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V NNPC
COMDP 075
_______________________________COMDP No.________________
1
Note: Please read the instructions very well and provide the correct
answers to the questions.
This quiz is in Two Parts: (A) Multiple choice questions, (B) Calculation.
You are to answer all questions in the quiz paper.
Part A:
a. Future Value
b. Net Future Value
c. Present Value
d. Net Present Value
i. To ensure profitability
ii. To select between alternatives
iii. To reject proposal
iv. None of the above.
a. i, iii
b. i, ii, iii
c. iv
d. i, ii.
a. Joint Venture
b. Share Holding
c. Working Interest
d. Investment
2
a. Depreciation
b. Amortisation
c. Salvage Value
d. Depletion
Value of production X
.................
a. Profit
b. Economic Rent
c. Gain
d. Loss
Q7. Name two major types of business arrangements in Nigeria oil and
Gas industry.
a. ----------------------------
b. -----------------------------
Q8. One of the options below is not a funding source in the Oil and &
Gas Industry.
a. JV Cash Call
b. Production Sharing
c. Modified Carry
3
d. Credit and Thrift
a. True
b. False
Q10. The sum of money that represents the loss of value of tangible
asset over time because of use or obsolescence is called:
..........................................................................................................
Part B.
Calculate the following Key Yardstick for investment decision in ABC Ltd.
4
i. Net Cash Flow ii. Total Investment iii. Net present
Value @10% Discount Rate.
5
CHIEF OFFICERS MANAGEMENT DEVELOPMENT PROGRAMME
CLASS 073
Candidate No..........................................
8
SUPPLY CHAIN
9
are to be submitted in a sealed envelop and must be received
within 4 weeks from the date of this advert”. Yes or No? YES
5. What is JQS (3 Marks), who is the driver in NNPC? (2
marks)
Joint Qualification System. Suppliers are Pre-qualified
6. Which of the following is not a completed SAP Modules?
a. Material Management (MM) Module
b. Sales & Distribution (SD)
c. Plant Intelligence (PI) CORRECT
d. Financial Accounting (FI)
7. SCM/SAP has sole responsibility to ‘Create’ and ‘Release’
Purchase Request under SAP platform. True or False.
8. Only EDs, GMs, MDs, GGMs and GEDs are authorised to
use the MM module of SAP. True or False? FALSE
9. A simple way (layman’s way) to understand what is meant by
the term ‘Strategic Sourcing’ is to say: ‘Spend your money wisely.’
True or False? TRUE
10. What is the current Financial limit of Authority of MEXCOM
Tenders Board (in Nigeria)? #270Million
11. With the implementation of SAP, all materials in our
warehouses are now properly codified. True or False? true
12. A Pro-forma invoice was received from a Compressor
Manufacturer in Japan that said: “FOB Value = Yen 1m.” What is
“FOB”? Free on board
13. Each Directorate in NNPC has a DEXCOM Tenders Board.
True or False TRUE
14. Which is the highest contract awarding authority in NNPC?
15. How much is lost by an importer if he pays Duty on an item
whose Ex-works, FOB and C&F values are $0.9m, $1.0m and
$1.1m respectively based on a wrongly assigned H.S Code
carrying 20% duty instead of the correct H.S Code of 5%? Assume
the following:
a. Exchange Rate of $1 = 165
10
b. Disregard fees for Surcharge, comprehensive inspection
supervision scheme, ECOWAS Trade Liberalization Scheme
and VATA in your calculation.
16. All foreign pro-Forma invoices to Nigeria must be on C&F
basis to Lagos. True or False? FALSE
17. Letter of Credit is not the only instrument for making foreign
payments. True or False? TRUE
18. A Purchase Order can alternatively be called A Purchase
Requisition. True or False? FALSE
19. All valid contracts have to be in written form – True or False?
TRUE
20. The PP Act 2007 is only concerned with procurement and
has nothing to do with disposal of public property. True or False.
FALSE
ASSESSMENT QUIZ
d. Dependability
11
Answer True or False
NNPC
COMDP 074
________________________________COMDP No._______________
Note: Please read the instructions very well and provide the correct
answers to the questions.
This quiz is in Two Parts: (A) Multiple choice questions, (B) Calculation.
You are to answer all questions in the quiz paper.
Part A:
13
Q1. One of the following is not a role perform by a petroleum
economist:
a. True
b. False
a. Calculation tool
b. Decision-making tool
c. Engineering tool
d. Political tool
a. working capital
b. operating expenditure
c. capital expenditure
d. current asset.
14
Upstream quiz
1. What was the average oil price between 1900 and 2009 (in
2009 dollar)?
a. $0.80 c. $29
b. $8 d. $52
2. How much does it cost to find a barrel of oil (industry
average)?
a. $1.50 c. $8.00
b. $5.00 d. $15.00
3. How much of the world’s oil production and reserves does
OPEC control respectively?
a. 90% and 95% c. 40% and 75%
b. 70% and 90% d. 10% and 15%
4. Which country is NOT an OPEC member?
a. Saudi Arabia d. Oman
b. Iraq e. Ecuador
c. Venezuela f. Nigeria
5. Which country holds the most total oil and gas reserves in
the world?
a. Saudi Arabia d. USA
b. Iraq e. Russia
c. Kuwait f. Australia
15
6. How much reserves (reserves divided by annual production)
does an average E&P company hold?
a. 30 – 40 years c. 1 – 5 year
b. 10 – 15 years d. Less than a year
d. 110,000bpsd
d. kerosene e. Sulfur
17
TEST OF UNDERSTANDING
d. NOPENG
d. PENGASSAN
d. None
10. There are ____ nos. of appraisal dimensions in the new PMS.
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. 5.
12. In the rating scale for business objectives in the new PMS, PM
means:
19
14. ______ is the number of PENGASSAN Branches in NNPC.
a. 10 b. 6 c. 11 d. 14 e. 12
a. 3 b. 6 c. 4 d. 5
20
23. A new Salary package can only be implemented after approval by:
a. To be customer focused.
b. Deliver good services to customer
c. To meet corporate goals.
d. To be a customer focused HR partner delivering best
practice services to achieve corporate goals.
21
29. Warning letter when issued to a staff has effect on the following:
22
QUESTIONS
a. 0.05%
b. 0.5%
c. 5.0%
d. 0.005%
23
6. The biggest problem of PPMC today is:
a. Vandalization
b. Not profit oriented
c. Poor funding
d. Non privatization
e. All of the above.
7. State four problems associated with supply and distribution
of products.
8. In your own opinion how can we solve pipeline
vandalisation?
Pricing of petroleum product is based on:
a. Commercialization
b. Supply and Demand
c. Unlimited profit
d. Controlled loss
e. Negotiation.
9. Why is it necessary to Deregulate the Downstream sector of
the Petroleum Industry in Nigeria?
Name:--------------------------------------- Id No:------------------
24
1. The procedure could be defined as: (I) an established or correct
method of doing something, or (II) any means of doing or
accomplishing something.
a. True b. False
2. Policy is a program of actions adopted by a person, group, or
government, or the set of principles on which they are based.
a. True b. False
3. The Corporate Financial Policy, Procedure & Control Guide:
a. Describes Financial Policies.
b. Explains main Accounting Principles adopted by the
Corporation.
c. Describes Accounting Procedures operated.
d. A&B
e. All of the above.
