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QUESTION WITH SOLUTION


(Page # 2) NEET Examination (2018) (Code - RR)
[BIOLOGY]
1. What is the role of NAD+ in cellular respiration?
(1) It is a nucleotide source for ATP synthesis
(2) It functions as an electron carrier
(3) It functions as an enzyme
(4) It is the final electron acceptor for anaerobic respiration

1. dksf'kdh; 'olu esa NAD+ dh Hkwfedk D;k gS \


(1) ;g ,-Vh-ih- la'ys"k.k ds fy, ,d U;wfDy;ksVkbM L=ksr gSA
(2) ;g ,d bysDVªkWu okgd ds :i esa dk;Z djrk gSA
(3) ;g ,d ,Utkbe ds :i esa dk;Z djrk gSA
(4) ;g vok;oh; 'olu ds fy, vfUre bysDVªkWu xzkgh gSA
Ans. 2

2. Oxygen is not produced during photosynthesis by


(1) Cycas (2) Nostac
(3) Green sulphur bacteria (4) Chara

2. fdlesa çdk'k&la'ys"k.k esa vkWDlhtu ugh fudyrh \


(1) lkbdl (2) ukWLVkWd
(3) xzhu lYQj cSfDVfj;k (4) dSjk
Ans. 3

3. Double fertilization is
(1) Fusion of two male gametes with one egg
(2) Fusion of one male gamete with two polar nuclei.
(3) Fusion of two male gametes of a pollen tube with two different eggs
(4) Syngamy and triple fusion

3. nksgjk fu"kspu D;k gS \


(1) nks uj ;qXedksa dk ,d vaM ds lkFk lay;u
(2) ,d uj ;qXed dk nks /kzqoh; dsUnzdksa ds lkFk lay;u
(3) ,d ijkx uyh ds nks uj ;qXedksa dk nks fHkUu vaMks ds lkFk lay;u
(4) ;qXed lay;u vkSj f=lay;u

Ans. 4

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4. In which of the following froms is iron absorbed by plants?


(1) Free element (2) Ferrous (3) Ferric (4) Both ferric and ferrous
4. ikniksa }kjk yksg dk vo'kks"k.k fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl :i esa gksrk gS \
(1) eqDr rÙo (2) Qsjl (3) Qsfjd (4) Qsfjd vkSj Qsjl nksuksa
Ans. 3

5. Which of the following elements is responsible for maintaining turgor in cells?


(1) Potassium (2) Sodium (3) Magnesium (4) Calcium
5. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk rÙo dksf'kdkvksa esa LQhfr cuk, j[kus ds fy, mÙkjnk;h gS \
(1) ikSVsf'k;e (2) lksfM;e (3) eSXuhf'k;e (4) dSfY'k;e
Ans. 1

6. Which one of the following plants shows a very close relationship with a species of moth, where
none of the two can complete, its life cycle without the other?
(1) Banana (2) Yucca (3) Hydrilla (4) Viola
6. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk ikni 'kyHk dh ,d tkfr ds lkFk ,slk fudV lEcU/k n'kkZrk gS] ftlesa dksbZ Hkh ,d&nwljs ds fcuk
viuk thou pØ iw.kZ ugh dj ldrk \
(1) dsyk (2) ;qDdk (3) gkbfMªyk (4) ok;ksyk
Ans. 2

7. Pollen grains can be strored for several years in liquid nitrogen having temperature of
(1) –196ºC (2) –80ºC (3) –120ºC (4) –160ºC
7. ijkx d.kksa dk cgqr ls o"kksZ ds fy, nzo ukbVªkstu esa fdl rkieku ij Hk.Mkj.k fd;k tk ldrk gS \
(1) –196ºC (2) –80ºC (3) –120ºC (4) –160ºC
Ans. 1

8. What type of ecological pyramid would be obtained with the following data?
Secondary consumer : 120 g
Primary consumer : 60 g
Primary Producer : 10 g
(1) Upright pyramid of numbers
(2) Pyramid of energy
(3) Inverted pyramid of biomass
(4) Upright pyramid of biomass
8. fuEufyf[kr vk¡dM+ksa ls fdl çdkj dk ikfjfLFkfrdh; fijSfeM çkIr fd;k tk,xk \
f}rh;d miHkksDrk % 120 g
çkFkfed miHkksDrk % 60 g
çkFkfed mRiknd % 10 g
(1) la[;k dk lh/kk fijkfeM (2) ÅtkZ dk fijkfeM
(3) tSoek=k dk mYVk fijkfeM (4) tSoek=kk dk lh/kk fijkfeM
Ans. 3
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9. Natality refers to
(1) Number of individuals leaving the habitat
(2) Birth rate
(3) Death rate
(4) Number of individuals entering a habitat

9. uSSVsfyVh ls D;k vfHkçk; gS \


(1) vkokl dks NksM+us okys O;f"V;ksa dh la[;k (2) tUenj
(3) e`R;qnj (4) ,d vkokl esa O;f"V;ksa ds vkus okyksa dh la[;k
Ans. 2

10. World Ozone Day is celebrated on


(1) 16th September (2) 21st April (3) 5th June (4) 22nd April

10. fo'o vkst+ksu fnol dc euk;k tkrk gS \


(1) 16 flrEcj (2) 21 vçSy (3) 5 twu (4) 22 vçSy
Ans. 1

11. In stratosphere, which of the following elements acts as a catalyst in degradation of ozone and
release of molecular oxygen?
(1) Fe (2) Cl (3) Carbon (4) Oxygen

11. lerkieaMy esa] vkst+ksu ds fod`rhdj.k vkSj vkf.od vkWDlhtu dh foeqfDr esa fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk rÙo mRçsjd ds :i
esa dk;Z djrk gS \
(1) Fe (2) Cl (3) dkcZu (4) vkWDlhtu
Ans. 2

12. Niche is
(1) the range of temperature that the organism needs to live
(2) the physical space where an organism live
(3) all the biological factors in the organism's environment
(4) the functional role played by the organism where it lives
12. fudsr D;k gS \
(1) rkieku dk og ijkl tks tho ds jgus ds fy, pkfg,
(2) og HkkSfrd LFkku tgk¡ ,d tho/kkjh jgrk gS
(3) tho ds i;kZoj.k esa lHkh tSfod dkjd
(4) ,d tho }kjk fuHkkbZ xbZ dk;kZRed Hkwfedk] tgk¡ og jgrk gSA
Ans. 4

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13. Which of the following is a secondary pollutant?


(1)SO2 (2) CO2 (3) CO (4) O3

13. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk ,d f}rh;d çnw"kd gS \


(1)SO2 (2) CO2 (3) CO (4) O3
Ans. 4

14. Which of the following statement is correct?


(1) Horsetails are gymnosperms
(2) Saleginella is heterosporous while Salvinia is homosporous
(3) Ovules are not enclosed by ovary wall in gymnosperms
(4) Stems are usually unbranched in both Cycas and Cedrus.
14. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulk dFku lgh gS \
(1) gkWlZVsYl vuko`rchth gSA
(2) flysftusyk ,d fo"kechtk.kq okyk gS] tcfd lSYokfu;k ,d lechtk.kq okyk gSA
(3) vuko`rchft;ksa esa chtk.M v.Mk'k; fHkfÙk }kjk ifjc) ugh gksrsA
(4) lkbdl vkSj flMªl nksuksa esa lk/kkj.kr;k rus v'kkf[kr gksrs gSA
Ans. 3

15. Pneumatophores occurs in


(1) Carnivorous plants (2) Free-floating hydrophytes
(3) Halophytes (4) Submerged hydrophytes

15. 'olu ewy fdlesa gksrh gS \


(1) eklkagkjh ikniksa esa (2) Lora= mRIykod tyksnfHkn~ esa
(3) yo.ke`nksn~fHkn esa (4) tyeXu tyksnfHkn~ esa
Ans. 3
16. Sweet potato is a modified
(1) Tap root (2) Adventitious root (3) Stem (4) Rhizome
16. 'kadjdan fdldk :ikUrj.k gS \
(1) ewlyk ewy (2) viLFkkfud ewy (3) ruk (4) izdan
Ans. 2

17. Secondary xylem and phloem in dicot stem are produced by:
(1) Phellogen (2) Vascular cambium (3) Apical meristems (4) Axillary meristems
17. f}chti=h rus esa f}rh;d tkbye vkSj ¶yks,e fdlls mRiUu gksrs gS \
(1) dkxtu (2) laogu ,/kk (3) 'kh"kZLFk foHkT;k (4) d{kh; foHkT;k
Ans. 2

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18. Select the wrong statement


(1) Pseudopodia are locomotory and feeding structures in Sporozoans
(2) Mushrooms belong to Basidiomycetes
(3) Cell wall is present in members of Fungi and Plantae
(4) Mitochondria are the powerhouse of the cell in all kingdoms except Monera.
18. xyr dFku dks pqfu, %&
(1) Liksjkstksvuksa esa iknkHk pyus vkSj [kk| xzg.k djus dh lajpuk,¡ gSA
(2) N=dks dk lEcU/k csflfM;ksekbflfVt ls gSA
(3) dodksa vkSj ikni txr ds lnL;ksa esa dksf'kdk fHkfÙk mifLFkr gksrh gSA
(4) eksusjk dks NksM+dj lHkh thotxrksa dh dksf'kdk esa lw=df.kdk,¡ ,d 'kfDrx`g gSA
Ans. 1

19. Casparian strips occur in


(1) Cortex (2) Pericycle (3) Epidermis (4) Endodermis
19. dSLisjh iVV~h;k¡ dgk¡ gksrh gS \
(1) oYdqV (2) ifjjEHk (3) vUrLRopk (4) ckg~; Ropk
Ans. 4

20. Plants having little or no secondary growth are


(1) Conifers (2) Deciduous angiosperms
(3) Grasses (4) Cycads
20. og ikni dkSu ls gS ftuesa f}rh;d o`f) FkksM+h ;k fcYdqy ugha gksrh gS \
(1) 'kadq/kkjh (2) i.kZikrh vko`rchth
(3) ?kkl (4) lkbdsM~l
Ans. 3

21. A 'new' variety of rice was patended by a foreign company, though such varieties have been
present in india for a long time. This is related to
(1) Lerma Rojo (2) Sharbati Sonora (3) Co-667 (4) Basmati

21. ,d fons'kh dEiuh }kjk pkoy dh ubZ fdLe dk isVsUV djok;k x;k mlds gh tSlh fdLe Hkkjr esa yEcs le; ls mifLFk gS tks
fd lEcfU/kr gS \
(1) yekZjkstks (2) 'kjcrh lksuksjk (3) Co-667 (4) cklerh
Ans. 4

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22. Which of the following is commonly used as a vector for introducing a DNA fragment in human
lymphocytes?
(1) -phage (2) Ti plasmid (3) Retrovirus (4) pBR 322

22. ekuo ylhdk.kq esa Mh-,u-,- ds ,d VqdM+s ds fuos'ku ds fy, fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk osDVj lkekU;r% iz;qDr fd;k tkrk gS\
(1) -Qst (2) Ti IykfTeM (3) jsVªksokbjl (4) pBR 322
Ans. 3

23. Use of bioresources by multinational companies and organisation without authorisation fromv
the concerned country and its people is called.
(1) Biodegradation (2) Biopiracy (3) Bio-Infringement (4) Bioexploitation

23. cgqjkT; dEifu;ksa vkSj laxBuksa }kjk fdlh ns'k ;k mlds yksxks dh fcuk vuqKfIr ds tSo lalk/kuksa dh mi;ksx dks D;k dgk tkrk
gS \
(1) tSo vixBu (2) ck;ksikbjslh (3) tSo&mYya?ku (4) tSo 'kks"k.k
Ans. 2

24. Select the correct match:


(1) T.H. Morgan - Transduction
(2) F2 x Recessive parent - Dihybrid cross
(3) Ribozyme - Nucleic acid
(4) G. Mendel - Transformation

24. lgh lqesfyr dks pqfu, &


(1) Vh- ,p eksxZu - ikjØe.k
(2) F2 x vizHkkoh tud - f}ladj Økl
(3) jkbckstkbe - U;wfDyd vEy
(4) th esaMy - :ikUrj.k

Ans. 3

25. The correct order of steps in Polymerase Chain reaction (PCR) is


(1) Denaturation, Extension, Annealing (2) Annealing, Extension, Denaturation
(3) Extension, Denaturation, Annealing (4) Denaturation, Annealing, Extension

25. ikfyejst Ja`[kyk vfHkfØ;k (PCR) esa pj.kksa dk lgh Øe D;k gS \


(1) fod`frdj.k] foLrj.k] vfuyu (2) vfuyu] foLrj.k] fod`frdj.k
(3) foLrj.k] fod`frdj.k] vfuyu (4) fod`frdj.k] vfuyu] foLrj.k

Ans. 4

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26. In India, the organisation responsible for assessing the safety of introducing genetically modified
organisms for public use is
(1) Research Committee on Genetic Manipulation (RCGM)
(2) Council for Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR)
(3) Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR)
(4) Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC)
26. lkoZtfud mi;ksx ds fy, vkuqoaf'kdr% :ikarfjr thoksa ds çorZu ds ckjs esa lqj{kk ds ewY;kadu ds fy, Hkkjr esa dkSu&lk laxBu
mÙkjnk;h gS \
(1) vkuqoaf'kd ifjpkyu vuqla/kku lfefr (RCGM)
(2) oSKkfud ,oa vkS|ksfxd vuqla/kku ifj"kn~ (CSIR)
(3) Hkkjrh; vk;qfoZKku vuqla/kku ifj"kn~ (ICMR)
(4) vkuqoaf'kd vfHk;kaf=dh ewY;kadu lfefr (GEAC)
Ans. 4

27. The stage during which separation of the paired homologous chromosomes begins is
(1) Diakinesis (2) Diplotene (3) Pachytene (4) Zygotene
27. ;qfXer letkr xq.klw=ksa dk i`FkDdj.k fdl izkoLFkk esa vkjEHk gksrk gS \
(1) ikjxfrØe (2) f}iê (3) LFkwyiê (4) ;qXeiê
Ans. 2

28. The Golgi complex participates in


(1) Respiration in bacteria (2) Formation of secretory vesicles
(3) Fatty acid breakdown (4) Activation of amino acid
28. xkWYth lfEeJ fdlesa Hkkx ysrk gS
(1) thok.kqvksa ds 'olu esa (2) L=koh iqfVdkvksa ds cukus esa
(2) olk vEy ds vi?kVu esa (4) ,sfeuks vEy ds lfØ;.k esa
Ans. 2

29. Stomatal movement is not affected by


(1) O2 concentration (2) Light (3) Temperature (4) CO2 concentration
29. jU/kzksa dh xfr'khyrk fdlls izHkkfor ugha gksrh gS \
(1) O2lkanzrk ls (2) izdk'k ls (3) rkieku ls (4) CO2lkanzrk ls
Ans. 1

30. Stomata in grass leaf are


(1) Rectangular (2) Kidney shaped
(3) Dumb-bell-shaped (4) Barrel shaped

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30. ?kkl dh iÙkh esa jU/kz dSls gksrs gSa \


(1) vk;rkdkj (2) o`Ddkdkj
(3) Macykdkj (4) <ksydkdkj
Ans. 3
31. The two functional groups characteristic of sugars are
(1) carbonyl and phosphate (2) carbonyl and methyl
(3) hydroxyl and methyl (4) carbonyl and hydroxyl
32. 'kdZjk ds nks vfHky{kf.kd dk;kZRed lewg dkSu&ls gS \
(1) dkckZsfuy vkSj QWkLQsV (2) dkcksZfuy vks esfFky
(3) gkbMªkWfDly vkSj esfFky (4) dkcksZfuy vkSj gkbMªkWfDly
Ans. 4

32. Which of the following is not a product of light reaction of photosynthesis?


(1) NADPH (2) NADH (3) ATP (4) Oxygen
32. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk ,d izdk'k&la'ys"k.k dh izdk'k vfHkfØ;k dk mRikn ugha gS \
(1) NADPH (2) NADH (3) ATP (4) Oxygen
Ans. 2

33. Which of the following is true for nucleolus?


(1) It takes part in spindle formation
(2) It is a membrane bound structure
(3) Larger nucleoli are present in dividing cells
(4) Is is a site for active ribosomal RNA synthesis.
33. dsfUnzd ds fy, fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk lgh gS\
(1) ;g rdqZ cuus es Hkkx ysrk gSA
(2) ;g fHkfÙk f?kjk jgrk gSA
(3) foHkkftr gksrh dksf'kdkvksa es cMs+ dsfUnzd gksrs gSA
(4) ;g jkbckslksey RNA la'ys"k.k dk fØ;k'khy LFky gSA
Ans. 4

