Free Practice Paper

1 Adda247 | No.
1 APP for Banking & SSC Preparation

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Directions (1-3): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered
I and II given below it. You have to decide whether, the data provided in the statements are
sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and Give answer-
Q1. In which month of the year did the construction of the building begin?
I. The construction engineer correctly remembers that the construction began before September but
after May and that particular month did not have 31 days.
II. The builder correctly remembers that the construction began after February but before October
and the fact that, that particular month did not have 31 days.
(a) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II
alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(b) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement I
(c) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(d) If the data in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
(e) If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
Q2. How many runs did Team X make?

I. The umpire of the match correctly mentions that the batsman from Team X scored two more runs;
the team would have won the match by 28 runs.
II. The coach correctly mentions that the batsman from Team X missed his century by two runs.
Q3. Who among P. Q, R and S is the shortest?

I. S is not as tall as R but is taller than Q.
II. R is not the tallest.
2 Adda247 | No. 1 APP for Banking & SSC Preparation

Directions (4-8): Study the information carefully and answer the question given below.
Eight P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting around a circular table and facing the centre but not in the
same order. They like different colours viz. Black, White, Green, Yellow, Blue, Pink, Grey and Red
but not necessary in the same order.
S sits third to the left of T who likes red colour. W is not the neighbor of S and immediate neighbor of
T does not like Green and Black. There are two persons sits between S and the one who like Yellow
colour. There is only one person sits between W and P who does not sit near to S and T. The person
who like Black colour and R sits opposite to each other and P doesn’t like Black colour. U likes grey
color and sits between the persons who like Pink and Green color. The person who like Green and
Blue sits adjacent to the person who sits second to the left of U. Q does not face the person who likes
green colour.
Q4. Who among the following person sits second to the left of the person who is immediate right
of U?
(a) P
(b) R
(c) S
(d) Q
(e) None of these
Q5. Who among the following person likes White color?

(a) Q
(b) V
(c) T
(d) P
(e) None of these
Q6. If all the persons made sit alphabetically in clock-wise starting from P, than how many person
remain unchanged excluding P?
(a) None
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) Three
(e) More than three
Q7. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based
from a group find the one which does not belong to that group?
(a) S-Grey
(b) U-Green
(c) R-Blue
(d) V-Black
(e) T-Red

Q8. Person sits in front of T likes which of the following color?
(a) Grey
(b) Green
(c) Blue
(d) White
(e) None of these
Directions (9-10): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given
below.
Following are the conditions for selecting Senior Manager Credit in a bank. The candidate must
I. be a graduate in any discipline with atleast 60% marks.
II. have post qualification work experience of atleast 10 yr in the Advances Section of a bank.
III. be atleast 30 yr and not more than 40 yr as on 1.4.2010.
IV. have secured atleast 40% marks in the group discussion.
V. have secured atleast 50% marks in interview.
In the case of a candidate who satisfies all the condition Except
(A) At (I) above but has secured atleast 50% marks in graduation and atleast 60% marks in post-
graduation in any discipline the case is to be referred to the General Manager Advances.
(B) At (II) above but has total post qualification work experience of atleast seven years out of which
atleast three years as Manager Credit in a bank, the case is to be referred to Executive Director.
In each question below details of one candidate is given. You have to take one of the following
courses of action based on the information provided and the conditions and sub-conditions given
above and mark the number of that course of action as your answer.
You are not to assume anything other than the information provided in each question. All these cases
are given to you as on 01.04.2010.
Q9. Aryan was born on 4th August, 1977. He has secured 65% marks in post graduation and 58%
marks in graduation. He has been working for the past ten years in the Advances Department of a
bank after completing his post graduation. He has secured 45% marks in the group discussion and
50% marks in the interview.
(a) If the case is to be referred to Executive Director
(b) If the case is to be referred to General Manager Advances
(c) If the data are inadequate to take a decision
(d) If the candidate is not to be selected
(e) If the candidate is to be selected

Q10. Rohit was born on 28th May, 1974. He has been in the Advances Department of a bank for the
past eleven years after completing his B.Sc. degree with 65% marks. He has secured 55% marks in
the group discussion and 50% marks in the interview.
(a) If the case is to be referred to Executive Director
(b) If the case is to be referred to General Manager Advances
(c) If the data are inadequate to take a decision
(d) If the candidate is not to be selected
(e) If the candidate is to be selected
Directions (11-15): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given
below:
Seven employees namely A, B, C, D, E, F and G from seven different edtech companies i.e. Adda,
Career power, CP, Bankersadda, Sscadda, Ctetadda and Currentadda, but not in necessarily same
order. Only one employee works on each day. All of them are working in different department i.e.
Quant, Reasoning, English, GA, IT, Blog and Support, but not necessarily in the same order. They are
working on Monday to Sunday of the same week, but not necessarily in same order. (Starting from
Monday).
A works in either Quant or Blog department and he is from Adda. The employee who works on the
seventh day of the week works in Currentadda and he belongs to Support department. C does not
work Blog department. B works on Wednesday and he does not work in GA and Quant department.
The employee who works in IT department work on Thursday and he is neither from Career power
nor Ctetadda. D works in English department and he is from Bankersadda and does not work on
Monday and Tuesday. Only two employee works after C. C is from CP and works on just before the
day on which D works. G does not work on Thursday. F is from Ctetadda and works on the second
day of the week. The employee who works on Friday does not work in GA, Blog and Quant
department.
Q11. Which of the following combination is true?

(a) Monday-Quant-Sscadda
(b) Wednesday-Blog-Career power
(c) Saturday-Reasoing-A
(d) C-English-bankersadda
(e) None of these.
Q12. How many employees work after E?

(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) More than three
(e) None

Q13. On which of the following days B works?
(a) Monday
(b) Wednesday
(c) Thursday
(d) Friday
(e) Saturday
Q14. Which of the following person works in IT department?

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
Q15. Which of the following combination does not lead to correct combination?
(a) Tuesday-F- IT- Sscadda
(b) Wednesday- B- Blog- Career power
(c) Thursday-E- IT- Sscadda
(d) Friday -C- Reasoning- CP
(e) Monday-A-Quant-Adda
Directions (16-18): In each question below are given three statements followed by four conclusions
numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be
at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the
given conclusions logically follows from the given statements, disregarding commonly known
facts.
Q16. Statements:
I. No booths are shops.
II. All shops are markets.
III. All markets are stalls.
Conclusions:
I. No booths are markets.
II. No booths are stalls.
III. Some markets are not shops.
IV. Some stalls are not shops.
(a) Only I follows
(b) Only III follows
(c) Only IV follows
(d) None follows
(e) None of these

Q17. Statements:
I. Some seats are berths.
II. Some berths are places.
III. Some places are chairs.
Conclusions:
I. No seats are chairs.
II. No places are seats.
III. Some berths are chairs.
IV. Some places are seats.
(a) None follows
(b) Only I and II follow
(c) Only II and III follow
(d) All follow
(e) None of these
Q18. Statements:
I. Some books are magazines.
II. All magazines are newspapers.
III. Some Newspapers are dictionaries.
Conclusions:
I. Some books are dictionaries.
II. Some magazines are dictionaries.
III. Some newspapers are not books.
IV. Some newspapers are not dictionaries.
(a) Only I follows
(b) Only II follows
(c) Only III follows
(d) None follows
(e) None of these
Directions (19-20): Study the information carefully and answer the questions given below.
Divyaraj start walking from point A after walking of 5m. he reach point B. From there he takes a left
turn and walk 3m. to reach point C from there take a clockwise turn 135° and move to reach point D.
from there move 3m. in the north direction than take a right turn and walk 5m. to reach point F. Point
E, D and A is in a straight line.
Q19. What is the shortest distance between D and F?

