PMP PREP TEST 1

1- Your organization has to follow some guidelines and policies while

recruiting people to the company. From your project perspective, these
guidelines and policies will be considered to be:

A- Regulations
B- Best practices
C- Assumptions
D- Constraints

2- A Work Breakdown Structure numbering system

A- Determines the complexity of the project

B- Determines the level at which individual WBS elements are found
C- Helps in automating the WBS using appropriate software
D- Presents justification for the project

3- You are the Project Manager for a construction project and there are 121
people reporting to you. Your job requires that you sanction work to others
and ensure that the work is done at the right time. The tool you use is:

A- Work Breakdown Structure

B- Work Authorization System
C- PERT/CPM/Network Diagrams
D- WBS Dictionaries

4- A contract where the buyer reimburses the seller for the cost incurred by the
seller, and also provides for a fixed amount of profit is also called:

A- Cost Plus Incentive Fee

B- Cost Plus Fixed Fee
C- Time and Material Contract
D- Cost Plus Percentage of cost

5- One of your tasks as a project manager is to prepare a Scope Statement for

your project. The scope statement provides:

A- Authorization to the project manager to use organizational resources for

project activities.
 B- Documentation of how the project scope will be managed and how scope
changes will be integrated into the project.
C- Definition for Work Breakdown structure
D- A documented basis for making future project decisions and for confirming
or developing common understanding of the project scope among
stakeholders.

6- Your project is in the planning phase and you are paid every fortnight for the
work to be done during the fortnight. You have been informed by the project
sponsor that there has been a revaluation of projects within your company and your
project will not be getting any additional funding. In this case, you should:

A- Stop Work Immediately and release all resources

B- Perform appropriate closure for the project
C- Decrease team size
D- Remove non-critical tasks to decrease cost

7- You have been given a high priority task that needs to be completed within a
short time frame. Since you know what has to be done, you assign tasks to the
different team members and tell them when and how the tasks should be done. The
management style that you are following is:

A- Directing
B- Laissez Faire
C- Delegating
D- Task-oriented

8- After Plan Quality, you created an item-specific tool to verify that a set of steps
definitely get followed while testing your product. This can also be referred to as a:

A- Checklist
B- Operational Definition
C- Quality Management Plan
D- Design of Experiment

9- You are the project manager in an automobile manufacturing company. Because

of heavy rains, the machine parts required in your manufacturing process which a
vendor was sending to you, could not reach you in time. You had anticipated this
risk and planned for it in your risk response plan. So, as per your risk response
plan, you started using machine parts, which had been supplied 1 year ago and
were not utilized at that time. However, this has subjected your project to a new
risk - that the machine parts which were not used for 1 year might be a having
higher level of defects.
This new risk can also be called:

A- Unidentifiable Risk
B- Unmanageable Risk
C- Secondary Risk
D- Residual Risk

10- You have been having a lot of heated discussions with your colleague about an
issue, and this is resulting in a hostile environment. To "cool-off" this hostile
situation, you agree to your colleague’s point of view. The conflict resolution mode
that you are using is:

A- Problem Solving
B- Withdrawal
C- Forcing
D- Confrontation

11- All the following are advantages of GERT (Graphical Evaluation and Review
Techniques) as compared with PERT (Project Evaluation and Review Technique)
except:

A- Allows looping
B- Allows for dummy tasks
C- Allows branching
D- Allows multiple project end results

12- As a project manager, you are interested in the personal activities of team-
members. Other than working with you on the project, the team members love to
go out with you for lunch or an occasional game of golf. The power that you have
over the team members is:

A- Penalty
B- Expert
C- Legitimate
D- Referent
13- A restriction (e.g. limited budget) that affects the performance of the project is
also called:

A- Constraint
B- Assumption
C- Kill points
D-Risk

14- As a project manager, you examine project results over time to determine how
project is performing over time. This can be done through:

A- Performance Reviews
B- Variance Analysis
C- Trend Analysis
D- Earned Value Analysis

15- Your company is constructing a dam and your project (which is being
performed under a contract) mandates that you should be paying compensation to
any person displaced because of the project. What kind of constraint is this?

A- Social
B- Legal
C- Environmental
D-Humanity

16- After Project Control, Organizational Process Assets are updated. Wherever
checklists are used, the completed checklists should become part of the

A -Project’s records
B- Project files
C- Project Quality Management plan
D- Lessons Learned documentation
17- In critical negotiations about a contract where you are meeting with two other
parties to discuss outstanding issues, you should pay a lot of attention to which
form of communication?
A- Oral Formal
B- Oral Informal
C- Non Verbal
D-Written Formal
18- In a fixed price contract, the buyer decides to increase the scope of the work to
make the product better. In this case the buyer can do all the following except:

A- Issue a Contract Change Request

B- Start another Fixed Price contract to do the additional work
C- Start another Cost Reimbursable contract to do the additional work
D- Cancel the existing contract, and start a new contract

19- As a project manager, you are responsible for managing changes to the project
scope. If during the end of the project, a customer wants to make a major change to
the scope of work, you should:

A- Reject the changes

B- Make the required changes
C- Escalate to senior management
D- Let the customer know about the impact of the change

20-When your completed product was provided to the customer for approval, he
was not satisfied with the product’s quality. From a quality perspective, the cost of
poor quality can also be referred to as:

A- Cost of non-conformance
B- Failure cost
C- Rework cost
D-Sunk cost

21- There have been too many disagreements within two team-members in your
project regarding the design of a particular product. You would like to incorporate
the best features of the two designs - and want to create an environment that avoids
conflicts and emphasis similarities. The conflict-handling mode you would like to
emphasize is:

A Smoothing
B Compromising
C Confrontation
D Withdrawal
22- Which of the following is not a characteristic of the Project Life Cycle?

A- Risk and uncertainty is highest at start of the project.

B- Ability of the stakeholders to influence final characteristics of the projects
product increases as the project continues.
C- The project life cycle definition determines which transitional actions at the
beginning and end of the project are included - so, the project life cycle
definition can be a link to the ongoing operations of the performing
organization.
D-Cost and staffing levels are low at the start, higher towards the end and drop
rapidly as the project draws to a conclusion.

23- Which of the following statements relating to Assumptions is inaccurate?

A- They are factors that are considered to be true, real or certain.

B- They affect all aspects of project planning,
C- They are progressively elaborated
D- They limit the project team’s options

24- If cost variance is negative, but schedule variance is positive, then this
indicates:

A- Cost and schedule are not dependent on each other

B- The project is under budget and behind schedule
C- The project is over budget and ahead of schedule
D-Crashing may be recommended to make the cost variance positive

25- You are interviewing for the position of project manager in the company. What
is the most important characteristic you should be looking for in the project
manager?

A- Technical Knowledge about the Business

B- Negotiating and convincing skills
C- Communication skills
D- Experience in your organization
26- Generally an accepted method for translating project objectives into tangible
deliverables and requirements is also referred to as:

A- Product Analysis
B- Risk Measurement
C- Alternatives identification
D-Benefit/Cost Analysis

27- You are an expert in Risk Management, having worked in the field for more
than 15 years. Your project is behind schedule and in your project; you are in the
process of identifying which risks may affect your project through the risk
identification process. In a discussion with your project sponsor, you mention that
after the risk identification phase is completed, you would like to directly perform
quantitative risk analysis. Your project sponsor cautions you against doing this - he
mentions that in a prior project, qualitative risk analysis was conducted after risk
identification. In this context, you will:

A- Mention to your sponsor that since you are an expert in risk management,
there is no need to do qualitative risk management and the team can directly
go to quantitative risk management phase. This will also save time since
your project is behind schedule
B- Agree with your sponsor that not doing qualitative risk analysis may mean
some risks will remain unidentified and increase the probability of failure
in your project
C- Mention to the sponsor that usually in your past experience, qualitative risk
analysis usually was a waste of time and not recommended for this project
D- Mention to the sponsor that this is a type of project where qualitative risk
analysis is not required. Specific categories of projects do not need
qualitative risk analysis

28- Since you are in the preliminary stages of your project, you estimate that your
project will most probably last 1 year - however, optimistic scenario is that it will
get over within 6 months and pessimistic scenario is 18 months. This kind of
estimate is also called:

A- Definitive
B- Capital Cost
C- Order of Magnitude
D-Feasibility
29- Which of the following Organizational chart has a hierarchical format?

A- RACI Chart
B- Organizational Breakdown Structure
C- Work Breakdown Structure
D-Text-oriented chart

30- In your project, you conducted communications requirements analysis to

determine sum of information needs for all stakeholders. You have determined and
limited who will communicate with whom and who will receive what information.
One factor that you considered while doing communications requirements analysis
is that for your project, the number of communication channels:

A- Increases in direct proportion to number of people

B- Decreases in inverse proportion to number of people
C- Increases in exponential proportion when number of people increases
D- Number of communication channels depends on the type of your project

31- In your project, you have identified important risks, and planned appropriate
responses to the risks. Some risks e.g. possibility of natural disasters has been
documented and accepted in your risk management plan. If there are risks that
remain after you have taken these steps, then such risks are called:

A- Unidentifiable Risks
B- Residual Risks
C- Secondary Risks
D-Accepted Risks

32- While implementing your project, a team member brings to your notice, a risk
that was not mentioned in the Risk Response Plan. In this case, you should:

A- Accept the risk

B- Perform Additional Risk Response planning to control the risk
C- Inform the project sponsor
D- Use project contingency
33- In your project, you invest a lot of time in team development to increase the
team’s performance, which increases the likelihood of meeting project objectives.
All of the following indicators would you use to evaluate your team’s effectiveness
EXCEPT

A- Improvement in skills of team members

B- Improvement in competencies and sentiments that help the team perform
better as a group
C- Decrease in staff-attrition (i.e. fewer people leaving the project team)
D-Works over time

34- You are in the process of determining what types of contracts will be used,
whether standardized procurement documents will be needed and how multiple
providers will be managed. You should record this information in the:

A- Project plan
B- Procurement document
C -Procurement management plan
D- Proposals

35- You have created a WBS Dictionary which you can use to:

A- Verify that the deliverables being produced and accepted are included in the
approved project scope
B- Determine whether work and deliverables meet requirements and product
acceptance criteria
C- Influence the factors that create project scope changes and controlling the
impact of those changes
D- Ask your sponsor for more budgets

36- In your project, you are in the process of determining whether the activities
being done as part of your project comply with organizational and project policies.
This will be done as part of:

A- Inspection
B- Quality Audit
C- Quality Improvement
D- Trend Analysis
37- If you are calculating one early start and early finish for each task, you are
using:

A- PERT
B- CPM
C- GERT
D- PDM

38- In your project, you establish clear expectations regarding acceptable behavior
by project team members e.g. managing conflicts, resolving issues, timely
attendance in all meetings etc. You believe that early commitment to clear
guidelines will decrease misunderstanding and increase productivity. These
expectations and guidelines can also be referred to as:

A- Team-building activities
B- Ground rules
C- General management skills
D- Rules of conduct

39- Project Managers have least power in which organization structure

A- Matrix
B- Functional
C- Projectized
D-Balanced

40- During Project Plan Execution, which area will the Project Manager spend least
time on?

A- Managing risks
B- Documentation
C- Conflict Resolution
D- Documentation and Planning

41- A project has the following characteristics:

Payback of $2,000
Profit of $1,000
Project Cost of $800
Life Cycle Cost of $1200
What is the Benefit Cost Ratio of the project?
 A- 2.50
B- 1.25
C- 1.67
D- 0.83

42- Which of the following is an output of Define Scope phase?

A- Project Plan
B- Project Scope Statement
C- Corrective Action
D- Alternatives Identification

43- In a project management context, all the following are Constructive Roles
EXCEPT:

A- Information Seeker
B- Recognition Seeker
C-Consensus Taker
D- Information Giver

44- All the following statements regarding creating of Time Estimates are correct
EXCEPT:

A- Mathematical Analysis like CPM, GERT and PERT indicate the dates in
which the activity can be scheduled given resource limits and other
constraints.
B- Duration compression techniques including fast tracking and crashing can
help in decreasing the project schedule
C- WBS classification allows for useful activity ordering and sorting.
D- The duration of the project is the sum of durations for all the tasks in the
project.

