Skeletal System: Bones and Bone Tissue

1. Some marrow of long bones is termed "yellow" marrow under normal conditions. The function of this is to
A) manufacture blood cells.
B) manufacture tissue cells for the skin.
C) store adipose tissue.
D) store bone forming cells.

2. Some marrow of long bones is termed "red" marrow. The function of this is to
A) manufacture blood cells.
B) manufacture tissue cells for the skin.
C) store adipose tissue.
D) store bone forming cells.

3. One of the functions of bone is "electrolyte balance." Which of the following best represents this role?
A) Bones exchange all types of electrolytes with the blood and with cartilage.
B) Bones store calcium and phosphorus and release them into the blood as needed.
C) Bones take up and store electrolytes but seldom release them.
D) Bones are storage places for electrolytes, iron, proteins, and fats.

4. Which of the following best describes the role of a lacuna in a bone?

A) a cavity within a bone to house an osteocyte
B) an indentation within a bone that houses an osteoclast
C) a space within the bone for marrow development
D) another term for the diploe of a flat bone

5. Cartilage grows by two mechanisms: interstitial growth and appositional growth. Which pair of terms best describes
the two methods?
A) medial and lateral
B) proximal and distal
C) internal and on the surface
D) left and right

6. The shaft of a bone is known as the

A) epiphysis.
B) metaphysis.
C) periosteum.
D) diaphysis.

7. The growth zone of a long bone is referred to as the

A) osteon.
B) epiphyseal plate.
C) articular surface.
D) diaphysis.

8. A tissue that surrounds a long bone, made of a double layer of connective tissue, is referred to as the
A) endosteum.
B) marrow.
C) growth plate.
D) periosteum.

9. What type of bone tissue surrounds a medullary cavity?

A) compact bone
B) medullary bone
C) spongy bone
D) replacement bone

10. Sharpey fibers, located on the periphery of a bone, are

A) collagen fibers from ligaments that attach to bone.
B) elastic fibers that are found in tendons.
C) fibers that make up the structure of endosteum.
D) elastic fibers that make up the structure of periosteum.

11. The lattice of spongy bone consists of plates, rods and spines, called
A) marrow.
B) trabeculae.
C) lacunae.
D) endosteum.
12. The end of a long bone is referred to as the
A) epiphysis.
B) metaphysis.
C) diaphysis.
D) periosteum.

13. Examples of bones that are "irregular" in shape are

A) femur, skull and sternum.
B) vertebrae and some skull bones.
C) radius and ulna.
D) radius, tibia, femur and patella.

14. Which of the following is connective tissue that lines the medullary cavity of a bone?
A) periosteum
B) osteocytes
C) endosteum
D) trabeculae with osteoclasts

15. Passing through the periosteum of bones are arteries, veins, and
A) nerves.
B) adipose tissue.
C) Volkmann's canals.
D) the spinal cord.

16. Which of the following bones is considered to be flat?

A) femur
B) sternum
C) vertebra
D) talus

17. Which of the following is classified as a long bone?

A) femur
B) sternum
C) vertebra
D) ankle

18. The epiphyseal plate is located

A) in the diaphysis.
B) in the spongy bone zone.
C) mid-bone as in the middle of the clavicle
D) between the diaphysis and epiphysis.

19. Once a long bone has completed its ossification, the bone now has a(an) ___________ where the old epiphyseal
plate existed.
A) medullary cavity
B) line of cartilage
C) foramina
D) epiphyseal line

20. Bones
A) can develop from cartilage.
B) are made of connective tissue.
C) are organs.
D) All of the above.

21. In compact bone, the Haversian canals (central canals) go the length of the bone. What are the connectors from one
Haversian canal to another?
A) Volkmann canals (perforating canals)
B) Haversian II canals
C) semicircular canals
D) blood canals

22. Bone that has less bone matrix and more space than compact bone is _____________ bone.
A) loose
B) woven
C) spongy
D) modeled
23. Spongy bone has spaces within it that are filled with _______.
A) new osteocytes
B) future osteocytes
C) bone marrow and blood vessels
D) undifferentiated cells for development of bone

24. An osteon (Haversian system) is actually

A) a Haversian canal (central canal) and its lamellae.
B) a growth of new bone.
C) layers of bone in a fontanel.
D) a bone that has demineralized.