4. Financially Policy sets the Financial Limit of Authority of:
a. Group Board at N---------------------; and, b. The GMD at
N----------
5. Categories of authorized signatories to NNPC’s cheques are A, B
and C. To be valid, payment instructions require a mandatory
signatory in Category C.
True False
6. Using the Corporation’s depreciation rate of 25% per annum the
estimated useful life of a motor vehicle is -------------------- years.
7. Loans and Advances Unit will normally ensure that staff who do not
retire their touring advances after ------------- do not have further
advance extended to them.
26
17. Profitability ratios measure the firm’s use of its assets and
control of its expenses to generate an acceptable rate of return.
True False
18. Which Department of GFAD is responsible for the designing
of accounting systems, reviewing, documentation and implementation
of financial/accounting procedures and policies?
a. Methods and Procedures
b. Headquarters Accounts
c. Group Finance
d. Group General Accounts
e. Group Budget and Projects.
19. If an L/C is for the purchase of materials, it must be
accompanied by form (A). True False
20. The Department responsible for the preparation of NNPC
consolidated financial statements is:
a. Group Budget and Projects
b. Methods and Procedures
c. Headquarters Accounts
d. Group Finance
e. Group General Accounts.
21. Financial policy sets the financial limit of Authority of:
a. The GGM/MD at N.............................; and, b. GM/EDs at
N.....................
22. Using the Corporation’s depreciation rate of 10% per annum,
the estimated useful life of computer equipment is ..................years.
23. Mention any three methods of financial statement analysis
............................. ................................ ...............................
24. In making payments to staff and third parties, one of the
following documents is raised:
a. Asset Schedule
b. Payment voucher
c. Receipt Booking Voucher
d. Desk manual.
25. The Department responsible for the management of the
finances of NNPC as a corporation is:
a. Group Treasury Dept.
b. Group General Accounts Dept.
c. Group Budget and Projects
27
d. Group Finance Dept.
26. Financial statement is a set of financial reports showing in a
summarized form, the performance and financial position of a
corporate entity over an accounting period usually one year.
True False.
27. NNPC Group consolidated financial statement for a particular
year is to be prepared, audited and submitted to the presidency not
later than ................................................... of the following year.
28. One of the essentials of budgetary control is to ensure the
availability of budget heads for any spending.
True False
29. One of the following is not part of accounting process:
a. Reporting
b. Classifying
c. Auditing
d. Recording
e. Interpreting.
30. Name three (3) major components of a typical financial
statement.
................................. .................................. ...................................
31. NNPC accounting policy is that “all necessary documents to
support financial records must be retained for a minimum of six (6)
years”.
True False
32. The Accounting software package in use in NNPC is called
the SUN ACCOUNTs SYSTEM and it consists of two Suites, namely:
......................................... and ...................................................
33. The NNPC Group accounts is the consolidated financial
statement of Corporate Headquarters (“the corporation”) and
associate companies.
True False
Questions
TRUE or FALSE.
30
TRUE or FALSE
COURSE 036
Name:........................................................................................................
ID No.......................................................................................................
a. Unique
b. Finite
c. Repetitive
d. Revolutionary change
a. Stable resources
b. Risk and uncertainty
c. Efficiency
31
d. Eternal
a. Unlimited
b. Stable
c. Scarce
d. Appraisal
projects?
a. Variation
b. Cost
c. Time
d. Scope
a. Renewable
b. Planning
c. Settlement
d. Contractor
Qu. 9 What maximum size of Tankers is the New Atlas Cove Jetty
Designed for?
a. 50,000 DWT
b. 100,000 DWT
c. 125, 000 DWT
d. 250, 000 DWT
33
EFFECTIVE MANAGEMENT
34
6. There are 5 conflict resolution styles, they are: Compete,
Collaborate, Compromise, Avoid and:
a. Fight
b. Accommodate
c. Eliminate
7. In terms of win and lose, what is the correct way to define a
“complete” conflict resolution style:
a. win/lose
b. win/win
c. lose/lose
8. In terms of win and lose, what is the correct way to define a
“collaborative” conflict resolution style?
a. win/lose
b. win/win
c. lose/lose.
9. In terms of win and lose, what is the correct way to define a
“Compromise” conflict resolution style?
a. win/lose
b. win/win
c. lose/lose
10. The key point or lesson to be learned in the Powdered Milk
Case” was:
a. Always look for alternate means to use a product
b. Be enterprising and take advantage of whatever you
can get in life
c. Be aware of what is not always apparent and listen to
your instincts.
35
b. only 100 words per minute
c. 400 words per minute
13. True or False, making eye contact is always a good idea
when communicating with others.
a. True
b. False
14. When listening to a speaker, you have a question, it is best
to:
a. Interrupt the speaker immediately so you don’t forget
your question
b. Let the speaker finish his/her thought and then interrupt
with your question.
c. Write down your question and ask it when the speaker
is entirely through with his/her presentation
15. Feedback on a performance issue with a subordinate should
occur:
a. In writing within a week of the occurrence
b. Face to face if possible just as soon as is possible
c. In any manner just so long as it is done within 60 days.
16. If the world were reduced to a population of exactly 100
people with exactly the same ratios that exist globally today, how
many of those people would be Asian?
a. 37 b. 47 c. 57
17. How many of those 100 people would live in substandard
housing?
a. 30
b. 50
c. 80
18. What would your total household annual income have to be
to place you in the top 1% of the world’s most wealthiest?
a. $50,000
b. $500,000
c. $750,000
19. True or False, it is not a good idea to be friends with a
subordinate--------
a. True
b. False
36
20. True or False, according to John Maxwell, leadership ability
is always the lid on personal and organizational effectiveness.
a. True
b. False
21. Who is responsible for the following quote – “Leadership is
the art of accomplishing more than the science of management says
is possible?
a. Jack Welch
b. John Maxwell
c. Colin Powell
22. Ray mentioned that we all have “defining moments” in our
life, these moments occur when:
a. we are faced with a death of a loved one.
b. we are faced with a job change or relocation.
c. we are faced with an ethical dilemma.
37
TEST ON FUNDAMENTALS OF OIL EXPLORATION AND NNPC
EXPLORATION ACTIVITIES TO CLASS 038
39
TEST FOR LECTURE ON “UTILIZING & MONETIZING &
MONETIZING GAS THROUGH THE LNG & POWER”
41
Attempt all questions by circling the right answer
2. Which of these Countries is not among the first ten Countries with
largest natural gas proven reserve.
4. For years, gas flares characterised the natural gas sector, with
Nigeria being noted as the world’s worst in gas flaring.
42
d. Marketing & Transportation Company d. Nigerian Gas
Marketing & Producing Company.
a. 25 b. 22 c. 28 d. 20
9. What does CNG stand for in the use of natural gas for
automobiles?