34. Which among the following is not a prokaryote?


(1) Nostoc (2) Mycobacterium (3) Saccharomyces (4) Oscillatoria
34. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk ,d iwoZdsUnzdh ugha gS \
(1) ukWLVkWd (2) ekbdkscSDVhfj;e (3) lSdSjksekblht+ (4) vkWflySVksfj;k
Ans. 3

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35. Winged pollen grains are present in


(1) Mango (2) Cycas (3) Mustard (4) Pinus

35. li{k ijkxd.k fdlesa gksrs gS \


(1) vke (2) lkbdl (3) Lkjlksa (4) ikbul
Ans. 4

36. After karyogamy followed by meiosis, spores are produced exogenously in


(1) Agaricus (2) Alternaria (3) Neurospora (4) Saccharomyces

36. fuEufyf[kr es ls fdlesa dsUnzdlay;u rFkk v/kZlw=hfoHkktu ds i'pkr fctk.kq cfgtkZr :i es mRié gksrs gS \
(1) ,sxSfjdl (2) vkYVusZsfj;k (3) U;wjksLiksjk (4) lSdSjksekblht+

Ans. 1

37. Which one is wrongly matched?


(1) Gemma cups - Marchantia
(2) Biflagellate zoospores - Brown algae
(3) Uniflagellate gametes - Polysiphonia
(4) Unicellular organism - Chlorella
37. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulk xyr :i ls lqesfyr gS \
(1) tsek/kkuh - ekdsZf'k;k
(2) f}d'kkfHkd pychtk.kq - Hkwjs 'kSoky
(3) ,d d'kkfHkd ;qXed - ikWyh lkbQksfu;k
(4) ,d dksf'kd tho - Dyksjsyk
Ans. 3

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38. Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given
below:
Column I Column II
a. Herbarium i. It is a place having a collection of preserved plants and animals
b. key ii. A list that enumerates methodically all the species found in an area
with brief decription aiding indentification.
c. Museum iii. Is a place where dried and pressed plant specimens mounted on
sheets are kept
d. Catalogue iv. A booklet containing a list of characters and their alternate which
are helpful in identification of various taxa.
a b c d
(1) ii iv iii i
(2) iii ii i iv
(3) i iv iii ii
(4) iii iv i ii

38. LrEHk esa I esa nh xbZ enksa dk LrEHk II dh enksa ls feyku dhft;s vkSj uhps fn;s x;s fodYiksa es ls lgh fodYi dk p;u dhft;sA
LrEHk I LrEHk II
a. ikniky; i. ijhjf{kr ikniksa vkSj tUrqvksa ds laxzg dk ,d LFkku
b. dqath ii. ,d {ks= esa ik;h x;h lHkh tkfr;ksa dk fof/kiwoZd x.ku djrs gq, vkSj mudh igpku dh
lqxerk ds fy, laf{kIr o.kZu djrs gq, ,d lwph
c. laxzgky; iii. ,slk LFkku tgk ikni uewuks dks lw[kkdj vkSj nckdj i=ij vkjksfir dj j[kk tkrk gS
d. xzUFk lwph iv. ,d iqfLrdk ftlesa y{k.kksa dh lwph vkSj muds fodYi gksrs gS tks fofHkUu oxZdks dh igpku
djus esa lgk;d gksrs gSA
a b c d
(1) ii iv iii i
(2) iii ii i iv
(3) i iv iii ii
(4) iii iv i ii
Ans. 4

39. Which of the following flowers only once in its life-time?


(1) mango (2) Jackfruit (3) Bamboo species (4) Papaya

39. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdlesa mlds thou dky esa dsoy ,d ckj gh iq"iu gksrk gS \
(1) vke (2) dVgy (3) ckl Lih'kht (4) iihrk
Ans. 3

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40. Which of the following pairs is wrongly matched?


(1) XO type sex determination - Grasshopper
(2) ABO blood grouping - Co-dominance
(3) Starch synthesis in pea - Multiple alleles
(4) T.H. Morgan - Linkage

40. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk ;qXe xyr :i ls lqesfyr gS\


(1) XO çdkj fyax fu/kkZj.k % fVM~Mk
(2) ABO jDr lewgu % lgizHkkfork
(3) eVj esa eaM la'ys"k.k % cgqfodYih
(4) Vh-,p- ekWxZu % lgyXurk
Ans. 3

41. Offsets are produced by


(1) Parthenocarpy (2) Mitotic divisions

(3) Meiotic division (4) Parthenogenesis

41. vkWQlsVl fdlds }kjk mRikfnr gksrs gS\


(1) vfu"ksdQyu }kjk (2) lw=h foHkktu }kjk
(3) v)Zlw=h foHkktu }kjk (4) vfu"ksd tuu }kjk
Ans. 2

42. Which of the following has proved helpful in preserving pollen as fossils?
(1) Oil content (2) Cellulosic intine

(3) Pollenkitt (4) Sporopollenin

42. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulk ijkx dks thok'eksa ds :i esa ifjjf{kr djus esa lgk;d lkfcr gqvkA
(1) rsyh; vo;o (2) lsYkwyksl okyk vUrpky
(3) ijksx fdV (4) Liksjksiksysfuu
Ans. 4

43. Select the correct statement:


(1) Spliceosomes take part in translation.
(2) Punnett square was developed by a British scientist.

(3) Franklin Stahl coined the term "linkage".


(4) Transduction was discovered by S. Altman.

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43. lgh dFku dks pqfu;s


(1) LIykbfl;kslkse LFkkukUrj.k esa Hkkx ysrs gSA
(2) iuhV oxZ ,d fczfV'k oSKkfud }kjk fodflr fd;k x;k FkkA
(3) lgyXurk 'kCn dk fuekZ.k ÝSadfyu LVkgy us fd;k
(4) ikjØe.k dh [kkst ,l- vYVeku us dh Fkh
Ans. 2

44. The experimental proof for semiconservative replication of DNA was first shown in a
(1) Plant (2) Bacterium (3) Fungus (4) Virus

44. DNA ds v)Zlaj{kh izfrd`fr dk izk;ksfxd izek.k loZizFke fdles n'kkZ;k x;k Fkk \
(1) ikni esa (2) thok.kq esa (3) dod esa (4) fo"kk.kq esa
Ans. 2

45. Select the correct match:


(1) Matthew Meselson and F. Stahl – Pisum sativum
(2) Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase – TMV
(3) Alec Jeffreys – Streptococcus pneumoniae

(4) Francois Jacob and Jacques Monod – Lac operon

45. lgh lqesy dks pqfu;s &


(1) esF;q eSlYlu vkSj ,Q LVkgy - ikble lsVkbou
(2) vyÝsM g'ksZ vkSj ekFkkZ psl - TMV

(3) ,ysd tsÝhl - LVªsIVksdksdl U;weksuh


(4) Ýsadokl tsdc rFkk tsDos eksukWM - ysd vksisjksu
Ans. 4

46. Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given
below:
Column I Column I
a. Tidal volume i. 2500 – 3000 mL
b. Inspiratory Reserve volume ii. 1100 – 1200 mL
c. Expiratrory Reserve volume iii. 500 – 550 mL
d. Residual volume iv. 1000 – 1100 mL
a b c d
(1) i iv ii iii
(3) iii i iv ii
(3) iii ii i iv
(4) iv iii ii i
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46. LrEHk I esa nh xbZ enksa dk LrEHk II dh enksa ls feyku dhft, vkSj uhps fn, x, fodYiksa esa ls lgh fodYi dk p;u dhft,%
LrEHk I LrEHk II
a. Tokjh; vk;ru i. 2500 – 3000 fe-yh-
b. var%'olu lqjf{kr vk;ru ii. 2500 – 3000 fe-yh-
c. fu%'olu lqjf{kr vk;ru iii. 500 – 550 fe-yh-
d. vof'k"V vk;ru iv. 1000 – 1100 fe-yh-
a b c d
(1) i iv ii iii

(2) iv iii ii i

(3) iii i iv ii
(4) iii ii i iv

Ans. 2

47. Which of the following options correctly represents the lung conditions in asthma and
emphysema respectively?
(1) Increased respiratory surface; Inflammation of bronchioles
(2) Increased number of bronchioles; Increased respiratory surface

(3) Inflammation of bronchioles; Decreased respiratory surface

(4) Decreased respiratory surface; Inflammation of bronchioles

47. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk fodYi Øe'k% nek vkSj okrLQhfr esa QsQM+ksa dh n'kk dks mfpr :i ls n'kkZrk gS\
(1) 'oluh lrg esa vf/kdrk; 'olfudk esa 'kksFk
(2) 'olfudk dh la[;k esa vf/kdrk; 'oluh lrg esa vf/kdrk
(3) 'olfudk esa 'kksFk; 'oluh lrg esa deh
(4) 'oluh dh la[;k esa vf/kdrk; 'olfudk esa 'kksFk
Ans. 3

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48. Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given
below:
Column I Column I
a. Tricuspid valve i. Between left atrium and left ventricle
b. Bicuspid valve ii. Between right ventricle and pulmonary artery
c. Semilunar valve iii. Between right atrium and right ventricle

a b c
(1) i ii iii
(3) i iii ii
(3) iii i ii
(4) ii i iii

48. LrEHk I esa nh xbZ enksa dk LrEHk II dh enksa ls feyku dhft, vkSj uhps fn, x, fodYiksa esa ls lgh fodYi dk p;u dhft,%
LrEHk I LrEHk II
a. f=oyuh dikV i. ck,¡ vfyan ,oa ck,¡ fuy; ds chp
b. f}oyuh dikV ii. nkfgus fuy; ,oa Qq¶Qqlh; /keuh ds chp
c. v/kZpUnz dikfVdk iii. nkfgus vfyan ,oa nkfgus fuy; ds chp
a b c
(1) i ii iii

(2) ii i iii

(3) i iii ii
(4) iii i ii
Ans. 3

49. All of the following are part of an operon except


(1) an enhancer (2) structural genes

(3) an operator (4) a promoter


49. buesa ls dkSu&lk vksisjkWu dk Hkkx ugh gS \
(1) ,Ugkalj (2) lajpukRed thu
(3) çpkyd (4) mUuk;d
Ans. 1

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50. AGGTATCGCAT is a sequence from the coding strand of a gene. What will be the corresponding
sequence of the transcribed mRNA?
(1) ACCUAUGCGAU (2) UGGTUTCGCAT
(3) AGGUAUCGCAU (4) UCCAUAGCGUA
50. ,d thu ds dksfMax jTtq dk Øe AGGTATCGCAT gS blds }kjk vuqysf[kr mRNA dk lacaf/kr Øe D;k gksxk \
(1) ACCUAUGCGAU (2) UGGTUTCGCAT
(3) AGGUAUCGCAU (4) UCCAUAGCGUA
Ans. 3

51. According to Hugo de Vries, the mechanism of evolution is


(1) Phenotypic variations (2) Saltation
(3) Multiple step mutations (4) Minor mutations
51. áwxks Mh ozht ds vuqlkj fodkl dh fØ;kfof/k fdl çdkj gksrh gS \
(1) ySafxd n`'; ç:i ifjorZu ¼y{k.kç:ih fofHkUurk½ (2) lkYVs'ku
(3) cgqpj.k mRifjorZu (4) y?kq ifjorZu
Ans. 2

52. Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given
below:
Column I Column I
a. Proliferative Phase i. Breakdown of endometrial lining
b. Secretory Phase ii. Follicular Phase
c. Menstruation iii. Luteal Phase
a b c
(1) ii iii i
(3) i iii ii
(3) iii ii i
(4) iii i ii
52. LrEHk I esa nh xbZ enksa dk LrEHk II dh enksa ls feyku dhft, vkSj uhps fn, x, fodYiksa esa ls lgh fodYi dk p;u dhft,%
LrEHk I LrEHk II
a. çpqjksn~Hkou çkoLFkk i. xHkkZ'k; var%Lrj dk fo?kVu
b. L=koh çkoLFkk ii. iqVdh; çkoLFkk
c. _rqL=ko iii. ihrfi.M çkoLFkk
a b c
(1) ii iii i
(3) i iii ii
(3) iii ii i
(4) iii i ii
Ans. 1

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53. A woman has an X-linked condition on one of her X chromosomes. This chromosome can be
inherited by
(1) Only grandchildren (2) Only sons

(3) Only daughters (4) Both sons and daughters


53. ,d L=h ds ,d X xq.klw= esa X&layXu voLFkk gSA ;g xq.klw= fduesa oa'kkxr gksxk \
(1) dsoy iksrk&iksfr;ksa@ukrh&ukfruksa esa (2) dsoy iq=ksa esa
(3) dsoy iqf=;ksa esa (4) iq=ksa vkSj iqf=;ksa nksuksa esa

Ans. 4

54. Ciliates differ from all other protozoans in


(1) using pseudopodia for capturing prey
(2) having a contractile vacuole for removing excess water

(3) using flagella for locomotion


(4) having two types of nuclei
54. flfy,Vªl vU; lHkh izksVkstk+svuksa ls fdl izdkj feé gSa \
(1) ;s f'kdkj dks idM+us ds fy, iknkHk dk iz;ksx djrs gSa
(2) buesa vfrjfDr ikuh dks fudkyus ds fy, ladwpu'khy /kkuh gksrh gS
(3) ;s xeu ds fy, d'kkfHkdk dk iz;ksx djrs gSa
(4) buesa nks izdkj ds dsUnzd gksrs gS
Ans. 4

55. Indentify the vertebrate group of animals characterized by crop and gizzard in its digestive
system.
(1) Aves (2) Reptilia (3) Amphibia (4) Osteichthyes
55. d'ks:dh lewg ds mu tUrqvksa dh igpku dhft, tks vius ikpu ra=k esa ØkWi ,oa fxt+MZ }kjk vfHkyf{kr gSA
(1) ,oht+ (2) jsIVhfy;k (3) ,sfEQfc;k (4) vkWfLVDFkht+
Ans. 1

56. Which of the following organisms are known as chief producers in the oceans?
(1) Cyanobacteria (2) Diatoms (3) Dinoflagellates (4) Euglenoids
56. fuEyfyf[kr esa ls dkSu&ls tho egklkxjksa esa eq[; mRiknd ds :i esa tkus tkrs gS \
(1) lk;ukscSDVhjh;k (2) Mk;VEl (3) Mk;uks¶yStsVªl (4) ;wXyhukbM~l
Ans. 2

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57. Which of the following features is used to indentify a male cockroach from a female cockroach?
(1) Forewings with darker tegmina
(2) Presence of caudal styles

(3) Presence of a boat shaped sternum on the 9th abdominal segment


(4) Presence of anal cerci
57. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&ls y{k.k uj dkWdjksp dh igpku eknk dkWdjksp ls djrs gS \
(1) xgjs izokj vkPNn lfgr vxz ia[k
(2) iqPN ;wd dh mifLFkfr
(3) ukSoas mnj [kaM ij ukSdk ds vkdkj dh mjksfLFk dh mifLFkfr
(4) xqnywe dh mifLFkfr
Ans. 2

58. Which of the following animals does not undergo metamorphosis?


(1) Moth (2) Tunicate (3) Earthworm (4) Starfish
58. fuEufyf[kr tUrqvksa esa ls dkSu&ls tUrq dk;karj.k ugha djrs \
(1) ekWFk (2) VîwfudsV (3) dsapqvk (4) LVkjfQ+'k
Ans. 3

59. Which one of these animals is not a homeotherm?


(1) Camelus (2) Chelone (3) Macropus (4) Psittacula
59. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk tUrq lerkih ugha gS \
(1) dSesyl (2) dhyksu (3) eSØksil (4) flVSdqyk
Ans. 2
60. The transparent lens in the human eye is held in its place by
(1) smooth muscles attached to the iris
(2) ligaments attached to the iris
(3) ligaments attached to the cilliary body
(4) smooth muscles attached to the ciliary body
60. ekuo us= esa ikjn'khZ ySal fdlds }kjk vius LFkku ij jgrk gS \
(1) vkbfjl ls tqM+h fpduh isf'k;ksa }kjk
(2) vkbfjl ls tqM+s Luk;qvksa }kjk
(3) i{ekHk dk; ls tqMs+ Luk;qvksa }kjk
(4) i{ekHk dk; ls tqMh+ fpduh isf'k;ksa }kjk
Ans. 3

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NEET Examination(2018) (Code - RR) (Page # 19)

