Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ) with Answers on Mechanical Measurement and Metrology

1-The degree of closeness of the measured value of a certain quantity with its true value is known as
Accuracy
Precision
Standard
Sensitivity
(Ans: a)

2-Error of measurement =
True value – Measured value
Precision – True value
Measured value – Precision
None of the above
(Ans: a)

3-The ability by which a measuring device can detect small differences in the quantity being measured by it, is called its
Damping
Sensitivity
Accuracy
None of the above
(Ans: b)

4-The following term(s) is (are) associated with measuring devices

Sensitivity
Damping
Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
None of the above
(Ans: c)

5-To compare an unknown with a standard through a calibrated system is called

Direct comparison
Indirect comparison
both ‘a’ and ‘b’
None of the above
(Ans: b)

6-The following is an internationally recognized and accepted unit system

MKS
FPS
SI
All of the above (Ans: c)

7-One yard = _____ inch

36
38
40
42 (Ans: a)

8-The following is a line standard of measurement

Measuring tape
Slip gauge
Micrometer
End bars
(Ans: a)
9-The ‘Wringing’ is due to
Atmospheric pressure
Molecular attraction
both ‘a’ and ‘b’
None of the above
(Ans: c)

10-The angle gauge by Dr. Tamlison consists of a set of

10 gauges
12 gauges
14 gauges
16 gauges
(Ans: a)

11-1 Angstrom (Å) = _____

10^-6m
10^-8m
10^-10m
10^-12m
(Ans: c)

12-The principle of ‘Interchangeability’ is normally employed for

Mass production
Production of identical parts
Parts within the prescribed limits of sizes
All of the above
(Ans: d)

13-Following is the theoretical size which is common to both the parts of a mating pair
Normal size
Actual size
Base size
All of the above
(Ans: c)

14-_____ is equal to the differences of the two limits of size of the part
Tolerance
Low limit
High limit
Design size
(Ans: a)

15-The amount by which the actual size of a shaft is less than the actual size of mating hole in an assembly
Clearance
Interference
Allowance
None of the above
(Ans: a)

16-The amount by which the actual size of a shaft is less than the actual size of mating hole in an assembly
Clearance
Interference
Allowance
None of the above
(Ans: b)
17-A positive allowance will always result in a _____ fit.
Clearance
Interference
both ‘a’ and ‘b’
Any of the above
(Ans: a)

18-A negative allowance will always result in a _____ fit.

Clearance
Interference
Transition
Any of the above
(Ans: b)

19-A shaft rotating in a bushed bearing is good example of

Sliding fit
Running fit
Push fit
Driving fit
(Ans: b)

20-Fitting of rim on a locomotive wheel is done by

Keying fit
Driving fit
Force fir
Any of the above
(Ans: c)

21-The following is used to check the diameters of holes

Plug gauge
Ring gauge
Slip gauge
Standard screw pitch gauge
(Ans: a)

22-To check external diameter of hole, we use

Plug gauge
Ring gauge
Slip gauge
Standard screw pitch gauge
(Ans: b)

23-‘GO’ and ‘NO GO’ gauge is a type of

plug gauge
slip gauge
ring gauge
limit gauge
(Ans: d)

24-The following is not a type of comparator

Electrical
Pneumatic
Optical
Hydraulic
(Ans: d)
25-‘Electrolimit’ gauge block comparator and ‘Talyman’ Electrical comparator work on the principle of
Kirchoff’s law
Wheatstone bridge
Faraday,s law
Lenz,s law
(Ans: b)

26-The following is not used to measure angles

Bevel protectors
Calibrated levels
Clinometers
Optical flats
(Ans: d)

27-In v-shape method, the minor diameter of thread is given by

D ± (d2 – d1)
D ± (d1 – d2)
D ± (d2 + d1)
None of the above
Where, D = Diameter of cylindrical gauge, d1 = micrometer reading of cylindrical gauge, d2 = micrometer reading of threads, d
= minor diameter
(Ans: a)

28-The following is not a method to find effective thread diameter

Thread micrometer
Two wire method
Three wire method
The v-piece method
(Ans: d)

29-The effective diameter (E) in three wire method is given by

E=M–C
E=M+C
E=M/C
E=MxC
(Ans: a)

30-The following method(s) is (are) used to measure the minor diameter of internal threads
Taper parallels methods
Calibrated rollers methods
both ‘a’ and ‘b’
None of the above
(Ans: c)

Manufacturing Engineering Questions & Answers – Metrology-1

This set of Manufacturing Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Metrology-1”.

1. Maximum deviation in size of shaft or hole is known as

a) Tolerance
b) Fundamental deviation
c) Clearance
d) Interference
Answer: a
Explanation: Tolerance is the maximum deviation in size of shaft or hole.
2. Nearest deviation between hole and shaft from the basic value is known as
a) Tolerance
b) Fundamental deviation
c) Clearance
d) Interference
Answer: b
Explanation: Tolerance is the maximum deviation in size of shaft or hole.

3. When size of smallest hole is more than size of biggest shaft then it is
a) Clearance fit
b) Interference fit
c) Transition fit
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: When size of smallest hole is more than size of biggest shaft then it is clearance fit.

4. Value of minimum clearance is given by

a) Size of smallest hole – size of biggest shaft
b) Size of smallest hole + size of biggest hole
c) Size of smallest shaft – size of biggest shaft
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Minimum clearance is the difference between size of smallest hole and size of biggest shaft.

5. Value of maximum clearance is given by

a) Size of smallest hole – size of biggest hole
b) Size of smallest shaft + size of biggest hole
c) Size of smallest shaft – size of biggest shaft
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Maximum clearance is given by sum of size of biggest hole and smallest shaft.

6. When size of smallest shaft is more than size of biggest hole then it is
a) Clearance fit
b) Interference fit
c) Transition fit
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: When size of smallest shaft is more than size of biggest hole then it is interference fit.

7. Value of maximum Interference is given by

a) Size of smallest hole – size of biggest shaft
b) Largest of shaft size hole – smallest hole size
c) Size of smallest shaft – size of biggest shaft
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Maximum Interference is the difference between size of largest haft size and smallest hole size.