45- As a project manager, you are in the process of creating a listing of all the
project team members, their roles and communication information. This
information should reside in the:
A- Project Plan
B- Project team directory
C- Performance Reports
D- Responsibility Assignment Matrix
46- Which of the following projects should be selected?

A- Project A with Opportunity Cost of $100,000 and investment of $1,000,000

B- Project B with Opportunity cost of $200,000 and investment of $500,000
C- Project B with Opportunity cost of $300,000 and investment of $3,500,000
D- Cannot be determined with available information

47- You have a project team of 40 people collocated at Houston, Texas. Email and
notes are frequently used to communicate between team members. These are
examples of which type of communication?

A- Written Formal
B- Written Informal
C- Oral Formal
D- Oral Informal

48- Decomposition is the subdivision of project deliverables into smaller, more

manageable components until the work and deliverables are defined at the work
package level. This is a valuable tool for Scope Definition. However,
decomposition may not be possible for a deliverable or subproject if

A- The deliverable or subproject is very complicated

B- The deliverable or subproject is already being produced
C- The deliverable or subproject will be accomplished after a very long time
i.e. far into the future
D- Decomposition of deliverables is always possible

49- Your company deals with manufacturing bearings for the automobile industry.
You already have historical information about the errors and defects that have been
identified and you would like to use this information to determine future
performance. An appropriate tool which you can use is:

A- Scatter Diagram
B- Statistical Sampling
C- Control Chart
D- Trend Analysis
50- Float is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the
project finish date. It can also be called:
A- Slack
B- Total Float
C- Path Float
D- Lead

51-You are the project manager for a complicated construction project which
involves building highways in the whole state of North Carolina. You have several
groups working with you in the project. To plan resources for this project, you
should preferably use a/an:

A- Staffing pool description

B- Staffing Management Plan
C- Responsibility Assignment Matrix
D- Organization Matrix

52- Which of the following tool is used for Scope Verification?

A- Performance Measurement
B- Scope change control system
C- Inspection
D- Earned Value

53- A customer informed you that it is preferable to make a change to a certain

aspect of the project. What should you do first?

A- Talk with team members to understand implication of the change

B- Communicate the change to Management to get their inputs
C- Open up a Change Control
D- Do sizing for the change and communicate to customer

54- In your project, you are using Most Likely, Optimistic and Pessimistic activity
duration estimates. The technique that you are using is:

A- Analogous Estimating
B- PERT
C- Parametric Estimating
D- Three-point Estimating
55- You are getting project performance information as your project is being
executed. Based on the performance information, forecasts are updated and
reissued. Some factors that could change as forecasts are updated include:

A- Estimate to complete, but not estimate at completion

B- Estimate at completion, but not estimate to completion
C- Estimate to complete and Estimate at completion
D- Neither estimate to complete nor estimate at completion

56- An Activity has an Optimistic estimate of 10 days, pessimistic estimate of 16

days, most likely estimate of 13 days. Assuming a Normal Distribution, what is the
probability that the task will be completed within 10 - 16 days?

A 99.99 %
B 99.73 %
C 95.46 %
D 68.26%

57- Webster Dictionary meaning of authority is "power to influence or command

thought, opinion, or behavior". As a project manager, your authority is greatly
dependent on:

A- Support from Functional Managers

B- Support from Senior Management
C- Influencing and Leading Skills of a Project Manager
D- Organization Structure

58- According to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, Economic security is a:

A- Physiological Need
B- Safety Need
C- Social Need
D- Esteem Need

59- Risk management helps in maximizing the probability and consequences of

positive events and minimizing the probability and consequences of adverse events
to project objectives. Risk Response Planning helps in this context because it:

A- Helps in deciding how to approach and plan the risk management activities
 B- Develops procedures and techniques to enhance opportunities and reduce
threats to project objectives
C- Determines which risks might affect the project and documents their
characteristics
D- Monitors residual risks, identifies new risks and executes risk reduction
plans

60- As a Project Manager, Project Plan Development is an important element for

managing projects. Which phase of the project management life-cycle does Project
Plan Development belong to?

A- Initiation Process
B- Planning Process
C- Execution Process
D- Monitoring & Controlling Process

61- Deliverables are produced as part of a project. Deliverables are any unique or
verifiable product, result or capability to perform a service, and are produced to
complete the following EXCEPT:

A- Process
B- Phase
C- Project
D- Program

62- Your previous project manager made most decisions by himself without
consulting subordinates. So, he believed in a leadership style that was:

A- Laissez Faire
B- Assertive
C- Autocratic
D- Coaching
63- You are the project manager in a Matrix organization. So, all your team
members report to you and the functional manager of their respective departments.
Managing this dual relationship is always a challenge and should generally be the
responsibility of:

A- Project Manager
B- Functional Manager
C- Sponsor
D- Program Manager

64- While managing projects, negotiating helps in conferring with others to come
to terms with them or reach an agreement. A form of Assisted Negotiation is

A- Arbitration
B- Problem Solving
C- Regulation
C- Compromising

65- You are trying to determine what cost and schedule trade-off will be most
appropriate for your project. You have the option to select either a more
experienced person at $120 per hour who can do the task in 45 days or a less
experienced person at $80 per hour who can do the same task in 65 days. A tool
you can use to facilitate making the decision is:

A- Cost of Quality
B- Cause-and-effect diagram
C- Design of Experiments
D- Network diagrams

66- You are working in the Project Office of your organization. What is your job
responsibility?

A- Managing the operational activities in the company.

B- Always managing Human resource and Risk Management issues for
projects
C- Providing support functions to Project Managers in the form of training,
software, standardized policies etc.
D- Providing Subject Matter Expertise in the Functional areas of the project
67- If the number of critical paths in the project increases, but the duration of the
project remains same, what is the impact on the project?

A- Crashing will be required to complete project on time.

B- Fast tracking will be required to complete project on time.
C- Risk of the project increases
D- Scope of the project increases

68- 10 members were assigned in advance to your project team. This pre-
assignment could be because of all the following reasons EXCEPT:

A- People were promised as part of a competitive proposal

B- Suitable people came forward and mentioned that they wanted to work on
the project
C- Staff assignments were defined in the project charter
D- Project is dependent on the expertise of some of the pre-assigned persons

69- Your project has 250 people from 5 different countries working to create a
software solution which is going to be deployed across 15 countries. Managing
your virtual team is a challenge and compared with managing a collocated project,
you should spend more time working on enhancing your:

A- Integrated Change Control process

B- Contract Management skills
C- Staffing Management plan
D- Communications Planning

70- As a project manager, you must formalize acceptance of the project scope and
keep the project focused on the business need that it was undertaken to address.
This should be done:

A- At the beginning of the project

B- At the end of the project
C- When required by the Business Sponsor
D- After each phase of the project
71-The project team has added some additional functionality which was not
required as part of the project. However the customer is satisfied with the project.
From a quality perspective,

A- This is high quality because it exceeded customer expectations

B- This is not acceptable quality because gold plating was done which is not
advisable
C- This will mean repeat business from the same customer.
D- Quality Management Plan should be change.

72- You are the project manager of a project which would do oil-exploration in the
ocean. Since you cannot plan for all eventualities, you establish a contingency
reserve, including amounts of time, money or resources to handle known or
unknown risks. This is an example of:

A- Risk Avoidance
B- Risk Transfer
C- Active Risk Acceptance
D- Improper risk planning since all risks should be identified and accounted
for.

73-You got news that because of bad weather, your shipment has got delayed by 2
weeks. What should be the first step that you take?

A- Fast Track the project to ensure that the project schedule is not delayed.
B- Review the performance reports to determine which planned dates have not
been met, and the impact on critical path
C- Try to get additional supplies from an alternate location as soon as possible.
D- Take corrective action to minimize the impact because of the delay

74- Which of the following documents provides the project manager with the
authority to apply organizational resources to project activities?

A- Resource Authorization Document

B - Work Breakdown Structure
C- Project Charter
D- Project Scope Statement

75- Your project is very critical for the company and must be completed within 6
months. The project charter has been signed, but Scope Statement is not yet
prepared. Management asks you to go ahead with the project without the scope
statement being approved. What should you do?

A- Refuse to work on the project because management is not following

standard Project Management Practices
B- Since time is of essence, you should start the project with the inputs from
project charter
C- Meet the Management and mention the problems you will face without a
Scope Statement
D- Escalate the issue to the project sponsor and issue a Risk Memo

76- In your project, some requested changes were generated from the Define
Activity process. These changes will be processed through:

A- Activity change control system

B- Corrective Action
C- Integrated Change Control System
D- Activity Sequencing

77- A planning package is a:

A- Unit of the project plan

B- Unit of the scope management plan
C- WBS component below the control account
D- Template used for the project

78- In your project, you realize the importance of determining the start and finish
dates for project activities. If the project start or end dates are not realistic, then the
project may not be completed on time. This is done as part of:

A- Activity Sequencing
B- Activity Duration Estimating
C- Schedule Development
D- Activity Definition

79- The following are costs incurred to ensure compliance to requirements except:

A- Prevention Costs
B- Appraisal Costs
C- Quality Planning Costs
 D- Warranty Costs

80- In your project, you are now interested in determining the cause of variance
relative to the scope baseline and deciding whether corrective action is required.
You should use:

A- Configuration Management System

B- Variance Analysis
C- Re-planning
D- Earned Value Spreadsheets

81- You have taken information on project scope and resources and then developed
durations for input to schedules. Since there was very limited information about the
project, you used actual duration of a previous, similar activity as the basis for
estimating future activity. What will be a next step after this activity?
A- Using Diagramming Techniques like GERT and Systems Dynamics
B- Calculating theoretical Early and Late Start and Finish dates for all project
activities
C- Using Standardized Networks to expedite preparation of Project Network
Diagrams
D- Subdividing project work packages into smaller more manageable
components for better management control

82- You are doing a Monte Carlo Analysis in which you are defining a distribution
of possible activity durations for each schedule activity and calculating a
distribution of possible outcomes for the total project. Monte Carlo analysis is an
example of:

A- Resource Leveling
B- What-if Scenario Analysis
C- Schedule Network Analysis
D- Critical Path Method

83- Early termination of a contract is a special case of contract closure. This can
happen because of :

A- Default of buyer
B- Default of seller
C- Mutual agreement of the parties
D- Any of the above reasons
84- Your company is going through a financial crisis and has set a pre-defined
budget to work with. For your project, a pre-defined budget will become a:

A- Risk
B- Assumption
C- Constraint
D- Opportunity

85- Since your quality process was not up to the four sigma requirements desired
by your customer, some of your products were rejected, and there is a potential that
you would not get repeat business from the same customer. From a quality
perspective, the costs associated with your products being rejected can also be
categorized as:

A- Cost of conformance
B- Customer retention costs
C- Failure costs
D- Performance cost

86- As part of Risk Management process, you just created an overall risk ranking of
the project, created list of prioritized risks, identified which risks need additional
analysis and determined trends in risk analysis results. What should you do next?

A- Analyze the effect of risk events and assign a numerical rating to those risks
B- Create a list of identified risks
C- Determine the fundamental conditions or events that may give rise to
identified risk (root causes of risk)
D- Note down the list of potential responses to the risks

87- According to the 80/20 rule, 80 percent of the problems are because of 20
percent of the causes. To facilitate finding out which are the most probable defects,
and to evaluate nonconformities, you do a rank ordering of the defects using:

A- Statistical Sampling
B- Control Chart
C- Pareto Diagram
D- Inspection
88-In schedule development, you create a distribution of probable results for each
activity and use it to calculate distribution of probable results for the total project.
The technique that you are using is:

A- What-if Analysis
B- Mathematical Analysis
C- Monte Carlo Analysis
D- Resource Leveling heuristic

89- You are the project manager managing the setting up of an oil rig in the Pacific
Ocean. Which of the following could be a valid constraint when you are doing
human resource planning for your project?

A- Weak matrix organization structure

B- Unlimited budget since the project is very critical to meet compliance needs
C- Oil price increasing above $60 per barrel
D- Gold price increasing above $700 per oz

90- In which document will you find a code of account identifier, statement of
work, responsible organization, and a list of schedule milestones?