61. Which of the following structure or reigions is incorrectly paired with its function ?
(1) Hypothalamus : Product i on of rel easi ng hormone s and re gul ati on of
temperature, hunger and thirst
(2) Limbic system : consists of fibre tracts that interconnect different regions of
brain; controls movement.
(3) Medulla oblongata : controls respiration and cardiovascular reflexes
(4) Corpus callosum : band of fibres connecting left and right cerebral hemispheres
61. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lh lajpuk,¡ vFkok {ks= mlds dk;Z ls xyr :i ls ;qfXer gSa \
(1) gkbiksFkSysel % foekpu gkWeksZuksa dk mRiknu ,oa rkieku] Hkw[k rFkk I;kl dk fu;a=.k djukA
(2) fyafcd ra= % rarqvksa ds {ks= tks efLr"d ds fofHké {ks=ksa dks vkil esa tksM+rs gS( xfr dk fu;a=.k
djukA
(3) esMwyk vkCyk¡xsVk % 'olu ,oa ân; ifjlapkjh ifjorksZa dks fu;af=r djukA
(4) dkWiZl dSyksle % Ckk,¡ ,oa nk,¡ izefLr"d xksyk/kksaZ dks tksM+us okys rarqvksa dh iêhA
Ans. 2

62. Which of the following hormones can play a significant role in osteoporosis ?
(1) Estrogen and Parathyroid hormone
(2) Progesterone and Aldosterone
(3) Aldosterone and Prolactin
(4) Parathyroid hormone and Prolactin
62. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl gkWeksZu dh vfLFklqf"krk esa eq[; Hkwfedk gS \
(1) ,LVªkstu ,oa iSjkFkkbjkWbM gkWeksZu
(2) izkstsLVsjksu ,oa ,sYMksLVsjksu
(3) ,sYMksLVsjksu ,oa izksySfDVu
(4) iSjkFkkbjkWbM gkWeksZu ,oa izksySfDVe
Ans. 1

63. Which of the following is an amino acid derived hormone ?

(1) Estradiol (2) Ecdysone (3) Epinephrine (4) Estriol


63. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk gkWeksZu ,sehuks vEy ls O;qRié gksrk gS \
(1) ,LVªkfMvkWy (2) ,DMkblksu (3) ,fiusÝhu (4) ,fLVªvkWy
Ans. 3

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64. Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given
below :
Column I Column II
a. Glycosuria i. Accumulation of uric acid in joints
b. Gout ii. mass of crystallised salts within the kidney
c. Renal calculi iii. Inflammation in glomeruli
d. Glomerular nephritis iv. Presence of glucose in urine
a b c d
(1) ii iii i iv
(2) i ii iii iv

(3) iii ii iv i
(4) iv i ii iii

64. LrEHk I esa nh xbZ enksa dk LrEHk IIdh enksa ls feyku dhft, vkSj uhps fn, x;s fodYiksa esa ls lgh fodYi dk p;u dhft,
LrEHk I LrEHk II
a. Xykbdkslwfj;k i. tksM+ks esa ;wfjd vEy dk laxzg gksuk
b. xkmV ii. o`Dd esa fØLVfyr yo.kksa ds fi.M
c. o`Ddh; iFkjh (jhuy dSYD;wykbZ) iii. xqPNks esa iznkgdrk
d. xqPN o`Dd'kksFk iv. ew= esa Xywdksl dk gksuk
a b c d
(1) ii iii i iv
(2) i ii iii iv

(3) iii ii iv i
(4) iv i ii iii
Ans. 4

65. Match the items given in Column I with those in column II and select the correct option given
below
Column I Column II
(Function) (Part of Excretory system)
a. Ultrafiltration i. Henle's loop
b. Concentration of urine ii. Ureter
c. Transport of urine iii. Urinary bladder
d. Storage of urine iv. Malpighian corpuscle
v. Proximal convoluted tubule
a b c d
(1) v iv i ii
(2) iv i ii iii

(3) iv v ii iii
(4) v iv i iii

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65. LrEHk I esa nh xbZ enksa dk LrEHk II dh enksa ls feyku dhft, vkSj uhps fn, x, fodYiks esa ls lgh fodYi dk p;u dhft,
LrEHk I LrEHk II
(dk;Z) (mRltZu ra= dk Hkkx)
a. vfrlw{e fuL;anu i. gsuys ik'k
b. ew= dk lkanz.k ii. ew=okfguh
c. ew= dk vfHkxeu iii. ew=k'k;
d. ew= dk laxzg.k iv. eSyihxh df.kdk
v. lehiLFk laofyr ufydk\
a b c d
(1) v iv i ii
(2) iv i ii iii

(3) iv v ii iii
(4) v iv i iii
Ans. 2

66. Which of the following gastric cells indirectly help in erythropoiesis ?


(1) Goblet cell (2) Mucous cell (3) Chief cells (4) Parietal cells

66. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lh tBj dksf'kdk,¡ vizR;{k :i ls jDrk.kq mRifÙk esa enn djrh gS \
(1) dy'k (XkksCysV) dksf'kdk,¡ (2) 'ys"ek dksf'kdk,-¡ (3) eq[; dksf'kdk (4) fHkfÙk; dksf'kdk,¡
Ans. 4

67. Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option tgiven
below :
Column I Column II
a. Fibrinogen i. Osmotic balance
b. Globulin ii. Blood clotting
c. Albumin iii. Defence mechanism
a b c
(1) i iii ii
(2) i ii iii

(3) iii ii i
(4) ii iii i

67. LrEHk I esa nh xbZ enksa dk LrEHk II dh enksa ls feyku dhft, vkSj uhps fn, x, fodYiks esa ls lgh fodYi dk p;u dhft,
LrEHk I LrEHk II
a. Qkbfczukstu i. ijklj.kh larqyu
b. Xykscqfyu ii. jDr FkDdk
c. ,sYcwfeu iii. çfrj{kk fØ;kfof/k
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a b c
(1) i iii ii
(2) i ii iii

(3) iii ii i
(4) ii iii i
Ans. 4

68. Calcium is important in skeletal muscle contraction because it


(1) detaches the myosin head from the actin filament.
(2) activates the myosin ATPase by binding to it.

(3) binds to troponin to remove the masking of active sites on actin for myosin
(4) prevents the formation of bonds between the myosin cross bridges and the actin filament
68. dadky is'kh ladqpu esa dSfY'k;e egÙoiw.kZ gS D;ksafd ;g
(1) ,sfDVu rarq ls ek;ksflu 'kh"kZ dks vyx dj nsrk gSA.
(2) ek;ksflu ,Vhih,st ls ca/kdj mls fØ;k'khy djrk gSA
(3) Vªksiksfuu ls ca/kdj ,sfDVu ds lfØ; LFky ds vkoj.k dks gVk nsrk gS ek;ksflu ds fy,
(4) ek;ksflu ØkWl lsrq vkSj ,sfDVu rarq ds e/; vkca/k fuekZ.k dks jksdrk gSA
Ans. 3

69. Which of the following is an occupational respiratory disorder ?

(1) Botulism (2) Silicosis (3) Anthracis (4) Emphysema


69. fuEufyf[kr esa ls O;kolkf;d 'olu fodkj dk mnkgj.k D;k gS \
(1) ckWVqfyTe (2) flfydke;rk (3) ,sUFkzSfll (4) okrLQhfr
Ans. 2

70. Which of these statements is incorrect ?


(1) Glycolysis operates as long as it is supplie with NAD that can pick up hydrogen atoms
(2) Glycolysis occurs in cytosol
(3) Enzymes of TCA cycle are present mitochondrial matrix
(4) Oxidative phosphorylation takes place outer mitochondrial membrane

70. buesa ls dkSu&lk dFku xyr gS \


(1) Xykbdksfyfll rc rd gksrk gS tc rd bls gkbMªkstu ijek.kqvksa dks mBkus ds fy, NAD feyrk jgrk gS
(2) Xykbdksfyfll dksf'kdk foys; esa laiUu gksrh gSA
(3) TCA pØ ds ,atkbe lw=df.kdk ds vk/kk=h esa fLFkr gksrs gSA
(4) Xykbdksfyfll QkWLQksfjyhdj.k lw=df.kdk dh cká f>Yyh esa ?kfVr gksrs gSA
Ans. 4

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71. Nissl bodies are mainly composed of


(1) Nucleic acids and SER (2) DNA and RNA
(3) Proteins and lipids (4) Free ribosomes and PER

71. fuly ds fi.M eq[;r% fdlds cus gksrs gS \


(1) U;wfDyd vEy ,oa SER (2) DNA ,oa RNA
(3) çksVhu ,oa fyfiM (4) eqDr jkbckslkse ,oa PER
Ans. 4

72. Select the incorrct match :


(1) Submetacentric Chromosomes - L-shaped chromosomes
(2) Allosomes - Sex chromosomes
(3) Lampbrush chromosomes - Diplotene bivalents
(4) Polytene chromosomes - Oocytes of amphibians
72. xyr feyku dk p;u dhft,%
(1) mie/;dsanzh xq.klq= & L vkdkfj; xq.klw=
(2) ,sykslkse & fyax xq.klw=
(3) ySaiczq'k xq.klw= & f}iê ds ;qxyh
(4) cgqiêh; xq.klw= & ,sfEQfc;uksa ds vaMd
Ans. 4

73. Many ribosomes may associate with a single mRNA to form multiple copies of a polypeptide
simultaneously. Such strings of ribosomes an termed as
(1) Plastidome (2) polyhedral bodies

(3) Polysome (4) Nucleosome

73. cgqr ls jkbckslkse ,d mRNA ls lac) gksdj ,d lkFk ikWfyisYVkbM dh dbZ çfr;k¡ cukrs gSA jkbckslkse dh ,slh J`a[kykvksa dks
D;k dgrs gS \
(1) IykfLVMkse (2) cgqryh; fi.M
(3) cgqlw= (4) dsfUnzdkHk
Ans. 3

74. Which of the following events does not occur in rough endoplasmic reticulum ?
(1) Cleavage of signal peptide
(2) Protein glycosylation

(3) Protein folding


(4) Phospholipid synthesis

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74. jQ ,aMksIykfT+ed jsfVdqye (RER) esa fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulh ?kVuk ugh gksrh \
(1) ladsr isIVkbM dk fonyu
(2) çksVhu dk Xykbdksflys'ku
(3) çksVhu dk oyu
(4) QkWLQksfyfiM la'ys"k.k
Ans. 4

75. Which of the following terms describe human dentition ?


(1) Pleurodont, Monophyodont, homodont
(2) Thecodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont

(3) Thecodont, Diphyodont, Homodont


(4) pleurodont, diphyodont, heterodont

75. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSuls ikfjHkkf"kd 'kCn ekuo narfoU;kl dks of.kZr djrs gS \
(1) ik'oZnarh] ,dckjnarh] lenarh
(2) xrZnarh] f}ckjnarh] fo"kenarh
(3) xrZnarh] f}ckjnarh] lenarh
(4) ik'oZnarh] f}ckjnarh] fo"kenarh
Ans. 2

76. In a growing population of a country


(1) reproductive and pre-reproductive individuals are equal in number
(2) reproductive individuals are less than the post-reproductive individuals
(3) pre-reproductive individuals are more than the reproductive individuals
(4) pre-reproductive, individuals are less than the reproductive individuals

76. ,d ns'k dh c<+rh gqbZ tula[;k esa


(1) tuu{ke ,ao tuuiwoZ O;f"V la[;k esa cjkcj gksrs gSA
(2) tuu{ke O;f"V tuuksrj O;f"V;ksa ls de gksrs gSA
(3) tuuiwoZ O;f"V tuu{ke O;f"V;ksa ls vf/kd gksrs gSA
(4) tuuiwoZ O;f"v tuu{ke O;f"V;ksa ls de gksrs gSA
Ans. 3

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99, 8003899588
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77. Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given
below :
Column I Column II
a. Eutrophication i. UV-B radiation
b. Sanitary landfill ii. Deforestation
c. Snow blindness iii.nutrient enrichment
d. Jhum cultivation iv. Waste disposal
a b c d
(1) iii iv i ii
(2) i iii iv ii

(3) ii i iii iv
(4) i ii iv iii

77. LrEHk I esa nh xbZ enksa dk LrEHk II dh enksa ls feyku dhft, vkSj uhps fn, x, fodYiksa esa ls lgh fodYi dk p;u dhft,A
LrEHk I LrEHk II
a. lqiks"k.k i. UV-B fofdj.k
b. lSfuVjh ySaMfQy ii. ouksUewyu

c. fgekU/krk (Luks CykabMusl) iii. iks"kd le`f)


d. >we [ksrh iv. vif'k"V fuiVku
a b c d
(1) iii iv i ii
(2) i iii iv ii

(3) ii i iii iv
(4) i ii iv iii
Ans. 1

78. Which part of poppy plant is used to obtain the drug "Smack" ?
(1) Roots (2) Latex (3) Flowers (4) Leaves

78. ^^Lesd** uked Mªx iksLrk ikS/ks ds fdl Hkkx ls izkIr gksrh gS \
(1) tM+ks ls (2) ySVsDl ls (3) Qwyks ls (4) ifÙk;ks ls
Ans. 2

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79. Which one of the following population interactions is widely used in medical science for the
production of antibiotics ?
(1) Parasitism (2) Mutualism (3) Commensalism (4) Amensalism
79. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fpfdRlk foKku esa izfrtSfod ds mRiknu ds fy, lef"V dh dkSu lh ikjLifjd fØ;k cgq/kk iz;ksx dh tkrh
gS \
(1) ijthfork (2) lgksidkfjrk (3) lgHkksftrk (4) ,esUlsfyTe
Ans. 4

80. All of the following are included in Ex-situ conservation' except


(1) Botanical gardens (2) Sacred groves (3) Wildlife safari parks (4) Seed banks
80. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk ^ckg~;LFkkus laj{k.k* esa ugh vkrk \
(1) okuLifrd m|ku (2) ifo= miou (3) oU;tho lQkjh ikdZ (4) cht cSad
Ans. 2

81. Hormones secreted by the placenta to maintain pregancy are


(1) hCG, hPL, progestogens, estrogens
(2) hCG, hPL, estrogens, relaxin, oxytocin
(3) hCG, hPL, progestogens, prolactin
(4) hCG, progestogens, estrogens, glucocorticoids
81. lxHkZrk dks cuk, j[kus ds fy, vijk dkSu&ls gkeksZu L=kfor djrh gS \
(1) hCG, hPL, izkstsLVkstu, ,LVªkstu
(2) hCG, hPL, ,LVªkstu, fjySfDlu, vkWfDlVksflu
(3) hCG, hPL, izkstsLVkstu, izksySfDVu
(4) hCG, izkstsLVkstu, ,LVªkstu, XywdksdkWfVZdkbM
Ans. 1

82. The contraceptive "SAHELI'


(1) is an IUD
(2) increases the concentration of estrogen and prevents ovulation in females
(3) block estrogen receptors in the uterus, preventing eggs from getting implanted
(4) is a post-coital contraceptive
82. xHkZfujks/kd ^lgsyh*
(1) ,d IUD gSA
(2) eknkvksa esa ,LVªkstu dh lkaUnzrk dks c<+krh gS ,oa vaMksRlxZ dks jksdrh gSA
(3) xHkkZ'k; esa ,LVªkstu xzkgh dks vo:) djrh gS ,oa v.Mkssa ds jksi.k dks jksdrh gSA
(4) ,d i'p eSFkqu xHkZfujks/kd gSA
Ans. 3

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83. The difference between spermiogenesis and spermiation is


(1) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa from sertoli cells are released into the cavity of seminiferous
tubules, while in spermiation spermatozoa are formed.
(2) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are formed, while in spermiation spermatids are formed
(3) In spermiogenesis spermatids are formed, while in spermiation spermatozoa are formed
(4) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are formed, while in spermiation spermatozoa are released
from sertoli cells into the cavity of seminiferous tubules.

