Ibps It Officer Mcqs

IT Officer Questions & Answers
Table of Contents
Computer Networks Questions 2
Data Structures Questions 32
Mixed Questions 1 63
Compiler Questions 79
DBMS Questions: Part - I 88
Mixed Questions:2 115
DBMS Questions: Part - 2 120
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Computer Networks Questions
1. The building block of a Wireless LAN as defined by IEEE 802.11 standard?
(A) BSS
(B) ESS
(C) Both (A) & (B)
(D) None of the above
Answer- (A) BSS
2. A protocol that provides configuration information from a table is called…..

(A) BGP
(B) BOOTP
(C) FTP
Answer- (B) BOOTP
3. CIDR stands for

(A) Code Inter Domain Routing
(B) Code Inter Division Routing
(C) Classless Inter Domain Routing
(D) Classful Inter Domain Routing
Answer- (C) Classless Inter Domain Routing
4. In PPP, a three-way handshaking protocol used for authentication is known as……

(A) CHAP
(B) BOOTP
(C) FTP
Answer- (A) CHAP
5. A technique in which a protocol used for address resolution is called……

(A) dynamic routing
(B) dynamic mapping
(C) exterior routing
Answer- (B) dynamic mapping
6. Which of the following converts user friendly names to IP addresses?

(A) Domain Name Space
(B) Domain Name System
(C) DHCP
Answer- (B) Domain Name System
7. A protocol in which the sender sends one frame and stops until it receives confirmation from
the receiver?
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(A) Stop and Wait ARQ
(B) Store and forward switch
(C) Stop and Wait Protocol
Answer- (C) Stop and Wait Protocol
8. Which of the following is an application service for retrieving a webdocument?

(A) HTML
(B) HTTP
(C) FTP
Answer- (B) HTTP
9. You are in the process of analyzing a problem that requires you to collect and store TCP/IP
Packets.Which of the following utilities is best suited for thispurpose?
(A) Performance Monitor
(B) Network Monitor
(C) NETSTAT
(D) NBTSTAT
Answer- (B) Network Monitor
10. Which of the following protocol provides confidentiality and authentication for an e-mail?
(A) BGP
(B) BOOTP
(C) PGP
Answer- (C) PGP
11. An addressing method in which the IP address space is not divided into classes?
(A) Classful addressing
(B) Classless addressing
(C) Classless IDR
Answer- (B) Classless addressing
12. The number of differences between the corresponding bits in a two data words is known as……
distance
(A) Hanning
(B) Hamming
(C) Huffman
Answer- (B) Hamming
13. An Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) request is

(A) unicast
(B) anycast
(C) broadcast
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Answer- (C) broadcast
14. The splitting of a message into multiple packets at transport layer is known as
(A) Fragmentation
(B) Segmentation
(C) Synchronization
(D) None of the above Answer-
(B) Segmentation
15. RARP stands for

(A) Reverse Address Resolution Protocol
(B) Reverse Address Routing Protocol
(C) Reverse Address Reflexive Protocol
(D) Resource Address Resolution Protocol
Answer- (A) Reverse Address Resolution Protocol
16. The loss of signal’s energy due to the resistance of medium is called……
(A) Fragmentation
(B) Attenuation
(C) Synchronization
Answer- (B) Attenuation
17. In Wireless LAN’s, a time interval between two frames to control access to the channel is called…..
(A) Interframe space
(B) Interleaving
(C) Interior routing
Answer- (A) Interframe space
18. An array of switches that are used to reduce the number of cross points is called…..
(A) single stage switch
(B) dual stage switch
(C) multistage switch
Answer- (C) multistage switch
19. An application protocol of TCP/IP that allows remote login is known as…….
(A) NCP
(B) NVT
(C) NAV
Answer- (B) NVT
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20. TFTP stands for……
(A) Trivial File Transfer Protocol
(B) Temporary File Transfer Protocol
(C) Trunk File Transfer Protocol
(D) Transparent File Transfer Protocol Answer-
(A) Trivial File Transfer Protocol
21. Communication in a Hybrid Fiber Coaxial (HFC) cable TV network can be

(A) unidirectional
(B) bidirectional
(C) multidirectional
Answer-(B) bidirectional
22. Circuit switching uses…..

(A) Space Division Switch
(B) Time Division Switch
(C) Either (A) or (B)
Answer- (C) Either (A) or (B)
23. ADSL stands for

(A) Asynchronous Digital Subscriber Line
(B) Asymmetric Digital Subscriber Line
(C) Advanced Digital Subscriber Line
(D) Asynchronous Digital Security Line
Answer-(B) Asymmetric Digital Subscriber Line
24. Encryption and decryption of data are the responsibility of ……. layer
(A) Physical
(B) Datalink
(C) Transport
(D) Presentation
Answer-(D) Presentation
25. What is the main function of transport layer in the OSI model?
(A) peer to peer message delivery
(B) node to node message delivery
(C) process to process message delivery
Answer- (C) process to process message delivery
26. OSI stands for…..

(A) Open Systems Interconnection
(B) Original Systems Interconnection
(C) Original Security Interconnection
(D) Open Software Interconnection
Answer- (A) Open Systems Interconnection
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27. In OSI model, as the data packet moves from the upper to the lower layers, headers are .
(A) added
(B) removed
(C) deleted
(D) edited
Answer- (A) added
28. Which of the following layer is the User Support layer?

(A) Session layer
(B) Presentation layer
(C) Application layer
(D) All of the above
Answer- (D) All of the above
29. Error detection at the data link layer is achieved by…..

(A) Hamming code
(B) Cyclic Redundancy Code
(C) Bit stuffing
(D) synchronization
Answer- (B) Cyclic Redundancy Code
30. Port address in TCP/IP is ….. bits long

(A) 16
(B) 32
(C) 64
(D) 128
Answer- (A) 16
31. IEEE 802.3 standard used what method as the media access method?
(A) CSMA/CD
(B) CSMA/CA
(C) CDMA
(D) FDMA
Answer- (A) CSMA/CD
32. WEP stands for

(A) Wireless Equivalent Privacy
(B) Wired Equivalent Privacy
(C) Wired Equivalent Protocol
(D) Wireless Equivalent Protocol
Answer- (A) Wireless Equivalent Privacy
33. What is the key element of a Protocol?

(A) Syntax
(B) Semantics
(C) Timing
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34. Gigabit Ethernet has a data rate of

(A) 100 Mbps
(B) 1000 Mbps
(C) 500 Mbps
(D) None
Answer- (B) 1000 Mbps
35. The datalink layer of Ethernet consists of

(A) LLC sublayer
(B) MAC sublayer
(C) Both (A) & (B)
(D) Only (B)
Answer- (C) Both (A) & (B)
36. What is the minimum & maximum frame length for 10 Mbps Ethernet?
(A) 32 bytes, 64 bytes
(B) 64 bytes, 128 bytes
(C) 64 bytes, 1518 bytes
(D) 32 bytes, 1518 bytes
Answer- (C) 64 bytes, 1518 bytes
37. SNMP stands for

(A) Simple Network Management Protocol
(B) Sample Network Management Protocol
(C) Structured Network Management Protocol
(D) Security Network Management Protocol
Answer- (A) Simple Network Management Protocol
38. Which of the following refers to a group of standards that are still being developed as a part
of overall IEEE 802.11 WLAN support?
(A) 802.11i
(B) 802.11x
(C) Both (A) & (B)
(C) Both (A) & (B)
39. Which of the following is a security protocol designed to provide a wireless LAN with better security
and privacy?
(A) WEP
(B) SNMP
(C) WAP
(D) LDAP
Answer- (C) WAP
40. Which of the following is a timer used for Collision Avoidance (CA)?
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(A) PCF
(B) MAC
(C) NAV
Answer- (C) NAV
41. Peer-to-Peer (P2P) is a ……..communications model

(A)Centralized
(B)decentralized
(C)client/server (D)None
Answer- (B)decentralized
42. Ethernet, token ring and token bus are types of………
(A) MAN
(B) WAN
(C) LAN
(D) None
Answer- (C) LAN
43. What is the name of network topology in which there are bidirectional links between each
possible node?
(A) Star
(B) Mesh
(C) Ring
(D) None
Answer- (B) Mesh
44. Fiber Distributed Data Interface (FDDI) is an example of which topology?

(A) Star
(B) Mesh
(C) Ring
(D) None
Answer- (C) Ring
45. Which TCP/IP protocol is used for file transfer with minimal capability and minimal overhead?
(A) SGMP
(B) TFTP
(C) SUMP
(D) None
Answer- (B) TFTP
46. An IPV6 address is…… bits long

(A) 64
(B) 128
(C) 256
(D) 512
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Answer- (B) 128
47. Addresses in Class D are used for…..

(A) Unicast Communication
(B) Multicast Communication
(C) Both (A) & (B)
(D) None
Answer- (B) Multicast Communication
48. An IPV4 address is…..bits long

(A) 64
(B) 128
(C) 256
(D) 32
Answer- (D) 32
49. How many classes are there in IPV4 addresses?

(A) 7
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 6
Answer- (C) 5
50. What are the three types of addresses in IPV6?

