MEDICAL MT-03 –XI

PHYSICS
1. The distance between the carbon atom and the oxygen atom in a carbon monoxide molecule is 1.4 Å.
Given, mass of carbon atom is 12 a.m.u. and mass of oxygen atom is 16 a.m.u., calculate the position
of the center of mass of the carbon monoxide molecule
(a) 0.6 Å from the oxygen atom (b) 1 Å from the oxygen atom
(c) 0.63 Å from the carbon atom (d) 0.12 Å from the oxygen atom

2. Find the distance of centre of mass from O. The system is combination

of rectangular plate and semi disc.
2r 3r
(a) (b)
(3 − π ) 2(4 − π )

2r 2r
(c) (d)
3(4 + π ) 3(4 − π )

3. A solid iron ball A collides with another stationary solid iron ball B. If the ratio
of radii of the balls is n = 2, then the ratio of their speeds (V A : V B ) just after the
collision (e = 0.5) is :

(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 2 (d) 1

4. The coordinates of the positions of particles of mass 2, 4 kg are (1, 2, –3) cm and (–3, 2, –1) cm
respectively. The position of the centre of mass of the system would be

 15 85 1   −5 −5   15 85 1   15 85 7 
(a)  − , ,  cm (b)  , 2,  cm (c)  , ,−  cm (d)  , ,  cm
 7 17 7   3 3   7 21 7   7 21 3 

5. The moment of inertia of a rod of length l about an axis passing through its centre of mass and
perpendicular to rod is I. The moment of inertia of hexagonal shape formed by six such rods, about an
axis passing through its centre of mass and perpendicular to its plane will be
(a) 16I (b) 40 I (c) 60 I (d) 80 I
6. The moment of inertia of HCl molecule about an axis passing through its centre of mass and
perpendicular to the line joining the H + and Cl − ions will be, if the interatomic distance is 1 Å (take
mass of H+ and Cl– 1 amu and 35.5 amu respectively)
(a) 0.61 × 10 −47 kg. m2 (b) 1.62 × 10–47 kg.m2 (c) 0.061 × 10 −47 kg. m2 (d) 0

7. Two discs of moment of inertia I 1 and I 2 and angular speeds ω 1 and ω 2 are rotating along collinear
axes passing through their centre of mass and perpendicular to their plane in opposite direction. If the
two are made to rotate together along the same axis the rotational KE of system will be

1 1- I 2ω 2) (I 1 + I 2 ) (ω 1 + ω 2 ) 2 (I ω + I ω ) 2
2
(Iω
(a) (b) (c) 1 1 2 2 (d) None of these
2(I 1 + I 2 ) 2 2(I 1 + I 2 )

8. A solid sphere of mass M and radius R rolls without slipping down an inclined plane of length L and
height h. What is the speed of its centre of mass when the cylinder reaches its bottom

3 4 10
(a) gh (b) gh (c) gh (d) 2 gh
4 3 7
9. A wheel completes 2000 rotations in covering a distance of 9.5 km . The diameter of the wheel is

(a) 1.5 m (b) 1.5 cm (c) 7.5 m (d) 7.5 cm

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 Medical MT-02 –XI

10. A small ball moves towards right with a velocity V. It collides with the wall and returns back and
2
continues to and fro motion. If the average speed for first to and fro motion of the ball is   V, then
3
the coefficient of restitution of impact is :

(a) 0.5 (b) 0.8 (c) 0.25 (d) 0.75

11. A disc is undergoing in pure rolling on a horizontal surface, then which of the statement about angular
momentum of the disc is incorrect?
B

vcm

(a) Angular momentum about A is conserved under any situation

(b) Angular momentum about B is conserved only if surface is smooth
(c) Angular momentum about any point on the disc is conserved
(d) None of these
12. A ring of mass of 3 kg rolling with a velocity of 2 m/sec has the same kinetic energy as a mass of 12
kg moving with a velocity of

(a) 8 m/s (b) 0.5 m/s (c) 2 m/s (d) 2 m/s

13. A rod of length 3l is bent as shown in figure. Coordinates of centre of mass are
y-axis

x-axis

 2     4    3   
(a)  ,  (b)  ,  (c)  ,  (d)  , 
 3 3 6 3  4 4  3 6
14. A wheel is rotating with an angular speed of 20 rad / sec . It is stopped to rest by applying a constant
torque in 4 s . If the moment of inertia of the wheel about its axis is 0.20 kg-m2, then the work done by
the torque in two seconds will be
(a) 10 J (b) 20 J (c) 30 J (d) 40 J
15. If the angular momentum of a rotating body is increased by 100%, then its kinetic energy of rotation
will be increased by
(a) 400% (b) 800% (c) 300% (d) 100%
16. A ring, a solid sphere and a thin disc of different masses rotate with the same kinetic energy. Equal
torques are applied to stop them. Which will make the least number of rotations before coming to rest
(a) Disc (b) Ring
(c) Solid sphere (d) All will make same number of rotations

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 MEDICAL MT-03 –XI

17. If a spherical ball is under pure rolling on a table, then the fraction of its total kinetic energy
associated with rotation is
3 2 2 3
(a) (b) (c) (d)
5 7 5 7
18. A flywheel of moment of inertia 0.32 kg-m2 is rotated steadily at 120 rad / sec by a 50 W electric
motor. The kinetic energy of the flywheel is
(a) 4608 J (b) 1152 J (c) 2304 J (d) 6912 J

19. A solid sphere of mass 0.1 kg and radius 2 cm rolls down an inclined plane 1.4 m in length (angle of
inclination is sin–1 (1/10)). Starting from rest its final velocity will be
(a) 1.4 m / sec (b) 0.14 m / sec (c) 14 m / sec (d) 0.7 m / sec

20. A cord is wound round the circumference of wheel of radius r. The axis of the wheel is horizontal and
moment of inertia about it is I. A weight mg is attached to the end of the cord and falls from rest.
After falling through a distance h, the angular velocity of the wheel will be

