Geol 101: Physical Geology Spring 2002

EXAM 2

Write your name out in full on the scantron form and fill in the corresponding ovals to spell out
your name. Also fill in your student ID number in the space provided. Do not include the dash
and do not leave any spaces.

There are 55 questions (9 pages). For each question, select the correct answer and fill
in your choice on the scantron form.

1. The movement of material by moving wind, water, or ice is a process called (1)________
whereas the process that breaks down solid rock into loose sediment is called (2)________.
A. (1) mechanical weathering; (2) chemical weathering
B. (1) chemical weathering; (2) mechanical weathering
C. (1) erosion; (2) weathering
D. (1) weathering; (2) erosion
E. (1) mass wasting; (2) regolith

2. Frost wedging is:

A. when rocks cool and contract at night causing bits to break off
B. a form of chemical weathering whereby rock minerals dissolve in cold water
C. when moving glacier ice breaks rocks into smaller pieces of regolith
D. when water in cracks in rock freezes and expands, breaking the rock apart
E. when water in soil turns to frost, causing the soil to become frozen

3. Rocks under high pressures deep inside the crust are sometimes uplifted to the surface. This
process is called (1)_______. The drop in pressure may result in (2)________.
A. (1) uplift; (2) volcanic eruptions
B. (1) exposure; (2) metamorphism of the rocks
C. (1) exhumation; (2) expansion of the rocks, forming sheet joints
D. (1) intrusion; (2) partial melting
E. (1) exfoliation; (2) your ears popping

4. Hydrolysis reactions are when H+ cations in water replace mineral cations like K+, Na+ and
Mg2+ in the mineral crystal lattice, forming a new mineral. This is how feldspars commonly break
down to form:
A. soil
B. quartz
C. olivine
D. clay
E. mineral dust

5. Soils in warm, dry climates like the SW United States often contain soluble minerals like
calcite and gypsum. These types of soils, called (1)___________, may be subject to the effects
of evaporation and drying, resulting in precipitation of the soluble minerals forming a hard, light-
colored layer called (2)_________.
A. (1) pedocals; (2) caliche
B. (1) laterites; (2) caliche
C. (1) pedalfers; (2) loess
D. (1) pedocals; (2) humus
E. (1) laterites; (2) topsoil

1
6. Which of the following parameters does not have a major impact on the process of mass
wasting?
A. gravity
B. elevation
C. amount of vegetation cover
D. slope steepness
E. amount of air or water in the regolith

7. The cohesiveness of sediment is defined as:

A. the steepest angle of slope that the sediment is able to maintain
B. the resistance to downslope motion of sediment
C. the degree to which the sediment has been lithified into rock by diagenesis
D. how well the sediment particles are packed or stuck together
E. how much water is present within the sediment

8. The angle of repose of most sediment is approximately:

A. 0°
B. 60° - 90°
C. 45° - 60°
D. 25° - 40°
E. there is no limit to the angle of repose

9. The two categories of mass wasting are “Slides and Falls”, and “Sediment Flows”. An example
from the “Slides and Falls” category is a (1) __________ and an example of a “Sediment
Flow” is a (2) ___________.
A. (1) debris flow; (2) rockslide
B. (1) solifluction; (2) debris fall
C. (1) debris avalanche; (2) earthflow
D. (1) slump; (2) creep
E. (1) mudflow; (2) rock fall

10. When sediment flows are water-saturated, they are called (1) __________, but when they
are air-saturated, they are called (2) __________.
A. (1) granular flows; (2) slurry flows
B. (1) mudflows; (2) debris flows
C. (1) slurry flows; (2) avalanches
D. (1) earthflows; (2) landslides
E. (1) slurry flows; (2) granular flows

11. Which of the following statements about sedimentary rocks is true?

A. sedimentary rocks only make up about 5% of the crust
B. sedimentary rocks are the type of rock we see most often at the Earth’s surface
C. diagenesis during burial turns loose sediment into sedimentary rock
D. the process of turning loose sediment into rock is also called lithification
E. all of the above

