTIALLY IONISES in water (only a small percentage of the
molecules ionise).
(b) (2 marks)
Criteria Marks
• Identifies hydrogen sulfide as a proton donor AND writes an equation to
2
illustrate hydrogen sulfide acting as a Bronsted-Lowry acid
• Identifies hydrogen sulfide as a proton donor OR writes an equation to
1
illustrate hydrogen sulfide acting as a Bronsted-Lowry acid
Sample Answer
Hydrogen sulfide is a Bronsted-Lowry acid because it donates a proton to a base.
H2S(g) + H2O(l) ⇔ HS- + H3O+
(c) (1 mark)
Criteria Mark
• Identifies ONE conjugate acid/base pair 1
Sample Answer
H2S/HS- (OR H3O+/H2O).
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DISCLAIMER
(d) (i) (2 marks)
Criteria Marks
• Correctly calculates the number of moles of each reactant AND correctly
2
identifies HCl as the reactant in excess
• Correctly calculates the number of moles of each reactant 1
Sample Answer
Mole HCl = 0.10 M × 0.050 L = 0.0050 mol

Mole ZnS = 0.11 g ÷ (65.39 + 32.07) g = 0.0011 mol
Mole ratio in balanced equation HCl : ZnS = 2:1

Here HC1 is in excess as ratio is 4.5:1 (HCl in excess by 0.0028 mol)
(d) (ii) (2 marks)

Criteria Marks
• Correctly uses the limiting reagent to calculate the number of moles of H2S
2
AND correctly calculates the volume of H2S
• Correctly uses the limiting reagent to calculate the number of moles of H2S 1
Sample Answer
Limiting reagent is ZnS. Mole ratio ZnS:H2S = 1:1
∴ mole H2S = 0.0011 mol
∴ vol H2S = 0.0011 × 24.79 = 0.027 L = 27 mL
Question 24
(a) (1 mark)
Criteria Mark
• Correctly calculates the concentration of NaOH 1
Sample Answer
3.0 g ÷ 40 g = 0.075 mol NaOH
0.075 mol ÷ 3.0 L = 0.025 mol L-1 (2 significant figures required)
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DISCLAIMER
(b) (1 mark)
Criteria Mark
• Correctly calculates the pH 1
Sample Answer
pH = - log 0.026 = 1.59 (Note: Answer must be correct to 2 decimal places, as concentration
of acid was expressed to 2 significant figures.)
(c) (3 marks)
Criteria Marks
• Describes the properties of a primary standard AND evaluates the use of
3
NaOH as a primary standard
• Describes the properties of a primary standard AND outlines why NaOH is
2
not a good choice
• Describes the properties of a primary standard OR outlines why NaOH is not
1
a good choice
Sample Answer
A primary standard needs to be completely soluble in water. It must be obtainable pure and
crystalline, it must not react with air and it should have a high molecular mass to minimise
errors when weighing accurate amounts of the solid. Sodium hydroxide is not an acceptable
primary standard as it readily absorbs water and carbon dioxide from the air. Therefore it is
impossible to weigh an exact mass to prepare a primary standard. Considering all these
factors, sodium carbonate or oxalic acid are much better choices as primary standards.
10
DISCLAIMER
Criteria Marks
• Writes a balanced equilibrium equation for the Haber process
• Explains the impact of changing temperature and pressure on the yield of
ammonia
• Explains the impact of changing temperature and pressure on the rate of 4
production of ammonia
• Identifies the optimum/compromise conditions of temperature and pressure
for ammonia production
• Explains the impact of changing temperature and pressure on the yield of
ammonia 3
• Explains the impact of changing temperature and pressure on the rate of
production of ammonia
• Explains the impact of changing temperature and pressure on the yield of 2
ammonia OR explains the impact of changing temperature and pressure on
the rate of production of ammonia
• Identifies an impact of changing temperature on the reaction OR
1
• identifies an impact of changing pressure on the reaction
Sample Answer
N2(g) + 3H2(g) ↔ 2NH3(g) ∆H = -92kJ mol-1 (exothermic)
As this is an equilibrium reaction, using Le Chatelier’s Principle, we can predict that
increasing the temperature would push the reaction to the left, toward the reactants, as the
forward reaction is exothermic. Increasing the pressure on an equilibrium mixture of the
gases would push the reaction to the right, toward the products, as there are fewer molecules
on the RHS. Decreasing temperature and pressure would have the reverse effects.
Thus high pressure and low temperature produce the highest YIELD of ammonia.
Increasing the temperature increases the RATE of reaction. Increasing the pressure also
increases the RATE of reaction. (Increasing the temperature and pressure mean more
successful collisions as the particles are either moving faster or are closer together.) Hence,
high temperature and high pressure produce the fastest RATE OF PRODUCTION of
ammonia.
Therefore, the temperature and pressure must be carefully balanced to produce the optimum
yield. Thus the reaction should be conducted at high pressure but only at a moderate
temperature.
11
DISCLAIMER
Criteria Marks
• Explains at least ONE problem associated with incomplete combustion and
2
explains how the problem can be reduced
• Explains at least ONE problem associated with incomplete combustion OR
1
explains how the problem can be reduced
Sample Answer
Incomplete combustion of a fuel results in the production of carbon monoxide (poisonous)
and/or carbon (soot – causes visual pollution and medical problems) instead of carbon
dioxide. Incomplete combustion also is inefficient in that it does not release as much energy
per mole of a fuel and hence wastes fuel resources.
Thus combustion should be monitored to ensure that it is as complete as possible by ensuring
that excess oxygen is available.
(a) (1 mark)
Outcomes Assessed: H3, H11.
Criteria Mark
• Identifies the appropriate purpose 1
Sample Answer
Standard solutions are required to produce a calibration curve.
(b) (4 marks)
Outcomes Assessed: H3, H4.
Criteria Marks
• Assesses the impact of AAS on understanding the effects of one trace
element, describing the effects of the element and the advantages of AAS 4
over earlier scientific analytical methods
• Describes effects of a named trace element and describes the impact of AAS
2-3
on the measurement of trace elements
• Identifies an effect of a named trace element 1
Sample Answer
Lead is a toxic heavy metal. The use of lead was widespread in paints, petrol, batteries,
crystal-ware and pesticides. Despite the banning of many of these materials residual lead
levels in the environment are still significant. There is no safe level for lead exposure. The
National Health & Medical Research Council recommends levels of exposure below 0.1ppm.
Lead levels of 0.45ppm produce symptoms such as fatigue, abdominal pain, lethargy and
aggressiveness. In severe cases symptoms can escalate to paralysis, fits, vomiting, coma and
death.
Prior to the discovery of AAS techniques such minute concentrations could not be accurately
measured nor investigated. AAS is an extremely sensitive and accurate technique. AAS has
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DISCLAIMER
enabled researchers to monitor lead levels in those affected and to match the level of
symptoms to the amount of lead in the body. Monitoring levels in the environment (soil,
water air etc) has enabled society to reduce the exposure and risk to life. Therefore AAS has
had an enormous impact on our understanding of the effects of lead.
(a) (2 marks)
Criteria Marks
• Identifies more than ONE trend 2
• Identifies ONE trend 1
Sample Answer
The graph shows a general decrease in total ozone at Halley Bay from 1956 to 1993. From
1993 to 1996 the total ozone levels appear to be gradually increasing. From 1996 the levels
appear fairly constant.
(b) (2 marks)
Criteria Marks
• Explains ONE method of obtaining data 2
• Describes ONE method of obtaining data 1
Sample Answer
Spectrophotometers are used to measure ozone levels. These spectrophotometers can be
ground based, in satellites or carried by helium balloons.
Ground based spectrophotometers measure the intensity of light reaching the surface of the
earth. The intensity of light is recorded at a wavelength that ozone absorbs and at a
wavelength not absorbed by ozone. By comparing the intensities the total ozone per unit area
can be calculated for that location.
(a) (1 mark)
Criteria Mark
• Identifies the correct method 1
Sample Answer
Method B
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DISCLAIMER
(b) (1 mark)
Criteria Mark
• Identifies the relationship between ppm and mg/L 1
Sample Answer
17 mg/L = 17 ppm therefore the table indicates < 20 ppm is soft.
(c) (3 marks)
Criteria Marks
• Compares the features and appropriateness of Method A and Method B 3
• Compares the features of Method A and Method B 2
• Identifies a positive or negative feature of either Method A or B 1
Sample Answer
Method A provides a more accurate measure of water hardness than Method B.
Results from Method A could be compared with similar volumetric tests performed anywhere
at any time. However, results provided by Method B would not be appropriate for
comparisons of water hardness as the concentration and type of detergent and the amount of
shaking and width of vial would be difficult to control.
However in situations where a qualitative comparison of water hardness is only required then
Method B is faster, more convenient and quite reliable.
Therefore, Method A is appropriate where accuracy and reproducibility are required, whereas
Method B would be more appropriate where quick, comparative, inexpensive measurements
are needed.
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DISCLAIMER
Section II
INDUSTRIAL CHEMISTRY

