Morphopathology - CM

Bessisy Tamir 1346

1. With respect to the lumen of the hollow organ may be the tumor growth:
a. [ ] Expansive
b. [X] Exophytic
c. [X] Endophitic
d. [ ] Infiltrative
e. [ ] Multicentric
2. Which of the following neoplasms are undifferentiated?
a. [ ] Glandular
b. [X] Mucinous
c. [X] Medular
d. [ ] Nephrocelular
e. [X] Colloidal
3. Highlight some characteristics of fibrotic cancer:
a. [ ] Expansive growth manly
b. [ ] Has only tissue atypia
c. [X] Early metastasizes
d. [X] It is undifferentiated cancer
e. [ ] It develops from connective tissue
4. Which are the malignant tumor peculiarities?
a. [X] Invasive growth
b. [X] Cellular atypia
c. [ ] No metastasis
d. [ ] Grow slowly
e. [X] Recurrence
5. Which are types of adenomas?
a. [X] Cystadenoma
b. [ ] Glandular adenoma
c. [X] Acinar adenoma
d. [ ] Non keratinized
e. [X] Tubular
6. Determine the solid cancer features:
a. [ ] Late metastasis
b. [ ] Expansive grow
c. [X] It is undifferentiated neoplasm
d. [X] Tissue atypia
e. [X] Cellular atypia
7. The following changes are often identified due to the general influence of malignant tumor on the body:
a. [X] Change in blood enzyme activity
b. [ ] Reduced RBC sedimentation
c. [X] Anemia
d. [ ] Hyperproteinemia
e. [X] Hypolipidemia
8. Which of the following are the ways of malignant tumors metastasis?
a. [ ] Relapsing
b. [X] Hematogenous
c. [ ] Localized and generalized
d. [X] Lymphogenous
e. [ ] All of the above
9. Which of the following tumors are differentiated?
a. [X] Scirrhoma
b. [X] Adenocarcinoma
c. [X] Squamous cell carcinoma
d. [ ] Colloidal carcinoma
e. [ ] Microcellular carcinoma

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10. Which of the following are colloidal cancer peculiarities?

a. [ ] Develops from epithelial tissue
b. [X] It is undifferentiated tumor
c. [ ] Keratin pearls are characteristic
d. [X] Make metastasis
e. [ ] Exophytic grow
11. List the types of atypia, which are usually distinguished in tumor cells:
a. [X] Antigenic
b. [ ] Physical
c. [X] Morphological
d. [ ] Clinical
e. [ ] Dystrophic
12. Determine the cancer microscopic features:
a. [X] Microcellular
b. [X] Gigantocellular
c. [ ] Fibrinous
d. [ ] Nodular
e. [X] Squamous
13. The following are malignant tumor secondary changes?
a. [X] Calcification
b. [ ] Malignisation
c. [X] Mucilaginization
d. [X] Necrosis
e. [ ] Pinocytosis
14. The following are malignant tumor features:
a. [ ] Exophytic growth
b. [ ] Tissue atypia only
c. [X] Metastasis
d. [X] Rapid growth
e. [X] Recurrence
15. Which are the types of adenoma?
a. [X] Alveolar
b. [ ] Squamous
c. [X] Tubular
d. [X] Papillary
e. [ ] Medullary
16. Which are the squamous cell carcinoma features?
a. [ ] Expansive growth
b. [ ] Predominance of stroma over parenchyma
c. [ ] Predominance of parenchyma over stroma
d. [X] Keratin pearls can occur
e. [X] It is differentiated cancer
17. Which are adenoma types?
a. [X] Adenomatous polyp
b. [ ] Teratoma
c. [X] Fibroadenoma
d. [X] Papillary
e. [ ] Adenocarcinoma
18. Papilloma can be complicated by:
a. [X] Hemorrhage
b. [X] Inflammation
c. [ ] Resorbtion
d. [X] Malignancy with the development of squamous cell carcinoma
e. [ ] Malignancy with the development of adenocarcinoma

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19. Which types of tumor growth are distinguished in relation to the lumen of the hollow organ?
a. [ ] Invasive
b. [X] Exophytic
c. [X] Flat
d. [X] Excavated
e. [ ] Appositional
20. The following are microscopic types of cancer:
a. [ ] Mesemchymal
b. [ ] Fibrinous
c. [X] Squamous
d. [X] Glandular
e. [X] Transitiocellular
21. Select some characteristics of an adenoma:
a. [X] Tissue atypia
b. [ ] Cellular atypia
c. [ ] Ultrastructural atypia
d. [X] Exophytic growth
e. [ ] Infiltrative growth
22. Which organs and tissues may develop cancer?
a. [ ] Lymph nodes
b. [X] Stomach
c. [X] Pancreas
d. [ ] Spleen
e. [ ] Bone
23. Name the variety of histological atypia of tumor:
a. [X] Cellular
b. [X] Tissular
c. [ ] Organ
d. [ ] Biochemical
e. [ ] Mixed
24. Select microscopic forms of cancer:
a. [X] Mucinous
b. [X] Colloidal
c. [X] Microcellular
d. [ ] Desmoids
e. [ ] Lymphocytic
25. Which of the following organs may develop adenoma?
a. [X] Thyroid gland
b. [X] Pypophysis
c. [ ] White matter of brain
d. [ ] Spleen
e. [ ] Bones
26. Which of the following tumors develop from glandular epithelium?
a. [ ] Papiloma
b. [X] Adenomatous polyp
c. [X] Mucinous carcinoma
d. [X] Medullary carcinoma
e. [ ] Squamous carcinoma
27. Select characteristics of mucinous carcinoma:
a. [X] Comes from glandular epithelium
b. [ ] It is a differentiated carcinoma
c. [X] Invasive growth
d. [ ] Stroma prevail over parenchyma
e. [X] Cellular atypia

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28. Select the differentiated forms of cancer:

a. [X] Adenocarcinoma
b. [ ] Scirrh
c. [X] Squamous cell carcinoma
d. [ ] Mucinous carcinoma
e. [ ] Lymphoma
29. Which from the following tumors are benign?
a. [X] Adenoma
b. [X] Papilloma
c. [X] Fibroadenoma
d. [ ] Scirrhus
e. [ ] Melanoma
30. Carcinoma “in situ” is characterized by:
a. [ ] Invasive growth
b. [X] Tissular atypia
c. [X] Cellular atypia
d. [ ] Infiltrative growth
e. [ ] Usually affects bones
31. Malignant organospecific tumors are characterized by:
a. [ ] Expansive growth
b. [ ] Slow growth
c. [X] Tissular etypia
d. [X] Cellular atypia
e. [ ] Affect any type of epithelium
32. Which of the following are malignant organospecific tumors?
a. [X] Nephrocarcinoma
b. [X] Seminoma
c. [ ] Fibroadenoma
d. [X] Choryoepithelioma
e. [ ] Adenocarcinoma
33. Which are the types of ovarian organospecific tumors depending on their provenience?
a. [ ] Mesemchymal
b. [X] Epithelial
c. [X] Sex cord stroma
d. [ ] Cortical
e. [X] Germinal
34. Destructive hydatiform mole is transformed in:
a. [ ] Horyoidpapilloma
b. [X] Horyonepithelioma
c. [X] Horyoncarcinoma
d. [ ] Nephroblastoma
e. [ ] Granulose carcinoma
35. The following are adrenal organospecific tumors:
a. [ ] Foliculoma
b. [X] Pheochromacytoma
c. [X] Feochromoblastoma
d. [ ] Fibroma
e. [ ] Thymoma
36. Select organospecific malignant tumors:
a. [ ] Scirrhus
b. [ ] Polyp
c. [ ] Tecoma
d. [X] Disgerminoma
e. [X] Seminoma

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37. Organospecific benign tumors are characterized by:

a. [X] Expansive growth
b. [ ] Rapid growth
c. [ ] Destructive growth
d. [ ] Cellular atipya
e. [X] Tissular atypia
38. Source of organospecific kidney epithelial tumors may be:
a. [ ] Capsule epithelium
b. [X] Tubular epithelium
c. [ ] Ureteral epithelium
d. [ ] Calyx’s epithelium
e. [X] Metanephrogenic tissue
39. Name the organospecific malignant tumors of ovary:
a. [ ] Serous cystadenoma
b. [X] Pseudomucinous cystadenocarcinoma
c. [X] Serous cystadenocarcinoma
d. [ ] Malignant tecoma
e. [ ] Dysgerminoma
40. Specify the seminoma characteristics:
a. [ ] Benign tumor
b. [X] Malignant tumor
c. [X] Germinal tumor
d. [ ] Leydig cell tumor
e. [ ] Late metastasizes
41. The following are metastasis routes of malignant neoplasms:
a. [ ] Invasive
b. [X] Implantation
c. [X] Lymphogenous
d. [ ] Morphologic
e. [ ] Expansive
42. Which of the following tumor are benign?
a. [X] Fibroadenoma
b. [X] Pinealoma
c. [X] Tecoma
d. [ ] Disgerminoma
e. [ ] Seminoma
43. Select surface epithelium tumors:
a. [ ] Scirrhus
b. [ ] Mucinous carcinoma
c. [X] Basalioma
d. [X] Papilloma
e. [ ] Hydatiform mole
44. Meningeal tumors develop from:
a. [X] Pia mater
b. [X] Arachnoid endothelium
c. [X] Meningothelium
d. [ ] Ganglional cells
e. [ ] Choroid epithelium
45. Fibroma is characterized by:
a. [ ] Invasive growth
b. [X] Expansive growth
c. [ ] Cellular atypia
d. [X] Tissue atypia
e. [ ] Cellular and tissue atypia

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46. Which are immature muscular tumors?

a. [ ] Fibrosarcoma
b. [ ] Rabdomyoma
c. [X] Leiomyosarcoma
d. [X] Rhabdomyosarcoma
e. [ ] Myxoma
47. The cytoplasm of melanoblasts can accumulate pigments:
a. [ ] Hemoglobinogenic
b. [X] Proteinogenic
c. [ ] Lipopigments
d. [X] Melanin
e. [ ] Pseudomelanin
48. Lipoma is characterized by:
a. [ ] Hematogenous metastasis
b. [ ] Lymphogenous metastasis
c. [ ] Cellular atypia
d. [X] Tissue atypia
e. [X] Slow growth
49. Meningeal tumors develop from:
a. [X] Arachnoendothelium
b. [X] Meningothelium
c. [ ] Scull bones
d. [ ] Ependymal call of ventricles
e. [ ] Nerves
50. The following are benign fibrous tissue neoplasms:
a. [X] Fibroma
b. [ ] Adenoma
c. [ ] Lipoma
d. [X] Desmoid
e. [ ] Fibrosarcoma
51. Highlight three most frequent fibromas localization:
a. [X] Skin
b. [ ] Lungs
c. [X] Uterus
d. [ ] Liver
e. [X] Mammary gland
52. Which of the following tumors metastasize?
a. [ ] Fibroma
b. [X] Osteosarcoma
c. [ ] Chondroma
d. [X] Angiosarcoma
e. [X] Melanoma
53. Sarcomas unlike cancer is characterized by:
a. [ ] Mainly lymphogenous metastasis
b. [X] Mainly hematogenous metastasis
c. [ ] Recurrence
d. [ ] Epithelial origin
e. [X] Mesenchymal origin
54. Which of the following conditions cause aneurysms?
a. [X] Atherosclerotic plaque formation
b. [X] Trauma
c. [ ] Low blood pressure
d. [X] Congenital abnormalities in media of arterial wall
e. [ ] Smoking

