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LARGE FUNCTION?
3.b. Revenue increases by 1 (I'm just going to ignore COGS since no detail was given), Net Income
increases by .6 (assuming 40% tax rate) on Income Statement; Balance Sheet: Cash decreases by .4
from the taxes you paid (Assets down .4), unearned revenue liability decreases by 1 (Liabilities down
1), Net Income increases by .6 (Equity up .6); Cash Flow: Net Income up .6, NWC change down 1
(the decrease in the unearned revenue liability), so CFO down .4
4. This is a weird question. I suppose a company without debt (so no interest), no owned PPE
(so no D&A), and has no taxable income. So some type of services company (i.e.
consulting?) that isn't doing well so their EBT is 0?
5.a.1 No change to income statement; PPE increases 200, cash decreases 200, so assets net to no
change; Cash Flow Statement: CFI decreases by 200
5.a.2 No change to income statement initially (although you will record rent expense during the lease
period and the associated tax savings); No change to B/S initially (but will decrease cash as payments
are made and change Equity as NI decreases); No change to CFS initially, but CFO will decrease as
payments are made
5.a.3 No change initially to I/S or CFS; Balance sheet Asset will increase by PV of the lease
payments, Liability will increase by the PV of the lease payments. As payments are made, you record
depreciation and interest on the I/S, decrease the asset by depreciation, and decrease the liability as
payments are made. CFS changes for CFO as interest payments are made (CFO), add back
depreciation (CFO since non-cash).
5.b. EBITDA: Cash, Capital Lease, Operating Lease
Net Income: Cash, Capital Lease, Operating Lease (In the early years, interest is higher, so Operating
Lease and Capital Lease should be switched, but in the out years it looks like this)
EBIT: Cash, Capital Lease, Operating Lease
6. Different growth profiles, one uses operating vs. capital lease, one is an industry leader and
deserves higher multiple
7. As D/E increases, generally WACC will decrease since debt is cheaper than equity
7.a. As D/E increases and WACC decreases, value should increase
*NOTE: If D/E gets too high, then debt becomes expensive/risky, so the above answers only
hold true to a point.
8. Generally decreases value, since the increased tax payments means less unlevered free cash
flow. However, this can be mitigated by a lower WACC, but generally speaking value should
decrease as a whole.
9. Company is balance sheet insolvent. Debt will likely trade at a huge discount--company is
distressed (theoretically speaking, equity is negative $300m, but equity can never trade lower
than zero)
10. Formula for a perpetuity is 100/discount rate. So assuming a current interest rate of 1%, I
would pay $10,000. Theoretically I could take $10,000 and invest it at 1% interest to get
$100 per year.
*I'd also note that this assumes I live forever, but in reality I wouldn't pay 10,000 since I
won't get cash flow infinitely
11.a. No change to I/S. CFS: CFI down 1,000, CFF up 1,000; B/S: Assets up 1,000, Liabilities up
1,000
11.b. Rev up $900, $300 of COGS, $200 of SG&A, $100 of dep. expense, $100 of interest exp. So
$200 of taxable income, but then $80 of tax (40% tax rate), so net income increases by $120. CFS:
NI up $120, add back $100 of depreciation, so CFO up $220 and net cash up $220. B/S: Cash up
220, PPE up 900 (1,000 less 100 of dep.), Liabilities up $1,000, Equity up 120 (net income).
11.c. COGS decreases, so net income increases. That said, I think value will actually decrease, since
any increase in Free Cash Flow from lower COGS is tax affected, whereas the corresponding change
in NWC (from inventory changes) will change by the same amount, but not tax affected. So therefore
free cash flow will actually decrease, as will value. I could be wrong here.
12. Using treasury stock method, a company will have $500 from the exercised options ($5 per
share strike price x 100 options). They can buy back 50 shares ($500 / $10 per share current
price). So 50 new shares issued at a current price of $10 per share means $500 of additional
market cap. So $600
13. Accretive. If you reverse the P/E, you get a cost of earnings (earnings yield) of 1/20 or 5%.
This is the cost of debt, but you need to take into account the tax shield on debt, which at a
40% tax rate means an effective 3% cost of debt. So therefore you're effectively paying 3%
for earnings generating 5%.
14. Higher valuation, since you now assume cash flows come 6 months into the year instead of
12 (so cash flows coming sooner means less discounting).
15. Pros of Strategic: Synergies and ability to pay in stock, so upside potential for target, can
generally pay more (due to synergies), operational expertise in sector
Cons of Strategic: Potential regulatory approval (FTC), may only want to pay in stock if its
overvalued
Pros of Financial: Higher transaction certainty (financial buyers execute many more transaction),
maybe general operational expertise (running businesses in general), will pay in cash
Cons of Financial: Little to no upside for target (other than maybe a MIP), might fire management,
generally pay less than strategic.
How does goodwill affect NI? cash flow?
- due to changes in accnting rules, you can't amortize goodwill, you can do impairments. If you do
impairments, NI will decrease.
- impairments of goodwill are (at least partially) tax deductible, so even though goodwill
impairments are not real cash charges they will lower your tax bill, which would increase cash flow
Which has greater impact, 10% increase in FCF or 10% increase in WACC?
firm value = FCFF / WACC
FCFF*1.1 / WACC = 1.1 * firm value
FCFF / (WACC * 1.1) = (1/1.1) * firm value
| 1.1 - 1 | - | 1/1.1 - 1 | = 0.1 - 1/11 = 1/110 -> 10% increase in FCF has greater impact.
What happens to IS/BS/CFS when inventories decrease by $100? (assume 40% tax rate)
IS: COGS increases by $100, so NI decreases by $60
CFS: cash increases by $40 because we have an additional $100 of tax deductible expense
BS: Assets decrease by $100, cash increases by $40, SE decreases by $60
Accretion-Dilution Analysis:
You are looking at pro forma # of shares O/S and NI (EPS) AFTER an acquisition has occured. To
do this you have to project the post-acquisition balance sheet and income statement.
In an all stock deal, if a lower P/E company buys a higher P/E company, the deal is dilutive to the
acquirer