2gh 2mgh 2mgh

(a) (b) (c) (d) 2gh
I + mr I + mr 2
I + 2mr 2
21. Two particles A and B, initially at rest, move towards each other under a mutual force of attraction. At
the instant when the speed of A is V and the speed of B is 2V, the speed of the centre of mass of the
system is
(a) zero (b) V (c) 1.5V (d) 3V
22. If a particle of mass m 1 approaches of mass m 2 , initially at rest, with speed v 1 , the speed of the cm of
m1v1
the system is v cm = before collision takes place. Then after the collision
m1 + m2
m1v1 m1v1
(a) If collision is elastic vcm = (b) If collision is inelastic vcm =
m1 + m2 m1 + m2

(c) If collision is inelastic v cm = is zero (d) Both (a) and (b)

23. A sphere A of mass m moving with a constant velocity u hits another stationary sphere B of the same
mass. If e is the coefficient of restitution, then ratio of velocity of sphere B to the velocity of sphere A
after the collision will be
1− e 1+ e e +1 e −1
(a) (b) (c) (d)
1+ e 1− e e −1 e +1
24. A ball weighing 5 gm hits a hard surface vertically with a speed of 5 m/s and rebounds with the same
speed. The bal remains in contact with the surface for 0.01 s. The average force exerted by the surface
on the ball is
(a) 100 N (b) 10 N (c) 5 N (d) 0.1 N

25. A uniform sphere is placed on a smooth horizontal surface and a horizontal force F is applied on it at
a distance h above the surface. The angular acceleration of the sphere
(a) is minimum at h = 0 (b) is minimum when h = R
(c) is minimum when h = 2R (d) is independent of h.

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 Medical MT-02 –XI

26. A shell is fired from a cannon with a velocity V at an angle θ with the horizontal direction. At the
highest point in its path, it explodes into two pieces of equal masses. One of the pieces retraces its
path to the cannon. The speed of the other piece immediately after the explosion is
3
(a) 3V cos θ (b) 2V cos θ (c) V cos θ (d) V cos θ
2
27. A body at rest breaks into two pieces of equal masses. The parts will move
(a) in same direction (b) along different lines
(c) in opposite directions with equal speeds (d) in opposite directions with unequal speeds
28. The ratio of linear momenta of two particles of mass 1.0 kg and 9.0 kg if their kinetic energies are
equal is
1 1 1
(a) (b) (c) (d) none of these
2 3 8
 
29. Two particles of masses m 1 and m 2 in projectile motion have velocities v 1 and v 2 respectively at
 
time t = 0. They collide at time t o . Their velocities become v 1 ' and v 2 ' at time 2t o while still moving
   
in air. The value of (m 1 v 1 '+ m 2 v 2 ') − (m 1 v 1 + m 2 v 2 ) is

1
(a) zero (b) (m 1 + m 2 )gt o (c) 2(m 1 + m 2 )gt o (d) (m 1 + m 2 )gt o
2
30. Two blocks of masses 10 kg and 2 kg are connected by a spring of negligible mass and placed on a
frictionless horizontal surface. An impulse gives a velocity of 6 m/s to the heavier block in the
direction of the lighter block. The velocity of the center of mass is
(a) 30 m/s (b) 20 m/s (c) 10 m/s (d) 5 m/s
31. The time period of a satellite in a circular orbit of radius R is T. the period of another satellite in a
circular orbit of radius 4R is
T T
(a) 4T (b) (c) 8T (d)
4 8
32. Mass M is divided into two parts xM and (1 – x)M. For a given separation, the value of x for which
the gravitational attraction between the two pieces becomes maximum is
1 3
(a) (b) (c) 1 (d) 2
2 5
33. What should be the angular speed with which Earth have to rotate about its own axis so that a person
on the equator would weighs zero?

2g 2R 2 R g
(a) (b) (c) (d)
5R 5g 5g R

34. Acceleration due to gravity on moon is 1/6 of the acceleration due to gravity on earth. If the ratio of
ρ  5
densities of earth (ρm ) and moon (ρ e ) is  e  = then radius of moon Rm in terms of Re will be
 ρm  3

5 1 3 1
(a) Re (b) Re (c) Re (d) Re
18 6 18 2 3

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 MEDICAL MT-03 –XI

35. A body is thrown with a velocity equal to n (> 1) times the escape velocity (V e ). Velocity of the body
at a very large distance away will be

(a) v e n 2 − 1 (b) v e n 2 + 1 (c) v e 1 − n 2 (d) None of these

36. The moon's radius is 1/4 that of the earth and its mass is 1/80 times that of the earth. If g represents
the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the earth, that on the surface of the moon is
g g g g
(a) (b) (c) (d)
4 5 6 8
37. If the radius of the earth were to shrink by 2% its mass remaining the same, the acceleration due to
gravity on the earth's surface would
(a) Decrease by 2% (b) Remain unchanged (c) Increase by 2% (d) Increase by 4%
38. Three particles each of mass m are placed at the three corners of an equilateral triangle of side a. The
work which should be done to increase the sides of the triangle to 2a is
3Gm 2 3Gm 2 Gm 2 Gm 2
(a) (b) (c) (d)
a 2a 2a a
39. A planet has mass 1/10 of that of earth, while radius is 1/3 that of earth. If a person can throw a stone
on earth surface to a height of 90m, then he will be able to throw the stone on that planet to a height

(a) 90m (b) 40m (c) 100m (d) 45m

40. A hollow sphere of mass M and radius R is shown in

figure. P

Then the incorrect option is:

Q
(a) Gravitational field is zero at O O R
(b) Gravitational field is zero at P
(c) Gravitational field is zero at Q
−GM
(d) Gravitational potential is at O
R

ASSERTION & REASON

Directions (Q. Nos. 41 to 45): Each question contains Assertion and Reason and has the following choices
(a), (b), (c) and (d), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
(a) Assertion is True, Reason is True, Reason is a correct explanation for Assertion.
(b) Assertion is True, Reason is True, Reason is NOT a correct explanation for Assertion.
(c) Assertion is True, Reason is False.
(d) Assertion is False, Reason is True.
41. Assertion : Gravitational force between two particles is negligibly small compared to the
electrical force.
Reason : The electrical force is experienced by charged particles only.
42. Assertion : The difference in the value of acceleration due to gravity at pole and equator is
proportional to square of angular velocity of earth.
Reason : The value of acceleration due to gravity is minimum at the equator and maximum at
the pole.
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 Medical MT-02 –XI

43. Assertion : For the purpose of calculation of moment of inertia, a body’s mass can be thought to
be concentrated at its centre of mass.
Reason : Moment of inertia is a measure of how the mass is distributed about a certain axis.
44. Assertion : Many great rivers flow toward the equator. The sediments that they carry, increases
the time of rotation of the earth about its own axis.
Reason : The angular momentum of the earth about its rotation axis is conserved.
45. Assertion : When a man raises himself up by pulling down on a horizontal bar as in a
gymnasium, it is work done by the normal reaction from the bar that goes on to
increase his potential energy.
Reason : Normal force applied by the bar on the man is responsible for lifting the centre of
mass of the man.