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55. On an undulating course of atherosclerosis indicates the presence of the:

a. [X] Multilayer plaques
b. [ ] Monolayer plaque
c. [X] Plaques at different stages of development
d. [ ] Similar plaques
e. [ ] Plaques under calcification
56. Indicate the stages of myocardial infarction:
a. [ ] Haemorrhagic
b. [ ] Edematous
c. [X] Necrotic
d. [ ] Vascularization
e. [X] Organization
57. Liposclerotic stage of atherosclerosis is characterized by:
a. [ ] Formation of atheromatous mass
b. [X] The growth of connective tissue around the lipidic deposites
c. [ ] Plaque ulceration
d. [X] Destruction of elastic and argyrophilic membranes
e. [ ] Formation of blood clots
58. Which of the following factors are important in the development of atherosclerosis?
a. [ ] Hypoglycemia
b. [X] Hypercholesterolemia
c. [X] Hypertension
d. [ ] Hypercalcemia
e. [X] Hyperlipidemia
59. Manifestations of atherosclerosis include:
a. [ ] Metaplasia
b. [X] Calcification
c. [ ] Amyloidosis
d. [X] Lipidic streaks
e. [X] Fibrous plaque
60. Chronic cerebral ischemia on the basis of cerebral artery atherosclerosis is accompaned by:
a. [X] Cerebral cortex cells degeneration
b. [ ] Extensive bleeding in the brain
c. [X] Atrophy of the cerebral cortex
d. [ ] Hypertrophy of cortical cells
e. [X] The development of dementia
61. Fibrous plaques, in contrast to the streak are characterized by:
a. [X] Plaque protrud over intima
b. [ ] Plaques are at the level of the intima
c. [X] White color
d. [ ] Yellow color
e. [ ] Plaque ulceration
62. Which atherosclerotic stages are characterized by calcification?
a. [ ] Prelipidic
b. [ ] Lipidic
c. [X] Ulcerative
d. [X] Liposclerotic
e. [X] Atheromathous
63. Which of the following organs are mostly affeced by atherosclerosis?
a. [X] Kidney
b. [ ] Liver
c. [X] Brain
d. [X] Intestine
e. [ ] Lung

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64. Myocardial infarction size is determined by:

a. [X] The degree of artherial stenosis
b. [ ] The age of the patient
c. [X] The possibility of collateral circulation
d. [X] Functional tenssion of myocardium
e. [ ] Myocardial size
65. Abdominal aortic aneurysm may be complicated by:
a. [X] Aortic thrombosis
b. [X] Sindramom Leriche
c. [ ] Syndrome Myasnikov
d. [ ] Budd-Chiari syndrome
e. [X] Internal bleeding
66. Kidney atherosclerosis is characterized by:
a. [ ] Kidneys are markedly increased
b. [X] Kidney are decreased
c. [X] Macronodular surfaces
d. [ ] Micronodular surfaces
e. [ ] Kidneys are lardy
67. The following are myocardial infarction complications:
a. [X] Cardiac tamponade
b. [ ] Heart defect
c. [X] Asystole
d. [ ] Brown atrophy
e. [X] Lung edema
68. Which of the following atherosclerotic stages are clinically manifested?
a. [ ] Prelipidic
b. [ ] Lipidic streaks
c. [X] Atheromatous
d. [X] Ulcerative
e. [ ] All of the above
69. Morphological manifestations of heart atherosclerosis include:
a. [X] Myocardial infarction
b. [X] Postinfarction cardiosclerosis
c. [ ] Cardiac malformation
d. [ ] Brown atrophy of myocardium
e. [ ] All of the above
70. Obstructive atherosclerosis of the femoral artery may be followed by:
a. [X] Ischemia
b. [ ] Varicose veins
c. [ ] "elephantiasis"
d. [X] Gangrene
e. [ ] Anemia
71. Subendocardial myocardial infarction may be complicated by:
a. [ ] Fibrinous pericarditis
b. [X] Parietal thrombosis
c. [ ] Hemopericardium
d. [X] Thromboembolism
e. [ ] “Armoured” heart
72. List the complications that may arise in atherosclerotic plaque ulceration:
a. [X] Artery thrombosis
b. [ ] Phlebothrombosis
c. [X] Atheromatous detritus embolism
d. [ ] Pulmonary infarction
e. [X] Acute arterial occlusion

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73. Slow atherosclerotic narrowing of the heart arteries may lead to the:
a. [ ] Myocardial infarction
b. [X] Diffuse cardiosclerosis
c. [ ] Macrofocal cardiosclerosis
d. [ ] Acute cardiac failure
e. [X] Chronic cardiac failure
74. Which of the following organs diseases may develop symptomatic hypertension?
a. [X] Kidney
b. [X] Pituitary
c. [X] Brain
d. [ ] Liver
e. [ ] Light
75. Select myocardial infarction gross characteristics:
a. [ ] Red color
b. [ ] White color
c. [X] White color with a hemorrhagic ream
d. [ ] Triangular shaped
e. [X] Irregular shaped
76. Types of degeneration depending on metabolic disturbances:
a. [X] Carbohydrate
b. [X] Protein
c. [X] Fat
d. [ ] Parenchimatous
e. [ ] Mesemchymal
77. Specify atherosclerosis particularly associated with hypertension:
a. [ ] Is limited
b. [X] Is a widespread
c. [X] Circular arrangement of fibrous plaques in arteries
d. [X] Muscular arteries are affected
e. [ ] Skip affection of elastic arteries
78. Note the changes in the arteries, which characterize hypertensive disease:
a. [X] Elastofibrosis
b. [ ] Dystrophic calcification
c. [X] Plasmatic infiltration
d. [X] Hyalinosis
e. [ ] Aterocalcinosis
79. Symptomatic hypertension may develop in the following cases:
a. [ ] Respiratory diseases
b. [ ] Liver disease
c. [X] Kidney disease
d. [X] CNS diseases
e. [X] Vascular diseases
80. Which of the following factors are directly involved in hypertensive disease pathogenesis?
a. [ ] Morphological
b. [X] Humoral
c. [X] Reflexogenic
d. [ ] Ontogenetic
e. [ ] Allergic
81. Indicate the types of hypertension according to the character of its course:
a. [ ] Cerebral
b. [ ] Cardiac
c. [X] Benign
d. [X] Malignant
e. [ ] Renal

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82. The following are acute morphological changes which can develop in the kidneys due to arterial hypertension:
a. [ ] arteriolar hyalinosis
b. [ ] parenchymal atrophy
c. [X] infarcts
d. [X] arteriolonecrosis
e. [ ] arteriolosclerosis
83. Which elements include the triad of Fallot?
a. [X] Interventricular septal defect
b. [X] Pulmonary artery stenosis;
c. [ ] Interatrial septal defect;
d. [ ] Dextraposition of aorta;
e. [X] Right ventricular hypertrophy.
84. The following changes develop in the kidney in benign hypertension:
a. [X] Primary shrinkage
b. [ ] Secondary shrinkage
c. [X] Arteriolohialinosis
d. [X] Arteriolosclerosis
e. [ ] Kimmelstiel-Wilson syndrome
85. Location of myocardial infarction:
a. [X] left ventricle;
b. [ ] the right atrium;
c. [ ] left atrium;
d. [ ] right ventricle;
e. [X] interventricular septum
86. The following microscopic changes DOES NOT characterize myocardial infarction:
a. [ ] Necrotic myocardial fibers with preserved cell borders and absence of nuclei
b. [ ] Missing transverse striations
c. [X] Increased transverse diameter of myocardial fibers and hyperchromatic, irregular, stellate nuclei
d. [X] Perivascular aschoff granulomas;
e. [X] Vegetations along chordae and valve.
87. Hematuria and lumbar pain apiared in a patient at 7-th day of myocardial infarction. What
pathological process developed in the kidneys and what was the cause?
a. [X] renal infarction
b. [ ] acute pyelonephritis
c. [X] thromboembolism from the left ventricle parietal thrombus
d. [ ] thromboembolism from aortic vegetations on the surface of the valve
e. [ ] thromboembolism from leaflet mitral vegetation
88. Morphological manifestations of acute ischemic heart disease:
a. [ ] atrophy of the heart
b. [X] ischemic dystrophy of cardyomyocytes
c. [X] infarction
d. [ ] chronic cardiac aneurysm
e. [ ] cardiosclerosis
89. Myocardial infarction stages are?
a. [X] Ischemic
b. [X] Necrotic
c. [ ] Functional
d. [ ] Compensatory
e. [X] Organization
90. Myocardial infarction direct causes are:
a. [X] Intramural bleeding in the atherosclerotic plaque
b. [X] Coronary artery thrombosis
c. [X] Coronary artery spasm
d. [ ] Coronary artery sclerosis
e. [ ] Myocardial metabolic disorders
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91. Morphological manifestations of chronic ischemic heart disease:

a. [X] Macrofocal cardiosclerosis
b. [X] Microfocal cardiosclerosis
c. [ ] Acute myocardial infarction
d. [X] Chronic cardiac anevrism
e. [ ] Acute cardiac anevrism
92. Most common causes of death in chronic ischemic heart disease are:
a. [X] Heart wall rupture and pericardial tamponade
b. [ ] Cerebral hemorrhage
c. [ ] Renal failure
d. [X] Chronic cardiovascular failure
e. [X] Thromboembolic complications
93. Most common causes of death in acute ischemic heart disease:
a. [X] Cardiogenic shock
b. [X] Ventricular fibrilation
c. [X] Acute cardiovascular insufficiency
d. [ ] Cerebral hemorrhage
e. [ ] Acute anemia posthaemorrhagic
94. Which of the following congenital heart malformation are manifested by cyanosis (malformation with cyanosis)?
a. [ ] Persistent ductus arteriosus
b. [X] Pulmonary artery stenosis
c. [ ] Interatrial septal defect
d. [X] Tetralogy of fallot
e. [X] Transpozition of the graet vessels
95. Which of the following congenital heart malformation are "pale"?
a. [X] Persistent ductus arteriosus
b. [X] Interventricular septum defect
c. [X] Interatrial septal defect
d. [ ] Pentad of fallot
e. [ ] Pulmonary artery stenosis
96. Most common sudden death causes in myocardial infarction:
a. [ ] Angina pectoris
b. [X] Ventricular fibrilation
c. [X] Pericardial tamponade
d. [X] Cardiogenic shock
e. [ ] Ventricular aneurysm
97. Myocardial infarction complication are the following:
a. [X] Fibrinous pericarditis
b. [ ] Aortic anevrism
c. [X] Parietal cardiac thrombosis
d. [ ] Cardiac rupture
e. [ ] Aortic coarctation
98. Renal type of essential hypertension is characterized by:
a. [ ] Hydronephrosis
b. [X] Arteriolar hyalinosis
c. [X] Glomerulosclerosis
d. [X] Arteriolosclerotic nephrosclerosis
e. [ ] Pyelonephritis
99. Which are the arterioles changes in the chronic benign essential hypertension?
a. [ ] Fibrinoid necrosis
b. [X] Sclerosis
c. [X] Hyalinosis
d. [ ] Inflammation
e. [ ] Thrombosis

