CL Mock 4 PDF

CL MOCK 4
Sec 1
Directions for questions 1 to 6: The passage given below is followed by a set of six
questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.
In our time it is broadly true that political writing is bad writing. Where it is not
true, it will generally be found that the writer is some kind of rebel, expressing
his private opinions and not a “party line.” Orthodoxy, of whatever color, seems
to demand a lifeless, imitative style. The political dialects to be found in
pamphlets, leading articles, manifestoes, White papers and the speeches of
undersecretaries do, of course, vary from party to party, but they are all alike in
that one almost never finds in them a fresh, vivid, homemade turn of speech.
When one watches some tired hack on the platform mechanically repeating the
familiar phrases — bestial atrocities, iron heel, bloodstained tyranny, free peoples
of the world, stand shoulder to shoulder — one often has a curious feeling that one
is not watching a live human being but some kind of dummy: a feeling which
suddenly becomes stronger at moments when the light catches the speaker’s
spectacles and turns them into blank discs which seem to have no eyes behind
them. And this is not altogether fanciful. A speaker who uses that kind of
phraseology has gone some distance toward turning himself into a machine. The
appropriate noises are coming out of his larynx, but his brain is not involved as it
would be if he were choosing his words for himself. If the speech he is making is
one that he is accustomed to make over and over again, he may be almost
unconscious of what he is saying, as one is when one utters the responses in
church. And this reduced state of consciousness, if not indispensable, is at any
rate favorable to political conformity.
In our time, political speech and writing are largely the defense of the
indefensible. Things like the continuance of British rule in India, the Russian
purges and deportations, the dropping of the atom bombs on Japan, can indeed
be defended, but only by arguments which are too brutal for most people to face,
and which do not square with the professed aims of the political parties. Thus
political language has to consist largely of euphemism, question-begging and
sheer cloudy vagueness. Defenseless villages are bombarded from the air, the
inhabitants driven out into the countryside, the cattle machine-gunned, the huts
set on fire with incendiary bullets: this is called pacification. Millions of peasants
are robbed of their farms and sent trudging along the roads with no more than
they can carry: this is called transfer of population or rectification of frontiers.
People are imprisoned for years without trial, or shot in the back of the neck or
sent to die of scurvy in Arctic lumber camps: this is called elimination of
unreliable elements. Such phraseology is needed if one wants to name things
without calling up mental pictures of them. Consider for instance some
comfortable English professor defending Russian totalitarianism. He cannot say
outright, “I believe in killing off your opponents when you can get good results
by doing so.” Probably, therefore, he will say something like this:
“While freely conceding that the Soviet regime exhibits certain features which
the humanitarian may be inclined to deplore, we must, I think, agree that a
certain curtailment of the right to political opposition is an unavoidable
concomitant of transitional periods, and that the rigors which the Russian people
have been called upon to undergo have been amply justified in the sphere of
concrete achievement.”
Q.1
What can be inferred from the example of an English professor defending
Russian totalitarianism?
a Some actions of the Russian political class need to be defended.
b Some despicable actions of the Russians are consciously dismissed by some

as collateral damage.
c Many people in the West find themselves defending the indefensible actions
of Russia.
d The British or Western actions are in general not in any need of such
defense.
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o Answer key/Solution
Solution:
Option (b) is the correct answer because the English professor justifies the
actions of Russia under the guise of transition and achievement. This treats the
negative fallouts of such actions as collateral damage. Option (a) and (d) are
incorrect because both the options talk opposite to what the author has clearly
mentioned in the passage in the term ‘defense of the indefensible’. Option (c) is
incorrect because the term ‘many people’ is a clear indicator of generalization as
no such information is provided in the passage.
Correct Answer : b
Q.2
Why, according to the author, are euphemisms so common in political parlance?
a Euphemisms can be pleasing to the ear.
b Euphemisms do not raise any hackles.

c Euphemisms can sugarcoat the bitter truth.
d Euphemisms are a linguistic tool in the manipulative hands of the

politicians.
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Solution:
Option (c) is the correct answer as can be seen from the line ‘Such phraseology is
needed if one wants to name things without calling up mental pictures of them’.
Option (a) and (b) are eliminated because these are the possible outcomes of the
usage of euphemisms. They are not the central reason for usage of euphemisms
and these options are hence restricted in scope. Option (d) is invalidated by the
use of the word ‘are’ which signifies certainty and it generalizes the politicians.
Correct Answer : c
Q.3
What, according to the author, are the ill-effects of using hackneyed language?
a It makes the users mindlessly mimic political ideologies and engage in

stale writing.
b It indulges deliberately in clouded vagueness, which makes it impossible for

the listener to figure out the intended meaning of the speaker.
c It allows the users to be insincere about their chosen topic.
d It is used by people to obfuscate the truth and to defend politically, actions

which are contemptible.
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Solution:
Option (a) is correct because the author clearly mentions trite phrases like
‘bestial atrocities etc.’ to tell the readers the effects of such phrases which are
‘imitative style, adhering to a political line’ etc. Option (b), (c) and (d) are related
to the uses of euphemisms in paragraph two and not the clichés in paragraph
one. This makes them incorrect.
Correct Answer : a
Q.4
What is the theme of this passage?
a Political communication and the misuse of euphemisms
b Political communication and the usage of clichéd phrases
c Deliberately obfuscating political communication
d Political communication and the English language
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Solution:
Option (d) is the correct answer because just mentioning the misuse of
euphemisms or the usage of clichéd phrases stated in the first and the second
paragraph would not holistically represent the topic. Therefore, Options (a) and
(b) are incorrect choices. Option (c) is invalidated as the first paragraph is about
aping already existing ideas and behavior; it is not about ‘deliberately
obfuscating’ communication.
Correct Answer : d
Q.5
According to the author, which of the terms given below would most aptly
replace ‘pacification’ and ‘rectification of frontiers’?
a ‘Political stabilization’ and ‘agricultural reform’
b ‘Spreading democracy’ and ‘land reform’
c ‘Big brother politics’ and ‘boundary dispute resolution’
d ‘State terrorism’ and ‘forced migration’
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Solution:
Option (d) is the correct answer because in the sentence, “Defenseless villages
are…..” it describes pacification and in the sentence, “Millions of peasants are
robbed…..” truly addresses the rectification of frontiers. Options (a), (b), and (c)
are incorrect as they purposely try to cover up the true meaning ‘Pacification’
and ‘Rectification of Frontiers’.
Correct Answer : d
Q.6
Why are some phrases used again and again in political speech?
a The users feel such phrases are fashionable.
b The users feel such phrases are understood by everybody.
c The users are lazy and do not put in the effort of creating a fresh turn of
speech.
d The users thoughtlessly concur with pre-existing ideas and phrases.
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Solution:
Option (d) is the correct answer because it is mentioned in the sentence, “The
political dialects….. homemade turn of speech.” Option (a) is incorrect because
fashions are transient, also it is not mentioned in the passage. Option (b) is
incorrect because the passage does not mention that these phrases are used by
people so that everybody can understand them. Option (c) is incorrect because it
is not mentioned in the passage.
Correct Answer : d
Directions for questions 7 to 12: The passage given below is followed by a set of
six questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.
Saints should always be judged guilty until they are proved innocent, but the
tests that have to be applied to them are not, of course, the same in all cases. In
Gandhi’s case the questions one feels inclined to ask are: to what extent was
Gandhi moved by vanity — by the consciousness of himself as a humble, naked
old man, sitting on a praying-mat and shaking empires by sheer spiritual power
— and to what extent did he compromise his own principles by entering politics,
which of their nature are inseparable from coercion and fraud? To give a
definite answer one would have to study Gandhi’s acts and writings in immense
detail, for his whole life was a sort of pilgrimage in which every act was
significant. But this partial autobiography, which ends in the nineteen-twenties,
is strong evidence in his favour, all the more because it covers what he would
have called the unregenerate part of his life and reminds one that inside the
saint, or near-saint, there was a very shrewd, able person who could, if he had
chosen, have been a brilliant success as a lawyer, an administrator or perhaps
even a businessman.
At about the time when the autobiography first appeared I remember reading its
opening chapters in the ill-printed pages of some Indian newspaper. They made
a good impression on me, which Gandhi himself at that time, did not. The things
that one associated with him — home-spun cloth, ‘soul forces’ and vegetarianism
— were unappealing, and his medievalist programme was obviously not viable in
a backward, starving, overpopulated country. It was also apparent that the
British were making use of him, or thought they were making use of him. Strictly
speaking, as a Nationalist, he was an enemy, but since in every crisis he would
exert himself to prevent violence — which, from the British point of view, meant
preventing any effective action whatever — he could be regarded as ‘our man’.
In private this was sometimes cynically admitted. The attitude of the Indian
millionaires was similar. Gandhi called upon them to repent, and naturally they
preferred him to the Socialists and Communists who, given the chance, would
actually have taken their money away. How reliable such calculations are in the
long run is doubtful; as Gandhi himself says, ‘in the end deceivers deceive only
themselves’; but at any rate the gentleness with which he was nearly always
handled was due partly to the feeling that he was useful. The British
Conservatives only became really angry with him when, as in 1942, he was in
effect turning his non-violence against a different conqueror.
But I could see even then that the British officials who spoke of him with a
mixture of amusement and disapproval also genuinely liked and admired him,
after a fashion. Nobody ever suggested that he was corrupt, or ambitious in any
vulgar way, or that anything he did was actuated by fear or malice. In judging a
man like Gandhi one seems instinctively to apply high standards, so that some of
his virtues have passed almost unnoticed. For instance, it is clear even from the
autobiography that his natural physical courage was quite outstanding: the
manner of his death was a later illustration of this, for a public man who
attached any value to his own skin would have been more adequately guarded.
Again, he seems to have been quite free from that maniacal suspiciousness
which, as E. M. Forster rightly says in A Passage to India, is the besetting Indian
vice, as hypocrisy is the British vice. Although no doubt he was shrewd enough in
detecting dishonesty, he seems wherever possible to have believed that other
people were acting in good faith and had a better nature through which they
could be approached. And though he came of a poor middle-class family, started
life rather unfavourably, and was probably of unimpressive physical
appearance, he was not afflicted by envy or by the feeling of inferiority. Colour
feeling when he first met it in its worst form in South Africa, seems rather to
have astonished him.
Q.7
Which of these options best describes the tone of the author?
a Nonpartisan
b Objective
c Homiletic
d Critical
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Solution:
Option (b) is the correct answer because this passage is a sort of a qualified and
balanced reaction to Gandhi’s actions in life. Option (a) is incorrect because
‘nonpartisan’ refers to an unbiased attitude, especially referring political
affiliations and attitude and no such information about the author’s political
leanings is evident in the passage. Option (c) and (d) are incorrect as the author
qualifies his criticism in paragraph one with paragraph two which describes
Gandhi in a positive manner.
Correct Answer : b
even a businessman.
Q.8
The purpose behind the author’s description of Gandhi’s life as a pilgrimage was
to show that
a Gandhi was associated with things like, ‘soul forces’, vegetarianism and
home spun cloth; all of which could be termed as spiritual journeys.
b Gandhi’s actions, many of which were virtuous, were never criticized as