CHEMISTRY

46. Which of the following statements is false?

(a) Work is a state function.
(b) Temperature is a state function.
(c) Change in the state is completely defined when the initial and final states are specified.
(d) Work appears at the boundary of the system.

47. The equation for the reaction in the figure given below is
H 2 ( g ) + I 2 ( g ) + heat 2 HI ( g )

[HI]
Concentration

[H2]

[I2]
1 2 3
Time (min.)
At time 3 minutes, what change was imposed into the equilibrium?
(a) Pressure was increased (b) Iodine was added to the system
(c) Hydrogen was added to the system (d) Temperature was increased

48. Following reaction occurs at 25oC,

2 NO( g )+ Cl2 ( g )  
  2 NOCl
−2
; the value of ∆G° is
1×10−5 atm 1×10−2 atm 1×10 atm

(a) –45.65 kJ (b) –28.53 kJ (c) –22.82 kJ (d) –57.06 kJ

49. pH of Ba(OH) 2 solution is 12. Its solubility product is

(a) 10–6 M3 (b) 4 × 10–6 M3 (c) 0.5 × 10–7 M3 (d) 5 × 10–7 M3
1
50. H 2 ( g ) + O2 ( g ) 
→ H 2O()
2
B.E. (H–H) = x 1 , B.E. (O=O) = x 2 , B.E. (O–H) = x 3
Latent heat of vapourization of liquid water into water vapour = x 4 , then ∆H f is
x2 x2 x2 x2
(a) x1 + − x3 + x4 (b) 2 x3 − x1 − − x4 (c) x1 + − 2 x3 − x4 (d) x1 + − 2 x3 + x4
2 2 2 2

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 MEDICAL MT-03 –XI

51. A solution is 0.09 M in HCl and 0.09 M in CH 2ClCOOH . The pH of the solution is 1. What is the
K a for CH 2ClCOOH ?
(a) 1.8 × 10−5 (b) 1.25 × 10−2 (c) 3.6 × 10−3 (d) 2.8 × 10−4

52. The approximate heat necessary to raise the temperature of 18.4 gm of ethyl alcohol from 45oC to
55oC at 1 atm pressure (C p = 26.8 cal/mole) is
(a) 53.6 cal (b) 107.2 cal (c) 214.4 cal (d) 536 cal

53. A catalyst
(a) alters the equilibrium in a reaction
(b) does not participates in the reaction but speeds it up
(c) is always in the same phase as the reactants and products
(d) All of the above

54. The basic ionisation constant for hydrazine, N 2 H 4 is 9.6× 10–7. What would be the percent hydrolysis
of 0.1 N 2 H 5 Cl ?
(a) 0.016% (b) 3.2% (c) 1.6% (d) 0.032%

55. Consider the water gas equilibrium reaction,

C ( s ) + H 2O( g )  
  CO( g ) + H 2 ( g )
Which of the following statement is true at equilibrium?
(a) If the amount of C(s) is increased, less H 2 O would be formed.
(b) If the amount of C(s) is increased more CO and H 2 would be formed.
(c) If the volume of the system is halved, more water vapour would be formed.
(d) On variation of pressure or volume at constant temperature, the amount of components in system
will be unaffected.

56. If ice is melted at 240 K, the value of ∆H , ∆S and ∆G must be respectively

(a) –ve, +ve, +ve (b) +ve, +ve, +ve (c) +ve, –ve, +ve (d) +ve, –ve, –ve

57. The heat of combustion of CH 4 (g), C graphite , H 2 (g) are –20 kcal/mol, –40 kcal/mol, –10 kcal/mol
respectively. The heat of formation of methane is
(a) 80.0 kcal (b) +8 kcal (c) –40.0 kcal (d) +40 kcal

58. Which of the following combinations will act as a buffer

(a) NH 3 + HCl (molar ratio 2:1) (b) CH 3 COOH, NaOH (Molar ratio 1:2)
(c) HCl + NaCl (d) NaOH + CH 3 COOH (1:1 molar ratio)

59. Find the work done when 18 gm water vaporises at 100°C. Density of water at this temperature is 1
gm/ml
(a) 1.006 KJ (b) 4.63 KJ (c) 3.058 KJ (d) 4.938 KJ

60. The following two reactions:

  PCl3 ( g ) + Cl2 ( g ) and
(i) PCl5 ( g )  
  CO( g ) + Cl2 ( g )
(ii) COCl2 ( g )  
are simultaneously in equilibrium in an equilibrium box at constant volume. A few moles of CO(g)
are later introduced into the vessel. After some time, the new equilibrium concentration of
(a) PCl 5 will remain unchanged (b) Cl 2 will be greater
(c) PCl 5 will become greater (d) PCl 5 will become less

61. The heat of combustion of yellow phosphorus and red phosphorus are –9.91 kJ/mol and –8.78 kJ/mol
respectively. The heat of transition from yellow phosphorus to red phosphorus is
(a) –1.13 kJ (b) –18.69 kJ (c) +18.69 kJ (d) +1.13 kJ

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 Medical MT-02 –XI

62. 0.30 mole of N 2 O 4 is allowed to equilibrate in a 4 litre vessel. If x mole of N 2 O 4 dissociates and 0.4
mole of NO 2 is present at equilibrium in the reaction, N 2O4 ( g )  
  2 NO2 ( g ),
which of the following is correct expression for the equilibrium constant?
x2 2 x2 x2 x2
(a) K = (b) K = (c) K = (d) K =
1.2 − 4 x 0.3 − x 1.2 − 2 x 0.3 − x