(A) Class A, Class B, Class C
(B) Unicast, anycast, multicast
(C) Unicast, dual cast, multicast
(D) None
Answer- (B) Unicast, anycast, multicast
51. Switch is a device of……. Layer of OSI model?

(A) Physical
(B) Datalink
(C) Application
(D) Session
Answer- (B) Datalink
52. Packets are found at which layer?

(A) Physical
(B) Datalink
(C) Application
(D) Network
Answer- (D) Network
53. The IP address 135.0.10.27 belongs to address class?

(A) Class A
(B) Class B
(C) Class C
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(D) None
Answer- (B) Class B
54. An http request contains how many parts?

(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
Answer- (C) 3
55. A device which divides the incoming signal into low frequencies to send to voice devices, and high
frequencies for data to the computer.
(A) multicast router
(B) interface
(C) splitter
(D) None
Answer- (C) splitter
56. Which of the following function is performed by TCP?

(A) Flow Control
(B) Error checking
(C) Subnetting
57. Which layer establishes, maintains & synchronizes the interaction between communicating
devices?
(A) Physical
(B) Datalink
(C) Application
(D) Session
Answer- (D) Session
58. Which of the following is a timer used for collision avoidance?

(A) NAV
(B) DCF
(C) PCF
(D) None
Answer- (A) NAV
59. The access method used in DCF MAC sub-layer is

(A) CSMA/CD
(B) CSMA/CA
(C) Polling
(D) None
Answer- (B) CSMA/CA
60. The access method used in PCF MAC sub-layer is
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(A) CSMA/CD
(B) CSMA/CA
(C) Polling
(D) None
Answer- (C) Polling
61. Which layer is the closest to transmission medium?

(A) Transport layer
(B) Physical layer
(C) Network layer
(D) Datalink layer
Answer- (B) Physical layer
62. Which protocol is used to eliminate loops?

(A) TCP/IP
(B) Spanning Tree Protocol
(C) SMTP
(D) None
Answer- (B) Spanning Tree Protocol
63. What kind of scheme is the http protocol?

(A) get/put
(B) request/response
(C) store/forward
(D) queuing
Answer- (B) request/response
64. Which layer of OSI determines the interface of the system with the user?
(A) Session layer
(B) Application layer
(C) Network layer
(D) Datalink layer
Answer- (B) Application layer
65. Which of the following is an example of client-server model?

(A) FTP
(B) DNS
(C) TELNET
66. At which layer TCP/IP defines two protocols: Transmission Control Protocol(TCP)
and User Datagram Protocol(UDP)?
(A) Transport layer
(B) Application layer
(C) Network layer
(D) Datalink layer
Answer- (A) Transport layer
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67. which of the following uses the greatest number of layers in the OSI model?
(A) Bridge
(B) Repeater
(C) Router
(D) Gateway
Answer- (D) Gateway
68. Which Protocol use link state routing?

(A) OSPF
(B) IGRP
(C) RIP
(D) None
Answer- (A) OSPF
69. Which PPP Protocol provides authentication and dynamic addressing?

(A) LCP
(B) NCP
(C) RIP
(D) None
Answer- (A) LCP
70. Which of the following layer is the network support layer?

(A) Physical layer
(B) Data link layer
(C) Network layer
71. Which protocol working at the Transport layer provides a connectionless service between hosts?
(A) UDP
(B) ARP
(C) TCP/IP
(D) None
Answer- (A) UDP
72. Which protocol does Ping use?

(A) UDP
(B) ICMP
(C) TCP/IP
(D) None
Answer- (B) ICMP
73. UDP stands for

(A) User Datagram Protocol
(B) User Data Protocol
(C) Unlimited Datagram Protocol
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(D) None
Answer- (A) User Datagram Protocol
74. What protocol does PPP use to identify the Network Layer Protocol?
(A) UDP
(B) ICMP
(C) NCP
(D) None
Answer- (C) NCP
75. With respect to a network interface card, the term 10/100 refers to
(A) protocol speed
(B) a fiber speed
(C) megabits per seconds
(D) None
Answer- (C) megabits per seconds
76. If you want to locate the hardware address of a local device, which protocol would you use
(A) UDP
(B) ARP
(C) NCP
(D) None
Answer- (B) ARP
77. is primarily used for mapping host names and email destinations to IP address
(A) TCP
(B) DNS
(C) NCP
(D) None
Answer- (B) DNS
78. Which of the following TCP/IP protocol is used for transferring electronic mail messages from one
machine to another?
(A) TCP
(B) SMTP
(C) NCP
(D) None
Answer- (B) SMTP
79. is the continuous ability to send and receive data between interconnected
networks.
(A) FTP
(B) SMTP
(C) TNS
(D) Network Interoperability
Answer- (D) Network Interoperability
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80. What is the default subnet mask for a class C network?
(A) 127.0.0.1
(B) 2550.0.0
(C) 255.255.0.0
(D) 255.255.255.0
Answer- (D) 255.255.255.0
81. What is the default subnet mask for a class B network?

(A) 127.0.0.1
(B) 2550.0.0
(C) 255.255.0.0
(D) 255.255.255.0
Answer- (C) 255.255.0.0
82. What is loopback address?

(A) 127.0.0.1
(B) 255.0.0.0
(C) 255.255.0.0
(D) 127.0.0.0
Answer- (A) 127.0.0.1
83. A central computer surrounded by one or more satellite computers is called a

(A) Bus network
(B) Ring network
(C) Star network
(D) None of these
Answer- (C) Star network
84. A networking device that receives a signal on an electromagnetic or an optical transmission

medium, amplifies the signal,and then retransmits it along the medium is called
(A) Router
(B) Hub
(C) transmitter
(D) Repeater
Answer- (D) Repeater
85. What is the default subnet mask for a class A network?

(A) 127.0.0.1
(B) 255.0.0.0
(C) 255.255.0.0
(D) 255.255.255.0
Answer- (B) 255.0.0.0
86. UTP stands for

(A) Unshielded Twisted Pair
(B) Unshielded Twisted Port
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(C) Uniformly Twisted Pair
(D) None
Answer- (A) Unshielded Twisted Pair
87. Which of the following organization defines standards for modems?

(A) IEEE
(B) CCITT
(C) BELL
(D) None
Answer- (B) CCITT
88. Which topology requires a hub?

(A) Ring
(B) Star
(C) Bus
(D) None
Answer- (B) Star
89. Which OSI layer divides a file into segments that are an efficient size for routing?
(A) Transport Layer
(B) Network Layer
(C) Data link Layer
(D) None
Answer- (A) Transport Layer
90. FDDI stands for

(A) Fiber Data Distribution Interface
(B) Fiber Distributed Data Interface
(C) Fixed Data Distribution Interface
(D) None
Answer- (B) Fiber Distributed Data Interface
91. Which of the following are the types of Internal Network Cards?
(A) Peripheral Component Interconnect (PCI), Wireless Network Card
(B) Industry Standard Architecture (ISA),Wireless Network Card
(C) Peripheral Component Interconnect (PCI), Industry Standard Architecture(ISA)
(D) None of the Above
Answer- (C) Peripheral Component Interconnect (PCI), Industry Standard Architecture(ISA)
92. A networking device that forwards data packets along networks and acts as a central point of
network is called
(A) Repeater
(B) Router
(C) Bridge
(D) Hub
Answer- (B) Router
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93. Repeater operates in which layer of OSI model?
(A) Application layer
(B) Presentation layer
(C) Physical layer
(D) Transport layer
Answer- (C) Physical layer
94. Where does Bridge operate in OSI model?

(A) Physical layer
(B) Data link layer
(C) Both (1)and (2)
(D) Application layer
Answer- (B) Data link layer
95. uses a standard called IEEE 802.6.

(A) LAN
(B) WAN
(C) MAN
(D) PAN
Answer- (C) MAN
96. Which is the general network standard for the data link layer in the OSI Reference Model?
(A) IEEE 802.1
(B) IEEE 802.2
(C) IEEE 802.3
(D) IEEE 802.4
Answer- (B) IEEE 802.2
97. Which of the following IEEE Standard is used for Wi-Fi systems?
(A) 802.11
(B) 802.1
(C) 802.2
(D) 802.10
Answer- (A) 802.11
98. refers to a family of IEEE standards dealing with local area network and metropolitan area
network.
(A) 802
(B) 800
(C) 801
(D) 803
Answer- (A) 802
99. Routers operate in which layer of the OSI model?

(A) Physical layer
(B) Data link layer
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(C) Network Layer
(D) All of these
Answer- (C) Network Layer
100. A communication network which is used by large organizations over regional, national or global
area is called
(A) LAN
(B) WAN
(C) MAN
(D) PAN
Answer- (B) WAN
Operating Systems Questions:
101. Producer – Consumer problem, one of the classical problems of

synchronization is also called……
(A) Bounded Buffer Problem
(B) Readers Writers Problem
(C) Dining Philosophers Problem
Answer- (A) Bounded Buffer Problem
102. Which of the following command is used to print current working directory in Unix?
(A) mkdir
(B) pwd
(C) rm
Answer- (B) pwd
103. ……. is a classic synchronization problem that involves the allocation of limited resources amongst a
group of processes in a deadlock free and starvation free manner.
(A) Bounded Buffer Problem
(B) Dining Philosophers Problem
(C) Readers Writers Problem
Answer- (B) Dining Philosophers Problem
104. ……. is a system call that returns the process ID of the parent of the current process.
(A) getpid
(B) wait
(C) getppid
Answer- (C) getppid
105. Which of the following is standard print command in Unix?
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(A) ncftp
(B) grep
(C) ls
(D) lpr
Answer- (D) lpr
106. In Unix, “file” command is used to determine ……

(A) file name
(B) file type
(C) file content
Answer- (B) file type
107. What is the full form of RTSP?