8. Value of minimum interference is given by

a) Size of smallest hole – size of biggest hole
b) Size of smallest shaft + size of biggest hole
c) Size of smallest shaft – size of biggest hole
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Minimum interference is the difference between size of smallest shaft and size of biggest hole.
9. For manufacturing of certain amount of hole, maximum hole size was found to be 50.14 mm and minimum hole size was
found to be 49.98. Tolerance in mm will be
a) 0.12
b) 0.13
c) 0.16
d) 0.20
Answer: c

Explanation: Tolerance is the maximum deviation in size of shaft or hole.

10. In manufacturing of hole and shaft, maximum shaft diameter was 49.88 mm and minimum hole diameter was found to be
49.94 mm. It is a
a) Clearance fit
b) Interference fit
c) Transition fit
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: When size of smallest hole is more than size of biggest shaft then it is clearance fit. 1-Which one of the following
takes place when water transforms from liquid to gaseous phase?

Structure of the particles change

Size of particles changes
The colour of the particles change
Distance between the particles change
(Ans: d)

2-Match the organisms in Column A with their actions in Column B:

Column A Column B
A. Lactobacillus 1. Nitrogen Fixation
B. Protozoan 2. AIDS
C. Rhizobium 3. Malaria
D. Virus 4. Curd formation
The correct matching is

A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2

A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2
(Ans: a)

3-Which hormone in our body helps us to adjust to stress when we are angry, embarrassed or worried?
Thyroxine
Adrenaline
Insulin
Estrogen
(Ans: b)

4-Match the edible parts of Plants in Column-I with those in Column-II

Column-I Column-II
A. Root 1. Groundnut
B. Stem 2. Apple
C. Seed 3. Sugarcane
D. Fruit 4. Carrot
The correct matching is

A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2

A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2
A-3, B-2, C-2, D-1
(Ans: a)

5-Which of the following represents a group of human diseases caused by virus?

Measles, Chickenpox, Hepatitis-A
Chickenpox, Malaria, Hepatitis-A
Measles, Polio, Typhoid
Measles, Typhoid, Tuberculosis
(Ans: a)

6-Which one of the following represents a group of autotrophs?

Algae, Spinach, Tomato, Banana
Algae, Cuscuta (Dodder), Banana, Mango
Spinach, Mushroom, Tomato, Yeast
Tulsi, Algae, Cuscuta (Dodder), Mushroom
(Ans: a)

7-Human Nutrition includes nutrient requirement, mode of intake of food and its utilization in the body occurring in various
steps which are
A. Absorption, B. Egestion, C. Assimilation, D. Ingestion, E. Digestion
Arrange these steps in sequence as they occur inside the body
A, B, C, D, E
D, E, A, C, B
E, D, C, A, B
D, A, B, C, E
(Ans:b)

8-Medium A is optically denser than Medium B. Which one of the following statements is true?
Speed of light is more in medium A than in medium B.
Speed of light is more in medium B than in medium A.
Speed of light is same in both A and B.
Cannot be compared.
(Ans: b)

9-A block of iron dropped in a vessel of water, sinks to the bottom. This is because
the vessel is not deep enough to allow the block to float
the weight of the water displaced by the block is less than the weight of the block
the weight of the block is less than the weight of the water displaced by the block
the density of water is more than the density of the block
(Ans: b)

10-There are two planets in our solar system which rotate from east to west. These planets are:
Mercury and Uranus
Venus and Uranus
Mercury and Venus
Uranus and Neptune
(Ans: b)

11-The major excretory product in human beings is:

Ammonia
Uric acid
Urea
Ammonium chloride
(Ans: c)
12-Which of the following process(es) destroy(s) the magnetic properties of a bar magnet?
Cutting into two pieces
Sealing
Heating
Beating
Only A
A&B
C&D
B, C & D
(Ans: c)

50 TOP MEASUREMENT and INSTRUMENTS Objective

1. Hysteresis of an instrument means:
a) The change in the same reading when input is first increased and then decreased
b) The reliability of the instrument
c) The repeatability of the insrument
d) The inaccuracy due to ch
2. In which part of the scale does the pointer indicate more accurately
a) In the first third of the cycle
b) In the first half of the cycle
c) In about middle of the scale
d) In the last third of the cycle
ANSWER : C
3. For measuring an unknown electrical quantity, select the meter with
a) Highest range and work down
b) Lowest range and work up
c) Middle range and can be work up or down depending
d) Any of the above
ANSWER : A
4. The ratio of maximum displacement deviation to the full scale deviation of the instrument is called:
a) Static sensitivity
b) Accuracy
c) Linearity
d) Precision
ANSWER : C
5. A 150 V moving iron voltmeter of accuracy class 1.0 reads 75 V when used in a circuit under standard conditions. The
maximum possible percentage error in the reading is:
a) 0.5
b) 1.0
c) 2.0
d) 4.0
ANSWER : C
6. The relative error is the:
a) Difference of the measured value and the true value
b) Ratio of absolute error to the measured value of the quantity under measurement
c) Ratio of the absolute error to the true value of the quantity under measurement
d) Ratio of the probable error to the true value of the
quantity under measurment
ANSWER : C
7. The moving iron voltmeters are likely:
a) To indicate the same value of the ac as on dc
b) To indicate higher value of ac than on dc
c) To indicate lower value of
11. Anderson Bridge is used to measure:
a) L
b) C
c) V
d) I
ANSWER : A
12. Hay’s Bridge is suitable for the measurement of:
a) Inductances with Q>10
b) Inductances with Q<10
c) Capacitors with high dissipation factor
d) Capacitors with low dissipation factor
ANSWER : A
13. The frequency can be measured by using:
a) Wien’s bridge
b) De Sauty’s bridge
c) Schering’s bridge
d) Anderson’s bidge
ANSWER : C
14. The ballistic galvanometer is usually lightly damped so that:
a) It may oscillate
b) It may remain stable
c) Amplitude of the first swing is large
d) Amplitude of the first swing is small
ANSWER : C
15. B-H Curve is used to determination of:
a) Hysteresis loss
b) Iron loss
c) Eddy current loss
d) Both (a) and (b)
ANSWER : A