63. Heat of neutralization of four monobasic acids A, B, C and D are −13.7, − 9.4, − 11.2 and
– 12.4 Kcal / mole respectively, when they are neutralized by a common base. The acidic character
obeys the order
(a) A > B > C > D (b) A > D > C > B (c) D > C > B > A (d) D > B > C > A

64. Consider the following two gaseous equilibria at a definite temperature.

1
(i) AB ( g ) + B2 ( g )   1  2 AB ( g ) + B2 ( g )
K K2
 AB2 ( g ) (ii) 2 AB2 ( g )   
2
If K1 & K 2 are the equilibrium constants for the reactions (i) & (ii) respectively then the relation
between K1 & K 2 is
(a) K1 . K 2 = 1 (b) K12 = K 2 (c) K12 . K 2 = 1 (d) K12 = K 2 (0.5)
65. CaCO 3 (s) CaO(s) + CO 2 (g)
For the above equilibrium, which is correct?
(a) Equilibrium will shift in forward direction by addition He at constant volume
(b) Equilibrium will shift in forward direction by addition of He at constant pressure
(c) Equilibrium with shift in backward direction by addition of He at constant volume
(d) Equilibrium will shift in backward by addition of He at constant pressure
66. Which of the following graphs represent exothermic reaction?

InKp InKp
(a) (b)

1 1
T T

InKp InKp
(c) (d)

1 1
T T
67. A reaction occurs spontaneously if
(a) T ∆S < ∆H and both ∆H and ∆S are +ve (b) T ∆S > ∆H and both ∆H and ∆S are +ve
(c) T ∆S =∆H and both ∆H and ∆S are +ve (d) T ∆S > ∆H and ∆H is +ve and ∆S is –ve
68. 100 ml of acidic solution (pH = 6) is diluted to 1000 ml by adding water, pH will increase by
(a) 7 units (b) 0.7 unit (c) 1 unit (d) – 0.7 unit
69. For the reaction
N 2 ( g ) + O2 ( g )  2 NO( g )
The equilibrium constant is K 1 . The equilibrium constant is K 2 for this reaction
1
2 NO + O2 ( g )  2 NO2 ( g ) . What is K for this reaction NO2 ( g )  N 2 ( g ) + O2 ( g ) .
2
1
1 1 1  1 2
(a) (b) (c) (d)  
( K1 K 2 ) (2 K1 K 2 ) (4 K1 K 2 )  K1 K 2 
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 MEDICAL MT-03 –XI
++ - ++
70. In the equilibrium CaF 2 Ca + 2F , the [Ca ] is increased 4 times, then the fluoride ion
concentration will
(a) Increases four times
(b) Increases two times
(c) Decreases to one fourth of its original concentration
(d) Decreases to half of its original concentration

71. For the reaction

2C 8 H 18 (g) + 25O2 16CO 2 (g) + 18H 2 O(g)
gas

the forward reaction is favoured by

(a) low pressure & high temperature (b) low pressure & low temperature
(c) high pressure & low temperature (d) high pressure & high temperature

72. The solubility product of A 2 X 3 is 1.08 × 10–23. Its solubility will be

(a) 1 × 10–3 (b) 1 × 10–6
(c) 1 × 10–4
(d) 1 × 10–5

73. Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer from the code
List – I List – II
Electrolyte Solubility Product
a. Bi 2 S 3 (i) 4s3
b. CdS (ii) 27s4
c. Al(OH) 3 (iii)108s5
d. CaF 2 (iv) s2

Code:
a b c d
(a) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(b) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(c) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(d) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)

74. Consider the general hypothetical reaction

A (s) 2B (g) + 3C (g)
If the concentration of C at equilibrium is doubled, then after the equilibrium is re – established, the
concentration of B will be
1
(a) two times the original value (b) times the original value
2 2
(c) one half of its original value (d) 2 2 times the original value

75. Which acts both as Lowry Bronsted acid and base?

(a) CO32 − (b) H 3 O+ (c) BF 3 (d) HSO4−

76. If ionic product of water is 1×10-14 at 25°C, what is the ionization constant of water at the same
temperature?
(a) 10-14 (b) 1.8×10-16 (c) 1×10-7 (d) 3.2×10-12

77. In a two step exothermic reaction A2 ( g ) + B2 ( g )  st  3C ( g )  nd   D( g )

1 step 2 step

Step I & II are favoured respectively by

(a) high pressure, high temperature & low pressure, low temperature.
(b) low pressure, low temperature & high pressure, low temperature.
(c) high pressure, low temperature & low pressure, high temperature.
(d) Low pressure, high temperature & high pressure, high temperature.

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 Medical MT-02 –XI

78. Among the following statements which is true?

(a) K w is independent of temperature (b) At 65°C, pH of water is not equal to 7
(c) pK w increases with temperature (d) pH + pOH = 14, at all temperatures

79. The position of equilibrium lies to the right in each of these reactions
N 2 H 5 + + NH 3 NH 4 + + N 2 H 4
NH 3 + HBr NH 4 + + Br-
N 2 H 4 + HBr N 2 H 5 + Br-
+

Based on this information, what is the order of acidic strength?