(a) 2√17
(b) √34
(c) 34
(d) √35
(e) None of these.

Q20. In which direction is point D with respect to point F?
(a) South-east
(b) North-east
(c) North-west
(d) South-west
(e) None of these.
Q21. A child can do 1/5 th of work in same time as his father can do the whole work and efficiency
of child’s mother is equal to half the sum of father and child efficiency. If they complete 70% of
work in 24 days, when they work alternatively, starting with father and child together on first day
followed by father and mother together on second day. Find in how many days mother can
complete 85% of work alone?
(a) 48 days
(b) 68 days
(c) 60 days
(d) 56 days
(e) 54 days
Q22. A, B and C entered into a partnership business, A invested Rs. x, B invested 25% more than A
and C invested 20% more than B for first 6 months. After that A left the business and B withdraw
𝟐
50% of his investment and C increased investment by 16𝟑% for next 3 and 6 months respectively. If
at the end of an year difference between profit share of C and (A + B) together is Rs. 12375, then
find profit share of C ?
(a) Rs. 56500
(b) Rs. 52500
(c) Rs. 48500
(d) Rs. 58500
(e) Rs. 60500
Q23. A shopkeeper marked up the price of a mobile phone by 60%. If he increase the discount
from 10% to 15%, the profit would decrease by 2200 Rs. Find how much profit shopkeeper would
earn if he gives a discount of 30% on the marked price ?
(a) 1800 Rs.
(b) 3200 Rs.
(c) 2800 Rs.
(d) 4400 Rs.
(e) 3300 Rs.

𝟔
Q24. Annual income of Arun is 6.24 lakh, he spend 38𝟏𝟑% of monthly income on Food and Rent,
𝟏 𝟐
12𝟐% of remaining on Gym, 14𝟕%of remaining on clothing and 75% of remaining is invested in
mutual fund. If he kept remaining amount after all expense as cash with him then find how much
cash Arun have after one year?
(a) 72000 Rs.
(b) 74000 Rs.
(c) 75000 Rs.
(d) 78000 Rs.
(e) 80000 Rs.
Directions (25-28): The table given below shows data of total number of tourists who bought ticket
of five different tourist places of india in seven different months of 2017, some data is missing.
Calculate according to the questions and give answer.
Q25. 20% of tourist who bought ticket in march for Red fort and Taj mahal did not visit if the price
of one gold class ticket is 15 Rs. and silver class is 12. Find the total amount collected from absent
tourists, if 3300 of them bought gold class tickets?
(a) 87500
(b) 97500
(c) 37500
(d) 88750
(e) 76500
Q26. If the average of all tickets sold in Jan is 15400, then all tickets sold in April is how much
percentage more or less than all tickets sold in Jan. If given tickets sold for Golden temple in April
𝟏
is 87 % of ticket sold for same tourist place in Feb ? (rounded off to two decimal places)
𝟐
(a) 11.9%
(b) 5.4%
(c) 8.63%
(d) 12%
(e) 14%

Q27. If ticket sold for Golden temple in july is 9500 more than ticket sold for same tourist place in
june. Then find the ratio of ticket sold for Red fort and Golden temple together in July to tickets
sold for same tourist places in may?
(a) 20:13
(b) 120:71
(c) 100:61
(d) 97:51
(e) 81:91
Q28. If ticket sold for Golden temple in April is 1750 less than ticket sold for Hawa mahal in
march then find the average of tickets sold for all tourist places in april and ticket sold for Taj
mahal, Red fort and Golden temple in feb?
(a) 15921.5
(b) 14952.5
(c) 14912.5
(d) 16282.5
(e) 15782.5
Directions (29-30): In the given questions, two quantities are given, one as Quantity I and another
as Quantity II. You have to determine relationship between two quantities and choose the
appropriate option.
Q29. Quantity I: A seller marked up price of a table 70% above and give two discount of 20% and
25% respectively on M.P. if seller make a profit of 75 Rs. Then find the CP of table?
Quantity II: Cost price of a table is 35% more than cost price of a chair, if shopkeeper sold chair at
1
25% profit and table at 333% of loss he gets the total loss of 1350 Rs. find the cost price of table?
(a) Quantity I > Quantity II
(b) Quantity I < Quantity II
(c) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
(d) Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
(e) Quantity I = Quantity II or No relation
Q30. Quantity I: Satish took education loan of 75000 Rs from SBI at the rate of 10% compound
annually, if after 2 year he paid an amount of 30750, then find how much more amount Satish have to
pay for completing his loan in next two years?
Quantity II: A and B started a business in partnership with the investment of Rs. 27000 and Rs. 36000
respectively, after 4 month A withdraw 5000 Rs. and B added 6000 Rs. more and C joined with 35000
Rs. if after one year they gets a total profit of Rs. 130500, then find the profit share of C ?
(a) Quantity I > Quantity II
(b) Quantity I < Quantity II
(c) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
(d) Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
(e) Quantity I = Quantity II or No relation

Q31. A man invested a sum of in scheme P on SI per annum at
the ratio of 10% for first year, 12% for second year and 14% for
third year and his wife invested 75% more sum than her
husband in scheme Q on C.I. per annum at the rate of 20% per
annum for two years. If wife got Rs. 4264 interest more than her
husband, then find sum invested by wife ?
(a) 17200Rs
(b) 18200 Rs
(c) 15200 Rs
(d) 16200 Rs
(e) 18200 Rs.
Q32. The perimeter of a square is equal to the perimeter of a rectangle, whose length is 24 cm and
𝟐
breath is 66𝟑% of its length. Find the circumference of a semicircle whose diameter is equal to the
side of square ?
(a) 360/7 cm
(b) 410/7 cm
(c) 470/7 cm
(d) 220/7 cm
(e) 440/7 cm
Directions (33-36): Study the following graph carefully and answer the question. The following
bar graph shows the investment of the three companies (in crore) in a time period of five year
2018-22.