43
12. Which of the following fields does Nigerian Gas Company buy gas
from?
14. NNPC equity in the West Africa Gas Pipeline (WAGP) Project is:
44
1. Which of these is not key gas processing equipment?
3. Which of the following fields does Nigerian Gas Company buy gas
from?
45
c. Dangote Cement Company d. Delta Steel Company
Limited.
10. One of these is not an NGC gas sales and supply issue.
True or False
a. Obigbo, Ikot Abasi and Alakiri pipeline are all eastern pipelines
46
b. The East-West pipeline system had already been inked for
flexibility of gas supply.
c. A and B are correct.
c. 1992
16. Which of the following statements is/are not correct about NGC?
a. NGC funds its operations from its gas sales and transmission
tariff revenues.
b. It uses its cash collection from these revenues to fund its
approved budgets.
c. Any surplus funds are remitted to Corporate
d. All of the above
e. None of the above.
20. Which of these Oil Fields does not supply gas to NGC?
a. Obigbo North
b. Oredo
c. Oben
d. Makaraba
47
QUESTIONS
(b) What is the full meaning of ARPA and when was found.
48
10. What are the core businesses of IDSL?
Engr. J. O. Anuku
Manager, Planning
QUESTION
7. (a) What is the full meaning of APPA and when was it formed?
8. (a) What is Petroleum and how can it co-exist? Give one example
of each state.
50
(b) How can we confirm the presence of hydrocarbon in a location?
QUIZ
1. What is a team?
2. State three ways teams can have effect on an organisation
3. Name four team member types
4. Mention any three reasons why teams fail and write a statement
for success.
5. Identify three roles a manager plays in ensuring team is effective
6. List and explain any three letters of the word PERFORM
7. List three types of teams
51
FUNDAMENTALS OF OIL & GAS EXPLORATION
QUESTIONS
52
3. Gas oil ratio is higher for associated gas than for non-associate
gas.
a. True
b. False
c. Don’t know
4. Nigeria has the largest natural gas reserve out of the first 10
countries with high gas reserve.
a. True
b. False
c. Don’t know
20mins
16/03/2006
53
a. 1985 b. 1975 c. 1995 d. 1996
a. 12 b. 10 c. 11 d. 14
considered?
d. AGO-PMS-DPK
10. The pipeline that carries crude oil from Escravos through Warri to
Kaduna is known as:
55
The New Depot Manager
Four weeks after assuming duty at the depot, you got a memo signed by
the Head, PPMC subsidiary informing you that management has made
you the Depot Manager (of Anyhow Depot) and this is to take effect in
the next 7 days. Consequently upon this, you are requested to report at
the head-office with an action plan of how you will transform a group of
poor-performing workers into a high performing team, so as to achieve
sales and distribution target of the depot.
Your Task
Please Note
56
NNPC CHIEF OFFICERS MANAGEMENT DEVELOPMENT
PROGRAMME
LEADERSHIP MODULE
TEST
57
4. You were recently promoted to the position of a Deputy
Manager and made the Head of your Department; name and
describe the coaching model and steps you will take to bridge the
performance gap being experienced by one of your subordinates.
5. Explain the ‘ Dimensions of Leadership’ model of NNPC.
Treat the case in the attached document.
58
GAS & POWER DIRECTORATE PRESENTATIONS ASSESSMENT
QUESTIONS
59
a. Multiplier effect of gas in domestic economy,
develop/legislate a new fiscal regime for gas projects and
establish PSC terms for gas.
b. Multiplier effect of gas in domestic economy: optimizing
gains from gas export and secure a long term for energy (Gas)
utilization.
c. Multiplier effect of gas in domestic economy; finalize the draft
downstream gas legislation and develop domestic gas
infrastructure.
5. Which of the following best defines LNG?
a. Liquefied natural gas (primarily methane, CH4) converted to
liquid at about – 1610C for ease of storage or transportation
b. Liquefied Natural gas that take up 1/600 th the volume of
natural gas.
c. Liquefied natural gas (primarily methane CH4) converted to
liquid at about – 1510C for ease of storage or transportation.
6. What is PIB?
a. Petroleum Industry Bill (PIB) is the document OGIC issued
as a drat to the National Assembly in September, 2009 for
implementation.
b. Petroleum Industry Bill (PIB) is the document OGIC issued
as a draft to the National Assembly in September, 2006 for
ratification to become a bill.
c. Petroleum Industry Bill (PIB) is the draft document OGIC
initiated for onward submission through the Federal
Government to the National Assembly in September, 2009 for
ratification to become a bill.
7. Which of the following is the aim of the PIB?
a. Aims to achieve an amalgamation of the various policies and
drafting efforts into one harmonious whole, to create a
transparent and well-governed fiscal, legal and regulatory
60
environment, towards repositioning Nigeria, and ensuring
natural resource are used for the benefit of the citizenry.
b. Aims to achieve an amalgamation of the various policies and
drafting efforts into one harmonious whole, to create
employment and marketing opportunities for al Nigerians.
c. Aims to achieve an amalgamation of the various policies and
drafting efforts into one harmonious whole, to better manage
our Oil and Gas resources and unbundle NNPC.
8. The following are types of LNG Process Technologies and their Patent
owners; TRUE or FALSE.
10. Align the following NNPC and Gas Value Chain activities into
15. Pick Five (5) units from the list below that constitute units of a typical
i. Control Tower ii. Inlet facilities iii. Air Duct iv. Steam
Boiler Recovery Unit. v. Acid Gas Removal vi. Dehydration
vii. Hg Removal viii. NGL Recovery ix. Fractionation
x. Liquefaction xi. End Flash.
16. NNPC is to have how many JV IPP Power Plants with its IDC
Partners?
62
FUNDAMENTALS OF OIL & GAS EXPLORATION
QUESTIONS
a. True
b. False
c. Don’t know
1. Name five (5) of the seven Basins where HC can be found in Nigeria.
5. Exploitation for oil & gas involves the following activities list in order of
occurrence.
PPMC COMPD
COURSE 061
Projects?
a. Scope
b. Payback Period
c. Variation
d. Cost
a. Repetitive
b. Efficiency
c. Risk and uncertainty
d. Cash flows and Stable Resources.
66
a. Internal Rate of Rating
b. Internal Rate of Return
c. Internal Range of Return
d. Interest Rate of Return
a. Repetitive
b. Revolutionary
c. Finite
d. Unique
67
b. Process by which a project is executed and completed with
outstanding issues.
c. Process by which a project is executed and completed with
cost overrun and extended completion period.
d. Process of buying a completed building and making selling to
make quick gains.
WHAT,
a. Undecided
b. None of the above
c. Yes
d. No
68
NNPC CHIEF OFFICERS MANAGEMENT DEVELOPMENT
PROGRAMME
Review Questions
69
9. State two important challenges that the Nigerian oil and gas
industry face
10. Name two important energy sources (in the energy mix) for
the future with explanation.
11. In a concise description, state how you can help transform
the oil and gas sector as a manager.
12. State two important challenges that the Nigerian oil and gas
industry face
13. State three prominent economic parameters that will
determine cost of fund in your day-to-day operation with very short
explanation.