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100. What arterioles damage develops in hypertensive crisis?

a. [X] Infiltration of plasma
b. [X] Fibrinoid necrosis
c. [X] Thrombosis
d. [ ] Hyalinosis
e. [ ] Sclerosis
101. What are the most common causes of death in cardiomyopathy?
a. [ ] Respiratory failure
b. [X] Chronic heart failure
c. [X] Thromboembolic complications
d. [ ] Rhythm disorders
e. [ ] Renal insufficiency
102. Ischemic cerebral infarction may develop in obstructive atherosclerosis of the following arteries:
a. [X] Intracerebral arteries
b. [ ] Renal artery
c. [X] The vertebral arteries
d. [X] Carotid arteries
e. [ ] Pulmonary artery
103. Rheumatic valvular endocarditis types:
a. [X] Acute warty
b. [X] Diffuse endocarditis
c. [X] Valvulitis
d. [ ] Polypous ulcerative
e. [ ] All of the above
104. The following clinical forms of rheumatic fever are distinguished:
a. [X] Cardiovascular
b. [X] Nodose
c. [ ] Renal
d. [X] Cerebral
e. [ ] All of the above
105. Mucoid swelling (intumescence) is characterized by the following:
a. [X] Superficial disorganization of connective tissue
b. [ ] A profound disorganization of connective tissue
c. [X] The hydration of the ground substance of connective tissue
d. [ ] The destruction and loss of connective tissue
e. [X] Strengthening metachromatic reaction to glycosaminoglycans
106. The group of connective tissue diseases with immune disorders includes:
a. [X] Systemic lupus erythematosus
b. [X] Periarteritis nodosa
c. [ ] Obliterans endarteritis
d. [ ] Leriche syndrome
e. [X] Dermatomyositis
107. The "Armour" heart is caused by:
a. [ ] Rheumatic endocarditis
b. [ ] Rheumatic myocarditis
c. [X] Rheumatic pericarditis
d. [X] Rheumatic pancarditis
e. [ ] Rheumatic carditis
108. Which of the following changes develop in serousal membranes in rheumatic fever?
a. [ ] Purulent inflammation
b. [X] Fibrinous inflammation
c. [X] Sero-fibrinous inflammation
d. [ ] Ichorous inflammation
e. [ ] Hemorrhagic inflammation

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109. The following endocarditis types are characterized by thromboembolic complications:

a. [ ] Valvulitis
b. [X] Acute warty
c. [ ] Diffuse
d. [X] Recurent warty
e. [ ] Fibroplastic
110. Morphologic diagnosis of rheumatic fever is based on:
a. [ ] Alterative tissue reaction
b. [X] Productive tissue reaction
c. [X] Granulomatous inflammation
d. [ ] Exudative tissue reaction
e. [ ] Polypous - ulcerative endocarditis
111. Fibrinoid changes in rheumatic fever are characterized by:
a. [ ] Superficial connective tissue disorganization
b. [X] Damage to the collagen fibre
c. [ ] The reversibility of the process
d. [X] Homogenization of the collagen fibers
e. [X] The irreversibility of the process
112. The most frequent causes of death in patients with systemic lupus erythematous are:
a. [ ] Liver failure
b. [X] Renal failure
c. [ ] Cerebral hemorrhage
d. [X] Infections
e. [ ] Acute respiratory insufficiency
113. Rheumatic myocarditis may be:
a. [ ] Alterative
b. [X] Exudative
c. [X] Productive
d. [ ] Indicative
e. [ ] Positive
114. Which of the following are referred to rheumatic diseases?
a. [X] Ankylosing spondylitis
b. [X] Scleroderma
c. [ ] Hodgkin's disease
d. [ ] Ischemic heart disease
e. [X] Dermatomyositis
115. As a result of rheumatic endocarditis the following changes can be detected in the valve:
a. [X] Organization of thrombotic masses
b. [ ] Colonies of microbes
c. [X] The deformation of the valve
d. [X] Sclerosis
e. [ ] All of the above
116. Decompensated heart disease is characterized by:
a. [ ] Concentric hypertrophy
b. [X] Eccentric hypertrophy
c. [X] Anasarca
d. [ ] Hemomelanosis of spleen
e. [X] Cyanotic induration of kidney
117. Choose the endocardial changes name in the systemic lupus erythematosus?
a. [ ] Acute verrucous endocarditis
b. [ ] Reciprocating warty endocarditis
c. [X] Non-bacterial warty endocarditis
d. [ ] Ulcerous -polypous endocarditis
e. [X] Libman-sacks endocarditis

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118. What vessels types are mostly affected in rheumatic fever?

a. [ ] Aorta
b. [ ] Elastic arteries
c. [X] Arterioles
d. [ ] Veins
e. [X] Capillaries
119. Rheumatic pericarditis depending on the nature of exudate are:
a. [ ] Hemorrhagic
b. [X] Serous
c. [ ] Fibrinous-purulent
d. [X] Fibrinous
e. [ ] All of the above
120. The compensated heart defects are characterized by:
a. [X] Concentric hypertrophy
b. [ ] Eccentric hypertrophy
c. [X] Tonogenic dilatation of the heart cavities
d. [ ] Myogenic dilatation of the heart cavities
e. [ ] Anasarca
121. What are the systemic connective tissue diseases?
a. [ ] Glomerulonephritis
b. [X] Ankylosing spondylitis
c. [X] Rheumatic fever
d. [ ] Atherosclerosis
e. [X] Dermatomyositis
122. Systemic lupus erythematous mainly affects:
a. [ ] Heart
b. [X] Skin
c. [X] Vessels
d. [X] Kidney
e. [ ] Lung
123. Which of the following disorders are NOT included in systemic connective tissue diseases?
a. [X] Diphtheric myocarditis
b. [ ] Rheumatoid arthritis
c. [ ] Systemic scleroderma
d. [X] Glomerulonephritis
e. [ ] Periarteritis nodosa
124. Rheumatic granulomatous myocarditis consequences are:
a. [ ] Cardiac valvulopathy
b. [ ] Brown atrophy of the heart
c. [X] Perivascular sclerosis
d. [X] Cardiosclerosis
e. [ ] Heart lipomatosis
125. What complications can develop into rheumatic valvular endocarditis?
a. [ ] Pulmonary infarction
b. [X] Infarction in the spleen
c. [X] Renal infarction
d. [ ] Pulmonary artery thromboembolism
e. [ ] Myocarditis
126. The following are skin lesions in systemic scleroderma:
a. [ ] Erythema nodosum
b. [X] Sclerosis and severe hyalinosis
c. [ ] Hemorrhagic rash
d. [X] Reduced skin mobility

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127. The following are rheumatoid arthritis complications:

a. [X] Subluxation and dislocation of small joints
b. [ ] Subluxation and dislocation large joints
c. [ ] Fibrous osteodisplazia
d. [X] Fibrous and bone ankylosis
e. [X] Nephropathic amyloidosis
128. List the major criteria of acute rheumatic fever:
a. [X] Migratory polyarthritis
b. [X] Erythema nodosum
c. [ ] Aortic coarctation
d. [X] Subcutaneous nodules
e. [ ] Arterial hypotonia
129. What are the skin lesions in systemic lupus erythematous?
a. [ ] Allergic dermatitis
b. [ ] Erythema nodosum
c. [X] Butterfly rash
d. [X] Hyperkeratosis
e. [X] Sweat and sebaceous gland atrophy
130. Choose the right statements about glomerulonephritis
a. [X] Glomerular injury
b. [ ] Renal capsule injury
c. [X] Affects both kidneys
d. [ ] Stones in renal calices
e. [X] Presence of blood and protein in urine
131. Which of the following refers to the primary glomerulonephritis?
a. [ ] Diabetes mellitus
b. [ ] Amyloidosis
c. [X] Lipoid nephrosis
d. [X] IgA nephropathy
e. [X] Membranoproliferative GN
132. The nephrotic syndrome is characterized by the following:
a. [ ] Hematuria
b. [X] Massive proteinuria
c. [ ] Hypertension
d. [X] Generalized edema
e. [X] Hiperlipidemia and lipiduria
133. The nephritic syndrome is characterized by the following:
a. [X] Hematuria
b. [ ] Massive proteinuria
c. [X] Hypertension
d. [ ] Generalized edema
e. [ ] Hiperlipidemia and lipiduria
134. The basic machanisms in GN development
a. [X] Immune
b. [ ] Humoral
c. [X] With antibody formation
d. [ ] Nervous
e. [ ] Endocrin
135. The microscopic changes in acute GN
a. [X] Swollen kidney
b. [ ] Pale, gray kidney
c. [X] Variegated kidney
d. [X] Red pyramid
e. [ ] Pale pyramid

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136. The microscopic changes of the kidney in chronic GN

a. [ ] Glomerular amyloidosis
b. [X] Glomerular sclerosis
c. [ ] Hypertrophy of the renal tube
d. [X] Atrophy of the renal tube
e. [X] Hyalisation of the vessels
137. The macroscopic pattern of the kidney in lipoid nephrosis
a. [X] Increased in size
b. [ ] Decrease in size
c. [X] Flaccid
d. [ ] Pyramid are pale
e. [X] The yellow - pale cortex is thicker
138. Which ways of infections spread are characterized for pyelonephritis?
a. [X] Urinary tract-way
b. [ ] By drinking water
c. [X] Descendentway
d. [X] Lymphogenic way
e. [ ] Sexual-transmitted way
139. The following are chronic pyelonephritis complications:
a. [ ] Arterial hypotension
b. [X] Arterial hypertension
c. [ ] Pneumonia
d. [X] Chronic renal failure
e. [ ] Icterus
140. The morphologic changes in nephrolitiasis depend on the following:
a. [X] Stones situation
b. [X] Stones size
c. [X] Duration of the process
d. [ ] Number of the kidneys
e. [ ] Blood pressure
141. The morphologic patterns of the kidney in polycystic disease include the following:
a. [X] Numerous cysts
b. [ ] Polyps of the renal pelvis mucosa
c. [X] Renal parenchyma atrophy
d. [ ] Cortex hypertrophy
e. [ ] Renal hyperplasia
142. The following are polycystic kidney disease complications:
a. [ ] Nephrotic syndrome
b. [ ] Pyelonephritis
c. [X] Nephrolitiasis
d. [X] Cysts suppuration
e. [ ] Acute GN
143. Nephrotic syndrome is characterized by:
a. [ ] Jaundice
b. [ ] Physical inactivity
c. [X] Proteinuria
d. [X] Hyperlipidemia
e. [X] Edema
144. Name the acute renal failure stages:
a. [X] Shock
b. [ ] Latent
c. [ ] Azotemic
d. [X] Oligo-anuric
e. [X] Recovery of diuresis