Q33. What percent is the average investment of IBM from 2018 to 2022 that of average investment
of HCL through all the years? (approximately)
(a) 84%
(b) 88%
(c) 87%
(d) 90%
(e) 94%
Q34. In 2022 investment of IBM in rural and urban areas in the ratio of 3 : 2 and it proposed that
investment for rural areas to be increased by 25% in 2023 compare to 2022 Then find what
percentage increase in investment of IBM in 2023 if investment in urban areas remain unchanged
in 2023 ?
(a) 20%
(b) 18%
(c) 15%
(d) 12%
(e) 10%
Q35. Find the ratio between total investment of HCL in year 2018-2020 together to total investment
of TCS in year 2020-2022 together ?
(a) 17 : 29
(b) 18 : 29
(c) 21 : 29
(d) 27 : 29
(e) 17 : 27
Q36. If in 2019 IBM invested in only three cities A, B and C in the ratio of 5 : 4 : 4 respectively and
TCS invested in only two cities P and Q in 2022 in the ratio of 5 : 6 respectively. Then investment
of TCS in city Q in 2022 how much more investment of IBM in cities A and C together in 2019 ?
(a) 30 cr
(b) 35 cr
(c) 40 cr
(d) 45 cr
(e) 25 cr

Q37. Two gallon of a mixture of water and sprit contains 30% water. The above mixture is added to
3 gallon of another mixture of water and sprit which contain 16% water. If half gallon of water is
added to the whole mixture, then find the percentage of water in resulting mixture ?
10
(a) 1711%
8
(b) 2811%
10
(c) 1611%
10
(d) 1911%
10
(e) 2011%
Q38. A train can travel 150% faster than a car. Both start from point A at the same time and reach
point B 150 km away from A at the same time on the way however train lost about 45 minutes
while stopping at a station. Find the speed of train ?
(a) 615 km/hr
(b) 720 km/hr
(c) 625 km/hr
(d) 675 km/hrv
(e) 300 km/hr
Q39. A boat goes 15 km up stream in 5 hours. How long boat will take to cover the same distance
towards downstream, if the speed of current is one-fourth of the speed of boat in still water?
(a) 5 hrs
(b) 2.5 hrs
(c) 1.5 hrs
(d) 3 hrs
(e) 2 hrs
Q40. In a bucket there are different colored packets of black, blue and white colors. The
probability of selecting one black packet out of the total packet is 2/5 and the probability of
selecting one blue packet out of the total packet is 3/7. The number of white packet in the bag is
18. Find total number of packet in the bucket?
(a) 117
(b) 105
(c) 114
(d) 120
(e) 108

Directions (41-50): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.
Certain words are given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
The economic differences between rural and urban America highlight its racial, political and cultural
diversity. The things causing strife in America are really the same things causing strife in countries
all over the world. The ills of Urbanization. You feel it when you fly six hours from New York to San
Francisco, but it really hits home when you drive cross-country. The 11-hour, 900-km drive from New
Haven, Connecticut on the East Coast to Loudonville, Ohio, in the heart of the Mid-West was a
window into America’s vastness. My friends and I were accompanying a fellow university classmate
to her hometown to spend the weekend. Our average speed of 80kph is something most Indian
drivers can only dream of. By the 6th hour, it was pitch black and late at night and all I could think
was how much Americans love driving their cars. We woke up the next morning in Trump country
— though aside from the “Make America Great Again” signs on peoples’ front yards, you’d never
feel it.
Loudonville is a quaint one-horse town of 2,641 genuinely lovely people founded in 1814, 75% of
whose residents voted for Donald Trump in the 2016 election. And perhaps demographics explain
this: it is 97.8% White and has a median age of 43. The median annual household income of $42,500 is
lower than the national median, $49,445. An automotive component factory, which ran from 1913 till
1996, employed many local residents. It’s a rural, working-class, old White town: probably the poster
child for the Republican base. And we were welcomed with open arms. Aside from me — the only
Indian in a 50-mile radius — our group consisted of a Mexican, a Pole and most alien of all, a New
Yorker. People looked at us like we were from out of town but never with any malice. It made me
question the perceptions I had of rural, middle-America and the mostly Republican voters who lived
there, as potentially unfriendly towards foreigners — especially brown ones.
But I’d never been to a community like this: the local newspaper prints every single crime committed
in the village, including all parking tickets — much to the chagrin of errant teenage drivers.
Loudonville was folksy in the best possible way. We were visiting on the biggest day in
Loudonville’s year: the annual Street Fair. It was mid-October 2016, the sun was out and everyone
thought Hillary Clinton would win the election. Aside from the usual attractions at a fun-fair — food
stalls, carousels and so on — there were livestock shows and even a tractor-pull. The residents took
pride in showing off the size of their steers and their hogs and their kids. One of my graduate school
professors had told me that these state fairs served an important function in American history: it
allowed farmers from all over the country to meet and exchange seeds, farming techniques and ideas
about how to deal with pests and disease. I exchanged a dollar for a corndog and it was great.
We had a picnic lunch at my friend’s family farm, following a hike in the surrounding woods. As we
looked out across the sloping meadows that rolled away into the horizon, I felt far away from the
world. Forget India — even my university felt like some distant, unnecessarily noisy planet. We
passed some Amish folks riding in a horse-drawn carriage on the way to their farm. Time moves
more slowly in the countryside. Maybe that’s why you feel you’re back in the past. We spent the
afternoon on a porch I’ll never forget. It was a large wooden deck sprawling out above the grassy

knoll below, like the bridge of some long-since-grounded oil-tanker. On the way there, we bought
some beers at a drive-through liquor store (yes, you read that right). We were visiting my friend’s
high-school classmate and whiled away hours looking out at their acres of land as we played with
their three giant dogs and their new-born baby.
They were a military family, if I remember correctly, and the role of the military in American life
seems to hit home harder when you leave the city. You begin to understand that it gives so many
people a purpose and so many families, their livelihood. The rest of the world doesn’t understand
America’s exorbitant military spending because we see its devastating consequences abroad, not its
ubiquitous presence at home. I think every urban American child should do a “semester-abroad”
exchange programme with a rural American family during high-school and vice versa. There are
some very fine people on both sides.
Q41. What is causing dissension in America and how similar it is to other parts of the world?
(I) economic differences between rural and urban America
(II) the ills of urbanisation
(III) the racial, political and cultural diversity
(a) Only (I)
(b) Only (III)
(c) Both (I) and (II)
(d) Both (II) and (III)
(e) All of these
Q42. Which of the following statement(s) is/are NOT TRUE in the context of the passage?
(a) The economic differences between rural and urban America highlight its racial, political and
cultural diversity.
(b) The ills of urbanization are the causeof strife in America.
(c) Loudonville’slocal newspaper prints every single crime committed in the village, including all
parking tickets.
(d) Loudonville is a quaint one-horse town of 2,641 genuinely lovely people founded in 1824.
(e) All of these
Q43. What led to the change in perception of the author about

the rural America?
(a) their (Americans) unfriendly nature towards foreigners.
(b) the benevolent nature of the people in Loudonville which is
considered to be the hub of Trump supporters
(c) the low income of the countryside people as compared to the
national median
(d) majority of population of Loudonville constituting white ones.
(e) None of these

Q44. What was the major attraction about the annual Street Fair of Loudonville?
(a) the food stalls, carousels, etc
(b) the livestock shows where the farmers meet each other, exchange seeds and farming techniques
(c) the tractor pulled where the residents take pride in showing off their steers, hogs and kids
(d) both (B) and (C)
(e) All of these
Q45. How life in countryside different than the life in city?

(a) the life in countryside is slow as compared to the city
(b) people enjoy small things like riding in horse-drawn carriage
(c) there are acres of farm lands which will make you feel like you are back in the past
(d) people spend their leisure time sitting on a porch
(e) All of these
Q46. Give a suitable TITLE for the passage.