16. Magnetic materials can be tested by:

a) Self inductance bridge
b) Cambell’s mutual inductance bridge
c) AC potentiometer
d) All the above
ANSWER : D
17. A PMMC instrument can be used as a fluxmeter by:
a) Using low resistance shunt
b) Removing the control spring
c) Making the control springs of large moment of inertia
d) Using a high series resistance
ANSWER : B
18. Open circuit fault in a cable can be located by:
a) Blavier’s test
b) Capacity test
c) Varley loop test
d) Murray loop test
ANSWER : B
19. In CRO the time base signal is applied to:
a) Y-plates
b) X-plates
c) Either X-plate or Y-plate
d) Both X-plate and Y-plate
ANSWER : B
20.In CRO astigmatism is:
a) Source of generating fast electrons
b) Media for absorbing secondary emission electrons
c) An additional focus control
d) Time-delay control in the vertical deflection system
ANSWER : C
21. The main advantage of crystal oscillator is that its output is:
a) A Constant frequency range
b) DC
c) 50 Hz to 60 Hz
d) Variable frequency
ANSWER : A
22. Which of the following statement is true of phase-shift type and Wien-bridge type R-C oscillators:
a) Both use positive feedback
b) The former uses positive feedback only whereas the latter uses both positive and negative feedback
c) The former uses both positive and negative feedback
d) Both use negative feedback
ANSWER : B
23. Moving iron and PMMC instruments can be distinguished from each other by looking at:
a) Pointer
b) Terminal size
c) Scale
d) Scale range
ANSWER : C
24. In a dynamo-meter type of moving coil instrument a swamping resistance is provided inorder to:
a) Control the deflection torque
b) Reduce the bulk of the moving system
c) Reduce the current flowing through the moving coil
d) Provide equal time constant for moving coil and fixed coil, when used for ac measurement
ANSWER : D
25. The deflection of hot-wire instrument depends on:
a) Instantaneous value of alternating current
b) Average value of current
c) RMS value of the alternating current
d) Voltage
ANSWER : C
26. If two meters X and Y requires 40mA and 50mA respectively, to give full scale deflection, then:
a) X is more sensitive
b) Y is more sensitive
c) Both X and Y are equally sensitive
d) It would not be possible to access the sensitivity on the basis of the given data
ANSWER : A
27. The reliability of the instrument refer to:
a) Measurement of changes due to temperature variations
b) Degree to which repeatability continues to remain within specified limits
c) The life of the instrument
d) The extent to which the characteristics remain linear
ANSWER : B
28. The damping torque must operate only when the moving
system of the indicating instrument is:
a) Actually moving
b) Stationary
c) Just starting to move
d) Near its full deflection
ANSWER : A
29. If a voltmeter is connected, like an ammeter in series to the load:
a) The measurement reading will be too high
b) Almost no current will flow in the circuit
c) The meter will burn
d) An instantaneously high current will flow
ANSWER : B
30. Preferred material for permanent magnet is:
a) Stainless steel
b) Alnico
c) Tungsten steel
d) Soft iron
ANSWER : B
31. Air friction damping is used in the instruments which is:
a) Moving iron
b) Moving coil
c) Induction
d) Hot wire
ANSWER : A
32. PMMC instrument gives uniform scale because:
a) It uses spring control
b) It uses eddy current damping
c) The deflection torque is proportional to the instrument current
d) Both (a) and (c)
ANSWER : D
33.An instrument that is capable of measuring only dc is:
a) Moving coil
b) Moving iron
c) Thermo couple
d) None of the above
ANSWER : A
34. Maxwell-Wien bridge is used to measure:
a) Inductance
b) Capacitance
c) Dielectric loss
d) Frequency
ANSWER : A

35.A ballistic galvanometer is used to measure:

a) Charge
b) Current
c) Voltage
d) Frequency
ANSWER : A
36. ____ factor is the ratio of total flux to the useful flux in a
magnetic circuit:
a) Form factor
b) Leakage
c) Utility
d) Dispersion
ANSWER : B
37. For eliminating the effect of earth capacitance from the bridge network we use:
a) Wagner’s earthing device
b) High voltage at low frequency
c) Low voltage at high frequency
d) Campbell-maxwell device
ANSWER : A
38. The most commonly used null deflector in a power
frequency ac bridge is a:
a) Vibration galvanometer
b) D’Arsanval galvanometer
c) Ballistic galvanometer
d) Tachometer
ANSWER : A
39. For measuring emf of a standard cell we use:
a) Galvanometer
b) Potentiometer
c) Zener reference
d) Electro-dynamic voltmeter
ANSWER : B
40.Loss of charge method is used to measure:
a) Low R
b) High R
c) Low L
d) High L
ANSWER : B
41. Megger is an instrument used for the measurement of:
a) High resistance and insulation resistance
b) Medium resistance
c) Low resistance
d) Leakage current
ANSWER : A
42. Vibration reeds are employed in:
a) Frequency meter
b) Power factor meter
c) Synchroscope
d) Megger
ANSWER : A
43. Kelvin double bridge is best suited for the measurement of:
a) Inductance
b) Capacitance
c) Low resistance
d) High resistance
ANSWER : C
44. Introduction of dielectric:
a) Increases the capacitance
b) Reduces the breakdown voltage
c) Reduces the mechanical voltage
d) Increases the size of the capacitor
ANSWER : A
45. The material used to make standard resistance is:
a) Manganin
b) Aluminium
c) Nichrome
d) Platinum
ANSWER : A
46. Which of the following instruments have least
torque/weight ratio:
a) Dynamometer type
b) PMMC
c) Attraction type moving iron
d) Repulsion type moving iron
ANSWER : A
47. The instrument having its deflection depends upon
average value is:
a) Moving iron
b) Hot wire
c) Rectifier type
d) Induction type
ANSWER : C
48. Which of the following instruments can be used for full scale deflection of 300o:
a) PMMC
b) Induction type
c) Hot wire
d) Electrostatic
ANSWER : B
49.While testing cables the galvanometer used should be initially short-circuited in order to protect it from sudden
initial inrush currents as the cable have:
a) A low value of initial resistance
b) A low value of initial capacitance
c) A high value of initial capacitance
d) Both (a) and (b)
ANSWER : C
50. A Ohmmeter is basically:
a) A ammeter
b) A voltmeter
c) A multimeter
d) None of the above
ANSWER : A

