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6. A meter has a resistance of 10000 ohms/volt when selected to the 10V range. Reading
0.5V load is
a) 1 000 ohms
b) 100 000 ohms
c) 50 000 ohms
13. When crimping using a hydraulic crimping tool the crimp is completed correctly when
a) The pressure relieve valve open
b) The ratchet releases
c) The correct imprint is on the crimp
16. Correct bend radius for a cable loom is not less than
a) 3 times outside diameter of cable loom
b) 5 times outside diameter of cable loom
c) 8 times outside diameter of cable loom
24. The requirements for the design of cable looms are stated in
a) CAIPs
b) BCARs
c) Airworthiness notices
26. A cable routed outside the pressurized area of an aircraft could be subjected to a
temperature of
a) Minus 80°C
b) Minus 56°C
c) Minus 180°C
27. Where ever possible cables connected to apparatus shall be arranged to run from the
apparatus
a) Upwards
b) Parallel
c) Downwards
28. Where possible the distance from the terminal to the nearest point of support should not
exceed
a) 6 inches
b) 8 inches
c) 10 inches
29. The length of strapping supplied for use with a binding tool is
a) 24 inches
b) 24 feet
c) 12 inches
33. The cartridge insulation test is carried out by connecting the tester
a) To all pins and the cartridge body
b) Between connections
c) To any connection and the cartridge body
40. Which part of the structural repair manual gives information on special protective
treatments
a) Fuselage Chapter 53
b) Wings Chapter 57
c) Structures- General Chapter 51
42. ATA 100 manual layout the airframe SYSTEM group occupies
a) 51-57
b) 5-12
c) 20-49
43. Which element in the ATA number 24-16-01 refers to the chapter?
a) 24
b) 01
c) 16
50. Which part of the structural repair manual gives information on special protective
treatments
a) Fuselage Chapter 53
b) Wings Chapter 57
c) Structures- General Chapter 51
58. In practice circuit symbols used in production of aircraft wiring diagrams will
a) Always be found in aircraft maintenance manual chapter 20
b) Always be found in standard specification
c) Normally be found in standard specification
59. The final element of a schematic wiring diagram will normally be
a) Issue 1, 2, 3 etc
b) Sheet 1, 2, 3
c) 101, 201, 301 etc
61. Which of the following parts of an ATA 100 series code for wires and cables refers to an
ATA chapter number
a) The wire number
b) The wire number prefix
c) The code suffix letters
62. Two wires are connected to a common terminal. Which part of their ATA 100 wire codes
will be different?