(A) Real Time System Protocol
(B) Real Transfer System Protocol
(C) Real Time Streaming Protocol
(D) Real Trigger Streaming Protocol
Answer- (C) Real Time Streaming Protocol
108. Which of the following is a System call that can be used to send signal to a process?
(A) kill
(B) wait
(C) exec
Answer- (A) kill
109. …….. allows a thread to terminate the execution of other threads in the process.
(A) Thread Scheduling
(B) Thread Safety
(C) Thread Cancellation
Answer- (C) Thread Cancellation
110. Which of the following scheduling algorithm is impossible to implement?

(A) FCFS Scheduling
(B) Priority Scheduling
(C) Shortest Job First (SJF) Scheduling
Answer- (C) Shortest Job First (SJF) Scheduling
111. …… provides an Interface between the process and the Operating System
(A) Synchronization
(B) System call
(C) Segmentation
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Answer- (B) System call
112. The resolution of externally defined symbols is performed by?

(A) Compiler
(B) Assembler
(C) Linker
Answer- (C) Linker
113. Which of the following is not used on multiprogramming systems?

(A) Memory Management
(B) File Management
(C) Process Management
Answer- (A) Memory Management
114. …… is a system call that runs an executable file into an existing process.
(A) fork
(B) wait
(C) exec
Answer- (C) exec
115. Which of the following technique is used to convert a blocking system call into a non blocking
system call?
(A) Segmentation
(B) Jacketing
(C) Fragmentation
Answer- (B) Jacketing
116. One user-level thread is mapped to many kernel level thread is known as….
(A) One to Many model
(B) One to One model
(C) Many to One model
Answer- (A) One to Many model
117. In Operating Systems, a single thread is termed as

(A) Light Weight Process (LWP)
(B) Heavy Weight Process (HWP)
(C) Both (A) & (B)
Answer- (B) Heavy Weight Process (HWP)
118. ……. is a system call that returns the process ID of current process.
(A) getpid
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(B) wait
(C) getppid
Answer- (A) getpid
119. In Unix, “cat” command is used to display ……

(A) file names
(B) folder names
(C) file contents
Answer- (C) file contents
120. Which of the following command is used to create terminal connection to another host in
Unix?
(A) ssh
(B) scp
(C) telnet
Answer- (C) telnet
121. ………. is an user interface that uses only keyboard for input.
(A) Graphical User Interface
(B) Command Line Interface
(C) Both (A) & (B)
Answer- (B) Command Line Interface
122. Which of the following is an example of Preemptive Multi-Tasking OS?

(A) MS-DOS
(B) Linux
(C) OS/2
(D) Mac OS Answer-
(C) OS/2
123. An Operating System that can predict the exact time duration for operations is called
(A) Hard RTOS
(B) Soft RTOS
(C) Both (A) & (B)
Answer- (A) Hard RTOS
124. The use of software to allow system hardware to run multiple applications on different OS is
termed as
(A) OS Virtualization
(B) OS level Virtualization
(C) Both (A) & (B)
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Answer- (A) OS Virtualization
125. The command interpreter in Linux is known as …..

(A) Fork
(B) Kernel
(C) Shell
Answer- (C) Shell
126. Which is a hardware register that contains status information of the Processor?
(A) Stack pointer
(B) Program Counter
(C) Accumulator
(D) Status register
Answer- (D) Status register
127. Physical memory can be divided into a number of equal sized blocks called…..
(A) Page
(B) Frame
(C) Block
Answer- (B) Frame
128. The most commonly used Linux shell is…….

(A) C Shell
(B) Korn Shell
(C) Bourne Shell
(D) Bash Shell
Answer- (D) Bash Shell
129. A table that contains the base address of each page in physical memory is called…..
(A) Page table
(B) Frame table
(C) Memory table
Answer- (A) Page table
130. Virtual memory can be implemented with ……

(A) Thrashing
(B) Synchronization
(C) Demand Paging
Answer- (C) Demand Paging
131. A register that can be used for memory protection is called……

(A) memory data register
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(B) fence register
(C) memory buffer register
(D) index register
Answer- (B) fence register
132. …… occurs in a dynamic memory allocation system when most of the free blocks are too
small to satisfy any request?
(A) Paging
(B) Segmentation
(C) Fragmentation
(C) Fragmentation
133. Which of the following holds the data currently being worked on?
(A) Stack pointer
(B) Program Counter
(C) Accumulator
Answer- (C) Accumulator
134. The total number of processes completed per unit time is termed as
(A) throughput
(B) response time
(C) waiting time
Answer- (A) throughput
135. .….. is generic and that can run on any OS.

(A) Kernel level thread
(B) User level thread
(C) Both (A) & (B)
Answer- (B) User level thread
136. Which of the following is multi threading model?

(A) many to many relationship
(B) many to one relationship
(C) one to One relationship
137. …….files represent physical devices like printers, terminals etc.,

(A) Ordinary files
(B) Directory files
(C) Special files
Answer- (C) Special files
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138. An interrupt that is reserved for unrecoverable memory errors is called……
(A) maskable interrupt
(B) non maskable interrupt
(C) Both (A) & (B)
Answer- (B) non maskable interrupt
139. Process Control Block (PCB) is also called……

(A) Program Control Block
(B) Memory Control Block
(C) Task Control Block
Answer- (C) Task Control Block
140. The process that is currently being executed is called

(A) Waiting State
(B) Running State
(C) Ready state
(B) Running State
141. …… holds the address of the next instruction to be executed?

(A) Accumulator
(B) Stack Pointer
(C) Status Register
(D) Program Counter
Answer- (D) Program Counter
142. Which of the following condition leads to deadlock?

(A) Hold and Wait
(B) Preemption
(C) Rollback
(A) Hold and Wait
143. Which type of scheduler is used in batch systems?

(A) Medium Term Scheduler
(B) Short Term Scheduler
(C) Long Term Scheduler
Answer- (C) Long Term Scheduler
144. Message queuing is managed by?

(A) Shell
(B) Kernel
(C) Fork
Answer- (B) Kernel
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145. Interrupt latency should be…… for Real Time Operating Systems (RTOS)?
(A) minimal
(B) maximum
(C) zero
Answer- (A) minimal
146. In DOS, MD command is used to….

(A) display message on screen
(B) create new files
(C) create new folders
Answer- (C) create new folders
147. Which of the following is the delay that occur during the playback of a stream is called?
(A) jitter
(B) playback delay
(c) stream delay
Answer- (A) jitter
148. The high paging activity is called………

(A) Fragmentation
(B) Segmentation
(C) Thrashing
Answer- (C) Thrashing
149. Which is not a valid state of a thread?

(A) running
(B) blocked
(C) parsing
Answer- (C) parsing
150. The …… register is read by the host to get input

(A) data out
(B) data in
(C) flow out
Answer- (B) data in
151. Which of the following scheduling algorithms provide minimum average waiting time?
(A) Round Robin (RR)
(B) First come First Serve (FCFS)
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(C) Shortest Job First Scheduling
Answer- (C) Shortest Job First Scheduling
152. Medium term scheduler is based on

(A) Scroll in, Scroll out
(B) Fetch in, Fetch out
(C) Swap in, Swap out
Answer- (C) Swap in, Swap out
153. A computer is restarted by restart button or by pressing the Combination of (Ctrl+Alt+Del). This
type of booting is called
(A) Cold Booting
(B) Warm Booting
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(B) Warm Booting
154. Which of the following is a type of Semaphores?

(A) Binary Semaphore
(B) Counting Semaphore
(C) Both(A) & (B)
(C) Both(A) & (B)
155. ……. are required to complete a critical task within a guaranteed amount of time.
(A) Real Time Operating Systems
(B) Multi Tasking Operating Systems
(C) Distributed Operating Systems
Answer- (A) Real Time Operating Systems
156. Long Term Scheduler is a……

(A) CPU scheduler
(B) process swapping scheduler
(C) job scheduler
(C) job scheduler
157. …… is a way of processing data serially.

(A) spooling
(B) caching
(C) Paging
Answer- (A) spooling
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158. Which of the following is true for the algorithms for memory allocation?
(A) First Fit
(B) Best Fit
(C) Worst Fit
159. Which type of scheduler typically uses a FIFO or Priority queue?

(A) Short Term Scheduler
(B) Medium Term Scheduler
(C) Long Term Scheduler
Answer- (A) Short Term Scheduler
160. Which of the following is a solution to fragmentation problem?

(A) Thread
(B) Kernel
(C) Paging
Answer- (C) Paging
161. First Come First Serve(FCFS) is

(A) Preemptive scheduling
(B) Non-preemptive scheduling
(C) deadline scheduling
Answer- (B) Non-preemptive scheduling
162. A variant of deadlock is called….