(a) HBr > N 2 H 5 + > NH 4 + (b) N 2 H 5 + > N 2 H 5 > NH 4 +
(c) NH 3 > N 2 H 4 > Br (d) N 2 H 5 > HBr > NH 4 +
- +

80. The sodium salt of which of the following four weak acids will be most hydrolysed?
(a) HA ( K a = 10−8 ) (b) HB (K a = 2 × 10−6 )
(c) HC (K a = 3 × 10−7 ) (d) HD (K a = 4 × 10−10 )

81. Which of the following will have nearly equal [H+] concentration?
(i) 100 ml of 0.1 M HCl mixed with 50 ml of water
(ii) 50 ml of 0.1 M H 2 SO 4 mixed with 50 ml of water
(iii) 50 ml of 0.1 M H 2 SO 4 mixed with 100 ml of water

(iv) 50 ml of 0.1 M HCl mixed with 50 ml of water

(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) and (iii) (c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (i) and (iv)

82. Total number of H+ ions contained in 1 ml of a solution with pH = 13, are

(a) 6.02 × 1010 (b) 6.02 × 109 (c) 6.02 × 108 (d) 6.02 × 107

83. The pH of a 0.02 M aqueous solution of NH 4Cl ( pK b = 4.73) is equal to

(a) 3.78 (b) 4.73 (c) 5.48 (d) 7.00

84. For an infinitesimal expansion of a gas in a cylinder piston system, the work done by the system will
be maximum in case
(a) the temperature of system remains constant during expansion of ideal gas
(b) the temperature of both system and surrounding are same
(c) of isolated system
(d) of isothermal expansion of non-ideal gas

85. A 3 mol sample of a triatomic ideal gas at 300 K is allowed to expand under isobaric adiabatic
condition from 5 L to 40 L. The value of ∆H is
(a) -12.46 KJ (b) -14.965 KJ (c) - 24.62 KJ (d) - 10.24 KJ

Assertion & Reason

Directions : These questions consists of two statements each, printed as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). While
answering these questions you are required to choose any one of the following four responses.
(a) If both Assertion and the Reason are true and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both the Assertion and the Reason are true but the Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If the Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
(d) If both the Assertion and the Reason are false.

86. Assertion : A catalyst (positive) decreases energy of activation of the reaction without changing
the position of equilibrium.
Reason : By changing the concentration of any of the reactant or product species, the position
of equilibrium may change but equilibrium constant will remain the same provided
temperature remains constant.

10 P ACE MEDICAL: De lh i & NCR / Mu m b a i / Ako la / Lu c kn ow / Na s h ik / Go a / Ra ib a reilly / P u n e / Ko lka ta / P a tn a / Ka n p u r / Bo ka ro

 MEDICAL MT-03 –XI

87. Assertion : The equilibrium (given below) attained in a closed vessel remains unaltered by the
addition of CaCO 3(s) .
CaCO3 (s) CaO(s) + CO 2↑
Reason : The active mass of a solid is a constant independent of its mass and is always taken
to be unity.

88. Assertion : The solubility of AgCl in water decreases if NaCl is added to it

Reason : NaCl is highly soluble in water where as AgCl is sparingly soluble
89. Assertion : Heat of neutralization of HCl by NaOH is more than that by NH4OH
Reason : NaOH is stronger base than NH4OH.
90. Assertion : The value of K gives us a relative idea about the extent to which a reaction proceeds.
Reason : The value of K is independent of the stochiometry of reactant and products at the
point of equilibrium.

BOTANY
91. Most of the monocots are devoid of
(a) Phloem fibres. (b) Phloem parenchyma. (c) Mesophyll in leaves. (d) Sieve tubes.
92. Which of the following is true.
(a) Meiosis involves a single cycle of DNA replication.
(b) Meiosis 2 is initiated after the parental chromosomes have replicated to produce identical sister
chromatids at S phase.
(c) Meiosis involves pairing of non-homologous chromosomes.
(d) Meiosis does not involve reductional division.
93. Which of the following minerals/elements cannot be easily mobilised in plants:
(a) Phosphorous. (b) Calcium. (c) Nitrogen (d) Potassium.
94. Which of the following is primarily composed of calcium pectate
(a) Primary cell wall of plant cells. (b) Bacterial cell wall.
(c) Flagella of bacteria. (d) Middle lamella of plants cells.
95. Lenticels present in woody trees help in
(a) Exchange of gases and transpiration. (b) Exchange of gases and guttation.
(c) Only exchange of gases. (d) Elimination of exudates.
96. Find the incorrect statement about mineral elements.
(a) Minerals always enter into plant via root.
(b) More than 60 elements out of the known 105 elements is reported from plant.
(c) Plants growing near radioactive site accumulates strontium.
(d) Techniques are available which can detect minerals at very low concentration as low as
10-8 g/mL.
97. Which of the following are considered as part of the endomembrane system of cell
(a) Endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi bodies, lysosomes, vacuole.
(b) Endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi bodies, mitochondria, chloroplast.
(c) Endoplasmic reticulum, mitochondria, chloroplast.
(d) lysosomes, vacuole, peroxisomes.
98. Find the wrong match
(a) Amyloplast: Starch (b) Aleuroplast: Oil globules
(c) Elaioplast: Fats (d) Chromoplast: Carotenoids
99. The cells of endodermis in roots
(a) Have intercellular spaces filled with waxy material called suberin.
(b) Have thickenings of suberin in tangential as well as radial walls.
(c) Lie inner to the pericycle.
(d) Give rise to lateral roots.
P ACE MEDICAL: De lh i & NCR / Mu m b a i / Ako la / Lu c kn ow / Na s h ik / Go a / Ra ib a reilly / P u n e / Ko lka ta / P a tn a / Ka n p u r / Bo ka ro 11
 Medical MT-02 –XI

100. The cells shown in the below diagram are of ______ tissue and can be seen
in ______ layer of the dicot stem.

(a) Collenchyma, Hypodermis. (b) Sclerenchyma, Sclereids.

(c) Parenchyma, Pericycle. (d) Parenchyma, Pith.

101. Which of the following is not membrane bound?

(a) Ribosomes. (b) Food vacuole in Paramecium.
(c) Contractile vacuole in Amoeba. (d) Lysosomes.
102. Match the following :
Elements Functions
(1) Mg2+ and PO43− (A) Osmotic potential
(2) C, H, O and N (B) Energy metabolism
(3) K+ (C) Structural element of cell
(4) Zn2+ (D) Activator of alcohol dehydrogenise
Options :
1 2 3 4
(a) B C A D
(b) D C B A
(c) B C D A
(d) D C A B
103. The monocot leaves have parallel veination this is reflected in
(a) Presence of stomata in the lower epidermis. (b) Conjoint vascular bundles.
(c) Nearly similar sizes of vascular bundles. (d) Leaves being isobilateral.
104. In the diagram below of mechanism of translocation
the sugar solution flows
(a) Towards Regions Of High Osmotic Pressure.
(b) Towards Regions Of Low Osmotic Pressure.
(c) By mass flow not affected by osmotic pressure
gradient.
(d) From sink to source.