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145. What are extrarenal symptoms of glomerulonephritis?

a. [ ] Right ventricle hypertrophy of the heart
b. [ ] Hematuria
c. [ ] Oliguria
d. [X] Edema
e. [X] Left ventricle hypertrophy of the heart
146. Name disease, leading to secondary kidney shrinkage:
a. [X] Pyelonephritis
b. [ ] Essential hypertension
c. [X] Glomerulonephritis
d. [ ] Atherosclerosis
e. [X] Amyloid nephrosis
147. Nephrotic syndrome is characterized by:
a. [ ] Ascites
b. [ ] Gross hematuria
c. [X] Proteinuria
d. [X] Hypercholesterolemia
e. [X] Edema
148. One possible outcome of acute inflammation is resolution, with the other outcomes being chronic
inflammation and fibrosis (loss of function). Which of the following is NOT associated with resolution?
a. [X] Agenesis
b. [ ] Clearance of mediators and acute inflammatory cells
c. [ ] Replacement of injured cells
d. [ ] Normal function
e. [X] Angiogenesis
149. A granuloma is a focus of chronic inflammation consisting of a microscopic aggregation of
macrophages. Which of the following are an immune granulomas and NOT a foreign body granuloma?
a. [ ] Talc
b. [ ] Sutures
c. [X] Microbes
d. [ ] Soil
e. [X] Viruses
150. The characteristic cell found in granulomatous inflammation are:
a. [ ] myofibroblast
b. [X] epithelioid cell
c. [ ] plasma cell
d. [X] gigantic cell
e. [ ] activated mast cell
151. The following are exudative inflammation types:
a. [X] Fibrinous inflammation
b. [X] Gangrenous inflammation
c. [ ] Interstitial inflammation
d. [ ] Granulomatous inflammation
e. [X] Purulent inflammation
152. The following are etiologic factors of fibrinous inflammation:
a. [X] Diphtheria bacillus
b. [X] Diplococcus Frenkel
c. [ ] Anthrax bacillus
d. [X] Endointoxication
e. [ ] All of the above
153. Depending of the nature of exudate the following are inflammation types:
a. [ ] Specific
b. [ ] Nonspecific
c. [X] Acute
d. [X] Chronic
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e. [ ] Invasive
154. The following are acute inflammation types:
a. [X] Khataral
b. [ ] Interstitial
c. [X] Hemorrhagic
d. [X] Fibrinous
e. [ ] All of the above
155. Specify the morphological forms of inflammation:
a. [X] Proliferative
b. [ ] Mesenchymal
c. [ ] Mixed
d. [X] Exudative
e. [ ] Post-necrotic
156. Phlegmon most frequently is observed into:
a. [X] Subcutaneous adipose tissue
b. [X] Fibro-connective lax tissue
c. [ ] Brain tissue
d. [ ] Liver
e. [ ] Myocardium
157. Hemorrhagic inflammation can be observed in the following cases:
a. [X] Anthrax
b. [ ] Peptic ulcer
c. [X] Flu
d. [ ] Thyrotoxicosis
e. [X] Pest
158. The following are inflammation morphological types:
a. [ ] Mesenchymal
b. [ ] Intrinsic
c. [X] Exudative
d. [X] Proliferative
e. [ ] Coagulative
159. Specify the types and varieties of purulent inflammation:
a. [X] Abscess
b. [X] Soft phlegmona
c. [X] Solid phlegmona
d. [ ] Crupous inflammation
e. [ ] Diphteric inflammation
160. The successive phases of inflammation include:
a. [ ] Petrification
b. [ ] Induration
c. [ ] Aglutination
d. [X] Exudation
e. [X] Proliferation
161. In the purulent exudate, unlike serous prevail:
a. [ ] Exfoliated cells of the surface epithelium
b. [ ] Exfoliated cells of the mesothelium
c. [X] Neutrophils
d. [ ] Mucus
e. [X] Bacteria
162. At the level of the microvasculature the following changes may occur as a result of increased
vascular permeability:
a. [X] Exudation of plasma
b. [ ] Exicosis
c. [X] Emigration of intravascular cells
d. [X] Exudate and cellular infiltrate formation
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e. [ ] Cadaveric hypostasis
163. The followings are fibrinous inflammation types:
a. [ ] Putrid
b. [X] Crupous
c. [X] Diphtheric
d. [ ] Proliferative
e. [ ] Productive
164. An abscess is characterized by:
a. [X] Focal nature of purulent inflammation
b. [ ] Diffuse character of purulent inflammation
c. [X] Presence of necrotic tissue in the focus of inflammation
d. [X] Availability pyogenic membrane
e. [ ] None of the above
165. Which are the types of phagocytosis?
a. [X] Complete
b. [X] Incomplete
c. [ ] Direct
d. [ ] Indirect
e. [X] Endocytobiosis
166. Fibrinous inflammation is characteristic for the following situations:
a. [X] Uremia
b. [X] Diphtheria
c. [X] Dysentery
d. [ ] Anemia
e. [ ] All of the above
167. Which of the following bacteria may cause nonspecific inflammation?
a. [ ] Streptococci
b. [X] Mycobacterium tuberculosis
c. [ ] Meningococci
d. [X] Threponema palidum
e. [ ] Staphylococci
168. Which inflammation types are characterized by cell multiplication?
a. [ ] Alterative inflammation
b. [ ] Exudative inflammation
c. [X] Proliferative inflammation
d. [ ] Parenchymatous inflammation
e. [X] Productive inflammation
169. Acute purulent inflammation is characterized by the followings:
a. [X] Fistulas
b. [X] Thrombophlebitis
c. [X] Cellulitis
d. [ ] Ichthyosis
e. [ ] Amyloidosis
170. Which processes reflect the migration of blood cells during inflammation:
a. [ ] Pinocytosis
b. [ ] Phagocytosis
c. [X] Leukocytes diapedesis
d. [ ] Phanerosis
e. [X] Erythrocytes diapedesis
171. Name the types of acute inflammation:
a. [ ] Crupous
b. [ ] Putrid
c. [ ] Granulomatous
d. [X] Abscess
e. [X] Cellulitis
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172. Depending on evolution, the inflammation is classified into:

a. [X] Acute
b. [ ] Fibrinous
c. [X] Chronic
d. [ ] Specific
e. [ ] Nonspecific
173. Serous inflammation is characteristic for the next situations:
a. [X] Thyrotoxicosis
b. [ ] Amyloidosis
c. [ ] Sclerosis
d. [X] Uremia
e. [X] Tuberculosis
174. The followings are exudative inflammation examples:
a. [ ] Parenchymatous
b. [X] Purulent
c. [X] Khataral
d. [ ] Interstitial
e. [ ] Granulomatous
175. Dyphtheric inflammation is typically localized in:
a. [X] Pharynx
b. [X] Tonsils
c. [X] Esophagus
d. [ ] Stomacintestine
e. [ ] Intestine
176. Successive steps of the inflammatory process are:
a. [ ] Coagulation
b. [X] Alteration
c. [X] Exudation
d. [ ] Infiltration
e. [X] Proliferation
177. Chronic purulent inflammation may lead to:
a. [X] Sclerosis
b. [X] Amyloidosis
c. [X] Fistulas
d. [ ] Phanerosis
e. [ ] Ichthiosis
178. Granulomatous inflammation is a type of:
a. [X] Productive inflammation
b. [ ] Exudative inflammation
c. [ ] Interstitial inflammation
d. [X] Proliferative inflammation
e. [ ] All of the above
179. The following cells are found in tuberculous granuloma:
a. [ ] Neutrophils
b. [X] Lymphocytes
c. [X] Epithelioid cells
d. [ ] Eosinophil’s
e. [ ] Mast cells
180. Syphilis can be:
a. [ ] Idiopathic
b. [X] Acquired
c. [ ] Senile
d. [X] Visceral
e. [X] Innate

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181. Specific inflammation includes:

a. [ ] Rheumatic fever
b. [X] Syphilis
c. [X] Tuberculosis
d. [ ] Typhoid fever
e. [ ] Dysentery
182. The followings are included in structure of tuberculous granuloma:
a. [ ] Virchow cells
b. [X] Langhan’s cells
c. [ ] Amyloid
d. [X] Caseous necrosis
e. [ ] Fibrinous necrosis
183. Secondary syphilis is characterized by:
a. [ ] Gummas
b. [X] Roseols
c. [X] Papules
d. [X] Pustules
e. [ ] Dubois abscesses
184. Late congenital syphilis is characterized by:
a. [X] Dubois abscesses
b. [ ] Syphilides
c. [ ] Miliary gumma
d. [ ] Chancre
e. [X] Hutchinson's triad
185. Which type of inflammation usually ocur in surroundin zones of parasites?
a. [ ] Alterative inflammation
b. [ ] Exudative inflammation
c. [X] Productive inflammation
d. [ ] Specific inflammation
e. [X] Nonspecific inflammation
186. The followings are exudative inflammation examples:
a. [ ] Parenchimatous inflammation
b. [X] Purulent inflammation
c. [X] Catarrhal inflammation
d. [ ] Interstitial inflammation
e. [ ] Granulomatous inflammation
187. Uterus mucosa morphologic patterns in glandular hyperplasia include the following:
a. [ ] Purulent inflammation
b. [X] Thickens of the mucosal layer
c. [X] Polyposis
d. [X] Stromal hyperplasia
e. [ ] Ulcerations
188. Acute endometritis complications are:
a. [ ] Chronic pyelonephritis
b. [X] Purulent endometritis
c. [ ] Uterus body cancer
d. [ ] Purulent mastitis
e. [X] Regional thrombophlebitis
189. Uterus Cancer risk factors are:
a. [ ] Endocervicosis
b. [X] Endometrial polyps
c. [ ] Acute endometritis
d. [X] Glandular hyperplasia of the endometrium
e. [ ] Chronic endometritis