25. Since bone is a connective tissue, it has all the necessary features of a connective tissue including a matrix. What
makes up the matrix of a bone?
A) collagen, elastic fibers, and other proteins
B) osteoblasts and osteoclasts
C) collagen, proteins and hydroxyapatite
D) sodium, calcium, phosphorus, elastic fibers and some adipose tissue

26. If the collagen and minerals are removed from a bone, what happens to the bone?
A) it becomes stiff and brittle
B) no noticeable differences occur with the bone
C) it becomes soft and rubbery
D) it breaks apart into thousands of small pieces

27. Which of the following types of bone develops out of a non-cartilage connective tissue scaffold?
A) intramembranous
B) replacement
C) endochondral
D) perichondral

28. Bone cells that manufacture new bone are known as

A) osteoblasts.
B) osteoclasts.
C) osteomesoclasts.
D) chondrocytes.

29. The center of an osteon is known as a central canal (Haversian canal). What passes through the center of the canal?
A) water
B) blood vessels and nerves
C) osteocytes
D) chondrocytes

30. The inorganic portion of a bone structure, made primarily of calcium phosphate crystals, is known as
A) collagen bone component.
B) appetite.
C) organic calcium.
D) hydroxyapatite.

31. Which of the following types of cells add calcium and phosphorus to bone as well as manufactures bone?
A) osteoclasts
B) osteoblasts
C) osteons
D) matrix cells

32. Spaces occupied by osteocyte cell processes are known as

A) Volkmann canals.
B) central canals.
C) perforating canals.
D) canaliculi.

33. Osteoclasts are active cells that tear down bone. They do this by secreting ________ that dissolve the organic part of
the bone matrix.
A) hydroxyapatase
B) acid and protein-digesting enzymes
C) bases and calcium-digesting enzymes
D) epiphyseal reduction
34. In children and adolescents, what is the epiphyseal plate composed of?
A) bone
B) hyaline cartilage
C) collagen fibers
D) elastic fiber, collagen fibers, and elastic cartilage

35. Normal formation of bone is known as osteogenesis. Another term for bone formation is
A) osteoporosis.
B) ossification.
C) osteosarcoma.
D) osteocyte.

36. Osteochondral progenitor cells

A) assist in fracture healing by taking bone fragments away from the injury site.
B) make up the scaffolding of membranous bone.
C) are stem cells that become osteoblasts.
D) are osteocytes that do not live in bone.

37. In the skull of a newborn baby, the space between the developing skull bones is known as a(n)
A) intramembranous canal
B) fontanel
C) central canal
D) lacuna

38. Endochondral ossification begins at what age?

A) during fetal development
B) birth
C) puberty
D) adulthood

39. Endochondral ossification ends at what age?

A) birth
B) puberty
C) adulthood
D) about age 50

40. The bone formed by endochondral ossification is called _____________ bone.

A) replacement
B) cartilage
C) membrane
D) compact

41. Most of the peripheral skeleton of a 7-month-old fetus is primarily

A) adipose tissue.
B) cartilage tissue.
C) general fetal tissue.
D) undifferentiated bone tissue.

42. The term "appositional growth" refers to bone growth that occurs
A) before birth.
B) in the epiphysis only.
C) on the surface of cartilage, bone or older bone.
D) inside of a lacuna.

43. The epiphyseal plate is the zone of

A) new growth for endochondral ossification.
B) growth in intramembranous bone.
C) growth in the skull bones only.
D) growth in the leg bones only.

44. The epiphyseal plate is divided into 4 zones. The region where the bone grows longer is the zone of
A) resting cartilage.
B) proliferation.
C) hypotrophy.
D) calcification.