12. Which of the following features associated with sedimentary rocks does not belong with the
others?
A. bedding plane
B. nonconformity
C. angular unconformity
D. disconformity
E. long time gap in the sedimentary record

2
13. Which type of sediment consists of broken down particles of rocks produced by weathering
and erosion?
A. biogenic
B. detrital
C. chemical
D. biochemical
E. clastochemical

14. Sand produces sandstone and silt produces siltstone. What does clay produce?
A. claystone
B. conglomerate
C. arkose
D. graywacke
E. shale

15. Into what category of sedimentary rocks does the type of rock fall that forms by the
evaporation of water and consequent precipitation of minerals like halite?
A. gypsum
B. detrital
C. clastic
D. chemical
E. biochemical

16. The remains of sea organisms with silica-rich shells accumulate on ocean bottoms as
biogenic sediment that eventually forms a type of rock called:
A. coquina
B. limestone
C. chert
D. phosphorites
E. peat

17. Which of the following is NOT a type of sedimentary structure?

A. rock color
B. cross-bedding
C. ripple marks
D. mudcracks
E. graded bedding

18. Which of the following options are NOT related to the characteristics or development of graded
bedding?
A. turbidity currents
B. ripple marks
C. gravity
D. gradual change in sediment size throughout the bed
E. coarsest sediment at the bottom of the bed

19. Which of the following is NOT a type of trace fossil?

A. shells
B. burrows
C. animal footprints
D. trails
E. none of the above

3
20. Which of the following changes in a depositional environment will NOT cause a change in the
appearance of the resultant sediment that gets deposited?
A. change from an oxidizing to a reducing environment
B. rise or fall in sea level
C. advance or retreat of glacial ice
D. rivers changing their course through time
E. all of the above will cause changes in the sediment appearance

21. Which of the following statements about metamorphism is false?

A. metamorphic rocks form from existing sedimentary, igneous, or metamorphic rocks
B. metamorphism involves melting of existing rocks to form new minerals
C. during metamorphism, existing minerals are transformed into new minerals
D. metamorphism is controlled by pressure, temperature, fluids, and time
E. metamorphic means “change of form”

22. Metamorphism of rocks in the crust begins below the zone of sedimentary diagenesis, which
extends down to the depth where rock temperatures reach:
A. 150°C
B. 300°C
C. 500°C
D. 1000°C
E. 1500°C

23. At depths in the crust shallower than about 15 km (~9 mi), rocks undergo (1)________
metamorphism. An example of a metamorphic rock formed at this grade is (2)__________.
A. (1) high-grade; (2) slate
B. (1) high-grade; (2) schist
C. (1) low-grade; (2) gneiss
D. (1) low-grade; (2) slate
E. (1) low-grade; (2) migmatite

24. Which of the following statements is true?

A. differential stress is equal in magnitude in all directions
B. a foliation only develops in rocks when stresses are equal in all directions
C. the weight of overlying rocks in the crust produces a lithostatic pressure
D. the weight of overlying rocks in the crust produces a differential stress
E. as lithostatic pressure increases, rocks change both in volume and shape

25. Which of the following types of metamorphic rocks is NOT foliated?

A. hornfels
B. gneiss
C. slate
D. phyllite
E. schist

26. An aureole is associated with the following type of metamorphism:

A. regional metamorphism
B. contact metamorphism
C. dynamic metamorphism
D. burial metamorphism
E. aureoles are not metamorphic features

4
27. Which of the following statements about the size of the zone of metamorphism associated with
contact metamorphism is false?
A. the zone can extend 100s of meters away from a batholith intrusion
B. the size is related to the temperature of the magma
C. the size is related to the amount of fluids causing hydrothermal alteration
D. the size is related to how much mechanical deformation is occurring
E. the type of rocks being metamorphosed greatly affects the size of the zone