(a) Solving the autonomy puzzle
(b) Loudonville a quaint one-horse town
(c) The true divide in America. No, not Trump.
(d)Judicial safe zones
(e) None of these
Directions (47-48): Choose the word/group of words which is most SIMILAR in meaning to the
word/group of words printed in bold as used in passage.
Q47. strife
(a) truce
(b) discord
(c) harmony
(d)conformity
(e) victory
Q48. quaint
(a) ordinary
(b) grave
(c) whimsical
(d) conventional
(e) standard

Directions (49- 50): Choose the word/group of words which is most OPPOSITE in meaning to the
word/group of words printed in bold as used in passage.
Q49. sprawling
(a) extending
(b) slouching
(c) slumping
(d) compressing
(e) trailing
Q50. exorbitant
(a) steep
(b) high
(c) extreme
(d) extortionate
(e) moderate
Directions (51-55): Rearrange the following sentences to form a meaningful paragraph and then
answer the questions given below them.
(A) The initiation of the NPA resolution process has brought in a certain degree of rigour, but it still
lacks the credibility to be called a bold or successful initiative.
(B) The banks are taking the required actions to the extent of their respective abilities and governing
atmosphere.
(C) It should evaluate the bottlenecks within its domain and bring in the appropriate enablers to help
resolve the NPAs at the earliest.
(D) As they say, you can lead a horse to water, but cannot force it to drink.
(E) The RBI is doing its best, and even stepping into executive functions like scrutinizing NPA
accounts and issuing directives to banks.
(F) However, the government has not yet stepped up to the requirements.
Q51. Which of the following is the THIRD sentence of the paragraph so formed?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E

Q52. Which of the following is the FIRST sentence of the
paragraph so formed?
(a) D
(b) F
(c) E
(d) A
(e) B
Q53. Which of the following is the SIXTH (LAST) sentence of

the paragraph so formed?
(a) E
(b) C
(c) D
(d) F
(e) B
Q54. Which of the following is the SECOND sentence of the paragraph so formed?
(a) F
(b) D
(c) A
(d) B
(e) E
Q55. Which of the following is the FOURTH sentence of the paragraph so formed?
(a) B
(b) D
(c) F
(d) A
(e) C
Directions (56-60): There are four sentences given in each question. Find the sentence(s) which
is/are grammatically correct and mark your answer choosing the best possible alternative among
the five options given below each question. If all sentences are correct, choose (E) as your answer.
Q56. (I) With a little industry and perseverance wonders might be done in this country.
(II) Almost any job can be shaken off in time and with perseverance.
(III) Can we rely on the constancy and perseverance of the people?
(IV) A little did I know that he would create such a ruckus.
(a) Only (I) is correct
(b) Only (IV) is correct
(c) Both (I) and (II) are correct
(d) Only (I), (II) and (III) are correct
(e) All are correct

Q57. (I) The people who come from here will be something to deal with.
(II) A good deal of pens is not working.
(III) They have managed to seal a good deal.
(IV) It would cost a deal of hard labor, and Captain Fishley would be the only gainer.
(b) Only (II), (III) and (IV) are correct
(c) Only (I), (III) and (IV) are correct
(d) Both (II) and (III) are correct
(e) All are correct
Q58. (I) The Secretary and Treasurer were not present at today’s meeting.
(II) She beckoned to him, but he took no notice, not desiring to be disturbed at present.
(III) Ramu closely resembles to his father not only in physical features but also in habits.
(IV) Emotion passed over their features like ripples over a stream.
(a) Only (II) is correct
(b) Both (I) and (II) are correct
(c) Both (II) and (IV) are correct
(d) Both (I) and (III) are correct
(e) All are correct
Q59. (I) Being occupied with important matters, he had no leisure to see us.
(II) If it were possible to get near when one of the volcanic eruptions take place we should see a
grand sight.
(III) I am better acquainted with the country than you.
(IV) One must use his best efforts if one wishes to succeed.
(b) Only (III) is correct
(c) Both (I) and (IV) are correct
(d) Only (I), (II) and (III) are correct
(e) All are correct
Q60. (I) As a liberal, he had been interested in contemporary politics.

(II) Ample opportunity was given for explanation and apology for the insult.
(III) Though the body is bulky, it is yet light and easily sustained by the wings.
(IV) It is suggested that a ring road should be built to relieve the congestion.
(a) Only (II) is correct
(b) Both (I) and (II) are correct
(c) Both (II) and (IV) are correct
(d) Both (III) and (IV) are correct
(e) All are correct

Directions (61-65): There are two different sentences with a blank space in each question. Choose
the word from the given options which fits into both the blanks appropriately without altering
their meanings.
Q61. (1) The only difficulty in this ______________ is to secure debtors that will not die.
(2) She was in a state of rare contentment, an _____________ to the gaiety that was hers by nature.
(a) accretion
(b) increase
(c) enlargement
(d) accessory
(e) None of the above
Q62. (1) He issued what was in reality an _________________ proclamation, which President Lincoln
was compelled to modify.
(2) Friction increased between the races at the South after ___________________.
(a)abolition
(b)autarchy
(c)exemption
(d)immune
(e)emancipation
Q63. (1) It was feared that there could be a __________________ unsettling of established
governments and a new political order could come into being, oriented away from the traditional
leadership of the region.
(2) On the other hand, __________________ emigration was not sufficient to remove the evil.
(a) comprehensively
(b) wholesale
(c) voluminous
(d) extensive
(e) haphazard
Q64. (1) The French President Emmanuel Macron’s new centrist party is ______________ poised for a
landslide victory in the parliamentary elections.
(2) The opinion of parliament on two other questions during the session was, ___________, influenced
by events in France.
(a) evidently
(b) seemingly
(c) ostensibly
(d) apparently
(e) All of the above

Q65. (1) Parliament takes pride in asserting the supremacy of the institution, at times even ignoring
what it perceives as judicial _______________ in its functioning.
(2) It would have been enough to have cured the whole Roxburghe Club from _______________ with
libraries and books forever and ever.
(a) concern
(b) examining
(c) tracing
(d) meddling
(e) quest
Directions (66-70): Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below each sentence should
replace the phrase printed in bold letters to make the sentence grammatically correct? If the
sentence is correct as it is, mark (E) i.e., "No correction required" as the answer.
Q66. Gandhi’s non-violent methods envisage that nature ought to be handled in a mild manner,
much against modern technology’s onslaught on nature to help technology achieve its goal.
(a) envisaged how nature should be handled
(b) have envisaged the handling of the nature
(c) did envisage the nature’s handling
(d) envisage that nature can be handled
(e) No correction required
Q67. Various forms of traditional wisdom about practical solutions of different problems are
considered by environmentalists as more prudent than offered in modern technology.
(a) to be more prudent than the ones offered by
(b) more prudent than those offered by
(c) to be prudential as compared to
(d) that it is more prudent than what offered in
Q68. Indian agriculture comes over a long way since

Independence, with chronic food scarcity giving way to self-
sufficiency in grain despite a two-and-a-half fold increase in
population.
(a) has been coming a long way after Independence
(b) have grown a long way after Independence
(c) had gone a longer way after Independence
(d) has come a long way since Independence