a) The segment letter
b) The wire number prefix
c) The wire number
63. If an ATA 100 wire code has a five digit wire number it means that
a) The wire is part of parallel system
b) The wire is part of a very large system
c) The wire is not part of the system
68. Which of the following cables is most flexible throughout its temperature range?
a) Efglas
b) Unifire F
c) Tersil
69. Which of the following cables has a conductor of tinned copper strands?
a) Tersil
b) Nyvin
c) Efglas
71. Which one of the following cables if heated excessively could give off toxic fumes
a) Nyvin
b) Efglas
c) Tersil
72. Which of the following cables is most flexible throughout its temperature range?
a) Unifire F
b) Tersil
c) Efglas
73. Which of the following cables it has a conductor of tinned copper strands
a) Nyvin
b) Efglas
c) Tersil
77. The Nyvin type of cable used on aircraft will normally be used for
a) High temperature areas
b) High frequency circuit
c) General wiring
78. When aluminium cables are being crimped it is essential to use an inhibitor to
a) Prevent oxidation
b) Form a bond between lug and cable
c) Prevent interaction between metals
79. An AMP hand crimping tool has insulation adjustment pins. Position 1 indicates
a) Loosest
b) Tightest
c) Medium
82. High voltage checks on identification marked thin walled cables are called for by
a) BCAR section J
b) A civil airworthiness inspection procedure
c) Airworthiness Notices
83. Aircraft cable identification purposes letter coding of cable manufacturer will be listed in
a) British Standards
b) BCAR section J
c) BCAR section D or JAR 25
84. Aircraft cable current ratings go down when cables are mounted in looms because
a) Of high induced EMF’s between conductors
b) Conductor cores get hotter if cables are bunched
c) Insulation properties will be increased between conductors
86. When preparing cable for fixing terminations the conductor strands are twisted
a) Tightly with pliers
b) To reform the original lay
c) Tightly by hand
88. The spacing between any unscreened cable and any aerial lead should be
a) 18 inches
b) 12 inches
c) 24 inches
89. If no tail connection is required the metal braid screening on cables should be
a) Frayed turned back and bound with tinned copper
b) Carefully cut off
c) Pricked out folded lack and bound with copper
91. A non-destructive testing technique which is suitable for light aluminum alloys is
a) Magnetic flow
b) Ultrasonic
c) Electro-flux
92. When inspecting a component which is subjected to the hot fluid process, the
examination for defects should be carried out
a) Immediately on removal of the item from the chalk cabinet
b) When the item is quite hot
c) When the item is quite cool
94. After completion of electro-magnetic crack detection, the test piece must be
a) Allowed to cool room temperatures as slowly as possible
b) De-magnetized before returning to service
c) Allow to lose any residual magnetism over a long a period possible
96. A non-destructive testing technique which is suitable for light aluminum alloys is
a) Magnetic flow
b) Ultrasonic
c) Electro-flux
97. When inspecting a component which is subjected to the hot fluid process, the
examination for defects should be carried out
a) Immediately on removal of the item from the chalk cabinet
b) When the item is quite hot
c) When the item is quite cool
101. The higher the gauge number, the .................. the wire diameter.
a) Larger
b) Smaller
c) Longer
102. PVC insulated wiring is no longer used due to its flammability and production of
toxic gases, which are corrosive, during combustion.
a)
b) False
c) True
104. The term ............ as applied to circuit breakers, means the breaker cannot be reset
as long as the overload condition exists.
a) Trouble-free
b) Trip-free
c) Won’t reset
105. Reed switch contacts open or close as a function of being placed in close
proximity to a
a) Fluid substance
b) Electrical source
c) Magnetic field
109. When checking a hydraulic accumulator initial air pressure, the hydraulic system
pressure
a) Should be at the normal working pressure
b) Should be released
c) Is not important
110. If 1500 psi hydraulic pressure is pumped into an accumulator, with a pre-charge
air pressure of 1000 psi the gauge will read
a) 2500 psi
b) 1000 psi
c) 1500 psi
115. The symbol with the skull and crossbones attached to pipelines indicates
a) That these pipelines are only used to carry oxygen
b) The such pipelines must never be used in pressurized areas
c) The injury or damage could result if the laid down precautions are not observed
before disconnecting such a pipe
116. Some types of quill drive incorporate a wasted portion in their length
a) To provide clearance of the splines
b) To allow the drive to shear in the event of component failure
c) To keep the weight factor low
117. To check a flexible pipe for obstruction, fluid should be passed through the pipe
a) In direction of normal flow, at a pressure equivalent to 1.5 times normal working
pressure
b) In the direction indicated on the outer casing at a pressure equal to a 12 inch head
of fluid
c) In both directions, at a pressure equal to a 12 inch head of fluid
120. What would be used to check the bore of a flexible hydraulic pipe
a) A ball bearing 90% of the bore of the end fitting
b) A ball bearing 95% of the bore of the pipe
c) A ball bearing 90% of the bore of the pipe
122. ____ is used to identify aluminum, it turns black when copper is in alloy.
a) Boric acid
b) Nitric acid
c) Caustic soda
123. The three principle types of hydraulic fluid (ester, mineral and vegetable)
a) Are distinguishable by colour
b) Are not distinguishable by colour
c) Are distinguishable by colour only when they come from the same manufacturer
124. A high pressure relief valve, incorporated in a hydraulic system will operate at
a) Normal working pressure to control the hydraulic pump output]
b) A pressure higher than normal working pressure, if the normal pressure limiting
device
c) Less than normal working pressure, to prevent over loading the hydraulic pump
129. Normalizing of solid rivets used in the construction of metal airplanes require
heat treatment at temperature of
a) 359 ± 5°F
b) 495 ± 5°C
c) 495 ± 5°F
132. When is a locking plate used as a locking device in preference to a tab washer?
a) When the nut is removed from an inaccessible place
b) When the nut is removed infrequently
c) When the nut is removed frequently
133. An aluminum alloy, snap head rivet, violet anodic finish with the identification
'O' has a material specification
a) L 86
b) L 18
c) L 37
135. Civil aircraft manufactured in the UK are constructed from parts that have been
a) Tested to destruction
b) Manufactured by British Aerospace
c) Manufactured to approved drawings
136. Corrosion on aluminum: Remove with nylon brush, neutralize with
_____________, protect with aluchrome 1200 and paint 2 layers of zinc
chromate.