83. 'kqØk.kqtuu ,oa 'kqØk.kq;u (LifeZ,'ku) esa D;k vUrj gS \


(1) 'kqØk.kqtuu esa 'kqØk.kqvksa dk lVksZyh dksf'kdkvksa ls 'kqØtud ufydkvksa dh xqfgdk esa ekspu gksrk gS] tcfd 'kqØk.kq;u esa
'kqØk.kq curs gSA
(2) 'kqØk.kqtuu esa 'kqØk.kq curs gS] tcfd 'kqØk.kq;u esa 'kqØk.kqizl curs gSA
(3) 'kqØk.kqtuu esa 'kqØk.kqizl curs gS] tcfd 'kqØk.kq;u esa 'kqØk.kq curs gSA
(4) 'kqØk.kqtuu esa 'kqØk.kq curs gS] tcfd 'kqØk.kq;u esa 'kqØk.kqvksa dk lVksZyh dksf'kdkvksa ls 'kqØtud ufydkvksa dh xqfgdk esa
ekspu gksrk gSA
Ans. 4

84. The amnion of mammalian embryo is derived from


(1) mesoderm and trophoblast
(2) endoderm and mesoderm

(3) ectoderm and mesoderm


(4) ectoderm and endoderm

84. Lruik;h Hkzw.k dh Hkzw.kckg~; f>Yyh mYc fdlls curh gS \


(1) e/;tuLrj ,oa iks"kdkjd
(2) varLRopk ,oa e/;tuLrj
(3) ckg~;Ropk ,oa e/;tuLrj
(4) ckg~;Ropk ,oa varLRopk
Ans. 3

85. The similarity of bone structure in the forelimbs of many vertebrates is an example of
(1) Convergent evolution (2) Analogy

(3) Homology (4) Adaptive radiation

85. vusd d'ks:dksa ds vxzikn dh vfLFk lajpuk esa lekurk fdldk mnkgj.k gS \
(1) vfHklkjh fodkl (2) rqY;:irk
(3) letkrrk (4) vuqdwyh fofdj.k
Ans. 3

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86. In which disease does mosquito transmitted pathogen cause chronic inflammation of lymphatic
vessels ?
(1) Ringworm disease (2) Ascariasis (3) Elephantiasis (4) Amoebiasis
86. fdl jksx esa ePNj }kjk lapfjr jksxk.kq ds dkj.k ylhdk okfgfu;ksa esa fpjdkyh 'kksFk mRiUu gksrk gS \
(1) fjaxoeZ jksx (2) ,sLdsfj,sfll (3) ,fyQSfUV,sfll (4) vehfc,sfll
Ans. 3

87. Which of the following is not an autoimmune disease ?


(1) Alzheimer's disease (2) Rheumatoid arthritis
(3) Psoriasis (4) Vitiligo
87. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk Lorizfrj{kk jksx ugh gS \
(1) ,ytkbej jksx (2) :esVh laf/k'kksFk
(3) lksjkbfll (4) fofVfyxks
Ans. 1

88. Which of the following characteristics represent 'Inheritance of blood groups' in humans ?
a. Dominance b. Co-dominance c. Multiple allele
d. Incomplete dominance e. Polygenic inheritance
(1) b,d and e (2) a,b and c (3) b,c and e (4) a,c and e
88. a. izHkkfork b. lgizHkkfork c. cgq ,syhy
d. viw.kZ izHkkfork e. cgqthuh oa'kkxfr
(1) b,d ,oa e (2) a,b ,oa c (3) b,c ,oa e (4) a,c ,oa e
Ans. 2

89. Among the following sets of examples for divergent evolution, select the incorrect option :
(1) Brain of bat, man and cheetah (2) Heart of bat, man and cheetah
(3) Forelimbs of man, bat and cheetah (4) Eye of octopus, bat and man
89. fuEufyf[kr vilkjh fodkl ds mnkgj.kks esa ls xyr fodYi dk p;u dhft,A
(1) pexknM+] euq"; ,oa phrk dk efLr"d (3) pexknM+] ekuo ,oa phrk dk ân;
(3) ekuo] pexknM+ ,oa phrk ds vxzikn (4) vkWDVksil] pexknM+ ,oa ekuo dh vk¡[k
Ans. 4

90. Conversion of milk to curd improve its nutritional value by increasing the amount of
(1) Vitamin B12 (2) Vitamin A (3) Vitamin D (4) Vitamin E
90. nw/k ds ngh esa :ikarj.k ls bldh vPNh iks"kd {kerk fdldh o`f+) ds dkj.k gksrh gS \
(1) foVkfeu B12 (2) foVkfeu A (3) foVkfeu D (4) foVkfeu E
Ans. 1

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[PHYSICS]
91. The volume (V) of a monatomic gas varies with its temperature (T), as shown in the graph. The
ratio of work done by the gas, to the heat absorbed by it, when it undergoes a change from state
A to state B, is
fdl h, di j ek.kq
d xS
l dsvk; r u (V) esar ki (T) dsl kFk fopj .kxzkQ esan' kkZ
, vuq
l kj gksrkgS
A voLFkkA l svoLFkk B r d
t kusdhi zfØ; k esaxS
l } kj k fd, x, dk; ZvkS
j bl ds} kj k vo' kksf"kr Å"ek dk vuq
i kr gS

1 2 2 2
(1) (2) (3) (4)
3 3 5 7
Sol. 3
2
5
p = constant
w = nRT ....(1)
Q = nCPT (for constant pressure)
5 
Q = n  2 R  T ....(1)
 
Equation (1)/(2)
nRT 2
 
5  5
n R T
 2 

92. The fundamental frequency in an open organ pipe is equal to the third harmonic of a closed organ
pipe If the length of the closed organ pipe is 20 cm, the length of the open organ pipe is
fdl h[ kq
y svkW
xZ
u i kbZ
i dhew
y vkof̀r fdl h cUn vkW xZ
u i kbZ
i dsr r̀ h; xq
. kof̀r (l uknh) dhvkof̀r dsl eku gS
A ; fn cUn
vkW
xZu i kbi dhy EckbZ20 cm gS, r ks[ kq
y svkW
xZ
u i kbZ
i dh y EckbZgksxh
(1) 12.5 cm (2) 8 cm (3) 13.2 cm (4) 16 cm
Sol. 3


2



2
   2
v v
fopen  
 2


4

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v
Fundamental f 
4
As given :
3v v 3 1
4l1 = 2l2 = = 2l2
4  20
= 13.2

93. The efficiency of an ideal heat engine working between the freezing point and boiling point of
water, is
t y dsxy uka
d vkS
j DoFkuka
d dschp dk; Z
j r fdl hvkn' kZÅ"ek ba
t u dhn{kr k gksrhgS
(1) 6.25% (2) 20% (3) 26.8% (4) 12.5%
Sol. 3
Efficiency of heat engine
T2
h=1– T
1

273
=1–
373
= 1 – 0.731
26.8%

94. At what temperature will the rms speed of oxygen molecules become just sufficient for escape
from the Earth's atmosphere? (Given : Mass of oxygen molecule (m) = 2.76×10-26kg
Boltzmann's constant kB = 1.38×10-23 JK-1 )
fdl hr ki i j vkWDl ht u v.kqv ksadhoxZek/; ewy (rms) pky i F̀ohdsok; q
e.My l si y k; u dj l dusdsfy , ek=k i ; kZ
Ir
gkst k; sxh? (fn; k x; k gS: vkWDl ht u dsv.kq
v ksadk æO
; eku (m) = 2.76×10-26kg
cksYV~
t fLFkj ka
d kB = 1.38×10-23 JK-1 )
(1) 5.016×104 K (2) 8.360×104 K (3) 2.508×104 K (4) 1.254×104 K
Sol. 2

30  1.38  10 23  T
= (11.2 × 10–3)2
2.76  10 26
T = 8.360 × 104
95. Unpolarised light is incident from air on a plane surface of a material of refractive index ''. At a
particular angle of incidence 'i', it is found that the reflected and refracted rays are perpendicular
to each other, Which of the following options is correct for this situation?

1  1 
(1) i  sin  
 
(2) Reflected light is polarised with its electric vector perpendicular to the plane of incidence
(3) Reflected light is polarised with its electric vector parallel to the plane of incidence

1  1 
(4) i  tan  
 
95. vi or Zuka
d '' oky si nkFkZdsfdl hl er y i `"B i j dksbZv/kq zfor i zd k' k ok; ql svki r u dj r kgS A fdl hfo' ks"k vki r u dks.k 'i'
i j ; g i k; k x; k fd i j kofr Z
r fdj .ksavkS
j vi ofr Z
r fdj .ksa, d &nw l j sdsy Eocr ~gS A fuEufy f[ kr esal sdkSu&l k fody Ik bl
fLFkfr esal gh gS\
1  1 
(1) i  sin  
 
(2) i j kofr Z
r i zd k' k /kq
zfor gSvkS
j bl dk fo| q
r l fn' kvki r u dsr y dsy Ecor ~gS
(3) i j kofr Z
r i zd k' k /kq
zfor gSvkS
j bl dk fo| q
r ~l fn' k vki r u dsr y dsl ekUr j gS
1  1 
(4) i  tan  
 
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Sol. 2

Reflected ray
Completely
Polarised

Refracted Partially Polarised


ray

This is the condition of polarisation in which light is incident on an interface at Brewster's angle.

Thus reflected light is polarised with its E perpendicular to the plane of incidence.

96. In Young's double slit experiment the separation d between the slits is 2mm, the wavelength  of
the light used is 5896 Å and distance D between the screen and slits is 100 cm. It is found that
the angular width of the fringes is 0.20°. To increase the fringe angular width to 0.21° (with
same  and D) the separation between the slits needs to be changed to
(1) 2.1 mm (2) 1.9mm (3) 1.8mm (4) 1.7 mm
;a
x dsf} f>j hi z;ksx esa
] f>fj ; ksadschp i F̀kdu d, 2mm gSr Fkk f>j hl si nsZdhnw j hD dksj [ kr sgq
, rja
xnS
/; Z= 5896
Å dsi z
d k' kdkmi ; ksx fd; kx; kgS A ; g i k; kx; kfd fQza
t ksdhdks.kh; pkS
M+
kbZ0.20° gSA r c (mUgh vkSj D dsfy , ) fQza
t ks
dhdks.kh; pkSM+
kbZl sc<+ kdj 0.21° dj usdsfy , f>fj ; ksadschp i F̀kDdu dksdj uk gksxk
(1) 2.1 mm (2) 1.9mm (3) 1.8mm (4) 1.7 mm
Sol. 2

=
d

' =
d'
0.20 d'
 =
0.21 d
0.20 d'
 =
0.21 2
 d' = 1.904

97. An astronomical refracting telescope will have large angular magnification and high angular
resolution, when it has an objective lens of
(1) large focal length and large diameter
(2) large focal length and small diameter
(3) small focal length and large diameter
(4) small focal length and small diameter
fdl h[ kxksy h; vi or hZnw
j n' kZd dk dks.kh; vko/kZ
u vf/kd vkS
j dks.kh; foHksnu mPPk gksxk] ; fn bl dsvfHkn`' ; d y S
a
l dh]
(1) Qksd l nw j hvf/kd vkSj O ; kl cM+k gS
(2) Qksd l nw j hde vkSj O ; kl NksVk gS
(3) Qksd l nw j hvf/kd vkSj O ; kl NksVk gS
A
(4) Qksd l nw j hde vkSj O ; kl cM+k gSA

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Sol. 1
R.P  d
f0
ln = f
e

 Greater the focal length of the objective, more is the magnification.


Also for a telescope, the objective lens must have a bigger aperture for acquiring more no. of rays
from a distant object.

98. The kinetic energies of a planet in an elliptical orbit about the Sun, at positions A, B and C are KA,
KB and KC, respectively. AC is the major axis and SB is perpendicular to AC at the position of the
Sun S as shown in the figure. Then
lw
; Zdspkj ksavksj nh?kZ
o`Ùkh; d{kk esaxfr eku xzg dhfLFkfr ; ksaA, B vkS
j C i j xfr t Åt kZ
, ¡ Øe' k%KA, KB vkS
j KC gS
a
A AC
nh?kZv{k gSr Fkk l w
; Zdh fLFkfr S i j SB fp=kkuq l kj nh?kZv{k AC i j y Ec gS Ar c

(1) KB<KA<KC (2) KA>KB>KC (3) KA<KB<KC (4) KB>KA>KC


Sol. 2
We know that as r decreases V ses (v × r = constant)
The nearest point in perigee which is point A.
Next nearest is B and then C
 KA > KB > KC

99. A solid sphere is in rolling motion. In rolling motion a body possesses translational kinetic energy
(Kt) as well as rotational kinetic energy (Kr) simultaneously. The ratio Kt : (Kt + Kr) for the sphere
is
(1) 10:7 (2) 5:7 (3) 7:10 (4) 2:5
, d Bksl xksy k y ksVu xfr esagS
A y ksVu xfr esaoLr qdhLFkkukUr j h; xfr t Åt kZ(Kt) dsl kFk&l kFk ?kw
. khZxfr t Åt kZ(Kr)
HkhgksrhgS
A xksy sdsfy , Kt : (Kt + Kr) dk vuq i kr gksxk
(1) 10:7 (2) 5:7 (3) 7:10 (4) 2:5
Sol. 2
2
Isolid sphere = MR2
5
1 1
KET = m (r)2 = mr22
2 2
1 2 1
KE(R+T) = mR22 + m (r)2
2 5 2
1 1
= mR22 + mR22
5 2
7
= mR22
10

1
mr22
KT 2
K T  KR = 7
mr22
10

5
=
7

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100. If the mass of the Sun were ten times smaller and the universal gravitational constant were ten
times larger in magnitude, which of the following is not correct?
(1) Time period of a simple pendulum on the Earth would decrease.
(2) Walking on the ground would become more difficult.
(3) Raindrops will fall faster.
(4) 'g' on the Earth will not change.
; fn l w
; ZdknzO ; eku 1/10 xq ukgksr Fkkl koZ f=kd xq: Rokd"kZ
. k fLFkj ka
d i fj ek.k esa10 xq
ukgks] r ksfuEufy f[ kr esal sdkS
u&l k
l ghughgS?
(1) i F̀oh i j l j y y ksy d dk vkor Z d ky de gkst k, xkA
(2) i F̀oh i j 'g' dseku esi fj or Zu ughgksxkA
(3) /kj r h i j py uk vf/kd dfBu gkst k, xkA
(4) o"kkZdh cw a
ns/kj r hi j vf/kd r st h l sfxj sa
xhA
Sol. 4
10GMe
g' = = 10 g
R 2e
 g changes

101. A solid sphere is rotating freely about its symmetry axis in free space. The radius of the sphere
is increased keeping its mass same. Which of the following physical quantities would remain
constant for the sphere?
(1) Rotational kinetic energy (2) Moment of inertia
(3) Angular velocity (4) Angular momentum
dksbZBksl xksy keq Dr vkdk' k esavi uhl efefr v{kdsi fj r %eq Dr : i l s?kw. kZ
u dj j gk gSA bl xksy sdknzO ; eku l eku j [ kr s
gq
, bl dhf=kT; k esaof̀} dht kr hgS A xksy sdsfy , fuEufy f[ kr esal sdkS u&l h HkkSfr d j kf' k fLFkj j gsxh\
(1) ?kw
. khZxfr t Åt kZ (2) dks . kh; la osx
(3) t M+ Ro vk?kw. kZ (4) dks . kh; osx
Sol. 4
As we see that the torque acting on the body is zero, thus we can say that angular momentum is
conserved.

102. A metallic rod of mass per unit length 0.5 kg m-1 is lying horizontally on a smooth inclined plane
which makes an angle of 30° with the horizontal. The rod is not allowed to slide down by flowing
a current through it when a magnetic field of induction 0.25 T is acting on it in the vertical
direction. the current flowing in the rod to keep it stationary is
0.5 kg m-1 i z fr bdkbZy EckbZæO
; eku dhfdl h/kkr qdh{kS fr t NM+dks, d fpdusvkur r y i j t ks{kSfr t l s30° dkdks.k
cukr k gS
] j [ kk x; k gS
A bl NM+dksbl esafo| q
r /kkj k i zokfgr dj kdj uhpsl j dusughfn; k t kr k t c bl i j 0.25 T i zsj.k
dk pq
Ecdh; {ks=k Å/okZ
/kj fn' kk esadk; Zdj j gk gS
A NM+dkksfLFkj j [ kusdsfy , bl esai zokfgr /kkj k gS
(1) 14.76 A (2) 5.98 A (3) 7.14 A (4) 11.32 A

Sol. 4
ilb cos 30° = mg sin 30°
3 i × l 0.25 = 0.5l × 10
500
i=
0.25
11.32

103. An inductor 20 mH, capacitor 100 F and a resistor 50  are connected in series across a source
of emf, V = 10 sin 314 t. The power loss in the circuit is
20 mH dk dksbZi zsjd , 100 F dk dksbZl a
/kkfj =k r Fkk 50  dk dksbZi zfr j ks/kd] fo-ok-cy (emf), V = 10 sin 314 t
dsfdl hL=kksr l sJs.khesal a
; ksft r gS
A bl i fj i Fk esa' kfDr {k; gS
(1) 2.74 W (2) 0.43 W (3) 0.79 W (4) 1.13 W

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Sol. 3
 = 314
= 100 
XL = L
= 100n × 20 × 10–3
XL = 2
1
XC =
C
1
=
100  100  106
100
=

= R 2  (XL  XC )2

2
 100 
= (50)2   2  
  

= (50)2  (25.56)2

= 3153.31
p = Vrms lrms cos 
Vm2R
=
z2

 10 2 
 
=   × 50
 2 

 10 2 
   50
 
p=  2 
3153.31
p = 0.79 watt

104. A thin diamagnetic rod is placed vertically between the poles of an electromagnet. When the
current in the electromagnet is switched on, the the diamagnetic rod is pushed up, out of the
horizontal magnetic field. Hence the rod gains gravitational potential energy. The work required
to do this comes from
(1) the lattice structure of the material of the rod
(2) the magnetic field
(3) the current source
(4) the induced electric field due to the changing magnetic field
fdl hfo| q r pqEcd ds/kzq oksadschp i zfr pq
Ecdh; i nkFkZdh, d i r y hNM+ &Å/okZ
/kj fLFkr gSA t c fo| q
r &pq
Ecd esa/kkj ki zokfgr
dht kr hgS , r kksog NM+{kS fr t pq Ecdh; {ks=k l sckgj Åi j dhvksj /kdsy nht kr hgS A bl i zd kj og NM+xq
: Roh; fLFkfr t
Åt kZi zkIr dj r hgS A , sl k dj usdsfy , vko' ; d dk; Zdj r k gS A
(1) NM+dsi nkFkZdh pky d l a j puk
(2) i z
sfj r fo| qr &{ks=k t ksi fj or hZpqEcdh; {ks=k l smRiUu gksrk gS
A
(3) pq Ecdh; {ks=k
(4) fo| q r L=kksr

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Sol. 3
As the material is diamagnetic and is placed vertically between the electro magnet, it is pushed
up due to the magnetic field.
This happens due to the current source which makes current flow in the electro-magnet.