Q69. North Korea is believed to be developing an intercontinental ballistic missile (ICBM) capable of
carrying a nuclear warhead and reaching mainland United States.
(a) which is capable of carrying a nuclear war
(b) which can carry a nuclear warhead
(c) that is capable of carrying out a nuclear war
(d) capable of carrying out a nuclear war
Q70. The dramatic decision by Saudi Arabia, the United Arab Emirates, Bahrain, Egypt and Yemen of
suspending diplomatic ties to Qatar could have far-reaching economic and geopolitical
consequences.
(a) suspending the ties of diplomacy with
(b) by suspending diplomatic ties of
(c) to suspend diplomatic ties with
(d) with the suspension of diplomatic ties in
Directions (71-80): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered
and one word has been suggested alongside the blank. These numbers are printed below the
passage and against each, five options are given. In four options, one word is suggested in each
option. Find out the appropriate word which fits the blank appropriately. If the word written
alongside the blank fits the passage, choose option ‘e’ (No correction required) as the correct
choice.
Q71. News reports over the last few weeks argued (71) that the Central government may finally be
starting to think desperately (72) about jobs. Chief Economic Adviser Arvind Subramaniam recently
pointed to the need to achieve higher economic growth, in the range of 8% to 10%, to solve the
problem of idle (73) growth. In particular, he alarmed (74) the underperformance of the information
technology, construction and agricultural sectors, which earlier served as huge job-creators for the
economy. It is worth noting (75) that India added just 1.35 lakh jobs in eight labour-intensive sectors
in 2015, compared to the 9.3 lakh jobs that were created in 2011, according to Labour Bureau figures.
The rate of unemployment grew thoroughly (76) from 3.8% in 2011-12 to 5% in 2015-16. Union
Labour and Employment Minister Bandaru Dattatreya has embarrassed (77) the gloomy job situation
as being a temporary one. His focus instead is on the new National Employment Policy which, he
says, would be released later this year and fix (78) on shifting jobs from the informal to the formal
sector. NITI Aayog too has dismissed (79) concerns over jobless growth, saying the real problem is
enlistment (80) rather than unemployment.
(a) demand
(b) suggest
(c) urged
(d) opine
(e) No improvement required

(a) lightly
(b) critically
(c) movingly
(d) seriously
says, would be released later this year and fix (78) on shifting jobs
from the informal to the formal sector. NITI Aayog too has
dismissed (79) concerns over jobless growth, saying the real
problem is enlistment (80) rather than unemployment.
(a) passive
(b) static
(c) dull
(d) jobless

(a) strengthened
(b) enhanced
(c) flagged
(d) hailed
(a) sensible
(b) certain
(c) responsive
(d) watching

(a) steadily
(b) regularly
(c) fixedly
(d) strongly
(a) squashed
(b) abashed
(c) downplayed
(d) broken

(a) readjust
(b) focus
(c) sight
(d) plan
(a) restored
(b) evaded
(c) postponed
(d) forgotten

(a) underemployment
(b) occupation
(c) assignment
(d) avocation
Q81. Which among the following key combination can be used to search in Windows Explorer?
(a) Ctrl+F
(b) Ctrl+S
(c) Ctrl+G
(d) Alt+S
(e) Alt+F
Q82. Which of the following features is used to count the number of pages, words, characters,
paragraphs and lines in a Word document?
(a) Orientation
(b) Page Count
(c) Word Count
(d) Margin
(e) None of these
Q83. Which protocol is used to sending mail?

(a) HTTP
(b) IMAP
(c) SMTP
(d) IP
(e) ICMP

Q84. When a real-time telephone call between people is made over the Internet using computers, it
is called ___________.
(a) a chat session
(b) an E-mail
(c) an instant message
(d) Internet telephony
(e) None of these
Q85. Web pages are created by using which among the following?
(a) SMTP
(b) HTTP
(c) Usenet
(d) Internet
(e) HTML
Q86. Which of the following is used to defines a hyperlink in HTML?

(a) <a>
(b) <br>
(c) <h1>
(d) <b>
(e) <f>
Q87. IP Address 168.2.7.6 belong to:

(a) Class A
(b) Class B
(c) Class C
(d) Class D
(e) Class E
Q88. Which of the following is the type of software that has self-replicating software that causes
damage to files and system?
(a) Viruses
(b) Trojan horses
(c) Bots
(d) Worms
(e) Backdoors
Q89. Which of the following is not a domain suffix?

(a) .edu
(b) .org
(c) .com
(d) .int
(e) .net

Q90. Which of the following term is similar to phishing, but refers to fraudulent messages sent
over SMS rather than email?
(a) Flaming
(b) Pharming
(c) Mashup
(d) Smishing
(e) Spooling
Q91. WAV, WMA and AIFF are examples of:

(a) Encoder programs
(b) Audio file formats
(c) Text file formats
(d) Audio editing software
(e) Image editing software
Q92. A __________ is an electronic device that process data, converting it into information.
(a) processor
(b) computer
(c) case
(d) stylus
(e) None of these
Q93. __________ computers represent data as variable points along a continuous spectrum of
values.
(a) Analog
(b) Digital
(c) Precise
(d) Mainframe
(e) None of these
Q94. Which of the following is used by the tablet PC to write on the screen.
(a) finger
(b) mouse
(c) digitalizer
(d) stylus
(e) None of these
Q95. Which of the following software posts unwanted advertisements on client’s computer?
(a) Virus
(b) Malware
(c) Worm
(d) Adware
(e) Logic bombs

Q96. In which group can you find or replace text and select text or objects in a document?
(a) Proofing
(b) Paragraph
(c) Editing
(d) Font
(e) None of these
Q97. Walkie-talkie is an example of which of the following?

(a) simplex communication
(b) half-duplex communication
(c) full-duplex communication
(d) semi-duplex communication
(e) None of these
Q98. What happens when you boot up a PC?

(a) Portions of the operating system are copied from disk into memory
(b) Portions of the operating system are copied from memory onto disk
(c) Portions of the Operating system are complied
(d) Portions of the operating system are emulated
(e) The PC gets switched off
Q99. Which of the following is used to enter the current time in ms-excel?
(a) Ctrl+Shift+;
(b) Ctrl+;
(c) Shift+;
(d) Alt+Shift
(e) Alt+Enter
Q100. Multi-user systems provide cost savings for small business as they use a single processing
unit to link several ______.
(a) Personal computers
(b) Workstations
(c) Dumb terminals
(d) Mainframe
(e) Laptop
Q101. Who was sworn-in as the tenth Chief Minister of Tripura?

(a) Jishnu Deb Burman
(b) Tathagata Roy
(c) Biplab Kumar Deb
(d) Manik Sarkar
(e) None of these

Q102. Retirement fund body Employees Provident Fund Organization (EPFO) has made it
mandatory to file online claims for provident fund withdrawals above _____________.
(a) Rs 4 lakh
(b) Rs 5 lakh
(c) Rs 6 lakh
(d) Rs 8 lakh
(e) Rs 10 lakh
Q103. Name the country, which has for the first-time opened applications for women to join its
military?
(a) Saudi Arabia
(b) Pakistan
(c) Iraq
(d) Qatar
(e) None of these
Q104. What is the current Policy Repo Rate under the liquidity adjustment facility (LAF)?
(a) 6.25 percent
(b) 6.50 percent
(c) 6.00 percent
(d) 6.75 percent
(e) 6.15 percent
Q105. ___________ is the economic device whereby the individual or business pays a cost
(premium) in exchange for protection against financial loss.
(a) Coverage
(b) Insured
(c) Endorsement
(d) Exclusion
(e) Insurance
Q106. OBOPAY has recently secured PPI license from the

Reserve Bank of India (RBI). What does “PPI” stands for?
(a) Postpaid Payment Instrument
(b) Prepaid Payment Instruction
(c) Postpaid Payment Instruction
(d) Prepaid Payment Instrument
(e) None of these

Q107. Name the city which is the world's most visited city by international travellers according to
the market research firm Euromonitor International.
(a) Singapore
(b) Beijing
(c) Hong Kong
(d) Tokyo
(e) New Delhi
Q108. Project Mausam is the initiative of which union ministry?