105. Which of the following statements is not true with regard to mesosomes?
(a) They help in cell division of prokaryotes.
(b) They play an important role in cell respiration of prokaryotes.
(c) They help in photosynthesis in photosynthetic prokaryotes.
(d) They primarily increase the surface area of plasma membrane.
106. Which of the following statements regarding root pressure is correct:
(a) Root pressure plays a major role in water movement in tall trees.
(b) Root pressure is high during night.
(c) Root pressure helps to re-establish continuous chains of water molecules in xylem.
(d) Root pressure accounts for majority of water transport.
107. Water loss from hydathodes takes place mostly
(a) From special openings of veins. (b) When transpiration rate is high.
(c) When root pressure is negligible. (d) During afternoons.

108. Which of the following is not correctly matched?

(a) Companion cell – Albuminous cells in gymnosperm
(b) Companion cell – Associated with sieve cells
(c) Companion cell – Nucleated structure and its nucleus controls sieve tube
(d) Companion cell – Helps in maintaining the pressure gradient in sieve tube

12 P ACE MEDICAL: De lh i & NCR / Mu m b a i / Ako la / Lu c kn ow / Na s h ik / Go a / Ra ib a reilly / P u n e / Ko lka ta / P a tn a / Ka n p u r / Bo ka ro

 MEDICAL MT-03 –XI

109. A large number of proteins made by the ribosomes get modified in

(a) Lysosomes. (b) Trans face of Golgi apparatus.
(c) Cisternae of Golgi apparatus. (d) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum.
110. Which stage is being described here: At this stage the chromosomes align at equator and the
microtubules from the opposite poles of the spindle get attached to the kinetochores of sister
chromatids.
(a) Metaphase 1 of meiosis. (b) Metaphase 2 of meiosis.
(c) Prophase 2 of meiosis. (d) Anaphase 1 of meiosis.
111. Which of the following is a not primary meristem
(a) Apical meristem. (b) Intercalary meristem.
(c) Interfascicular cambium. (d) Intrafascicular cambium.
112. Semilunar patches of sclerenchyma in the dicot stem can be seen
(a) Above the phloem. (b) In between the vascular bundles.
(c) In the pith. (d) In between phloem and xylem.
113. Which of the following statements is not true with regard to chloroplast?
(a) The inner membrane of the organelle is less permeable than the outer membrane.
(b) The grana thylakoids contain pigments and are arranged in stacks.
(c) Most of the enzymes for photosynthetic reactions are present in stroma.
(d) The stroma contains ds circular DNA molecules and 80s ribosomes.
114. The term bark refers to
(a) All living tissue lying exterior to vascular cambium.
(b) All dead tissue lying exterior to vascular cambium.
(c) All living and dead tissue lying exterior to vascular cambium.
(d) All tissues lying exterior to vascular cambium except secondary phloem.
115. Conjunctive tissue is
(a) Layer of parenchymatous cells between protoxylem and metaxylem in dicot root.
(b) Layer of parenchymatous cells between xylem and phloem in dicot root.
(c) Layer of sclerenchymatous cells in the pericycle of roots.
(d) Layer of suberized cells in the endodermis.
116. The cell organelle showing extensive polymorphism is.
(a) Ribosomes. (b) Chloroplast (c) Lysosomes. (d) Golgi bodies.

117. Among Nitrogen, Phosphorus, Potassium and Calcium how many of them is required by meristematic
tissue :
(a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 1
118. Which of the following movement of water as it travels through the cells is helped by cytoplasmic
streaming.
(a) Symplastic movement
(b) Apoplastic movement.
(c) Both Symplastic and Apoplastic movement
(d) Neither Symplastic nor Apoplastic movement.
119. The heartwood in trees
(a) Is dead but conducts water. (b) Is dead and does not conduct water.
(c) Is living and gives mechanical support. (d) Surrounds the sap wood.
120. The bulliform cells in grasses
(a) Are present on the upper epidermis of leaves.
(b) Become turgid and cause the leaves to curl inwards under stress.
(c) Are small resin filled cells.
(d) Help in transpiration.

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 Medical MT-02 –XI

121. In monocot roots the vascular bundles are

(a) Collateral, endarch and closed. (b) Collateral, exarch and closed.
(c) Radial, exarch and open. (d) Radial, exarch and closed.
122. The diagram below is transverse section of ______ and shows
xylem which is ______.
(a) Dicot stem, Endarch.
(b) Dicot stem, Exarch.
(c) Monocot Root, Polyarch.
(d) Dicot Root, Endarch.

123. The concentration of essential element below which plant growth is retarded is known as ?
(a) Essential concentration (b) Critical concentration
(c) Substantial concentration (d) Superficial concentration
124. Enzyme recombinase helps in
(a) Cytokinesis. (b) Crossing over.
(c) Amitosis. (d) Formation of Synaptonemal complex.
125. Which type of transport mechanism is highly selective and requires ATP energy.
(a) Active transport. (b) Facilitated transport.
(c) Simple diffusion. (d) Both Active transport and Facilitated transport.

126. Deficiency of which group will lead to chlorosis along with necrosis
(a) Mg and K (b) Mg and P (c) P and K (d) K and Fe
127. Porins are proteins that form huge pores in the outer membranes of
(a) Plastids. (b) Mitochondria. (c) Bacteria. (d) All of the above.
128. Which of the following is correct with regard to monocot stem.
(a) Monocot stems have a well-developed collenchymatous hypodermis.
(b) The vascular bundles are surrounded by a sclerenchymatous bundle sheath.
(c) The cortex is differentiated into endodermis and pericycle.
(d) The vascular bundles are conjoint and open.

129. In the cell cycle shown below, the stage marked as 3 is:
(a) S stage where DNA replication occurs.
(b) G 1 stage where metabolism and growth occurs.
(c) G 2 stage where proteins for mitosis are synthesised.
(d) The interphase.

130. In the diagram given below, showing the

pathway of water movement in the root
recognize the parts marked.
(a) X → hydathodes, Y → lignin
thickening.
(b) X → plasmodesmata, Y → lignin
thickening.
(c) X → plasmodesmata, Y → casparian
strip.
(d) X → cytoplasmic streaming, Y →
casparian strip.