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190. Precancerous changes in breast cancer

a. [ ] Traumas
b. [X] Benign glandular dysplasia
c. [ ] Mastitis
d. [X] Intraductal papilloma
e. [ ] Cutaneous papilloma
191. Estrogenic hormones are synthesized in:
a. [X] The theca tissue of mature follicles
b. [X] Granulosa cells of follicles
c. [X] Cells of the reticular zone of the adrenal cortex
d. [ ] Chromophobe pituitary cells
e. [ ] The epiphysis
192. Diseases arising after pregnancy include:
a. [ ] Ectopic pregnancy
b. [X] Placental polyp
c. [ ] A miscarriage
d. [X] Generic uterine infection
e. [X] Chorionepithelioma
193. The following situations are obligatory precancerous:
a. [X] Atypical glandular hyperplasia of the endometrium
b. [X] Focal adenomatous endometrial
c. [X] Adenomatous polyps endometrial
d. [ ] Adenocarcinoma of the uterine body
e. [ ] Atrophic endometritis
194. During pregnancy can occur:
a. [X] Preeclampsia
b. [ ] Placental polyp
c. [X] Premature birth
d. [X] Hydatiform mole
e. [ ] Testicular cancer
195. Chronic endometritis is characterized by:
a. [X] Lymph cells infiltration
b. [X] Plasma cells infiltration
c. [X] Sclerosis
d. [ ] Exclusively neutrophil cells infiltration
e. [ ] Leukemic infiltration
196. The following are tubal pregnancy types:
a. [X] Ampullar
b. [ ] Intramural
c. [X] Isthmic
d. [X] Interstitial
e. [ ] Ecstratubal
197. Diseases of the female genital organs are classified into the following groups:
a. [X] Inflammatory
b. [ ] Immunopatologic
c. [X] Dishormonal
d. [X] Tumoral
e. [ ] Compensatory -adaptive
198. Tubal pregnancy outcomes include:
a. [X] Complete tubal abortion
b. [X] Incomplete tubal abortion
c. [X] The fallopian tube rupture
d. [ ] Purulent salpingitis
e. [ ] Eclampsia

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199. The diagnostic features of tubal pregnancy are:

a. [X] The presence of chorionic villi in the tube
b. [X] The presence of decidual tissue in the tube
c. [X] Presence of fetal tissue in a tube
d. [ ] The presence of purulent salpingitis
e. [ ] The presence of developmental anomalies in the tube
200. Differentiation of a low grade astrocytoma from glioblastoma multiforme is based on:
a. [ ] Absence of necrosis in glioblastoma multiforme
b. [X] Presence of necrosis in glioblastoma multiforme
c. [ ] Presence of necrosis in a well differentiated astrocytoma
d. [ ] Presence of vascular proliferation in a well differentiated astrocytoma
e. [X] Presence of vascular proliferation in a glioblastoma multiforme
201. The following tumors are considered to be glial:
a. [ ] Meningioma
b. [ ] Craniopharingioma
c. [X] Astrocytoma
d. [X] Oligodendroglioma
e. [X] Ependimoma
202. The following tumors are considered to be neuronal:
a. [ ] Meningioma
b. [ ] Meduloblastoma
c. [X] Gangliocytoma
d. [X] Ganglioglioma
e. [ ] Astrocytoma
203. Causes of chronic active hepatitis include:
a. [X] Wilson's disease
b. [X] Alpha antitritrypsin deficiency
c. [X] Alchohol
d. [ ] Appendicitis
e. [ ] Typhoid fever
204. Conditions that are considered to increase the risk for developing hepatocellular carcinoma include:
a. [X] Alchohol-related cirrhosis
b. [X] HBV-related cirrhosis
c. [X] Idiopathic hemochromatosis
d. [ ] Primary biliary cirrhosis
e. [ ] All of them
205. The initial step of the fulminant liver necrosis is characterized by:
a. [ ] Liver hardening
b. [X] Sagging and wrinkles capsule
c. [X] Fatty degeneration of hepatocytes and necrobiosis in the center of the lobules
d. [ ] The rapid expansion of sinusoids
e. [ ] Hepatomegaly
206. Histologic picture of acute alcoholic hepatitis is reduced to:
a. [X] Fatty degeneration of hepatocytes
b. [ ] Necrosis biliary ducts
c. [X] Leukocyte infiltration and portal tracts necrosis
d. [ ] Appearance of Russell cells
e. [X] Appearance of Mallory bodies
207. Liver cirrhosis is followed by:
a. [X] Portal hypertension
b. [X] Development of intrahepatic porto-caval anastomoses
c. [X] Development of extrahepatic porto-caval anastomoses
d. [ ] Development of hydrothorax
e. [ ] Liver laxity

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208. The following cirrhosis types are distinguished on the morphogenesis background:
a. [ ] Alcoholic
b. [X] Post necrotic
c. [ ] Necrotic
d. [X] Portal
e. [X] Biliary
209. Viral hepatitis outcomes:
a. [X] The full restoration of the structure
b. [X] Transition of acute hepatitis in chronic
c. [ ] Transition to hepatotosis
d. [X] Liver cirrhosis
e. [ ] Amyloidosis of liver
210. Progressive massive liver necrosis is accompanied by:
a. [ ] Ascites
b. [X] Jaundice
c. [ ] Varices
d. [X] Regional lymph node hyperplasia
e. [X] Hemorrhagic syndrome
211. What are the two factors that lead to the postnecrotic liver cirrhosis:
a. [X] Fulminant liver degeneration
b. [X] Viral hepatitis
c. [ ] Parasitic hepatitis
d. [ ] Alcoholic hepatitis
e. [ ] Bacterial hepatitis
212. Acute hepatitis can be:
a. [ ] Hemorrhagic
b. [ ] Persistent
c. [X] Serous
d. [ ] Cholestatic
e. [X] Purulent
213. Liver in primary biliary cirrhosis is:
a. [X] Dramatically reduced in size
b. [X] Increased in size
c. [ ] Dense in consistence
d. [ ] Yellow collared
e. [X] Grey-green collared
214. Epidemic viral hepatitis is characterized by:
a. [X] Alimentary contamination
b. [ ] Parenteral contamination
c. [ ] Malignant evolution
d. [ ] Long incubation period
e. [X] Fecal-oral contamination
215. Decompensated portal hypertension is manifested by:
a. [ ] Jaundice
b. [ ] Ascites
c. [ ] Esophageal varices
d. [ ] A stroke
e. [ ] Pulmonary hemorrhage
216. Decompensated portal hypertension is usually complicated by:
a. [ ] Pulmonary edema
b. [X] Ascites
c. [X] Gastrointestinal bleeding
d. [X] Hemorrhoids
e. [ ] Brain haemorrhage

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217. Fulminant massive liver necrosis is usually accompanied by:

a. [ ] Ascites
b. [ ] Hydrothorax
c. [ ] Varices
d. [X] Jaundice
e. [X] Hemorrhagic diathesis
218. Biliary cirrhosis is divided into:
a. [ ] postnecrotic
b. [ ] Septal
c. [X] Primary
d. [X] Secondary
e. [ ] Multicentric
219. The following are histologic types of liver cancinoma:
a. [ ] Postcirrhotic
b. [X] Hepatocellular
c. [X] Cholangiocelllar
d. [ ] Adenomatous
e. [ ] Precirrhotic
220. Microscopic changes of bronchial epithelium in chronic bronchitis are:
a. [X] Metaplasia.
b. [X] Proliferative inflammation.
c. [ ] Atypical changes.
d. [ ] Atrophy.
e. [ ] Hypertrophy
221. Characteristic microscopic changes of lung emphysema are:
a. [X] Microcirculatory flow reduction.
b. [ ] Alveolar septa thickness.
c. [X] Alveolar septa thinness.
d. [X] Capillary sclerosis.
e. [ ] Hemosiderosis.
222. Primary pulmonary hypertension is a disease process that:
a. [ ] Is strongly associated with cigarette smoking.
b. [X] Is often associated with autoimmune disorders
c. [ ] Is usually associated with chronic obstructive lung disease.
d. [X] Produces atherosclerosis of the pulmonary arteries
e. [ ] It is the underlying cause of most diffuse interstitial fibrotic lung disease.
223. The central cancer of the lung can arise from:
a. [X] Epithelium of the large bronchi
b. [ ] Alveoli.
c. [X] Epithelium of the central bronchi
d. [ ] Blood vessels
e. [ ] Lymphatic vessels.
224. Which of the following conditions is a cause of secondary spontaneous pneumothorax?
a. [X] Emphysema
b. [X] Lung abscess
c. [ ] Interstitial pneumonia
d. [X] Tuberculosis
e. [ ] All of the above
225. Carcinoma of the esophagus is all of the following:
a. [X] Not a common carcinoma
b. [ ] Usually adenocarcinoma
c. [X] A tumor with a poor prognosis
d. [X] Dysphagia a common symptom
e. [ ] All of the above

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226. The microscopic picture of necrosis includes:

a. [ ] Plasmorexix+
b. [ ] Plasmorrhagia
c. [ ] Karyokinesis
d. [ ] Karyolysis+
e. [ ] Cytolysis+
227. Chronic tonsillitis is characterized by following statements:
a. [X] Lymphoid tissue sclerosis
b. [X] Tonsillar sheath sclerosis
c. [ ] Epithelial metaplasia
d. [X] Enlargement of tonsillar lacune
e. [ ] Epithelial displasia
228. The most frequent types of acute esophagitis are the following:
a. [X] Catarrhal
b. [X] Fibrinous
c. [X] Flegmonous
d. [ ] Hemorrhagic
e. [ ] Granulomatous
229. Microscopic changes in catarrhal gastritis include the following:
a. [X] Edema
b. [X] Hyperemia
c. [X] Superficial erosions
d. [ ] Fibrin network
e. [ ] Epithelioid cells infiltration infiltration
230. Destructive complications in ulcerative disease:
a. [X] Hemorrhage
b. [ ] Plasmorrhage
c. [ ] Stenosis
d. [X] Perforation
e. [X] Penetration
231. Choose the macroscopic types of the esophageal cancer.
a. [ ] Nodular
b. [X] Expansile
c. [ ] Necrotising
d. [ ] Branching
e. [X] Diffuse infiltrative
232. Chronic gastritis morphologic type are:
a. [X] Metaplastic
b. [ ] Flegmonous
c. [X] Atrophic
d. [ ] Gangrenous
e. [X] Displastic
233. Ulcerous disease complications are the following:
a. [X] Destructive
b. [X] Inflammatory
c. [ ] Invasive
d. [X] Malignant transformation
e. [ ] All of the above
234. Choose the retrograde mathastasis of the gastric cancer
a. [X] Virchow
b. [ ] Abricossov
c. [ ] Sarcoma Kapochy
d. [X] Krukenberg
e. [X] Schnitzler