corrupt, or ambitious in any vulgar way.
c Gandhi’s life was replete with significant actions that could inform us
about the verity of his sainthood and the nuances of his personality.
d Gandhi’s spiritual pursuits, significant as they were, were not subordinated

by his political pursuits.
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Solution:
Option (c) is the correct as can be seen from the first half of the sentence ‘To give
a definite answer….’. Option (a) and (b) are pertaining to the second and the
third paragraphs respectively. These paragraphs are not related to the author
discussing the fact that Gandhi’s life must be studied in detail to truly know him.
Option (d) goes beyond the scope of the passage.
Correct Answer : c
even a businessman.
Q.9
Why does the author say “Saints should always…….innocent”?
a Saints are cheats which is why their actions need to be brought under the
scanner.
b Saints are hypocritical and this maxim would allow people to question their
teachings.
c Sainthood is achieved by fooling people into believing that saints are

superior to ordinary men and this allows them to dominate others.
d Certain saintly qualities are attributed to some people which makes a

critical analysis of their personalities difficult.
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Solution:
Option (d) is the correct answer because one hears exaggerated accounts of the
lives of saints that and it becomes difficult to determine how much is true.
Options (a) and (b) are incorrect because the passage nowhere supports the
extreme language of saints being cheat and hypocritical. Option (c) is incorrect
because it is not mentioned anywhere in the passage how sainthood is achieved.
Hence this information is beyond the passage.
Correct Answer : d
even a businessman.
Q.10
The author says “It was apparent……they were making use of him” to suggest
that
a Gandhi’s actions were mostly inimical to the cause of the Indian freedom
movement.
b the British thought they were using Gandhi while Gandhi thought he was
using them.
c the British government felt that Gandhi’s actions were designed to help the
British.
d the British thought that they were using Gandhi for their ends whereas the
truth was quite different.
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Solution:
Option (d) is the correct answer because the phrase ‘or thought they were
making use of him’ conveys the intended idea. Option (a) is incorrect because the
passage states very clearly that ‘The British Conservatives only became really
angry … against a different conqueror’, indicating that Gandhi did have a
positive impact on the freedom struggle. Options (b) and (c) are incorrect
because the usage of ‘or they thought they were using him’ and the fact that he
angered the British Conservatives suggest that he was not their puppet.
Correct Answer : d
even a businessman.
Q.11
The phrase ‘ambitious in any vulgar way’ is used in the passage to show that
a ambition has a natural tendency to be vulgar as it involves one-

upmanship.
b ambition represents greed and excessive competitiveness both of which are

vulgar.
c ambition when used exclusively for personal gain is a mark of vulgarity.
d ambition can be vulgar but in some cases one can overcome such
tendencies.
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Solution:
Option (d) is the correct answer because the word vulgar means coarse or crude
or not having good taste. Implied in the statement is the fact that ambition can
either be vulgar or not vulgar. Gandhi’s ambition was not vulgar which makes
option (d) the only possible choice. Options (a), (b) and (c) are correct in this
regard but they don’t tell us why the author has used the phrase.
Correct Answer : d
even a businessman.
Q.12
Gandhi called upon the millionaires to repent because
a the millionaires were overindulgent and so they had to repent their sins.
b the millionaires had cheated the people of India to build their fortunes.
c the millionaires had cheated the government of Britain to build their

fortunes.
d the millionaires had possibly, amassed wealth while the rest of the country
had not benefited.
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Solution:
Option (d) uses the word ‘possibly’, also the later reference in the passage to
‘Socialists and the Communists who would’ve taken their money away’ makes
Option (d) the correct answer. There is no evidence for options (a), (b) and (c) in
the passage.
Correct Answer : d
Once, in a dry season, I wrote in large letters across two pages of a notebook that
innocence ends when one is stripped of the delusion that one likes oneself.
Although now, some years later, I marvel that a mind on the outs with itself
should have nonetheless made painstaking record of its every tremor, I recall
with embarrassing clarity the flavor of those particular ashes. It was a matter of
misplaced self-respect.
I had not been elected to Phi Beta Kappa. This failure could scarcely have been
more predictable or less ambiguous (I simply did not have the grades), but I was
unnerved by it; I had somehow thought myself a kind of academic Raskolnikov,
curiously exempt from the cause-effect relationships that hampered others.
Although the situation must have had even then the approximate tragic stature
of Scott Fitzgerald’s failure to become president of the Princeton Triangle Club,
the day that I did not make Phi Beta Kappa nevertheless marked the end of
something, and innocence may well be the word for it. I lost the conviction that
lights would always turn green for me, the pleasant certainty that those rather
passive virtues which had won me approval as a child automatically guaranteed
me not only Phi Beta Kappa keys but happiness, honour, and the love of a good
man (preferably a cross between Humphrey Bogart in Casablanca and one of the
Murchisons in a proxy fight); lost a certain touching faith in the totem power of
good manners, clean hair, and proven competence on the Stanford-Binet scale.
To such doubtful amulets had my self-respect been pinned, and I faced myself
that day with the nonplussed wonder of someone who has come across a vampire
and found no garlands of garlic at hand.
Although to be driven back upon oneself is an uneasy affair at best, rather like
trying to cross a border with borrowed credentials, it seems to me now the one
condition necessary to the beginnings of real self-respect. Most of our platitudes
notwithstanding, self-deception remains the most difficult deception. The charms
that work on others count for nothing in that devastatingly well-lit back alley
where one keeps assignations with oneself: no winning smiles will do here, no
prettily drawn lists of good intentions. With the desperate agility of a crooked
faro dealer who spots Bat Masterson about to cut himself into the game, one
shuffles flashily but in vain through one’s marked cards—the kindness done for
the wrong reason, the apparent triumph which had involved no real effort, the
seemingly heroic act into which one had been shamed. The dismal fact is that
self-respect has nothing to do with the approval of others—who are, after all,
deceived easily enough; has nothing to do with reputation—which, as Rhett
Butler told Scarlett O’Hara, is something that people with courage can do
without.
To do without self-respect, on the other hand, is to be an unwilling audience of

one to an interminable home movie that documents one’s failings, both real and
imagined, with fresh footage spliced in for each screening. There’s the glass you
broke in anger, there’s the hurt on X’s face; watch now, this next scene, the night
Y came back from Houston, see how you muff this one. To live without self-
respect is to lie awake some night, beyond the reach of warm milk,
phenobarbital, and the sleeping hand on the coverlet, counting up the sins of
commission and omission, the trusts betrayed, the promises subtly broken, the
gifts irrevocably wasted through sloth or cowardice or carelessness. However
long we post- pone it, we eventually lie down alone in that notoriously
uncomfortable bed, the one we make ourselves. Whether or not we sleep in it
depends, of course, on whether or not we respect ourselves.
Q.13
The author of this passage is probably a
a woman who contributes to a journal of psychology.
b man with a poor academic career.
c man who is a writer by profession.
d woman who is steeped in popular culture.
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Solution:
Option (d) is the correct answer because in paragraph two the author says ‘for
the love of a good man.’ Also, the passage is full of literary and popular
references. Option (a) is incorrect because no jargon or technical terms from the
world of psychology are used. Poor academic record is in evidence but there is
nothing to show that the author is a man. Hence, option (b) and (c) are incorrect.
Correct Answer : d
without.