14. Name two important energy sources (in the energy mix) for
the future with explanation.
15. Renewable energy sources are expensive, Nigeria has no
comparative and competitive advantage in them. Nigeria therefore
should not be involved. Do you agree? Explain.
70
CHANGE
OR
OR
ii. The people but not the leaders determine the course of
change.
71
b. Name 2 Characteristics of any 2 change?
72
4. In managing change what steps will you take in the following
situation?
a. Identifying what needs changing
i. Tell the people the need for change
ii. Make them understand the consequences of not
changing
iii. Tell them the effects and benefits of change
b. Introducing the Change
i. Co-create the vision
ii. Listen, Listen, Listen
iii. Encourage team work
c. Consolidating the change as standard practice
i. Document process of change
ii. Motivate people to be more committed to the change
iii. Develop new reward process in line with the change
iv. Monitor the performance of the change.
5. Give 3 reasons why people resist change:
a. Fear of loss of their job
b. Mistrust for those who lead
c. Fear or loss of control of their present situation.
d. Some people disagree on the change
e. Some people don’t tolerate change well.
6. Are staff who resist change always undesirable? Give 3
benefits or 3 disadvantages of change resisters?
a. Change resisters are not always undesirable because:
i. Their tough questions can improve and strengthen the
change
ii. They identify the problems that need to be solved first.
73
i. Technology. ii. Government policies
Form of mind and heart that always seek for mutual benefits in all human
relationships philosophy that allow agreement for solution to be mutually
beneficial/satisfying. A scenario that makes parties feel good about the
decision and are committed to action plan it sees situation as co-
operative rather than competitive.
74
Other paradigm of human interaction are; win/lose, lose/win, lose/lose,
win win.
Make the person understand the subject in contention from your view.
It means that the whole is greater than the sum of the part.
This denote that the relationship which the part have to each other
is a part and of itself.
Combine the strength of people through positive team so as to
achieve goals no one person could have done it alone.
75
The essence of synergy is to value difference and respect them,
build on their strength to compensate for weakness.
It is based on the principle of creative cooperation.
1. What do you think is the main cause of the dip in oil reserves
in Nigeria?
a. Divestment by some of the IOCs
b. Limited investments in the upstream sector
76
c. Pipeline vandalism
d. Exhaustible nature of oil.
2. Which of the following statements is NOT true about the
Nigerian Oil & Gas Sector?
a. The Oil & Gas Sector is the largest contributor to Nigerian
GDP
b. Nigeria is more of a gas province than oil
c. Nigeria holds the second largest convention oil reserve in
Africa.
d. Europe is currently the largest importer of Nigerian crude.
3. What do you understand by the term ‘OPEC’s Spare
Capacity?’
_____________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________
4. The benchmark crude to which most Nigerian grades are
priced is:
a. WTI
b. Brent
c. Bonny light
d. OPEC Basket.
5. The level of global E & P activities is indicated by:
a. Global Purchasing Managers Index (PMI)
b. Global GDP
c. Global Manufacturing Index
d. Global RL Count.
6. Which country has the largest Shale gas reserve?
a. USA
b. Russia
c. Qatar
d. China
7. Which country is the major importer of Nigerian LNG in
2012?
a. Span
b. USA
c. China
d. Japan
8. List four (4) sources of Renewable Energy (1)
_______________
77
(2) _________________ (3) ____________ (4) _____________
9. Country with the largest conventional oil reserve is:
a. USA
b. Russia
c. Saudi Arabia
d. Venezuela
10. NNPC is currently facing financial challenges. As a potential
manager, mention two oil and gas related new business ventures
you would recommend for the corporation to initiate in order to
improve it revenue?
_____________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________
____________________________________________________
FINAL QUIZ
Instructions:
78
5. List two (2) techniques for Coaching. Write a short note on
any one of them.
6. Briefly show how you intend to align your learning points
from this course to achieving NNPC corporate goals.
LEADERSHIP MODULE
TEST
DURATION: 15 MINUTES
81
NIGERIAN GAS COMPANY LIMITED
82
PPMC WARRI AREA
QUESTION PAPER
1. Pipeline vandalism
3. Cash crunch
4. Obsolete/old equipment
84
Pipeline Vandalism is a criminal offence for which nobody is immune
against. Available records have shown that over 5000 (five thousand)
arrests have been made across the country ad to date, no PPMC staff
have either been arrested or implicated. The allegation is therefore
unfounded.
Demurrage are paid directly to ship owners whom neither staff nor
Management have access to. Nigeria also charges the lowest
demurrage as its demurrage calculations are based o n (AFRA) Average
Freight Rate Assessment. London tanker brokers panel as against the
Spot rate charge (Platts). The difference between the two is about
10,000 USD. Ship owners are usually reluctant to come to Nigeria,
because of this price differential. Again a number of agencies have roles
to play before a vessel is discharged such agencies include NPA,
Customs, DPR and Navy.
There are different types of products. The white products i.e. PMS –
Petro, HHK – House Hold Kerosene, ATK – Aviation, Turbine Kerosene
AGO – Diesel. These are allocated to Major and independent Marketers.
They sell these products in their various outlets.
85
have operational facilities. These products such as LPFO, SRG, and
Bitumen & LPG are allocated to users directly. However, some of these
industrial users prefer to sell the allocation instead of using the product
in their factory. Machinery has been put in place to identify specific
industries engaged in this bad practice for appropriate sanction HPFO is
mainly for export.
PPMC transport all refined products through the same pipelines except
Mosimi – Satellite product line where you have different pipelines for
different products. A different pipeline is used for transporting Crude.
PPMC only chatter Vessels to Ship products. It also owns some Vessels.
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PPMC distributes products to the reverine areas through floating Mega
Stations and some filling stations with authorized licence to sell
petroleum products in the Area.
Yes PPMC exports. HPFO and sometimes other products when they are
surplus.
Apart from the use of pipelines, how does PPMC transport her
products?
One can buy Kerosene from PPMC only if one has authorized storage
facility and is a registered marketer with PPMC.
87
Provision of N3.00 by Petroleum Product Pricing Regulatory Agency
(PPPRA) to pay for Private Depots facilities in the interim. This is to
enable big vessels discharge on time and depart.
The total landing cost ex-filling station minus fixed pump price by PPPRA
plats.
21 875 litres.
PHRC 210,000bp/d
125,000bp/d
August 1990
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Natural gas! Where do you get it from?
Natural gas is derived from crude oil wells and natural gas wells
underground the bowels of the earth in the reservoir.
NNPC FAQ
Regular meetings are held with the communities to identify their needs
and decide how best to assist them in actualizing their aspirations.
90
It means Corporate Social Responsibility. CSR is just another name for
good corporate citizenship where a corporate organisation endeavours
to identify and meet ht eh social needs of communities in its area of
operation. This may be in the form of community assistance,
infrastructure development or human capacity building.
91
National, Petroleum investment and Management Services (NAPIMS) is
the Corporate Strategic Unit (OSU) that manages the Federal
Government’s Investment in the upstream Petroleum Industry while the
Commercial Investment Division manages NNPC core investments in
the service and Downstream sector.