A- WBS
B- WBS Dictionary
C- PERT/CPM Charts
D- Roles and Responsibilities Matrix

91- In your semiconductor company, there have been several instances in the past
one week where few circuits have not been accurate. You have been assigned the
task of trying to determine the potential cause for the variations. You can do this
using a (an):

A- Control Chart
B- Ishikawa Diagram
C- Pareto Diagram
D- Inspection

92- To balance needs of several stakeholders and achieve lasting resolution of

conflicts, the most desirable conflict resolution technique is:

A Confrontation
 B Smoothing
C Withdrawal
D Forcing

93- To get the work done, the supervisor threatens punishment and carefully
supervises the work. The supervisor believes in:

A- Theory Y (McGregor Model)

B- Theory X (McGregor Model)
C- Maslow hierarchy of needs
D- Referent power

94- You have recently joined a company where they follow a Projectized
organization structure. The following are advantages of a Projectized organization
except:

A- Loyalty of the project team towards to the project

B- Home for the team-members after the project is completed
C- More effective communication between the team members
D- Efficient Project organization

95- You were the project manager of a pharmaceutical company responsible for
releasing of a new drug in the market. While managing the project, you have
created a lot of documentation e.g. project management plan, risk registers, cost
schedule and quality baselines etc. All these documents should be stored in:

A- Formal Acceptance Documents

B- Project Files
C -Project Closure Documents, or Historical Information
D- Historical Information

96- You are managing a critical project with a virtual team that works in 8
countries. Most of the communication is through tele-conferencing and since
members are not collocated, at times team members find it difficult to understand
and interpret each other. From a communication management perspective, this
difficulty in transmitting and understanding messages can also be referred to as:

A- Disturbance
B- Noise
C- Interference
 D- Breakdown in Encode-decode model

97- You are the project manager responsible for understanding the customer habits
for a soap being produced by your company. It is always advisable to do Statistical
Sampling for this project, because testing the entire population would have all the
following problems except:

A- Provide Inaccurate Data

B- Be very expensive
C-Take longer time
D-May require more resources to do the survey

98- You are the project manager of a construction company. You know that after
pouring the cement, you will have to wait for 3 days before you can start painting.
This waiting time can also be referred to as:

A- Lead time
B- Project Float
C- Constraint
D- Lag

99- In the last project status meeting, there was a team member who was criticized
some of his other team members and decreased the status of work done by them.
The role that was played by the person was that of:

A- Aggressor
B- Conflict Maximiser
C- Devils advocate
D- Recognition Seeker

100-A project Life Cycle

A- Defines the Product Life Cycle

B- Defines the project phases
C- Consists of several Product Life Cycles
D- Have deliverables that must mandatory be completed before work starts on
the next phase

101- All the following statements about communication are accurate EXCEPT:
 A- Informal communication includes briefings
B- Formal communication includes reports
C- External communication could include talking with the customer, media,
public etc.
D- Communication with peers is called horizontal communication

102- If you would like to compare different suppliers and rate their proposals, you
should use:

A- Bidder Conferences
B- Qualified Seller Lists
C- Procurement Documents
D- Evaluation Criteria

103- You are the Project Manager of a road construction project. Because of lack of
funds, you are advised to terminate the project and document the extent and level of
completion. This will be done as part of:

A- Verify Scope
B- Project Close-out
C- Project Termination process
D- Change Control process

104- Graphical representations of situations showing causal influences, time

ordering of events, and other relationships among variables and outcomes is also
referred to as:

A- Cause-and-effect diagrams
B- System flow charts
C- Influence diagrams
D- Ishikawa diagrams

105- When you join a new company, you realize that all the project managers in the
new company have the responsibility of managing individual product releases of a
software product and the co-ordination of these releases over time. Since you are a
Certified PMP, you realize that the situation is:

A- A project, because it is a temporary endeavor requiring customer acceptance

B- A program because it involves several projects being done simultaneously,
and elements of ongoing operations
C- Portfolio Management because it refers to support and selection of project or
program investments
D- Operations, because it is ongoing activity, not creating any unique product

106- You are the project manager in a software company. In your project, you want
to ensure that all the operational departments in your organization (e.g. Information
Integrity, Data Architecture group, Servers group etc.) can clearly visualize their
project responsibilities. You should use a/an:

A- Organizational Breakdown Structure

B- Staffing plan
C- Responsibilities Assignment Matrix
D- Resource Breakdown Structure

107- While doing risk response planning, you realize that there is a very critical
risk, which may have a high impact on the project completion. So, you create a
fallback plan, which could include any of the following conditions EXCEPT:

A- Subcontracting the project to an outside Vendor

B- Developing Alternative Options
C- Allocation of Contingency Reserves
D- Changing project scope

108- Maximum intensity of conflicts occurs over:

A- Priorities
B- Schedules
C- Personality Conflict
D- Cost
109- The definition of the project and what needs to be accomplished is
documented in the:

A- Project Scope Statement

B- Project Management Plan
C- Work Breakdown Structure
D- Project Scope Management Plan

110- An environmental remediation project is able to reduce the costs by taking

advantage of technology that was not available when the scope was originally
defined. This is a change request as a result of:

A- A Value Adding Change

B- An error or omission in defining the scope of the project
C- An External Event
D- Implementing a contingency plan or workaround because of new technology

111- In your project, you have collected information from the project management
plan about the planned or expected results along with the information about the
actual results and implemented change requests. This will be a valuable input for
Quality control process and should be included as part of:

A- Work Performance information

B- Organizational Process Assets
C- Quality Management Plan
D- Quality Metrics

112- Based on past estimates, there is 25% probability for a particular event to
happen every year. If a project lasts for 3 years, what is the probability that the
activity will happen in the 3rd year?

A- 15.625 %
B- 6.25 %
C- 25%
D- 75%
113- Your project is close to completion, when you are informed by the customer
that they would like to see an additional feature in the project. What is the BEST
course of action?

A- Add the feature because it will improve customer satisfaction

B- Add the feature because otherwise, the project will not be accepted by the
customer
C- Talk with the customer about why adding this new feature does not make
business sense
D- Take the requirement through the change control process

114- According to Herzberg’s theory, all the following are motivating agents
except:

A- Recognition
B- Responsibility
C- Advancement in career
D- Salary

115- You are not happy with the performance of a team member.
a) What type of communication will you use to relay your concerns to the specific
team member?
b) In case the performance of the team member still does not improve, what form
of communication will you use to convey to senior management?

A a) Informal Verbal, b) Informal Written

B a) Informal Verbal, b) Formal Written
C a) Formal Written, b) Formal Written
D a) Informal Written, b) Formal Written

116- Your project is now in the execution phase and you are continuously
monitoring and controlling risks to minimize surprises of negative risks, so that you
can take timely action. Risk audits are helpful in this context because they:

A- Examine and document the effectiveness of risk responses

B- Help in reassessment of risks
C- Provide trends in project’s execution which can be reviewed using
performance data
D-Help in controlling changes to Risk Management Plan
117- While reviewing the performance reports of your company, you notice that the
CPI is 1.2 and SPI is 0.8 - what should you do?

A- Make changes to the performance baseline to improve the SPI

B- Evaluate options to crash or fast-track the project
C- Inform management why the project will be delayed
D-Tell the team-members that they have to meet the target dates as mentioned in
the project schedule.

118- You are in the test phase of your software project, and the project sponsor has
requested a Definitive measure of when your project will be completed. The
estimated duration (Most likely) is 30 days. What will be an appropriate estimate to
give your sponsor?

A- 29 - 31 days
B- 24 - 36 days
C- 20 - 40 days
D-15 - 45 days

119- In your project, you would like to document team member roles and
responsibilities. You have documented your project roles as Responsible,
Accountable, Control and Inform. A good way to depict the information is through:

A- RBS
B- RAM
C- Text oriented charts
D- WBS

120- In the process of Directing and Managing Project execution, your project team
may be requesting changes to expand or modify project scope, to modify policies
or procedures or to modify project cost or budget. Requests for a change can be all
the following EXCEPT:

A- Direct or indirect
B- Externally or internally initiated
C- Validated or not validated
D-Optional or legally mandated
121- You are the project manager for Changing Tides video games. You have
gathered the inputs for the Estimate Activity Durations process. Which of the
following tools and techniques will you employ to produce the outputs for this
process?

A- Activity list, expert judgment, alternatives analysis, project management

software, and bottom-up estimating

B- Activity list, expert judgment, published estimating data, and project

management software

C- Expert judgment, analogous estimating, parametric estimating, three point

estimates, and reserve analysis

D- Expert judgment, alternatives analysis, published estimating data, and bottom-

up estimating

122- Your project sponsor has requested a cost estimate for the project on which
you’re working. This project is similar in scope to a project you worked on last
year. She would like to get the cost estimates as soon as possible. Accuracy is not
her primary concern right now. She needs a ballpark figure by tomorrow. You
decide to use ___________________.

A- Analogous estimating techniques

B- Bottom-up estimating techniques

C- Parametric modeling techniques

D- Computerized modeling techniques

123- Your project’s primary constraint is quality. To make certain the project team
members don’t feel too pressed for time and to avoid schedule risk, you decide to
use which of the following activity estimating tools?

A- Expert judgment

B- Quantitatively based durations

C- Reserve analysis
D- Analogous estimating

124. You have been hired as a contract project manger for Grapevine Vineyards.
Grapevine wants you to design an Internet wine club for its customers. One of the
activities for this project is the installation and testing of several new servers. You
know from past experience it takes about 16 hours per server to accomplish this
task. Since you’re installing 10 new servers, you estimate this activity to take 160
hours. Which of the estimating techniques have you used?

A- Analogous estimating

B- Bottom-up estimating

C- Parametric estimating

D- Reserve analysis

125- Your project sponsor has requested a cost estimate for the project. She would
like the cost estimate to be as accurate as possible because this might be her one
and only chance to secure the budget for this project because of recent cuts in
special projects. You decide to use _______________.

A- Analogous estimating techniques

B- Bottom-up estimating techniques

C- Top-down estimating techniques

D-Expert judgment techniques

126- The project schedule is used to determine all of the following except which
one?

A- Cost estimates

B- Activity start dates

C- Float times

D- Activity end dates

127- You are a project manager for Picture Shades, Inc. It manufactures window
shades that have replicas of Renaissance-era paintings on the inside for hotel
chains. Picture Shades is taking its product to the home market, and you’re
managing the new project. It will offer its products at retail stores as well as on its
website. You’re developing the project schedule for this undertaking and have
determined the critical path. Which of the following statements is true?

A- You calculated the most likely start date and most likely finish dates, float time,
and weighted average estimates.

B- You calculated the activity dependency and the optimistic and pessimistic
activity duration estimates.

C- You calculated the early and late start dates, the early and late finish dates, and
float times for all activities.

D- You calculated the optimistic, pessimistic, and most likely duration times and
the float times for all activities.

128- Which of the following statements is true regarding the critical path?

A- It should never be compressed.

B- It allows for looping and branching.

C- The critical path technique is the same as PERT.

D- It’s the duration of all tasks with zero float.

129- You are a project manager for Move It Now trucking company. Your company
specializes in moving household goods across the city or across the country. Your
project involves upgrading the nationwide computer network for the company.
Your lead engineer has given you the following estimates for a critical path activity:
60 days most likely, 72 days pessimistic, 48 days optimistic. What is the weighted
average or expected value?

A- 54

B- 66
C- 60

D- 30

130- You are a project manager for Move It Now trucking company. Your company
specializes in moving household goods across the city or across the country. Your
project involves upgrading the nationwide computer network for the company.
Your lead engineer has given you the following estimates for a critical path activity:
60 days most likely, 72 days pessimistic, 48 days optimistic. What is the standard
deviation?

A- 22

B- 20

C- 2

D- 4

131- If you know expected value is 500 and the standard deviation is 12, you can
say with approximately a 95 percent confidence rating which of the following?

A- The activity will take from 488 to 512 days.

B- The activity will take from 464 to 536 days.

C- The activity will take from 494 to 506 days.