a) Citric acid
b) Phosphoric acid
c) Nitric acid
138. For corrosion on _________ use 2 oz chromic & 2 drops of sulphuric acid
a) Magnesium
b) Titanium
c) Aluminium
139. _____ ____on aluminum alloy produces black and on steel brown powder
a) Filiform corrosion
b) Freeting corrosion
c) Exfoliation corrosion
142. Inter granular corrosion is caused by false heat treatment. On stainless steel
exhaust to detect
a) Measure tensile strength
b) Test material hardness
c) Measure magnetic permeability
150. Prior to install a de-iced boot roughen surface and clean with
a) Acetone
b) Varsol
c) MEK
151. Control cables 7x7 or 7x19 are lubed with ________ based lube
a) Carbon
b) Lanolin
c) Ester
156. Chains have no quick detach they are riveted or bolted. Maximum elongation is
a) 10%
b) 2%
c) 5%
166. Flareless B-Nut tighten by hand plus 1/6 to 1/3. Pressure test is _______ working
pressure.
a) Same as
b) 1.5 times
c) 2 times
173. Bending tubes: Fusible alloy to bend (100°C) lubricate before using with
_______. Block bottom and pour melted fusible alloy and immerse in water - let
bubbles out.
a) Oil
b) Naphta
c) Kerosene
174. Tank sealant use PR1431 for surface & PR1422 for filling ; A=_____ B=____ ,
½ must be worked within ½ hour. Cover with EC776 rejuvenator.
a) A = Thick, B = Soft
b) A = Soft, B = Thick
c) A = hard in 1 hour, B = hard in 2 hours
175. Taper pins are used in tubular sections - _____ reamers are used for holes
a) Adjustable
b) Standard
c) Tapered
176. Rivets: A rivet = generic for cabin = plain ; AD rivet 2117 Alu = dimple ; D rivet
2017 Alu = raised dot ;
a) DD rivet 2024 Alu = raised circle
b) DD rivet 2024 Alu = 2 raised dashes
c) DD rivet 2024 Alu = raised X
179. MS20470AD5-12 is mil std 20470 is head shape ; AD = 2117 Alu ; ____ dia ;
12/16" length.
a) 5/8”
b) 5/32”
c) 5/16”
181. Rivet length is total thickness plus allowance. The allowance depends on
a) The material
b) The type of shop head
c) The required strength
186. To drill holes for cutting thread use ______________ for drill size to drill hole
a) Caliper
b) Zeus book or table
c) Ruler
190. TIG welding Tungsten Inert Gas welding or MIG use e.g.
a) Oxygen as inert gas
b) Hydrogen as inert gas
c) Argon as inert gas
191. Soldering: 60% lead & 40% tin plus flux. Soldering iron tip is made of
a) Brass
b) Copper
c) Steel
192. Silver solder is used for ____________ it consists of tin, lead, antimony and
silver
a) General purpose solder
b) Low temp solder
c) High temp solder
193. Brazing: Stick together and
a) Fill gaps
b) Weld together
c) Use inert gas to prevent oxidation
194. O2 cylinders for welding are black and hoses are blue - Acetylene cyl are maroon
and have _______ and hose is red.
a) Withword thread
b) LH thread
c) RH thread
195. Nitrogen bottles are grey with a black neck - air bottles are
a) Black with a white collar
b) Blue
c) gray
200. Alu patches: Solution treat rivets and drive within ________, heat maximum
________.
a) 2 hours and 2 times
b) 3 hours and 2 times
c) 2 hour and 3 times
206. Brinell, Rockwell & Vickers are hardness test methods. Brinell test uses a
a) Diamond
b) Ball
c) Cone
211. __ teeth minimum should always contact when using a hack saw. Teeth should
point forward.