E10 is an environmentally friendly form of fuel that has been very well
accepted in other countries, e.g. Brazil, India, Thailand, USA, Germany
etc. The key to successfully market E10 is to prevent water
contamination These procedures will be applied all along the value chain
from the export terminal to the import terminal to the depot and service
stations storage tanks. Trucks and pipelines will also be subject to new
procedures. Here, proven quality assurance procedures developed by
Petrobras will come in handy.
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How will PPMC role be affected by the introduction of E10 to the
Nigerian Market?
Nothing really changes at least in the early stages except that with the
introduction of E10, PPMC now has a new supplier it needs to interact
with, i.e, the import traders. Refineries will continue to supply PPMC
based on same processes as before however there may be the need to
adapt refinery facilities to handle ethanol especially when the
programme is expanded in terms of how supply and demand
management processes are concerned there will be no change.
GHGs are gases such as carbon mono-oxide and carbon dioxide whose
presence in the atmosphere results in the earth’s surface being warmer
than it would otherwise be (Global warming).
What is PPMC?
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The Acronym PPMC means Pipelines and Products Marketing Company
Limited. It was incorporated in Nov. 1988 as a wholly owned subsidiary
of NNPC. It commenced operation in Jan. 1989.
Marketers are first licenced by DPR, armed with the licence bulk,
purchase agreement is entered into with PPMC.
How can one get allocation for Petroleum Products like LPFO,
HPFO, Bitumen etc?
LPFO is Low Pour Fuel Oil mainly used in industries as fuel for
generation of power or for firing their heaters. Allocation is made to
industries through Marketers. HPFO is mainly exported while Bitumen is
allocated to construction companies as well as the FMWH, SWH etc.
94
How can one set up a filling station and begin to get products from
PPMC?
The first port of call will be the DPR which will license the prospective
marketer and then sign bulk purchase agreement with PPMC.
What is the National Demand for Petrol, Kerosene, AGO, LPG and
Aviation Kero?
How many depots does NNPC have and why are some of these
depots not functioning?
We have 22 depots across the country. Some are not functioning due to
lack of products occasioned by pipeline vandalism and other supply
challenges.
95
on subsidy, Dependence or imported products and changes in market
fundamentals of Crude Oil and Refined products in the international
markets.
96
Government is already addressing the issues with emphasis on the
development of the region through a comprehensive Niger Delta Master
Plan. Besides, Government recently established a Ministry of Niger Delta
to coordinate development of the oil producing region. This is in addition
to the Niger Delta Development Commission (NNDC) which has been in
existence close to a decade and currently making appreciable impact in
the lives of the people of the Niger Delta. Above all, Government also
recently granted amnesty to the militants in the region, a unique move
that may enhance peace in the region.
97
QUESTIONS FOR COMD PROGRAMME
2. Expired LPG cylinders are safe for use and may not cause
accident.
True or False.
True or False
True or False
b. Marketing of natural gas & its derivative nationally & within the
ECOWAS sub-region
d. Only B and C.
a. Falcon
b. Agip
c. Gaslink
d. SNG
d. A & B only
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e. All of the above.
A: ability to prioritise from various important tasks. Act first thing first.
100
Q: State 3 steps in false field analysis
Q: If you have a different task from five different bosses, what is the
most suitable tool to use?
A: pareto analysis
A: Process charting
A: (i) Doing something differently from the past (ii) Seeing the basic and
making additions to create something new.
red.
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1. Name three (3) NNPC core values that you know.
_____________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________
8. State three observed behaviours that show that NNPC does not
act in accordance with its core values.
_____________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________
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CHIEF OFFICERS PROGRAMME MOSIMI JULY 10, 2012
Ethics Test
INSTRUCTIONS
2. The following are the major roles of economics in the E&P Process
(3 correct answers):
a. Analysis
b. Evaluation
c. Procurement
d. Financing
e. Decisions
b. Development wells
106
c. Pipelines and flow
d. Leased vehicle
a. True
b. False.
b. Make acquisitions
c. Discourage investment
d. Corporate Budgeting
i. Ownership
ii. Funding
108
12. Absolute responsibility of public procurement Act resides in
who?
13. What is the penalty for non-compliance to public
procurement Act?
14. Price is the______ of the iceberg.
15. Name three (3) things that must be present in supplier
evaluation.
16. What is SAP?
17. SUN is NNPC official book of record. True/False
18. ESS/MSS; what is the full meaning?
19. There is strong commercial correlation between PIB, SCM
and SAP. True/False.
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12. Name three (3) commodities of highest spend in the
upstream business.
13. What is the average number of vendors in NNPC refineries?
14. What is the proportion of price when determining total cost of
ownership?
11. Mention two actions you can take in managing your emotions
the next time you get angry.
a.__________________________________________________
b. ___________________________________________________
12. True or False: An assertive person is aware of his own rights
and privileges yet often violates or usurps the rights of others.
13. Being a passive person is a good thing at the workplace
because it minimizes the occurrence of conflicts. True or False.
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34. The conflict resolution process requires both parties to
present their positions as clearly as possible and _____ to each
other’s position.
35. It is possible for reasonable people to have different views on
an issue for a perfectly good reason. True or False.
36. One of the principles employed in resolving conflict is the
Golden Rule. State it.
37. People’ responses to conflict are basically ASSERTIVENESS
and
__________________________
38. You do not have to fight or win every battle to win the
_________
39. Which of the following options is NOT true?
40. A conflict is said to be resolved:
a. when the issue is considered closed by the person
concerned about it.
b. when each of the parties decides not to talk about it.
c. when parties meet each other half-way
41. It is said that there is enough resources in the world to satisfy
everyone’s NEED but not enough to satisfy everyone’s ________
42. Whatever approach is adopted in resolving conflict, it is
essential to first apportion blame where it is due. True or False.
43. Choose the inappropriate option:
a. You should not engage in dealing with trivial conflict issues it
wastes valuable time.
b. Build good relationships before conflict occurs.
c. Respect differences
44. In managing conflicts, acknowledge facts before focusing on
feelings.
True or False
45. A key idea behind Johari’s Window for managing is that you
can build trust with others by disclosing ______ about yourself.
46. Meeting conflict with ____ overcomes opposition but never
the conflict.
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NEGOTIATION SKILLS
115
59. All great accomplishments begin with the germ of ____ in the
mind of a creative individual.
60. Creativity reduces stress. True or False.
61. The smarter you are, the more creative you are. True or
False.
62. To generate ideas, people must have a belief that only
certain things are possible. True or False.
63. In generating ideas, quantity ultimately breeds quality. True
or False
64. One of the following options is NOT true about creative
people:
a. They are bright
b. They have a positive image of themselves.
c. They are extroverts.
65. One of the following options is NOT true about creative
thinking:
a. It leads to an inner sense of well-being and peace
b. It gives you more control of your job and your life.
c. It causes headache
INTERVIEW BARRIERS
116
c. confirm from the interviewer if you got his question correctly
by rephrasing it.