28. In a region of metamorphosed rocks, the metamorphic minerals are different in different places
because the metamorphic grade changes. The types of minerals that are associated with a
particular metamorphic grade are called:
A. isograds
B. hornfels
C. diagenetic minerals
D. mineral facies
E. index minerals

29. Geologic processes like deposition are extremely slow. About how long did it take to deposit
all the sedimentary rocks that are found along the sides of the Grand Canyon?
A. 3000 years
B. 3 million years
C. 300 million years
D. 3 billion years
E. it’s impossible to say

30. In stratigraphy, the principle of stratigraphic superposition states that:

A. all sedimentary layers start off being horizontal
B. the relative ages of all sedimentary layers can be determined using fossils
C. any sedimentary layer is older than the layer above it and younger than
the layer below it
D. any sedimentary layer is younger than the layer above it and older than the layer
below it
E. a sedimentary layer must be older than any feature that cuts through it or
disrupts it

31. If we see a layer of sedimentary rock that has a fault cutting through it as well as a dike that
cuts through both the bed and the fault, we can use the principle of cross-cutting
relationships to infer:
A. the bed formed first, then the fault, then the dike
B. the bed formed first, then the dike, then the fault
C. the fault formed first, then the bed, then the dike
D. the fault formed first, then the dike, then the bed
E. no age sequence can be inferred from this information

32. When initially flat-lying beds get tilted and eroded, then new flat-lying beds get deposited on top,
the type of unconformity that results is called a/an:
A. disconformity
B. nonconformity
C. cross-bed
D. angular unconformity
E. intrusive contact

5
33. Fossils occur in a particular order through geologic time, producing a/an (1)______, so we can
use fossils to (2)______ rocks having the same ages but occurring in different areas. This
technique is a subdiscipline of geology called (3)_________.
A. (1) faunal assemblage; (2) compare; (3) stratigraphy
B. (1) faunal succession; (2) correlate; (3) biostratigraphy
C. (1) fossil assemblage; (2) date; (3) paleontology
D. (1) geologic column; (2) date; (3) sedimentology
E. (1) absolute age indicator; (2) correlate; (3) stratigraphy

34. The only eon that has been subdivided into eras and periods in the geologic column based on
the types of fossils present in the rocks is the __________ Eon.
A. Phanerozoic
B. Archean
C. Hadean
D. Paleozoic
E. Precambrian

35. The epoch that we currently live in is called the (1)______ which began (2)_____ years ago:
A. (1) Quaternary (2) 10,000
B. (1) Precambrian (2) 10 million
C. (1) Holocene (2) 1 million
D. (1) Holocene (2) 10,000
E. (1) Cenozoic (2) 1 million

36. Which of the following statements about radioactivity is false?

A. radioactivity involves the release of subatomic particles from an atom’s nucleus
B. the radioactive decay process is not affected by the nature of its environment
C. alpha decay and beta decay are two possible types of radioactive decay
D. all isotopes of an element have the potential to undergo radioactive decay
E. radioactive decay produces gamma rays and heat during the decay process

37. An isotope that undergoes decay starts off as a (1) _______ and becomes a (2) ________:
A. (1) alpha particle (2) beta particle
B. (1) daughter (2) son
C. (1) daughter (2) parent
D. (1) parent (2) daughter
E. (1) parent (2) second cousin once removed

38. Radioactive decay rates can be used to determine the absolute age of a rock because we can
measure the amount of decayed isotopes in the rock to see how much time has passed since
the decay process first began. BUT…
A. we cannot figure out the age of the earth because radioactivity didn’t always occur
B. it’s impossible to estimate the rates of decay of most isotopes
C. we can’t figure out the age of deposition of sedimentary rocks
D. we always have to be careful about the decay rate changing over time
E. igneous rocks can’t be dated because isotopes decay faster in magma than
inside a crystal