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235. The most frequent localisation of the gastric cancer is:

a. [X] Lesser curvature
b. [ ] Greater curvature
c. [X] Pylorus
d. [ ] Fundus
e. [ ] Cardia
236. Choose the histologic zones of the chronic peptic ulcer:
a. [X] Layer of necrotic fibrinoid debris
b. [X] Zone of nonspecific inflammation
c. [ ] Granulomatous inflammation
d. [X] Fibrous, colagenous scar
e. [ ] Metastasis
237. Choose the benign types of the gastric tumors:
a. [ ] Diffuse carcinoma
b. [X] Hyperplastic polyp
c. [ ] Acute gastritis
d. [X] Adenomatous polyp
e. [ ] Lymphoma
238. Which gastro-intestinal segments are most frequently involved in Crohn's disease?
a. [X] Small intestinum
b. [X] Stomach
c. [ ] Oral cavity
d. [ ] Colon
e. [ ] Esophagus
239. The most common complications in Crohn's disease are:
a. [ ] Fistulas
b. [X] Massive bleeding
c. [ ] Spreading
d. [ ] Malignant transformation
e. [X] Toxic dilatation
240. The following statements can be characteristic for the ulcerative colitis:
a. [X] Affects colon and rectum
b. [ ] Affects small intestinum
c. [X] Has a pseudopolypous pattern
d. [ ] Spreads into abdominal cavity
e. [X] It can be followed by peritonitis
241. The most frequent complications in acute enteritis are:
a. [X] Hemorrhage
b. [ ] Occlusion
c. [ ] Stenosis
d. [X] Perforation
e. [ ] Cancer development
242. The most frequent complications in appendicitis are:
a. [X] Peritonitis
b. [ ] Cancer
c. [X] Mucocele
d. [ ] Hemorrhage
e. [ ] Diverticulitis
243. Choose the benign types of the intestinal tumors:
a. [X] Tubular adenoma
b. [X] Papylloma
c. [ ] Melanoma
d. [X] Tubulo-vilous adenoma
e. [ ] Lymphoma

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244. Acute colitis complications:

a. [X] Hemorrhage
b. [X] Perforations
c. [ ] Pneumonia
d. [ ] Appendicitis
e. [ ] Abscess
245. Acute appendicitis is correctly characterized as:
a. [X] Mainly as disease of adolescents
b. [X] Most commonly confused clinically with mesenteric lymphadenitis
c. [X] Accompanied by luminal obstruction in most cases
d. [ ] Diagnosed histologically by massive lymphoid hyperplasia in the submucosa
e. [ ] Characteristically produces watery diarrhea
246. Histologic changes commonly seen in reflux esophagitis include:
a. [X] Elongated mucosal papillae
b. [X] Hyperplasia of the mucosal basal zone
c. [X] Intraepithelial eosinophils
d. [ ] Submucosal varices
e. [ ] Mucosal destruction
247. The most common types of intestinal tumors are:
a. [ ] Squamous cell carcinomas
b. [X] Adenocarcinomas
c. [X] Adenosquamous carcinomas
d. [ ] Large cell undifferentiated carcinomas
e. [X] Small cell undifferentiated carcinomas
248. The intestinal tumors are complicated with:
a. [X] Hemorrhage
b. [ ] Plasmorrhage
c. [X] Bowel perforations
d. [ ] Neuronal spreading
e. [X] Peritonitis
249. The following are ulcerative disease inflammatory complication:
a. [X] Gastritis
b. [X] Duodenitis
c. [ ] Malignisation
d. [ ] Perforation
e. [ ] Penetration
250. The following changes in the appendix wall are found in chronic appendicitis:
a. [X] Sclerosis
b. [X] Atrophy
c. [ ] Gangrene
d. [X] Overgrowth of granulation tissue
e. [ ] Abscesses
251. As a result of chronic appendicitis may develop:
a. [X] Hydrocelle
b. [X] Mucocelle
c. [ ] Autoamputation
d. [ ] Portal hypertention
e. [ ] All of the above
252. Arrosive bleeding in peptic ulcerative disease is manifested by:
a. [X] Coffee grounds-like vomiting
b. [ ] Cachexia
c. [ ] Diffuse peritonitis
d. [X] Tarry stools
e. [X] Anemia

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253. Infiltration of gastric cancer in the head of the pancreas can lead to:
a. [ ] Hemolytic jaundice
b. [ ] Hepatocellular jaundice
c. [X] Mechanical jaundice
d. [X] Obstructive jaundice
e. [ ] Hepatic jaundice
254. The following are acute appendicitis possible complications:
a. [X] Peritonitis
b. [X] Pylephlebitis
c. [ ] Mezaortit
d. [X] Perityphlitis
e. [ ] Tonsillitis
255. Destructive ulcer complications include:
a. [ ] Pyloric stenosis
b. [X] Bleeding
c. [X] Penetration
d. [ ] Duodenal bulbs stenosis
e. [X] Perforation
256. The following are nonspecific cholera complications:
a. [X] Sepsis
b. [X] Erysipelas
c. [ ] Uremia
d. [X] Pneumonia
e. [ ] All of the above
257. The following are salmonellosis types:
a. [X] Typhoid
b. [X] Intestinal
c. [X] Septic
d. [ ] Allergic
e. [ ] The gastro-intestinal
258. The following dysentery steps are distinguished:
a. [X] Catarrhal colitis
b. [ ] Catarrhal enteritis
c. [ ] Encephaloid swelling
d. [X] Fibrinous colitis
e. [X] Ulcerative colitis
259. Symptoms of Grave's ophthalmopathy include all of the following:
a. [X] Bulging eyeballs
b. [X] Dry, irritated eyes and puffy eyelids
c. [ ] Cataracts
d. [X] Light sensitivity
e. [ ] Glaucoma
260. All of the following are symptoms of Cushing's syndrome:
a. [X] Severe fatigue and weakness
b. [ ] Vitamin B12 insufficiency
c. [X] Hypertension and elevated blood glucose
d. [X] A protruding hump between the shoulders
e. [ ] Hair loss
261. Symptoms of polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) may include all of the following:
a. [X] Pelvic pain
b. [X] Acne, oily skin, and dandruff
c. [ ] Anemia
d. [X] Infertility
e. [ ] Weight Loss

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262. Untreated hyperthyroidism during pregnancy may result in all of the following:
a. [X] Premature birth and miscarriage
b. [X] Low birth weight
c. [ ] Autism
d. [X] Preeclampsia
e. [ ] Hypotension
263. Endocrine disorders may be triggered by all of the following:
a. [X] Stress
b. [X] Infection
c. [ ] Vegetables abuse
d. [X] Chemicals in the food chain and environment
e. [ ] Cell phone use
264. All the following are risk factors for the development of osteoporotic fractures:
a. [ ] African-American race
b. [X] Current cigarette smoking
c. [X] Female sex
d. [X] Low body weight
e. [ ] Male sex
265. All of the following are hormones of the anterior pituitary EXCEPT
a. [ ] Vasopressin
b. [X] Follicle-stimulating hormone
c. [X] Adrenocorticotropic hormone
d. [X] Prolactin
e. [ ] Oxytocin
266. All of the following hormones are released in response to releasing hormones:
a. [ ] Adrenalin
b. [X] Human growth hormone
c. [X] Follicle stimulating hormone
d. [X] Prolactin
e. [ ] Oxytocin
267. Mineralcorticoids
a. [X] Are produced in the adrenal cortex
b. [X] Are steroid hormones
c. [X] Help regulate the homeostasis of sodium and potassium
d. [ ] Are produced by adrenal medula
e. [ ] Are prodused by ovarian cortex
268. Which of the following hormones are responsible for the fight-or-flight response?
a. [X] Epinephrine
b. [X] Norepinephrine
c. [ ] Acetylcholine
d. [ ] Calcitonin
e. [ ] Testosterone
269. For Addison's disease is characteristic:
a. [ ] Suprarenalism
b. [X] Bronze color of the skin
c. [ ] Obesity
d. [ ] Hypertension
e. [X] Hypoglycemia
270. Diabetes in young people has its own characteristics, highlight them:
a. [ ] Leads to obesity
b. [X] Leads to the exhaustion
c. [ ] Evaluates benign
d. [X] Evaluates malignant
e. [X] Prone to ketoacidosis

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271. Diabetes in old people has its own characteristics, highlight them:
a. [X] Leads to obesity
b. [ ] Leads to the exhaustion
c. [X] Evaluates benign
d. [ ] Evaluates malignant
e. [ ] Prone to ketoacidosis
272. Patients with diabetes mellitus die from the following reasons:
a. [ ] Diabetic coma
b. [ ] Hyperosmolar coma
c. [X] Uremia
d. [X] Myocardial infarction
e. [X] Limb gangrene
273. Patients with Graves' disease can often suffer of:
a. [X] Liver cirrhosis
b. [ ] Obesity
c. [X] Left ventricular hypertrophy
d. [X] Exophthalmos
e. [ ] Melanoderma
274. The following are colloidal goiter types:
a. [X] Proliferating
b. [ ] Tubular
c. [ ] Trabecular
d. [X] Macrofollicular
e. [X] Microfollicular
275. The heart in Graves' disease is characterized by:
a. [X] Cardiosclerosis
b. [X] Hypertrophy of the left ventricle
c. [ ] Stenosis of the mitral orifice
d. [ ] Parietal thrombosis
e. [ ] Obliteration of the pericardial cavity
276. Diabetic macro-angiopathy outcomes:
a. [X] Cardiosclerosis
b. [ ] Diabetic nephropathy
c. [X] Myocardial infarction
d. [X] Limb gangrene
e. [ ] Diabetic polyneuritis
277. Primary adrenal lesions include:
a. [ ] Hashimoto's disease
b. [ ] Panhypopituitarism
c. [ ] Graves' disease
d. [X] Addison's disease
e. [X] Conn's syndrom
278. Which of the following are potentially reversible cellular responses?
a. [ ] Necrosis
b. [X] Metaplasia
c. [X] Atrophy
d. [X] Hyperplasia
e. [ ] Apoptosis
279. Which of the following are NOT evidence of irreversible cell injury?
a. [X] Acute cell swelling ("cellular edema")
b. [ ] Calcium chunks in the mitochondria
c. [ ] Nuclear pyknosis
d. [ ] Rupture of the lysosomes
e. [X] Lipidic degeneration

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280. Which of the following is NOT characteristic of reversible cell injury?