45. The epiphyseal plate is divided into 4 zones. The region where chondrocytes mature and enlarge is the zone of
A) resting cartilage.
B) proliferation.
 C) hypertrophy.
D) calcification.

46. The epiphyseal plate is divided into 4 zones. The region where the cartilage matrix is mineralized with calcium
carbonate is the zone of
A) resting cartilage.
B) proliferation.
C) hypertrophy.
D) calcification.

47. Two of the primary hormones for bone growth and development are
A) bone growth hormone and epiphyseal growth hormone.
B) human growth hormone and thyroid hormone.
C) thyroid stimulating hormone and body growth hormone.
D) pituitary hormone and bone growth hormone.

48. Intramembranous ossification results in the formation of bones that belong to which class of bones?
A) skull and ribs
B) ribs, clavicles, and spine
C) flat bones of the clavicle and skull
D) spine, skull, ribs, and scapulas

49. Before the process of intramembranous ossification, which of the following type of tissue is found in the associated
membranes of the skull and clavicles?
A) cartilage
B) bone
C) epithelium
D) collagen fibers

50. The process of intramembranous ossification begins when?

A) during embryonic development
B) at birth
C) in the teenage years
D) around the time of full development

51. The type of cells that brings about intramembranous ossification are
A) osteocytes.
B) osteoblasts.
C) osteoclasts.
D) osteons.

52. A fontanel is
A) an unossified fibrous membrane.
B) a membranous deossification.
C) a endochondral ossification.
D) a hypertrophy of osteocytes.

53. Woven bone is formed during which of the following situations?

A) puberty
B) fetal development and after fractures
C) the first few months following birth
D) periods of bone decalcification in old age

54. Lamellar bone is bone that

A) arises out of cartilage.
B) arises out of collagen and elastic fibers.
C) replaces worn out and fractured bone.
D) is mature and is organized into thin sheets or layers.

55. In regard to bone cell development, which of the following sequences is correct?
A) osteoblasts → osteoclasts → osteocyte
B) osteogenic cells → osteoclasts → osteocytes
C) osteogenic → osteocyte → osteoclast
D) osteogenic → osteoblasts → osteocyte

56. When a fracture begins to heal, one type of bone cell moves into the fracture site and tears down the damaged bone
tissue. Which of the following tears down bone?
A) osteoclasts
B) osteoblasts
 C) osteons
D) matrix cells

57. If a 12 year old were to fracture their epiphyseal plate, the result of the damage could be that the bone
A) grows abnormally brittle.
B) may stop growing at the plate.
C) may grow much thicker at the site of the injury.
D) has greatly increased potential for a sarcoma.

58. Which of the following is the most accurate definition of "bone remodeling"?
A) bone that develops during fetal development and stays with us for life
B) removal of old bone by osteoclasts and making of new bone by osteoblasts
C) the construction of bone around blood vessels for a Haversian canal
D) the laying out of new bone in a fracture site

59. In the process of bone remodeling, old bone is removed by

A) osteocytes.
B) osteoblasts.
C) osteoclasts.
D) remodeling osteoprogenitor cells.

60. Following a bone fracture a callus builds around the fracture site. A callus is a
A) mass of new bone.
B) mass of marrow.
C) mass of old broken bone pieces.
D) collection of blood vessels and collagen at the fracture site.

61. Which of the following fractures refers to a fracture of a bone in multiple pieces?
A) complete
B) incomplete
C) impacted
D) comminuted

62. Which of the following fractures is often referred to as being a "greenstick" fracture?
A) complete
B) incomplete
C) impacted
D) comminuted

63. Which of the following fractures goes all the way through a bone, but does not break it into multiple pieces?
A) complete
B) incomplete
C) impacted
D) comminuted

64. A spiral fracture of a bone most often is the result of a bone

A) weakened by disease.
B) that has been crushed.
C) that has been twisted.
D) that has been compressed.