Q.14
What does the author mean by “A well-lit back alley where one keeps
assignations with one self”?
a A place in one’s mind where one’s thoughts are uncontrollable.
b A place where one’s past takes centre stage.
c A place in one’s mind where one unflinchingly scrutinizes one’s mistakes.
d A place where one has intimate and intense conversations with oneself.
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Solution:
Option (c) is the correct answer because the previous sentence mentions “self-
deception remains the most difficult deception” and it continues the same idea in
the next sentence that at the back of the mind the person keeps criticizing one’s
mistakes openly without any deception. But option (c) mentions ‘unflinchingly
scrutinize’ which refers to the ‘well lit’ i.e. where one cannot hide. Option (a) is
incorrect because assignation can be kept at the back of the mind but nowhere it
mentions that they are uncontrolled. Option (b) is incorrect because whether
mistakes are just realized or they become the most prominent element is not
mentioned. Option (d) is incorrect because there is no mention of conversations.
Correct Answer : c
without.

Q.15
What, according to the author, is the relationship between innocence and liking
oneself?
a Innocence naturally employs self deception which allows one to love

oneself even though one might have many flaws.
b When one likes oneself, one can become delusional and innocently take
certain things for granted.
c Without innocence it is not possible for one to like oneself as self criticism
of one’s actions becomes inevitable.
d Innocence leads to clouded judgement about things like luck, chance etc.
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Solution:
Option (b) is correct because it summarizes the first paragraph which is about
the self delusion that is caused by innocence and its effects on certain ideas like
success etc. This means that the author is assuming certain causal relationship
between two things. This is ‘taking something for granted’. Option (a) is
incorrect because of its usage of ‘naturally’ and ‘many flaws’, both of which find
no mention in the passage. Option (c) uses ‘not possible’ which is a clear
indicator of it being incorrect. Option (d) is beyond the scope of the passage.
Correct Answer : b
without.

Q.16
Which of the following with regards to self-respect is the author most likely to
agree with?
a It arises from the approval of others; those who may have been hurt or
pleased by your actions.
b It arises from one’s capacity for self-deception despite knowing that such
actions may be harmful in the future.
c It arises from one’s status and reputation in society.
d It arises when one confronts one’s mistakes, accepts them, and moves on.
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Solution:
Option (d) is the correct answer because the term ‘although to be driven back
upon oneself’ and a reading of the first paragraph make option (d) the only
possible choice. Option (a), (b) and (c) use the terms ‘approval of others’, ‘self
deception’ and ‘status in society’. All the three terms are either explicitly or
implicitly mentioned as something that has nothing to do with self respect.
Correct Answer : d
without.

Q.17
The author says that self-deception is the most difficult deception because in self
deception
a one has to try and live with the constant fear of being judged by oneself.
b one knows everything about oneself and so it becomes impossible to hide

flaws.
c one’s innocence protects oneself from self deception.
d one has to try and conceal flaws from oneself which are promptly spotted
by one’s conscience.
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Solution:
Option (d) is the correct answer. One can lie to others, but one cannot lie to one’s
conscience as can be seen from the sentence ‘The charms that work on others
count for nothing in that devastatingly well-lit back alley where one keeps
assignations with oneself’. This makes option (d) the only possible choice. Option
(a) is eliminated by its usage of ‘constant fear’ which is nowhere mentioned in
the passage. Option (b) says one knows everything about oneself’ which makes it
incorrect. Option (c) is opposite to the message in the first paragraph.
Correct Answer : d
without.

Q.18
Why does the author use the phrase ’the totem power of good manners’?
a To show that the author believes that everyone respects those people who
have good manners.
b To show that a simple ‘good-begets-good’ or ‘bad-begets-bad’ relationship

between manners and rewards is unrealistic.
c To show that totems, just like clean hair and proven countenance are
valuable amulets.
d To show that just as tribes believed that their totem protected them from
harm; people believe that good manners will protect them from harm.
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Solution:
The author uses the phrase in the passage to show that with mere magical
thinking one engages is in, delusions such as ‘the lights would always turn green
for me’ i.e. ‘one will always simply succeed’ are bound to follow. The totem
power phrase signifies that the connection between good manners and success or
happiness would is tenuous. This makes Option (b) the only possible choice.
Correct Answer : b
three questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.
What are the roads not taken because students must take out loans for college?
A collection of studies shows that the burden of student debt may well cause
people to make different decisions than they would otherwise — affecting not
just individual lives but also the entire economy.
For one thing, it appears that people with student loans are less likely to start
businesses of their own. A new study has found that areas with higher relative
growth in student debt show lower growth in the formation of small businesses
(in this case, firms with one to four employees).
The correlation makes sense. People normally have only a certain amount of
“debt capacity,” said Brent W. Ambrose, a professor of risk management at
Pennsylvania State University and a co-author of a preliminary paper on the
research along with Larry Cordell and Shuwei Ma of the Federal Reserve Bank
of Philadelphia.
When students use up their debt capacity on student loans, they can’t commit it
elsewhere. “Given the importance of an entrepreneur’s personal debt capacity in
financing a start-up business, student loan debt, which cannot be discharged via
bankruptcy, can have lasting effects later in life and may impact the ability of
future small-business owners to raise capital,” the study says.
Considering that 60 percent of jobs are created by small business, “if you shut
down the ability to create new businesses, you’re going to harm the economy,”
Professor Ambrose said.
Student loan debt also appears to be affecting homeownership trends. According

to research by the Federal Reserve Bank of New York, fewer 30-year-olds in
general have bought homes since the recession, but the decline has been steeper
for people with a history of student loan debt and has continued even as the
housing market has recovered.
Total student loans outstanding have risen to $1.1 trillion, compared with $300
billion just a decade ago, according to the Fed’s study. The average total debt for
student borrowers was around $30,000 in 2013. No wonder borrowers have been
reluctant to start businesses or to buy homes.
Student loan debt may also affect career choices. Having a college loan appears
to reduce the likelihood that people will choose a low-paying public-interest job,
according to a 2011 study by Jesse Rothstein of the University of California,
Berkeley, and Cecilia Elena Rouse of Princeton.
They arrived at their conclusion by studying a well-off university that began

meeting students’ financial needs through a combination of work-study money
and grants, and dispensing with loans altogether. (The school insisted on
anonymity as a condition for participating in the study.)
Before the new policy started in the early 2000s, students were more likely to
choose well-paid professions like investment banking and consulting, Professor
Rothstein said in an interview. After the policy took effect, more students chose
jobs in areas like teaching and the nonprofit sector.
In many cases, the choices that student borrowers make are just common sense,
based on the financial realities they face. Taken together, they seem to be having
a substantive — many would say negative — effect on the economy.
Is that enough reason for schools or the government to step in with a solution?
Not many schools are like Anon U (as the researchers above called it), which
could afford to take loans off the table. If society wants to change the skewing
effect of student loans, some tough decisions about allocating educational
resources may well lie ahead.
Q.19
Which of the following, if true, most weakens the argument made in the passage?
a Compared to those people who hadn’t, professionals who had availed

student loans, generate more wealth, which through investments eventually finds
its way to financing student loans.
b When student loans are financed through alternative sources more

students pursue their PHDs which results in fewer people being engaged in
productive jobs.
c It has been shown that lowering interest rates of student loans will result in
more students taking loans.
d While measuring how lucrative an investment opportunity is, venture

capitalists usually choose startups with lesser liabilities.
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Solution:
Option (a) is correct because it suggests that the well paid professionals are
better for the economy as they generate more value in the economy which
finances other activities like loan financing and scholarships etc. The author
argues in the passage that student loans are inimical for the economy as they
cause lower employment opportunities, lower investment etc. Option (b) is
invalid as it says in ‘productive jobs’ which is a general term which can mean
any profession or research activity. It in no way weakens the author’s argument.
Option (c) and (d) both strengthen the author’s argument. Option (c) speaks
about the pitfalls of easier availability of loans, option (d) suggests hampering of
future business opportunities in case of excessive liabilities. So, only option (a)
weakens the author’s argument.
Correct Answer : a
of Philadelphia.


Q.20
What will be the most likely outcome of easier availability of student loans?
a It will give a fillip to businesses.
b It will create more job opportunities.
c It will reduce job creation.
d It will encourage more students to take up public sector jobs.
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Solution:
Option (a) is incorrect. The second paragraph states ‘are less likely to start
businesses’ . Option (b) is incorrect. The fifth paragraphs states, ‘Considering
that 60 ….harm the economy’. option (d) is wrong as the passage states, ‘Before
the new policy started in the early 2000s… the nonprofit sector’. A reading of
paragraphs four, five and six tells us that when debt capacity of students is low
they don’t start businesses. Also it is mentioned that job creation depends on
small businesses which means easier availability of loans will make job growth
difficult. Hence, the correct answer is option (c).
Correct Answer : c
of Philadelphia.