105. Current sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer is 5 div/mA and its voltage sensitivity (angular
deflection per unit voltage applied) is 20 div/V. The resistance of the galvanometer is
fdl hpy dq . My hxS
YosuksehVj dh/kkj k l q
xzkfgr k 5 div/mA vkS j oksYVr k l zxzkghr k (i z;q
Dr bdkbZoksYVr k l smRiUu dks.kh;
fo{ksi) 20 div/V gSA bl xS YosuksehVj dk i zfr j ks/k gS
(1) 250 (2) 25 (3) 40 (4) 500
Sol. 1
5 div  1 mA
20 div  4 mA
V = iR
l = 4 × 10–3 × R
1
R=
4  10 3
1000
=
4
= 250 

106. In the circuit shown in the figure, the input voltage Vi is 20 V, VBE = 0 and VCE = 0. The values of
IB, IC and  are given by
fn, x, i fj i Fk vkj s[k esa
, fuos
' k oksYVr k (Vi) 20 V, VBE = 0 r FkkVCE = 0 gS
A IB, IC vkS
j  dseku gksa
xs&

(1) IB = 20A, IC = 5mA,  = 250


(2) IB = 25A, IC = 5mA,  = 200
(3) IB = 40A, IC = 10mA,  = 250
(4) IB = 40A, IC = 5mA,  = 125
Sol. 4

20V

RC
C
20V RB
VCE=0

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20 20
IB = =
500  103 5  104
= 4 × 10–5
= 40 A
20
IC = = 5 mA
4  103
  = 125

107. In a p-n junction diode, change in temperature due to heating


(1) does not affect resistance of p-n junction
(2) affects only forward resistance
(3) affects only reverse resistance
(4) affects the overall V – I characteristics of p-n junction.
fdl hp-n l af/k Mk; ksM esaxeZgksusl sr ki esai fj or Z u
(1) p-n l a
f/k dsi zfr j ks/k dksi zHkkfor ughadj r k gS A
(2) dsoy vxzi zfr j ks/k dksi zHkkfor dj r k gS A
(3) dsoy O;qRØe (fj ol Z ) iz
fr j ks/k dksi zHkkfor dj r k gS
A
(4) p-n l a
f/k dsl exzV – I vfHky {k.k dksi zHkkfor dj r k gS A
Sol. 4
On  sing the temperature of a PN junction. The resistance falls.
Current  ses in both cases. The overall V-I characteristics of a p-n junction changes.

108. In the combination of the following gates the output Y can be written in terms of inputs A and B
as
fp=k esafn, x, xsVksadsl a
; kst u esafuxZ
r Y dksfuos'kksaA vkS
j B dsi nksaesabl i zd kj O
; Dr fd; k t k l dr k gS
A

(1) A.B+A.B (2) A.B  A.B (3) A.B (4) A  B


Sol. 2

A 0 0
B 0 AND
x
NOT
OR
1
AND 1
1

A B Y
0 0 0
0 1 1
1 0 1
1 1 0

X - OR gate

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109. A carbon resistor of  47  4.7 k is to be marked with rings of different colours for its
indentification. The colour code sequence will be
(1) Yellow-Green - Violet-Gold
(2) Yellow-Violet-Orange-Silver
(3) Violet-Yellow-Orange-Silver
(4) Green-Orange -Violet -Gold
 47  4.7 k i zfr j ks/k dsfdl hdkcZ
u&i zfr j ks/kd i j , i gpku dsfy , , fofHkUu o.kks±dsoy ; va
fdr fd, t kusgS
A o.kZdksM
dk Øe gksxkA
(1) i hy k - gj k- cS
a
xuh- l q
ugj k
(2) i hy k - cS
a
xuh - ukj a
xh- pk¡nhj a
x dk
(3) cSa
xuh- i hy k - ukj a
xh- pk¡nhj a
x dk
(4) gj k - ukj a
xh- cSa
xuh- l q
ugj k
Sol. 2
3
47 × 10 ± 10%

Yellow Violet Oragne Silver


R = (47 ± 4.7) K
= 47 × 103 ± 4700
R = 47 × 103 ± 10%
BBROYGBVGWGS
0123456789
B - Black
B - Brown
R - Red
O - Orange
Y - Yellow
G - Green
B - Blue
V - Voilet
G - Gray
W - White
Gold
Silver
110. A set of 'n' equal resistors, of value 'R' each, are connected in series to a battery of emf 'E' and
internal resistance 'R'. The current drawn is I. Now, the 'n' resistors are connected in parallel to
the same battery. Then the current drawn from battery becomes 10 I.The value of 'n' is
'n' l oZ
l e i zfr j ks/kdksadk l eq Pp; , ft l esai zR; sd dk i zfr j ks/k 'R' gS
, Js
. khØe esafo-ok-cy (emf), 'E' vkS j vkUr fj d i zfr j ks/k,
'R' fd fdl hcS Vj hl sl a ; ksft r gSA cSVj hl sy hxbZ/kkj k I gS A vc bu 'n' i zfr j ks/kdksadksi k' oZØe esabl hcS
Vj hl sl a ; ksft r
fd; k t kr k gSA r kscS Vj h l sy hxbZ/kkj k 10 I gkst kr h gS A'n' dk eku gS
(1) 20 (2) 11 (3) 10 (4) 9
Sol. 3
E
I=
E  nR
Where parallel combination current 10 I is given by
E R
+ = 10 I
R n

E R E 
+ = 10   nR 
R n R 
How according to problem
1 + n/1 + 1/n = 10
10 = (1 + n/n+1) n
n = 10

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111. A battery consists of a varibale number 'n' of identical cells (having internal resistance 'r' each)
which are connected in series. The terminals of the battery are short-circuited and the current I
is measured. Which of the graphs shows the correct relationship between I and n ?
dksbZcS
Vj hvkar fj d i zfr j ks/k 'r' oky s, Js.khØe esal a
; ksft r 'n' l oZ
l e l sy ksa(l a
[ ; k n i fj or hZgS
) l scuhgS A cSVj hdsVfeZ
uy ksa
dk y ?kq
i Fku dj ds/kkj k I eki hxbZgS A fn; k x; k dkS u&l k xzkQ I vkSj n dschp l ghl a ca
/k dksn' kkZ
r k gS?
I I I I

(1) (2) (3) (4)


O n O n O n O n
Sol. 3
I is independent of the no. of batteries as the terminals of the battery are short circuited.

112. A body initially at rest and sliding along a frictionless track from a height h (as shown in the
figure) just completes a vertical circle of diameter AB =D . The height h is equal to
vkj s[k esan' kkZ
, vuq
l kj Å¡pkbZh l s?k"kZ
. kj fgr i Fk dsvuq
fn' k foj ke voLFkk l sl j dusoky k dksbZfi .M] O
; kl AB = D ds
Å/okZ /kj oÙ̀k dksBhd &Bhd i wj k dj r k gSA r c Å¡pkbZh gksxhA

h
B

D
A

7 3 5
(1) D (2) D (3) D (4) D
5 2 4
Sol. 4
D

D/2
h

1
mv
v2 = mgh
2
v= 2gh

1 1 D
m ( 2gh )2 = mg + MgD
2 2 2
D
h= +D
4
5D
h=
4

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113. Three objects, A : (a solid sphere), B : (a thin circular disk) and C: (a circular ring), each have the
same mass M and radius R. They all spin with the same angular speed  about their own symmetry
axes. The amounts of work (W) required to bring them to rest, would satisfy the relation.
r hu fi .M] A : (, d Bksl xksy k), B : (, d i r y hoÙ̀kkdkj pdr h) r FkkC: (, d oÙ̀kkdkj NYy k), ft uesai zR; sd dk nzO
; eku
M r Fkk f=kT; k R gS
a
] l eku dks.kh; pky  l svi uhl efefr v{kksadsi fj r %pØ.k dj j gsgS a
A bUgsafoj kekoLFkk esay kusdsfy ,
fd, t kusoky svko' ; d dk; ksZ(W) dsfy , ] dkS u&l k l aca
/k l ghgS\
(1) WB > WA > WC (2) WA > WB > WC (3) WC > WB > WA (4) WA > WC > WB
Sol. 3
A - Solid sphere
B - Thin circular disc
C - Circular ring
As all are rotating about their own symmetry axis, they have rotational KE
2
Iss = MR2
5
MR 2
Idis =
2
Iring = MR2
 IR > IDis > Iss
w C > wB > wA

114. Which one of the following statements is incorrect ?


(1) Friction force opposes the relative motion
(2) Limiting value of static friction is directly proportional to normal reaction
(3) Rolling friction is smaller than sliding friction .
(4) Coefficient of sliding friction has dimensions of length.
fuEufy f[ kr esal sdkS u&l k dFku vl R; gS?
(1) ?k"kZ
. k cy vki sf{kd xfr dk foj ks/k dj r k gSA
(2) l i hZ?k"kZ
. k xq. kka
d dh foek, ¡ y EckbZdhfoek dsl eku gksrhgSA
(3) LFkSfr d ?k"kZ. k dk l hekUr eku vfHky Ec i zfr fØ; k dsvuq
Øekuq
i kr h gksrhgS
A
(4) y ks
Vfud ?k"kZ . k l i hZ?k"kZ
. k l sde gksrk gS
A
Sol. 4
By theory
Coefficient of sliding friction has dimensions of length.

115. A moving block having mass m, collides with another stationary block having mass 4m. the
lighter block comes to rest after collision. When the initial velocity of the lighter block is v, then
the value of coefficient of restitution (e) will be
nzO
; eku m dk , d xfr ' khy xq Vdk] 4m nzO; eku dsfdl hnwl j sfLFkj xq
Vdsl sl a ?kê dj r k gSAl a
?kê dsi ' pkr ~gYdk xq
Vdk
foj ke voLFkk esavk t kr k gS
A ; fn gYdsxq
Vdsdk vkj fEHkd osx v gSr ks] r ksi zR; ku; u xq. kka
d (e) dk eku gksxk
(1) 0.8 (2) 0.25 (3) 0.5 (4) 0.4
Sol. 2
Before :

v Rest

m 4m
After :
Rest

m m
Pi = Pt
mv + 4m × 0 = 4mv' + m × 0
 mv = 4mv'
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v
 v' =
4
v2  v1 v
e = u  u  ev =
1 2 4
1
e= = 0.25
4

116. A tuning fork is used to produce resonance in a glass tube. The length of the air column in this
tube can be adjusted by a variable piston. At room temperature of 27°C two successive resonances
are produced at 20 cm and 73 cm of column length. If the frequency of the tunning fork is 320
Hz, the velocity of sound in air at 27°C is
(1) 350 m/s (2) 339 m/s (3) 330 m/s (4) 300 m/s
fdl hLofj =k f} Hkq
t dk mi ; ksx fdl h, sl hdk¡p dhufy dkessavuq ukn dj usd fy , fd; k x; kgSs, ft l esaok; qLr EHk dhy EckbZ
dksi fj or hZfi LVu } kj k l ek; ksft r fd; k t k l dr k gS A27°C d{k r ki i j Lr EHk dhy EckbZ20 cm vkS j 73 cm gksusi j
nksØekxr vuq ukn mRiUu gksrsgS A ; fn Lofj =k f} Hkq
t dhvkof̀r 320 Hz gS , r ksok; qes
a/ofu dk 27°C i j osx gS
(1) 350 m/s (2) 339 m/s (3) 330 m/s (4) 300 m/s
Sol. 2

v
f=

v
320 =
106  102
v = 339 m/s

117. The electrostatic force between the metal plates of an isolated parallel plate capacitor C having a
charge Q and area A is
(1) proportional to the square root of the distance between the plates.
(2) linearly proportional to the distance between the plates.
(3) independent ofthe distance between the plates.
(4) inversely proportional to the distance between the plates.
vkos'k Q dsfdl hfo; q
Dr l ekUr j i fêdk l a /kkfj =k C dh{ks=kQy A oky h/kkr qdhi fêdkvksadschp fLFkj &oS
|q
r cy
(1) i fêdkvks
adschp dhnw j hdsoxZ ew
y dsvuq Øekuq i kr hgksrk gS
A
(2) i fêdkvks
adschp dhnw j h dsO;w RØekuqi kr h gksrk gS A
(3) i fêdkvks
adschp dhnw j h dsj S
f[ kdr %vuq Øekuq i kr hgksrk gSA
(4) i fêdkvks
adschp dh nw j hi j fuHkZj ughadj r kA
Sol. 3
2
F = 2A
0

 The force is independent of the distance between the plates.

118. A pendulum is hung from the roof of a sufficiently high building and is moving freely to and fro
like a simple harmoni coscillator. The acceleration of the bob of the pendulum is 20 m/s2 at a
distance of 5 m from the mean position. The time period of oscillation is
dksbZy ksy d , d dkQhÅ¡psHkou dhNr l sy Vdk gSvkS j l j y vkor Znksy d dhHkk¡fr eq
Dr : i l svkxs&i hNsxfr dj j gk
gS
A ek/; fLFkfr l s5m dhnw j h i j bl dsxksy d dk Roj .k 20 m/s gS
2
A nksy u dk vkor Zd ky gS
(1) 2 s (2)  s (3) 2 s (4) 1 s

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Sol. 2

5
T = 2
20
T =  sec

119. An electron falls from rest through a vertical distance h in a uniform and vertically upward
directed electric field E. The direction of electric field is now reversed, keeping its magnitude the
same . A proton is allowed to fall from rest in it through the same vertical distance h. The time of
fall of the electron, in comparision to the time of fall of the proton is.
(1) 10 times greater (2) 5 times greater
(3) smaller (4) equal
dksbZby sDVªkWu foj kekoLFkk l sfdl h , dl eku r Fkk Åi j dksÅ/okZ /kj fo| q
r &{ks=k E esadksbZnh xbZnw j h, h, fxj r k gS
A vc
fo| q
r &{ks=k dk i fj ek.k vi fj ofr Z
r j [ kr sgq
, bl dhfn' kk mRØfer dj nht kr hgS A fdl hi zksVkW
u dksfoj kekoLFkk l sbr uhgh
Å/okZ/kj nwj hh r d bl esafxj usfn; kt kr kgS A i zksVkW
u dsfxj usesafy , x, l e; dhr q y uk esaby sDVªkW
u } kj kfxj usesa
sfy ; kx; k
l e; gS
(1) 10 xq uk vf/kd (2) 5 xq uk vf/kd
(3) de (4) l eku
Sol. 3

qE
a=
m

1
a
m
ae >> ap
te << tp


120. An el ectron of mass m wi th ani niti al vel oci ty V  V ˆi  V  0  enters an el ectri c fi e
0 0


E  E0ˆi E0  cons tan t  0  at t = 0. If 0 its de-Broglie wavelength intially, then de-Broglie

wavelength initially, then de-Broglie wavelength at time is


 
vkj fEHkd osx V  V0ˆi  V0  0  vkS
j æO
; eku m dk dksbZby sDVªkW
u fdl h fo| q
r &{ks=k E  E0ˆi E(E = fLFkj ka
d >0)
0 0 cons tan t  0

esat = 0 i j i zos'k dj r k gS
A ; fn i zkj EHk esabl by sDVªkW
u dh ns&czkW
Xy h r j a
xnS
/; Z 0 gS
] r ksl e; t i j bl dh ns&czkW
Xy h
rjaxnS/; Zgksxh