65. An injury that occurs to vertebrae when they are flattened is known as a
A) spiral fracture.
B) pathologic fracture.
C) compression fracture.
D) linear fracture.

66. The term "calcium homeostasis" refers to which of the following?

A) balance of calcium between the bone and the cartilage
B) creation of calcium by bones
C) balance of calcium between the blood and the bones
D) movement of calcium to and from cartilage and bone

67. Which of the following glands plays a major role in calcium homeostasis?
A) adrenal
B) parathyroid
C) ovaries and testes
D) thymus
68. If blood calcium levels decrease, which of the following hormones is released to take calcium out of bones and put it
into the blood?
A) calcitonin
B) calcium hydroxyl hormone
C) parathyroid hormone
D) human growth hormone

69. If blood calcium levels increase, which of the following hormones is released to take calcium from the blood and
place in into the bones?
A) calcitonin
B) pituitary hormone
C) parathyroid hormone
D) human growth hormone

70. Osteoporosis most often occurs in

A) older men.
B) older women.
C) teenage women.
D) teenage males and females.

71. Most of the calcium taken in with the diet that is not absorbed is
A) stored in the liver.
B) excreted by the kidneys in the urine.
C) excreted in the feces.
D) recycled in the body.

72. Insufficient vitamin D in a diet may result in a condition known as

A) rickets.
B) tuberulosis.
C) scurvy.
D) Paget's disease.

73. Insufficient vitamin C in a diet may result in a condition known as

A) rickets
B) osteoporosis
C) scurvy
D) Paget's disease

74. A lack of vitamin D in the diet that may occur in adults with a digestive disorder is known as
A) sarcoma.
B) osteomalacia.
C) osteitis.
D) osteoprogenitor disorder.

75. Which of the following diseases of bones is a loss of bone mass and density?
A) osteoporosis
B) osteitis deformans (Paget's)
C) osteomyelitis
D) osteosarcoma

76. Which of the following diseases is a bacterial infection of bone?

A) osteoporosis
B) osteitis deformans (Paget's)
C) osteomyelitis
D) osteosarcoma

77. The most common bone disease is osteoporosis. The most common consequence of this disease is
A) fractures.
B) bone thickening.
C) luxations and subluxations.
D) fusion of bones.

78. Which of the following is a genetic disorder in which very brittle bones are produced that result in many fractures?
A) pituitary dwarfism
B) achondroplastic dwarfism
C) acromegaly
D) osteogenesis imperfecta
79. Which of the following disorders is the result of low amounts of growth hormone production that results in a very
small person?
A) rickets
B) dwarfism
C) acromegaly
D) osteogenesis imperfecta

80. Which of the following combinations of treatments would be the most appropriate for treatment of osteoporosis?
A) running, hiking, and drinking 3 liters of water per day
B) walking, adding calcium to the diet and, perhaps, taking estrogen-replacement therapy
C) walking, taking phosphorus tablets, and drinking 3 liters or more of water a day
D) running, taking mineral tablets each day, drinking more water, and taking testosterone therapy.

81. Osteoclast production is inhibited by _________, secreted by osteoblasts.

A) osteoprotegerin
B) vitamin D
C) calcium
D) PTH

82. Compared to younger bones, older bones are more _______ due to a decrease in ________.
A) flexible; hydroxyapatite
B) brittle; hydroxyapatite
C) brittle; collagen
D) flexible; collagen

PART II.
1. Regarding skeletal system function,
A) bone often serves as a model for cartilage growth.
B) tendons connect bone to bone.
C) blood cells are produced in the marrow of many bones.
D) cartilage serves as an important mineral storage area.
E) all of these

2. Which of these connective tissue types has proteoglycans in its matrix?

A) bone
B) cartilage
C) ligaments
D) tendons
E) both C and D

3. Cells that produce new cartilage matrix are called

A) chondroblasts.
B) chondrocytes.
C) chondroclasts.
D) osteoblasts.
E) fibroblasts.