(a) (i) (1 mark)
Criteria Mark
• Correctly identifies the equilibrium expression 1
Sample Answer
[CF4 ][CO 2 ]
K=
[COF2 ] 2
(a) (ii) (3 mark)

Criteria Mark
• Calculates the value of K 3
• Calculates the equilibrium concentrations 2
• Calculates the number of moles of each species at equilibrium 1
Sample Answer
Moles COF2 initially equilibrium = 0.400

Moles COF2 at equilibrium = 0.080
Hence moles COF2 reacting = 0.400 – 0.080 = 0.320
∴ moles CO2 at equilibrium = moles CF4 at equilibrium = 0.160
Equilibrium concentrations are [COF2] = 0.080 ÷ 5.00 = 0.016 mol L-1

[CO2] = [CF4] = 0.16 ÷ 5.00 = 0.032 mol L-1
0.032 × 0.032
∴K = =4
0.016 2
(a) (iii) (3 marks)

Criteria Mark
• Correctly identifies the reaction as exothermic, with correct explanation 1
Sample Answer
Increase temperature shifts equilibrium to the left (since more COF2 is present at equilibrium),
therefore the backwards reaction must be endothermic (increase in temperature always
favours the endothermic reaction). Therefore the forward reaction (breakdown of COF2) is
exothermic.
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DISCLAIMER
(b) (4 marks)
Criteria Marks
• Thorough outline of the steps AND conditions involved including all relevant
4
equations
• Sound outline of steps AND conditions involved (including some equations) 3
• Limited outline of steps AND conditions involved
OR 2
• Sound outline of steps OR conditions involved
• Limited outline of steps OR conditions involved 1
Sample Answer
Liquid sulfur is sprayed into an excess of dry air to form sulfur dioxide:
S (l) + O2 (g) → SO2 (g)
Using a vanadium (V) oxide catalyst, sulfur dioxide is passed over the catalyst beds at
moderate temperatures in order to optimize yield and reaction rate (compromise) and is
oxidized to sulfur trioxide.
2SO2 (g) + O2 (g) ⇔ SO3 (g)
The sulfur trioxide is then reacted with sulfuric acid to form oleum, as sulfur trioxide is much
more soluble in sulfuric acid than in water.
SO3 (g) + H2SO4 (l) → H2S2O7 (l)
Oleum is then reacted with water to form sulfuric acid.

H2S2O7 (l) + H2O (l) → 2H2SO4 (l)
(c) (i) (4 marks)

Outcomes Assessed: H7, H8, H10, H11, H14
Criteria Marks
• Identifies products of electrolysis of dilute AND concentrated NaCl including
4
all equations AND tests to identify products
• Identifies products of electrolysis of dilute AND concentrated NaCl including
3
equations OR tests to identify products
• Identifies products of electrolysis of dilute OR concentrated NaCl including
an equation OR 2
• Identifies products of electrolysis of dilute AND concentrated NaCl
• Identifies products of electrolysis of dilute OR concentrated NaCl 1
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DISCLAIMER
Sample Answer
The electrolysis of dilute NaCl solution yielded the products of H2(g) and O2(g).
Cathode: H2O(l) + e- ⇔ ½ H2(g) + OH-
Anode: H2O(l) ⇔ ½ O2(g) + 2H+ + 2e-
The electrolysis of concentrated NaCl solution yielded the products of H2(g) and Cl2(g).
Cathode: H2O (l) + e- ⇔ ½ H2 (g) + OH-
Anode: 2Cl- ⇔ Cl2(g) + 2e-
H2(g) was identified by the pop test, O2(g) was identified as it re-ignited a glowing splint and
Cl2(g) was identified by its distinct smell and the fact that it decolourised (bleached) indicator
paper. Phenolphthalein was also added to the solution which turned pink at the cathode for
both reactions to indicate the OH-.
(c) (ii) (1 mark)