70. One of the following options is a good body language during
an interview:
a. looking at your watch
b. maintaining eye contact
c. yawning
71. One of the following is an appropriate posture while sitting for
an interview:
a. leaning back or ‘swinging on a chair’
b. leaning forward onto a desk or table and/or a constantly
shifting posture.
c. leaning slightly towards the speaker
72. Nodding of the head as an expression during an interview
means:
a. Your head is scratching you
b. You are paying attention
c. You disagree with the interviewer
73. Attentive listeners use smiles as feedback mechanisms and
to show attention. True or False.
74. We are engaged in _______ when the goal is to evaluate or
scrutinise what is being said.
75. When you are asked, “So, tell me about yourself” in an
interview:
a. the interviewer wants to know about your parent, siblings and
state of origin.
b. the interviewer wants you to inform him about your present
salary.
c. the interviewer wants to know about your skills, career
objective and experience.
76. There is no point in rehearsing an Elevator Speech since it is
about yourself. It will come naturally when you need it. True or
False.
77. One of the following options is NOT a good question to ask
the interviewer before a job has been offered:
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a. How do you measure success in this position?
b. How much would be my annual salary if I’m selected?
c. If I’m selected, what would be my 2 – 3 highest priorities in
the near future?
78. Choose the best option among the 3 that describes the
references you should use.
a. Your secondary school teacher who you have not seen or
spoken to in the last 25 years.
b. Your former supervisor with whom you had an unresolved
conflict
c. Your previous elite team leader who is now retired.
79. One of the following dressings is NOT appropriate for an
interview for WOMEN:
a. Your briefcase to carry your resume and your purse for your
money and phone.
b. Closed toed shoes
c. 2 piece suit with skirt or pant
80. One of the following dressings is NOT appropriate for an
interview for MEN:
a. Long sleeve shirt, coordinating tie with casual sandals.
b. Solid colour suit
c. Dark socks that coordinates with suit.
81. One of the following options is NOT advisable for an
interview:
a. Always plan to arrive 5 minutes early
b. Never arrive to an interview late.
c. Know where and how long it will take to park and walk to the
building
82. You should not bring one of the following to an interview:
a. Copies of your resume
b. Your iPad
c. Your notepad
83. Pick out the odd item which you are not expected to bring to
an interview:
a. Map
b. Your notepad
c. Copy of the job posting
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84. True or False: Your friend can accompany you to an
interview.
85. The best place to put the materials you brought for an
interview is:
a. On the table, sharing it with the interviewer(s)
b. On the floor beside you
c. Inside the can you can easily get them when you need them.
86. The acronym, “STAR” stands for _____ _____ _____
and ___
87. An answer that is NOT advisable to give to “Why do you
want to work here?” question would be:
a. This is the company I’ve been looking for, a place where my
background, experience and skills can be put to use and make
things happen.
b. I just need a job
c. As a dedicated technician, I like doing essential research.
Being part of breakthrough team is an experience I’d love to
repeat.
88. An answer that is NOT advisable to give to “What is your
greatest weakness?” question would be:
a. I project self-expectations.
b. I get attached to projects.
c. I don’t have any weakness.
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92. Rub or touch your nose after you have been asked a
question. This suggests that you’re not being completely honest.
True or False.
93. One of the following body languages is GOOD during an
interview:
a. Stare back blankly.
b. Cross your legs and idly shake one over the other.
c. Establish a comfortable amount of personal space between
you and the interviewer.
94. Colognes and perfumes are very good. They can attract the
interviewer to you. True or False.
95. If you have ore than one person interviewing you at once,
make sure you only focus your attention on one of them. True or
False.
96. What do you do with your hands or arms during an
interview?
a. Fold your arms across your chest. It makes you look tidy.
b. Rest your chin in your hands. It shows that you are paying
attention.
c. If you are unsure of what to do with your hands, rest them,
loosely clasped in your lap.
120
certain that we went up to him and apologized and made it clear
that we meant no disrespect and that sometimes we just become
comfortable with people very quickly.” True or False.
101. The best way to gain thinking time after you have been
asked an interview question is:
a. Ask your interviewer(s) to give you 3 minutes to think.
b. Repeat the question or ask the interviewer what is it they
want to know.
c. Ignore everybody and close your eyes while you think.
QUIZ
1. What is a team?
4. Mention any three (3) reasons why teams fail and write a
statement for success.
6. List and explain any three (3) letters of the word PERFORM
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Oil and Gas Business Environment Review (BER) Presentation for NNPC Chief
Officers Course 075
1. Mention two (2) likely causes of the current drop in Crude Oil
prices.
_________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________
a. __________________________________________________
b. __________________________________________________
c. __________________________________________________
122
d. Which source is more dominant?________________________
a. __________________________________________________
4. Name two (2) major crude oil price benchmark and their region of
dominance.
a. __________________________________________________
b. _________________________________________________
5. Crude Oil prices’ remaining below $100 mark since October, 2014
is a serious challenge to NNPC and our domestic economy. As a
prospective Manager, list three (3) mitigating action for NNPC.
a. __________________________________________________
b. __________________________________________________
Assessment Quiz
d. Control System.
2. One (1) of these does not form part of NNPC Core Values
123
a. Professional excellence b. Staff development c. operational
excellence d. integrity
d. dependability
M.S
1. a. What is leadership?
ASSESSMENT QUIZ
Performance Management
a. True
b. False
c. Not sure
125
2. Performance management establishes a delivery culture in an
organisation.
a. True
b. False
c. Not sure
a. True
b. False
c. Not sure
a. Must be SMART
b. Strategic Alternatives
126
a. Conducting a performance dialogue
b. Developing KPIs
a. SWOT
b. SNAP
c. SWAT
a. complex
b. simple
c. realistic
a. Resource reallocation
b. capacity building
127
a. Career path
b. Executive summary
c. Financial plan
a. March 2010
b. March 2011
c. March 2012
a. True
b. False
c. Not sure
128
17. The amount of gas produced in Nigeria that is consumed
domestically is about?
a. 40%
b. 27%
c. 25%
d. 10%
18. Some of the largest companies in the world are not oil and gas
companies:
a. True
b. False
a. Oil sands
b. Clay oil
c. Tight oil
d. Oil shale
20. Which of these refinery configurations has the lowest yield of light
product?
a. FCC
b. Hydro-skimming
c. Coking
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d. topping
21. The least preferred business model for IOCs in matured markets
is?
a. COCO
b. CODO
c. DODO
22. Balance sheet is for a specific date while income and cash flow
statements are for a period of time.
a. True
b. False
a. Growth
b. ROIC
c. Tax
d. Cost of capital
24. The following are margins that are used to measure cost efficiency
of a business except:
a. Cost margin
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b. Gross margin
c. EBIT margin
25. The ratio of the money I make to the money I invested to make
money is known as:
a. EBIT
b. ROCE
c. ROIC
d. GROSS MARGIN
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5. The person who should be in control of the project during
project planning is the:
a. Project manager
b. Team member
c. Functional manager
d. Sponsor
6. A project manager does not have much time to spend
planning before the mandatory start date arrives. He therefore
wants to move through planning as effectively as possible. Which
of the following would you recommend?
a. Make sure you have signed project charter and then
start the WBS.
b. Create an activity list before creating a network
diagram
c. Document all the known risks before you document the
high-level assumptions.
d. Finalise the quality management plan before you
determine quality metrics.