(a) Ministry of Home Affairs
(b) Ministry of Culture
(c) Ministry of Human Resource Development
(d) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
(e) None of these
Q109. Which state has become the India’s first state to offer free e-mail address in Hindi to its
residents?
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Gujarat
(d) Andhra Pradesh
(e) None of these
Q110. Name the person who has been nominated as the next U.S ambassador to India.
(a) David C. Mulford
(b) Kenneth I. Juster
(c) Timothy J. Roemer
(d) Nancy J. Powell
(e) Richard R. Verma
Q111. The Birbal Sahni Institute of Palaeobotany (BSIP) is located in which state?
(a) Madhya Pradesh
(b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Bihar
(d) Karnataka
(e) Kerala
Q112. Rajneesh Gurbani is associated with which sports?

(a) Cricket
(b) Boxing
(c) Chess
(d) Wrestling
(e) Golf

Q113. Eazy pay app launched by which bank?
(a) YES Bank
(b) SBI
(c) HDFC Bank
(d) Federal Bank
(e) ICICI Bank
Q114. What is the capital of Tennessee?

(a) Baku
(b) Dodoma
(c) Belmopan
(d) Abuja
(e) Nashville
Q115. The Kandaleru Dam is located in which state?

(a) Kerala
(b) Punjab
(c) Karnataka
(d) Odisha
(e) Andhra Pradesh
Q116. Mo Farah has won the 2017 BBC Sports Personality of the Year Award. He hails from which
country?
(a) Britain
(b) South Africa
(c) Pakistan
(d) Somalia
(e) Kenya
Q117. Who is the author of book “Mrs Funnybones”?

(a) Uday Prakash
(b) Twinkle Khanna
(c) Chetan Bhagat
(d) Akash Dixit
(e) None of these
Q118. Name the state government that has launched a unified app for all government services at
#FUTURE 2018, first-ever Global Digital Summit of the state.
(a) Assam
(b) Punjab
(c) Kerala
(d) Maharashtra
(e) Tamil Nadu

Q119. Which start-up was recognized as the Startup of the Year 2017 at the 7th Small Business
Awards?
(a) Milkbasket
(b) Rubeca
(c) Faasos
(d) Innerchef
(e) None of these
Q120. As per the recent notification of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), lenders shall identify
incipient stress in loan accounts, immediately on default, by classifying stressed assets as SMA.
SMA stands for _____________________.
(a) Simple Making Accounts
(b) Special Motion Accounts
(c) Specially Made Accounts
(d) Special Mention Accounts
(e) None of the given options is true
Q121. Union Rural Development Ministry sanctioned more than Rs. 700 crore for 43 roads and 15
bridges under Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY) for which state?
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Jammu and Kashmir
(c) Himachal Pradesh
(d) Arunachal Pradesh
(e) None of these
Q122. The Union Cabinet has approved the regularization and extension of Govt. Guarantee
provided to lender Bank for providing credit limit to NAFED Rs. 19,000 crore from earlier Rs. 9,500
crore for undertaking procurement operation of pulses and oilseeds under PSS. PSS stands for-
(a) Price Service Scheme
(b) Price Support System
(c) Product Support Scheme
(d) Price Support Scheme
(e) Price Solutions Scheme
Q123. Which state government has launched a programme Ama

Gaon, Ama Vikas (Our Village, our development) to reach out to
the people in rural areas and involve themselves in the
developmental activities.
(a) Karnataka
(b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Odisha
(e) Kerala

Q124. Name the state government that has launched KHUSHI scheme to provide free sanitary
napkins to school girls across the state.
(a) Odisha
(b) Karnataka
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Kerala
(e) Haryana
Q125. According to the Reserve Bank of India it will conduct additional variable rate repo
operations for longer tenors up to 31 days every Tuesday in the month of March 2018 for the
amount of _____________ each to provide additional liquidity support to banks.
(a) Rs 10,000 crore
(b) Rs 15,000 crore
(c) Rs 20,000 crore
(d) Rs 25,000 crore
(e) Rs 30,000 crore
Q126. Prime Minister Narendra Modi announced to provide USD ________ billion line of credit to
support 27 solar power projects in 15 countries at the Founding Conference of the International
Solar Alliance (ISA-2018).
(a) USD 1.1 billion
(b) USD 1.2 billion
(c) USD 1.3 billion
(d) USD 1.4 billion
(e) USD 1.5 billion
Q127. India signed how much amount of loan agreement with ADB for construction of over 6200
kilometre rural roads in five states?
(a) USD 100 million
(b) USD 250 million
(c) USD 500 million
(d) USD 750 million
(e) None of these
Q128. How much fund has the Union Government allocated for its new ‘Operation Green’
mission?
(a) 100 cr
(b) 200 cr
(c) 300 cr
(d) 400 cr
(e) 500 cr

Q129. The Union government has proposed to extend the reach of Ujjwala Yojana to how many
poor women in 2018-19?
(a) 2 crore
(b) 4 crore
(c) 6 crore
(d) 8 crore
(e) 10 crore
Q130. What is the salary of Governors as per Union Budget 2018?

(a) 2 Lakh
(b) 2.5 Lakh
(c) 3 Lakh
(d) 3.5 Lakh
(e) 4 Lakh
Q131. India has pledged an additional USD _____ million towards the UN partnership fund,
significantly scaling up it support to sustainable development projects across the developing
world.
(a) USD 100 million
(b) USD 200 million
(c) USD 300 million
(d) USD 400 million
(e) USD 500 million
Q132. India has signed a loan agreement for $100 million with the which bank for efficient use of
water in desert areas of Rajasthan?
(a) ADB
(b) NDB
(c) RBI
(d) World Bank
(e) SBI
Q133. Yogi Adityanath government in Uttar Pradesh presented its second budget. The Total
budgetary allocation is of _____________.
(a) Rs 5.45 lakh crore
(b) Rs 4.28 lakh crore
(c) Rs 6.32 lakh crore
(d) Rs 5.42 lakh crore
(e) Rs 6.48 lakh crore

Q134. Name the housing company that has tied up with International Finance Corporation (IFC),
part of the World Bank Group, to raise $800 million for green and affordable housing in India.
(a) HDFC Housing
(b) Can Fin Homes
(c) PNB Housing Finance Ltd
(d) LIC Housing Finance
(e) GRUH Finance
Q135. The Government of India (GoI) has contributed _______ million aid for the rehabilitation
efforts in kingdom of Tonga after the Tropical Cyclone Gita caused massive destruction in the
Pacific island nation.
(a) $1 million
(b) $2 million
(c) $3 million
(d) $4 million
(e) $5 million
Q136. The state-owned NTPC has signed a term loan agreement for Rs. ______ crore with ICICI
Bank for partially funding its capital expenditure.
(a) Rs. 1,000 crore
(b) Rs. 2,000 crore
(c) Rs. 3,000 crore
(d) Rs. 4,000 crore
(e) Rs. 5,000 crore
Q137. Nepal has signed a ________ million United Nations (UN) assistance package for 2018-2022
to lay out the country’s development strategy for the next five years.
(a) $715 million
(b) $685 million
(c) $700million
(d) $635 million
(e) None of these
Q138. According to the credit rating agency's latest estimates,