Q.21
Which of the following is the author most likely to agree with?
a It should be made easier to avail student loans.
b It should be made possible to discharge a student loan via bankruptcy.
c Student loans should be stopped by facilitating alternative financing.
d The burden of outstanding student loans should be reduced by laying down

stringent conditions for loans.
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Solution:
Option (c) is the correct answer. Refer to the last paragraph. The author
mentions ‘some tough decisions’ and the prior paragraph mentions ‘substantive
– many would say a negative’ which can only mean that he criticizes the student
loans. Option (a) runs counter to the argument made in the passage. Although
Option (b) is partially applicable as the author criticizes the fact that loans cant
be discharged, only allowing student loans to be discharged without other
reforms would be financially imprudent in the long run for the economy. Option
(d) supports the author’s argument but it is only a partial solution. The reason
behind giving the example of ‘Anon U’ was to show that he believes in financing
the student loans.
Correct Answer : c
Believing or disbelieving in moral absolutes is a philosophical position, not a

recipe for living.
Boghossian defines relativism (and I’ll go along with his definition for the
purposes of this article) as the denial of moral absolutes. But the definition is
insufficiently nuanced because there are (at least) two ways of denying moral
absolutes. You can say “I don’t believe there are any” or you can say “I believe
there are moral absolutes, but (a) there are too many candidates for membership
in that category and (b) there is no device, mechanical test, algorithm or knock-
down argument for determining which candidates are the true ones.”
The person (and I am one) who takes this second position denies nothing except
the possibility (short of force or torture and they don’t count) of securing
universal assent. You might say that he or she is a moral absolutist but an
epistemological relativist —someone who doesn’t think that there is a trump-
card that, when played, will bring your interlocutor over to your side, but does
think that there are any number of cards (propositions, appeals, examples, etc.)
that might, in particular circumstances and given the history and interests of
those in the conversation, produce a change of mind .
But does any of this matter outside the esoteric arena of philosophical
disputation? Let’s suppose that either of two acts of persuasion has occurred in
that arena: a former moral absolutist is now a relativist of some kind, or a
former relativist is now a confirmed believer in moral absolutes. What exactly
will have changed when one set of philosophical views has been swapped for
another? Almost nothing. To be sure you will now give different answers than
you once would have when you are asked about moral facts, objective truths,
irrefutable evidence and so on; but when you are engaged in trying to decide
what is the right thing to do in a particular situation, none of the answers you
might give to these deep questions will have any bearing on your decision. You
won’t say, “Because I believe in moral absolutes, I’ll take this new job or divorce
my husband or vote for the Democrat.” Nor will you say, “Because I deny moral
absolutes I have no basis for deciding since any decision I make is as good or bad
as any other.” What you will say, if only to yourself, is “Given what is at stake,
and the likely outcomes of taking this or that action, I think I’ll do this.” Neither
“I believe in moral absolutes” nor “I don’t” will be a reason in the course of
ordinary, non-philosophical, deliberation.
Now it could be said (and some philosophers will say it) that the person who
deliberates without self-conscious recourse to deep philosophical views is
nevertheless relying on or resting on such views even though he is not aware of
doing so. To say this is to assert that philosophy is an activity that underlies our
thinking at every point, and to imply that if we want to think clearly about
anything we should either become philosophers or sit at the feet of philosophers.
But philosophy is not the name of, or the site of, thought generally; it is a special,
insular form of thought and its propositions have weight and value only in the
precincts of its game . Points are awarded in that game to the player who has the
best argument going (“best” is a disciplinary judgment) for moral relativism or
its opposite or some other position considered “major.” When it’s not the game
of philosophy that is being played, but some other — energy policy, trade policy,
debt reduction, military strategy, domestic life — grand philosophical theses like
“there are no moral absolutes” or “yes there are” will at best be rhetorical
flourishes; they will not be genuine currency or do any decisive work. Believing
or disbelieving in moral absolutes is a philosophical position, not a recipe for
living.
Q.22
Which of the following, with regards to the phrase ‘sit at the feet of
philosophers’, is the author most likely to agree with?
a It is beneficial as it could stop us from being moral relativists and allow us

to take an educated stance on certain ideas.
b It is not necessary as philosophical thought is confusing and hence it lacks

certainty.
c It is not necessary to have a philosophical outlook especially if decisions

regarding other subjects are being made.
d It is beneficial as it could help us in developing clarity of thought on certain

issues.
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Solution:
In the last paragraph the author makes the statement ‘but philosophy is not
the…or do any decisive work’. He makes this statement to refute the argument
in the beginning of the last paragraph that either an aware or unaware
philosophical state of mind is used while making decisions. This makes option (c)
as the only possible choice. Option (b) is eliminated as there is no mention of the
lack of value of philosophical thought in the passage.
Correct Answer : c

recipe for living.
living.
Q.23
What is the purpose of the article?
a To show that there is a difference between relativism and absolutism

b To show that one can be a moral absolutist and at the same time be an
epistemological relativist
c To show that in our workday lives there is no room for rigid absolutism or
relativism
d To analyse the consequences of moral relativism and absolutism
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Solution:
Option (c) is the correct answer because the first and last sentence of the passage
repeats the theme and the purpose of the passage. Options (a) and (b) can be
eliminated because they are irrelevant. Option (d) is incorrect because the
passage does not analyze the consequences of absolutism or relativism.
Correct Answer : c

recipe for living.
living.
Q.24
How does position (b) in the passage i.e. ‘there is no device…are the true ones’
differ from position (a) in the passage i.e. ‘there are… in that category’?
a They are opposites.
b They are related arguments which form one cohesive argument.
c Position (b) is a natural consequence of the point made in position (a).
d Position (b) is a conclusion of the argument made in position (a).
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Solution:
Option (b) is correct because the author has split the argument ‘I believe there
are moral absolutes, but’, to qualify and nuance his argument as opposed to
Boghossian’s. Option (a) is incorrect because the two positions are not opposites.
Option (d) is incorrect as there is no conclusion in position (b). Option (c) is
incorrect because, just because too many instances of a particular thing exist
does not necessarily imply that it is not possible to form or detect a single
underlying condition.
Correct Answer : b
Q.25
In the following question, a part of the sentence has an error and others are
correct. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and mark the answer
corresponding to the appropriate letter (1, 2, 3). If a sentence is free from error,
mark your answer as (4).
The Golden Retriever is (1) / one of the smartest breed of dogs and still (2) / they
cannot help you with your work. (3) / No error (4)
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Solution:
There is a pronoun verb agreement error. Since the subject Golden Retriever is
singular, the pronoun ‘they’ must be changed into ‘it’.
Correct Answer : 3
Q.26
In the following question, a part of the sentence has an error and others are
correct. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and mark the answer
corresponding to the appropriate letter (1, 2, 3). If a sentence is free from error,
mark your answer as (4).
Parents and teachers (1) / agree that developing a good academic profile is not
only important (2) / but also of mandate in order to achieve professional success.
(3) / No error (4)
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Solution:
There is a parallelism error in the sentence. The first in the series is important so
the second must be ‘mandatory’ and not ‘of mandate’
Correct Answer : 3
Q.27
The following question consists of a paragraph which is followed by four options.
Among the given options, choose the one which captures the essence of the
paragraph accurately and clearly. Type in that option as the answer in the space
provided below the question.
In some communities, elections for local office are held separately from all
federal and state elections, so that the electorate pays attention to the local issues.
However, in those cases, while citizens face shorter ballots, they are asked to go
to the polls much more often, with a consequent drop-off in turnout. Citizens in
Baton Rouge, Louisiana, where state elections are held separately from federal
elections and local elections are held separately from state elections, were asked
to go to the polls eleven times in the 2003–04 biennium. Citizens have the right to
express their views, but because they are asked to so often, many choose not to
exercise the franchise.
1. State issues gain primacy when no federal elections appear on the same ballot.
2. Elections get more attention when more visible offices are contested at the
same time.
3. Voters do not cast their votes if they are frequently asked to do so.
4. Frequent elections do not necessarily translate into citizens expressing their
consent effectively.
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Solution:
The passage is about how the frequency of elections affects the choice of voters to
cast their votes. It says that in some communities, where local offices and federal
and state elections are held together, voters do not pay sufficient attention to
local issues. Also, sometimes voters choose not to cast their votes if they are
frequently asked to do so. So if the voters do not exercise their right to vote, the
election results will not necessarily reflect their choice. This is given in option (4),
rendering it the correct answer. Option (1) is incorrect because it talks about the
upside of conducting separate elections. Option (2) is incorrect because it talks
about ‘elections’ getting more attention when more offices are contested. The
passage, however, talks about attention paid to local and federal issues and not
‘elections’ as a whole. Option (3) is incorrect because it suggests that ‘no’ voter
casts the vote if he/she is frequently asked to do so, whereas the passage says that
‘many’ choose not cast their vote in such a situation.
Correct Answer : 4
Q.28
The following question consists of a paragraph which is followed by four options.
Among the given options, choose the one which captures the essence of the
paragraph accurately and clearly. Type in that option as the answer in the space
Scientists who study emotional reactions like crying have found that women have
much smaller tear ducts than men. Both sexes may have a strong reaction to
something - but men’s tear ducts are so big that the liquid stays put and
eventually drains away. In women the tears quickly overwhelm the duct and spill
out down their cheeks. But, as females grow old, the size of their tear ducts
becomes almost equal to that of their male counterparts. So, there is not much
difference in crying pattern based on gender in older people.
1. Girls cry more than boys but as they grow old, they stop crying.
2. The frequency at which one shed tears depends upon his/her gender.
3. Women are biologically wired to shed more tears than men.
4. Hormones play a vital role in tear production.
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Solution:
The passage gives a biological reason for why women cry more than men. It says
that women have larger ducts than men and so their tears swell up easily and
spill out while men have smaller tear ducts and so their tears do not spill easily.
Option (3) best summaries the passage. It says that it’s the biological makeup of
women that makes them shed more tears than men. Option (1) is incorrect
because it says that girls stop crying when they grow up while the passage only
says that the difference in crying pattern is not based on gender in older people.
Option (2) is incorrect because the passage does not talk about the number of
times one cries, it only talks about how women shed tears more easily than men.
Option (4) is incorrect because nothing has been said in the passage about
hormones.
Correct Answer : 3
Q.29
The following question consists of a set of five sentences. Out of these, four
sentences can be arranged to make a coherent paragraph. One sentence doesn’t
belong to the paragraph. Type in that option as the odd one out in the space
1. This has led to a sense of hopelessness and apathy.