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b. Check the project’s progress compared to the
baselines
c. Confirm that the phase has reached its objectives, and
have its deliverables formally accepted.
d. Recommend corrective action to bring the project
results in line with project expectation.
9. A project manager has managed four projects for the
company and is being considered to join the project management
office team. The following is discovered during the evaluation of his
performance. The project manager’s first project had an ending
cost variance of -500, used two critical resources, needed to
rework the project charter during project executing and was ranked
14th in priority within the company. The second project finished with
a schedule variance of +100, was completed with a vasily
compressed schedule, and received a letter of recommendation
from the sponsor, but the product of the project was not used. The
third project has 23 percent more changes than expected, has an
SPI of 0.90, and 25 open items in the issue log when the project
was completed. Each of these projects had a cost budget of
$1,000 and 20 to 28 percent more changes than others of its size.
The project management office decided not to add this project
manager to the team. Which of the following BEST describes why
this might have happened?
a. The project manager has only managed low-priority
projects, and he had to compress the schedule, showing that
he does not have the skill to work in the project management
office.
b. Issue logs should not be used on projects of this size,
showing that the project manager does not have the
knowledge to work in a project management office.
134
c. The project manager did not effectively involve the
stakeholders, showing that he does not have the knowledge
to work in the project management office.
d. The project manager had two critical resources on his
team and still needed to rework the project charter, showing
that he does not have the discipline to work in the project
management office.
10. Which of the following BEST describes the project manager’s
role as an integrator?
a. Help team members become familiar with the project
b. Put all the pieces of a project into cohesive whole
c. Put all the pieces of a project into a programme
d. Get all team members together into a cohesive whole
11. You are taking over a project and determine the following.
Activity B has an early finish (EF) of day 3, a late finish of day 6,
and an early start (ES) of day 2. Activity L is being done by hard-to-
get resource. The cost performance index (CPI) is 1.1, and the
schedule performance index (SPI) is 0.8. Based on this information
what will you be more concerned about?
a. Float
b. Resources
c. Cost
d. Schedule
12. A project manager is appointed to head a highly technical
project in an area with which this person has an familiarity. The
project manager delegates the process of Develop Schedule,
Estimate Costs, Define Activities, Estimate Activity Resources to
various project team members, and basically serves as an
occasional referee and coordinator of activities. The results of this
approach are likely to be:
a. A team functioning throughout the project at a very high
level, demonstrating creativity and commitment
135
b. A team that initially experiences some amounts of
confusion, but that after a period of time becomes cohesive
and effective unit
c. A team that is not highly productive, but that stays
together because of the work environment created by the
project manager.
d. A team that is characterized by poor performance, low
morale, high levels of conflicts and high turned.
13. During what part of the project management process is the
project scope statement created?
a. Initiating
b. Planning
c. Executing
d. Monitoring and control
14. When should the verify scope statement be done?
a. At the end of the project
b. At the beginning of the project
c. At the end of each phase of the project
d. During the planning processes
15. A project manager may use ................................. to make
sure the team members clearly know what work is included in each
of the work package.
a. The project scope statement
b. The project scope
c. A WBS dictionary
d. A schedule
16. One of the stakeholders on the project contacts the project
manager to discuss some additional scope they would like to add
to the project. The project manager asks for details in writing and
then works through the Scope Process. What should the project
manager do NEXT when the evaluation of the report scope is
completed?
a. Ask the stakeholder if there are any more changes
expected.
b. Complete integrated change control.
136
c. Make sure the impact of the change is understood by
the stakeholder.
d. Find out the root cause of why the scope was not
discovered during project planning.
17. Which of the following BEST describes the relationship
between standard deviation and risk?
a. Nothing
b. Standard deviation tells you if the estimate is accurate
c. Standard deviation tells you how unsure the estimate is
d. Standard deviation tells you if the estimate includes a
pad.
18. Your project management plan results in a project schedule
that is too long. If the project network diagram cannot change but
you have extra personnel resources, what is the BEST thing to do?
a. Fast track the project
b. Level the resources
c. Crash the project
d. Monie Cario analysis
19. During project planning you estimate the time needed for
each activity and then add the estimates to create the project
estimate. You commit to completing the project by this date. What
is wrong with this scenario?
a. The team did not create the estimate, and estimating
takes too long using that ethod.
b. The team did not create the estimate, and a network
diagram was not used.
c. The estimate is too long and should be created by
management
d. The project estimate should be the same as the
customer’s required completion date.
20. Analogous estimating:
a. Uses bottom up estimating techniques
b. Is used most frequently during the executing processes
of the project.
c. Uses top – down estimating techniques
137
d. Uses actual detailed historical costs.
21. A schedule performance index (SPI) of 0.76 means:
a. You are over budget
b. You are ahead of schedule
c. You are only progressing at 76 percent of the rate
originally planned.
d. You are only progressing at 24 percent of the rate
originally planned.
22. During which project management process group are budget
forecast created?
a. Monitoring and control
b. Planning
c. Initiating
d. Executing
23. Which of the following represents the estimated value of the
work actually accomplished?
a. Earned value (EV)
b. Planned Value (PV)
c. Actual cost (AC)
d. Cost Variance (CV)
24. A manager notices that a project manager is holding a
meeting with some of the team and some stakeholders to discuss
the quality of the project. The project schedule has been
compressed, and the CPI is 1.1., they have worked hard on the
project, the team has been rewarded according to the reward
system the project manager put in place, and there is a strong
sense of team. The manager suggests that the project manager
does not have enough time to hold meetings about quality when
the schedule is so compressed. Which of the following BEST
describes why the project manager is wrong?
a. Improved quality leads to increased productivity,
increased cost effectiveness and decreased cost risk.
b. Improved quality leads to increased productivity,
decreased cost effectiveness and increased cost risk.
138
c. Improved quality leads to increased productivity,
increases cost effectiveness, and increased cost risk.
d. Improved quality leads to increased productivity,
decreased cost effectiveness and decreased cost risk.
25. A control chart helps the project manager:
a. Focus on the most critical issues to improve quality
b. Focus on stimulating thinking
c. Explore a desired future outcome
d. Determine if a process is functioning within set limits.
26. All of the following results from quality audits EXCEPT:
a. Determination of whether project activities comply with
organisational policies
b. Improved process to increase productivity
c. Creation of quality metrics
d. Confirmation of the implementation of approved
change requests.
27. A project manager and team from a firm that designs railroad
equipment are tasked to design a machine to load stones unto
railroad cars. The design allows for two percent spillage,
amounting to over two tons of spilled rock per day. In which of the
following does the project manager document quality control,
quality assurance and quality improvement for this project?
a. Quality management plan
b. Quality policy
c. Control charts
d. Project management plan
28. Which of the following conflict resolution techniques will
generate the MOST lasting solution?
a. Forcing
b. Smoothing
c. Compromise
d. Problem solving
29. During project management planning in a matrix
organisation, the project manager determines that additional
human resources are needed. From whom would he request these
resource?