Q. Which among the following is a type of direct measuring instrument of roughness?

a. Micro interferometer
b. Wallace surface dynamometer
c. Profilometer
d. None of the above

ANSWER: Profilometer

Q. Which type of errors show linear relation between cumulative pitch error and length of thread?
a. Periodic errors
b. Progressive errors
c. Both a. and b.
d. None of the above

ANSWER: Progressive errors

Q. What is used to measure the major diameter of an external thread?

a. Bench micrometer
b. Thread micrometer
c. One wire method
d. All of the above

ANSWER: Bench micrometer

Q. Smooth motion in involute tooth profile is possible due to

a. variation in pressure angle
b. constant pressure angle
c. Both a. and b.
d. None of the above

ANSWER: constant pressure angle

Q. Which type of tooth profile has double curvature?
a. cycloidal tooth profile
b. involute tooth profile
c. both a. and b.
d. none of the above

ANSWER: cycloidal tooth profile

Q. Which of the following statements is/are false for Co-ordinate measuring machine?
a. Conventional comparators have greater accuracy than co-ordinate measuring machines
b. Gantry type of co-ordinate measuring machine use inductive transducers for measurement
c. Loading and unloading operations are easily done by cantilever type of co-ordinate measuring machine
d. All the statements are false

ANSWER: Conventional comparators have greater accuracy than co-ordinate measuring machines

Q. According to laser Doppler principle, light experiences a change in its frequency when it comes in contact with a moving
object depending upon
a. the velocity of the object
b. the direction of the object
c. both a. and b.
d. none of the above

ANSWER: both a. and b.

Q. According Juran's Triology, which of the following actions is performed under planning procedure?
a. choosing control subjects
b. organizing project teams
c. project establishment
d. deal with resistance to change

ANSWER: project establishment

Q. Which award is presented to different organizations for quality and excellent performance by president of USA?
a. Malcolm Balbridge National Award
b. Dr. W. Edward Deming National Award
c. US Excellence Award
d. None of the above

ANSWER: Malcolm Balbridge National Award

Q. Relaxed ambiance for group participation is observed in which type of brain storming sessions?
a. structured sessions
b. unstructured sessions
c. both a. and b.
d. none of the above

ANSWER: unstructured sessions

Q. Which of the following gives actual measurement of any specific dimension?

a. Inspection by variables
b. Inspection by attributes
c. Both a. and b.
d. None of the above

ANSWER: Inspection by variables

Q. Lot Tolerance Percent Defective is also known as?
a. rejectable quality level
b. acceptance quality level
c. indifferent quality level
d. all of the above

ANSWER: rejectable quality level

Q. What is the effect of sample size on probability of acceptance?

a. sample size has no effect on probability of acceptance
b. as number of items in a sample decrease, higher is the possibility of number of defectives thereby probability of acceptance
decreases
c. as number of items in a sample increase, higher is the possibility of number of defectives thereby probability of acceptance
decreases
d. none of the above

ANSWER: as number of items in a sample increase, higher is the possibility of number of defectives thereby probability of
acceptance decreases

Q. What is meant by Kaizen?

a. card signal
b. to avoid inadvertent errors
c. change for better quality
d. none of the above

ANSWER: change for better quality

Q. Which among the following is a pull type signaling system?

a. Just in time
b. Kanban
c. both a. and b.
d. none of the above
ANSWER: both a. and b.

Q. Imperial standard yard is made of

a. platinum alloy
b. platinum iridium alloy
c. bronze
d. all of the above
ANSWER: bronze

Q. In which of the following length standards, parallax error is observed?

a. line standard
b. end standard
c. both a. and b.
d. none of the above
ANSWER: line standard

Q. Grade 1 is used in
a. high precision tasks
b. department of inspection
c. calibration of instruments
d. all of the above

ANSWER: department of inspection

Q. Testing flatness or straightness of a surface is possible using
a. vernier caliper
b. micrometer
c. autocollimator
d. all of the above

ANSWER: autocollimator

Q. Which principle is used to measure distance in electronic comparator?

a. Frequency modulation
b. Radio oscillations
c. Both a. and b.
d. None of the above

ANSWER: Both a. and b.

Q. The sensitivity of back pressure air gauge is given by the relation shown below, what does δ R / δ p2 signify?
(δR / δt) = (δ Am / δ t) x (δ R / δ p2 ) x (δ p2 / δ Am )
a. Pneumatic sensitivity
b. Sensitivity of pressure gauge
c. Overall magnification
d. Measuring head sensitivity

ANSWER: Sensitivity of pressure gauge

Q. Which error is observed due to lack of squareness when depth is measured using depth micrometer?
a. parallax error
b. cosine error
c. sine error
d. all of the above
ANSWER: cosine error

Q. Which of the following is true for interference fit?

a. Shaft is always smaller than the hole
b. Shaft is always bigger than the hole
c. Interference fits have shaft and hole of same dimension
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Shaft is always bigger than the hole

Q. How is interference between shaft and hole calculated?

a. Interference = maximum shaft – minimum hole
b. Interference = minimum shaft – maximum hole
c. Interference = minimum shaft + maximum hole
d. None of the above

ANSWER: Interference = maximum shaft – minimum hole

Q. Which among the following is used to create fringes in N.P.L. interferometer?

a. Condensing lens
b. Collimating lens
c. Optical flat
d. All of the above
ANSWER: Optical flat
Q. Which type of light source is used in N.P.L. type of flatness interferometer?
a. Mercury vapour lamp
b. Cadmium lamp
c. Both a. and b.
d. None of the above

ANSWER: Mercury vapour lamp

Q. Which principle does Taylor-Hobson-Talysurf tester work on?

a. Capacitive demodulating principle
b. Intensity modulating principle
c. Inductive modulating principle
d. Carrier modulating principle

ANSWER: Carrier modulating principle

Q. Which of the following methods is unreliable to evaluate the surface finish?

a. Electrical stylus profilometer
b. Wallace surface dynamometer
c. Profilograph
d. Tomlinson surface tester