Outcomes Assessed: H7, H8, H10, H11, H14
Criteria Mark
• Identifies both products 1
Sample answer:
Sodium and chlorine
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DISCLAIMER
(d) (5 marks)
Criteria Marks
• Assessment of, AND extensive knowledge of environmental impacts of
4-5
different classes of detergents and of soaps
• Comparison of the environmental impacts of soaps and detergents 2-3
• Limited knowledge of the environmental impacts of soaps and detergents 1
Sample Answer
Soap is a cleaning agent made from naturally occurring fats and oils. It is biodegradable and
therefore has very little environmental impact. Bacteria are able to break down the structure of
soaps in sewage works and in natural waterways.
Because the supply of naturally occurring fats and oils became limited (and necessary for
food production), soaps were replaced by synthetic detergents for all but personal hygiene.
The first synthetic detergents produced contained branched hydrocarbon chains which took a
long time to break down, resulting in a build-up of detergent in natural waterways. This led to
foam developing in rivers and dams and thus posed a problem in terms of pollution to the
environment. Foams form a stable film over the surface of water. These foams reduce
diffusion between the water and air and hence make the waterways less suitable for aquatic
aerobic organisms.
The use of linear chain anionic surfactants in detergents reduced the build up of foam and
hence the environmental pollution as these had similar biodegradability to soap.
Non-ionic detergents have been developed for situations where foam is a problem. These
detergents do not form a stable layer on the surface of water and hence do not form foam as
readily as ionic detergents.
Cationic detergents, at low concentration, are biodegradable. However, at high concentrations

they are biocidal, which means they can kill the bacteria which normally break down sewage.
Many laundry detergents contain phosphate-based builders which can lead to significant
environmental damage. An increase in phosphate levels in waterways can cause algal blooms
and eventually lead to eutrophication. Algal blooms result in anaerobic conditions in
waterways and the death of plants and animals. If this process is prolonged or repeated, the
river can become marshlands because of the build up of decayed matter from the original
waterway.
Hence, soaps have little environmental impact but the use of synthetic detergents has
negatively impacted on the environment, depending on the class of detergent used and the
level of phosphate in them.
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DISCLAIMER
(e) (i) (1 mark)
Criteria Mark
• Correct response giving BOTH raw materials 1
Sample Answer
Limestone (calcium carbonate) and brine (sodium chloride).
(e) (ii) (2 marks)

Criteria Marks
• Correct sequence of equations to form both products 2
• ONE correct equation for ONE step 1
Sample answer:
CO2(g) + H2O (l) ⇔ H2CO3 (aq)
NH3 (aq) + H2CO3 (aq) ⇔ NH4+ (aq) + HCO3 – (aq)
Combining these steps, and including the spectator ions
Na+ (aq) + Cl- (aq) + CO2 (g) + NH3 (aq) + H2O (l) NaHCO3 (s) + NH4Cl (aq)
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(e) (iii) (3 marks)
Criteria Marks
• Identifies the waste and explains the relationship between disposal and 3
location of manufacturing
• Identifies waste and identifies the method of disposal OR problems 2
associated with the waste
• Identifies the waste only OR gives some correct information linking 1
location with disposal of wastes
Sample answer:
The chemical waste product of the Solvay process is calcium chloride. Unless it can be used
by other industries (as a drying agent or as an alternative to salt to de-ice roads) it must be
disposed of, into water.
Disposal, in diluted form, directly into the ocean is the best solution. The wastes are diluted
by the sea water and do not increase significantly the concentrations of calcium or chloride
ions. Any residues of sodium carbonate left in the waste do not have significant impact on the
pH of sea water because sea water is buffered by the presence of hydrogen carbonate ions.
Solvay plants which are remote from the ocean cannot discharge their wastes into rivers or
other inland bodies of water as this would unacceptably increase the concentration of ions, the
hardness and the pH of the water. This in turn would impact on the aquatic organism in the
water.
Hence Solvay plants are best located in close proximity the ocean, where direct discharge is
feasible. If this is not possible then alternate methods of burial of the dried calcium chloride
in inland regions must be adopted. This is a more costly method of disposal and leaching of
the ions from the waste into waterways is a possibility over time.
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SHIPWRECKS, CORROSION AND CONSERVATION