Indian banks are likely to require around _________ billion of
additional capital to meet new Basel III capital standards that
will be fully implemented by the financial year ending March
2019.
(a) $52 billion
(b) $76 billion
(c) $83 billion
(d) $65 billion
(e) $95 billion

Q139. The World Health Organization (WHO) has released its first tranche of emergency funding
of ____________ to provide life-saving healthcare to the "vulnerable population" in Bangladesh's
Cox's Bazar.
(a) $225,000
(b) $220,000
(c) $345,000
(d) $175,000
(e) $124,000
Q140. State Bank of India lowered the Minimum Average Monthly Balance (MAB) requirement in
a savings account to ____________ from Rs 5,000.
(a) Rs 3,500
(b) Rs 3,000
(c) Rs 4,000
(d) Rs 2,700
(e) Rs 3,300
Q141. World Bank Group member IFC has invested __________ million in 5-year unrated masala
bond issuances of Fullerton India Credit Company.
(a) USD 45 million
(b) USD 62 million
(c) USD 72 million
(d) USD 76 million
(e) USD 85 million
Q142. The National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG) has sanctioned Rs._________ crore for eight
projects in the Namami Gange programme.
(a) Rs.300 crore
(b) Rs.500 crore
(c) Rs.700 crore
(d) Rs.900 crore
(e) Rs.1000 crore
Q143. Prime Minister Narendra Modi has recently approved ____________ specifically for setting
up Aadhaar centres in post offices.
(a) Rs 2,000 crore
(b) Rs 2,500 crore
(c) Rs 2,200 crore
(d) Rs 3,000 crore
(e) Rs 2,800 crore

Q144. Name the Bank that has bought an additional 7% stake in Small Industries Development
Bank of India (SIDBI) for Rs. 900 crore from public sector lender IDBI Bank Ltd.
(a) NABARD
(b) SBI
(c) RBI
(d) BOB
(e) Syndicate Bank
Q145. Name the mobile health App the Indian Air Force (IAF) launched on the occasion of its 85th
anniversary.
(a) ’Med Assistant’
(b) ’Med Cure’
(c) ‘Med IAF’
(d) ’Med Watch’
(e) ’Med Air’
Q146. Which company has received the Information Memorandum from the Department of
Investment and Public Asset Management for acquisition of 51.11 percent stake in HPCL?
(a) ONGC
(b) IOCL
(c) HAL
(d) GAIL
(e) None of these
Q147. By what percent, country's largest lender State Bank of India (SBI) slashed benchmark
lending rate across maturities?
(a) 0.10%
(b) 0.04%
(c) 0.05%
(d) 0.07%
(e) 0.09%
Q148. Name the state government that has signed initial pacts
worth Rs. 2,069 crore with 44 agro-based and food processing
enterprises at World Food India 2017.
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Haryana
(c) Himachal Pradesh
(d) Kerala
(e) Assam

Q149. The Income Tax Department has recently clarified that the cash sales of agricultural produce
by a cultivator to a trader for less than ____________ will not attract tax under the Income Tax Act.
(a) 1 lakh rupees
(b) 1.5 lakh rupees
(c) 2 lakh rupees
(d) 2.5 lakh rupees
(e) 3 lakh rupees
Q150. Inflation based on the Wholesale Price Index (WPI) accelerated to an eight-month high of
_____________ in November, from 3.59% in October.
(a) 3.23%
(b) 3.93%
(c) 3.34%
(d) 3.56%
(e) 3.76%
Q151. The GST Council has decided to implement a new bill mechanism throughout the country
after reviewing the readiness of the IT network. Under the Goods and Services Tax (GST) regime,
the waybill is replaced by a/an ______________.
(a) e-pay bill
(b) m-pay bill
(c) m-way bill
(d) e-way bill
(e) None of the given option is true
Q152. India has signed a financing agreement of $______ million with the World Bank (WB) in
New Delhi for the Skills Strengthening for Industrial Value Enhancement Operation (STRIVE)
Project.
(a) $100 million
(b) $125 million
(c) $150 million
(d) $175 million
(e) $200 million
Q153. The Union Cabinet chaired by Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi has approved setting up
of National Nutrition Mission (NNM) with a three-year budget of ______________ commencing
from 2017-18.
(a) Rs.10018 crore
(b) Rs.8081 crore
(c) Rs.8840 crore
(d) Rs.10118 crore
(e) Rs.9046 crore

Q154. The West Bengal government has negotiated with the World Bank to avail subsidy to buy
130 electric buses for state. The World Bank has agreed to provide how much subsidy per bus?
(a) Rs five lakh
(b) Rs six lakh
(c) Rs seven lakh
(d) Rs eight lakh
(e) Rs ten lakh
Q155. The Umbrella Agreement between India and Germany concerning Financial Cooperation in
2016 (II) under the Indo-German Development Cooperation was signed to formalize Financial
Cooperation in form of loan for which project?
(a) Digital Customs: Progressive Engagement
(b) Wetlands for disaster risk reduction
(c) Towards Autonomy and Self Determination
(d) Transformation towards sustainable and resilient society for all
(e) Climate Friendly Urban Mobility III
Q156. The mine workers who face an increased risk of tuberculosis will be part of awareness
programmes on the illness, as part of a partnership that the __________ Government recently
formalized with Johnson & Johnson.
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Rajasthan
(c) West Bengal
(d) Gujarat
(e) Maharashtra
Q157. Retail inflation crossed the RBI’s comfort level and rose to ________ in December 2017 on
rise in prices of food items, egg and vegetables, dashing hopes of interest rate cut in the near
future.
(a) 5.21 percent
(b) 5.25 percent
(c) 4.37 percent
(d) 6.28 percent
(e) 4.47 percent
Q158. The State Bank of India has recently reduced the base rate by ____________, which will
benefit customers on the old pricing regime.
(a) 10 basis points
(b) 15 basis points
(c) 20 basis points
(d) 30 basis points
(e) 25 basis points

Q159. Prime Minister’s official website – www.pmindia.gov.in – is available in how many
languages?
(a) 10
(b) 11
(c) 12
(d) 13
(e) 15
Q160. Customers will not have to pay any transaction charges for payments through debit card,
BHIM app and other payment made for up to ______________.
(a) Rs 2,000
(b) Rs 2,500
(c) Rs 1,500
(d) Rs 1,000
(e) None of the given options is true
Q161. According to 2011 census, approximately how much Indian Population is below the age of
20 years?
(a) 31%
(b) 37 %
(c) 41%
(d) 46%
(e) none of these
Q162. Bharatnet project is related to?

(a) Free wifi to students in rural area
(b) High speed internet to farmers
(c) Broadband connectivity to gram panchayats
(d) A project connecting rural area with Urban areas
(e) None of these
Q163. What would be the New Price Index that would measure
inflation?
(a) PPI (2011)
(b) CPI (2012)
(c) WPI (2004-2005)
(d) RTI

Q164. What is the ranking of India in Global competitiveness Index in 2017-18?
(a) 55
(b) 39
(c) 40
(d) 45
(e) none of these
Q165. What amount has been allocated for MGNREGA in budget 2018-19?
(a) 55,000 crores
(b) 50,000 crores
(c) 70,000 crores
(d) 48,000 crores
(e) 58,000 crores
Q166. Which agency administrated the PradhanMantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY) ?
(a) Rural Infrastructure Board
(b) Rural Infrastructure Fund
(c) National Rural Roads Development Agency
(d) National Rural Roads Development Action
(e) National Rural Infrastructure Development Agency
Q167. For Pradhan Mantri Gramin Awaas Yojana, what percentage of share come from central
government ?
(a) 20%
(b) 40%
(c) 60%
(d) 80%
(e) 100%
Q168. Which web-portal has been developed to monitor the implementation of Pradhan Mantri
Gramin Awaas Yojana ?
(a) TechHouse
(b) HomeSoft
(c) TechGhar
(d) TechoAwaas
(e) AwaasSoft
Q169. Which of the following are skill development schemes ?