4. The perichondrium
A) surrounds each lacuna in the matrix.
B) contains mainly loose connective tissue.
C) contains blood vessels and nerves.
D) is important for the storage of fat.
E) covers the surface of articular cartilage.

5. Cartilage
A) often occurs in thin plates or sheets.
B) receives nutrients and oxygen by diffusion.
C) is easily replaced if damaged.
D) has a good blood supply.
E) both A and B

6. Which of these correctly describes appositional growth of cartilage?

A) Chondrocytes in the center of the cartilage lay down new matrix.
B) Fibroblasts produce new chondroblasts.
C) Chondroblasts in the perichondrium lay down new matrix.
D) New osteons are formed from osteoblasts.
E) Canaliculi connect between chondrocytes to allow transport of nutrients.
7. Which of these bone types is NOT matched with the correct example?
A) long bone-humerus
B) short bone-clavicle
C) flat bone-scapula
D) irregular bone-vertebrae

8. In a long bone, the epiphyseal plate is

A) located in the center of the diaphysis.
B) the outer membrane layer on the diaphysis.
C) the location where growth occurs.
D) produced when the epiphyseal line changes to bone.
E) the location for fat storage.

9. Which portion of a long bone stores yellow marrow in adults?

A) the epiphysis
B) the medullary cavity
C) periosteum
D) compact bone
E) the epiphyseal plate

10. Which of these locations does NOT contain red marrow in an adult?
A) ribs
B) skull
C) proximal femur
D) sternum
E) vertebrae

11. The outer layer of bone, composed of dense, irregular, collagenous connective tissue that contains blood vessels and
nerves is called
A) endosteum.
B) concentric lamellae.
C) periosteum.
D) the epiphyseal plate.
E) the diaphysis.

12. Which of these statements is NOT true regarding bone?

A) Osteoblasts produce bone matrix.
B) Osteocytes are osteoblasts that have become surrounded by matrix.
C) Osteoclasts break down bone.
D) Osteocytes are connected to each other by Volkmann canals.
E) Osteocytes are found in lacunae.

13. Bundles of collagen fibers that penetrate the periosteum into the outer part of the bone are called
A) endosteums.
B) diaphyses.
C) epiphyses.
D) perforating fibers.
E) trabeculae.

14. Which of these substances is present in the largest quantity in a mature bone?
A) collagen
B) hydroxyapatite
C) proteoglycan aggregates
D) lacunae cartilage

15. Hydrogen ions are pumped across the ruffled border, producing an acid environment. This describes the activity of
A) osteoblasts.
B) osteocytes.
C) osteoclasts.

16. __________ are stem cells that have the ability to become osteoblasts or chondroblasts.
A) Osteocytes
B) Osteoclasts
C) Osteochondral progenitor cells
D) Osteons
E) Chondrocytes

17. Given these cells: 1. osteoblasts 2. osteocytes 3. Osteochondral progenitor cells Which of these sequences
represents the order in which they are produced?
 A) 1,2,3
B) 1,3,2
C) 2,1,3
D) 2,3,1
E) 3,1,2

18. Fetal bone tissue that has collagen fibers randomly oriented in many directions is
A) lamellar bone.
B) long bone.
C) short bone.
D) woven bone.

19. Which of these structures is found in compact bone, but not in spongy bone?
A) osteoclasts
B) canaliculi
C) lamellae
D) central (Haversian) canals
E) osteocytes

20. Spongy bone

A) has no osteocytes.
B) is located in the diaphyses of long bones.
C) is composed of delicate interconnecting rods or plates called trabeculae.
D) does not contain marrow.
E) forms the outer surface of most bones other than long bones.