a) 4
b) 3
c) 5
212. Hack saw blades are measured in
a) Teeth per metre
b) Teeth per cm
c) Teeth per inch
217. Rate of cooling and temperature are _________ points of heat treatment
a) Are non-essential
b) Non-critical
c) The critical
218. A caliper with a scale is in inches 0.1" and in 40th 0.025" ; Main scale divisions
= 0.6" (24 x 0.025) = 24/25 is
a) An Old English Caliper
b) A New English Caliper
c) A metric caliper
229. A drawing has 4 signatures: Drawer, Stress engineer, double check for stress &
a) Design engineer
b) Approval
c) Company
230. A drawing must have: Title, Drawing number, issue number and
a) CAA approval
b) Issuing company
c) Date of issue
231. Any changes to a drawing must be accompanied by a new issue number and
a) Approval
b) Date
c) Old issue number
232. Drawings: In all cases where interchangeability is affected _____ drawing is
required
a) A new drawing may be used
b) No new
c) A new
233. Orthographic projection -single part- ha minimum ________ views for drawings
a) 2 dimension
b) 3 dimension
c) 1 dimension
244. After penetrate has been cleaned off apply developer and check for crack and
a) Make a decision
b) Recheck after 20 minutes
c) Recheck after 5 minutes
251. What is the purpose of the cutting edge on the flute of a drill?
a) To assist in cooling
b) To reduce friction
c) To prevent drilling oversize holes
256. For weight and balance passengers, cargo and fuel are
a) Variable load
b) Disposable load
c) Basic weight
257. For weight and balance crew and special equipment are part of
a) Basic weight
b) Disposable load
c) Variable load
258. For weight and balance aircraft and basic equipment are part of
a) Basic weight
b) Disposable load
c) Variable load
259. The leads of a bonding tester
a) Are standard leads
b) Have critical length
c) Must be colour coded
261. Maintenance action which brings units to approved standard to extend operation
life is
a) Repair
b) Overhaul
c) Modification
267. A symmetrical airfoil accelerating through Mach 1. The shock wave forms
a) At the leading edge and moves to the highest point of the chamber
b) At the leading edge and moves to the trailing edge
c) On top and bottom surface and moves aft to the trailing edge
268. A symmetrical airfoil accelerating through Mach 1. The shock wave forms
a) At the highest chamber on both upper and lower surfaces, then travels rearwards
to the trailing edge
b) At the leading edge, then travels along the upper surface to the trailing edge
c) At the leading edge, then travels along the lower surface to the trailing edge
269. The effect at high speed of vortex generators fitted to the upper surface of an
airfoil is
a) Increase M crit.
b) To promote mixing in the boundary layer and delay boundary layer separation
c) To reduce sensitivity to strong gusts
273. The electroplating process that forms oxide film on the surface of aluminium
alloy is known as
a) Anodizing
b) Galvanizing
c) Electroplating
274. The Vernier Height Gauge uses the same principle as the
a) Micrometer
b) Vernier caliper
c) Bevel protractor
284. Which pictorial projection one face in true elevation and lines in depth normally
drawn 30° or 45° to the horizontal
a) Perspective
b) Oblique
c) Isometric
292. When wiring an electrical component to a plug, the live wire is coloured
a) Green/yellow
b) Blue
c) Brown
293. When lifting a bulky component with a wire rope sling, the component can be
protected from damage by the sling by
a) Using a spreader bars and packing
b) Using a suitable shaped sling
c) Fabricating alternative lifting points
301. When manufacturing aircraft control cables, the cable should be cut by
a) A hack saw with the cable under tension
b) Using a chisel on a flat metal surfaces
c) Oxy-acetylene torch
302. When fitting a ball bearing to a shaft it should be carefully positioned using
a) A soft steel or brass tube drift
b) A steel drift with light blows
c) A soft steel brass tube drift
304. To allow for shrinking, vibration and whip all straight hoses must be
a) 2% longer than distance between fittings
b) 3% longer than distance between fittings
c) 5% longer than distance between fittings
307. What action is taken to protect integral tanks from corrosion due to micro-
biological growth?
a) The inside of the tank is coated with yellow chromate
b) Rubber liners are installed in the tanks
c) A biocidal additive is used in the fuel
311. When dissimilar metals are brought together, or the same metal in different
states, one metal forms the anode and the other the cathode. Which one will
suffer from corrosion?
a) The cathode
b) The anode
c) Both will corrode equally
313. Corrosion will spread more rapidly when metals are exposed to
a) High temperature
b) Dry climates
c) Cold climates
320. What type of corrosion attacks grain boundaries of aluminum alloys which are
improperly or inadequately heat treated?
a) Surface
b) Stress
c) Inter granular
322. In order for dye penetrate to be effective, the material being checked must
a) Be non-magnetic
b) Be magnetic
c) Have surface cracks
323. Which of the following metals can be inspected using magnetic particle check?
a) Iron alloys
b) Aluminum alloys
c) Magnesium alloys
324. In the fluorescent penetrate crack test, what period should elapse between
applying the developer and viewing?