ANSWER: Wallace surface dynamometer

Q. Calculate diameter of best wire for a Withworth thread of M 24 x 7 mm size.

a. 4.04 mm
b. 7.8 mm
c. 3.94 mm
d. 8.08 mm

ANSWER: 3.94 mm

Q. Which of the following statements is true?

a. In three wire method, each flank of a thread is touched by a wire in axial plane section and this is valid only for a thread
having rank angle
b. Compression error is always subtracted from effective diameter value obtained
c. Floating carriage type of micrometer is used for two wire method ----
d. The value of θ is assumed 30o while calculating best wire diameter for Withworth thread

ANSWER: Floating carriage type of micrometer is used for two wire method ----

Q. Calculate the tool width of a gear having 30 number of teeth and with module 5 mm.
a. 6.352 mm
b. 5.555 mm
c. 7.850 mm
d. none of the above
ANSWER: 7.850 mm

Q. A gear has 30 teeth with module 4 mm and pressure angle of 20o. Calculate length of base tangent in a gear over 7 teeth
space.
a. 21.25 mm
b. 90.23 mm
c. 62.53 mm
d. None of the above
ANSWER: 90.23 mm
Q. Which of the following is a contact type of automated inspection method?
a. Inspection probe
b. Laser scanning
c. Electric field
d. All of the above

ANSWER: Inspection probe

Q. Which are the different techniques used by interpretation segments for interpretation?
a. frame grabber and frame store
b. template matching and weighting
c. thresholding and edge detection
d. all of the above

ANSWER: template matching and weighting

Q. Which formula is used to calculate quality of performance?

a. Quality of performance = quality of design + quality of conformance
b. Quality of performance = quality of design - quality of conformance
c. Quality of performance = quality of design + availability
d. None of the above

ANSWER: Quality of performance = quality of design + quality of conformance

Q. Which of the following strategies of Deming's fourteen points is included into category of Management commitment?
a. Institute leadership
b. Encouraging education
c. Eliminating exhortations
d. Adopting new philosophy

ANSWER: Adopting new philosophy

Q. Which among the following depicts positive and negative relation between driving factor and performance factor?
a. Scatter diagram
b. histogram
c. check sheet
d. none of the above
ANSWER: Scatter diagram

Q. Which type of chart uses the rule of 20:80?

a. cause and effect chart
b. Pareto chart
c. fish bone diagram
d. control chart
ANSWER: Pareto chart

Q. Which of the following statements is true?

1. P and nP charts cannot use limit gauges
2. P charts are difficult to understand
3. P charts cannot recognize different degrees of defectiveness in units
a. Only 1
b. Only 2
c. Only 3
d. All the statements are true
ANSWER: Only 3
Q. Sample size of 1 m2 is observed in which type of chart?
a. C chart
b. P chart
c. nP chart
d. R chart

ANSWER: C chart

Q. On operating characteristics curve, consumers risk is denoted by

a. α
b. β
c. γ
d. None of the above

ANSWER: β

Q. ISO 14000 quality standard is related with

a. Environmental management systems
b. Automotive quality standards
c. Eliminating poor quality
d. Customer satisfaction

ANSWER: Environmental management systems

Q. Which ISO standard is used in international automobile companies to set automotive quality system standards ?
a. ISO 14000
b. TS 16949
c. ISO 9000
d. none of the above

ANSWER: TS 16949

Q. Which of the following is a characteristic of End standard?

a. accuracy of ± 0.2 mm
b. accuracy of ± 0.050 mm
c. accuracy of ± 0.001 mm
d. accuracy of ± 1.00 mm

ANSWER: accuracy of ± 0.001 mm

Q. Which among the following is measured using four ball method?

a. Diameter
b. Length
c. Angle
d. All of the above

ANSWER: Diameter

Q. Which of the following is true?

a. Ring gauge has a taper angle of 3 Φ
b. Clinometer cannot measure angle between two adjacent surfaces
c. Clinometer uses micrometer to measure small angles
d. All of the above
ANSWER: Clinometer uses micrometer to measure small angles

Q. Calculate the range of linear scale for pressure ratios between 0.6 to 0.8. The air is supplied at 5 bar to the control jet,
which has a diameter of 0.45 mm and the diameter of measuring jet is 0.83 mm.
k1 = – 0.5 & k2 = 1.1
a. 0.244 mm
b. 0.0976 mm
c. 0.0244 mm
d. None of the above

ANSWER: 0.0244 mm

Q. Internal diameter of any workpiece can be measured using

a. Solex pneumatic comparator
b. Sigma comparator
c. Johansson mickrocator
d. All of the above

ANSWER: Solex pneumatic comparator

Q. What is/are the factor(s) causing runout?

a. Error of position
b. Error of bearings
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above

ANSWER: Both a and b

Q. The snap gauge having go dimension corresponds to

a. maximum metal condition
b. minimum metal condition
c. minimum material condition
d. none of the above

ANSWER: maximum metal condition

Q. Which type of deviation is observed while calculating hole dimensions?

a. Positive
b. Negative
c. Zero
d. All of the above

ANSWER: All of the above

Q. At which angle does a glass plate reflector set in N.P.L. interferometer?

a. 30o
b. 45o
c. 60o
d. 90o

ANSWER: 45o

Q. Which type of surface in a fringe pattern exhibits the movement of fringes towards the centre?
a. concave surface
b. convex surface
ANSWER: concave surface

Q. Which of the following statements is true?

a. Photocell is used to measure light intensity
b. Planimeter is used to measure surface roughness
c. According to Indian Standard 696 roughness valve is to be measured in millimeter
d. All statements are true

ANSWER: Photocell is used to measure light intensity

Q. What is ten point height method?

a. It is the average sum of ten highest points measured within sampling length
b. It is the average difference of five highest points and five deepest valleys measured within sampling length
c. It is the sum of ten highest points divided by sum of ten deepest valleys measured within sampling length
d. It is the average sum of five highest points and five deepest valleys measured within sampling length

ANSWER: It is the average difference of five highest points and five deepest valleys measured within sampling length

Q. What effect does pitch error have on nut and bolt?

a. Major diameter of nut decreases and effective diameter of bolt increases
b. Effective diameter of nut decreases and effective diameter of bolt increases
c. Effective diameter of nut increases and effective diameter of bolt decreases
d. None of the above

ANSWER: Effective diameter of nut decreases and effective diameter of bolt increases