14 P ACE MEDICAL: De lh i & NCR / Mu m b a i / Ako la / Lu c kn ow / Na s h ik / Go a / Ra ib a reilly / P u n e / Ko lka ta / P a tn a / Ka n p u r / Bo ka ro

 MEDICAL MT-03 –XI

Assertion & Reason

In the following questions a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R)..
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion, then
mark (a).
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion, then
mark (b).
(3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is false, then mark (c).
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false statements, then mark (d).

131. Assertion : Most minerals enter the roots by passive absorption into the cytoplasm of epidermal
cells.
Reason : The concentration of minerals in the soil is higher than concentration of minerals in
the roots.

132. Assertion : The C 4 plants are more efficient than C 3 plants.

Reason : They have strategy for maximising availability of CO 2 while minimising water loss.

133. Assertion : Phloem is the tissue responsible for translocation of food.

Reason : In a girdled tree, the portion of bark below the ring on the stem becomes swollen after
a few weeks.
134. Assertion : The flagella in bacterial cells shows 9+2 arrangement of microtubules.
Reason : The microtubules are made up of protein keratin.

135. Assertion : During the synthesis phase of the cell cycle, DNA replication takes place.
Reason : There is increase in chromosome number as well as in the amount of DNA per cell.

ZOOLOGY
136. Mark the incorrect statement about ammonia
A. Many bony fishes and aquatic arthropods are ammonotelic
B. Ammonia is readily soluble in water
C. Can be eliminated as ammonium ions through gill surface
D. Kidneys play very significant role in its removal
(a) A and B (b) B and C (c) Only D (d) Only B
137. A chordate animal having flame cells as excretory structures
(a) Amphioxus (b) Aptenodytes (c) Asterias (d) Apteryx
138. Kidneys are located between______and to the _______
A. Last thoracic and third lumbar vertebrae
B. Dorsal Inner wall of the abdominal cavity
C. First thoracic and last thoracic vertebrae
D. Ventral inner wall of the abdominal cavity.
(a) A and B (b) B and C (c) C and D (d) A and D
139. Vasa recta is a minute vessel of efferent arteriole which runs parallel to the Henle’s loop. It is
A. Absent or reduced in cortical nephron
B. Absent or reduced in juxtamedullary nephron
C. Present and long in cortical nephron
D Present or reduced in juxtamedullary nephron
Mark the correct options
(a) A and B (b) Only A (c) B and C (d) Only D
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 Medical MT-02 –XI

140. Podocytes are

(a) Epithelial cells of Bowman’s capsule
(b) Cells of basement membrane between two layers
(c) Endothelium of glomerular blood vessels
(d) Present in proximal convoluted tubule
141. Tubule lined by simple cuboidal brush border epithelium which increases the surface area for
reabsorption is
(a) Collecting duct (b) Henle’s loop (c) DCT (d) PCT
+
142. Conditional reabsorption of Na and water takes place in this segment
(a) Henle’s loop (b) Collecting duct (c) PCT (d) DCT
143. ANF can cause
(a) Vasodilation and decreases the blood pressure
(b) Vasodilation and increases the blood pressure
(c) Vasoconstriction and decreases the blood pressure
(d) Vasoconstriction and increases the blood pressure
144. Besides kidneys, lungs are also efficient in eliminating excretory waste and can remove-
(a) CO 2 only (b) H 2 O (c) CO 2 and H 2 O (d) Ammonia
145. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) The medullary zone of kidney is divided into a few conical masses called medullary pyramids
projecting into the calyces.
(b) Inside the kidney the cortical region extends in between the medullary pyramids as renal pelvis.
(c) Glomerulus along with Bowman’s capsule is called the renal corpuscle
(d) Renal corpuscle, proximal convoluted tubule (PCT) and distal convoluted tubule (DCT) are
situated in the cortical region of kidney.
146. The principal nitrogenous excretory compound in humans is synthesized
(a) In the liver but eliminated mostly through kidneys.
(b) In kidneys but eliminated mostly through liver.
(c) In kidneys as well as eliminated by kidneys.
(d) In liver and also eliminated by through bile.
147. Which one of the following statements in regard to the excretion by the human kidneys is correct?
(a) Ascending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to electrolytes.
(b) Descending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to water.
(c) Distal convoluted tubule is incapable of reabsorbing HCO 3 –.
(d) Nearly 99% of the glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed by the renal tubules.
148. Which one of the following human cells does not contain mitochondria?
(a) Nerve cell (b) Red blood cell (c) Liver cell (d) White blood cell
149. Foramen ovale
(a) Connects the two atria in the foetal heart
(b) Is a condition in which the heart valves do not completely close
(c) Is a shallow depression in the interventricular septum
(d) Is a connection between the pulmonary trunk and the aorta in the foetus

16 P ACE MEDICAL: De lh i & NCR / Mu m b a i / Ako la / Lu c kn ow / Na s h ik / Go a / Ra ib a reilly / P u n e / Ko lka ta / P a tn a / Ka n p u r / Bo ka ro