a) 5 minutes
b) 15 minutes
c) 10 minutes
325. How are defects indicated in the dye penetrate crack detection test?
a) Yellowish green marks
b) Green lines and dots
c) Red lines on a white background
332. Frost, Ice, Snow and Slush will destroy the capability of an airfoil to create
a) Heat
b) Drag
c) Lift
333. De-icing is the _________ of frozen precipitation from aircraft critical surfaces
a) Removal
b) Protection
c) Correction
334. Another word for anti-icing is
a) Removal
b) Protection
c) Correction
337. Types II and IV fluids in a two step de/anti-icing at 100% are used for
a) Both de and anti icing
b) De-icing
c) Anti-icing
348. One of the three corrosion protection methods is not a chemical process
a) Anodic oxidation
b) Passivation
c) inhibition
353. For which of the following tests paint stripping is not required
a) Eddy current
b) A normal dye penetrate check
c) An ultra violet light dye penetrate check
354. MTOM means
a) Mean Take Off Mass
b) Maximum Take Off Mass
c) Maximum Taxi Operating Mass
358. To enable a composite panel to dissipate static charge it would be sprayed with
a) metallic paint
b) enamel
c) aluminium paint
365. The leads of an ohmmeter should be replaced if their resistance is greater than
a) 0.5 ohms
b) 1 ohm
c) 1.5 ohms
366. The resistance between a flexible hose and a component should not exceed
a) 1 ohm
b) 0.5 ohms
c) 0.05 ohms
368. Before using a bonding tester, the 6 foot lead has the two prongs shorted together
with a piece of metal. What would the the indicator read?
a) The needle is centered
b) Zero to the left
c) Full scale to the right
369. In order to maintain HIRF protection, bonding tests between airframe and
electrical components carrying voltages greater than 50V RMS ac or dc should
not exceed
a) 0.05 ohms
b) 0.5 ohms
c) 1 ohm
370. What is the maximum resistance between the main earth system and a metal plate
on which the earth device is resting?
a) 1 kiloohm / 10 megohm
b) 1 megohm / 10 megohm
c) 0.5 ohms / kiloohm
373. When an engine is not in direct electrical contact with its mounting, it should be
bonded
a) With at least 2 primary connectors, one each side of the engine
b) With at least 3 primary connectors
c) With at least one primary connector
374. When carrying out a serviceability check on a bonding tester short together the
three prongs of both probes and assure the reading is
a) Centered
b) Infinity
c) Zero
375. When an earth return terminal assembly has to be replaced which check must be
carried out
a) Bonding test
b) Bonding and multivolt test
c) Multivolt drop test
376. If the leads of a bonding tester are damaged, what is the procedure
a) Replace leads only
b) Leads should be replaced and tested
c) Leads and tester should be returned to manufacturer for repair and calibration
377. If bridging strips or bonding cards are fractured, what action should be taken?
a) A new conductor should be fitted
b) Should be replaced and tested
c) Should be returned to manufacturer for repair calibration
378. When carrying out a multi-volt drop check on a circuit, what is an approximate
reading?
a) 2 mV for every 10 A flowing
b) 3 mV for every 10 A flowing
c) 5 mV for every 10 A flowing
380. When refueling an aircraft from a tanker, why are the aircraft and the tanker
bonded together?
a) For lightening strike protection
b) To maintain aircraft and tanker on the same electrical potential
c) This is not sufficient, they must also be grounded
381. Effective continuity is not possible unless
a) The portion of the circuit under test constitute a simple parallel circuit with no
series ports
b) The portion of the circuit under test constitute a simple parallel circuit
c) The portion of the circuit under test constitute a simple series circuit with no
parallel ports
382. How would you reduce or remove electrostatic charges which may build up on
fibre glass surfaces?
a) By using bonding studs
b) By using a special conductive paint
c) By imbedding a grounding wire mesh
383. When replacing a bonding connection and the original connector cannot be
matched exactly
a) Use one manufactured from the same type of material, but with a greater cross-
sectional area
b) Use one manufactured from the same type of material, same size
c) Use one manufactured from the same type of material, but with a smaller cross-
sectional area
384. If an insulation resistance tester is operated and the leads are suspended in free
air, what will it read
a) Centered
b) Zero
c) Infinity
385. An insulation test is carried out on a group of cables and a low reading is
obtained
a) Low reading is normal on a group of cables
b) Break down the circuit and do further checks
c) You cannot test a group of cables
387. Immediately after carrying out an insulation check, which of the following
applies
a) The reading observed and the atmospheric conditions at the time should be noted
and compared to the previous reading
b) Atmospheric conditions play only a role in air data computer related circuits
c) Atmospheric conditions do not play a role in insulation testing
388. When carrying out a continuity test on a circuit when a known resistance exists,
what instrument would you use?
a) Megger
b) Ammeter
c) An ohmmeter
389. Whenever using a megger to test insulation resistance, capacitive filters should
be disconnected for what reason?