0
 eE0   eE0 
(1) 0t (2) 0  1  mV t  (3)  1  t (4) 0
 0 
 mV0 

Sol. 3
 
v = v0 î , E  E0 ĵ

E0et
v = v0 +
m

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h
=
mv

h
 = m v 0  E0et 
 m 

h
 
 = mv0 1  E0et 
 mv 
 0 

0  h 
=  0  
 eE0   mv0 
1   t 
 mv 0 

121. For a radioactive material, half -life 10 minutes. If initially there are 600 number nuclei, the time
taken (in minutes) for the disintegration of 450 nuclei is
fdl hj sfM; ks,sfDVo i nkFkZdhv/kZ
&vk; q10 feuV gS
A ; fn vkj EHk esaukfHkdksadhl a
[ ; k 600 gS
, r ks450 ukfH
kdksadsfo?kfVr
gksusesay xusoky k l e; (feuV esa ) gS
(1) 30 (2) 10 (3) 20 (4) 15
Sol. 3
N0 = 600
N0 N0
N0
T1 2 T1 4
2 2
600  300  150
450 nuclie disintegration in 2 T1/2 life
 2 × 10
 20 minute

122. When the light of frequency 20 (where 0 threshold frequency), is incident on a metal plate, the
maximum velocity of electrons emitted is v1. When the frequency of the incident radiation is
increased to 50, the maximum velocity of electrons emitted from the same plate is v2. The ratio
of v1 to v2 is
t c fdl h/kkr qdsi `"B i j vkof̀+
Ùk 20 (; gk¡0 nsgy hvkof̀r gS
) dk i z
d k' k vki r u dj r k gS
, r ksmR
l ft Z
r by sDVªkW
uksadk vf/
kdr e osx v1 gSA t c vki fr r fofdj .kksadhvkof̀Ùk c<+kdj 50 dj nht kr hgS , r ksml hi `"B l smRl ft Z
r by sDVªkW
uksadk vf/
kdr e osx v2 gksrk gSA v1 vkSj v2 dk vuq i kr gS
(1) 4 : 1 (2) 1 : 4 (3) 1 : 2 (4) 2 : 1
Sol. 3
E =  + KEmax
hf = hf0 + KEmax
KEmax = hf – hf0
1
mv
v12 = h (2f0 – f0)
2
1
mv
v12 = hf0 ....(1)
2
1
mv
v22 = h (5f0 – f0)
2
1
mv
v22 = 4hf0 ....(2)
2

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On dividing equation (1) by (2)

1
mv12
2 hf0
1 2 = 4hf
mv2 0
2

v12 1 V1 1
2 =  V =
v2 4 2 2

123. The ratio of kinetic energy to the total energy an electron in a Bohr orbit of the hydrogen atomic is
gkbMªkst u i j ek.kqfd fdl h cksj d{kk esafdl hby sDVªkW
u dh xfr t Åt kZvkS
j ml dhdq
y Åt kZdk vuq
i kr gksrk gS
(1) 2 : –1 (2) 1 : –1 (3) 1 : 1 (4) 1 : –2
Sol. 2
13.6
KE =
n2

z2
TE = –13.6
n2

13.6
=-
n2

KE
  1 : 1
TE


124. An em wave is propagating in a medium with a velocity V  V î . The instantaneous oscillating
electricfield of this em wave is along +y axis. Then the direction of oscillating magnetic field of
the em wave will be along.
(1) –y direction (2) +z direction (3) –z direction (4) –x direction

dksbZfo| qr &pq Ecdh; r j a
x fdl h ek/; e esaosx V  V î l sxeu dj j gh gS A fdl h {k.k i j bl fo| q
r &pq Ecdh; r j a
x dk
fo| q
r &{ks=k nksy u +y v{k dsvuq fn' k gS
A r c bl fo| q
r pq Ecdh; r j a
x dspqEcdh; {ks=k nksy u dhfn' kk gksxh
(1) –y fn' kk (2) +z fn' kk (3) –z fn' kk (4) –x fn' kk
Sol. 2
  
P  EB
Direction of propgation in î (x direction) and Ê is given in ĵ direction ( ĵ) . So from right hand
thumb rule B is in + z direction.

125. The refractive index of the material of a prism is 2 and the angle of the prism is 30°. One of the
two refracting surfaces of the prism is made a mirror inwards, by silver coating. A beam of
monochromatic light entering the prism from the other face will retrace its path (after reflection
from the silvered surface) if its angle of incidence on the prism is -
fdl hfi zTe dsi nkFkZdk vi or Z ukad 2 vkS j fi zTe dk dks.k 30° gS A fi zTe dsnksvi or Z
d i `"Bksaesal s, d dkspk¡nhp<+ kdj
Hkhr j dhvksj ni Z. k cuk; k x; k gS
A nw
l j sQy d l si zos'k dj usoky s, do.khZi zd k' k dk dksbZi a
q
t (ni Z . k oky si `"B l si j kofr Z
r
gksusdsi ' pkr ~
) ml h i Fk i j oki l y kS
V t k; sxk, ; fn fi zTe i j vki r u dks.k dk eku gS-
(1) 30° (2) 45° (3) 60° (4) zero ' kw U;

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Sol. 2

30°
i

n 2

r2 = 0
r1 = A
1 × sin i = n sin A
sin i = 2 sin 30°
i = 45°
Here e = 0
(No emergence)

126. The magnetic potential energy stored in a certain inductor is 25 mJ, when the current in the
inductor is 60 mA. This inductor is of inductance
fdl hi zsjd l s60 mA dh/kkj k i zokfgr dj usi j ml i zsjd esal a
fpr pq
Ecdh; fLFkfr t Åt kZdk eku 25 mJ gS
A bl i zsjd
dk i zjsd Ro gS
(1) 1.389 H (2) 138.88 H (3) 0.138 H (4) 13.89 H
Sol. 4
1
LI2 = 25 × 10–3
2

2  25  10 3
L=
(60  10 3 )2

50  10 3
=
36  10 4
= 1.389 × 10
= 13.89 H

127. An object is placed at a distance of 40 cm from a concave mirror of focal length 15 cm. If the
object is displaced through a distance of 20 cm towards the mirror, the displacement of the
image will be
(1) 30 cm towards the mirror (2) 36 cm away from the mirror
(3) 30 cm away from the mirror (4) 36 cm towards the mirror
dksbZfcEc 15 cm Qksd l nw
j h dsfdl hvO
oy ni Z
. k l s40 cm nwj hi j fLFkr gS
A ; fn bl fcEc dksni Z
. k dhfn' kk esa20
cm LFkkukUr fj r dj fn; k t k, , r ksi zfr fcEc fdr uh nw
j hi j foLFkkfi r gkst k; sxk?
(1) 30 cm ni Z. k dsi kl (2) 36 cm ni Z . k dsi kl
(3) 36 cm ni Z . k l snw
j (4) 30 cm ni Z . k l snwj

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Sol. 2

f=–15cm

U=-40cm

In first condition
1 1 1 1 1 1
+ =  – =–
v u f v 40 15
1 1 1
= –
v 40 15
1 15  40
=
v 600
600
v=–  – 24 cm
25
Second Condition
1 1 1
+ =
v u f
1 1 1
 – =–
v 20 15
1 1 1
= –
v 20 15
1 15  20
=
v 300
300
v=  – 60 cm
5
Displacement of image = 60 – 24
= 36 cm

128. A toy car with charge q moves on a frictionless horizontal plane surface under the influence of a
 
uniform electric field E . Due to the force qE , its velocity increases from 0 to 6 m/s in one second
duration. At that instant the direction of the field is reversed. The car continues to move for two
more seconds under the influence of this field. The average velocity and the average speed of the
toy car between 0 to 3 seconds are respectively -

dksbZf[ ky kS
ukdkj ft l i j vkos'kq gSfdl h, dl eku fo| q
r &{ks=k E dsi zHkko esafdl h?k"kZ
. kghu l er y {kS
fr t i `"B i j xfr eku

gS
A, d l S d .MdsvUr j ky esacy qE dsdkj .k bl dk osx 0 l s6 m/s gkst kr k gS A ml h{k.k fo| qr &{ks=k dhfn' kk mRØfer
dj nht kr hgSA bl {ks=k dsi zHkko esadkj vkS
j nksl sd .M r d xfr dj r hj gr hgS
A 0 l s3 l sd .M dschp f[ ky kS
uk dkj ds
vkS
l r osx vkS
j vkS
l r pky Øe' k%gS A
(1) 1 m/s, 3.5 m/s (2) 1 m/s, 3 m/s (3) 2 m/s, 4 m/s (4) 1.5 m/s, 3 m/s

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Sol. 2

E
E
x x
qE
a x
m
t = 0, v = 0 and t = 1, v = 6
6 = 0 + at'
a=6
1
x= × 6 (1)2
2
=3
displacement = 3
distance = 9
 3
v avg = = 1 m/s
3

9
vavg = = 3 m/s
3

129. A block of mass m is placed on a smooth inclined wedge ABC of inclination  as shown in the
figure. The wedge is given an acceelration 'a' towards the right. The relation between a and  for
the block to remain stationary on the wedge is -
vkur dks.k  dsfdl hfpdusvkur ost ABC i j m nzO
; eku dk dksbZCy kW
a
d fp=kkuq
l kj fLFkr gS
A bl ost dksnk; havksj dksbZ
Roj .k 'a' fn; k t kr k gS
A Cy kW
d dksost i j fLFkj j [ kusdsfy , a vkS
j dschp l a
ca
/k gksxkA

A
m

C B

g g
(1) a = g cos  (2) a = (3) a = (4) a = g tan 
sin  cos ec
Sol. 4

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macos


ma


mg sin 

mg cos  mg

For block at rest; component along the wedge should be equal along the wedge should be equal
 macos= mgsint

 a  g tan 

130. A student measured the diameter of a small steel ball using a screw gauge of least count 0.001
cm. The main scale reading is 5 mm and 0 of circular scale division coincides with 25 divisions
above the reference level. If screw gauge has a zero error of –0.004 cm, the correct diameter of
the ball is -
fdl hNk=k usbLi kr dhy ?kqxsa n dsO; kl dheki 0.001 cm vYi r ekad oky sLØwxst } kj kdhA eq
[; iSeku dh5 mm vkS j
oÙ̀kh; i S
ekusdk ' kw
U; l a
nHkZy soy l s25 Hkkx Åi j gS
A ; fn LØwxst esa' kw
U; ka
d =kq
fV –0.004 cm gS
] r ksxsa
n dk l ghO
; kl
gksxk
(1) 0.053 cm (2) 0.525 cm (3) 0.521 (4) 0.529 cm
Sol. 4
LC = 0.001 cm
ms R = 5 mm
Zero error = 0.25 × 0.001
= 0.025 cm
D = 0.5 + 0.025 + 0.004
= 0.529 cm


131. The moment of the force, F  4î  5 ĵ  6k̂ at (2,0,–3), about the point (2, –2, –2), is given by
y

fcUnq(2,0,–3) i j dk; Z
j r cy F  4î  5 ĵ  6k̂ dk fcUnq(2, –2, –2) dsi fj r %vk?kw
. kZgksxkA
(1)  7 î  8 ĵ  4k̂ (2)  4 î  ĵ  8k̂ (3)  8 î  4 ĵ  7k̂ (4)  7 î  4 ĵ  8k̂
Sol. 4

(2,0,–3)

r

(2,–2,–2)


 = r  F

ˆ
ˆi ˆj k
0 2 1
=
4 5 6


î(12  5)  ĵ(4)  k̂(8)  r = (2  2)î  (0  2) ĵ  (3  2)k̂

=  7 î  4 ĵ  8k̂ = 2ˆj  kˆ

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132. The power radiated by a black body is P and it radiates maximum energy at wavelength 0. If the
temperature of teh black body is now changed so that it radiates maximum energy at wavelength
3
 , the power radiated by it becomes nP. The value of n is -
4 0
fdl hdf̀".kdk } kj k fofdj r ' kfDr P gSr Fkk ; g r j a
xnS
/; Z
] 0 i j vf/kdr e Åt kZfofdfj r dj r hgS
A vc ; fn bl df̀".kdk dk
3
r ki i fj ofr Z
r dj fn; k t kr k gS
] ft l l sfd ; g  rja
xnS
/; Zi j vf/kdr e Åt kZfofdfj r dj r hgS
] r ksbl ds} kj k fofdfj r
4 0
' kfDr nP gkst kr hgS
A n dk eku gksxkA
256 4 3 81
(1) (2) (3) (4)
81 3 4 256
1
PT4
4
P1  2 
P 4
 P =   M × T = constant
2  1 
4 4
 1   0 
P2 = P1 ×   = P1   4 

 2 3
 0 

256
P2 = P1 ×
81

133. Two wires are made of the same material and have the same volume. The first wire has cross-
sectional area A and the second wire has cross-sectional area 3A. If the length of the first wire is
increased by l on applying a force F, how much force is needed to stretch the second wire by the
same amount ?
nksr kj l eku i nkFkZdscusgSavkS
j nksuksadsvk; r u Hkhl ekIr gS
a
A i gy sr kj dhvuq
i zLFk dkV dk {ks=kQy A vkS j nq
l j sr kj
dhvuq i zLFkdkV dk{ks=kQy 3A gSA; fn cy F y xkdj i gy sr kj dhy EckbZesal dhof̀+) dht kr hgS
] r ksnw
l j sr kj dhy EckbZ
esa Hkhbr uhghof̀) dj usdsfy , fdr uscy dhvko' ; dr k gksxh\
(1) 4 F (2) 6 F (3) 9 F (4) F
Sol. 3
FL
=
AL
FL
 = (L) = constant
A
F1L1 F2L 2
= A
A1 2

A 2F1L1
F2 = A1L 2

F1  L  3A
= L = 9 F1
A
3

134. A sample of 0.1 g of water at 1000C and normal pressure (1.013 × 105 Nm–2) requires 54 cal of
heat energy to convert to steam at 100°C C. If the volume of the steam produced is 167.1 CC,
the change in internal energy of the sample, is -
l kekU; nkc (1.013 × 105 Nm–2) vkS j 100°C r ki i j 0.1 g t y dsuew usdks 1000C dhHkki esai fj ofr Z
r dj usds
fy , 54 cal Å"ek Åt kZdhvko' ; dr k gksrhgS
A ; fn mRiUu Hkki dkvk; r u 167.1 CC gS
] r ksbl uew
usdhvkUr fj d Åt kZ
esai fj or Z
u gS
(1) 42.4 J (2) 208.7 J (3) 104.3 J (4) 84.5 J

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Sol. 2
208.7 J
Q = U + W
U = Q – W
U = 54 × 4.2 – P (V)
 54 × 4.2 – (1.013 × 105 × 167.1 × 10–6)
 208.7 Joule

135. A small sphere of radius 'r' falls from rest in a viscous liquid. As a result, heat is produced due to
viscous force. The rate of production of heat when the sphere attains its termianl velocity, is
proportional to -
f=kT; k 'r' dkdksbZy ?kqxksy kfoj kekO
kLFkkl sfdl h' ; ku nzo esafxj r kgS
A ' ; ku cy dsdkj .kbl esaÅ"ekmRiUukgksrhgS
A xksy s
dsva
fr e ¼
VfeZ
uy ½osx i j mRiUu Å"ek dhnj fuEufy f[ kr esal sfdl dsvuq
Øekuq
i kr hgksrhgS\
(1) r5 (2) r2 (3) r3 (4) r4

Sol. 1

fv

mg

4 3
6rv =   3 r  g
 
v  r2
Rate of heat generated
p  (mg) v
4
p v3 g v
3
p  r5

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[CHEMISTRY]
136. Following solutions were prepared by mixing different volumes of NaOH and HCl of different
concentrations:

M M
(a) 60 mL HCl + 40 mL NaOH
10 10

M M
(b) 55 mL HCl + 45 mL NaOh
10 10

M M
(c) 75 mL HCl + 25 mL NaOH
5 5

M M
(d) 100 mL HCl + 100 mL NaOH
10 10
pH of which one of them will be equal to 1?
(1) d (2) a (3) b (4) c
fuEufyf[kr foy;uksa dks NaOH ,oa HCl dh fHkUu&fHkUu lkUnzrkvksa ,oa vk;ruksa ds feJ.k ls cuk;k x;k gS%
M M
(a) 60 mL HCl + 40 mL NaOH
10 10