 MEDICAL MT-03 –XI

150. If due to some injury the chordae tendinae of the tricuspid valve of the human heart are partially non-
functional, what will be the immediate effect?
(a) The flow of blood into the aorta will be increased
(b) The ‘pace maker’ will stop working
(c) The blood will tend to flow back into the left atrium
(d) The flow of blood into the pulmonary artery will be reduced
151. Blood leaving the liver and going towards heart is rich in
(a) Bile (b) Urea (c) Ammonia (d) Oxygen
152. Papillary muscles are found in mammalian
(a) Auricles (b) Ventricles (c) Kidney (d) Urinary bladder
153. Which one of the following has an open circulatory system?
(a) Pheretima (b) Periplaneta (c) Nereis (d) Octopus
154. Which one of the following is matching pair?
(a) Lubb Sharp closure of AV valves at the beginning of ventricular systole.
(b) Dub Sudden opening of semilunar valves at the beginning of ventricular diastole.
(c) Pulsation of the radial artery Valves in the blood vessels
(d) Initiation of the heart beat Purkinje fibres
155. An artificial pacemaker is implanted subcutaneously and connected to the heart in patients
(a) Having 90% blockage of the three main coronary arteries
(b) Having a very high blood pressure
(c) With irregularity in the heart rhythm
(d) Suffering from arteriosclerosis
156. Which of the following statements is true for lymph?
(a) WBCs and serum are absent
(b) All components of blood except RBCs and some proteins are present
(c) RBCs, WBCs and plasma are present
(d) RBCs, proteins and platelets are present
157. What happens when the pacemaker is non-functional?
(a) only the auricles will contract rhythmically
(b) the cardiac muscles do not contract in a coordinated manner rhythmically
(c) only ventricles will contract rhythmically
(d) cardiac muscle will contract simultaneously
158. Pulse beat is measured from
(a) Arteries (b) Veins (c) Capillaries (d) Nerves
159. A substance present over the surface of RBCs and is genetically heritable is called as
(a) Immunoglobulin (b) Hemoglobin (c) Antibody (d) Agglutinin

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 Medical MT-02 –XI

160. Identify A to D in the figure-

A B C D

(a) Cortex Calyx Renal Column Ureter

(b) Calyx Cortex Renal Column Ureter

(c) Medulla Cortex Renal Column Urethra

(d) Calyx Cortex Renal Column Urethra

161. The following diagram represents the Malpighian body. Identify A to D

(a) A – Efferent arteriole, B – Afferent arteriole, C – Bowman's capsule, D – Proximal convulated

tubule
(b) A – Afferent arteriole, B – Efferent arteriole, C – Renal corpuscle, D – Proximal convulated tubule
(c) A – Afferent arteriole, B – Efferent arteriole, C – Bowman's capsule, D – Proximal convulated
tubule
(d) A – Afferent arteriole, B – Efferent arteriole, C – Bowman's capsule, D – Distal convoluted
Tubule
162. Formed elements of the blood are composed of
(a) Erythrocytes, Leucocytes and Platelets
(b) Granulocytes, Platelets and Erythrocytes
(c) Agranulocytes,Erythrocytes and Platelets
(d) Granulocytes, Agranulocytes and Erythrocytes
163. Mark the incorrect match?
(a) Haemoglobin = 12 − 16 gms/100 ml of blood
(b) Leucocytes = 6000 − 8000 mm3 of blood
(c) Neutrophils and Monocytes = 12 − 16 percent
(d) Erythrocytes = 5 million − 5.5 million mm−3

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164. Histamine, Serotonin and heparin are secreted by

(a) Monocytes (b) Erythrocytes (c) Basophils (d) Neutrophils
165. If megakaryocytes are not formed in the bone marrow, than which of the following would not be
produced
(a) Platelets (b) Erythrocytes (c) Neutrophils (d) Basophils
166. If the heart beats 75 times per minute, then calculate the cardiac output.
(a) 5250 ml (b) 5040 ml (c) 5000 ml (d) 4900 ml
167. “Dub” is associated with the closure of the …… valves
(a) Tricuspid valve (b) Biscuspid valve (c) Mitral valve (d) Semilunar valves
168. Which of the following is a standard ECG?

(a) (b)

(c) (d)

169. Cardiac output is increased by (i) and (ii) and decreased by (iii). Find out (i), (ii) and (iii).
(a) (i) Sympathetic nerve, (ii) Adrenal medullary hormones (iii) Parasympathetic signal
(b) Adrenal medullary hormones, (ii) Parasympathetic signal, (iii) Sympathetic
(c) (i) Parasympathetic, (ii) Sympathetic (iii) Adrenal medullary hormones
(d) (i) Adrenal cortical hormones (ii) Parasympathetic signal (iii) Sympathetic
170. Match the following
A. Angina (i) damage of heat muscle
B. Heart failure (ii) chest pain
C. Cardiac arrest (iii) congestion of the lungs
D. Heart attack (iv) heart stops beating
(a) A –(ii), B –(iii), C –(iv), D –(i) (b) A –(iii), B –(iv), C –(ii), D –(i)
(c) A –(ii), B –(iv), C –(i), D –(iii) (d) A –(ii), B –(i), C –(iv), D –(iii)
171. Which one is not correct?
(a) Humans-Ureotelic (b) Birds-Uricotelic
(c) Lizards-Uricotelic (d) Whale-Ammonotelic
172. All Bowman’s capsules of the kidney are found in
(a) Pelvis (b) Medulla (c) Cortex (d) Calyces
173. ECG is a measure of-
(a) Rate of heart beat (b) Difference in electrical potential
(c) Volume of blood pumped (d) Ventricular contraction

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 Medical MT-02 –XI

174. Erythropoietin is secreted from-

(a) Pituitary gland (b) Distal tubule (c) Adrenal gland (d) Kidney
175. Dark reddish brown scum formed at the site of a cut or an injury over a period of time is called
(a) Serum (b) Coagulum (c) Antigen (d) Immunoglobulin
Assertion & Reason
(a) If both Assertion and the Reason are true and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both the Assertion and the Reason are true but the Reason is not a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(c) If the Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
(d) If both the Assertion and the Reason are false.
176. Assertion : Plasma of different individuals contain two natural antibodies.
Reason : Proteins are produced in response to antigens
177. Assertion : Rh antigens of the foetus get exposed to the Rh −ve blood of the mother in the first
pregnancy.
Reason : Maternal & foetal blood are not well separated by the placenta.
178. Assertion : Cardiac output of an athlete is much higher than that of an ordinary man.
Reason : The body has the ability to alter the stroke volume as well as the heart rate.
179. Assertion : Atrial natriuretic factor is released by wall of atria
Reason : It inhibits the release of renin from juxta glomerular apparatus.
180. Assertion : Smaller the organism higher is the rate of metabolism per gram weight.
Reason : The heart rate of six months old baby is much higher than that of an old person.

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20 P ACE MEDICAL: De lh i & NCR / Mu m b a i / Ako la / Lu c kn ow / Na s h ik / Go a / Ra ib a reilly / P u n e / Ko lka ta / P a tn a / Ka n p u r / Bo ka ro