(a) (i) (1 mark)
Criteria Mark
• Identifies the source 1
Sample answer:
Hydrothermal vents in mid-ocean ridges.
(ii) (2 marks)
Criteria Marks
• Describes the formation of salt crystals
2
• Relates the crystal formation to potential damage in the artefacts
• Identifies the formation of salt crystals 1
Sample answer:
As the saturated solution evaporates salt crystals form. These crystals can destroy the cellular
structure of wooden and leather artefacts, causing splitting, dryness and discolouration. The
crystals can damage the outer porous layers of metal artefacts, causing layers to flake and
split. The presence of these salt crystals (electrolytes) can result in accelerated corrosion in
humid or moist conditions.
(iii) (3 marks)
Criteria Marks
• Describes the electrolysis of a metal artefact, identifying the electrolyte,
anode and cathode 3
• Discusses the positive and negative aspects of the process
• Describes the electrolysis of a metal artefact OR Describes and discusses a
2
physical process (e.g. soaking and leaching)
• Identifies electrolysis as a chemical procedure OR Describes a physical
1
procedure
Sample Answer
Electrolysis is a chemical procedure that can be used for the removal of salts, especially chloride ions
from an artefact. The artefact is the cathode. It is surrounded by an inert stainless steel mesh (anode)
which is immersed in a dilute solution of sodium hydroxide. Chloride is removed from the cathode
according to the following reduction equation.
Fe(OH)Cl (s) + 2e- → Fe (s) + 2OH- (aq) + Cl- (aq)
The chloride ions are then attracted to the anode.
This process can take months and can be quite expensive, however it is an effective method of
removing ions without causing damage to the artefact if it is performed slowly. It also results in the
reduction of Fe2+ to iron.
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DISCLAIMER
(b) (i) (1 mark)
Criteria Mark
• Identifies the main element 1
Sample Answer
Iron
(ii) (3 marks)
Criteria Marks
• Outlines steps of a valid method that includes a suitable electrolyte,
3
controlled variables, a method of measuring corrosion and repetition
• Outlines steps that include a suitable electrolyte and a method of observing
2
corrosion
• Identifies a suitable electrolyte
OR 1
• Identifies a method for measuring corrosion
Sample Answer
Place similarly sized samples of both steels in sea water in 2 identical test tubes. Add 1mL of
potassium hexacyanoferrate indicator. Place under identical environmental conditions and
monitor the corrosion rate by observing the rate of formation of a blue colour (due to the
reaction of the indicator with iron ions) at regular intervals. Repeat.
(iii) (2 marks)
Criteria Marks
• Justifies on the basis of a sound knowledge of the relationship between the
2
added elements and the properties of steels
• Identifies an element that limits corrosion 1
Sample Answer
Steel X contains a higher percentage of chromium, molybdenum and nickel. These metals
increase the corrosion resistance of the steel. In a marine environment corrosion resistance
would be a priority.
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DISCLAIMER
(c) (i) (1 mark)
Criteria Mark
• Labels the correct structure 1
Sample Answer
anode
electron flow
(ii) (1 mark)
Criteria Mark
• Labels correct electron flow 1
Sample Answer
See above diagram
(iii) (1 mark)
Criteria Mark
• Identifies the correct equation 1
Sample Answer
O2 + 2H2O + 4e- ↔ 4OH-
23
DISCLAIMER
(d) (6 marks)
Criteria Marks
• Explains the role of bacteria in terms of electron transfer reactions 6
• Describes the action of bacteria on deeply submerged wrecks using electron
4-5
transfer reactions
• Describes the action of bacteria on deeply submerged wrecks 2-3
• Identifies the presence of anaerobic bacteria OR sulfate reducing bacteria
1
around wrecks
Sample Answer
Cold temperatures and lack of oxygen would suggest that deeply submerged wrecks would
corrode slowly. The presence of anaerobic bacteria can, however, accelerate this process.
Sulfate reducing bacteria reduce sulfate ions to hydrogensulfide ions according to the
following reduction equation:
SO42-(aq) + 5H2O(l) + 8e- → HS-(aq) + 9OH-(aq) (Equation 1)
So, despite the absence of oxygen, iron can be oxidised at great depths:
Fe(s) → Fe2+(aq) + 2e- (Equation 2)
Electrons are transferred from the iron to the sulfur. An understanding of this transfer
confirms the significant role of the bacteria in the accelerated corrosion of iron.
The formation of rusticles of iron sulfide and iron hydroxide on these submerged wrecks can
readily be explained using the above redox equations.
Around wrecks where oxygen is present, due to cold oxygen-rich ocean currents, another type
of bacterium is responsible for an unexpected level of corrosion. These bacteria which feed on
the organic matter often associated with wrecks, produce hydrogen ions. These hydrogen ions
accelerate the reduction of O2 according to the following equation:
O2(g) + 4H+(aq) + 4e- → 2H2O(l) (Equation 3)
Consequently this accelerates the oxidation of iron as shown in Equation 2 above. The
electrons are transferred from the iron to the oxygen, resulting in corrosion of the wreck.
An understanding of electron transfer reactions is essential to the understanding of the

unexpected amount of corrosion on deeply submerged wrecks.
(e) (i) (1 mark)

Targeted Performance Bands 3-4
Criteria Mark
• Identifies correct relationship 1
Sample Answer
As depth increases solubility increases.
24
DISCLAIMER
(ii) (3 marks)
Criteria Marks
• Evaluates the relevance of the items
3
• Discusses the relevance of actual oxygen concentration as depth increases
• Evaluates the relevance of the items based on a limited understanding of
oxygen concentration with depth 2
• Discusses the relevance of inferred oxygen concentration as depth increases
• Identifies the relevance of oxygen concentration to the corrosion of metals 1
Sample Answer
The solubility of oxygen versus depth should be relevant to the investigation of corrosion of
metals at great depth. Oxygen is usually reduced in the corrosion process so its concentration
in lower depths of the ocean is very relevant. However, the relationship inferred from the
graph and table is only relevant where a supply of oxygen exists. As the pressure increases
with depth in the ocean, the concentration of oxygen does not increase as there is no gaseous
oxygen available. Therefore the information in the table and graph are misleading and
irrelevant to an investigation designed to predict the rate of corrosion of a metal at great
depths.
25
DISCLAIMER
THE BIOCHEMISTRY OF MOVEMENT

(a) (i) (2 mark)
Criteria Marks
• Description of reaction between amino acids to form peptide bond,
2
including equation or appropriate diagram of peptide bond
• Limited knowledge of peptide bond formation 1
Sample Answer
The peptide (amide) bond is formed between two amino acids:
A-COOH + B-NH2 → A-CO-NH-B + H2O.
An acid-base reaction occurs between the carboxylic acid group of one amino acid and the
amine group of the next. A molecule of water is formed. This reaction happens at each end
of the amino acid and a peptide chain is formed. This is the first step in the formation of
proteins.
R O R O R O R
+ NH NH NH NH COO-
N H3 NH NH NH
O R O R O R O R
(a) (ii) (2 marks)

Criteria Marks
• Identifies amino acid and sketches appropriate diagram of disulfide bond 2
• Identifies amino acid OR sketches appropriate diagram of disulfide bond 1
Sample Answer
Cysteine
Amino acid chain Another part of same Disulfide bond S-S

amino acid chain linking 2 parts of chain
26
DISCLAIMER
(a) (iii) (4 marks)
Criteria Marks
• Assessment of the contribution of disulfide bonds
• Brief explanation of the role of disulfide bonding in determining shape of
protein 4
• Brief description of the THREE other types of forces determining the shape
of proteins
• Brief explanation of the role of disulfide bonding in determining shape of
protein
3
• Brief description of the THREE other types of forces determining shape of
proteins
• Brief explanation of disulfide bonding
2
• Recognition of the forces determining shape
• Limited knowledge of forces determining the shape of proteins 1
Sample Answer
The shape of a protein is due to the structure formed by the chain of amino acids. In many
proteins the string of amino acids is wound into a helix. The way this helix folds or coils
itself determines the final 3-D shape.
The final 3-D shape is determined by:

• sulfur-sulfur bridges, between TWO cysteine units fairly close together; the –S-H
groups of TWO nearby cysteine units are easily oxidized to produce a –S-S- covalent
link. The S-S links keep parts of the chain covalently bound to other parts of the chain
and hence help to retain the shape of the helix or folded protein.
but also by:
• hydrogen bonding, from the NH group of one peptide link to the O=C group of
another peptide link, generally THREE or FOUR amino acid units away.
• ionic attractions (electrostatic forces) between the COO- and NH3+ groups on acidic
and basic R groups.
• dispersion forces, between the hydrophobic alkyl groups which tend to be located
inside the helix structure, help hold the protein into its 3-D structure.
Assessment. The disulfide bonds do play a role in determining the shape of a protein but are
only ONE of the FOUR types of attraction forces which act together to hold the folds or coils
together.
27
DISCLAIMER
(b) (3 marks)
Criteria Marks
• Summary which includes THREE required aspects 3
• Limited summary which includes at least TWO of the THREE required
2
aspects
• Some correct information about process 1
Sample Answer
Glycolysis is the conversion of one mole of glucose (the raw material) into 2 moles of pyruvic
acid CH3 – CO – COOH (the end product of glycolysis) by a series of enzyme-catalysed
steps. This occurs whether oxygen is present or not.
In the process 2 NAD+ ions are converted to 2 NADH molecules.
Glycolysis also converts 2 moles of ADP to ATP per mole of glucose used. Hence energy is
captured and stored in the ATP molecule.
(c) (i) (1 mark)

Criteria Mark
• Correct answer 1
Sample Answer
Muscle cell contractions are caused by Ca2+ ions being released when nerve cells stimulate
the membranes of skeletal muscle cells.
(c) (ii) (1 mark)

Criteria Mark
Sample Answer
ATP provides the mechanical energy that causes the movement of the filaments in muscles
past each other as the contraction occurs.
28
DISCLAIMER
(d) (8 marks)
Criteria Marks
• Outlines the storage and use of carbohydrates
• Outlines the storage and use of TAGs
7-8
• Compares or contrasts the roles of each
• Assesses the importance of each
• Outlines the storage and use of TAGs 5-6
• Assesses the importance of each
3-4
• Outlines the storage and use of TAGs
• Displays a limited knowledge of the TWO energy sources and makes some
2
correct comparisons of the TWO
• Displays a limited knowledge of the TWO energy sources 1
Sample Answer
In animals, carbohydrates are stored as glycogen. Its energy is used in two main ways. The
rising blood glucose levels after a meal are controlled through the liver converting excess
glucose into glycogen and storing it as granules within the cells that performed the
conversion. Between meals, this glycogen is periodically turned back into glucose and
released into the blood, to keep blood glucose levels fairly constant. Glycogen granules are
also stored in skeletal muscle cells and used by type 2 muscle cells to supply much of the
energy for anaerobic respiration during intense use.
TAGs are the major energy storage units in human beings. They are stored in the cells of fat
tissue and can be hydrolysed to give fatty acids, which can be transported to cells and broken
down into carbon dioxide and water. This process occurs in mitochondria and produces ATP.
Per gram, TAGs can provide more than twice the energy of carbohydrates, mainly because of
the C atoms in fats exist in a lower oxidation state, and fats are non-polar.
TAGs are used in competition with glucose in aerobic respiration. They produce ATP in
greater amounts than carbohydrates but at a slower rate, limited by the rate at which the
body’s respiratory and circulatory systems can supply oxygen to the mitochondria. Resting
muscle gets its energy from glucose and TAGs. During exercise, muscle can obtain its energy
aerobically as long as the oxygen supply keeps up. If it doesn’t keep up, anaerobic respiration
begins to take over, using the carbohydrate granules to provide fast ATP without the
consumption of oxygen. Aerobic respiration continues but with less efficiency, producing less
ATP and also producing lactic acid.
In summary, carbohydrates are the small store of instant, intense energy; the emergency
supply. They can be metabolised quickly without oxygen to produce instant reserves of ATP,
but not for long. The liver’s entire store of glycogen, for example, can last an average human
about 12 hours on its own. TAGs are the body’s long term larder. They are the most efficient
way to store large amounts of energy, and produce the most ATP when metabolised, although
at a much slower rate than glycogen. There is massive variation among fat contents of human
bodies but an average healthy human should have enough TAG reserves to last about two
months.
29
DISCLAIMER
(e) (2 marks)
Criteria Marks
• Named enzyme AND TWO factors 2
• Named enzyme OR TWO factors 1
Sample Answer
Factors tested: pH and temperature
(f) (2 marks)
Criteria Marks
• Explains when anaerobic respiration occurs AND outlines a problem 2
• Explains when anaerobic respiration occurs OR outlines a problem 1
Sample Answer
Anaerobic respiration occurs when oxygen is absent or the oxygen is being used up too fast
in, for example, muscles being used in sprinting, to be replenished fast enough by intake of
oxygen during breathing.
A problem associated with anaerobic respiration is the formation of lactic acid in the muscle
that prevents the normal contraction of the muscle, causing symptoms of pain and cramp.
30
DISCLAIMER
THE CHEMISTRY OF ART

(a)(1 mark)
Criteria Mark
• Correct response 1
Sample Answer
Nitrogen
(b) (1 mark)
Criteria Mark
• Correct explanation in terms of energy levels 1
Sample Answer
Removing the first three electrons from boron removes the three that occupy the n=2 energy
level therefore requires relatively less energy because of the distance of these energy levels
from the nucleus. However, the fourth electron to be removed occupies the n=1 energy level
which is closer to the positive nucleus and so this requires much more energy.
(c) (i) (1 mark)

Criteria Mark
• Correctly identifies the flame colours 1
Sample Answer
In a flame test potassium ions give a violet colour and strontium ions give a red colour.
(c) (ii) (2 marks)