(A) Mutex lock
(B) Live lock
(C) Both(A) & (B)
Answer- (B) Live lock
163. ….. is a system call that causes the caller to block.

(A) Await
(B) Sleep
(C) Wakeup
Answer- (B) Sleep
164. …… is the most used method to communicate over a network.

(A) Sockets
(B) Semaphores
(C) Pipes
Answer- (A) Sockets
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165. …… is the process of switching of CPU from one thread to another.
(A) Process handling
(B) interrupt handling
(C) Context switching
Answer- (C) Context switching
166. Which of the following is an example of Real Time Operating Systems?

(A) Lynx OS
(B) Mac OS
(C) UNIX
Answer- (A) Lynx OS
167. Which of the following is a function of an OS?

(A) Process Management
(B) I/O Management
(C) Memory Management
168. In DOS, ECHO command is used to….

(B) display the contents of a text file
(C) Both (A) & (B)
Answer- (A) display message on screen
169. Which of the following is an external command of DOS?

(A) CALL
(B) SHIFT
(C) TITLE
(D) FORMAT
Answer- (D) FORMAT
170. …… is a technique used to speed up communication with slow devices.

(A) Fragmentation
(B) Caching
(C) Segmentation
Answer- (B) Caching
171. Round Robin(RR) scheduling algorithm is suitable for……

(A) Real Time Operating Systems
(B) Embedded Operating Systems
(C) Distributed Operating Systems
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(D) Time Sharing Operating Systems
Answer- (D) Time Sharing Operating Systems
172. …… is a special system software that is used to handle process scheduling in different ways.
(A) Fork
(B) Scheduler
(C) Spawn
Answer- (B) Scheduler
173. Short term scheduler is a……

(A) CPU scheduler
(B) process swapping scheduler
(C) job scheduler
(A) CPU scheduler
174. Which one of the following scheduler controls the degree of

multiprogramming?
(A) Long Term Scheduler
(B) Medium Term Scheduler
(C) Short Term Scheduler
Answer- (A) Long Term Scheduler
175. Which of the following is a scheduling algorithm that allows a process to move up and down
between queues?
(A) Round Robin(RR) scheduling
(B) First Come First Served (FCFS) scheduling
(C) Multilevel feedback queue scheduling
(D) Shortest Job First (SJF) scheduling
Answer- (C) Multilevel feedback queue scheduling
176. ….. commands are automatically loaded into main memory when the booting process gets
completed.
(A) External
(B) Internal
(C) Both (A) & (B)
(D) None
Answer- (B) Internal
177. Which of the following is an Internal command?

(A) DEBUG
(B) EDIT
(C) EXTRACT
(D) COPY
Answer- (D) COPY
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178. Which of the following is an example of Batch Processing OperatingSystems?
(A) Lynx OS
(B) Mac OS
(C) UNIX
Answer- (C) UNIX
179. In DOS, TYPE command is used to….

(B) display the contents of a text file
(C) Both (A) & (B)
(D) None
Answer- (B) display the contents of a text file
180. ….. process checks to ensure the components of the computer are operating and connected
properly.
(A) Editing
(B) Saving
(C) Booting
Answer- (C) Booting
181. An Integer variable that is used to manage concurrent processes is called…..

(A) Thread
(B) Semaphore
(C) Counter
Answer- (B) Semaphore
182. Dijkstra’s banking algorithm for resource allocation is used for

(A) Deadlock detection
(B) Deadlock prevention
(C) Deadlock avoidance
(D) Deadlock recovery
Answer- (C) Deadlock avoidance
183. In UNIX, cached disk blocks are managed by the Kernel and referred to as…..
(A) Cache
(B) Disk Cache
(C) Buffer Cache
Answer- (C) Buffer Cache
184. …… is the smallest unit for processing that consists of a program counter, a stack & a set of
registers.
(A) Compiler
(B) Thread
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(C) Heap
Answer- (B) Thread
185. Which of the following services is not supported by the OS?

(A) I/O Operation
(B) Protection
(C) Compilation
Answer- (C) Compilation
186. Which of the following is used to remove deadlock?

(A) Preemption
(B) Mutual Exclusion
(C) Circular Wait
Answer- (A) Preemption
187. First Come First Serve (FCFS) Scheduling is…….

(A) used to reduce waiting time
(B) easy to understand and implement
(C) impossible to implement
(D) None of the Above
Answer- (B) easy to understand and implement
188. ……… is a system call of OS that is used to create a new process?

(A) Shell
(B) Kernel
(C) Fork
(D) Thread Answer-
(C) Fork
189. Which of the following is an example of Cooperative Multi-Tasking OS?

(A) Lynx OS
(B) Mac OS
(C) MS DOS
Answer- (B) Mac OS
190. The performance of Round Robin(RR) scheduling depends on……

(A) quantum
(B) priority
(C) preemption
Answer- (A) quantum
191. …… is mainly responsible for allocating the resources as per process requirement?
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(A) RAM
(B) Compiler
(C) Operating Systems
(D) Software
Answer- (C) Operating Systems
192. Which of the following plays an important role in modern Operating Systems(OS)?
(A) Kernel
(B) Shell
(C) Fork
(D) None
Answer- (A) Kernel
193. FAT stands for

(A) File Allocation Table
(B) File Application Table
(C) First Allocation Table
(D) First Application Table
Answer- (A) File Allocation Table
194. BAT refers to…

(A) Executable Files
(B) Batch Files
(C) Boot Files
(D) None
Answer- (B) Batch Files
195. ….. occur commonly in multi-tasking when two or more threads waiting for each other.
(A) Kernel
(B) Shell
(C) Fork
(D) Deadlock
Answer- (D) Deadlock
196. In DOS the DIR command is used to…….

(A) Display Information
(B) Display list of files & Sub directories
(C) Delete files
(D) Copy files
Answer- (B) Display list of files & Sub directories
197. …… is the program which interprets commands given by the user?

(A) Kernel
(B) Shell
(C) Fork
(D) None
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Answer- (B) Shell
198. Which of the following is an MS-DOS external command?

(A) DIR
(B) COPY
(C) FORMAT
(D) PROMPT
Answer- (C) FORMAT
199. In DOS label command is used to….

(A) Create the label of disk
(B) Change the label of disk
(C) Both (A) & (B)
(D) None
Answer- (C) Both (A) & (B)
200. NTFS stands for…..

(A) New Technology File System
(B) New Transmission File System
(C) Net Transmission File System
(D) None
Answer- (A) New Technology File System
Data Structures Questions

201. A postfix expression is merely the of the prefix expression.
(A) Forward
(B) Reverse
(C) Inverse
Answer- (B) Reverse
202. Which of the following begins the search with the element that is located in the middle of the
Array?
(A) Random Search
(B) Parallel Search
(C) Binary Search
(D) Serial Search
Answer- (D) Serial Search
203. In a Circular linked list, insertion of a record involves the modification of

(A) 1 Pointer
(B) 2 Pointer
(C) 3 Pointer
Answer- (B) 2 Pointer
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204. Which of the following is useful in traversing a given graph by breadth first search?
(A) Stack
(B) List
(C) Queue
Answer- (C) Queue
205. A characteristic of the data that binary search uses but linear search ignores is
(A) Order of the list
(B) length of the list
(C) Both (A) & (B)
Answer- (A) Order of the list
206. A sort which iteratively passes through a list to exchange the first element with any element
less than it and then repeats with a new first element is called
(A) Heap Sort
(B) Quick Sort
(C) Selection Sort
(C) Selection Sort
207. To insert a node in a circular list at rear position, it should be inserted at

of the Queue.
(A) Front – 1 position
(B) Rear position
(C) Front position
(C) Front position
208. In an extended-binary tree, the nodes with two children are called ……..
(A) Interior node
(B) Domestic node
(C) Internal node
(D) Inner node
Answer- (C) Internal node
209. A terminal node in a binary tree is called

(A) Child
(B) Leaf
(C) Branch
Answer- (B) Leaf
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210. Sequential representation of binary tree uses
(A) Three dimensional arrays
(B) Array with pointers
(C) Two dimensional arrays
Answer- (B) Array with pointers
211. In linked list, an element can be inserted at

(A) beginning of the list
(B) end of the list
(C) middle of the list
(D) Both (A) & (B)
Answer- (D) Both (A) & (B)
212. Which of the following is/are real time application(s) of Circular linkedlist?
(A) Printer
(B) Multi player games
(C) Interrupts handling in real-time systems
Answer- (B) Multi player games
213. Stack is also called

(A) Pop up array
(B) Pop down list
(C) Push down list
(C) Push down list
214. Prim’s algorithm is a

(A) Greedy algorithm
(B) Backtracking algorithm
(C) Divide and Conquer method
Answer- (A) Greedy algorithm
215. A heap allows a very efficient implementation of a

(A) Stack
(B) Tree
(C) priority queue
(C) priority queue
216. is an algorithm that builds a solution by repeated selecting the cheapest among
all options at each stage.
(A) Greedy algorithm
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Answer- (A) Greedy algorithm
217. The Complexity of Quick Sort algorithm is

(A) O (n^2)
(B) O (n log n)
(C) O (n)
Answer- (B) O (n log n)
218. The best average behaviour is shown by

(A) Heap Sort
(B) Insertion Sort
(C) Quick Sort
(D) Bubble Sort
Answer- (C) Quick Sort
219. A mathematical-model of user defined type along with the collection of all operations defined
on that model is known as
(A) Data Structure
(B) Primitive Data Type
(C) Algorithm
(D) Abstract Data Type
Answer- (D) Abstract Data Type
220. In traversal we can convert a binary tree into its mirror image.
(A) In order
(B) Pre order
(C) Post order
Answer- (C) Post order
221. The performance of an algorithm is measured on the basis of

(A) Time Complexity
(B) Space Complexity
(C) Both (A) & (B)
(C) Both (A) & (B)
222. A set of functions that grow slower than or at the same rate as expression is represented by
(A) Big Omega notation
(B) Theta notation
(C) Big O notation
(C) Big O notation
223. The average time complexity of Insertion sort algorithm is

(A) O (n^2)
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(B) O (n log n)
(C) O (n)
Answer- (A) O (n^2)
224. Which of the following is not a stable sort?