D- The activity will take from 476 to 524 days.

132- If your expected value is 110 and the standard deviation is 12, which of the
following is true?

A- There is approximately a 99 percent chance of completing this activity in 86 to

134 days.

B- There is approximately a 68 percent chance of completing this activity in 98 to

122 days.
C- There is approximately a 95 percent chance of completing this activity in 98 to
122 days.

D- There is approximately a 75 percent chance of completing this activity in 86 to

134 days

133- You are the project manager working on a research project for a new drug
treatment. Your preliminary project schedule runs past the due date for a federal
grant application. The manager of the R&D department has agreed to release two
resources to work on your project in order to meet the federal grant application
date. This is an example of ___________________.

A- Crashing

B- Fast tracking

C- Resource leveling

D- Adjusting the resource calendar

134- You are the project manager for Rivera Gourmet Adventure Vacations. Rivera
combines the wonderful tastes of great gourmet food with outdoor adventure
activities. Your project involves installing a new human resources software system.
Jason, the database analyst working on this project, is over allocated. Which of the
following statements is true?

A- You should use resource requirements updates to determine availability and

smooth out resource over allocation.

B- You should use crashing to resource level the critical path tasks.

C- You should use resource leveling to smooth out resource assignments.

D- You should use fast tracking to resource level the critical path tasks.
135- What is one of the problems with project management software?

A- The project manager manages the software instead of the project.

B- Project duration calculations are sometimes approximate.

C- You cannot override the project management software decisions regarding

schedules.

D- It’s expensive and difficult to use.

136- Obtaining formal project plan approval and sign-off is important for all of the
following reasons except which one?

A- Stakeholders are able to recommend a project Planning methodology to follow

throughout the remaining process groups.

B- Stakeholders are aware of the project details, which makes them more likely to
participate in future project decisions.

C- Stakeholders will be more likely to cooperate.

D- Stakeholders are aware of the specific details regarding project schedules,

budgets, and risks

137- You are the project manager for a custom home-building construction
company. You are working on the model home project for the upcoming Show
Homes Tour. The model home includes Internet connections in every room and
talking appliances. You are working on the cost budget for this project. All of the
following statements are true except which one?

A- This process assigns cost estimates to project activities, including risks and
contingency plans.

B- The cost baseline will be used to measure variances and future project
performance.

C- This process assigns cost estimates for expected future period operating costs.

D- The cost baseline is the expected cost for the project.

138- Which of the following is displayed as an S curve?

A- Gantt

B- Cost baseline

C- Critical path

D- Schedule baseline

139- You are a project manager for an international marketing firm. You are ready
to assign resources to your new project using a work authorization system. Which
of the following statements is not true?

A- Work authorization systems clarify and initiate the work for each work package.

B- Work authorization systems are written procedures defined by the organization.

C-Work authorization systems are used throughout the project Execution processes.

D- Work authorization systems are used throughout the Execution processes and
are a tool and technique of the Direct and Manage Project Execution process.

140- You are a project manager for a growing dairy farm. It offers its organic dairy
products regionally and is expanding its operations to the West Coast. It is in the
process of purchasing and leasing dairy farms to get operations underway. You are
in charge of the network operations part of this project. An important deadline is
approaching that depends on the successful completion of the testing phase. You’ve
detected some problems with your hardware in the testing phase and discover that
the hardware is not compatible with other network equipment. You take corrective
action and exchange the hardware for more compatible equipment. Which of the
following statements is true?

A- This is not a corrective action because corrective action involves human

resources, not project resources.

B- Corrective action is taken here to make sure the future project outcomes are
aligned with the project management plan.

C- Corrective action is not necessary in this case because the future project
outcomes aren’t affected.
D- Corrective action serves as the change request to authorize exchanging the
equipment.

141- You are a project manager for a growing dairy farm. It offers its organic dairy
products regionally and is expanding its operations to the West Coast. It’s in the
process of purchasing and leasing dairy farms to get operations underway. The
subproject manager in charge of network operations has reported some hardware
problems to you. You’re also having some other problems coordinating and
integrating other elements of the project. Which of the following statements is
true?

A- You are in the Direct and Manage Project Execution process.

B- Your project team doesn’t appear to have the right skills and knowledge needed
to perform this project.

C- You are in the Information Distribution process.

D- Your project team could benefit from some team-building exercises

142- Which of the following processes serve as inputs to each other?

A- Executing, and Monitoring and Controlling

B- Executing and Closing

C- Planning, and Monitoring and Controlling

D- Executing and Initiation

143- Your team members have just completed training on specialized equipment.
This is one of the work results you’ve gathered and recorded. Which of the
following outputs of the Direct and Manage Project Execution process does this
describe?

A- Corrective action

B- Deliverable

C- Preventive action

D- Work performance information

144- You are reporting on project elements such as schedule status, deliverables
completion, lessons learned, and resource utilization. Which of the following
outputs of the Direct and Manage Project Execution does this describe?

A- Corrective action

B- Deliverables

C- Preventive action

D- Work performance information

145- You are in the process of making project staff assignments. You have several
candidates for a position on the project team that requires specific qualifications.
All the candidates seem to meet the qualifications. You also consider personal
interests, characteristics, and availability of these potential candidates. Which of the
following is true?

A- You are considering the organizational process assets input of the Develop
Project Team process.

B- You are considering the staffing management plan input of the Develop Project
Team process.

C- You are considering the enterprise environmental factors input of the Acquire
Project Team process.

D. You are considering the roles and responsibilities input of the Acquire Project
Team process.

146- Your project team consists of 12 people in the same building you’re located in,
4 people from the West Coast office, 2 people from the Kansas City office, and 6
people from the London office. Your office works different hours than all the other
offices. Additionally, not all of the resources in your building are available at the
same times during the day. Three of the 12 team members work swing shift hours.
You use tools like web conferencing and email to distribute information to the
team. Which of the following is true?
A- This question describes the staffing management plan from the Acquire Project
Team process and communication skills from the Information Distribution process.

B- This question describes resource availability from the Develop Project Team
process and information distribution methods from the Information Distribution
process.

C- This question describes virtual teams from the Acquire Project Team process
and information distribution methods from the Information Distribution process.

D- This question describes project staff assignments from the Develop Project
Team process and communication skills from the Information Distribution process.

147- You are the project manager for a cable service provider. Your team members
are amiable with each other and are careful to make project decisions jointly.
Which of the following statements is true?

A- They are in the smoothing stage of Develop Project Team.

B- They are in the norming stage of Develop Project Team.

C-They are in the forming stage of Develop Project Team.

D- They are in the forcing stage of Develop Project Team.

148- You are the project manager for a cable service provider. Your project team is
researching a new service offering. They have been working together for quite
some time and are in the performing stage of team development. A new member
has been introduced to the team. Which of the following statements is true?

A- The team will start all over again with the storming stage.

B- The team will continue in the performing stage.

C- The team will start all over again with the forming stage.

D- The team will start all over again at the storming stage but quickly progress to
the performing stage.
149- You are the project manager for a cable service provider. Your project team is
researching a new service offering. They have been working together for quite
some time and are in the performing stage of Develop Project Team. This stage of
Develop Project Team is similar to which of the following?

A- Smoothing

B- Achievement Theory

C- Hygiene Theory

D- Self-actualization

150- Receivers in the communication model filter their information through all of
the following except ___________________.

A- Culture

B- Knowledge of subject

C- Habits

D- Language

151- You’ve promised your team two days of paid time off plus a week’s training in
the latest technology of their choice if they complete their project ahead of
schedule. This is an example of which of the following?

A- Achievement Theory

B- Expectancy Theory

C- Maslow’s theory

D- Contingency Theory

152- Your team is split between two buildings on either side of town. As a result,
the team isn’t very cohesive because the members don’t know each other very well.
The team is still in the storming stage because of the separation issues. Which of
the following should you consider?
A- Corrective action

B- Co-location

C- Training

D- Conflict resolution

153- Which conflict resolution technique do project managers use most often?

A- Smoothing

B- Norming

C- Confronting

D- Forcing

154- You are a fabulous project manager, and your team thinks highly of you. You
are well respected by the stakeholders, management team, and project team. When
you make decisions, others follow your lead as a result of which of the following?

A- Referent power

B- Expert power

C- Legitimate power

D- Punishment power

155- Theory Y managers believe which of the following?

A- People are motivated only by money, power, or position.

B- People will perform their best if they’re given proper motivation and
expectations.

C- People are motivated to achieve a high level of competency.

D- People are motivated by expectation of good outcomes.

156- You have accumulated project information throughout the project and need to
distribute some important information you just received. Which of the following is
not an information distribution method?

A- Electronic databases

B- Videoconferencing

C- Electronic mail

D- Voicemail

157- You know that the next status meeting will require some discussion and a
decision for a problem that has surfaced on the project. To make the most accurate
decision, you know that the number of participants in the meeting should be limited
to ___________________.

A- 1 to 5

B- 5 to 11

C- 7 to 16

D- 10 to 18

158- You are holding end-of-phase meetings with your team members and key
stakeholders to learn what has hindered and helped the project team’s performance
of the work. All of the following are true regarding this situation except for which
one?

A- The information learned from these meetings concerns processes and activities
that have already occurred, so it should be documented because the information is
only useful for future projects.

B- These meetings are called lessons learned meetings and they’re a tool and
technique of the Information Distribution process. They’re also a good team-
building activity.

C- Project reports, part of the organizational process output of the Information

Distribution process, include status meetings and lessons learned (which this
question describes).
D- These meetings should be documented as part of the lessons learned
documentation, which is an element of the organizational process assets updates
output of the Information Distribution process.

159- You are a project manager for Dakota Software Consulting Services. You’re
working with a major retailer that offers its products through mail-order catalogs.
The company is interested in knowing customer characteristics, the amounts of
first-time orders, and similar information. As a potential bidder for this project, you
worked on the RFP response and submitted the proposal. When the selection
committee received the RFP responses from all the vendors bidding on this project,
it used a weighted system to make a selection. Which process did this occur in?

A- Conduct Procurements

B- Close procurements

C- Plan Procurements

D- Administer Procurements

160- You have been asked to submit a proposal for a project that has been put out
for bid. First you attend the bidder conference to ask questions of the buyers and to
hear the questions some of the other bidders will ask. Which of the following
statements is true?

A- Bidder conferences are a tool and technique of the conduct procurements.

B- Bidder conferences are an output of the conduct procurements process.

C- Bidder conferences are an output of the plan procurements.

D- Bidder conferences are a tool and technique of the administer procurements

process.

161- You have been asked to submit a proposal for a project that has been put out
for bid. Prior to submitting the proposal, your company must register so that its
firm is on the qualified seller list. Which of the following statements is true?

A- The qualified seller list provides information about the sellers and is a tool and
technique of the conduct procurements process.
B- The qualified seller list provides information about the project and the company
that wrote the RFP and is an output of the conduct procurements process.

C. The qualified seller list provides information about the project and the company
that wrote the RFP and is a tool and technique of the plan procurements process.

D- The qualified seller list provides information about the sellers and is an input to
the Conduct procurements.

162- Which of the following tools and techniques of the conduct procurements
process is used to check proposed pricing?

A- Screening systems

B- Seller rating systems

C- Independent estimates

D- Proposal evaluation technique

163- During the opening rounds of contract negotiation, the other party uses a fait
accompli tactic. Which of the following statements is true about fait accompli
tactics?

A- One party agrees to accept the offer of the other party but secretly knows they
will bring the issue back up at a later time.

B- One party claims the issue under discussion was documented and accepted as
part of Verify Scope.

C- One party claims the issue under discussion has already been decided and can’t
be changed.

D- One party claims to accept the offer of the other party, provided a contract
change request is submitted describing the offer in detail.

164- The tools and techniques of the conduct procurements process include all of
the following except which one?

A- Bidder conferences

B- Record management system

C- Advertising

D- Internet search

165- All of the following are tools and techniques of the Administer procurements
process except for which one?