a) They do not need to be disconnected
b) To prevent capacitive influence on reading
c) To prevent damage to filters
392. When measuring voltage or current with a digital multimeter, the indication is
a) Max values
b) RMS values
c) Normal values
396. Insulation resistance for wiring in undercarriage wheel wells should normally be
not less than
a) 0.5 megohms
b) 1 megohm
c) 2 megohms
398. If the leads of a megger are held apart if the handle was turned it would read
a) Centered
b) Zero
c) Infinity
399. When measuring current in a circuit, the ammeter is placed
a) In parallel to the power source
b) In parallel to the circuit
c) In series
402. The number of dots impressed on the insulation of the pre-insulated connectors
during crimping indicates
a) One dot is ok, more than one dot is no-go!
b) The correct tool was used to effect the connection
c) The incorrect tool was used to effect the connection
403. The pressure of the insulation crimp jaws on the PIDG crimping tool can be
changed by
a) Changing the positions of the pins
b) By using the adjustment screw
c) By changing the head only
409. What is the minimum bend radius of loom adequately supported at a terminal
block?
a) 2x
b) 2.5x
c) 3x
413. When inserting pins into a forward facing connector the inserting tool should be
used with the gap facing
a) The outside of the connector
b) The inside of the connector
c) To the center
414. Which of the following could be a primary cause of HIRF protection failure
a) A running engine
b) The ignition system
c) Broken or missing static wicks
418. Glycol de-ice fluid in contact with a silver cable can cause
a) Corrosion
b) Brittleness of insulation
c) Fire
420. Circuit test on aircraft should be carried out in the following order
a) Continuity, bonding, insulation, function
b) Bonding, continuity, insulation, function
c) Insulation, bonding, continuity, function
421. After the normal function of an individual circuit has been completed and the
circuit is switched off
a) You can work right away on the circuit
b) The fuse should be removed and you can work right away on the circuit
c) The fuse should be removed and the circuit again switched on to check the
isolation of the circuit
422. The maximum operating temperature for a nickel plated copper or aluminium
connector is
a) 220°C
b) 260°C
c) 280°C
424. When using a heat shrink gun, the gun should get to
a) Above the heat shrink value
b) 50° above the heat shrink value
c) 100° above the heat shrink value
425. The type of binding tape used for cables in temperatures above 360° is
a) Nylon
b) Nomex
c) Teflon
426. Can an insulation grip be adjusted on a PIDG crimp tool
a) No, they are preset
b) Depends on the manufacturer
c) Yes, by adjusting the pins
427. Hydraulic crimping tooling after completing crimping, release the crimp
a) When the bypass valve opens
b) Automatically when satisfactory
c) Depends on the manufacturer
434. Walking on a carpet in a low humidity air environment may build up a potential
of
a) 1,500 Volts
b) 3,500 Volts
c) 35,000 Volts
447. After indicator replacement a test with an EGT test set it has to be
a) Not necessary to soak the test set
b) Soaked at ambient and calculate temp allowance
c) Soaked to ambient and calibrate to 20°
449. To confirm correct combination of terminal and crimping tool has been selected
a) Use go-no-go gauge
b) Check for dot cod mark
c) Inspect insulation
453. What is the material on the upper and bottom surface of Alclad
a) Magnesium
b) Aluminium Alloy
c) Aluminium
461. An ac current sinusoidal wave the frequency is 1000Herts what is the periodic
time?
a) 1ms
b) 1000ms
c) 1000s
470. Duplicate inspection is carried out when upsetting controls surface or engine
controls or anything that upset’s the safety of the aircraft by?
a) By aircraft licensed maintenance engineer
b) By aircraft licensed maintenance engineer having CRS coverage
c) By any inspector
471. Brown or black streaks coming from a rivet head would indicate
a) Residue of lubrication
b) Rivets have been inserted with sealant
c) Loose rivets
491. For interior furnishing where no high strength is required type ____ rivets are
used.
a) DD
b) B
c) A
493. For interior furnishing where medium strength is required type ____ rivets are
used.