39. If a magnetic reversal occurred on Earth today, it would result in new rocks exhibiting:
A. remanent magnetism
B. reverse polarity
C. normal polarity
D. paleomagnetism
E. no magnetic signature

6
40. All water on earth moves from one storage or transportation system to another, forming a
hydrologic cycle. These storage or transportation systems are called (1)________ and the
amount of time that a water molecule spends in any one of them is (2)________.
A. (1) hydrospheres; (2) dependent on whether the water is liquid, solid or gas
B. (1) hydrospheres; (2) completely random
C. (1) aquifers; (2) impossible to determine
D. (1) reservoirs; (2) approximately a few weeks
E. (1) reservoirs; (2) called the residence time

41. Which of the following processes describes water seeping into the ground?
A. infiltration
B. evaporation
C. condensation
D. transpiration
E. precipitation

42. The amount of water that flows down a river channel over some length of time is called the:
A. discharge
B. stream load
C. channel gradient
D. flow velocity
E. channel capacity

43. The three types of stream load are:

A. bed load, saltation load, and suspended load
B. bed load, suspended load, and dissolved load
C. bed load, suspended load, and precipitated load
D. cobbles, sand, and silt
E. sand, silt, and clay

44. If you are standing in an arid or semi-arid region looking at the features around you
produced by running water, which of the following features are you likely to see?
A. braided streams
B. bars
C. bajadas
D. alluvial fans
E. any of the above

45. Point bars grow in size through (1)_______ whereas floodplains build up by (2)________.
A. (1) cut bank development; (2) floods
B. (1) meandering; (2) lateral accretion
C. (1) lateral accretion; (2) vertical accretion
D. (1) erosion on the inside of a meander; (2) natural levee growth
E. (1) vertical accretion; (2) alluvium deposition

46. The type of delta that forms the classic delta shape (∆) is a:
A. bird’s foot delta
B. tide-dominated delta
C. stream-dominated delta
D. wave-dominated delta
E. tri-delta

7
47. Rivers that flow into larger rivers are called (1)______ whereas rivers that flow across the
surface of a delta are called (2)________.
A. (1) distributaries; (2) tributaries
B. (1) distributaries; (2) natural levees
C. (1) tributaries; (2) distributaries
D. (1) tributaries; (2) stream-dominated
E. (1) drainage divides; (2) distributaries

48. A continental divide is:

A. a mountain chain separating rivers that flow into different oceans
B. a mountain chain separating drainage basins emptying into the same ocean
C. a high standing area inside a drainage basin
D. a boundary between two different patterns of drainage basins
E. a large river valley across a continent, like the Mississippi

49. Which of the following features is not a type of base level along a river:
A. sea level
B. lakes
C. dams
D. waterfalls
E. all of the above are types of base levels

50. A drop in ultimate base level can cause _______ to develop within a floodplain.
A. downcutting
B. incised meanders
C. stream terraces
D. any of the above
E. none of the above

BONUS QUESTIONS

51. A brief period of non-deposition in a depositional environment produces a:

A. nonconformity
B. bedding plane
C. stratification
D. facies
E. trace fossil

52. Metamorphism produced predominantly by the hydrothermal alteration of minerals is called:

A. recrystallization
B. mylonitization
C. hydrothermatism
D. metasomatism
E. metaphoricalism

53. If camels only sit down carefully, perhaps their joints creak. So which of the following is true?
A. the Cambrian comes after the Cretaceous
B. the Silurian comes after the Permian
C. the Carboniferous comes after the Triassic
D. the Ordovician comes before the Silurian
E. the Devonian comes before the Cambrian

8
54. Rivers try to maintain a smooth, concave, longitudinal profile, which we call a/an:
A. local base level
B. ultimate base level
C. evolved stream
D. graded stream
E. half-pipe

55. For those of you who made the effort to attend class on the day I told you this…what is the
answer to question 55?
A. is it A?
B. is it B?
C. is it C?
D. is it D?
E. is it E?