21. Which of these structures is found within an osteon?

A) concentric lamella
B) interstitial lamella
C) circumferential lamella
D) periosteum
E) all of these

22. Given these passageways:

canaliculi
central (Haversian) canal
blood vessels in periosteum
perforating (Volkmann) canal
Which of these represents the correct order as nutrients pass from outside the bone to the osteocytes?
A) 1,2,3,4
B) 2,4,1,3
C) 3,4,2,1
D) 3,1,4,2
E) 4,3,2,1

23. Which of these bones is produced at least partly by intramembranous ossification?

A) clavicle
B) frontal
C) mandible
D) parietal
E) all of these

24. Intramembranous ossification is usually complete by __________ years of age, whereas endochondral ossification is
usually complete by __________ years of age.
A) 2, 25
B) 5, 10
C) 10,2
D) 10, 25
E) 25, 5

25. Membrane-covered spaces between developing skull bones are called

A) centers of ossification.
B) central canals.
C) fontanels.
D) perforating canals.
E) endochondral openings.

26. Endochondral ossification

A) occurs primarily in the bones of the skull.
 B) involves calcification of the cartilage matrix.
C) produces bone in connective tissue membranes.
D) occurs when chondrocytes replace osteoblasts in the matrix.

27. Secondary ossification centers

A) are located in the diaphysis of the bone.
B) are located in the epiphysis of the bone.
C) are located in the fontanels.
D) appear during early fetal development.
E) are locations for intramembranous ossification.

28. In endochondral ossification, the perichondrium that surrounded the hyaline cartilage becomes
A) circumferential lamellae.
B) osteons.
C) lacunae.
D) perforating canals.
E) periosteum.

29. Given these zones within the epiphyseal plate:

zone of calcification
zone of hypertrophy
zone of proliferation
zone of resting cartilage
Arrange them in the correct order, from the epiphysis to the diaphysis.
A) 1,2,3,4
B) 1,3,4,2
C) 2,4,1,3
D) 3,2,1,4
E) 4,3,2,1

30. Growth in the length of a long bone stops when

A) the articular cartilage becomes completely ossified.
B) the epiphyseal plate becomes completely ossified.
C) appositional growth at the periosteum stops.
D) intramembranous ossification is complete.

31. Which type of bone growth is responsible for an increase in the diameter of bones?
A) appositional growth
B) interstitial growth
C) endochondral growth
D) trabecular growth
E) intramembranous growth

32. Which of these statements concerning bone growth are correct?

A) Increased amounts of testosterone and estrogen cause a rapid increase in bone growth.
B) Testosterone and estrogen prevent ossification of the epiphyseal plate.
C) Too little growth hormone can cause a condition called gigantism.
D) Too much growth hormone can cause dwarfism.
E) Achondroplastic dwarfism is caused by too much thyroid hormone.

33. Osteomalacia can occur as a result of a

A) vitamin C deficiency.
B) vitamin D deficiency.
C) lack of thyroid hormone.
D) lack of growth hormone.
E) lack of sex hormones.

34. A deficiency of vitamin C in the diet can result in

A) decreased collagen synthesis.
B) scurvy.
C) poor wound healing.
D) growth retardation in children.
E) all of these

35. Arrange the following events in the correct order of occurrence after a bone is broken.
osteoblasts produce ossification
hematoma formation
internal fibrocartilage callus and external bone-cartilage callus formation
woven bone is remodeled to form compact bone
 A) 1,2,3,4
B) 2,3,4,1
C) 2,3,1,4
D) 2,4,1,3
E) 2,4,3,1

36. PTH is secreted from the __________, whereas calcitonin is secreted from the __________.
A) thyroid gland, pancreas
B) thyroid gland, parathyroid gland
C) pancreas, pituitary
D) parathyroid gland, thyroid gland
E) adrenal gland, thyroid gland

37. Parathyroid hormone causes

A) increased chondroblast activity.
B) increased bone breakdown.
C) decreased blood calcium levels.
D) increased calcium lost in the urine.
E) all of these

38. Which of these disorders is caused by a bacterium?

A) acromegaly
B) osteogenesis imperfecta
C) osteomalacia
D) osteomyelitis
E) osteoporosis