a) A
b) B
c) AD
497. Ice-box rivets: D - Aluminum alloy, 2017-T should not be exposed to room
temperature for more than
a) 10 minutes
b) 1 hour
c) 2 hours
499. If Ice-box rivets have not been used within two weeks they should be
a) Discarded
b) Inspected and used
c) Re-heat treated
503. When two components are joined together and the back is not accessible
a) Blind rivets are used
b) Pop rivets are used
c) Jo-Bolts are used
504. The absence of a letter following the AN standard number indicates a rivet
manufactured from
a) Mild steel
b) Copper
c) Monel
505. When identifying rivet they have a standard number and part number, the
standard number
a) Describes type of head, material and finish
b) Describes length, diameter, type of head
c) Describes type of head and finish
506. On a rivet the last number(s), separated by a dash from the preceding number,
expresses the length of the rivet shank in
a) 8ths of an inch
b) 32nds of an inch
c) 16ths of an inch
507. On rivets the first number following the material composition letters expresses
the diameter of the rivet shank in
a) 8ths of an inch
b) 32nds of an inch
c) 16ths of an inch
508. On a rivet there are letters and numbers added to a part number. The letters
designate
a) Alloy content
b) Diameter
c) Shape of head
509. Temper designator T of aluminium alloy indicates
a) The metal cannot be heat treated
b) The metal has been annealed
c) The metal may be heat treated
515. The correct size drill to use for a 1/8 inch rivet is a number
a) 20
b) 30
c) 30
516. The shank of a rivet should stick out of the sheet by ____ times the rivet shank
a) 2.5
b) 2
c) 1.5
517. A riveted joint should be designed so it will break in
a) Bearing
b) Shear
c) Tensile
518. A properly formed shop head on a rivet should have a diameter of _____ times
the diameter of the rivet shank
a) 1.5
b) 2
c) 2.5
519. A properly formed shop head on a rivet should have the thickness of _____ times
the shank diameter
a) 1.5
b) 1
c) 0.5
520. The limits for the distance between the centres of adjacent rivets in a stressed
skin patch are between
a) 3 & 10 D
b) 3 & 12 D
c) 4 & 12 D
523. MS2017 Rivets: D aluminium rivets have a _______ and must be heat treated.
a) Raised dot
b) Dimple
c) Two raised dot
524. MS2024 Rivets: DD aluminium rivets have ________________ and must be heat
treated.
a) A raised dot
b) Two raised dashes
c) A dimple
527. If a repair has a double riveted lap joint, what is the shear strength of the sheet
a) 58%
b) 65%
c) 74%
528. If a repair has a double riveted butt joint, what is the shear strength of the sheet
a) 82%
b) 74%
c) 58%
532. In order for dye penetrate to be effective, the material being checked must
a) Be non-magnetic
b) Be magnetic
c) Have surface cracks
533. Which of the following metals can be inspected using magnetic particle check?
a) Iron alloys
b) Aluminum alloys
c) Magnesium alloys
534. In the fluorescent penetrate crack test, what period should elapse between
applying the developer and viewing?
a) 5 minutes
b) 15 minutes
c) 10 minutes
535. How are defects indicated in the dye penetrating crack detection test?
a) Yellowish green marks
b) Green lines and dots
c) Red lines on a white background
539. After penetrate has been cleaned off apply developer and check for crack and
a) Make a decision
b) Recheck after 20 minutes
c) Recheck after 5 minutes
540. Magnetic particle check fluid is
a) Engine oil
b) Kerosene
c) Paraffin oil
541. A non-destructive testing technique which is suitable for light aluminum alloys is
a) Magnetic flow
b) Ultrasonic
c) Electro-flux
542. When inspecting a component which is subjected to the hot fluid process, the
examination for defects should be carried out
a) Immediately on removal of the item from the chalk cabinet
b) When the item is quite hot
c) When the item is quite cool
544. After completion of electro-magnetic crack detection, the test piece must be
a) Allowed to cool room temperatures as slowly as possible
b) De-magnetized before returning to service
c) Allow to lose any residual magnetism over a long a period possible
546. When carrying out dye penetrant inspection, how soon after applying the
developer do you check the results
a) 25 - 90 minutes
b) 15 - 30 minutes
c) 5 - 60 minutes
565. What type of corrosion attacks grain boundaries of aluminium alloys which are
improperly or inadequately heat treated?
a) Surface
b) Stress
c) Inter granular
567. Inter granular corrosion is caused by false heat treatment. On stainless steel
exhaust to detect
a) Measure tensile strength
b) Test material hardness
c) Measure magnetic permeability
568. Crevice corrosion due bad design and
a) Bad sealing
b) Wrong heat treatment
c) To close spacing
572. Inter granular corrosion is caused by false heat treatment. On stainless steel
exhaust to detect
a) Measure tensile strength
b) Test material hardness
c) Measure magnetic permeability
576. When dissimilar metals are brought together, or the same metal in different
states, one metal forms the anode and the other the cathode. Which one will
suffer from corrosion?