M M
(b) 55 mL HCl + 45 mL NaOh
10 10

M M
(c) 75 mL HCl + 25 mL NaOH
5 5

M M
(d) 100 mL HCl + 100 mL NaOH
10 10
buesa ls fdlkd pH, 1 ds cjkcj gksxk?
(1) d (2) a (3) b (4) c
Sol. 4

1 1
N1V1  N2 V2 75 x  25 x
Nf = = 5 5
V1  V2
100
Nf = 0.1
 pH = log [H+]
= –log 0.1
=1

137. On which of the following properties does the coagulating power of an ion depend?
(1) Both magnitude and sign of the charge on the ion
(2) Size of the ion alone
(3) The magnitude of the charge on the ion alone
(4) The sign of charge on the ion alone
fUkEufy f[ kr esal sdkSu&l sxq . k i j vk; u dhLda nu {ker k fuHkZ
j dj r hgS\
(1) vk; u dsvkos ' k i fj ek.k , oavkos'k fpUg nksuksai j
(2) ds oy vk; u dsvkdkj i j
(3) ds oy vk; u dsvkos'k i fj ek.k i j
(4) ds oy vk; u dsvkos'k fpUg i j
Sol. 3
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138. The solubility of BaSO4 in water is 2.42 x 10–3 gL–1 at 298 K. The value of its solubility product
(Ksp) will be
(Given molar mass of BaSO4 = 233 g mo–1)
(1) 1.08 x 10–14 mol2 L–2 (2) 1.08 x 10–12 mol2 L–2
(3) 1.08 x 10 mol L
–10 2 –2
(4) 1.08 x 10–8 mol2 L–2
BaSO4 dh 298K ij ty esa foys;rk 2.42 x 10–3 gL–1 gSA foys;rk xq.kuQy (Ksp) dk eku gksxk
(fn;k x;k gS BaSO4 dk eksyj nzO;eku = 233 g mo–1)
(1) 1.08 x 10–14 mol2 L–2 (2) 1.08 x 10–12 mol2 L–2
(3) 1.08 x 10 mol L
–10 2 –2
(4) 1.08 x 10–8 mol2 L–2
Sol. 3
BaSO4  Ba2+ + So24
s s
Ksp = S2
2
 2.42 x103 
=   = 1.08 x 10–10 mol2/lt2
 233 

139. Given van der Waals constant for NH3, H2, O2 and CO2 are respectively 4.17, 0.244, 1.36 and
3.59, which one of the following gases in most easily liquefied ?
(1) O2 (2) H2 (3) NH3 (4) CO2
NH3, H2, O2 rFkk CO2 ds fy, okUMj okY; fLFkjkad Øe'k% 4.17, 0.244, 1.36 ,oa 3.59 fn, x, gSA fuEufyf[kr esa ls
dkSu&lh xSl lcls vklkuh ls nzfor gks tkrh gS\
(1) O2 (2) H2 (3) NH3 (4) CO2
Sol. 3
'ease of liquification depends on' a s
 NH3

140. In the reaction

the electrophile involved is



(1) dichloromethyl anion (CHCl 2) (2) formyl cation (C HO)

(3) dichloromethyl cation (C HCl2 ) (4) dichlorocarbene (:CCl2)
bl vfHkfØ;k

esa lfEefyr bysDVªkWuLusgh gSA



(1) MkbDyksjksesfFky _.kk;u (CHCl2) (2) QkWfeZy /kuk;u (C HO)

(3) MkbDyksjksesfFky /kuk;u (C HCl2 ) (4) MkbDyksjksdkchZu (:CCl2)
Sol. 4

:CCl2 (Dichloro carbene)

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141. Carboxylic acids have higher boiling points than aldehydes, ketones and even alcholos of comparable
molecular mass. It is due to their
(1) more extensive association of carboxylic acid via van der Waals force of attraction
(2) formation of carboxylate ion
(3) formation of intramolecular H-bonding
(4) formation of intermolecular H-bonding
dkcksZfDlfyd vEyksa ds DoFkukad lerqY; vkf.od nzO;eku okys ,sfYMgkbMksa dhVksuksa rFkk ;gk¡ rd fd ,sYdksgkWyksa ls mPprj gksrs
gSA ;g fdlds dkj.k gksrk gS \
(1) dkcksZfDlfyd vEyksa dk vf/kd O;kid laxq.ku okUMj ckYl vkd"kZ.k cyksa ds }kjk gksrk gS
(2) dkcksZfDlysV vk;u ds cuus ls
(3) vUr% vkf.od gkbMªkstu ca/ku cuus ls
(4) vUrjkvkf.od gkbMªkstu ca/ku cuus ls
Sol. 4

142. Compound A, C8H10O, is found to react with NaOI (produced by reacting Y with NaOH) and yields
a yellow precipitate with characteristic smell.
A and Y are respectively

(1) CH CH3 and I2 (2) CH2 CH2 OH and I2


OH

CH 3
(3) H3C CH2 OH and I2 (4) CH 3 OH and I2

,d ;kSfxd gS A, C8H10O tks fd NaOI (Y dh vfHkfØ;k NaOH ls djds cuk;k x;k) ls vfHkfØ;k djds yk{kf.kd ca/k okyk
ihyk vo{ksi nsrk gSA
A vkSj Y Øe'k% gSa

(1) CH CH3 vkSj I2 (2) CH2 CH2 OH vkSj I2


OH

CH3
(3) H3C CH2 OH vkSj I2 (4) CH3 OH vkSj I2

Sol. 1
Haloform reaction

143. Magnesium reacts with an element (X) to form an ionic comnpound. If the ground state electronic
configuration of (X) is 1s2 2s2 2p3, the simplest formula for this compound is
(1) Mg2X (2) MgX2 (3) Mg2X3 (4) Mg3X2
eS
Xuhf' k; e , d r Ro (X) l svfHkfØ; kdj ds, d vk; fud ; kS
fxd cukr kgS
A; fn (X) dkfuEur e voLFkkesaby sDVªkW
fud foU; kl
1s2 2s2 2p3 gS
] r ksbl ; kS
fxd dk l kekU; l w
=k gS
(1) Mg2X (2) MgX2 (3) Mg2X3 (4) Mg3X2
Sol. 4
valency fector for Mg = 2 thus formula
valency fector for x = 5 of comp = M3X2
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144. Iron exhibits bcc structure at room temperature. Above 900°C, it transforms to fcc structure. The
ratio fo density of iron at room temperature to that at 900°C (assuming molar mass and atomic
radii of iron remains constant with temperature) is

3 3 4 3 3 1
(1) (2) (3) (4)
4 2 3 2 2 2
vk;ju dh dejs ds rki ij bcc lajpuk gksrh gSA 900°C ds Åij ;g fcc lajpuk esa ifjofrZr gks tkrh gSA vk;ju ds dejs
ds rki ij ?kuRo dk 900°C rki ij ?kuRo ls vuqikr gksxk (eku yhft, vk;ju dk eksyj nzO;eku ,oa ijek.kq f=T;k rki
ds lkFk fLFkj gS)
3 3 4 3 3 1
(1) (2) (3) (4)
4 2 3 2 2 2
Sol. 1
bcc  fcc
room temp. (900°C)
Z=2 Z=4

2
2
Z x MM  4r / 3 
d
bcc NA x a3 4
= =
d
fcc Z x MM 3
 4r 
NA x a3  
 2

dbcc 3 3
dfcc = 4 2

145. Which one is a wrong statement ?


(1) The electronic configuration of N atom is

(2) An orbital is designated by three quantum numbers while an electron in an atom is designated
by four quantum numbers.
(3) Total orbital angular momentum of electron in 's' orbital is equal to zero.
(4) The value of m for d 2 is zero
z
fuEufyf[kr es l
a s dkSulk dFku vlR; gS \
(1) N ijek.kq dk bysDVªkWfud foU;kl

(2) ,d d{kd rhu DkoaVe la[;kvksa ls fufnZ"V gS tcfd ,d ijek.kq esa ,d bysDVªkWu pkj DokaVe la[;kvksa ls fufnZ"V gS
(3) 's' d{kd esa bysDVªkWu dk dqy d{kd dks.kh; laosx 'kwU; ds cjkcj gSA
(4) dz2 ds fy, m dk eku 'kwU; gSA
Sol. 1
The correct electronic configuration of N–atom is

All e– should be in same spin

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146. Consider the following species :


CN+, CN–, NO and CN
Which one of these will have the highest bond order ?
(1) CN+ (2) CN– (3) NO (4) CN
fuEufyf[kr Lih'kht ij fopkj dhft,
CN+, CN–, NO rFkk CN
buesa ls fdldh mPpre vkca/k dksfV gS \
(1) CN+ (2) CN– (3) NO (4) CN
Sol. 2
CN– total e– = 14
1s2, *1s2, 2s2, *2s2, 2px2 = 2py2, 2pz2

BMO  ABMO 10  4
BO = = =3
2 2

147. In the structure of CIF3, the number of lone pairs of electrons on central atom 'Cl' is:
(1) four (2) two (3) one (4) three
CIF3 dh lajpuk esa dsUnzh; ijek.kq 'Cl' ij ,dkdh ;qXe bysDVªkWuksa dh la[;k gS
(1) pkj (2) nks (3) ,d (4) rhu
Sol. 2

2 lone pair on Cl– atom

148. The correct order of atomic radii in group 13 elements is:


(1) B < Ga < Al < Tl < In (2) B < Al < Ga < In < Tl
(3) B < Al < In < Ga < Tl (4) B < Ga < Al < In < Tl
fuEufyf[kr esa ls xqzi 13 ds rRoksa esa ijekf.od f=T;kvksa dk dkSu&lk Øe lgh gSA
(1) B < Ga < Al < Tl < In (2) B < Al < Ga < In < Tl
(3) B < Al < In < Ga < Tl (4) B < Ga < Al < In < Tl
Sol. 4
B < Ga < Al < In < Tl

149. The correct order of N-compounds in its decreasing order of oxidation states is:
(1) HNO3, NH4Cl, No, N2 (2) HNO3, No, NH4Cl, N2
(3) HNO3,NO, N2, NH4Cl (4) NH4Cl, N2, NO, HNO3
N-;kSfxdksa esa budh vkWDlhdj.k voLFkkvksa dk ?kVrk gqvk lgh Øe gS
(1) HNO3, NH4Cl, No, N2 (2) HNO3, No, NH4Cl, N2
(3) HNO3,NO, N2, NH4Cl (4) NH4Cl, N2, NO, HNO3
Sol. 3

150. Which one of the following elements is unable to form MF63 ion?
(1) B (2) Al (3) Ga (4) In
fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk rRo MF 3
6
vk;u cukus esa vleFkZ gS\
(1) B (2) Al (3) Ga (4) In
Sol. 1
Due to absence of vacant d-orbitals

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151. Which of the following statements is not true for halogens?


(1) All but fluorine show positive oxidation states
(2) All are oxidizing agents
(3) All form monobasic oxyacids
(4) Chlorine has the highest electron-gain enthalpy
gSykstuksa ds fy, fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk dFku lR; ugha gS\
(1) ¶yksjhu ds vykok lHkh /kukRed vkWDlhdj.k voLFkk,¡ n'kkZrs gSA
(2) lHkh vkWDlhdkj.k vfHkdeZd gSA
(3) lHkh ,dy {kkjh; vkWDlh vEy cukrs gSA
(4) Dyksjhu dh lokZf/kd bysDVªkWu xzg.k ,UFkSYih gSA
Sol. 1

152. Considering Ellingham diagram, which of the following metals can be used to reduce alumina?
(1) Mg (2) Zn (3) Fe (4) Cu
,fya?ke vkjs[k dks /;ku esa j[krs gq, fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lh /kkrq dk mi;ksx ,syqfeuk ds vip;;u esa f;dk tk ldrk gS\
(1) Mg (2) Zn (3) Fe (4) Cu
Sol. 1
Because graph for Gºf of BeO is below then graph of G°f of Al2O3 in ellingham diagram.

153. For the redox reaction MnO4  C2O24  H  Mn2  CO2  H2O the correct coefficients of the reactants
for the balanced equation are:
MnO4 C2O24 H
(1) 2 16 5
(2) 2 5 16
(3) 16 5 2
(4) 5 16 2
jsMkWDl vfHkfØ;k MnO4  C2O24  H  Mn2  CO2  H2O ds fy, larqfyr lehdj.k ds fy, vfHkdkjdksa ds lgh xq.kkad
gSa&
MnO4 C2O24 H
(1) 2 16 5
(2) 2 5 16
(3) 16 5 2
(4) 5 16 2
Sol. 2
MnO4– + C2O42 + H+  Mn2+ + Co2 + H2O
2MnO4– + 5C2O42– + 16 H+  2Mn2+ + 10Co2 + 8H2O
2 : 5 : 16

154. Which one of the following conditions will favour maximum formation of the product in the
reaction:
A2 (g)  B2  X2 (g) 2H  –X kJ
(1) High temperature and high pressure (2) Low temperature and low pressure
(3) Low temperature and high pressure (4) High temperature and low pressure
vfHkfØ;k esa fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lh n'kk vf/kdre mRikn fuekZ.k ds fy, mÙkjnk;h gS]
A2 (g)  B2  X2 (g) 2H  –X kJ
(1) mPp rki ,oa mPp nkc
(2) fuEu rki ,oa fuEu nkc
(3) fuEu rki ,oa mPp nkc
(4) mPp rki ,oa fuEu nkc
Sol. 3
for exothermic reaction lower temperature favours product
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155. The correction factor 'a' to the ideal gas equation corresponds to:
(1) electric field present between the gas molecules
(2) volume of the gas molecules
(3) density of the gas molecules
(4) forces of attraction between the gas molecules
vkn'kZ xSl lehdj.k esa la'kks/ku xq.kd 'a' lacaf/kr gS
(1) xSl v.kqvksa ds e/; mifLFkr fo|qr&{ks= ls
(2) xSl v.kqvksa ds vk;ru ls
(3) xSl v.kqvksa ds ?kuRo ls
(4) xSl v.kqvksa ds e/; vkd"kZ.k cyksa ls
Sol. 4
a corresponds to the force of attraction between the gas molecules.

156. When initial concentration of the reactant is doubled, the half-life period of a zero order reaction:
(1) is tripled (2) is doubled (3) is halved (4) remains unchanged
tc vfHkdkjd dh izkjfEHkd lkUnzrk dks nqxquk fd;k tkrk gS] rks 'kwU; dksfV vfHkfØ;k ds fy, v/kZ&vk;q dky:
(1) frxquk gksrk gS (2) nqxquk gksrk gS (3) vk/kk gksrk gS (4) vifjofrZr jgrk gS
Sol. 2

Initial concentration
t 12 =
2k

t 1 2  Initial concentration

157. The bond dissociation energies of X2, Y2 and XY are in the ratio of 1:05:1. H for the formation of
XY is –200kJ mol–1. The bond dissociation energy of X2 will be:
(1) 800 kJ mol–1 (2) 100 kJ mol–1 (3) 200 kJ mol–1 (4) 400 kJ mol–1
X2, Y2 vkSj XY dh vkca/k fo;ksyu ÅtkZvksa dk vuqikr 1:05:1 gSA XY ds fojpu dh ,UFkSYihH –200kJ mol–1 gSA X2
dh vkca/k fo;kstu ÅtkZ gksxh%
(1) 800 kJ mol–1 (2) 100 kJ mol–1 (3) 200 kJ mol–1 (4) 400 kJ mol–1
Sol. 1

1 1
x 2 + y2  x y
2 2

1 1
Hrxn = Ex  x + Ey  y – Ex–yy = Hf(x)
2 2

1 0.5
 a+ a – a = –200
2 2

1 1
 a + a – a = –200
2 4

3
 a – a = –200
4

1
  a = –200
4
 a = 800 kj/ mol

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158. Match the metal ions given in Column I with the spin magnetic moments of the ions given in
Column II and assign the correct code :
Column I Column I
a. Co3+ i. 8 B.M.
b. Cr3+ ii. 35 B.M.
c. Fe 3+
iii. 3 B.M.
d. Ni2+ iv. 24 B.M.
v. 15 B.M.
a b c d
(1) iv i ii iii
(2) i ii iii iv
(3) iv v ii i
(4) iii v i ii
dkWye I esa fn, x, /kkrq vk;uksa dks dkWye II esa fn, x, vk;uksa ds pØ.k pqEcdh; vk?kw.kksZa ls feykb, rFkk lgh ladsr dks fufnZ"V
dhft,%
dkWye I dkWye I
a. Co3+ i. 8 B.M.
b. Cr3+ ii. 35 B.M.
c. Fe 3+
iii. 3 B.M.
d. Ni2+ iv. 24 B.M.
v. 15 B.M.
a b c d
(1) iv i ii iii
(2) i ii iii iv
(3) iv v ii i
(4) iii v i ii
Sol. 3
Co3+ Cr3+ Fe3+ Ni2+
3d6 3d3 3d5 3d8
unpaired e– 4 3 5 2
= 24 = 15 35 8