(a) Nai Manzil
(b) Seekho aur Kamao
(c) Nai Roshni
(d) All of the above
(e) none of these

Q170. By when, Government of India is planning to achieve 100% village electrification ?
(a) May 2018
(b) Sep 2018
(c) Dec 2018
(d) Jan 2019
(e) none of these
Q171. Who is the brand ambassador of Beti Bachao Beti Padhao campaign for the state of
Haryana?
(a) Madhuri Dixit
(b) Sakshi Malik
(c) Deepa Karmakar
(d) Deepa Malik
(e) none of these
Q172. The concept of survival of the fittest” was first advocated by

(a) Oparin
(b) Darwin
(c) Spencer
(d) Haeckel
(e) None of these
Q173. During photosynthesis green plants absorb

(a) Nitrogen
(b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Carbon monoxide
(d) Oxygen
(e) None of these
Q174. Which of the following is true regarding plants cells and animal cells?
(a) Plant cells contain chloroplast while animal cells do not
(b) Plant cells are small while animal cells are large in size
(c) Plant cells contain nucleus while animal cells do not
(d) Plant cells and animal cells are similar in all respects
(e) None of these
Q175. Silk is obtained from....

(a) Mulberry tree
(b) Saliva of the silk worm
(c) Larvae of silk worm
(d) Cocoon of silk worm
(e) None of these

Q176. When was Agricultural Census conducted last time in India?
(a) 2005-06
(b) 2010-11
(c) 2015-16
(d) 2012-13
(e) none of these
Q177. The nomenclature of the Act from NREGA to MGNREGA was changed in which year ?
(a) 2007
(b) 2009
(c) 2011
(d) 2013
Q178. Indira Awaas Yojana (IAY) was launched in which year ?

(a) 1980
(b) 1985
(c) 1990
(d) 1991
(e) 2004
Q179. “Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana” has been launched for

(a) providing Free LPG connections to Women from BPL Households across country
(b) providing integrated support and assistance to women affected by violence
(c) provide piped cooking (PNG) gas to residents to the eastern region of the country
(d) providing public assistance to its citizens in case of unemployment
Q180. A revolving fund of _________ is provided to SHGs under DAY-NRLM.

(a) Rs. 5000
(b) Rs. 15000
(c) Rs. 20000
(d) Rs. 25000
(e) Rs. 30000
Q181. Himayat was launched in which state for giving training and placement to one lakh youth
over a period of 5 years ?
(a) Gujarat
(b) Punjab
(c) Jammu & Kashmir
(d) Jharkhand
(e) Madhya Pradesh

Q182. How many days of additional employment has been provided over and above 100 days per
households in notified drought affected areas ?
(a) 25
(b) 50
(c) 100
(d) 75
(e) 150
Q183. The first forest survey of India was conducted in which year?
(a) 1983
(b) 1986
(c) 1988
(d) 1987
(e) 1985
Q184. Which of the following state has launched Kudumbashree Mission ?

(a) Tamilnadu
(b) Karnataka
(c) Telangana
(d) Kerala
(e) None of these
Q185. What is the sequence of water erosion?

(a) Splash, sheet, rill, gully
(b) Sheet, gully, rill
(c) Rill, Splash, sheet
(d) Gully erosion, splash, sheet, rill
(e) Splash, Gully erosion, rill
Q186. Rural Infrastructure Development Fund (RIDF) was instituted by which of the following?
(a) NABARD
(b) RBI
(c) Finance Ministry
(d) Ministry of Home Affairs
(e) None of these
Q187. World Fisheries Day is celebrated on which of the

following days ?
(a) 21st November
(b) 24th November
(c) 1st December
(d) 10th December

Q188. Which of the following is related to Blue revolution in India ?
(a) Petroleum
(b) Fish
(c) Rice
(d) Dolphin
Q189. Where is Indian Agricultural Statistics Research Institute Located ?

(a) Punjab
(b) New Delhi
(c) Haryana
(d) Madhya Pradesh
(e) None of these
Q190. India is the ___________ largest producer of fruits in the world.

(a) 2nd
(b) 3rd
(c) 4th
(d) 5th
(e) None of these
Q191. Soil Health Card Scheme is a flagship programme of Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers
welfare. Which information will not be on Soil Health Card ?
(a) Macro and Micro nutrients present in the soil.
(b) Fertilizer type to be used
(c) Price of the crops
(d) Crop suitability for the type of soil and climate
(e) Dosage of fertilizer application in crops
Q192. Pashudhan Sanjivani scheme is related to which of the following ?

1. Animal Wellness
2. Animal Health Cards
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) both 1 & 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q193. Central Institute for Horticulture is a part of Integrated Development of Horticulture
(MIDH). Where is it situated ?
(a) Kohima
(b) Longleng
(c) Kiphire
(d) Mokokchung
(e) Medziphema
Q194. What is the full form of MGNREGA?

(a) Maharashtra Government National Rural Employment Guarantee Act
(b) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act
(c) Meghalaya Government National Rural Guarantee Act
(d) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Empowerment Act
(e) None of these
Q195. Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana is replacing which of the following scheme/schemes?
1. National Agricultural Insurance Scheme (NAIS)
2. Modified NAIS
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q196. Which Indian insurance company is the re-insurer in crop insurance scheme Pradhan Mantri
Fasal Bima Yojana ?
(a) Life Insurance Corporation (LIC)
(b) United India Insurance Company
(c) The Oriental Insurance Company
(d) General Insurance Corporation of India (GIC)
Q197. Which is also known as golden fiber?

(a) Cotton
(b) Wheat
(c) Silk
(d) Oats
(e) Jute

Q198. The International Day of the Girl Child is observed on
which of the following days?
(a) 6 October
(b) 8 October
(c) 11 October
(d) 12 October
(e) None of these
Q199. Which one of the following is not a mandate crop of The

International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid
Tropics (ICRISAT)?
(a) Sorghum
(b) Pigeon Pea
(c) Finger Millet
(d) Green Gram
(e) None of these
Q200. Which one of the following birds is often regarded as the “Farmers of the Forest”?
(a) Great Indian Bustard
(b) Hornbills
(c) Myna
(d) Toucans
(e) None of these


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1 APP for Banking & SSC Preparation

Q2. How many runs did Team X make?

Q3. Who among P. Q, R and S is the shortest?

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Q5. Who among the following person likes White color?

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Q11. Which of the following combination is true?

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Q43. What led to the change in perception of the author about

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Q53. Which of the following is the SIXTH (LAST) sentence of

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Q60. (I) As a liberal, he had been interested in contemporary politics.

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Q83. Which protocol is used to sending mail?

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Q86. Which of the following is used to defines a hyperlink in HTML?

Q87. IP Address 168.2.7.6 belong to:

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Q101. Who was sworn-in as the tenth Chief Minister of Tripura?

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