(A) Insertion Sort
(B) Heap Sort
(C) Merge Sort
Answer- (B) Heap Sort
225. The space required to store the values of all the constants and variables is called
(A) Instruction space
(B) Data Space
(C) Environment Space
Answer- (B) Data Space
226. In Heap data structure, If the parent nodes are greater than their children nodes then it is
called
(A) Max-Heap
(B) Min-Heap
(C) Both (A) & (B)
Answer- (A) Max-Heap
227. The Quick sort algorithm divides the list into main parts
(A) Four
(B) Six
(C) Five
(D) Three
Answer- (D) Three
228. Circular linked list can also be used to create

(A) Priority Queue
(B) Double ended Queue
(C) Circular queue
(C) Circular queue
229. Which of the following is/are real-time application(s) of Queue?

(A) Printer
(B) CPU task scheduling
(C) Interrupts handling in real-time systems
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230. Linked Lists are used to implement
(A) Stacks
(B) Graphs
(C) Queues
231. Linear search is also called …….

(A) Interpolation Search
(B) Transpose Sequential Search
(C) Sequential Search
Answer-(C) Sequential Search
232. The Array as an Abstract Data Type (ADT) supports ….. operations.
(A) Store
(B) Retrieve
(C) Both (A) & (B)
(C) Both (A) & (B)
233. Each position of the hash table is called ……

(A) Bucket
(B) Entry
(C) Cell
(D) Slot
Answer- (D) Slot
234. The common way of keeping subsequent items within the table and computing possible positions is
termed as …………
(A) Direct Chaining
(B) Open Addressing
(C) Both (A) & (B)
Answer- (B) Open Addressing
235. An extra key inserted at the end of an Array is known as………

(A) Sentinel
(B) Stop key
(C) Both (A) & (B)
Answer- (A) Sentinel
236. In Binary Tree Traversal, the node is visited after both trees is called…….
(A) pre order
(B) In order
(C) post order
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Answer- (C) post order
237. Shell Sort is also called …….

(A) Partition exchange sort
(B) Diminishing increment sort
(C) Both (A) & (B)
Answer- (B) Diminishing increment sort
238. The complexity of Merge sort algorithm is………

(A) O (log n)
(B) O (n log n)
(C) O (n^2)
Answer- (B) O (n log n)
239. …… is a header list in which the last node points back to the header node.
(A) Circular Header linked list
(B) Grounded Header linked list
(C) Both (A) & (B)
Answer- (A) Circular Header linked list
240. A pointer that contains the address of a heap-dynamic variable is called …..
(A) Dangling pointer
(B) Null pointer
(C) Void pointer
Answer- (A) Dangling pointer
241. The complexity of Bubble sort algorithm is ………

(A) O (log n)
(B) O (n log n)
(C) O (n^2)
Answer- (C) O (n^2)
242. Which of the following data structure stores heterogeneous data elements?
(A) Record
(B) Pointer
(C) Linear Array
Answer- (A) Record
243. ……. is required for languages that support dynamic data structure.
(A) Stack allocation
(B) Static allocation
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(C) Heap allocation
Answer- (C) Heap allocation
244. In Binary Tree Traversal, the node is visited before its left and right sub trees is called…….
(A) pre order
(B) In order
(C) post order
Answer- (A) pre order
245. Which of the following is non linear data structure?

(A) Stack
(B) Tree
(C) Queue
Answer- (B) Tree
246. Which algorithm solves the all pairs shortest path problem ?
(A) Floyd’s algorithm
(B) Prim’s algorithm
(C) Both (A) & (B)
Answer- (A) Floyd’s algorithm
247. Pre order traversal is also known as …….

(A) depth-first order
(B) end order
(C) symmetric order
Answer- (A) depth-first order
248. Queues can be used to implement ……

(A) recursion
(B) quick sort
(C) radix sort
Answer- (C) radix sort
249. …… is a header list in which the last node contains the null pointer.
(A) Circular Header list
(B) Grounded Header list
(C) Both (A) & (B)
Answer- (B) Grounded Header list
250. Quicksort is also called …….
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(A) Partition exchange sort
(B) Diminishing increment sort
(C) Both (A) & (B)
Answer- (A) Partition exchange sort
251. Print Server uses ….. which is a buffer that holds data before it is send to the printer
(A) Queue
(B) Stack
(C) Spool
Answer- (C) Spool
252. …… is a balanced binary search tree in which the difference between the height of any node’s
left and right subtree is at most one.
(A) AVL Tree
(B) Red-Black Tree
(C) 2-3-4 Tree
Answer- (A) AVL Tree
253. Enqueue means to insert an item into the ……. of the Queue
(A) front
(B) rear
(C) middle
Answer- (B) rear
254. The process of deleting an element from the top of stack is called ….. operation
(A) POP
(B) PUSH
(C) Both (A) & (B)
Answer- (A) POP
255. Merge Sort is based on ……..

(A) Greedy approach
Answer- (C) Divide and Conquer method
256. Post order traversal is also known as……

(A) depth-first order
(B) end order
(C) symmetric order
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Answer- (B) end order
257. A queue is a ……. data structure

(A) Last In First Out (LIFO)
(B) Linear Array
(C) First In First Out (FIFO)
Answer- (C) First In First Out (FIFO)
258. Which of the following data structure stores homogeneous data elements?
(A) Record
(B) Pointer
(C) Linear Array
Answer- (C) Linear Array
259. An algorithm that calls itself directly or indirectly is called ……

(A) Iteration
(B) Recursion
(C) Traversal
Answer- (B) Recursion
260. Which of the following is used to find the location of an element with a given value?
(A) Search
(B) Iteration
(C) Traversal
Answer- (A) Search
261. The term “PUSH” is used to …… an element into a stack

(A) Update
(B) Edit
(C) Insert
Answer- (C) Insert
262. The condition “FRONT = NULL” represents that the queue is…..
(A) Overflow
(B) Empty
(C) Full
Answer- (B) Empty
263. A linked list is also called

(A) One way list
(B) Multi way list
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(C) Single way list
Answer- (A) One way list
264. Which data structure represents hierarchical relationship between various elements?
(A) Linked List
(B) Tree
(C) Array
Answer- (B) Tree
265. The process of accessing data stored in a tape is similar to handle data on…….
(A) Linked List
(B) Tree
(C) Array
(D) Queue
Answer- (D) Queue
266. Which of the following search start at the beginning of the list and each element in the list?
(A) Linear Search
(B) Binary Tree Search
(C) Hash Search
(A) Linear Search
267. In Binary Tree Traversal, the node is visited between the sub trees is called……
(A) Pre-order traversal
(B) In-order traversal
(C) Post-order traversal
Answer- (B) In-order traversal
268. Which of the following data structure is indexed data structure?

(A) Linked List
(B) Stack
(C) Queue
(D) Linear Array
Answer- (D) Linear Array
269. …….. is a data structure in which each node has at most two children.
(A) Red-Black Tree
(B) Binary Tree
(C) AVL Tree
Answer- (B) Binary Tree
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270. Which of the following sorting algorithm is not an internal sort?
(A) Bubble Sort
(B) Insertion Sort
(C) Merge Sort
(D) Heap Sort
Answer- (C) Merge Sort
271. In Queue, the elements added at…..end

(A) front
(B) rear
(C) top
(D) base
Answer- (B) rear
272. The terms “POP” and “PUSH” are related to…..

(A) queue
(B) stack
(C) linked list
Answer- (B) stack
273. Stack is also called a …….

(A) Last In First Out
(B) First In First Out
(C) LIFO & FIFO
Answer- (A) Last In First Out
274. The largest element of an Array Index is called……

(A) Range
(B) Upper bound
(C) lower bound
Answer- (B) Upper bound
275. The memory address of the first element of an array is called…

(A) first address
(B) floor address
(C) base address
(C) base address
276. The complexity of shellsort is

(A) O(log)
(B) O(n^2)
(C) O(n (log n)^2)
(C) O(n (log n)^2)
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277. Which of the following is a linear data structure?
(A) Array
(B) Graph
(C) Tree
Answer- (A) Array
278. ….. is a technique to convert a range of key values into a range of Indices of an Array?
(A) Thrashing
(B) Hashing
(C) Interpolation
Answer- (B) Hashing
279. ……. is a queue with limited number of elements.