a. [ ] Reduced oxidative phosphorylation
b. [ ] ATP depletion
c. [X] Cellular shrinking
d. [ ] Changes in ion concentrations
e. [X] Caryolysis
281. Which of the following would NOT be an ultrastructural change seen in a reversibly injured cell?
a. [X] Apoptosis
b. [ ] Microvillli distortion
c. [ ] Myelin figured
d. [ ] Amorphous densities
e. [X] Cell shrinking
282. Which of the following would NOT be associated with metastatic calcification?
a. [ ] Increased secretion of parathyroid hormone (PTH)
b. [X] Atherocalcinosis
c. [X] Gallbladder lithiasis
d. [ ] Renal failure
e. [X] Aortic stenosis
283. Reperfusion cellular injury is caused by
a. [X] High intracellular concentrations of Calcium
b. [ ] High intracellular concentrations of Potasssium
c. [X] Free radical release
d. [ ] Vitamin E
e. [X] Nitric oxide
284. Apoptosis
a. [ ] Occurs following acute deprivation of blood
b. [X] Occurs during embryogenesis
c. [ ] Leads to damage to neighbouring cells
d. [X] Follows activation of caspase 3
e. [X] Is triggered when there is irreversible damage to cellular DNA
285. Langhans giant cells
a. [ ] Are the antigen presenting cells in the skin
b. [X] Have a peripheral ring of nuclei with central clearing
c. [X] Are characteristically seen in tuberculosis
d. [ ] Have nuclei scattered randomly through the cytoplasm
e. [X] Are derived from macrophage
286. The marked enlargement of the uterus that occurs with pregnancy is accompanied by histopathologic
evidence for an increase in:
a. [X] Myometrial cell numbers
b. [ ] Nuclear anaplasia
c. [ ] Cellular DNA content
d. [X] Myometrial cell size
e. [ ] Fibroblasts and collagen
287. Melting of dead tissue is observed at:
a. [X] Myomalacia
b. [X] Encephalomalacia
c. [ ] Mummification
d. [ ] Coagulation
e. [ ] Ossification
288. Myocardial infarction cases can be:
a. [ ] Ossification
b. [X] Angiospasm
c. [ ] Petrification
d. [X] Thrombosis
e. [X] Embolism
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289. Necrotic process steps are:

a. [ ] Petrification
b. [ ] Ossification
c. [X] Autolysis
d. [ ] Suppuration
e. [X] Bionecrosis
290. Which of the following are morphological necrosis types?
a. [ ] Paranecrosis
b. [X] Fat necrosis
c. [ ] Protein necrosis
d. [X] Coagulative necrosis
e. [X] Caseous necrosis
291. Which are cellular necrosis characteristic processes?
a. [ ] Hemochromatosis
b. [X] Karyopyknosis
c. [ ] Hialinosis
d. [X] Cytolysis
e. [X] Plasmolysis
292. Which are necrosis etiologic types?
a. [ ] Allergic
b. [X] Vascular
c. [ ] Focal
d. [X] Toxic
e. [X] Biologic
293. The following are the microscopic features of necrosis:
a. [ ] Meiosis
b. [ ] Mitosis
c. [X] Plasmorexis
d. [ ] Plasmochinesis
e. [X] Plasmolysis
294. Necrosis unfavorable outcomes include:
a. [ ] Organization
b. [ ] Petrification
c. [X] Purulent fusion
d. [ ] Inflammation ream
e. [X] Sepsis
295. Cellular cytoplasm suffers the following changes:
a. [ ] Karyolysis
b. [X] Protein denaturation
c. [X] Protein coagulation
d. [X] Plasmorexis
e. [ ] Nucleic acids polymerization
296. Etiologic types of necrosis are:
a. [ ] Parenchymatous
b. [X] Traumatic
c. [X] Allergic
d. [ ] Caseous
e. [X] Infectious
297. The following are necrosis microscopic features:
a. [ ] Karyokinesis
b. [X] Karyorexis
c. [X] Karyolysis
d. [ ] Karyomitosis
e. [X] Karyopiknosis

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298. Relatively favorable necrosis outcomes include:

a. [X] Organization
b. [X] Petrification
c. [ ] Malignisasion
d. [ ] Purulent fusion
e. [X] Incapsulation
299. Which are the nuclear changes characterized for necrosis?
a. [X] Chromatin condensation
b. [X] Nucleic acids depolimerization
c. [ ] Glycogen synthesis
d. [ ] Kariokinesis
e. [ ] Karyopyknosis
300. Caseous necrosis in tuberculosis is:
a. [X] Coagulative
b. [X] Direct
c. [ ] Indirect
d. [ ] Wet
e. [ ] Fibrinoid
301. In the myocardial infarction the crucial roles play:
a. [X] Arterial thrombosis
b. [ ] Hypofunction of the organ
c. [ ] Allergy
d. [X] Functional overload
e. [X] Insufficient collateral circulation
302. Varieties of cell injury are:
a. [ ] Metaplasia
b. [X] Degeneration
c. [ ] Apoptosis
d. [X] Necrosis
e. [ ] Sclerosis
303. The following are degeneration causes:
a. [ ] Decomposition
b. [X] Dysfunction of transport systems
c. [X] Endocrine dysfunction
d. [X] Autoregulatory system of cell disturbances
e. [ ] Fanerosis
304. Types of degeneration depending on their locations:
a. [X] Parenchymatous
b. [X] Mesenchymal
c. [X] Mixed
d. [ ] Proteic
e. [ ] Lipidic
305. Which of the following are fatty liver causes?
a. [ ] Increased blood inflow
b. [ ] Rheumatic fever
c. [X] Hypoxia
d. [ ] Hypertension
e. [X] Decrease blood outflow
306. Which structures predominantly is renal amyloid deposited?
a. [X] Vascular wall
b. [X] Capillary loops and mesangium of glomeruli
c. [ ] Cytoplasm of nephrothelium
d. [ ] Vascular lumen
e. [ ] Al of the above

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307. Characterize heart lipomatosis in obesity.

a. [ ] Lipids are deposited udder endocardium
b. [X] Lipids are deposited udder pericardium
c. [X] Lipids are deposited in myocardial stroma
d. [ ] Lipids are deposited in the cell cytoplasm
e. [ ] All of the above
308. The followings are referred to the macroscopic diagnosis of amyloidosis:
a. [X] Virchow reaction
b. [X] Lugol solution
c. [ ] 10% Hydrochloric acid
d. [ ] 10% Osmic acid
e. [X] 10% Sulfuric acid
309. The followings are referred to proteic mesenchimal degeneration:
a. [X] Mucoid intumescence
b. [ ] Plasmatic impregnation
c. [X] Fibrinoid intumescemce
d. [X] Amyloidosis
e. [ ] Hemosiderosis
310. Small arteries hyalinosis is typical for:
a. [X] Essential hypertension
b. [X] Secondary hypertension
c. [X] Diabetic microangiopaty
d. [ ] Diabetic macroangiopaty
e. [ ] Aterosclerosis
311. According to external manifestation obesity is typed:
a. [X] Symmetric
b. [X] Superior
c. [ ] Intermediary
d. [X] Inferior
e. [ ] Asymmetric
312. The followings are etiologic types of amyloidosis:
a. [ ] Localized
b. [ ] Generalized
c. [X] Primary
d. [X] Secondary
e. [X] Hereditary
313. Amyloid cardiomegaly is characterized by deposition of abnormal protein:
a. [X] Under endocardium
b. [ ] In cardiomyocytes cytoplasm
c. [X] Into vascular stroma
d. [ ] Nerves
e. [ ] Along epicardial vessels
314. Connective tissue hyalinosis is characterized by:
a. [ ] Flabby consistence
b. [X] Dens consistence
c. [X] White – gray color
d. [ ] Black color
e. [X] Semitransparent
315. Mechanical jaundice is typical for:
a. [ ] Acute hepatitis
b. [X] Cholelithiasis
c. [X] Biliary atresia
d. [X] Hypoplasia of the bile ducts
e. [ ] Hemolytic disease

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316. Metastatic calcification affects the following organs:

a. [X] Lungs
b. [ ] Pancreas
c. [X] Stomach
d. [ ] Veins
e. [X] Heart
317. Deposition of lime in dystrophic calcification is characterized by:
a. [X] Predominantly local process
b. [ ] Predominantly generalized process
c. [X] Forming the petrified
d. [ ] Accumulates due to hyperkalemia
e. [ ] It makes gouty tophi
318. The followings are causes of parenchymal jaundice:
a. [ ] Acute inflammation of the common bile channel
b. [X] Hepatocytes injury
c. [ ] Hemolysis of erythrocytes
d. [X] Acute hepatitis
e. [X] Liver cirrhosis
319. Classification of jaundice according to mechanism development:
a. [X] Hemolytic
b. [ ] Hypostatic
c. [X] Mechanical
d. [X] Parenchymatous
e. [ ] Biliary
320. Metastatic calcification occurs when:
a. [X] Destruction of bone by tumors
b. [X] Parathormone excess
c. [ ] Calcitonin excess
d. [ ] Hypocalcaemia
e. [ ] All of the above
321. Prehepatic jaundice causes are the following:
a. [ ] Acute hepatitis
b. [X] Hemolytic poisons
c. [X] Isoimmune and autoimmune conflicts
d. [ ] Tumors of duodenal papilla
e. [ ] Liver cirrhosis
322. Which are the causes of infarction?
a. [ ] Calcification
b. [X] Angiospasm
c. [X] Thrombosis
d. [X] Embolism
e. [ ] Necrosis
323. Select the statements about red blood cells that are incorrect.
a. [ ] Mature red blood cells lack nuclei.
b. [ ] Red blood cells contain hemoglobin.
c. [X] Deoxyhemoglobin carries oxygen.
d. [ ] Red blood cells lack mitochondria.
e. [X] Red blood cells lack Golgi system
324. Name Macrocytic normochromic anemia
a. [X] Pernicious anemia
b. [ ] Sideroblastic anemia
c. [X] Folate deficiency anemia
d. [ ] Iron deficiency anemia
e. [ ] All of the above

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325. Select Hodgkin disease variants:

a. [ ] Immunoblastic
b. [X] Lymphohistiocytic
c. [X] Mixed
d. [ ] Eosinophilic
e. [ ] Mycosis fungoides
326. Highlight systemic neoplastic diseases of the hematopoietic tissues:
a. [X] hemoblastoses
b. [ ] Malignant lymphoma
c. [X] Leukemias
d. [ ] Leucoderma
e. [ ] Regional neoplastic diseases of the hematopoietic tissue
327. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia is:
a. [ ] Leukemia of B-system lymphopoiesis
b. [X] Leukemia of T-system lymphopoiesis
c. [ ] Elderly leukemia
d. [X] Childhood leukemia
e. [ ] All of the above
328. The following forms of chronic leukemia can be distinguished:
a. [X] Myelocytic leukemia
b. [ ] Undifferentiated leukemia
c. [X] Lymphocytic leukemia
d. [ ] Lymphoblastic leukemia
e. [X] Monocytic leukemia
329. Depending on the degree of blood cell maturity leukemia is classified:
a. vLeukopenic
b. [X] Acute
c. [ ] Aleukemic
d. [X] Chronic
e. [ ] Leukemic
330. Acute myeloid leukemia is characterized by:
a. [ ] Presence of all cellular forms
b. [X] Leukemic failure
c. [X] Pus like bone marrow
d. [ ] Pronounced hemorrhagic syndrome
e. [ ] Preservation of immunological homeostasis
331. Describe chronic lymphocytic leukemia:
a. [ ] Usually occurs in children
b. [X] Usually occurs in middle-aged and elderly
c. [ ] Develop of the T-lymphopoiesis syastem
d. [X] Develop of the B-lymphopoiesis system
e. [X] Are of relatively long benign course
332. Characteristic signs of acute lymphoblastic leucosis:
a. [X] Afects children and adolescents
b. [ ] Is resistant to chemotherapy
c. [ ] Atrophy of the spleen
d. [X] Leukemic infiltration is frequently seen thymus and anterior mediastinum
e. [X] Tumor cells belong to T-system of lymfphopoiesis
333. Histological diagnosis of Hodjkin iymphoma is based on:
a. [ ] Mixed cellularity
b. [X] Reed-Sternberg cells polynucleic
c. [ ] Diffuse fibrosis
d. [X] Small and large Hodgkin cell l
e. [ ] Hystiocytes proliferation