139
a. Project manager
b. Functional manager
c. Team
d. Project Sponsor
30. A project manager has just found out that a major
subcontractor for her project is consistently late delivering work.
The project team member responsible for this part of the project
does not get along with the subcontractor. To resolve the problem,
the project manager says, “you both will have to give up something
to solve this problem.” What conflict resolution problem is she
using?
a. Confrontation
b. Compromise
c. Smoothing
d. Communicating
31. A project is in the middle of execution when a stakeholder
suggests a major new change. This change will cause the third
major overhaul of the project. At the same time, the project
manager discovers that a major work package was not completed
because a team member’s boss moved him to another project that
has a higher priority. Which of the following is the BEST person for
the project manager to address these issues with?
a. The team
b. Senior management
c. The customer
d. The sponsor
32. Formal written correspondence with the customer is
required when:
a. Defects are detected
b. The customer requests additional work not covered
under contract
c. The project has a scheduled slippage that includes
changes to the critical path.
d. The project has cost overruns
140
33. A large one-year telecommunication project is about half way
done when you take the place of the previous project manager, the
project involves three different sellers and a project team of 30
people. You would like to see the project’s communication
requirements and what technology is being used to aid in project
communications. Where will you fid the information?
a. The project management plan
b. The information distribution plan
c. the bar chart
d. The communication management plan.
34. The project status meeting is not going well. Everyone is
talking at the same time, there are people who are not
participating, and many topics are being discussed at random.
Which of the following rules for effectiveness is NOT being
adhered to?
a. Demonstrate courtesy and consideration of each other,
and control who is allowed to speak.
b. Schedule meetings in advance
c. Have a purpose for the meeting with the right people in
attendance
d. Crate and publish an agenda and a set of rules for
controlling the meeting.
35. During the middle of the project, things have being going
well. The work authorization system has allowed people to know
when to start work, and the issue log has helped keep track of
stakeholder’s needs. The benefit of ratio has been improving, and
the sponsor has expressed his appreciation for the team members’
efforts by hosting milestone party for the team. The project
manager gets a call from a team member saying that the result
from the completion of their activity’s predecessor is two days late.
Which of the following reasons would BEST describe why this
occurred?
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a. The project manager was focusing on the sponsor’s
needs.
b. Functional management was not included in the
communications management plan
c. The successor activities should have been watched,
not the predecessors.
d. The right people were not invited to the milestone
party.
36. If a risk has a 20 percent chance of happening in a given
month, and the project is expected to last five months, what is the
probability that the risk event will occur during the fourth month of
the project?
a. Less than 1 percent
b. 20 percent
c. 60 percent
d. 80 percent
37. Risk tolerances are determined in order to help:
a. The team ranks the project risks.
b. The project manager estimates the project
c. the team schedule the project
d. Management knows how other managers will act on
the project.
38. Workarounds are determined during which risk management
process?
a. Identify Risks
b. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
c. Plan Risk Responses
d. Monitor and Control Risks.
39. You are a project manager for the construction of a major
new manufacturing plant that has never been done before. The
project cost is estimated at $30,000,000 and will make use of three
sellers. Once begun, the project cannot be cancelled, as there will
be a large expenditure on plant and equipment. As the project
manager, it would be most important to carefully:
a. Review all cost proposals from the sellers
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b. Examine the budget reserves
c. Complete the project charter
d. Perform an identification of risk.
40. All the following statements about change control are
incorrect EXCEPT:
a. A fixed price contract will minimize the need for change
control
b. Change seldom provides real benefits to the project
c. Contracts should include procedures to accommodate
change
d. More detailed specifications eliminate the causes of
changes.
41. All of the following MUST be present to have a contract
EXCEPT:
a. Procurement statement of work
b. Acceptance
c. Address of seller
d. Buyers’ signature
42. The sponsor is worried about the seller deriving extra profit
on the cost plus fixed fee (CPFF) contract. Each month he requires
the project manager to submit CPI calculations and an analysis of
the cost to complete. The project manager explains to the sponsor
that extra profits should not be a worry on this project because:
a. The team is making sure the seller does not cut scope
b. All cost invoiced are being audited.
c. There can only be a maximum 10 percent increase if
there is an expected cost overrun.
d. The fee is only received by the seller when the project
is complete.
43. You are in the middle of a complex negotiation when the
other party says, “We need to finish in one hour because I have to
catch my plane.” That person is using which of the following
negotiation strategies?
a. Good guy, bad guy
b. Delay
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c. Deadline
d. Extreme demands
44. A decision has to be made regarding project selection.
Several project managers have been asked to give their opinions
to the executive committee. Each project manager has a personal
interest because the project manager will be assigned. The project
chosen will be high priority and high visibility, with substantial
reward for success. How should the project managers make their
recommendations?
a. They should each explain why the project they would
be in charge of would be the best to choose and provide
documentation to substantiate it.
b. They should recommend the project that would be best
for the company in the long run, regardless of who is going to
run it.
c. They should make a chart that shows the pros and
cons of each project making sure to the list more pros for the
one they would run and less cons to prove its value.
d. They should not give an opinion since it will not be
objective.
45. A major negotiation with the potential subcontractor is
scheduled for tomorrow when you discover there is a good chance
the project will be cancelled. What should you do?
a. Do not spend too much time preparing for the
negotiation.
b. Cut the negotiation short
c. Only negotiate major items
d. Postpone the negotiations.
46. You are in the middle of a new product development, your
publicly traded economy when you discover that the previous
project manager made a 08 53,000,000 payment that was not
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approved in according to your company policies, luckily the project
cost performance index (CPI) is 2.1. What should you do?
a. Contact your manager
b. Put the payment in an escrow account
c. Bury the cost in the largest cost centre available
47. When checking the calendar of a team member to schedule
a meeting, you see also has scheduled a meeting with a key
stakeholder that you were not informed of. The BEST approach
would be to:
a. Avoid mentioning it to the team members but continue
to watch their activities.
b. Notify your boss about the problem
c. Address the concern with the team member’s boss
d. Address the concern with the team member.
48. You are a project manager for one of many large and
important programme. At a high level status meeting, you note that
another project manager has reported her project on solution.
Looking back on your project over the last few weeks, you
remember many deliverables from the other project that arrived
late. What should you do?
a. Meet with the project manager
b. Develop a risk control plan
c. Discuss the issue with your boss
d. Meet with the other project manager.
49. You have always been asked by your management to cut
your project estimate by 10 percent after you have given it to them.
The scope of your new project is unclear and there are over 30
stakeholders. Management expect 25% reduction in downtime as
a result of the project. Which of the following is the best cause of
action in this situation?
a. Replan to achieve a 35% percent improvement in
downtime.
b. Reduce the estimates and note the changes in the risk
response plan.
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c. Provide an accurate estimate of the actual costs and
be able to support it.
d. Meet with the team to identify where you can find 10
percent savings.
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