(A) Bounded queue
(B) Unbounded queue
(C) Both (A) & (B)
Answer- (A) Bounded queue
280. An odd-even sort is also called……

(A) Bubble Sort
(B) Heap Sort
(C) Quick Sort
(D) Brick Sort
Answer- (D) Brick Sort
281. ……. contains the information about an array used in a program.

(A) Dope vector
(B) Record
(C) Table
Answer- (A) Dope vector
282. The term DEQUE refers……

(A) single ended queue
(B) double ended queue
(C) Both (A) & (B)
Answer- (B) double ended queue
283. A sort that compares each element with its adjacent element in a list is called…..
(A) Bubble Sort
(B) Insertion Sort
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(C) Quick Sort
(D) Heap Sort
Answer- (A) Bubble Sort
284. Which of the following data structure is required to evaluate a post fix expression?
(A) Stack
(B) linked list
(C) Array
Answer- (A) Stack
285. A linked list that has no beginning and no end is called…..

(A) Doubly linked list
(B) Singly linked list
(C) Circular linked list
Answer- (C) Circular linked list
286. In order traversal is also known as……

(A) Pre order
(B) Symmetric order
(C) End order
Answer- (B) Symmetric order
287. A matrix in which number of zero elements are much higher than the number of non zero elements
is called
(A) Scalar Matrix
(B) Identity Matrix
(C) Sparse Matrix
(C) Sparse Matrix
288. Which of the following is the slowest sorting algorithm?

(A) Heap Sort
(B) Insertion Sort
(C) Quick Sort
(D) Bubble Sort
Answer- (D) Bubble Sort
289. The smallest element of an Array’s index is known as…..

(A) Range
(B) Upper bound
(C) Lower bound
Answer- (C) Lower bound
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290. Which data structure is required to check balanced parenthesis in an expression?
(A) Linked List
(B) Queue
(C) Tree
(D) Stack
Answer- (D) Stack
291. A linear list in which elements can be added/removed at either end but not in the middle is called
(A) Deque
(B) Stack
(C) List
(D) Queue
Answer- (A) Deque
292. Which of the following is the best sorting algorithm when the list is already sorted?
(A) Bubble Sort
(B) Insertion Sort
(C) Quick Sort
(D) Heap Sort
Answer- (B) Insertion Sort
293. The representation of data structure in memory is called

(A) memory structure
(B) abstract data type
(C) recursive
(D) file structure
Answer- (B) abstract data type
294. The complexity of Heapsort algorithm is

(A) O(n^2)
(B) O( n log n)
(C) O(1)
(D) None of these Answer-
(B) O( n log n)
295. In Queue, the items deleted at…..end

(A) front
(B) rear
(C) top
(D) base
Answer- (A) front
296. Which data structure is needed to convert infix notation to post fixnotation?
(A) Branch
(B) Queue
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(C) Tree
(D) Stack
Answer- (D) Stack
297. In a circular linked list, insertion of a record involves modification of

(A) Multiple pointer
(B) One pointer
(C) Two pointer
(D) None of these
Answer- (C) Two pointer
298. Which data structure is used for implementing recursion?

(A) Queue
(B) Stack
(C) Arrays
(D) List
Answer- (B) Stack
299. The drawback of the binary tree sort is remedied by

(A) Bubble Sort
(B) Insertion Sort
(C) Quick Sort
(D) Heap Sort
Answer- (D) Heap Sort
300. Which of the following is the method of graph traversal?

(A) Breadth first search
(B) Depth first Search
(C) Both (A) & (B)
(D) None of these
Answer- (C) Both (A) & (B) Web
Technology Questions:
301. In CSS, you can override precedence rules by adding the property to a
style declaration.
A. !override
B. !main
C. !important
D. !priority
Answer- C. !important
302. Which of the following class in JSP provides the capability to implement a growable array of
objects?
A. Array class
B. GrowAbleArray class
C. Container class
D. Vector class
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Answer- D. Vector class
303. Which XML extension is a standard way to describe how to transform the structure of an XML
document into an XML document with a differentstructure?
A. tree structure
B. XSLT
C. Both (A) & (B)
D. None of the Above
Answer- B. XSLT
304. In JSP, the classes that allow primitive types to be accessed as objects are known as
A. Primitive classes
B. Object classes
C. Boxing classes
D. Wrapper classes.
Answer- D. Wrapper classes.
305. Which XML-based registry is intended as on online Internet registry for businesses
worldwide?
A. Universal Plug and Play(UPnP)
B. UDF
C. Uniform Resource Locator(URL)
D. Universal Description Discovery and Integration(UDDI)
Answer- D. Universal Description Discovery and Integration(UDDI)
306. Which language is considered to be extensible because of its unlimited and self-defining
markup symbols?
A. HTML
B. XHTML
C. XML
D. None of the Above.
Answer- C. XML
307. In JSP, a Canvas object provides access to a Graphics object via one of its method called
A. getCanvas()
B. getGraphics()
C. accessGraphics().
D. paint()
Answer- D. paint()
308. HTML defines levels of headings.

A. Five
B. Four
C. Six
D. Three
Answer- C. Six
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309. Which method of the Component class is used to set the position and size of a component in JSP?
A. setSize()
B. setPositionSize()
C. setPosition()
D. setBounds()
Answer- D. setBounds()
310. What method is used to specify a container’s layout in JSP?

A. setLayout()
B. Layout()
C. setContainerLayout()
D. setConLayout() Answer-
A. setLayout()
311. Which of the following is not an advantage of CSS?

A. Easy Maintenance
B. Offline Browsing
C. Multiple Device Compatibility
D. Platform Dependent
Answer- D. Platform Dependent
312. In CSS, which cursor indicates that an edge of a box is to be moved down?
A. se-resize
B. sw-resize
C. w-resize
D. s-resize
Answer- D. s-resize
313. Which of the following is a front-end framework for web development?

A. Ruby
B. Bootstrap
C. PHP
D. Python
Answer- B. Bootstrap
314. An alternative of JavaScript on windows platform is

A. VBScript
B. ASP.NET
C. JSP
D. PHP
Answer- A. VBScript
315. AJAX stands for

A. Advanced JSP and XML
B. Asynchronous JSP and XML
C. Advanced JS and XML
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D. Asynchronous JavaScript and XML
Answer- D. Asynchronous JavaScript and XML
316. Which of the following is a boolean cookie attribute in JS?

A. domain
B. lookup
C. secure
Answer- C. secure
317. method returns the character at a specified index in a string?

A. CharCodeAt()
B. substring()
C. charAt()
Answer- C. charAt()
318. Which of the following is used to describe elements in CSS?

A. Selectors
B. Protectors
C. Both (A) & (B)
Answer- A. Selectors
319. What are the events generated by the Node objects called?
A. generators
B. highevents
C. emitters
Answer- C. emitters
320. Which of the following is a stateless protocol?

A. TCP
B. HTTP
C. HTML
D. XHTML Answer-
B. HTTP
321. Which one of the following objects is passed to a JavaBean when one of its properties is set
via a JSP action?
A. ServletRequest
B. HTTPServletRequest
C. ServletResponse
D. HTTPServletResponse
Answer- B. HTTPServletRequest
322. Which of the following are used by servlet containers to set JavaBean properties?
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A. cookies
B. form fields
C. memory
D. disk
Answer- B. form fields
323. header gives the MIME type of the response document.

A. Content Encoding
B. Content Language
C. Content Length
D. Content Type
Answer- D. Content Type
324. The term “Hypertext” means

A. Hypermedia
B. Non-Sequential writing
C. Blinking text
Answer- B. Non-Sequential writing
325. Which of the following is not a JSP Implicit Object?

A. In
B. Out
C. Page
D. Response
Answer- A. In
326. Where are cookies stored?

A. on the server
B. In Web.xml
C. On the Client
D. In HTML
Answer- C. On the Client
327. Document Type Declaration includes

A. Element Declarations
B. Attribute Declarations
C. Entity Declarations
D. All of the Above
Answer- D. All of the Above
328. The XML DOM object is

A. Entity Reference
B. Comment Reference
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. All of the Above
Answer- A. Entity Reference
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329. Any part of the graphic that is not included in another hot zone is considered to be part of
A. rect
B. point
C. default
D. polygon
Answer- C. default
330. SAX stands for

A. Simple Application for XML
B. Smart Application for XML
C. Smart API for XML
D. Simple API for XML
Answer- Simple API for XML
331. In CSS, property controls the capitalization of text.

(A) text-decoration
(B) text-indent
(C) text-shadow
(D) text-transform
Answer- (D) text-transform
332. Which properties are used to generate space around elements?

(A) CSS Borders
(B) CSS Margins
(C) CSS Padding
Answer- (B) CSS Margins
333. In CSS, property creates or resets one or more counters.

(A) Content
(B) Counter-increment
(C) Counter-reset
(C) Counter-reset
334. method replaces a specified value with another value in a string?