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334. Which of the following statements regarding multiple myeloma are correct?
a. [X] Flat bones are mostlly affected
b. [X] Tumor cells secrete pathological immunoglobulins
c. [ ] Tumor cells are t-cell derived;
d. [X] Al- amyloidosis is the most common complication
e. [ ] Is epidemic process
335. Which of the listed criteria are associated to multiple myeloma?
a. [X] Renal failure
b. [X] Hypercalcemia
c. [ ] T-cell proliferation
d. [X] Tumor cells secrete paraproteins
e. [ ] Myocardial infarction.
336. Which of the following statements listed on Hodgkin disease are correct?
a. [ ] Massive hepatomegaly;
b. [X] Mixed cellularity
c. [X] Lymphocytes depletion
d. [X] Nodular sclerosis
e. [ ] Hiatus leukemicus.
337. Leukemia are characterised by:
a. [X] Bone marrow pus like appearance
b. [ ] Cerebral abscess
c. [X] Leukemic infiltration of parenchymal organs
d. [X] Splenomegaly
e. [ ] Myocardial infarction.
338. Hemolytic anemia due to extravascular hemolysis is characterized by a triad:
a. [ ] Hepatomegaly
b. [X] Anemia
c. [X] Splenomegaly
d. [ ] Hyperemia
e. [X] Jaundice
339. Iron deficient anemia can be caused by:
a. [X] Insufficient intake of iron from food+
b. [ ] Increased iron desorption
c. [X] As a result of gastric or duodenal surgery+
d. [ ] Resection of appendices
e. [ ] Increased demands of pregnant women with iron
340. Which of the following are etiologic types of hemolytic anemia?
a. [ ] Pernicious
b. [X] Toxic
c. [X] Infectious
d. [X] Post transfusion
e. [ ] B-12 deficient
341. Anemia can be caused by:
a. [X] Hemorrhage
b. [ ] Normopoetic function of the bone marrow
c. [X] Insufficient erythropoetic function of the bone marrow
d. [ ] Physiologic hemolysis of erythrocytes
e. [X] Increased hemolysis
342. Hereditary deficiency fundic gastric glands can lead to:
a. [ ] Post-hemorrhagic anemia
b. [X] Pernicious anemia
c. [X] Biermer's disease
d. [ ] Hemolytic anemia
e. [ ] All of the above

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343. According to the evolution posthemorrhagic anemia can be:

a. [ ] Intravascular
b. [X] Acute
c. [ ] Extravascular
d. [X] Chronic
e. [ ] Vitamin b-12-deficient
344. Intravascular hemolytic anemia is usually caused by:
a. [X] Hemolytic poisons
b. [ ] Neurotoxic poisons
c. [X] Large burns
d. [X] Blood transfusion
e. [ ] All of the above
345. Pathogenetic classification of anemia:
a. [ ] Adaptive
b. [X] Posthemorrhagic
c. [X] Hemolytic
d. [ ] Posttransfusional
e. [X] Dishematopoietic
346. After a hearty but not fatal hemorrhage the following changes occur:
a. [ ] Tubular bone marrow become yellow
b. [X] Tubular bone marrow become red
c. [ ] Megaloblastic hematopoiesis occur
d. [ ] Extramedulary hematopoiesis hotspots appear
e. [X] Nucleated erythrocytes may appear in the peripheral blood
347. B-12 deficient anemia is:
a. [ ] Posthemorrhagic
b. [X] Megaloblastic
c. [ ] Leukoanemic
d. [X] Hyperchromic
e. [ ] Hypochromic
348. Deficient anemia may develop due to insufficiency of:
a. [ ] Iron
b. [X] Vitamin B-12
c. [ ] Vitamin -1
d. [ ] Hydrochloric acid
e. [X] Folic acid
349. Iron deficient anemia usually develops in the following condition:
a. [ ] Teeth extraction
b. [X] Gastric resection
c. [ ] Mastectomy
d. [X] Intestinal resection
e. [ ] Nephrectomy
350. The following are types of local atrophy:
a. [X] Dysfunctional
b. [X] Ischemic
c. [ ] Reparative
d. [ ] Compensatory
e. [ ] All of the above
351. Regenerative hypertrophy due cell hyperplasia is characteristic for:
a. [X] Liver
b. [ ] Myocardium
c. [X] Kidney
d. [ ] Brain
e. [ ] Pancreas

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352. Organization process includes:

a. [X] Wound healing
b. [ ] Prozoplaziya
c. [X] Substitution of necrosis area connective tissue
d. [ ] Histological accommodation
e. [X] Encapsulation
353. Adaptation processes are most clearly presented by:
a. [ ] Healing
b. [X] Atrophy
c. [ ] Regeneration
d. [X] Restructure of tissues
e. [X] Metaplasia
354. Examples of pathological regeneration may be:
a. [ ] Obliteration of umbilical vessels
b. [X] Keloid formation
c. [ ] Obliteration of arterial duct
d. [X] Excessive bone formation
e. [X] Metaplasia
355. Pathologic regeneration is manifested by:
a. [ ] Restitution
b. [X] Hyporegeneration
c. [X] Hyperregeneration
d. [ ] Substitution
e. [ ] Tissue accommodation
356. Kimatogenezis period is classified into:
a. [ ] Progenesis
b. [X] Blastogenesis
c. [X] Embryogenesis
d. [X] Early and late fetal period
e. [ ] All of the above
357. Acording to the body extention, malformations are classified into:
a. [ ] Isolated
b. [ ] Systemic
c. [ ] Primary
d. [ ] Multiple
e. [ ] Secondary
358. The central nervous system defects include:
a. [ ] Infarction
b. [X] Acrania
c. [X] Microgyria
d. [ ] Hydrocele
e. [ ] Piocefalia
359. Perinatal periodis classified into:
a. [X] Antenatal
b. [X] Intrapartum
c. [X] Early neonatal
d. [ ] Late neonatal
e. [ ] Prenatal
360. The following are the prenatal periods:
a. [ ] Progenesis
b. [X] Blastogenesis
c. [X] Embryogenesis
d. [X] Fetogenesis
e. [ ] Neonatal period

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361. The embryopathies are characterized by the following statements:

a. [X] Missing of the organs
b. [X] Incomplete development of the organs
c. [X] Shape modifications
d. [ ] Diplopagus
e. [ ] Heteropagus
362. Congenital malformations of the nervous system are:
a. [X] Anencephaly
b. [X] Microcephaly
c. [X] Cerebral herniations
d. [ ] Meningitis
e. [ ] Epispadias
363. Congenital malformations of the heart are:
a. [X] Ventricular septal defect
b. [X] Tetralogy of Fallot
c. [ ] Myocardial infarction
d. [ ] Mitral stenosis
e. [ ] Atrial septal defect
364. The following cardiac malformations are cyanotic:
a. [ ] Ventricular septal defect
b. [X] Tetralogy of Fallot
c. [X] Transposition of the grate vessels
d. [ ] Decstrocardia
e. [ ] Aortic coarctation
365. The following cardiac malformations are pale:
a. [X] Atrial septal defect
b. [X] Ventricular septal defect
c. [ ] Tetralogy of Fallot
d. [ ] Trilogy of Fallot
e. [ ] Transposition of the grate vessels
366. The following signs are related to overmaturity:
a. [X] Dryness, shelling, partial skin maceration
b. [X] General hypotrophy
c. [X] Presence of ossify nucleuses of proximal epiphysis of tibia and humeral bones
d. [ ] Absence or weak expressed of ossification nuclei
e. [ ] Presence of malformations
367. Which of the following statements about senile prostatic hyperplasia is incorrect?
a. [ ] It occurs in about 90% of males over 70 years old
b. [X] Typically involves the periuretheral region of prostate
c. [ ] Hyperplasia of both glands and stroma is seen histologically
d. [X] It is a risk factor for prostatic carcinoma
e. [ ] It may lead to urination disturbances
368. Prostate cancer most frequent histologic types are:
a. [ ] Epidermoid carcinoma
b. [ ] Transitional cell carcinomas
c. [X] Adenocarcinoma
d. [X] Nondifferentiated carcinoma
e. [ ] All of them
369. The secondary Syphilis is characterized by the followings:
a. [X] Macular rash
b. [ ] Syphilitic gummas
c. [ ] Langhans cells
d. [X] Condyloma lata
e. [ ] Condylomas in to the intima

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370. The tertiary Syphilis is characterized by the followings:

a. [ ] Macular rash
b. [X] Syphilitic gummas
c. [X] Neurosyphilis
d. [X] Aortitis
e. [ ] Condyloma lata
371. Congenital syphilis is characterized by the followings:
a. [ ] Macular rash
b. [ ] Syphilitic gumas
c. [X] Hutchinson teeth
d. [X] Eight nerve deafness
e. [ ] Condyloma lata
372. Depending on the septic focus location we distinguish following types:
a. [ ] Septicemia
b. [ ] Hroniosepsis
c. [X] Tonzillogennic
d. [X] Uterine
e. [X] Otogenic
373. The so-called peripheral signs of septic endocarditis include:
a. [X] Liebmann lesions
b. [ ] Vakez -Osler syndrome
c. [X] Osler nodes
d. [ ] Dubois abscesses
e. [X] Janeway lesions
374. Clinical Signs of Septic Shock are the following:
a. [X] Myocardial Depression
b. [X] Altered Vasculature
c. [X] Altered Organ Perfusion
d. [ ] Altered lymph out flow
e. [ ] Melanosis
375. The following changes characterize septic shock:
a. [X] Imbalance of O2 delivery and Consumption
b. [X] Metabolic (Lactic) Acidosis
c. [ ] Aschoff bodies
d. [ ] Hemorrhagic infarction
e. [ ] All of the above
376. Which of these organisms can cause sepsis:
a. [X] Bacteria
b. [ ] Buterflay
c. [ ] Animal parasites
d. [ ] Viruses
e. [X] Mycobacterium
377. Thefollowing adrenal glands change develop in the umbilical sepsis:
a. [ ] Cortical or medullary cell hyperplasia
b. [X] Necrosis
c. [X] Hemorrhage
d. [X] Delipidization
e. [ ] Depigmentation
378. The following change may occur in the brain in sepsis:
a. [X] Swelling of the brain tissue
b. [ ] Amyloidosis
c. [X] Purulent inflammation
d. [X] Degeneration of nerve cells
e. [ ] Multiple aneurysms of the arteries

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379. Coronary artery thrombosis is followed by:

a. [ ] Gangrene
b. [X] Infarction
c. [ ] Hemosiderosis
d. [ ] Lipomatosis
e. [ ] Brown atrophy
380. The most common fatal complication of chronic peptic ulcer of the stomach is:
a. [ ] Adenocarcinoma
b. [ ] Acute gastritis
c. [X] Perforation and peritonitis
d. [ ] Pancreatitis
e. [ ] Pyloric outlet obstruction

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