A- Contract change control system, procurement performance review, and

inspections and audits

B- Performance reporting, payment system, and claims administration

C- Records management system and claims administration

D- Contract performance information gathering and contract reporting systems

166- You are a project manager for an engineering company. Your company won
the bid to add ramp-metering lights to several on-ramps along a stretch of highway
at the south end of the city. You subcontracted a portion of the project to another
company. The subcontractor’s work involves digging the holes and setting the lamp
poles in concrete. The subcontractor’s performance is not meeting the contract
requirements. Which of the following is not a valid option?

A- You document the poor performance in written form and send the
correspondence to the subcontractor.

B- You terminate the contract for poor performance and submit a change request
through Administer procurements.

C- You submit a change request through Administer procurements demanding that

the subcontractor comply with the terms of the contract.

D- You agree to meet with the subcontractor to see whether a satisfactory solution
can be reached.

167- You are a project manager for an engineering company. Your company won
the bid to add ramp-metering lights to several on-ramps along a stretch of highway
at the south end of the city. You subcontracted a portion of the project to another
company. The subcontractor’s work involves digging the holes and setting the lamp
poles in concrete. You discover, through an independent review, that the process the
subcontractor uses to report its progress is inefficient.

Which of the following is true?

A- You are in the Perform Quality Assurance process and have performed a quality
audit.

B- You are in the Perform Quality Assurance process and have performed a
process analysis.

C- You are in the Contract Administer procurements process and have completed a
contract audit to ensure that the subcontractor’s performance meets the contract
requirements.

D- You are in the Performance Reporting process and have completed a

performance review of the contractor’s work.

168- The purpose of a quality audit includes all of the following except which one?

A- To determine which project processes are inefficient or ineffective

B- To examine the work of the project and formally accept the work results

C- To improve processes and reduce the cost of quality

D- To improve processes and increase the percentage of product or service

acceptance

169- You are a contract project manager for a wholesale flower distribution
company. Your project involves developing a website for the company that allows
retailers to place their flower orders online. You will also provide a separate link for
individual purchases that are ordered, packaged, and mailed to the consumer
directly from the grower’s site. This project involves coordinating the parent
company, growers, and distributors. You’ve discovered a problem with one of the
technical processes needed to perform this project. You decide to perform root
cause analysis to determine the cause of this problem and recommended preventive
actions. Which of the following is true?
A- You are using the process analysis technique.

B- You are using the quality audit technique.

C- You are using the root cause identification technique.

D- You are using a Quality Control tool and technique.

170- The tools and techniques of the Perform Quality Assurance process include all
of the following except which one?

A- Quality audits

B- Process analysis

C- Continuous process improvements

D- Quality Control tools and techniques

171- When working in a matrix environment, all of the following are true regarding
the Manage Project Team process except for which one?

A- Communication methods and issue logs are used to create performance

appraisals, provide feedback, and track issues.

B- Managing project teams in a matrix environment is often a critical success factor

for the project.

C- It’s the project manager’s responsibility to make certain this dual reporting
relationship is managed effectively.

D- Loyalty issues might arise when managing projects in a matrix environment.

172- You are preparing project performance appraisals and have decided you’d like
each team member to get feedback regarding their performance from several
sources, including peers, superiors, and subordinates. Which of the following is
true?
A- This is called 360-degree feedback and is part of the input to the organizational
project performance appraisals, which is part of the organizational process assets
updates input of the Manage Project Team process.

B- This is called 360-degree feedback and is considered part of the team

performance assessment input of the Manage Project Team process.

C- This is called 360-degree feedback and is considered part of the work

performance information input of the Manage Project Team process.

D- This is called 360-degree feedback and is part of the project performance

appraisals tool and technique of the Manage Project Team process.

173- You are performing actions such as reporting and comparing actual project
results against the project management plan, analyzing performance data and
determining whether corrective or preventive action should be recommended,
documenting all appropriate product information throughout the life of the project,
gathering and recording project information, and monitoring approved change
requests. Which process are you performing?

A- Performance Reporting

B- Manage Stakeholders

C- Monitor and Control Project Work

D- Perform Quality Assurance

174- You are collecting information regarding project progress and project
accomplishments and reporting it to the stakeholders. You will manage these
communication needs and resolve issues using the communication management
plan as your guideline. Which of the following is true?

A- You are using the Performance Reporting process, which involves reporting
project progress and accomplishments to the stakeholders. You are using the
performance information gathering and compilation tool, which is used in
conjunction with the communications management plan, to coordinate and report
information.
B- You are using both the Performance Reporting and Manage Stakeholders
processes, which are both part of the Project Communications Management
Knowledge Area.

C- You are using the communications method (an input) and issue logs (a tool and
technique) of the Manage Stakeholder process.

D- You are creating performance reports and recommended corrective actions,

which are both outputs of the Performance Reporting process.

175- You are working on a project and discover that one of the business users
responsible for testing the product never completed this activity. She has written an
email requesting that one of your team members drop everything to assist her with
a problem that could have been avoided if she would have performed the test. This
employee reports to a stakeholder, not to the project team. All project team
members and stakeholders are co-located. Since your team needs her to also
participate in an upcoming test, you decide to do which of the following?

A- You decide to record the issue in the issue log and bring it up at the next status
meeting. Everyone can benefit from understanding the importance of stakeholders
fulfilling their roles and responsibilities on the project.

B- You decide to record the issue in the issue log and then phone the stakeholder to
explain what happened. You know speaking with the stakeholder directly is the
most effective means for resolving issues.

C- You decide to have a face-to-face meeting with the stakeholder because this is
the most effective means for resolving issues with them.

D- You decide to email the stakeholder and explain what happened in a

professional manner because this is the most effective means for resolving issues
with them.

176- You are working on a project and discover that one of the business users
responsible for testing the product never completed this activity. She has written an
email requesting that one of your team members drop everything to assist her with
a problem that could have been avoided if she would have performed the test. This
employee reports to a stakeholder, not to the project team.
You estimate that the project might not be completed on time as a result of this
missed activity. All of the following are true except for which one?

A- You should recommend a corrective action to bring the expected future project
performance back into line with the project management plan because of this
employee’s failure to perform this activity.

B- You should recommend a preventive action to reduce the possibility of future

project performance veering off track because of this employee’s failure to perform
this activity.

C- You’ve created a forecast, an output of the Monitor and Control Project Work
process, using past performance to predict what the project’s future condition might
look like.

D- You might have to request a change to the project schedule as a result of this
missed activity

177- All of the following are tools and techniques of the Report Performance
process except which one?

A- Variance analysis

B- Forecasting methods

C- Communication methods

D- Time reporting systems

178- Your project is progressing as planned. The project team has come up with a
demo that the sales team will use when making presentations to prospective clients.
You will do which of the following at your next stakeholder project status meeting?

A- Preview the demo for stakeholders, and obtain their approval and sign-off.

B- Report on the progress of the demo, and note that it’s a completed task.

C- Review the technical documentation of the demo, and obtain approval and sign-
off.
D- Report that the demo has been noted as a completed task in the information
retrieval system

179- You are a project manager for Bluebird Technologies. Bluebird writes custom
billing applications for several industries. A schedule change has been requested.
You know change is concerned with all of the following except which one?

A- Managing change

B- Verifying change

C- Influencing causes of change

D- Determining that a change occurred

180- You are a project manager for Bluebird Technologies. Bluebird writes custom
billing applications for several industries. One of your users verbally requests
changes to one of the screen displays. You explain to her that the change needs to
go through the change control system, which is a subset of the configuration
management system. You explain that a change control system does all of the
following except for which one?

A- Documents procedures for change requests

B- Tracks the status of change requests

C- Describes the management impacts of change

D- Determines whether changes are approved or denied

181- You are a project manager for Star Light Strings. Star Light manufactures
strings of lights for outdoor display. Its products range from simple light strings to
elaborate lights with animal designs, bug designs, memorabilia, and so on. Your
newest project requires a change. You have documented the characteristics of the
product and its functionality using which of the following tools and techniques?

A- Change control system

B- Corrective action

C- Configuration management
D- Updates to the project management plan

182- You are a project manager for Star Light Strings. Star Light manufactures
strings of lights for outdoor display. Its products range from simple light strings to
elaborate lights with animal designs, bug designs, memorabilia, and so on. Your
newest project requires a change. One of the business unit managers submitted a
change through the change control system, which utilizes a CCB. Which of the
following is true regarding the CCB?

A- The CCB describes how change requests are managed.

B- The CCB requires all change requests in writing.

C- The CCB approves or denies change requests.

D- The CCB requires updates to the appropriate management plan

183- Which of the following statements is true regarding schedule variances?

A- Schedule variances impact scope, which impacts the schedule.

B- Schedule variances sometimes impact the schedule.

C- Schedule variances always impact the schedule.

D- Schedule variances never impact the schedule.

184- You are a project manager for Laurel’s Theater Productions. Your new project
is coming in over budget and requires a cost change through the cost change
control system. You know all of the following statements are true regarding Cost
Control except for which one?

A- Performance is monitored to detect variances.

B- Changes are reflected in the cost baseline.

C- Changes are monitored and reflected in the project scope.

D- Changes are monitored so that inappropriate changes do not get into the cost
baseline.
185- Which of the following might require rebase lining of the cost baseline?

A- Corrective action

B- Revised cost estimates

C- Updates to the cost management plan

D- Budget updates

186- All of the following are activities of the configuration management system
except for which one?

A- Variance analysis

B- Identification

C- Status accounting

D- Verification and auditing

187- Which of the following is not an activity of configuration management during

the Integrated Change Control process?

A- Verification

B- Funding

C- Status accounting

D- Auditing

188- What are the performance measurements for the Schedule Control process?

A- SV (EV – PV) and SPI (EV PV)

B- SV (EV – AC) and SPI (EV AC)

C- SV (EV – BAC) and SPI (EV BAC)

D- SV (PV – EV) and SPI (PV EV)

189- This measurement is the value of the work that has been completed to date
compared to the budget.

A- PV

B- AC

C- EV

D- EAC

190- You are a contract project manager for a wholesale flower distribution
company. Your project is to develop a website for the company that allows retailers
to place their flower orders online. You will also provide a separate link for
individual purchases that are ordered, packaged, and mailed to the consumer
directly from the grower’s site. This project involves coordinating the parent
company, growers, and distributors. You are preparing a performance review and
have the following measurements at hand: PV = 300, AC = 200, and EV = 250.
What do you know about this project?

A- The EAC is a positive number, which means the project will finish under
budget.

B- You do not have enough information to calculate CPI.

C- The CV is a negative number in this case, which means you’ve spent less than
you planned to spend as of the measurement date.

D- The CV is a positive number in this case, which means you’re under budget as
of the measurement date.

191- A negative result from an SV calculation means which of the following?

A- PV is higher than EV.

B- PV equals 1.

C- EV is higher than PV.

D- EV is higher than AC.

192- You are a contract project manager for a wholesale flower distribution
company. Your project is to develop a website for the company that allows retailers
to place their flower orders online. You will also provide a separate link for
individual purchases that are ordered, packaged, and mailed to the consumer
directly from the grower’s site. This project involves coordinating the parent
company, growers, and distributors. You are preparing a performance review and
have the following measurements at hand: PV = 300, AC = 200 and EV = 250.
What is the CPI of this project?

A- 0.80

B- 1.25

C- 1.5

D- 0.83

193-You do not expect the types of variances that have occurred on the project to
date to continue. If BAC = 800, ETC = 275, PV = 300, ACC = 200, EV = 250, and
CPIC = 1.25, what is the EAC?

A- 640

B- 750

C- 600

D- 550

194- You know that BAC = 375, PV = 300, AC = 200, and EVC = 250. Variances
that have occurred on the project to date are not expected to continue. What is the
ETC?

A- 75

B- 50

C- 125

D- 150
195- You expect the types of variances that have occurred on the project to date to
continue. If BAC = 800, ETC = 275, PV = 300, ACC = 200, EV = 250, and CPIC =
1.25, what is the EAC?

A- 640

B- 750

C- 600

D- 550

196- You know that BAC = 500, PV = 325, ACC = 275, CPI = .9, and EV = 250
and that you are experiencing atypical variances. Variance at completion tells you
which of the following?

A- 25

B- –52

C- 52

D- –25

197- You know that BAC = 500, PV = 325, ACC = 275, and EVC = 250 and that
you are experiencing typical variances. What is ETC?