2. The regular burning of forests has wiped out communities of insects, birds,
amphibians and reptiles, besides, of course, most mammals.
3. The recent arrests of people from different parts of the State, caught while
setting fire, has proved the point that these fires are cases of arson.
4. Today, when village firefighters douse a fire, it springs up again a little later,
laying waste all the areas saved.
5. It is not fires that have become wilier, but the fact that most forest fires in the
years after 1981 were not accidental.
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Solution:
The passage starts with sentence 4. It says that nowadays fires start up again
after they have been doused. Sentence 1 follows by saying how it has affected us
– ‘led to a sense of hopelessness and apathy’. Sentence 1 is followed by sentence 5
which tells us that the fires in the recent years did not start on their own, rather
they were started intentionally. Sentence 3 substantiates the author’s claim,
making 53 a mandatory pair. Sentence 2 is the odd sentence here. While the
passage talks about how forests catch fire, sentence 2 talks about wiping out of
the species living in the forests which were burned down. The sequence is 4153.
Correct Answer : 2
Q.30
1. If current initiatives for increasing employability and creating more

manufacturing jobs succeed, this will also reduce the pressure.
2. As they see it, investing in education has got them only minor monetary
benefits.
3. What fuels the anger of young men from agricultural communities?
4. With massive growth in private and distance education programmes of
questionable quality, most college graduates today lack the skills for high-paying
private sector jobs.
5. They may well be qualified for lower-level clerical or support positions, but for
these jobs’ salaries are far lower in the private sector than the public sector.
x
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Solution:
The passage starts with a question (sentence 3) that what is it that triggers the
anger of young men from agricultural communities. Sentence 2 tells us what it
possibly is – investment in education that has got them little monitory benefits.
Sentence 4 follows by expanding upon the reason given in sentence 2. It tells us
why the concerned people have got only minor monetary benefits. Sentence 5 is
an extension of sentence 4. Sentence 1 is the odd sentence. It says that if current
initiatives succeed, it will ‘also’ reduce pressure. The word ‘also’ suggests that
the sentence will come only after at least one benefit of the current initiatives has
been talked about. The sequence is 3245.
Correct Answer : 1
Q.31
1. Organic lasers hold great promise because their cost is negligible and they can
emit light in a wide range of wavelengths, but they are limited because the dyes
degrade rapidly.
2. Researchers from France and Hungary have used inkjet printers to produce
the organic laser chips at the heart of these devices for mere cents.
3. Lasers work by amplifying light to high intensities using a so-called gain
medium, taking advantage of the interactions between the electrons of its atoms
and incoming photons to amplify light to high intensities.
4. But in recent years, researchers have investigated using organic carbon-based
dyes instead.
5. Typically, the gain medium is made from inorganic materials such as glasses,
crystals or gallium-based semiconductors.
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Solution:
Sentence 3 starts the paragraph by telling us how lasers work. Sentence 5 follows
by telling us what ‘gain medium’, referred to in sentence 5, is typically made of.
Sentence 5 is followed by sentence 4 which tells us how the gain medium is now
being made. ‘But’ is the key word here. Sentence 1 follows sentence 4. ‘Organic
lasers’ in sentence 1 refers to the lasers that are being made using ‘organic
carbon-based dyes’, mentioned in sentence 4. Sentence 2 is the odd sentence. It
will neither start the passage because then it will not be clear what ‘these
devices’ that it is referring to are, nor will it end the passage because in sentence
1 the author has already stated that the cost of organic lasers is extremely low.
Also, in sentence 1, after talking about the cost, the author has picked up another
point about the laser – rapid degradation of dyes. So, the following sentence
should talk about dyes or degradation of dyes. The sequence is 3541.
Correct Answer : 2
Q.32
The following question consists of a set of five sentences. These sentences need to
be arranged in a coherent manner to create a meaningful paragraph. Type in the
correct order of the sentences in the space provided below the question.
1. Now such a company has a database containing detailed, private, albeit

anonymised, records of all these people’s medical history, including HIV status,
past drug overdoses and abortions.
2. DeepMind says it needs the data to produce medical alerts for hospitals
attempting to prevent acute kidney injuries.
3. In what was considered a computing milestone, the company’s AlphaGo
program beat the world Go champion 4-1.
4. Last year DeepMind’s engineers produced a research paper showing it had
created a program that could replicate the work of a “professional human video
games tester”.
5. In March, they made history by creating a program that mastered the 3,000-
year-old Chinese board game Go, thought to be beyond current technology
because of the number of possible moves.
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Solution:
The paragraph starts with sentence 4. Sentence 4 talks about an event that
happened last year and sentence 5 talks about an event that took place in March
this year (since the year is not specified, we will assume that the author is talking
about the current year). So, by following chronological order approach we can
infer that 45 is a mandatory pair. Also, ‘they’ in sentence 5 refers to the
‘DeepMind’s engineers’ mentioned in sentence 4. Sentence 3 follows sentence 5.
‘Go’, the name of the game, links the two sentences. 12 is another mandatory
pair. Sentence 1 says that the company (DeepMind) has a database containing
people’s medical history. Sentence 2 tells us why DeepMind has procured the
data.
Correct Answer : 45312

Q.33
1. There is solid evidence of some ordinary people who looked askance at

particular beliefs – at the miracles performed by saints, or the nature of the
Eucharist, or what was said to happen after death.
2. The Middle Ages famously features great examples of extreme religiosity:
mystics, saints, the flagellants, mass pilgrimage, and the like.
3. Others thought that there was no reason to think that it was God who made
plants and crops grow, but just the innate properties of working and feeding the
soil.
4. But it would be wrong to assume that people were always very focused on God
and religion, and definitely wrong to think that medieval people were incapable
of skeptical reflection.
5. A number of ordinary people decided that the soul was ‘nothing but blood’,
and simply disappeared at the point of death.
o Bookmark
Solution:
24 is a mandatory pair. The paragraph starts with sentence 2 stating that the
Middle Ages shows examples of extreme religiosity. Sentence 4 follows by saying
that in spite of that, people were not always very focused on God and religion.
‘But’ is the key word. Sentence 1 follows sentence 4. It substantiates the claim
made by the author in sentence 4. Sentence 5 is an extension of sentence 1. In
sentence 1 the author says that people doubted some beliefs of the time, like what
was said to happen after death. Sentence 5 builds on the point that a number of
people decided that the soul disappeared after death. Sentence 3 ends the
paragraph by saying what other people thought about some other believes.
‘Others’ in sentence 3 suggests that it will follow sentence 5.
Q.34
1. This has driven newspaper prices to the point where the leading newspapers
fetch virtually no circulation revenue for their publishers (the little that is
collected from the reader goes almost entirely to the distributor and hawker).
2. Wait for the metros to become true transport pipes, though, and even that will
come about in may be half a decade.
3. Indian newspapers are now the cheapest in the world, though the world of
completely free newspapers is still to descend on this country.
4. With the era of multi-edition newspapers and therefore multi-newspaper
markets, has come greater choice and a fierce fight for the reader’s attention.
5. Along then came the vital discovery that readers may not be completely
wedded to habit and to reading one newspaper, and that even a small difference
in price could sometimes bring about a change of purchase decision.
o Bookmark
Solution:
The paragraph starts with sentence 4. It says that the era of multi-edition
newspapers has increased competition. ‘Along then’ in sentence 5 refers to the
‘era of multi-edition newspapers’, referred in sentence 4. So, sentence 5 follows
sentence 4. Sentence 1 follows sentence 5. ‘This has driven prices’ in sentence 1
refers to the fact mentioned in sentence 5 that readers are not hooked on to one
newspaper and a marginal difference in the price of a newspaper may affect
their choice. Sentence 3 follows by saying that the decrease in price, referred in
sentence 1, has resulted in Indian newspapers becoming the cheapest in the
world. Sentence 3 is followed by sentence 2. ‘even that’ in sentence 2 refers to
“the world of completely free newspapers” mentioned in sentence 3.
Sec 2
Directions for questions 35 to 38 Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
In the month of April 2016, each of the five travel agencies – Aaram Time, Best Travels, Cruise Point, Dreams
Trips – provided holiday packages for each of the five destinations – Paris, Qatar, Rome, Switzerland and Tha
The table given below shows the break-up of the number of packages sold by a travel agency to the different d
The table given below shows the break-up of the number of packages sold for a destination by the different tra
Q.35
If a total of 13020 packages were sold by the five travel agencies together, what was the total number of packa
Aaram Time?
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Solution:
Directions for questions 35 to 38 Answer the questions on the basis of the

information given below.
In the month of April 2016, each of the five travel agencies – Aaram Time, Best
Travels, Cruise Point, Dreams Tour and Easy Trips – provided holiday packages
for each of the five destinations – Paris, Qatar, Rome, Switzerland and Thailand.
The table given below shows the break-up of the number of packages sold by a
travel agency to the different destinations.
The table given below shows the break-up of the number of packages sold for a
destination by the different travel agencies.
Q.36
If 1200 packages were sold by Easy Trips for Qatar, what was the total number
of packages sold by Cruise Point for Switzerland?
o Bookmark
Solution:
Directions for questions 35 to 38 Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.
Travels, Cruise Point, Dreams Tour and Easy Trips – provided holiday packages for
each of the five destinations – Paris, Qatar, Rome, Switzerland and Thailand.
The table given below shows the break-up of the number of packages sold by a travel
agency to the different destinations.
Q.37
If 4800 packages were sold by Best Travels for the five destinations together, what was
the total number of packages sold by the five travel agencies together for Rome?
o Bookmark
Solution:
Directions for questions 35 to 38 Answer the questions on the basis of the