Criteria Marks
• A clear description of a distinguishing method including example(s) 2
• A basic description which omits a specific example 1
Sample Answer
A range of responses is possible.
You could show that the metal ions are responsible for the flame colour by using BOTH
potassium chloride and strontium chloride OR potassium nitrate and strontium nitrate for
testing. In each case where potassium is the cation the flame colour will be violet and in each
case where strontium is involved flame colour will be red, showing that the metal ion, not the
anion is responsible.
31
DISCLAIMER
(d) (i) (1 mark)
Criteria Mark
• Both ion and oxidation state correct 1
Sample Answer
The metal ion is Ni2+ and its oxidation state is +2.
(d) (ii) (1 mark)

Criteria Mark
• Correct identification of water as the ligand and the bonding through the
1
non-bonding/lone pair of electrons on the oxygen
Sample Answer
Each water molecule (the ligand) is bonded to the metal ion through one of the non-
bonding/loan pairs of electrons on the oxygen atom.
(d) (iii) (5 marks)

Criteria Marks
• Identification of transition metals. Thorough explanation of electronic
configurations of transition metals, including a specific example. Thorough 4-5
explanation of why compounds are coloured
• Identification of transition metals. Limited explanation of electronic
configurations of transition metals. Limited explanation of why compounds 2-3
are coloured
• Identification of transition metals or some correct information about
electronic configuration of a specific transition metal ion or some correct 1
information about why compounds are coloured
Sample Answer
The transition metals tend to form coloured compounds. It is the partially filled d sub-shells
which determine the difference in properties (including colour) of the majority of transition
elements when compared with the properties of the main block elements.
Transition elements of the First Transition Series have Atomic Nos. from 21 to 30. Nickel is
element 28, and has an electronic configuration of 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6, 3d8, 4s2.
The Ni2+ ion has no electrons in the 4s sub-shell and the 3d sub-shell is not completely filled.
Transition metal compounds contain ions of those metals, like the hydrated nickel II ion.
Those ions have partially filled 3d energy levels and hence are coloured.
The colour is due to the fact that the different orbitals within the 3d sub-shell are very close in
energy and electrons can be excited and jump from the between these levels when visible light
falls on the compound. The electrons from a 3d level absorb the energy from visible light,
move into a higher energy level. Materials are coloured when part but not all of the visible
light passing through the material is absorbed.
32
DISCLAIMER
(e) (2 marks)
Criteria Marks
• Thorough explanation with example 2
• A sound explanation but without reference to a particular pigment 1
Sample Answer
Metal sulfides and oxide pigments (such as iron oxide) used for paintings, self decoration or
burial were insoluble because this gave the advantage of not being easily removed when
exposed to rain or ground water. While in hot climates, cosmetics made from insoluble
minerals would not dissolve in perspiration. Also the liquid medium that allows the paint to
be spread over a surface will dry over time but the insoluble pigment, and therefore the
colour, will remain.
(f) (4 marks)
Criteria Marks
• Discussion of merits and limitations, which illustrate thorough 4
understanding of the Bohr model
• Discussion of merits and limitations, which illustrate sound understanding 3
of the Bohr model
• Outline of some merits and limitations of the model 2
• Outline of some merits OR limitations of the model 1
Sample Answer
The Bohr model of the atom (1913) proposed that the electrons in an atom move around the
nucleus in a circular orbit.
Each electron could only have a restricted number of energy values as only orbits of certain
radii and particular energy values were permissible. Bohr proposed that an electron was
stable only when in one of these energy levels. Electrons could jump from one level to
another and Bohr proposed that the electrons falling back into their stable orbits gave out
energy equal to the difference in energy between the 2 levels. This energy caused the
observed spectral lines. For hydrogen, he calculated the energy values for the electrons in the
permissible paths and showed that the frequency of the spectral lines for hydrogen could be
explained in terms of his model.
Thus his model was successful in explaining a property of the hydrogen atom. The model
thus had merit in that it led to an explanation of spectral lines for hydrogen. It also had merit,
it that it offered a simplistic way of visualizing atoms and the properties of electrons around a
nucleus. The concept of quantized energy levels, introduced by Bohr, remained an important
part of later models.
However, it was limited in that it failed to account for the spectral lines of atoms which had
more than 1 electron, and was replaced by a new model called quantum mechanics. As with
many models, the limitation can be beneficial to advancement of scientific knowledge, as
scientists work to modify or throw out a model if it cannot provide answers for more than a
minimal number of examples.
33
DISCLAIMER
(g) (i) (1 mark)
Criteria Mark
Sample Answer
+7
(g) (i1) (3 marks)

Criteria Marks
• Suitable procedure to show that potassium permanganate is a STRONG
oxidising agent
3
• Clear description of procedure
• Correct description of observations
• TWO of above only 2
• ONE of above only 1
Sample Answer
A strong oxidising agent is easily reduced if reacted with even a weak reducing agent (iodide
ion).
One method of demonstrating this experimentally is as follows.
• Make up a solution of acidified potassium permanganate by mixing approximately 5mL of
0.02M KMnO4 with 5mL of 2.0M H2SO4(aq).
• Add 1 to 2 mL of this solution to a 0.5M solution of potassium iodide in a test tube.
• Shake the contents well.
Observations. Potassium permanganate solution, KMnO4(aq), is a deep purple colour. When
this ion is reduced its colour changes quickly, from purple to brown.
(g) (iii) (3 marks)

Criteria Marks
• TWO suitable half equations, balanced overall equation 3
• TWO half equations correctly chosen and written 2
• ONE half equation correctly chosen and written 1
Sample Answer
Half equations
MnO4− + 8H+ + 5e− Mn2+ + 4H2O
− −
I + e ½ I2 (aq)
Overall equation
5
MnO4− + 8H+ + 5 I− → I2 (aq) + Mn2+ + 4H2O
2
34
DISCLAIMER
FORENSIC CHEMISTRY

(a) (i) (1 mark)
Criteria Mark
• Correctly identifies site of origin 1
Sample Answer
Site A
(a) (ii)
Criteria Marks
• Correctly identifies of all relevant conditions 2
• Correctly identifies at least TWO relevant conditions 1
Sample Answer
The element must first be ionised (acid) then vapourised (gaseous sample). This sample
absorbs energy which excites electrons. As the electrons return to their ground state, energy in
the form of light is emitted.
(b) (i) (2 marks)