A- 227.3

B- 250

C- 274.7

D- 525

198- Your project progressed as planned up until yesterday. Suddenly, an

unexpected risk event occurred. You quickly devised a response to deal with this
negative risk event using which of the following outputs of Risk Monitoring and
Control?

A- Risk management plan updates

B- Workarounds
C- Corrective action

D- Additional risk identification

199- You are working on a project that was proceeding well until a manufacturing
glitch occurred that requires corrective action. It turns out the glitch was an
unintentional enhancement to the product, and the marketing people are absolutely
crazy about its potential. The corrective action is canceled, and you continue to
produce the product with the newly discovered enhancement.

As the project manager, you know that a change has occurred to the product scope
because the glitch changed the characteristics of the product. Which of the
following statements is true?

A- Changes to product scope are reflected in the project scope.

B- Changes to product scope are reflected in the integrated change control plan.

C- Changes to product scope are a result of changes to the product description.

D- Changes to product scope are a result of corrective action.

200- You are working on a project that was proceeding well until a manufacturing
glitch occurred that requires corrective action. It turns out the glitch was an
unintentional enhancement to the product, and the marketing people are absolutely
crazy about its potential. The corrective action is canceled, and you continue to
produce the product with the newly discovered enhancement. As the project
manager, you know that a change has occurred to the project scope. Which of the
following statements is true?

A- Project scope changes do not require CCB approval.

B- Performance measurement baselines might be affected by scope changes.

C- Project scope change uses inspection to determine whether change has occurred.

D- Project scope change uses workarounds to correct unexpected problems with

scope change.
 CORRECTION

1- Choice: D
Explanation: One of more of the organizations involved in the project may
have policies, guidelines, or procedures governing staff acquisitions. When
they exist, such practices act as a constraint on the staff acquisition process
2- Choice: B
Explanation: Each WBS component, including work packages and control
accounts within a WBS, is generally assigned a unique identifier from a code of
accounts. These identifiers provide a structure for hierarchical summation of costs,
schedule and resource information.
The items at the lowest level of the WBS may be referred to as work packages,
especially in organizations that follow earned value management practices. These
work packages may, in turn, be further decomposed in a subproject work
breakdown structure. WBS numbering system determines the level at which
individual WBS elements are found
3- Choice: B
Explanation: Work Authorization System: It includes the steps, documents,
tracking system, and defined approval levels needed to issue work authorizations.
4- Choice: B
Explanation: Cost-plus-fixed-fee (CPFF): Seller is reimbursed for allowable
costs for performing the contract work and receives a fixed fee payment
calculated as a percentage of the estimated project costs. The fixed fee does not
vary with the actual costs unless the project scope changes.
5- Choice: D
Explanation: Project Scope Statement: provides a documented basis for making
future decisions or developing a common understanding of the project scope among
the stakeholders.
6- Choice: B
Explanation: The project or phase, after either achieving its objectives or being
terminated for other reasons, requires closure. Project Closure consists of
documenting project results to formalize acceptance of the product of the project by
the sponsor, or customer.
7- Choice: A
8- Choice: A
Explanation: A checklist is a structured tool, usually component-specific, used to
verify that a set of required steps has been performed.
9- Choice: C
 Explanation: Secondary risks that arise as a direct outcome of implementing a
risk response.

10- Choice: B

11- Choice: B
Explanation: Graphical Evaluation and Review techniques are similar to PERT but
have the distinct advantages of allowing for looping, branching, and multiple
project end results.
12- Choice: D
Explanation: The five interpersonal influences are:
Legitimate Power: The ability to gain support because project personnel perceive
the project manager as being officially empowered to issue orders.
Reward Power: The ability to gain support because project personnel perceive the
project manager as capable of directly or indirectly dispensing valued
organizational rewards (i.e. salary, promotion, bonus, future work assignments
Penalty Power: The ability to gain support because the project personnel perceive
the project manager as capable of directly or indirectly dispensing penalties that
they wish to avoid. Penalty power usually derives from the same source as reward
power, with one being a necessary condition for the other
Expert Power: The ability to gain support because personnel perceive the project
manager as possessing special knowledge or expertise. (Those functional personnel
perceive as consider as important)
Referent power: The ability to gain support because project personnel feel
personally attracted to the project manager or project.
13- Choice: A
14- Choice: C
Explanation: Trend analysis involves examining project performance over time to
determine if performance is improving or deteriorating.
15- Choice: B
Explanation: When a project is performed under a contract, contractual provisions
will generally be constraints.
16- Choice: A
Explanation: When checklists are used (as output of Control Quality Process), the
completed checklists should become part of the project’s records.
17- Choice: C
Explanation: Non-verbal communication is more than 50% of the total
communication and is extremely important to look out for while negotiations are
being conducted.

18- Choice: D
Explanation: Cancellation of the contract has to be done by both the seller and
buyer i.e. it cannot be done unilaterally by the buyer
19- Choice: D
Explanation: If there is a major change to the project, the Project Manager should
try to influence the change to minimize the impact the project. Usually the project
manager is advised to do the following:
1. Evaluate the impact of the change within the team
2. Let the customer (or person requesting the change) know about the impacts of
the change
3. If a change is required, then open a change control and get it approved -
definitely inform the management and the change control board about the impact of
the changes
4. If changes are approved by the change control board, then make the appropriate
changes in the project plan
20- Choice: B
Explanation: Failure costs are also called cost of poor quality
21- Choice: A
22- Choice: B
Explanation: The ability of the stakeholders to influence the final characteristics of
the projects product is highest at the start and gets progressively lower as the
project continues. A major contributor to this phenomenon is that the cost of
changes and error correction generally increases as the project continues.
23- Choice: D
Explanation: Project constraints limit the team’s options
24- Choice: C
25- Choice:
C
Explanation: Communication Skills is the most important trait in a project
manager

26- Choice: A
Explanation: Product Analysis: Each application area has one or more generally
accepted methods for translating project objectives into tangible deliverables and
requirements.
27- Choice: A IMPORTANT A RETENIR 1
Explanation: The risk identification process usually leads to the qualitative risk
analysis process. Alternatively, it can lead directly to quantitative risk analysis
process when conducted by an experienced risk manager.

28- Choice: C IMPORTANT A RETENIR 2

Explanation: The classes of estimates and their accuracy percentages are as
follows:
Definitive: (± 5%)
Capital Cost: (±10% - 15%)
Appropriation: (±15% - 25%)
Feasibility: (± 25% - 35 %)
Order of Magnitude: (> ± 35%)
29- Choice: B
Explanation: Hierarchical-type charts: ... The organizational breakdown structure
(OBS) looks similar to the WBS, but instead of being arranged according to a
breakdown of project deliverables, it is arranged according to an organization’s
existing departments, units or teams.
(Please note: RACI chart is a Matrix-based chart, work breakdown structure is not
a type of organization chart
30- Choice: C IMPORTANT A RETENIR 3
Explanation: Number of Communication Channels increases exponentially when
number of people increase
31- Choice: B
Explanation: Residual risks that are expected to remain after planned responses
have been taken, as well as those which have been deliberately accepted.
32- Choice: B IMPORTANT A RETENIR 4
Explanation: If a risk emerges that was not anticipated in the risk response plan, or
its impact on objectives is greater than expected, the planned response may not be
adequate. It may be necessary to perform additional risk response planning to
control the risk.
33- Choice: D
Explanation: Team performance assessment: The evaluation of a team’s
effectiveness can include indicators such as:
- Improvements in skills that allow a person to perform assigned activities more
effectively
- Improvements in competencies and sentiments that help the team perform better
as a group
- Reduced staff turnover rate
- Work overtime is not recommend IMPORTANT A RETENIR 5
34- Choice: C
Explanation: The procurement management plan describes how the procurement
process will be managed from developing procurement documentation through
contract closure. The procurement management plan can include:
- Types of contracts to be used
- Who will prepare independent estimates and if they are needed as evaluation
criteria
- Managing multiple providers
35- Choice: A
Explanation: The WBS Dictionary is a component of the detailed project scope
definition, and is used to verify that the deliverables being produced and accepted
are included in the approved project scope.
36- Choice: B
Explanation: A quality audit is a structured independent review to determine
whether project activities comply with organizational and project policies,
processes and procedures. The objective of a quality audit is to identify inefficient
and ineffective policies, processes and procedures in use on the project.
37- Choice: B
Explanation: The critical path method calculates the theoretical early start and
finishes dates, and the late start and finish dates, for all schedule activities without
regard for any resource limitations, by performing a forward pass analysis and a
backward path analysis through the project schedule network paths.
38- Choice: B IMPORTANT A RETENIR 6
Explanation: Ground rules establish clear expectations regarding acceptable
behavior by project team members. Early communication to clear guidelines
decreases misunderstandings and increases productivity. The process of discussing
ground rules allows team members to discover values that are important to one
another.

39- Choice: B
40- Choice: B
41- Choice: A
42- Choice: B
43- Choiçe: B
44- Choice: D IMPORTANT ET A RETENIR 7
Explanation: Duration of the project should be calculated after drawing a network
diagram and determining the critical path. The duration of the project is the length
of the critical path, and not the sum of durations for all the tasks in the project.
45- Choice: B
Explanation: Project team directory: A documented list of project team members,
their project roles and communication information
46- Choice: D
Explanation: Opportunity cost is not a project selection criteria.

47- Choice: B
48- Choice: C
49- Choice: D
Explanation: Trend analysis involves using mathematical techniques to forecast
future outcomes based on historical results. Trend analysis is often used to monitor
technical performance: how many errors or defects have been identified and how
many remain uncorrected.
50- Choice: A IMPORTANT A RETENIR 8
Explanation: Float: also called Slack lorsqu’il n’y a pas une date imposée par le
management
51- Choice : C IMPORTANT A RETENIR 9
Explanation: On larger projects, Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM) can be developed at
various levels. For example, a high-level RAM can define what project team or group is responsible
for each component of the WBS, while lower level RAM are used within the group to designate roles,
responsibilities, and levels of authority for specific activities.
52- Choice: C NE PAS OUBLIER QUE L’INSPECTION EST UN OUTIL DE
VERIFY SCOPE IL EST INCONTOURNABLE A L’EXAMEN DE MEME
QUE PROJECT SCOPE STATEMENT EST UN OUTPUT DE DEFINE
SCOPE.
53- Choice : A IMPORTANT A RETENIR 10
Explanation: Anytime there is a potential request for a change from a customer,
1. Understand what functionality was requested - Talk with team-members to
access the implication of the change
2. Open up a Change Control if there is a formal Change Control Mechanism
3. Communicate the change to Management, and inform Customer about the
impact of the change (e.g. increase in sizing, schedule etc.)
4. If change is accepted, go ahead and implement the changes
54- Choice: D IMPORTANT A RETENIR 11
Explanation: Three-point Estimating: The accuracy of the activity duration
estimate can be improved by considering the amount of risk in the original
estimate. Three point estimates are based on determining three types of estimates
i.e. Most Likely, Optimistic and Pessimistic
55- Choice: C
Explanation: Forecasts are updated and reissued based on work performance
information provided as the project is executed. This information is about the
project’s past performance that could impact the project in the future, for example,
estimate at completion and estimate to complete.
56- Choice: B IMPORTANT A RETENIR 12 OUBLIER LES VALEURS DE
SIGMA EN POURCENTAGE PEUVENT VOUS FAIRE PERDRE PLUS
DE 3 QUESTIONS A L’EXAMEN
57- Choice:D IMPORTANT A RETENIR 13
Explanation: The most important factor for determining the authority of a project
manager is the organization structure; depending on the organization structure, the
project manager may have a lot of authority (e.g. Projectized organization) or
minimal authority (e.g. functional organization)
58- Choice:B IMPORTA