Q. According to Taylor's principle which type of gauge checks both size and geometric features?
a. Go gauge
b. No go gauge
c. Both a. and b.
d. None of the above

ANSWER: Go gauge

Q. Which formula is used to calculate diametral pitch?

a. (number of teeth) x (pitch circle diameter)
b. (pitch circle diameter) / (number of teeth)
c. (number of teeth) / (pitch circle diameter)
d. none of the above

ANSWER: (number of teeth) / (pitch circle diameter)

Q. Analytical checking of gears includes checking of

a. tooth profile
b. vibrations
c. noise level
d. all of the above

ANSWER: tooth profile

Q. What is the function of frame grabber?

a. It stores the obtained data
b. It converts digital words to analog voltage levels
c. It converts analog voltage levels to digital words
d. All of the above
ANSWER: It converts analog voltage levels to digital words

Q. In image shearing techniques, what is meant by single shear?

a. In single shear technique, two images have edge to edge contact and later on one image is shifted some distance over the
other
b. In single shear technique, one image is shifted some distance till an edge to edge contact is established

ANSWER: In single shear technique, two images have edge to edge contact and later on one image is shifted some distance
over the other

Q. Quality improvement planning is related to which category of cost?

a. Cost of failure
b. Cost of appraisal
c. Cost of prevention
d. All of the above

ANSWER: Cost of prevention

Q. Inadvertent errors are caused due to

a. improper timely feedback
b. less knowledge about the product
c. less information
d. all of the above

ANSWER: all of the above

Q. Which of the following is the limitation of Quality circle?

a. higher cost
b. training time and cost
c. development of leadership
d. all of the above

ANSWER: training time and cost

Q. Waterfall method is observed in

a. product design and development
b. quality circle
c. brain storming
d. flow chart
ANSWER: product design and development

Q. Which control chart pattern is/are used for assignable causes?

a. Trend pattern
b. Shift pattern
c. Extreme variation pattern
d. All of the above
ANSWER: All of the above

Q. Which of the following statements is/are true?

1. Trend type of control chart pattern shows continuous movement of points upwards and downwards
2. Trend pattern occurs due to change in inspection method
3. Downward trend indicates wear of parts
a. Only 1
b. Only 2
c. Only 3
d. All of the above
ANSWER: Only 1
Q. Maximum data handling analysis load is observed in
a. single sampling plan
b. double sampling plan
c. sequential sampling plan
d. all of the above

ANSWER: sequential sampling plan

Q. Which sampling method is used when simple random sampling method becomes inconvenient to use in large lots?
a. systematic sampling
b. stratified sampling
c. cluster sampling
d. sampling in stages

ANSWER: stratified sampling

Q. What is quality assurance?

a. Quality assurance deals with activities which prove that products and services meet the required quality standard
b. Quality assurance deals with activities which aim at customers satisfaction
c. Quality assurance deals with controlling the quality of products by inspection
d. All of the above

ANSWER: Quality assurance deals with activities which prove that products and services meet the required quality standard

Q. Which of the following errors are also known as cumulative errors?

a. Random errors
b. Systematic errors
c. Gross errors
d. System interaction errors
ANSWER: Systematic errors

Q. Which of the following statements is/are true?

1. Gross errors are known as compensating errors

2. Systematic errors are caused due to system interaction errors
3. Probability laws are followed by systematic errors
a. Only 1
b. Only 2
c. Only 3
d. All of the above
ANSWER: Only 2

Q. Which type of tolerance does a slip gauge have?

a. Unilateral tolerance
b. Bilateral tolerance
c. Both a. and b.
d. None of the above

ANSWER: Bilateral tolerance

Q. Which of the following materials is/are used to make an angle gauge block?
a. Hardening tool steel
b. Nickel
c. Tungsten carbide
d. All of the above
ANSWER: All of the above
Q. Which of the following statements is true for LVDT?
a. It is a mutual capacitive transducer
b. Presence of hysteresis gives high repeatability
c. It can measure displacement and pressure
d. All of the above

ANSWER: It can measure displacement and pressure

Q. What is the phase difference, when the system is operated at excitation frequency ?
a. Phase difference is greater than 90o
b. Phase difference is less than 90o
c. Phase difference is zero
d. Unpredictable

ANSWER: Phase difference is zero

Q. What is error of circularity?

a. Distance between maximum inscribing circle and minimum circumscribing circle measured radially
b. Distance between maximum inscribing circle and minimum zone circle measured radially
c. Distance between least square circle and minimum zone circle measured radially
d. None of the above

ANSWER: Distance between maximum inscribing circle and minimum circumscribing circle measured radially

Q. Which of the following is tested for parallelism between trajectory and a plane?
a. plane is on a component which moves
b. plane is on a component which does not moves
c. both a. and b.
d. none of the above

ANSWER: both a. and b.

Q. In hole basis system, basic size is equal to

a. maximum hole size
b. minimum hole size
c. upper deviation which is zero
d. none of the above

ANSWER: minimum hole size

Q. Newall system is a type of

a. bilateral hole based system
b. limit system
c. both a. and b.
d. none of the above

ANSWER: both a. and b.

Q. The Pitter - N.P.L. Gauge interferometer is used to measure

a. flatness
b. length
c. straightness
d. all of the above
ANSWER: length

Q. Which method is calculated considering geometric average of ordinates?

a. Centre line average method
b. Peak to valley height method
c. Root mean square method
d. All of the above

ANSWER: Root mean square method

Q. Which type of threads are used to transmit power in one direction?

a. Square threads
b. Buttress threads
c. Both a. and b.
d. None of the above

ANSWER: Buttress threads

Q. Which method gives accurate results when effective diameter is measured without considering the thread angle?
a. Two wire method
b. Three wire method
c. Best wire size
d. All the above

ANSWER: Best wire size

Q. Which of the following instruments is used to measure base pitch of a gear in base tangent method?
a. Gear tooth vernier caliper
b. David Brown tangent caliper
c. David Brown tangent comparator
d. David Brown tangent micrometer

ANSWER: David Brown tangent comparator

Q. Which of the following components are inspected by a Tool maker's microscope?

a. gauges
b. screw threads
c. dies and fixtures
d. all of the above

ANSWER: all of the above

Q. Which dimensions can be measured using image shearing microscope?

a. linear dimensions
b. angular dimensions
c. both linear and angular dimensions
d. none of the above