a) The cathode
b) The anode
c) Both will corrode equally
577. After welding, stainless steel is susceptible to corrosion known as
a) Weld deterioration
b) Weld rot
c) Weld decay
578. Corrosion will spread more rapidly when metals are exposed to
a) High temperature
b) Dry climates
c) Cool climates
580. The lifting or flaking of the metal at the surface due to delamination of grain
boundaries caused by the pressure of corrosion is
a) Trans granulation
b) Electrolysis
c) Exfoliation
588. Inter granular corrosion is due false heat treatment. On stainless steel exhausts
a) Measure magnetic permeability
b) Perform a magnetic particle check
c) Dye check is sufficient
593. For corrosion on _________ use 2 oz chromic & 2 drops of sulphuric acid
a) Magnesium
b) Titanium
c) Aluminium
594. _____ ____on aluminum alloy produces black and on steel brown powder
a) Filiform corrosion
b) Freeting corrosion
c) Exfoliation corrosion
614. What do you call the effect of light dimpling on a surface of a bearing
a) Calorizing
b) Austeniting
c) Brinelling
616. Roller bearings for _________ radial loads than ball bearings
a) Smaller
b) Same
c) Greater
Module 7.12Transmissions 1 3 -
629. Chains have no quick detatch they are riveted or bolted. Maximum elongation is
a) 10%
b) 5%
c) 2%
631. A or an _______ of pipe diameter steel ball must pass through pipes when bent
or dented
a) 70%
b) 80%
c) 90%
632. A or an _______ of flex hose diameter steel ball must pass through when bent or
at dents
a) 70%
b) 80%
c) 90%
636. Flareless B-Nut tighten by hand plus 1/6 to 1/3. Pressure test is _______ working
pressure.
a) Same as
b) 1.5 times
c) 2 times
643. If a hydraulic pipe required shaping, how would you carry this out
a) After age hardening
b) After annealing
c) As supplied
644. If a flexible hydraulic hose outer cover was cracked
a) The pipe is still serviceable
b) The pipe is unserviceable because it might have restricted flow
c) The pipe is unserviceable because of fire protection
651. Control cables 7x7 or 7x19 are lubed with ________ based lube
a) Carbon
b) Lanolin
c) Ester
659. The sequence of tests carried out on an aircraft electrical circuit is always
a) Continuity, bonding, functional
b) Continuity, insulation, functional
c) Bonding, insulation, continuity
675. Electric weight pads need to be calibrated per JAR OPS every
a) 24 month
b) 36 month
c) 48 month
680. Double ended stone wheel grinders can be used for aluminium, brass and
magnesium on one side
a) True
b) False
687. When splicing cable with a soldered joint, the operation is finished when
a) The solder has melted
b) Solder and insulation have formed
c) When solder sleeve disappears
691. Soldering: 60% lead & 40% tin plus flux. Soldering iron tip is made of
a) Brass
b) Copper
c) Steel
692. Silver solder is used for ____________ it consists of tin, lead, antimony and
silver
a) General purpose solder
b) Low temp solder
c) High temp solder
694. O2 cylinders for welding are black and hoses are blue - Acetylen cyl are maroon
and have _______ and hose is red.
a) Withword thread
b) LH thread
c) RH thread
695. Nitrogen bottles are grey with a black neck - air bottles are
a) Black with a white collar
b) Blue
c) Grey
700. The output of a tacho-generator, used in a servo system for rate feed back,
depends on
a) The resistance of the servo-motor
b) 1control pump output US
c) The speed of rotation of the servo-motor
703. Lowering the undercarriage and flaps increases the profild drag by
a) Raising the minimum drag speed and making slow speed flight more stable
b) Reducing the minimum drag speed and tending to make slow speed flight, more
speed stable
c) Raising the minimum drag speed and making slow speed flight more unstable
704. The drag of a smooth polished aerofoil over which air is passing , is low due to
a) A thicker boundary layer and less skin friction
b) The reduction of induced drag
c) A thinner and less turbulent boundary layer
706. __ teeth minimum should always contact when using a hack saw. Teeth should
point forward.
a) 4
b) 3
c) 5
712. Rate of cooling and temperature are _________ points of heat treatment
a) Are non-essential
b) Non-critical
c) A critical
713. A caliper with a scale is in inches 0.1" and in 40th 0.025" ; Main scale divisions
= 0.6" (24 x 0.025) = 24/25 is
a) An Old English caliper
b) A New English caliper
c) A metric caliper