Criteria Marks
• Outlines an appropriate procedure and describes result 2
• Outlines a correct procedure OR a correct result 1
Sample Answer
Try to burn the sample is air using a Bunsen flame. Organic samples will burn while
inorganic samples will not burn but some may char. Carbon dioxide will be formed from
organic substances and can be tested with limewater.
35
DISCLAIMER
(b) (ii) (2 marks)
Criteria Marks
• Correctly identifies TWO classes, draws TWO correct structural formulae
2
and correctly identifies the functional groups
• Correctly identifies ONE class, draws ONE correct structural formula and
1
correctly identifies ONE functional group.
Sample Answer
TWO classes of organic compounds are alkanols and alkanoic acids. The functional groups
are shown in the rectangles.
Alkanol
e.g. ethanol
Alkanoic acid
e.g. ethanoic acid
(c) (i) (1 mark)

Criteria Mark
• Correctly identifies a situation and example 1
Sample Answer
Destructive testing is a problem where the sample is small and has economic, historical or
cultural significance. e.g. artwork, artefacts, valuable jewellery.
(c) (ii) (1 mark)

Criteria Mark
• Correctly identifies a non-destructive method 1
Sample Answer
Examples include mass spectroscopy, electron spectroscopy, atomic force microscopy,
scanning tunnelling microscopy.
36
DISCLAIMER
(d) (i) (2 marks)
Criteria Marks
• Clear and correct explanation of the oxidation of the carbonyl group to
carboxylic acid in a reducing sugar
2
• Correct and complete diagrams to show the difference between reducing
and non-reducing sugars
• Correct explanation of the oxidation of the carbonyl group to carboxylic
acid in a reducing sugar
1
OR
• Appropriate diagrams
Sample Answer
In a reducing sugar (left, above), the carbonyl group (-C=0) is available to be oxidised to a
carboxylic acid, thus ‘reducing’ the reagent. In a non-reducing sugar (right, above) the group
is not available.
(d) (ii) (3 marks)

Criteria Marks
• Appropriate reagent identified
• Appropriate procedure for named reagent provided including examples of
reducing and non-reducing sugars 3
• Appropriate results for distinguishing between reducing or non-reducing
sugar included
• Appropriate procedure for named reagent provided
OR 2
sugar included
OR
1
sugar included
37
DISCLAIMER
Sample Answer
Benedict’s solution can be used to distinguish between a reducing sugar, such as glucose, and
a non-reducing sugar, such as sucrose. Place 2ml (a small amount) of glucose solution and
sucrose solution into TWO different test tubes. Add a few drops of Benedict’s solution and
warm gently for a few minutes. The glucose solution will go a red-brown colour, the sucrose
solution will not change colour.
(Fehling’s solution uses a similar method and gives a similar result; Tollen’s solution is a
similar method but gives ‘silver mirror’ coating to the test tube when a reducing sugar is
present.)
(e) (i) (2 marks)

Criteria Marks
• Names TWO main groups and gives examples for BOTH groups
2
• Clearly explains function of BOTH groups of proteins
• Names TWO groups
OR
• Explains functions of ONE or TWO groups 1
OR
• Names and explains function of ONE group
Sample Answer
The TWO groups are:
• fibrous proteins are long tough molecules that provide structure for body components,
such as hair, skin tendon and cartilage and
• globular proteins are compact and roughly spherical in shape, they are involved in the
functioning of the organism, such as transporting oxygen (haemoglobin), fighting disease
(antibodies), metabolism of nutrients (insulin)
38
DISCLAIMER
(e) (ii) (4 marks)
Criteria Marks
• Identifies substances separated by electrophoresis
• Identifies substances separated by chromatography
4
• Identifies similarities between chromatography and electrophoresis AND
• Identifies differences between chromatography and electrophoresis
• Identifies similarities between chromatography and electrophoresis 3
OR
OR
• Identifies substances separated by chromatography AND
2
• Identifies similarities between chromatography and electrophoresis
OR
OR 1
Sample Answer
Chromatography is used to separate substances based upon their distribution between a
mobile phase and a stationary phase (solubility in polar and non-polar substances). There are
different types of chromatography eg paper, gas, liquid. Substances such as amino acids and
dyes can be separated by chromatography.
Electrophoresis is used to separate substances based on their electrostatic charge and different
mobilities. Electrophoresis can be used to separate amino acids and DNA.
Similarities:
• both allow identification of amino acids, leading to identification of protein and its source
Differences:
• Electrophoresis separates fragments on the basis of their charge and size. Chromatography
separates fragments on the basis of their different solubilities in polar and non-polar
substances
• In electrophoresis, conditions can be easily changed to achieve separation of mixture eg
pH. Conditions in chromatography are less easy to vary to improve the result
• Electrophoresis requires more expensive equipment
39
DISCLAIMER
(f) (5 marks)
Criteria Marks
• Relates the unique nature of individual DNA to the use of DNA analysis in
civil and criminal proceedings
• Discusses the role of DNA analysis in forensic chemistry by comparing it to
another method and referring to points for and against the use of the 4-5
technique
• Identifies possible uses of information that may be obtained by DNA
analysis and identifies associated ethical issues
• Identifies the unique nature of individual DNA and describes at least one
use of DNA analysis in civil and criminal proceedings
3
• Identifies possible uses of information obtained by DNA analysis that have
associated ethical issues
• Identifies the unique nature of individual DNA
OR
• Identifies a use of DNA analysis in forensic chemistry AND 2
• Identifies the unique nature of individual DNA
OR
• Identifies a use of DNA analysis in forensic chemistry
1
OR
Sample Answer
The DNA that is found in the cells of living and once-living organisms carries the code that
allows the organism to live and reproduce. The sections of the DNA that do not code for
essential proteins (non-coding regions) are unique for individuals (except identical twins).
The regions of non-coding DNA can be separated and mapped by a process called DNA
fingerprinting which allows for identification of individuals by comparing samples to
determine whether the samples are from the same person, related people or unrelated
individuals. Thus DNA analysis can be used to convict people of crime, clear a suspect of a
crime or identify relatives, such as in disputed paternity cases or contesting of a will.
Previously, fingerprinting and blood typing were used in identification, for which evidence
was not always conclusive. DNA is highly accurate and has allowed many people to be
convicted of crimes, such as in the case of Stephen James Boney in Wee Waa in 2000. It has
also been used to prove the innocence of convicted felons after a number of years. However,
DNA analysis is very costly and criminals are now more aware of the risks associated with
leaving biological evidence at the scene of a crime. With the increased use of DNA analysis,
civil libertarians are concerned that data banks of genetic information may be established.
They could create a society in which routine screening was performed. Information about
genetic disorders or predisposition to particular diseases would then possibly be available to
prospective employers or insurance agencies, creating an ethical issue.
40
DISCLAIMER
CATHOLIC SECONDARY SCHOOLS ASSOCIATION
CHEMISTRY DATA SHEET
________________________________________________________________________________
Avogadro’s constant, N A ............................................................... 6.022 ×1023 mol−1