N
T A RETENIR 14
NB : Dans une structure organisationnelle par projet, à la fin du projet le chef
de projet à plus besoin d’estime Esteem. Alors, que les membres d’équipe à la
fin du projet ont un besoin de sécurité (safety).
59- Choice: B
Explanation: Risk response planning - developing options and actions to enhance
opportunities, and to reduce threats to project objectives.
60- Choice: B
61- Choice: D
Explanation: Deliverables are any unique and verifiable product, result or
capability to perform a service that must be produced to complete a process, phase
or project.
62- Choice: C
63- Choice: A
Explanation: Management of the project team is complicated when team members
are accountable to both a functional manager and the project manager within a
matrix organization. Effective management of this dual reporting relationship is
often a critical success factor for the project, and is generally the responsibility of
the project manager.
64- Choice: A
Explanation: Agreements may be negotiated directly or with assistance; mediation
and arbitration are two types of assisted negotiation.
65- Choice: C
Explanation: Design of Experiments is a statistical method that helps identify
which factors might influence specific variables. The technique is used most
frequently to the product of the project... however, it can also be applied to project
management issues, such as cost and schedule tradeoffs. For example, senior
engineers will cost more than junior engineers but can also be expected to complete
the assigned work in less time.
66- Choice: C IMPORTANT A RETENIR 15
Explanation: A Project Management Office (PMO) is an organizational unit to
centralize and coordinate the management of projects under its domain. A PMO can
also be referred to as ... "project office." PMOs can operate in a continuum from
providing project management support functions in the form of training, software,
standardized policies and procedures, to actual direct management and
responsibility for achieving the project objectives.
67- Choice: C INCONTOURNABLE A L’EXAMEN 16
Explanation: If the number of critical paths increases for the project, delay in any
one of the critical paths has the potential for delaying the project. So, the risk of the
project (in meeting the project schedule) increases.
68- Choice: B
Explanation: In some cases, project team members are known in advance; that is,
they are pre-assigned. This situation can occur if the project is the result of specific
people being promised as part of a competitive proposal, if the project is dependent
on the expertise of particular persons, or if some staff assignments are defined
within the project charter.
69- Choice: D IMPORTANT A RETENIR 17
Explanation: Communications Planning becomes increasingly important in a
virtual team environment. Additional time may need to be spent to set clear
expectations, develop protocols for confronting conflict, include people in decision-
making and share credit in successes.
70- Choice: D
Explanation: Verify Scope deals with formalizing acceptance of the project scope.
This should be done at the end of each phase
71- Choice: B
Explanation: Customer Satisfaction requires a combination of conformance to
requirements (i.e. the project would produce what it said it would produce)
PMI® believes that providing more functionality (gold plating) is not a good
practice - even if it satisfies the customer.
72- Choice: C
Explanation: The most common active acceptance strategy is to establish a
contingency reserve, including amounts of time, money or resources, to handle
known-or even sometimes potential, unknown - threats or opportunities.
73- Choice: B
Explanation: Performance reports provide information on schedule performance,
such as which planned dates have been met and which have not.
Since performance reports are used to track project execution, they should be
consulted first when there is a delay in the project to determine the potential
impacts
74- Choice: C
Explanation: The project charter provides the project manager with the authority
to apply organizational resources to project activities.
75- Choice: C
Explanation: Without the scope statement, you do not have good understanding of
Project Justification, Product, Project Deliverables and Project Objectives. Without
completing Scope Statement, you do not have all the inputs for Scope Definition
and for creation of Work Breakdown Structure. So, the best option is to Meet the
Management and talk to them about the problems faced if there is no Scope
Statement. So, Choice C is the "BEST AVAILABLE ALTERNATIVE"
Choice A is an Extreme Step and is not recommended
Choice B will cause problems e.g. you will not be able to create a WBS without a
list of deliverables which is available in Scope Statement.
Choice D is an Extreme Measure and is not recommended
76- Choice: C
Explanation: Requested changes are processed for review and disposition through
the Integrated Change Control process.
77- Choice: C
Explanation: A planning package is a WBS component below the control account,
but above the work package
78- Choice: C
Explanation: Project Schedule Development, an iterative process, determines the
planned start and finish dates for project activities. Schedule development can
require that duration estimates and resource estimates are reviewed and revised to
create to create an approved project schedule.
79- Choice: D
Explanation: Prevention and appraisal costs (cost of conformance) include costs
for quality planning, quality control and quality assurance to ensure compliance to
requirements
80- Choice: B
Explanation: Variance Analysis: Project performance measurements are used to
assess the magnitude of variation. Important aspects of project scope control
include determining the cause of variance relative to the scope baseline and
deciding whether corrective action is required.
81- Choice: B
Explanation: Analogous duration estimating means using the actual duration of a
previous similar schedule activity as the basis for estimating the duration of a future
schedule activity - this is done as part of Activity Duration Estimating.
Activity Duration Estimating will be followed by Schedule Development - one tool
and technique used is Schedule Network Analysis (which involves calculating
theoretical Early and Late Start and finish dates.
82- Choice: B
Explanation: What-if scenario Analysis: ... Simulation involves calculating
multiple project durations with different set of activity assumptions. The Most
Common technique is Monte Carlo Analysis.
83- Choice: D
Explanation: Early termination... can result from a mutual agreement of the parties
or from the default of one of the parties.
84- Choice: C
85- Choice: C
Explanation: Failure costs (cost of non-conformance) include costs to rework
products, components, or processes that are non-compliant, costs of warranty,
waste and rework and loss of reputation.
86- Choice: A
Explanation: Tasks like creating an overall risk ranking of the project, creating list
of prioritized risks, identifying which risks need additional analysis and
determining trends in risk analysis results - are all outputs of Qualitative Risk
Analysis. So, the next step is to perform Quantitative Risk Analysis (i.e. Analyze
the effect of risk events and assign a numerical rating to those risks -
Please note that Choice B, Choice C and Choice D refer to outputs from Risk
Identification phase which is already completed.
87- Choice: C
Explanation: A Pareto chart is a specific type of histogram, ordered by frequency
of occurrence, which shows how many defects were generated by type or category
of identified cause. The Pareto technique is used primarily to identify and evaluate
non-conformities.
88- Choice: C
Explanation: Simulation involves calculating multiple project durations with
different sets of activity assumptions. The most common technique is called Monte
Carlo Analysis, in which a distribution of probable results is defined for each
activity and is used to calculate a distribution of probable results for the whole
project.
89- Choice: A
Explanation: Examples of constraints that can limit flexibility in the human
resource planning process. An organization whose basic structure is a weak matrix
means a relatively weaker role for the project manager.
- Unlimited budget is not a constraint (limited budget could be a potential
constraint and limit the project team’s options)
- Oil price increasing over $60 per barrel is also not a constraint (it is an
assumption)
90- Choice: B
Explanation: WBS Dictionary: For each WBS component, the WBS dictionary
includes a code of account identifier, a statement of work, responsible organization
and a list of schedule milestones.
91- Choice: A
Explanation: A control chart’s purpose is to determine whether or not a process is
stable or has predictable performance. Control charts may serve as a data gathering
tool to show when a process is subject to special cause variation, which creates an
out-of-control condition.
92- Choice: A
93- Choice: B
Explanation: Douglas McGregor advocated that most workers can be categorized
according to two theories:
Theory X: This assumes that the workers are inherently lazy and require
supervision
Theory Y: The average worker finds that physical and mental effort on the job
satisfying, and likes his work.
94- Choice: B
Explanation: In a Projectized organization, most of the organizational resources
are involved in the project work. One big problem is that the project team members
do not belong to a specific functional group and hence do not have any "home"
once the project is over.
95- Choice: B
Explanation: Project files: Documentation resulting from the project’s activities;
for example, project management plan, scope, cost and quality baselines, project
calendars, risk registers, planned risk response actions and risk impact.
96- Choice: B
Explanation: Noise: Anything that interferes with the transmission and
understanding of the message (e.g. distance)
97- Choice: A
Explanation: Testing the full population will not provide inaccurate data - the data
would be very accurate if the whole population is tested
98- Choice: D
Explanation: A lag directs a delay in the successor activity. For example, to
account for a ten-day curing period for concrete, a ten-day lag on a finish-to-start
relationship could be used, which means that the successor activity cannot start
until 10 days after the predecessor is completed.
99- Choice: A
100- Choice: B
Explanation: The project life cycle defines the phases that connect the beginning
of a project to its end
101- Choice: A
Explanation: Communicating has many dimensions:
Formal (reports, briefings) and informal (memos, ad hoc conversations)
102- Choice: D
Explanation: Evaluation criteria are developed and used to rate or score proposals
103- Choice: A
Explanation: If the project is terminated early, the scope verification process
should establish and document the level and extent of completion.
104- Choice: C
Explanation: Influence diagrams: These are graphical representations of situations
showing causal influences, time ordering of events, and other relationships among
variables and outcomes. Choice A and D are to the same, used for identifying
causes of risks. Choice B show various elements of a system interrelate, and the
mechanism of causation.
105- Choice: B
Explanation: This is a program because it involves both projects(individual
product releases) and operations (managing multiple releases over time)
106- Choice: A
Explanation: The organizational breakdown structure looks similar to the work
breakdown structure but instead of being arranged according to the breakdown of
project deliverables, it is arranged according to an organization’s existing
departments, units or teams. The project activities or work packages are listed
under each existing department. This way, an operational department such as
information technology or purchasing can see all of its project responsibilities by
looking at its portion of the OBS.
107- Choice: A
Explanation: A fallback plan can be developed for implementation if the selected
strategy turns out not to be fully effective, or if an accepted risk occurs.
Subcontracting the project to an outside vendor is a Risk Transference technique. It
simply gives the other party responsibility for managing the risk but does not
eliminate the risk.
108- Choice: Choice: B
Explanation:

109- Choice: A
Explanation: Many change requests are the result of a value adding change (e.g.
an environmental remediation project is able to reduce the costs by taking
advantage of technology that was not available when the scope was originally
defined).
110- Choice: A
Explanation: Many change requests are the result of a value adding change (e.g.
an environmental remediation project is able to reduce the costs by taking
advantage of technology that was not available when the scope was originally
defined).
111- Choice: A
Explanation: Work performance information including technical performance
measures, project deliverables completion status, and the implementation of
required corrective actions are important inputs to QC. Information from the
project management plan about the planned or expected results should be available
along with information about the actual results and implemented change requests.
112- Choice: C
Explanation: The probability of the activity happening every year is 25%. So, the
probability that the task will happen in the 3rd year is also 25%
113- Choice: D
Explanation: Choice D is the BEST available option. Choice A and Choice B are
not the best answer, because adding this requirement will impact your project
deliverables and this requirement was not in the initial scope of work. Choice C
assumes that you know more about the business need for the requirement than the
customer, which may not be true
114- Choice: D

115- Choice: B
116- Choice: A
Explanation: Risk audits examine and document the effectiveness of risk
responses in dealing with identified risks and their root causes, as well as
effectiveness of the risk management process.
117- Choice: B

Explanation: Since SPI is 0.8 means the project is behind schedule.

Choice B is the only option that tries to solve the problem.
Choice A is unethical and does not solve the issue.
Choice C again does not solve the problem - accepting the change in schedule
timelines and informing management that the project is delayed should be the last
option if there is no way to bring the project on track
Choice D is going to put the team-members under lot of stress, but we are not going
to the root cause of the problem and try to figure out how to get the project on
schedule
118- Choice: A
Explanation: The different classes of estimates are:
Definitive: + 5%
Capital Cost: + 10-15%
Appropriation: + 15 - 25%
Feasibility: + 25 - 35%
Order of Magnitude > + 35%
So, if + 5% variation is allowable, only 29 - 31 days fits that criteria

119- Choice: B

Explanation: A Responsibility Assignment Matrix is used to illustrate the

connections between work that needs to be done and project team members. The
matrix shown in Figure 9-5 is a type of RAM called a RACI chart because the
names of the roles being documented are Responsible, Accountable, Consult and
Inform.
120- Choice: C

Explanation: Requested Changes: Requests for a change can be direct or indirect,

externally or internally initiated, and can be optional or legally/contractually
mandated.

121- Choice: C.

The tools and techniques for Estimate Activity Durations are expert judgment,
analogous estimating, parametric estimating, three-point estimates, reserve
analysis.
122- Choice: A

Analogous—or top-down—estimating techniques are a form of expert judgment.