ANSWER: linear dimensions

Q. Which among the following is used to measure velocity of an object?

a. Laser Doppler effect
b. Laser interferometers
c. Laser telemetric system
d. None of the above
ANSWER: Laser Doppler effect

Q. Which of the following statements is/are true according to Deming's Deadly Diseases?
a. short term profits are very useful for long term goals
b. mobility of management leads to stability
c. merit rating leads to devastating
d. all of the above

ANSWER: merit rating leads to devastating

Q. What is meant by P, D, S and A in PDSA cycle?

a. Progress Development Study Act
b. Plan Do Study Act
c. Project Development Study Act
d. Prevention Do Study Act

ANSWER: Plan Do Study Act

Q. What is capability ratio?

a. The ratio of process capability and number of units inspected
b. The ratio of specification range and process capability
c. The ratio of number of defectives and process capability
d. The ratio of number of defectives and number of units inspected

ANSWER: The ratio of specification range and process capability

Q. Which of the following statements is/are true for sampling inspection?

a. Acceptance sampling does not involve any risk
b. Characteristics of the entire lot can be truly specified
c. Less fatigue results in less mistakes
d. All the above statements are true

ANSWER: Less fatigue results in less mistakes

Q. What is acceptance quality level?

a. Maximum percentage of defective parts for sampling purpose are considered satisfactory as a process average
b. Minimum percentage of defective parts for sampling purpose are considered satisfactory as a process average

ANSWER: Maximum percentage of defective parts for sampling purpose are considered satisfactory as a process average

Q. Which quality management program is related to the maintenance of plants and equipments?
a. Environmental management systems
b. Fault tree analysis
c. Failure mode effect analysis
d. Total productive maintenance

ANSWER: Total productive maintenance

Q. The aim of Just-In-Time manufacturing principle is to eliminate

a. time wastage
b. labour wastage
c. cost of excessive inventory
d. all of the above

ANSWER: all of the above

Q. Calculate the taper angle, if 8 mm and 12 mm are the diameters of A and B balls respectively. Ball A is at a height of 25 mm
from the horizontal ground surface and B at 15 mm.
a. 14.47o
b. 28.95o
c. 7.23o
d. None of the above

ANSWER: 28.95o

Q. What does N, P and L mean in N.P.L. Gauge interferometer?

a. Nikon pulsed laser
b. Nuclear plasma laboratory
c. National Physics Laboratory
d. Nuclear physics laboratory

ANSWER: National Physics Laboratory

Q. What is meant by hitch hiking?

a. procedure of secret voting to select the most appropriate idea
b. enlisting ideas in specific format considering similarities
c. ideas suggested based on other ideas
d. none of the above

ANSWER: ideas suggested based on other ideas

Q. Heat transfer deals with the rate of

a. work transfer
b. temperature transfer
c. energy transfer
d. none of the above

ANSWER: energy transfer

Q. Which among the following has lowest thermal conductivity among the others?
a. silver
b. water
c. mercury
d. copper

ANSWER: water

Q. In gases, the transfer of heat takes place by

a. volumetric density
b. transporting energy with free electrons
c. unstable elastic collision
d. random molecular collision

ANSWER: random molecular collision

Q. How does the heat transfer take place in metals?

a. volumetric density
b. transporting energy with free electrons
c. unstable elastic collision d. random molecular collision
ANSWER: transporting energy with free electrons

Q. Internal energy of a substance is associated with

a. microscopic modes of energy
b. macroscopic modes of energy
c. both a. and b.
d. none of the above

ANSWER: microscopic modes of energy

Q. In which phase of a substance does conduction mode of heat transfer take place?
a. solid
b. liquid
c. gaseous
d. all of the above

ANSWER: all of the above

Q. Mass transfer does not take place in

a. conduction heat transfer
b. convection heat transfer
c. radiation heat transfer
d. none of the above

ANSWER: radiation heat transfer

Q. What is the condition for conduction mode of heat transfer between two bodies?
a. the two bodies must be in physical contact
b. there must be temperature gradient between the bodies
c. both a. and b.
d. none of the above

ANSWER: both a. and b.

Q. In which mode, does the heat energy transfer between two bodies when they are separated by some distance and there is
no any medium between them?
a. conduction mode of heat transfer
b. convection mode of heat transfer
c. radiation mode of heat transfer
d. heat transfer cannot takes place with above condition

ANSWER: radiation mode of heat transfer

Q. The radiant heat emitted by any body travels at the speed

a. less than the speed of light
b. more than the speed of light
c. equals to the speed of light
d. unpredictable

ANSWER: equals to the speed of light

Q. In convection heat transfer energy transfer takes place between

a. two solid surfaces connected physically
b. solid surface and fluid system in motion
c. both a. and b.
d. none of the above
ANSWER: solid surface and fluid system in motion
Q. What is the correct formula for the rate of heat transfer (q) from a surface of body of the area A to the surrounding fluid,
when surface of the body is at temperature Ts and the surrounding fluid is at temperature T∞? Where,
k = conductivity of the body
h = coefficient of convection
a. q = k A (Ts – T∞)
b. q = h A (Ts – T∞)
c. q = (h/k) A (Ts – T∞)
d. q = (1/h) A (Ts – T∞)

ANSWER: q = h A (Ts – T∞)

Q. The convection heat transfer coefficient depends upon

a. the thermal properties of fluid
b. geometry of the system
c. characteristics of the fluid flow
d. all of the above

ANSWER: all of the above

Q. In a process of heat transfer by convection from a body to the surrounding fluid, the convection heat transfer coefficient
a. remains constant over the entire surface of the body
b. does not remain constant over the entire surface of the body
c. none of the above

ANSWER: does not remain constant over the entire surface of the body

Q. Which two processes are unitedly responsible in the transfer of heat between solid surface and surrounding fluid?
a. conduction and convection
b. conduction and mass transfer
c. convection and mass transfer
d. none of the above

ANSWER: conduction and mass transfer

Q. When the surface of a body is at higher temperature than the surrounding fluid, then the heat flows firstly from surface of
the body to the adjacent layer of fluid by
a. convection
b. conduction
c. radiation
d. none of the above
ANSWER: conduction