(A) CharCodeAt()
(B) CharAt()
(C) Concat()
(D) replace()
Answer- (D) replace()
335. In JavaScript, method returns a number as a number.

(A) valueOf()
(B) toPrecision()
(C) toExponential()
(D) toString()
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Answer- (A) valueOf()
336. Which method is used to replace an element to the HTML DOM(Document Object Model)?
(A) removeChild()
(B) replaceChild()
(C) Both(A) & (B)
(B) replaceChild()
337. Which of the following attribute is a boolean attribute?

(A) autocomplete
(B) placeholder
(C) step
(D) autofocus
Answer- (D) autofocus
338. Which of the following message denotes the server is currently unavailable?
(A) 500 Internal server Error
(B) 501 Not Implemented
(C) 503 Service Unavailable
(D) 504 Gateway Time out
Answer- (C) 503 Service Unavailable
339. Which of the following is used to define the content of web pages?
(A) HTML
(B) CSS
(C) Java Script
Answer- (A) HTML
340. In JS, returns a number, converted from its argument.

(A) parseFloat()
(B) toPrecision()
(C) toExponential()
(D) number()
Answer- (D) number()
341. Which of the following was designed to store and transport data?
(A) Java Script
(B) HTML
(C) XML
Answer- (C) XML
342. language has no predefined tags.

(A) XML
(B) HTML
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Answer- (A) XML
343. message denotes the request has been fulfilled and a new source is created.
(A) 202 Accepted
(B) 201 created
(C) 403 Forbidden
(D) 404 Not Found Answer-
(B) 201 created
344. Cascading Style Sheets(CSS) can be used to create an

(A) Image Gallery
(B) Image Opacity
(C) Image Sprites
(A) Image Gallery
345. JavaScript can change all the in the web page.

(A) HTML elements
(B) CSS Styles
(C) HTML attributes
346. In JS, the method returns the index of the last occurrence of a specified text
in a string.
(A) slice()
(B) substr()
(C) lastIndex()
(D) search()
Answer- (C) lastIndex()
347. message denotes the request can not be fulfilled due to the wrong syntax.
(A) 202 Accepted
(B) 400 Bad Request
(C) 403 Forbidden
(D) 404 Not Found
Answer- (B) 400 Bad Request
348. In JavaScript, method returns a number as a string.

(A) valueOf()
(B) toPrecision()
(C) toExponential()
(D) toString()
Answer- (D) toString()
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349. Which properties are used to generate space around content?
(A) CSS Borders
(B) CSS Margins
(C) CSS Padding
Answer- (C) CSS Padding
350. In CSS, property can be used to wrap text around images?

(A) float
(B) clear
(C) Both(A) & (B)
Answer- (A) float
351. Which of the following is used to specify the layout of web pages?
(A) HTML
(B) CSS
(C) Java Script
Answer- (B) CSS
352. In Java Script, the multi-line comment is denoted as

(A) //
(B) /*/ (C)
/* */
Answer- (C) /* */
353. In JS, The method searches a string for a specified value and returns the position of
match.
(A) slice()
(B) substr()
(C) index()
(D) search()
Answer- (D) search()
354. In Java Script, the method returns the new array length.
(A) shift()
(B) substr()
(C) index()
(D) unshift()
Answer- (D) unshift()
355. In Java Script, which statement lets you to handle the error?
(A) try
(B) catch
(C) Both (A) & (B)
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Answer- Both (A) & (B)
356. Which property is very useful for getting or replacing the content of HTML elements?
(A) innerHTML
(B) outerHTML
(C) Both(A) & (B)
Answer- (A) innerHTML
357. Which of the following function converts an object’s value to a number?

(A) Number()
(B) isNaN()
(C) isFinite()
Answer- (A) Number()
358. message denotes the requested page could not be found and it may be available in
future?
(A) 202 Accepted
(B) 201 created
(C) 403 Forbidden
(D) 404 Not Found
Answer- (D) 404 Not Found
359. Which of the following method can be cached?

(A) GET
(B) POST
Answer- (A) GET
360. Which can reduce the number of server requests and save bandwidth?
(A) Image Gallery
(B) Image Opacity
(C) Image Sprites
(C) Image Sprites
361. Which of the following property sets or returns the CORS settings of the audio/video?
(A) controls
(B) crossOrigin
(C) currentSrc
Answer- (B) crossOrigin
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362. The Javascript allows
(A) single line comment
(B) multi line comment
(C) Both(A) & (B)
(C) Both(A) & (B)
363. CSS Stands for

(A) Combined Styling Sheets
(B) Cascading Style Sheets
(C) Current Style Sheets
(D) Cascading Script Sheets
Answer- (B) Cascading Style Sheets
364. Which of the following message denotes the requested page has moved temporarily to a
new URL?
(A) 202 Accepted
(B) 201 created
(C) 301 Moved Permanently
(D) 302 Found
Answer- (D) 302 Found
365. In CSS, property is used to control the behaviour of floating elements?

(A) float
(B) clear
(C) Both(A) & (B)
Answer- (B) clear
366. Which method returns the HTTP methods that the server supports?
(A) HEAD
(B) PUT
(C) DELETE
(D) OPTIONS
Answer- (D) OPTIONS
367. In Java Script, the single line comment is denoted as

(A) //
(B) /*/ (C)
/* */
Answer- (A) //
368. Java Script can be used to create

(A) cookies
(B) spam
(C) cache
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Answer- (A) cookies
369. Which determines whether a value is a finite number?

(A) Number()
(B) isNaN()
(C) isFinite()
Answer- (C) isFinite()
370. How many types of pop up boxes are used in JavaScript?

(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Four
(D) Three
Answer- (D) Three
371. The default display value for most elements is

(A) line
(B) block
(C) (A) or (B)
Answer- (C) (A) or (B)
372. XHTML stands for

(A) Extensible Hyper Text Markup Language
(B) Extended Hyper Text Markup Language
(C) Expensive Hyper Text Markup Language
(D) Extensible Hyper Text Marked Language
Answer- (A) Extensible Hyper Text Markup Language
373. The attributes and elements of XHTML are must be in

(A) Upper-case
(B) Lower-case
Answer- (B) Lower-case
374. Which of the following message denotes the requested page has moved to a new URL?
(A) 202 Accepted
(B) 201 created
(C) 302 Found
(D) 301 Moved Permanently
Answer- (D) 301 Moved Permanently
375. Which of the following method uploads a representation of the specified URI?
(A) HEAD
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(B) PUT
(C) DELETE
(D) OPTIONS
Answer- (B) PUT
376. Which is a uniform naming scheme for locating resources on the web?
(A) Uniform Resource Identifier(URI)
(B) HTTP
(C) Resource Name
Answer- (A) Uniform Resource Identifier(URI)
377. Which of the following method cannot be bookmarked?

(A) GET
(B) POST
Answer- (B) POST
378. Which of the following property returns the length of the current audio/video?
(A) error
(B) loop
(C) ended
(D) duration
Answer- (D) duration
379. Which method pauses the currently playing the audio/video?

(A) play()
(B) pause()
(C) load()
Answer- (B) pause()
380. XHTML is almost similar to

(A) HTML
(B) XML
(C) HTTP
Answer- (A) HTML
381. The method submits data to be processed to a specified resource.

(A) GET
(B) POST
(C) Both (A) & (B)
Answer- (B) POST
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382. Which of the following specifies a short cut key to activate or focus an element?
(A) class
(B) hidden
(C) draggable
(D) access key
Answer- (D) access key
383. specifies the tabbing order of an element.

(A) class
(B) hidden
(C) draggable
(D) tabindex
Answer- (D) tabindex
384. HTTP works as a protocol between a Client and Server.

(A) request – response
(B) Standard
(C) Both (A) & (B)
Answer- (A) request – response
385. Which of the following method has length restrictions?

(A) GET
(B) POST
(C) Both (A) & (B)
Answer- (A) GET
386. converts character into a format which can be transmitted over the Internet?
(A) URL Encoding
(B) URL Decoding
(C) Both (A) & (B)
(A) URL Encoding
387. Which of the following method draws a “filled” rectangle?

(A) rect()
(B) clearRect()
(C) StrokeRect()
(D) fillRect()
Answer- (D) fillRect()
388. Which is the standard response for successful HTTP requests?

(A) 202 Accepted
(B) 201 created
(C) 200 OK
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Answer- (C) 200 OK
389. creates an arc/curve between two tangents.

(A) arc()
(B) arcTo()
(C) quadraticCurveTO()
Answer- (B) arcTo()
390. sets or returns whether the audio/video should start playing as soon as it is loaded.
(A) audioTracks
(B) autoplay
(C) Controller
Answer- (B) autoplay
391. Which of the following provide additional information about HTMLelements?

(A) Headings
(B) Paragraphs
(C) Styles
(D) Attributes
Answer- (D) Attributes
392. The method requests data from a specified source.