Since this project is similar to another recent project, you can use the cost estimates
from the previous project to help you quickly determine estimates for the current
project.

123- Choice: C

Reserve analysis takes schedule risk into consideration and adds a percentage of
time or additional work periods to the estimate to prevent schedule delays.

124- Choice: C

Parametric estimating multiplies a known element—such as the quantity of

materials needed—by the time it takes to install or complete one unit of materials.
The result is a total estimate for the activity. In this case, 10 servers multiplied by
16 hours per server gives you a 160-hour total duration estimate.

125- Choice: B

Bottom-up techniques are the most time-consuming and the most accurate
estimates you can use. With bottom-up estimating, each work item is estimated and
rolled up to a project total.

126- Choice: A

The project schedule determines the start and ending dates of activities, determines
float times, generally shows resource assignments, and details the activity
sequences and durations.

127- Choice: C

The CPM calculates a single early and late start date and a single early and late
finish date for each activity. Once these dates are known, float time is calculated for
each activity to determine the critical path. The other answers contain elements of
PERT calculations.
128- Choice: D

You calculate the critical path by adding together the durations of all the tasks with
zero float. The critical path can be compressed using crashing techniques.

129- Choice: C

The calculation for PERT is the sum of optimistic time plus pessimistic time plus
four times the most likely time divided by 6. The calculation for this example is as
follows: (48 + 72 + (4 60))6 = 60.

130- Choice: D

You calculate the standard deviation by subtracting the optimistic time from the
pessimistic time and dividing the result by 6. The calculation for this example is as
follows: (72 – 48) 6 = 4.

131- Choice: D

There is a 95 percent probability that the work will finish within plus or minus two
standard deviations. The expected value is 500, and the standard deviation times 2
is 24, so the activity will take from 476 to 524 days

132- Choice: B

A 68 percent probability is calculated using plus or minus one standard deviation, a

95 percent probability uses plus or minus two standard deviations, and a 99 percent
probability uses plus or minus three standard deviations.

133- Choice: A

Crashing the schedule includes tasks such as adding resources to the critical path
tasks or limiting project requirements.

134- Choice: C

Resource leveling attempts to smooth out resource assignments by splitting tasks,

assigning

underallocated team members to more tasks, or delaying the start of tasks to match
team members’availability.
135- Choice: A

Project management software is a useful tool for the project manager, and it
automates project scheduling, allowing for what-if analysis and easy changes. But
if you focus too much on the tool and ignore the project, the tool becomes a
hindrance.

136- Choice: A.

Stakeholders ordinarily will not have much say in the project planning
methodology used by the project manager. The organization, the project office, or
the project manager usually determines the methodology employed.

137- Choice: C

Future period operating costs are considered ongoing costs and are not part of
project costs.

138- Choice: B

The cost baseline is displayed as an S curve because of the way project spending
occurs. Spending begins slowly, picks up speed until the spending peak is reached,
and then tapers off as the project winds down.

139- Choice: D

Work authorization systems are a tool used during Project Execution processes but
are not a specific tool and technique listed in the Direct and Manage Project
Execution process. They formally initiate the work of each work package and
clarify the assignments.

140- Choice: B

Corrective action brings anticipated future project outcomes back into alignment
with the project management plan. Since there is an important deadline looming
that depends on a positive outcome of this test, the equipment is exchanged so that
the project plan and project schedule are not impacted.
141- Choice: A

The most difficult aspect of the Direct and Manage Project Execution process is
coordinating and integrating all the project elements. The clue to this question is in
the next-to-last sentence.

142- Choice: A

The Executing process group and Monitoring and Controlling process group serve
as inputs to each other.

143- Choice: B

This question describes the deliverable output. Deliverables can be intangibles,

such as the completion of training.

144- Choice: D

Work performance information includes elements such as schedule status, the status
of deliverables completion, lessons learned, and resource utilization.

145- Choice: C

The enterprise environmental factors input of the Acquire Project Team process
considers elements such as personal interests, characteristics, and availability of
potential team members.

146- Choice: C

Virtual teams are teams that don’t necessarily work in the same location or have the
same hours but all share the goals of the project and have a role on the project. The
web conferencing and email references describe the information distribution
methods tool and technique of the Information Distribution process.

147- Choice: B

Teams in the norming stage of Develop Project Team exhibit affection and
familiarity with one another and make joint decisions. Smoothing and forcing are
conflict resolution techniques, not Develop Project Team stages.
148- Choice: C

The introduction of a new team member will start the formation and development
of the team all over again with the forming stage.

149- Choice: D

The performing stage is similar to Maslow’s self-actualization. Both involve team

members at the peak of performance, concerned with doing good and being the
best.

150- Choice: C

Receivers filter information through cultural considerations, knowledge of the

subject matter, language abilities, geographic location, emotions, and attitudes.

151- Choice: B

The Expectancy Theory says that people are motivated by the expectation of good
outcomes. The outcome must be reasonable and attainable.

152- Choice: B

Co-location would bring your team members together in the same location and
allow them to function more efficiently as a team. At a minimum, team members
meeting in a common room, such as a war room, for all team meetings would bring
the team closer together

153- Choice: C

Confronting is a problem-solving technique that seeks to determine the facts and

find solutions based on the facts. That results in a win-win resolution for all parties.

154- Choice: A

Referent power is power that is inferred on a leader by their subordinates as a result

of the high level of respect for the leader.

155- Choice: B

Theory Y managers believe that people will perform their best if they’re provided
with the proper motivation and the right expectations.
156- Choice: A

Electronic databases are a type of information gathering and retrieval system, not a
distribution method.

157- Choice: B

Group sizes of 5 to 11 participants make the most accurate decisions.

158- Choice: B

Lessons learned (which is what this question describes) are useful for future
processes and activities for the current project as well as future projects

159- Choice: A

Conduct procurements involves the receipt of bids and proposals. Weighted

systems are one of the tools and techniques of this process used to evaluate vendors
based on selection criteria defined by the organization.

160- Choice: A Bidder conferences are a tool and technique of the Conduct
procurements. Solicitation is where proposals are submitted by vendors and
obtained by the organization.

161- Choice: D.

Qualified seller lists are an input of the conduct procurements. Their purpose is to
provide information about the sellers.

162- Choice: C

Independent estimates, also called should cost estimates, are a way to check
proposed pricing.

163- Choice: C

Fait accompli is a tactic used during contract negotiations where one party
convinces the other that the particular issue is no longer relevant or cannot be
changed. Option B is not correct because Verify Scope does not generally occur
during contract negotiations since the work of the project has not yet been
performed.
164- Choice: B

Record management system is a tool and technique of the Administer procurements

process.

165- Choice: D

The tools and techniques of the Administer procurements process are contract
change control system, inspections and audits, performance reporting, payment
systems, claims administration, records management system, and procurement
performance reviews.

166- Choice: C

The contract change control system describes the processes you’ll use to make
changes to the contract, not as a means of communication. The changes might
include contract term changes, date changes, and termination of a contract.

167- Choice: A

You have performed a quality audit, which is a structured, independent review of

the organizational processes or project processes, policies, or procedures. Process
analysis examines the root causes and follows steps in the process improvement
plan.

168- Choice: B

The acceptance of work results happens later during the Verify Scope process, not
during Perform Quality Assurance.

169- Choice: A

170- Choice: C

The process analysis technique in the Perform Quality Assurance process includes
root cause analysis to analyze a problem and solution and to create preventive
actions.
171- Choice: A

Communication methods are not a tool and technique of the Manage Project Team
process.

172- Choice: D

This technique is called 360-degree feedback. It’s part of the performance

appraisals tool and technique of the Manage Project Team process.

173- Choice: C

The Monitor and Control Project Work process involves reporting and comparing
project results, gathering and recording data, recommending actions, and
monitoring approved change requests.

174- Choice: B

This question describes the Report Performance process (concerned with collecting
and reporting information regarding project progress and project accomplishments
to the stakeholders) and the Manage Stakeholders process (of which
communications methods and issue logs are tools and techniques).

175- Choice: C

Face-to-face meetings are the most effective means for resolving stakeholder issues
provided these meetings are practical.

176- Choice: B

You are in the Monitor and Control Project Work process. Preventive actions
reduce the possibility of negative impacts from risk events and do not apply to this
situation.

177- Choice: D

The tools and techniques of the Report Performance process are Variance analysis,
forecasting methods, communication methods, reporting systems.
178- Choice: B

Status meetings are to report on the progress of the project. They are not for demos
or show and tell. Option C is not correct because stakeholders are not concerned
about the content of the technical documentation; they need to know that a
qualified technician has reviewed the technical documentation and that the
documentation task is accurate and complete

179- Choice: B

Integrated Change Control, Schedule Control, and Cost Control are all concerned
with three issues: influencing the things that cause change, determining that change
is needed or has happened, and managing the change.

180- Choice: D

Change control systems are documented procedures that describe how to submit
change requests. They track the status of the change requests, document the
management impacts of change, track the change approval status, and define the
level of authority needed to approve changes. Change control systems do not
approve or deny the changes—that’s the responsibility of the configuration control
board (CCB).

181- Choice: C

The key to this question was that the characteristics of the product were
documented with this tool. Configuration management documents the physical
characteristics and the functionality of the product of the project.

182- Choice: C Configuration control boards (CCBs) review change requests and
have the authority to approve or deny them. Their authority is defined by the
organization.

183- Choice: B

Schedule variances will sometimes—but not always—impact the schedule.

Changes to non critical path tasks will not likely impact the schedule, but changes
to critical path tasks will always impact the schedule.

184- Choice: C
Cost Control tracks project performance to detect variances and reflect them in the
cost baseline. It’s also used to prevent inappropriate changes from getting into the
cost baseline.

185- Choice: D

Budget updates might require cost re base lining.

186- Choice: A

The three activities associated with configuration management are configuration

identification, configuration status accounting, and configuration verification and
auditing.

187- Choice: B

Configuration identification involves identifying the products of the project,

determining the status of changes to the configuration, and verifying and auditing
the configuration to determine whether the performance and functional
requirements have been met.

188- Choice: A

Schedule variance is (EV – PV) and schedule performance index is (EV PV).

189- Choice: C

Earned value is referred to as the value of the work that’s been completed to date
compared to the budget.

190- Choice: D

The CV is a positive number and is calculated by subtracting AC from EV as

follows: 250 – 200 = 50. A positive CV means the project is coming in under
budget, meaning you’ve spent less than you planned as of the measurement date.

191- Choice: A

The SV calculation is EV – PV. If PV is a higher number than EV, you’ll get a

negative number as a result.

192- Choice: B
CPI is calculated as follows: EV AC. In this case, 250 200 = 1.25

193- Choice: B

When variances are not expected to continue, or are atypical in nature, EAC is
calculated as follows: ACC + BAC – EV. Therefore, the calculation for this
question looks like this: (200 + 800) – 250 = 750.

194- Choice: C

The correct formula for ETC for this question is as follows: BAC – EVC.
Therefore, ETC is as follows: 375 – 250 = 125.

195- Choice: A

When variances are expected to continue, EAC is calculated as follows:

ACC + ((BAC – EV) CPIC). Therefore, the calculation for this question looks
like this: 200 + ((800 – 250) 1.25) = 640.

196- Choice: D

You first have to calculate EAC in order to calculate VAC. EAC for variances that
are atypical is ACC + BAC – EV. So our numbers are 275 + 500 – 250 = 525. VAC
is calculated this way: BAC – EAC. Therefore, 500 – 525 = –25. Our costs are not
doing as well as anticipated.

197- Choice: C

You must first calculate CPIC in order to calculate ETC. CPIC is EVC ACC.
We have 250 275 = .91. ETC with typical variances is (BAC – EVC) CPIC.
Our numbers are (500 – 250) .91 = 274.7.

198- Choice: B

Workarounds are unplanned responses. Workarounds deal with negative risk events
as they occur. As the name implies, workarounds were not previously known to the
project team. The risk event was unplanned, so no contingency plan existed to deal
with the risk event, and thus it required a workaround
199- Choice: A

Changes to product scope should be reflected in the project scope.

200- Choice: B

A project scope change affects the performance measurement baselines, which

might include schedule baselines and cost baselines