Volume of 1 mole ideal gas: at 100 kPa and
at 0°C (273 K) ........................... 22.71 L
at 25°C (298 K) ......................... 24.79 L
Ionisation constant for water at 25°C (298.15 K), K w ............… 1.0 ×10−14
Specific heat capacity of water ..................................................... 4.18 ×103 J kg−1 K−1
Some useful formulae

pH =–log10 [H+] ΔH =–mCΔT
Some standard potentials

K+ + e− K(s) −2.94 V
−
2+
Ba + 2e Ba(s) −2.91 V
Ca2+ + 2e− Ca(s) −2.87 V
−
+
Na + e Na(s) −2.71 V
−
2+
Mg + 2e Mg(s) −2.36 V
−
3+
Al + 3e Al(s) −1.68 V
Mn2+ + 2e− Mn(s) −1.18 V
−
H2O + e ½ H2(g) + OH− −0.83 V
Zn2+ + 2e− Zn(s) −0.76 V
Fe2+ + 2e− Fe(s) −0.44 V
−
2+
Ni + 2e Ni(s) −0.24 V
−
2+
Sn + 2e Sn(s) −0.14 V
Pb2+ + 2e− Pb(s) −0.13 V
+ −
H + e ½ H2(g) 0.00 V
2− + −
SO4 + 4H + 2e SO2(aq) + 2H2O 0.16 V
Cu2+ + 2e− Cu(s) 0.34 V
−
½ O2(g) + H2O + 2e 2OH− 0.40 V
+ −
Cu + e Cu(s) 0.52 V
½ I2(s) + e− I− 0.54 V
½ I2(aq) + e− I− 0.62 V
3+ −
Fe + e Fe2+ 0.77 V
Ag+ + e− Ag(s) 0.80 V
−
½ Br2(l) + e Br− 1.08 V
−
½ Br2(aq) + e Br− 1.10 V
½ O2(g) + 2H+ + 2e− H2O 1.23 V
−
½ Cl2(g) + e Cl− 1.36 V
7
½ Cr2O72− + 7H+ + 3e− Cr3+ + H2O 1.36 V
2
½ Cl2(aq) + e− Cl− 1.40 V
MnO4− + 8H+ + 5e− Mn2+ + 4H2O 1.51 V
−
½ F2(g) + e F− 2.89 V
2801-4
THE PERIODIC TABLE

2006 Chemistry Trial Paper

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Centre Number

CATHOLIC SECONDARY SCHOOLS Student Number

Total marks – 100

Section I Pages 3-21

• Draw diagrams using pencil Part B – 60 marks

Bronwen Hegarty (convenor) Educational Consultant

Use the Multiple Choice Answer Sheet provided

1 Why can ethylene be transformed readily into other compounds?

(A) It is a product of both fossil fuels and biomass.

2 n (HO-C6H10O4-OH) → H-(O-C6H10O4)n-OH + (n-1) H2O

What type of reaction is this?

(A) catalytic cracking

(A) 87.8 J mol-1

2Na(s) + 2H+(aq) → H2(g) + 2Na+(aq)

Which statement about the hydrogen ions in this reaction is correct?

(A) They undergo an increase in oxidation state.

5 The graph shows the radioactive decay of strontium-90.

What is the approximate half-life of strontium-90?

How should your laboratory classify the soil sample?

(A) strongly acidic

Students were asked to perform an experiment in 3 steps:

The equipment used in each step of this experiment was:

Step 1 Step 2 Step 3

11 Identify the catalyst used in the Haber process.

What do these three equations explain?

(A) Production of oxygen gas in the troposphere.

14 CHCl2CF3 and CHClFCClF2 are

Identify the INCORRECT statement relating to this process.

Answer the questions in the spaces provided.

Show all relevant working in questions involving calculations.

Question 16 (3 marks) Marks

(a) Label the cathode on the above diagram. 1

Question 19 (2 marks) Marks

Cobalt – 60 forms when cobalt – 59 captures a neutron.

(a) SO2, K2O, N2O5, CaO

From the list of oxides above, identify:

(i) a basic oxide ………………………………………………….. 1

(ii) an acidic oxide ………………………………………………... 1

(c) Aluminium oxide is classified as amphoteric. Define the term amphoteric. 1

Question 22 (3 marks) Marks

(a) State an industrial use for a named ester. 1

(ii) Name this ester. 1

(a) Explain why hydrogen sulfide is classified as a WEAK acid. 1

Question 23 continues on page 15

ZnS (s) + 2HCl (aq) → ZnCl2 (aq) + H2S (g)

In an experiment performed in a fume cupboard 50.0 mL of 0.10M HCl was added to

(i) Which reagent is in excess? Show Your Working. 2

(b) Determine the pH of the hydrochloric acid solution. 1

(c) Evaluate the use of sodium hydroxide as a primary standard. 3

Question 26 (2 marks) Marks

(b) Assess the impact of atomic absorption spectroscopy (AAS) on scientific 4

(a) Identify the trends or patterns described by the graph. 2

(b) Explain ONE method of obtaining the data in the graph. 2

(a) Identify which of the TWO methods is classified as qualitative. 1

Water Hardness Scale

Justify this conclusion.

Question 29 continues on page 21

Answer the question in a SEPARATE writing booklet.

Show all relevant working in questions involving calculations.

Question 30 Industrial Chemistry ............................................................................... 26-27

Question 31 Shipwrecks, Corrosion and Conservation .............................................. 28-29

Question 32 The Biochemistry of Movement............................................................. 30-31

Question 33 The Chemistry of Art....................................................................................32