Travels,
Cruise Point, Dreams Tour and Easy Trips – provided holiday packages for each
of the five destinations – Paris, Qatar, Rome, Switzerland and Thailand.
The table given below shows the break-up of the number of packages sold by a
travel
agency to the different destinations.

Q.38
If 3960 packages were sold by Dreams Tour for Rome, what was the total
number of packages sold by Best Travels for the five destinations?
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Solution:
Directions for questions 39 to 42: Answer the questions on the basis of the
The line graph given below shows the GDP, I(A) and NR(K) figures (in Rs. ‘000
crores) of Kinderland from FY 2007-08 to FY 2010-11.
GDP – Gross Domestic Product
I(A) – Income earned by Kinderland citizens from overseas investments
NR(K) – Income earned by foreign nationals in Kinderland
GNP = GDP + I(A) – NR(K)
Q.39
What was the average (in Rs. ‘000 crores) of the GDPs of the fiscal years in
which the GNP was more than the GDP?
a 4379
b 4273.5
c 4631
d 3841.5
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Solution:
Correct Answer : a
crores)
of Kinderland from FY 2007-08 to FY 2010-11.

Q.40
What was the approximate percentage change in the GNP of Kinderland in FY
2008-09 over FY 2007-08?
a 5.94
b 6.72
c 15.52
d 21.60
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Solution:
Correct Answer : d
crores)

Q.41
What was the difference (in Rs. ‘000 crores) between the average NR(K) and the
average I(A) for the given period?
a 75
b 90
c 105
d 120
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Solution:
Correct Answer : b
crores)