Q. The fluid flow in which the fluid particles in one layer do not mix with the fluid particles in the other layer is called as
a. laminar flow
b. turbulent flow
c. layer flow
d. none of the above
ANSWER: laminar flow

Q. Generally, all the fluid particles in flowing fluid

a. flow at a constant velocity
b. flow at various velocities
c. flow at a velocity as high as possible
d. none of the above
ANSWER: flow at various velocities
Q. What is the relation between the rate of convection heat transfer and the rate of mixing in turbulent fluid flow?
a. the rate of convection heat transfer decreases with increase in the rate of mixing in turbulent fluid flow
b. the rate of convection heat transfer increases with increase in the rate of mixing in turbulent fluid flow
c. the rate of convection heat transfer does not affected by the change in the rate of mixing in turbulent fluid flow
d. none of the above

ANSWER: the rate of convection heat transfer increases with increase in the rate of mixing in turbulent fluid flow

Q. Viscosity of a fluid can be defined as

a. change in density of the fluid per unit temperature
b. flow resistance offered by the fluid
c. flow velocity change
d. none of the above

ANSWER: flow resistance offered by the fluid

Q. The radiation takes place

a. through molecular communication
b. through vacuum
c. both a. and b.
d. none of the above

ANSWER: through vacuum

Q. Which phenomenon is related to the term radiation?

a. magnetic phenomenon
b. gravity
c. electromagnetic phenomenon
d. none of the above

ANSWER: electromagnetic phenomenon

Q. Thermal radiation takes place from a body by electromagnetic waves as a result of

a. the weight of the body
b. the magnetic power of the body
c. the temperature of the body
d. none of the above

ANSWER: the temperature of the body

Q. The range of waves within which all possible frequencies of electromagnetic radiation are represented is called as
a. electromagnetic frequencies
b. electromagnetic spectrum
c. electromagnetic range
d. none of the above

ANSWER: electromagnetic spectrum

Q. How is the wavelength of radiation (λ) calculated, when propagation velocity (C) and frequency (ν) of the radiation is given?
a. λ = C x ν
b. λ = C / ν
c. λ = ν / C
d. none of the above
ANSWER: λ = C / ν
Q. What is the approximate wavelength range of thermal radiation?
a. 0.1 to 100 μm (micrometer)
b. 0.1 to 100 nm (nanometer)
c. 0.1 to 100 cm (centimeter)
d. none of the above

ANSWER: 0.1 to 100 μm (micrometer)

Q. The wavelength range of the visible light is about

a. 350 to 750 μm (micrometer)
b. 350 to 750 nm (nanometer)
c. 350 to 750 cm (centimeter)
d. none of the above

ANSWER: 350 to 750 nm (nanometer)

Q. Which of the following bodies will not be able to emit radiation continuously?
a. a body with very high temperature placed in air medium
b. a body with temperature 0 oC placed in air medium
c. a body with temperature 0 oC placed in vacuum
d. none of the above

ANSWER: none of the above

Q. When a body receives radiation in the wavelength range of 0.1 to 100 μm (micrometer), then its temperature
a. increases
b. decreases
c. does not change
d. unpredictable

ANSWER: increases

Q. What is emissive power of a body?

a. total radiation emitted by the body per unit volume and time
b. total radiation emitted by the body per unit temperature and time
c. total radiation emitted by the body per unit area and time
d. none of the above

ANSWER: total radiation emitted by the body per unit area and time

Q. Which of the following is NOT a type of condensation heat transfer process?

a. drop-wise condensation
b. bulk-wise condensation
c. film-wise condensation
d. none of the above

ANSWER: bulk-wise condensation

Q. Which surface does the drop-wise condensation occur on?

a. wettable surface
b. non-wettable surface
c. both a. and b.
d. none of the above

ANSWER: non-wettable surface

Q. How can the rates of heat transfer from drop-wise condensation and film condensation be compared?
a. the rate of heat transfer from drop-wise condensation is lower than that of film condensation
b. the rate of heat transfer from drop-wise condensation is higher than that of film condensation
c. the rate of heat transfer from drop-wise condensation is equal to that of film condensation
d. unpredictable

ANSWER: the rate of heat transfer from drop-wise condensation is higher than that of film condensation

Q. Film condensation occurs on a surface when

a. condensate can wet all the surface
b. condensate cannot wet the surface
c. both a. and b.
d. none of the above

ANSWER: condensate can wet all the surface

Q. The thermal resistance for heat transfer is low in

a. drop-wise condensation
b. film condensation
c. both drop-wise and film condensation
d. unpredictable

ANSWER: drop-wise condensation

Q. The conduction heat transfer with combination of transfer of material also is called as
a. material conduction heat transfer
b. convection heat transfer
c. solid convection heat transfer
d. none of the above

ANSWER: convection heat transfer

Q. According to the Fourier's law of heat conduction, the rate of heat transfer by conduction depends upon
a. area of cross section normal to the heat flow
b. temperature gradient
c. both a. and b.
d. none of the above

ANSWER: both a. and b.

Q. What is the temperature gradient in the conduction heat transfer?

a. change in temperature per unit change in time
b. change in temperature per unit change in distance in the direction of heat flow
c. change in temperature per unit change in cross-sectional area normal to the direction of heat flow
d. change in temperature per unit change in cross-sectional area parallel to the direction of heat flow

ANSWER: change in temperature per unit change in distance in the direction of heat flow

Q. Why is the negative sign introduced in the equation of Fourier's law of heat conduction?
q = – kA (dT / dx)
a. because heat transfer rate is inversely proportional to temperature gradient
b. because value of thermal conductivity k is negative
c. because heat is transferred from higher temperature to lower temperature
d. none of the above
ANSWER: because heat is transferred from higher temperature to lower temperature
Q. The value of thermal conductivity k depends upon
a. the material through which the heat is transferred
b. the intensity of heat energy which is being transferred
c. the area which is parallel to the heat transfer
d. all of the above

ANSWER: the material through which the heat is transferred

Q. The materials which have low thermal conductivity are called as ____________
a. thermal conductors
b. thermal resistors
c. thermal insulators
d. none of the above

ANSWER: thermal insulators