= n n  2  BM

159. Which one of the following ions exhibits d-d transition and paramagnetism as well ?
(1) MnO4 (2) Cr2O72 (3) CrO24 (4) MnO24
fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk vk;u d-d laØe.k n'kkZrk gS rFkk lkFk gh vuqpqEcdRo Hkh\
(1) MnO4 (2) Cr2O72 (3) CrO24 (4) MnO24
Sol. 4
MnO42– Mn+6
3d1

160. The type of isomerism shown by the complex [CoCl2(en)2] is


(1) Ionization isomerism (2) Coordination isomerism
(3) Geometrical isomerism (4) Linkage isomerism
ladqyu [CoCl2(en)2] }kjk iznf'kZr leko;ork dk izdkj gS
(1) vk;uu leko;ork (2) milgla;kstu leko;ork
(3) T;kferh; leko;ork (4) ca/kuh leko;ork
Sol. 3
[MA2(a–a)2] geometrical & optical
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161. The geometry and magnetic behaviour of the complex [Ni(CO)4] are
(1) square planar geometry and paramagnetic
(2) tetrahedral geometry and diamagnetic
(3) square planar geometry and diamagnetic
(4) tetrahedral geometry and paramagnetic
[Ni(CO)4] ladqy dh T;kferh; ,oa pqEcdh; xq.k gS
(1) oxZ leryh T;kfefr ,oa vuqpqEcdh;
(2) prqQydh; T;kfefr ,oa izfrpqEcdh;
(3) oxZ leryh T;kfefr ,oa izfrpqEcdh;
(4) prqQydh; T;kfefr ,oa vuqpqEcdh;
Sol. 2
Ni(CO)4

162. Iron carbonyl, Fe(CO)5 is


(1) trinuclear (2) mononuclear (3) tetranuclear (4) dinuclear
vk;ju dkcksZfuy, Fe(CO)5 gS
(1) f=dsUnze (2) ,ddsUnze (3) prq"ddsUnzd (4) f}dsUnzd
Sol. 2
Fe(CO)5 Only one central metal atom

163. The correct difference between first and second - order reactions is that
(1) a first-order reaction can be catalyzed; a second-order reaction cannot be catalyzed
(2) The half-life of a first-order reaction does not depend on [A]0; the half-life of a second-order
reaction does depend on [A]0
(3) The rate of a first-order reaction does not depend on reactant concentrations; the rate of a
second order reaction does depend on reactant concentrations
(4) The rate of a first-order reaction does depend on reactant concentration; the rate of a second-
order reaction does not depend on reactant concentrations
izFke dksfV ,oa f}rh; dksfV vfHkfØ;kvksa esa lgh fofHkUurk gS
(1) izFke dksfV dh vfHkfØ;k dks mRizsfjr fd;k tk ldrk gS f}rh; dksfV dh vfHkfØ;k dks mRizsfjr ugha fd;k tk ldrk gS
(2) izFke dksfV dh vfHkfØ;k dh v/kZ&vk;q [A]0 ij fuHkZj ugha gS f}rh; dksfV dh vfHkfØ;k dh v/kZ&vk;q [A]0 ij fuHkZj gS
(3) izFke dksfV dh vfHkfØ;k dk osx vfHkdkjd dh lkUnzrkvksa ij fuHkZj djrh gS f}rh; dksfV dh vfHkfØ;k dk osx vfHkdkjd
dh lkUnzrkvksa ij fuHkZj djrk gS
(4) izFke dksfV dh vfHkfØ;k dk osx vfHkdkjd dh lkUnzrkvksa ij fuHkZj djrk gS f}rh; dksfV dh vfHkfØ;k dk osx vfHkdkjd
dh lkUnzrkvksa ij fuHkZj ugha djrk gS
Sol. 2
0.693
t 12 = (independent of Initial concentration)
k
1
t 12 = (depends on initial concentration)
k x Initial concentration

164. Among CaH2, BeH2, BaH2, the order of ionic character is


(1) BeH2 < BaH2 < CaH2 (2) CaH2 < BeH2 < BaH2
(3) BeH2 < CaH2 < BaH2 (4) BaH2 < BeH2 < CaH2
CaH2, BeH2, BaH2 esa vk;fud izd`fr dk Øe gS%
(1) BeH2 < BaH2 < CaH2 (2) CaH2 < BeH2 < BaH2
(3) BeH2 < CaH2 < BaH2 (4) BaH2 < BeH2 < CaH2
Sol. 3

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165. Consider the change in oxidation state of Bromine corresponding to different emf values as
shown in the diagram below :

Then the species undergoing disproportionation is


(1) Br2 (2) BrO4– (3) BrO3– (4) HBrO
uhps fn, x, vkjs[k esa] czksehu dh vkWDlhdj.k voLFkk esa ifjorZu fofHkUu fo-yk- cy (emf) ekuksa ij n'kkZ;k x;k gS%

dkSulh Lih'kht vlekuqikru ls xqtjrh gS\


(1) Br2 (2) BrO4– (3) BrO3– (4) HBrO
Sol. 4
As, BrO4– is present in its highest oxidation state(+7), so it will not undergo disproportination,
For, BrO3–
2H2O + 2 BrO3–  2BrO4– + 4H+ + 4e– – (1), E1O = –1.82

4e– + 5H+ + BrO3– HBrO + 2H2O – (2), E2O = 1.5V


 (1) + (2) = (3)
H+ + 3 BrO3  2 BrO4 + HBrO – (3)

1.82 x 4  1.5 x 4
E3o =
4
= –ve
Also for HBrO
4e– + 6H+ + 2HBrO  2Br2 + 4H2O – (1), E1O = 1.595

2H2O + HBrO  BrO3 + 5H+ + 4e– – (2), E2O = –1.5 V


(1) + (2) = 3
H+ + 3HBrO  2Br2 + 2H2O + BrO3 – (3)
1.595 x 4  1.5 x 4
 EO3 =
4
= +ve
So, HBrO will disproportionate

166. In which case is the number of molecules of water maximum ?


(1) 0.00224 L of water vapours at 1 atm and 273 K
(2) 0.18 g of water
(3) 18 mL of water
(4) 10–3 mol of water
fdl fLFkfr esa ty ds v.kqvksa dh la[;k vf/kdre gS\
(1) 1 atm ,oa 273K ij 0.00224 L ry ok"i ds fy,
(2) 0.18 g ty ds fy,
(3) 18 mL ty ds fy,
(4) 10–3 eksy ty ds fy,
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Sol. 3
(1) At NTP, 0.00224 lt  0.0001 mole
0.18
(2) n = = 0.01 mole
18
(3) dH2O = 1 gm/ml
 w = 18 gm
18
So, n= = 1 mole
18
(4) 10–3 mole
 maximum no. of moles is present in 18 ml of H2O.

167. Which of the following molecules represents the order of hybridisation sp2, sp2, sp, sp from left to
right atoms ?
(1) CH2=CH–CH=CH2 (2) CH2=CH–CCH
(3) HCC–CCH (4) CH3–CH=CH–CH3
fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl v.kq esa ck,¡ ls nk,¡ ds ijek.kqvksa esa sp2, sp2, sp, sp ladj.k n'kkZ;k tkrk gS\
(1) CH2=CH–CH=CH2 (2) CH2=CH–CCH
(3) HCC–CCH (4) CH3–CH=CH–CH3
Sol. 2

168. Which of the following carbocations is expected to be most stable ?

(1) (2) (3) (4)

fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk dkcZ/kuk;u lokZf/kd LFkk;h visf{kr gS\

(1) (2) (3) (4)

Sol. 1

169. Which of the following is correct with respect to –I effect of the substitutents ? (R = alkyl)
(1) –NH2 > –OR > –F (2) –NR2 < –OR < –F
(3) –NH2 < –OR < –F (4) –NR2 > –OR > – F
fuEufyf[kr esa ls izfrLFkkidksa ds –I izHkko ds lanHkZ esa dkSu&lk lgh gS\(R = ,sfYdy)
(1) –NH2 > –OR > –F (2) –NR2 < –OR < –F
(3) –NH2 < –OR < –F (4) –NR2 > –OR > – F
Sol. 3
—NH2< OR < –F (–I order)
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170. Identify the major products P, Q and R in this following sequence of reactions :

P Q R

(1) , , CH3CH(OH)CH3

(2) , ,

(3) , , CH3CH2–OH

(4) , , CH3–CO–CH3

fuEufyf[kr vfHkfØ;k Ja`[kyk esa eq[; mRikn P, Q vkSj R dks igpkfu, %

P Q R

(1) , , CH3CH(OH)CH3

(2) , ,

(3) , , CH3CH2–OH

(4) , , CH3–CO–CH3

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Sol. 4

171. Which of the following compounds can form a zwitterion ?


(1) Benzoic acid (2) Acetanilide (3) Aniline (4) Glycine
fUEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk ;kSfxd fRLoVjvk;u cuk ldrk gS \
(1) csUtksbd vEy (2) ,slhVSfuykbM (3) ,sfuyhu (4) Xykblhu
Sol. 4

172. The compound A on treatment with Na gives B, and with PCl5 gives C. B and C react together to
give diethyl ether. A, B and C are in the order:
(1) C2H5Cl, C2H6, C2H5OH (2) C2H5OH, C2H5Cl, C2H5ONa
(3) C2H5OH, C2H6, C2H5Cl (4) C2H5OH, C2H5ONa, C2H5Cl
;kSfxd A dh Na ls vfHkfØ;k djokus ij B nsrk gS rFkk PCl5 ds lkFk vfHkfØ;k djokus ij og C nsrk gSA B ,oa C nksuksa dh
lkFk esa vfHkfØ;k djokus ij Mkb,fFky bZFkj izkIr gksrk gS A, B rFkk C Øe esa gS
(1) C2H5Cl, C2H6, C2H5OH (2) C2H5OH, C2H5Cl, C2H5ONa
(3) C2H5OH, C2H6, C2H5Cl (4) C2H5OH, C2H5ONa, C2H5Cl
Sol. 4

173. Hydrocarbon (A) reacts with bromine by substitution to form an alkyl bromide which by Wurtz
reaction is converted to gaseous hydrocarbon containing less than four carbon atoms (A) is:
(1) CH3 – CH3 (2) CH2 = CH2 (3) CH  CH (4) CH4
gkbMªksdkcZu(A) czksehu ls izfrLFkkiu }kjk vfHkfØ;k djds ,d ,sfYdy czksekbM nsrk gS tks fd cqV~Zt vfHkfØ;k }kjk xSklh;
gkbMªksdkcZu esa ifjofrZr gksrk gS ftlesa fd pkj ls de dkcZu ijek.kq (A) gS :
(1) CH3 – CH3 (2) CH2 = CH2 (3) CH  CH (4) CH4
Sol. 4

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174. The compound C7H8 undergoes the following reactions:


3Cl2 /  Br2 /Fe Zn/HCl
C7H8   A   B  C The product 'C' is:
(1) 3-bromo-2, 4, 6-trichlorotoluene (2) o-bromotoluene
(3) m-bromotoluene (4) p-bromotoluene
,d ;kSfxd C7H8 fuEufyf[kr vfHkfØ;kvksa ls xqtjrk gS :
3Cl2 / 
C7H8  Br2 /Fe
 A  Zn/HCl
 B  C mRikn 'C' gS :
(1) 3-czkseks-2, 4, 6-VªkbDyksjksVkWyqbZu (2) o-czkseksVkWyqbZu
(3) m-czkseksVkWyqbZu (4) p-czkseksVkWyqbZu
Sol. 3

175. Which oxide of nitrogen is not a common pollutant introduced into the atmosphere both due to
natural and human activity?
(1) N2O (2) NO2 (3) N2O5 (4) NO
ok;qeaMy esa izd`fr ,oa ekuo fØ;kvksa nksuksa ls fufeZr ukbVªkstu dk dkSu&lk vkWDlkbM lk/kkj.k iznq"kd ugha gS \
(1) N2O (2) NO2 (3) N2O5 (4) NO
Sol. 3

176. Regarding cross-linked or network polymers, which of the following statements is incorrect?
(1) Examples are bakelite and melamine.
(2) They are formed from bi- and tri-functional monomers.
(3) They contain covalent bonds between various liner polymer chains.
(4) They contain strong covalent bonds in their polymer chains.
fr;Zd cq) vFkok tkyØe cgqydksa ds lanHkZ esa fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk dFku vlR; gS \
(1) cSdsykbM ,oa eSykehu blds mnkgj.k gSA
(2) ;s f}fØ;kRed ,oa f=fØ;kRed lewgksa ds ,dydksa ls curs gS \
(3) buesa fofHkUu js[kh; cgqyd Ja`[kykvksa ds chp lgla;kstd vkca/k gksrs gS \
(4) budh cgqyd Ja`[kykvksa esa izcy lgla;kstd vkca/k gksrs gS
Sol. 4

177. Which of the following oxides is most acidic in nature?


(1) BaO (2) BeO (3) MgO (4) CaO
fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lh vkWDlkbM dh lokZf/kd vEyh; izd`fr gS\
(1) BaO (2) BeO (3) MgO (4) CaO
Sol. 2
BeO due to palarisation

178. Nitration of aniline is strong acidic medium also gives m-nitroaniline because:
(1) In absence of substituents nitro group always goes to m-position.
(2) In electrophilic substitution reactions amino group is meta directive.
(3) In spite of substituents nitro group always goes to only m-position.
(4) In acidic (strong) medium aniline is present as anilinium ion.
,sfuyhu dk ukbVªhdj.k izcy vEyh; ek/;e esa djus ij m-ukbVªks,sfuyhu Hkh cukrk gS D;ksafd
(1) izfrLFkkiu dh vuqifLFkfr es aukbVªks lewg ges'kk m-fLFkfr ij tkrk gS
(2) bysDVªkWuLusgh izfrLFkkiu vfHkfØ;k esa ,sehuks lewg m-funsZ'kdkjh gS
(3) izfrLFkkid dh mifLFkfr ds ckotwn ukbVªks lewg ges'kk dsoy m-fLFkfr ij gh tkrk gS
(4) vEyh; (izcy) ek/;e esa ,sfuyhu ,sfuyhfu;e vk;u ds :i esa gksrh gS
Sol. 4
Refer to theory

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(Page # 64) NEET Examination (2018) (Code - RR)

179. A mixture of 2.3 g formic acid and 4.5 g oxalic acid is treated with conc. H2SO4. The evolved
gaseous mixture is passed through KOH pellets. Weight (in g) of the remaining product at STP
will be:
(1) 2.8 (2) 3.0 (3) 1.4 (4) 4.4
2.3 g QkWfeZd vEy rFkk 4.5 g vkWDlsfyd vEy dks lkUnz H2SO4 ls fØ;k djokus ij mRlftZr xSlh; feJ.k dks KOH ds NksVs
VqdMks ls xqtkjk tkrk gSA STP ij cps gq, mRikn dk Hkkj (g esa) gksxk&
(1) 2.8 (2) 3.0 (3) 1.4 (4) 4.4
Sol. 1
HCOOH  Co + H2O(l)
(g)
2.3 gm
2.3
n=
46
1 1 1
n= moles moles moles
20 20 20
H2C2O4  Co + Co2 + H2O(l)
(g) (g)
4.5 gm
4.5
n=
90
1 1 1 1
n= moles moles moles moles
20 20 20 20
 on passing through KOH only
Co will remain as Co2 is absorbed.

1 1
 nCo = + moles
20 20
1
wCo = x 28
10
wCo = 2.8 gms.

180. The difference between amylose and amylopectin is:


(1) Amylopectin have 1  4 -linkage and 1  6 -linkage
(2) Amylose have 1  4 -linkage and 1  6 -linkage
(3) Amylopectin have 1  4 -linkage and 1  6 -linkage
(4) Amylose is made up of glucose and galactose
,sfeyksl ,oa ,sfeyksisfDVu esa foHkUurk gS
(1) ,sfeyksisfDVu esa 1  4 -ca/ku rFkk 1  6 -ca/ku gS
(2) ,sfeyksl esa 1  4 -ca/ku rFkk 1  6 -ca/ku gS
(3) ,sfeyksisfDVu esa 1  4 -ca/ku rFkk 1  6 -ca/ku gS
(4) ,sfeyksl Xywdksl ,oa xSySDVksl ls cuk gS
Sol. 3

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