Q.42
What was the percentage contribution of I(A) in the GNP during the given
period?
a 38.2
b 41.3
c 37.8
d 42.3
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Solution:
Correct Answer : a
Directions for the questions 43 to 46: Answer the questions on the basis of the
The table given below shows the data regarding the Indian cricketers who have
been given a contract by BCCI. The number mentioned outside the brackets in
each cell shows the number of cricketers in that age group and the numbers
inside the brackets show the minimum, the average and the maximum number of
first-class matches played by the cricketers in that age group, respectively. All
the ages are to be considered in integers only.
Q.43
A male cricket team is to be selected to represent India in the junior World Cup.
If only those cricketers who are aged 22 years or less and have played at least 75
but not more than 165 first_class matches can be selected, what is the maximum
possible number of contracted cricketers eligible for selection?
a 23
b 22
c 24
d 26
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Solution:
Correct Answer : a
each cell shows the number of cricketers in that age group and the numbers inside
the brackets show the minimum, the average and the maximum number of first-
class matches played by the cricketers in that age group, respectively. All the ages
are to be considered in integers only.
Q.44
An Indian team of female cricketers is to be selected for the Champions trophy. If
only those cricketers who are aged above 19 years and have played at least 40 but
not more than 80 first-class matches can be selected, what is the maximum
possible number of contracted cricketers eligible for selection?
a 17
b 16
c 19
d 14
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Solution:
Correct Answer : c
The table given below shows the data regarding the Indian cricketers who have been
given a contract by BCCI. The number mentioned outside the brackets in each cell
shows the number of cricketers in that age group and the numbers inside the brackets
show the minimum, the average and the maximum number of first-class matches
played by the cricketers in that age group, respectively. All the ages are to be
considered in integers only.
Q.45
The maximum numbers of cricketers, including male and female, who are aged above
22 years and have played at least 105 first-class matches is
a 13
b 14
c 15
d 16
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Solution:
Each male cricketer aged above 22 years has played more than 105 matches and
among the female cricketers only one has played more than 105 matches.
Hence, the required number of cricketers = 13 + 1 = 14.
Correct Answer : b
each cell shows the number of cricketers in that age group and the numbers
inside the brackets show the minimum, the average and the maximum number of
first-class matches played by the cricketers in that age group, respectively. All
the ages are to be considered in integers only.
Q.46
Find the absolute difference between the maximum number of female cricketers
who have played at least 60 first-class matches and the minimum number of
male cricketers who have played at most 150 first-class matches.
a 4
b 6
c 5
d 7
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Solution:
The maximum number of female cricketers who played at least 60 first class
matches in age group 20 to 22 years is 7 and that in age group above 22 years is
12. The total number of such female cricketers is 19.
In order to minimise the number of cricketers to have played at most 150
matches, we need to maximise the number of cricketers who have played more
than 150 matches. The minimum number of male cricketers who have played at
most 150 first class matches in age group 20 to 22 years is 10 and that in age
group above 22 years is 3 and all the 11 cricketers aged below 19 have played less
than 150 matches. So, the total number of such male cricketers is 24.
Hence, the required difference = 24 – 19 = 5.
Correct Answer : c
Directions for questions 47 to 50: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.
The Bar Chart and Line Graph given below show the Gross Sales (in Rs. crores) and
Profit after Taxes (in Rs. crores) respectively of ZEST Pvt. Ltd. during the period 2011 to
2015. The Stack Bar shows the taxes paid by the company as a percentage of Gross Sales
in each year. The Fixed Assets of the company were worth Rs. 1080 crores in the year
2012.
Net Sales = Gross Sales – Taxes
Profitability = Profit after Taxes / Net Sales
Turnover Ratio = Net Sales / Fixed Assets
Q.47
If the company’s Fixed Assets grew by 12.5% every year over the previous year during
the period 2011 to 2015, then in which year was its Turnover Ratio the highest?
a 2012
b 2015
c 2013
d 2014
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Solution:
We can observe from the given data that Net Sales grew faster than Fixed Assets during
the period 2011 to 2015. Fixed Assets grew by 12.5% per year over the previous year
while Net Sales grew roughly between 18% and 33% per year over the previous year
during the given period. Hence, we can conclude that Turnover Ratio (Net Sales / Fixed
Assets) kept increasing every year during the period and was the highest in the year 2015.
Correct Answer : b
Directions for questions 47 to 50: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.
Profit after Taxes (in Rs. crores) respectively of ZEST Pvt. Ltd. during the period 2011
to 2015. The Stack Bar shows the taxes paid by the company as a percentage of Gross
Sales in each year. The Fixed Assets of the company were worth Rs. 1080 crores in the
year 2012.
Q.48
What was the Profitability of the company in the year 2014?
a 0.42
b 0.40
c 0.45
d 0.48
o Bookmark
Solution:
Net Sales of the company in the year 2014 = 2550 × 76/100 = 1938
Profitability of the company in the year 2014 = 873/1938 = 0.45
Correct Answer : c
The Bar Chart and Line Graph given below show the Gross Sales (in Rs. crores)
and
Profit after Taxes (in Rs. crores) respectively of ZEST Pvt. Ltd. during
the period 2011 to 2015. The Stack Bar shows the taxes paid by the
company as a percentage of Gross Sales in each year.
The Fixed Assets of the company were worth Rs. 1080 crores in the year 2012.
Q.49
The company’s Fixed Assets grew by 12.5% every year over the previous year
during the period 2011 to 2015 and are expected to grow by 10% in 2016. If the
Gross Sales is expected to grow by 25% in 2016, then what would be the
difference between the Turnover Ratio and the Profitability of the company in
2016?
a 0.63
b 0.81
c 0.99
d Cannot be determined
o Bookmark
Solution:
Since the value of Profit after Taxes is not known for the year 2016, we cannot
calculate the Profitability and so the answer cannot be determined.
Correct Answer : d
Profit after Taxes (in Rs. crores) respectively of ZEST Pvt. Ltd. during the
period 2011 to 2015. The Stack Bar shows the taxes paid by the
company as a percentage of Gross Sales in each year. The Fixed Assets
of the company were worth Rs. 1080 crores in the year 2012.
Q.50
The approximate value of the absolute difference between the amount (in Rs. crore)
paid as taxes in 2011 and that in 2015 is
a 479
b 462
c 486
d 471
o Bookmark
Solution:
Correct Answer : a
An Indo-China joint venture by the name of Chindia Corp Ltd has eight board
members – L, M, N, P, Q, R, S and T – four each from India and China. The
four members from each country hold different posts among COO, CFO, CMD
and CEO, in no particular order. During a board meeting, the eight members sit
at a square table such that there are two members along each side of the table. It
is also known that:
(i) No member has any of his fellow countrymen as neighbours.
(ii) No two members sitting along the same side of the table hold the same post in
their respective countries.
(iii) L, who is a CFO, and P sit along the same side of the table.
(iv) The two neighbours of N are the Indian CFO and S.
(v) R is a COO and exactly one person sits between him and the Chinese CMD.
(vi) Q, who is a CFO, is the third person to the right of L.
(vii) M, who is a COO, sits diagonally opposite S. A CMD sits to the immediate
right of S.
Q.51
Who is the Chinese CEO?
a P
b T
c N
o Bookmark
Solution:
Correct Answer : d
is also known that:
right of S.
Q.52
Which two members among the given pairs cannot be neighbours?
a P and M
b M and N
c M and T
d M and Q
o Bookmark
Solution:
Correct Answer : b
is also known that:
right of S.
Q.53
If the two COOs are neighbours, which of the following is the correct
combination of “name – post” of the third person to the left of T?
a P – CEO
b L – CFO
c Q – CFO
d R – COO
o Bookmark
Solution:
Correct Answer : c
is also known that:
right of S.
Q.54
If P is sitting diagonally opposite Chinese COO, who is sitting diagonally
opposite Indian CMD?
a P
b L
c N
d M
o Bookmark
Solution:
Correct Answer : b
Ten flowers – F1, F2, F3, F4, F5, F6, F7, F8, F9 and F10 – are to be planted in two
gardens – G1 and G2 – such that each garden has at least four flowers. The price
(in Rs.) of each of the flowers is a positive integer. It is also known that:
(i) F2 and F10 cannot be planted in the same garden.
(ii) If F5 is planted in G2 then F6 must also be planted in G2.
(iii) The price of F6 is Rs. 243.
(iv) F1 and F9 are to be planted in the same garden.
(v) Exactly one among F3, F4 and F10 is to be planted in G1.
(vi) The absolute difference between the prices of F1 and F7 is Rs. 728.
(vii) F7 and F8 are to be planted in G2.
(viii) The prices of the flowers, in the given order, form an increasing geometric
progression.
Q.55
In how many different ways can the ten flowers be planted in the two gardens if
F10 is to be planted in G2?
a 6
b 12
c 10
d 8
o Bookmark
Solution:
Correct Answer : d
progression.
Q.56
One more flower called F11 is also to be planted in one of the two gardens. If it
cannot be planted in the garden in which F9 and F10 are planted, then which of
the following must be planted in G1?
a F3
b F4
c F5
d F6
o Bookmark
Solution:
Correct Answer : c
progression.
Q.57
If F10 is to be planted in G2, the total price of all the flowers planted in G1 cannot
be more than
a Rs. 20748
b Rs. 6561
c Rs. 6916
d None of these
o Bookmark
Solution:
Correct Answer : c
progression.
Q.58
What is the product of the price of flower F3 and that of F5?
a Rs. 729
b Rs. 2187
c Rs. 6561
d Rs. 243
o Bookmark
Solution:
Correct Answer : a
Five locks – L1, L2, L3, L4 and L5 – have five distinct keys – K1, K2, K3, K4 and
K5 – not necessarily in the same order. A lock can be unlocked if and only if the
correct key is used. Five people – Amy, Biny, Chiny, Dina and Finn – try to
unlock the locks by using different lock-key combinations. A person is awarded 2
points for each lock that he/she unlocks. The five people end up with distinct
scores at the end of the exercise. The table given below shows the lock-key
combinations tried by the five participants.
Q.59
What is the least possible score of Dina?
o Bookmark
Solution:
Correct Answer : 4
Q.60
What is the minimum possible absolute difference between the scores of Amy
and Dina?
o Bookmark
Solution:
Correct Answer : 2
Q.61
If Finn scores less than Biny, then what is the sum of the scores of Amy and
Dina?
o Bookmark
Solution:
Correct Answer : 16
Q.62
The score of the person whose score can uniquely be determined is
o Bookmark
Solution:
Correct Answer : 0
Directions for questions 63 to 66: Answer the questions on the basis of the given
information.
Each of the six persons Bhanu, Gagan, Chutki, Rozi, Chuski and Smriti likes a
different berry from among Blackberry, Gooseberry, Cloudberry, Raspberry,
Chokeberry and Strawberry, not necessarily in the given order. Each of these
berries is kept in a different box from among B1, B2, B3, B4, B5 and B6. It is also
known that:
(i) Chokeberry is kept in neither B3 nor B6.
(ii) For no person, the initials of his/her name and the berry liked by him/her are
the same.
(iii) Gooseberry and Raspberry are kept in B1 and B5, in no particular order.
(iv) For exactly one person, the product of the alphabetic positions, in the
English alphabet, of the initials of his/her name and the berry liked by him/her is
38.
(v) The product of the subscripts of the box titles for Chokeberry and
Blackberry is 12.
(vi) Chuski does not like berries kept in boxes B1 and B5.
(vii) Cloudberry is not kept in B6.
(viii) Smriti likes Chokeberry.
(ix) Cloudberry is liked by neither Gagan nor Chutki .
Q.63
If Chokeberry is kept in B2, in which box is Strawberry kept?
a B3
b B4
c B6
d Either (a) or (b)
o Bookmark
Solution:
Correct Answer : d
information.
known that:
the same.
38.
Blackberry is 12.
Q.64
If Strawberry is kept in B6, in which box is Cloudberry kept?
a B4
b B5
c B1
d B2
o Bookmark
Solution:
Correct Answer : d
information.
known that:
the same.
38.
Blackberry is 12.
Q.65
Who likes Gooseberry?
a Chutki
b Rozi
c Bhanu
d None of these
o Bookmark
Solution:
Correct Answer : a
information.
known that:
the same.
38.
Blackberry is 12.
Q.66
In how many different ways can the berries be put in the six boxes?
a 8
b 6
c 4
d 12
o Bookmark
Solution:
Correct Answer : b
Sec 3
Q.67
In the figure given below, ABCD is a parallelogram. The area of rectangle
BGDH is 50% more than the area of square AECF. Find the ratio of the length
of AB to the length of BC.
a 4 : √13
b 5 : √17
c 5 : √4
o Bookmark
Solution:
Correct Answer : b
Q.68
If the lines x = a + m, y = –2 and y = mx are concurrent, what is the least possible
value of |a|?
a √2
b 2 √2
c 2 √3
d 3 √2
o Bookmark
Solution:
Correct Answer : b
Q.69
a 13
b 14
c 16
d 17
o Bookmark
Solution:
Correct Answer : d
Q.70
If S1 = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5} and S2 = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, …, 100}, how many elements of S2
are divisible by exactly two distinct prime numbers that are elements of S1?
o Bookmark
Solution:
Correct Answer : 26
Q.71
o Bookmark
Solution:
Q.72
a -2
b -6
c -3
d None of these
o Bookmark
Solution:
Correct Answer : b
Q.73
If Billu’s father bought 3 oranges, 4 apples and 5 bananas for Rs. 62 and his
sister Pinki bought 4 oranges, 5 apples and 4 bananas for Rs. 72, then what
amount (in Rs.) did Billu pay for 1 orange, 2 apples and 7 bananas?
a 44
b 54
c 58
d 42
o Bookmark
Solution:
Correct Answer : d
Q.74
A teacher asks one of her students to divide a 30-digit number by 11. The
number consists of six consecutive 1’s, then six consecutive 2’s, and likewise six
3’s, six 4’s and six 7’s in that order from left to right. The student inserts a three-
digit number between the last 4 and the first 7 by mistake and finds the resulting
number to be divisible by 11. Find the number of possible values of the three-
digit number.
o Bookmark
Solution:
Correct Answer : 81
Q.75
Let S be the set of the first six natural numbers. If five numbers are picked
randomly from S, what is the probability that the sum of the five numbers is
divisible by 3?
a 1/9
b 1/6
c 1/3
d 1/8
o Bookmark
Solution:
Correct Answer : c
Q.76
In how many ways can 13 identical chocolates be stuffed into three boxes – B1, B2
and B3 – such that B1 contains more chocolates that B2 and B2 contains more
chocolates than B3?
a 28
b 14
c 21
d 84
o Bookmark
Solution:
Correct Answer : b
Q.77
Two horses are tethered at diagonally opposite corners of a square field of area
96 m2 by ropes of length 8 m each. Find the approximate area (in m2) inside the
field that cannot be grazed by the horses.
a 6
b 7
c 33
d 55
o Bookmark
Solution:
Correct Answer : b
Q.78
Find the unit digit of 32222 × 22232 +22323.
x
o Bookmark
Solution:
Correct Answer : 2
Q.79
A shopkeeper has 2721 apples, 3081 bananas and 3501 peaches. He makes
baskets of these fruits such that the number of fruits of each type in a basket is
either ‘x’ or 0. In the end the shopkeeper is left with p (< x) fruits of each type.
Find the maximum possible value of x.
a 1
b 10
c 15
d 60
o Bookmark
Solution:
Correct Answer : d
Q.80
a 12
b 13
c 24
d 25
o Bookmark
Solution:
Correct Answer : d
Q.81
If (x + 2) is a factor of 2x2 + ax – c, where a and c are natural number, and 4c is
divisible by 6. What is the value of (a + c)?
o Bookmark
Solution:
Correct Answer : 7
Q.82
Rohan and five of his friends contributed equal money and hired a car to Goa.
At least one of his friends pulled out of the trip at the last moment and so they
decided to divide the expenses between the rest of the people. During the journey
the car required some minor repair for which they paid Rs. 250 extra. The total
travelling expenses, including the repair charges, amounted to Rs. 410 per
person. If each of the six friends had contributed an integral amount more than
Rs. 100 initially, then what was their total initial contribution?
a Rs. 1,800
b Rs. 570
c Rs. 2,460
o Bookmark
Solution:
Correct Answer : a
Q.83
The price of a product was Rs. 600 in the year 2008. It was increased by equal
amounts in 2009, 2010 and 2011. Which of the following cannot be a possible
value of the ratio of the percentage increments in the price of the product in the
year 2011 to that in the year 2009 over the previous year?
a 1:2
b 2:3
c 4:7
d 3:2
o Bookmark
Solution:
Correct Answer : d
Q.84
If (x – 1)2 = 16 and (x + y + 2)4 = 81, what is the maximum value of xy?
o Bookmark
Solution:
Correct Answer : 6
Q.85
Triangle ABC is inscribed in a circle with center O and radius √6 cm. From a
point T, two tangents are drawn, touching the circle at A and C respectively. If
∠ACT = 45° , what is the area in (sq. cm) of the triangle ACT?
a 6
b 3
c 9
d None of these
o Bookmark
Solution:
Correct Answer : b
Q.86
Harry, a milkman, buys pure milk and adds some water in it before selling. He
sells the mixture at a price 10% less than the price of pure milk and makes a
profit of 10%. Find the quantity (in litres) of water that he adds to every two
litres of pure milk.
a 4/9
b 2/3
c 2/9
d None of these
o Bookmark
Solution:
Correct Answer : a
Q.87
Find the sum of the series given below.
2 + 1 + 4 + 2 + 8 + 3 + 16 + 4 + 32 + 5 + … + 20th term.
o Bookmark
Solution:
Q.88
A bag contains 35 tokens numbered 1 to 35. Five of them are picked randomly
and are found to have five consecutive numbers. If the product of the five
numbers is P, how many distinct values that P can assume are multiples of 16?
a 23
b 15
c 21
d 31
o Bookmark
Solution:
Correct Answer : a
Q.89
f1(x) and f2(x) are quadratic functions such that f1(3) = f2(5) = 0. If f1(x) = 0 and
f2(x) = 0 have a common root and f1(5) × f2(7) = 12, what is the value of the
common root?
a 4
b 8
c Either 4 or 8
o Bookmark
Solution:
Correct Answer : d
Q.90
The radii, as well as the volumes, of a right circular cone and a cylinder are
equal. If the radius of the cone is three-fifth its slant height, what is the ratio of
the radius to the height of the cylinder?
a 4:9
b 9:4
c 4 : 27
d 27 : 4
o Bookmark
Solution:
Correct Answer : b
Q.91
In the figure given below, ‘O’ is the center of the circle. If PQ and QR are chords
of the circle, find the measure of ∠POR
a 15°
b 30°
c 45°
d 60°
o Bookmark
Solution:
Correct Answer : b
Q.92
a 0
b 1
c 2
d None of these
o Bookmark
Solution:
Correct Answer : b
Q.93
A packet of toffees is distributed in a class. A child who receives one-eighth of the
total number of toffees gets five times the average number of toffees received by
the remaining children in the class.
What is the strength of the class?
o Bookmark
Solution:
Correct Answer : 36
Q.94
For how many of the first 300 even natural numbers is the total number of
factors even?
o Bookmark
Solution:
All the natural numbers that have an odd number of factors are perfect squares
and vice versa. Out of the first 300 even natural numbers, there are 12 perfect
squares i.e. 4, 16, 36, 64, 100, 144, 196, 256, 324, 400, 484 and 576. Hence, there
are 300 – 12 = 288 numbers among the first 300 even natural numbers that have
an even number of factors.
Q.95
In a triangular park PQR, the length of side QR is 312 metres. The length of side
PR is the square of a natural number and the length of side PQ is an integer
power of 3. Also, the length of side PR is one-third the length of side PQ. What is
the perimeter of the triangular park?
a 636 m
b 596 m
c 556 m
d None of these
o Bookmark
Solution:
Correct Answer : a
Q.96
In the figure given below, ∠BAC = ∠DBC and AC : BC = 3 : 2. If the area of
the triangle ABD is 20 cm2, what is the area (in cm2) of the triangle BDC?
a 20
b 24
c 36
d 16
o Bookmark
Solution:
Correct Answer : d
Q.97
A circle is inscribed in a regular hexagon and the regular hexagon is inscribed in
a circle. By what percentage is the area of the bigger circle more than that of the
smaller circle?
a 25
b 30
c 40
d None of these
o Bookmark
Solution:
Correct Answer : d
Q.98
Seven years ago at the time of the marriage, the average age of a man and his
wife was 28 years. At present they have two children. Their daughter is 2 years
older than their son. One year after the birth of the daughter, the average age of
the man, wife and their daughter was 21 years. Find the present age of the son.
a 1 year
b 2 years
c 3 years
d 4 years
o Bookmark
Solution:
Correct Answer : c
Q.99
Pipe A can empty a tank in 12 minutes, pipe B can empty the tank in 18 minutes
and the pipe C can empty the tank in 36 minutes. In how much time the tank will
be empty if all the three pipes are opened simultaneously?
a 22 minutes
b 10 minutes
c 6 minutes
d 5 minutes
o Bookmark
Solution:
Correct Answer : c
Q.100
A faulty clock shows correct time at 6 a.m. It lags 1sec at the end of every 10 sec.
What will be the time shown by the clock at 9 p.m. on the same day?
a 7:00 p.m.
b 7:30 p.m.
c 8:00 p.m.
d 8:30 p.m.
o Bookmark
Solution:
Correct Answer : b

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a Some actions of the Russian political class need to be defended.

b Some despicable actions of the Russians are consciously dismissed by some

a Euphemisms can be pleasing to the ear.

b Euphemisms do not raise any hackles.

d Euphemisms are a linguistic tool in the manipulative hands of the

a It makes the users mindlessly mimic political ideologies and engage in

b It indulges deliberately in clouded vagueness, which makes it impossible for

c It allows the users to be insincere about their chosen topic.

d It is used by people to obfuscate the truth and to defend politically, actions

a Political communication and the misuse of euphemisms

b Political communication and the usage of clichéd phrases

c Deliberately obfuscating political communication

d Political communication and the English language

a ‘Political stabilization’ and ‘agricultural reform’

b ‘Spreading democracy’ and ‘land reform’

c ‘Big brother politics’ and ‘boundary dispute resolution’

d ‘State terrorism’ and ‘forced migration’

a The users feel such phrases are fashionable.

b The users feel such phrases are understood by everybody.

d The users thoughtlessly concur with pre-existing ideas and phrases.

b Gandhi’s actions, many of which were virtuous, were never criticized as

d Gandhi’s spiritual pursuits, significant as they were, were not subordinated

c Sainthood is achieved by fooling people into believing that saints are

d Certain saintly qualities are attributed to some people which makes a

a ambition has a natural tendency to be vulgar as it involves one-

b ambition represents greed and excessive competitiveness both of which are

c ambition when used exclusively for personal gain is a mark of vulgarity.

c the millionaires had cheated the government of Britain to build their

To do without self-respect, on the other hand, is to be an unwilling audience of

a woman who contributes to a journal of psychology.

b man with a poor academic career.

c man who is a writer by profession.

d woman who is steeped in popular culture.

To do without self-respect, on the other hand, is to be an unwilling audience of

a A place in one’s mind where one’s thoughts are uncontrollable.

b A place where one’s past takes centre stage.

c A place in one’s mind where one unflinchingly scrutinizes one’s mistakes.

To do without self-respect, on the other hand, is to be an unwilling audience of

a Innocence naturally employs self deception which allows one to love

To do without self-respect, on the other hand, is to be an unwilling audience of

c It arises from one’s status and reputation in society.

To do without self-respect, on the other hand, is to be an unwilling audience of

b one knows everything about oneself and so it becomes impossible to hide

c one’s innocence protects oneself from self deception.

To do without self-respect, on the other hand, is to be an unwilling audience of

b To show that a simple ‘good-begets-good’ or ‘bad-begets-bad’ relationship

Student loan debt also appears to be affecting homeownership trends. According

They arrived at their conclusion by studying a well-off university that began

a Compared to those people who hadn’t, professionals who had availed

b When student loans are financed through alternative sources more

d While measuring how lucrative an investment opportunity is, venture

Student loan debt also appears to be affecting homeownership trends. According

They arrived at their conclusion by studying a well-off university that began

a It will give a fillip to businesses.

b It will create more job opportunities.

c It will reduce job creation.

d It will encourage more students to take up public sector jobs.

Student loan debt also appears to be affecting homeownership trends. According

They arrived at their conclusion by studying a well-off university that began

a It should be made easier to avail student loans.

b It should be made possible to discharge a student loan via bankruptcy.

c Student loans should be stopped by facilitating alternative financing.

d The burden of outstanding student loans should be reduced by laying down