(A) GET
(B) POST
(C) Both (A) & (B)
Answer- (A) GET
393. Symbol used at the beginning of the HERF text is

(A) #
(B) $
(C) &
(D) ^
Answer- (A) #
394. Which of the following method converts the request connection to a transparent
TCP/IP tunnel?
(A) HEAD
(B) PUT
(C) OPTIONS
(D) CONNECT
Answer- (D) CONNECT
395. HTML is a subset of
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(A) SGMT
(B) SGML
(C) SGMD
Answer- (B) SGML
396. The MIME text file is saved with

(A) THM extension
(B) HTML extension
(C) HMT extension
Answer- (B) HTML extension
397. SGML stands for

(A) Standard General Mark Language
(B) Security General Markup Language
(C) Standard Generalized Markup Language
(D) Standard Generalized Mark Language
Answer- (C) Standard Generalized Markup Language
398. HTML tags are surrounded by

(A) Square Brackets
(B) Curly Brackets
(C) Angle Brackets
(C) Angle Brackets
399. Extensible Markup Language (XML) tags are

(A) Case Insensitive
(B) Case Sensitive
(C) Both (A) & (B)
(B) Case Sensitive
400. Document Object Model(DOM) is a

(A) Character User Interface (CUI)
(B) Application Programming Interface (API)
(C) Both (A) & (B)
Answer- (B) Application Programming Interface (API)
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Mixed Questions 1
401. Concept of developing a compiler for a language by using subsets of the same language?
A. Bootstrap
B. Lex
C. Yacc
Answer- A. Bootstrap
402. System Calls are usually invoked by using

A. Hardware Interrupt
B. Software Interrupt
C. Polling
D. An Indirect jump
Answer- B. Software Interrupt
403. A detective control is used to check if correct numbers are keyed in

A. Sequence Check
B. Manual Check
C. Check digit
Answer- C. Check digit
404. In object-oriented technology hiding the complexity of characteristics is called
A. Inheritance
B. Polymorphism
C. Abstraction
Answer- C. Abstraction
405. is a component of on-line shopping mall.

A. Shopping Cart
B. Customer databases
C. Inventory Control systems
D. All of the above
Answer- A. Shopping Cart
406. Which of these e-commerce systems handle non-monetary documents?

A. SWIFT
B. EFTS
C. EDI
D. None of the above
Answer- C.Electronic Data Interchange(EDI)
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407. Which of the following is/are part(S) of EDI?
A. Trading partners
B. Data segment
C. Encryption
D. All of the above
408. Which of the following is the job of a DNS?

A. Name is displayed
B. File is transferred
C. IP address is displayed
D. All of the above
Answer- C. IP address is displayed
409. Which of these determines authorised sign in an EDI transaction?

A. Spoofing
B. Masking
C. private key Cryptosystem
D. Digital Signature
Answer- D. Digital Signature
410. is associated with implementation of E-Commerce.

A. Local Area Network
B. Wireless LAN
C. Value Added Network
D. All of the above
Answer- C. Value Added Network
411. Which of the following feature is related to bottom up parsing?

A. Shift
B. Reduce
C. Precedence Relation
D. All of the Above
412. You need to configure a switch from a remote subnet.Which of the following must be configured
on the switch?
A. IP
B. Console part
C. SNMP
D. Default gateway
Answer- D. Default gateway
413. “Each packet contains the full source and destination address”.This statement indicates which of
the following?
A. FDDI
B. Data link
C. Data gram
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D. Virtual Circuit Answer-
C. Data gram
414. RST 6.5 is

A. Maskable Interrupt
B. Vector Interrupt
C. Both (A) and (B)
Answer- C. Both (A) and (B)
415. Creating a eliminate the need to qualify the object name with the schema and
provides you with an alternative name for a table, view, sequence, procedure or other objects.
A. synonym
B. Antonym
C. Column
D. Alias
Answer-A. synonym
416. Data bus is

A. Unidirectional
B. Bidirectional
C. Multidirectional
Answer- B. Bidirectional
417. Which of the following is/are application(S) of Flip-Flop?

A. Latch
B. Counter
C. Bounce elimination switch
D. All of the Above
Answer- D. All of the above
418. Round Robin(RR) scheduling algorithm falls under the category of

A. Preemptive scheduling
B. Non-Preemptive scheduling
C. Both (A) and (B)
Answer-A. Preemptive scheduling
419. Which of the following is a variation of Frequency Division Multiplexing(FDM)?

A. Time Division Multiplexing
B. Pulse Code Modulation
C. Wavelength Division Multiplexing
Answer- C. Wavelength Division Multiplexing
420. Backus-Naur Form (BNF) is a meta language for
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A. Specifying the syntax of a language
B. Specifying a context free language
C. Both (A) and (B)
421. Which one of the following interrupt is non-maskable?

A. RDT 6.5
B. RST 7.5
C. INTR
D. TRAP
Answer- D. TRAP. A Non Maskable Interrupt(NMI) is a hardware interrupt that can not be ignored by the
instructions of CPU.
422. One can interface with operating system by means of

A. Operating System Call
B. Operating System Command
C. Both (A) and (B)
423. A file organization component of a Virtual Access Storage Method(VSAM) file is
A. relative record data set

B. keyed sequential data set
C. entry sequential data set
D. All of the Above
424. When the maximum clock rate is quoted for a logic family it applies to
A. Shift register
B. Flip-Flop
C. Counter
Answer- A. Shift register
425. Which of the following UNIX command is used to create empty files?
A. cat
B. Vi
C. Pico
D. Touch
Answer- D. Touch
426. Which of the following operators can be overloaded in C++?

A. Scope resolution operator
B. Size of operator
C. Conditional operator
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D. arithmetic operator
Answer- D. arithmetic operator
427. The mechanism that brings a page into memory only when it is needed is called
A. Segmentation
B. Fragmentation
C. Demand paging
D. None of the Above Answer-
C. Demand paging
428. Which of the following addressing modes permits relocation without any change?
A. Indirect addressing
B. Indexed addressing
C. Base register addressing
D. PC relative addressing
Answer- C. Base register addressing
429. A is a software that manages the time of a microprocessor to ensure that all
time critical events are processed as efficiently as possible. This software allows the system
activities to be divided into multiple independent elements called tasks.
A. Kernel
B. Shell
C. Processor
D. Device Driver
Answer- A. Kernel
430. In OSI model, terminal emulation is done in

A. Session layer
B. Application layer
C. Presentation layer
D. Transport layer
Answer- B. Application layer. Terminal emulation is the process by which a microcomputer imitates a dumb
terminal in order to communicate with a mainframe computer or other device.
431. Which of the following is/are routing protocol(s)?

A. Appletalk
B. IPX
C. TCP/IP
D. All of the above
432. An assembler that runs on one machine but produces machine code for another machine
is called
A. Simulator
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B. Cross Assembler
C. Boot-strap loader
Answer- B. Cross Assembler
433. The two basic types of record access methods are

A. Direct and indirect
B. On-line and real-time
C. Sequential and indexed
D. Direct and Sequential
Answer- C. Sequential and indexed
434. Which of the following is/are valid Protocol Data Units(PDU)?

A. Packets
B. Frame
C. Segments
D. All of the above
435. Which of the following is/are type of UNIX Shell?

A. Korn Shell
B. Bourne Shell
C. C Shell
D. All of the above
436. Which of the following is/are advantages of Virtual LANs (VLANs)?

A. They increase switching throughput
B. They reduce switching overhead
C. They simplify the adding, moving and changing of users
D. All of the above
Answer- C. They simplify the adding, moving and changing of users
437. If a denormalization situation exists with a one to one binary relationship then all fields are stored in
A. four relations
B. one relation
C. three relations
D. two relations
Answer- B. one relation
438. Which of the following is/are advantages of using VLAN Trunking Protocol (VTP) in a
switching environment?
A. It allows switches to read tags
B. It enables VLANs to span multiple switches.
C. It simplifies the scalability of the switched work
D. All of the above
Answer- C. It simplifies the scalability of the switched work
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439. When a network has multiple bridges and is using Spanning Tree Protocol, how is the root bridge
determined?
A. The bridge with the lowest ID number assumes the root bridge role.
B. The bridge with the highest ID number assumes the root bridge role.
C. The bridge with the lowest MAC address is always the root bridge.
D. All of the above
Answer- A. The bridge with the lowest ID number assumes the root bridge role.
440. Which of the following is/are congestion control algorithm(S)?

A. Resource reSerVation Protocol (RSVP)
B. Token Bucket
C. The leaky Bucket
D. All of the above
441. Which of the following is the preferred way to recover a database after a transaction in
progress terminates abnormally?
A. Rollforward
B. Rollback
C. Reprocess transactions
Answer- B. Rollback
442. is usually a specialized hardware instruction dedicated to invoke the Operating

System.
A. Procedure Call
B. Supervisor Call
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. None of the above Answer-
B. Supervisor Call
443. is a versatile instruction that is finding its way into an increasing number of
computer systems, especially microprocessors.
A. Procedure Call
B. Supervisor Call
C. Software Interrupt (SWI)
Answer- C. Software Interrupt (SWI)
444. A is a collection of autonomous computer systems capable of communication and

cooperation via their hardware and softwareinterconnections.
A. System
B. distributed computer system
C. Centralized Computer
Answer- B. distributed computer system
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445. Locking may cause which of the following problems?
A. Deadlock
B. Rollback
C. Reprocess
Answer- A. Deadlock
446. A data warehouse administrator is concerned with which of the following?

A. The time to make a decision but not the typical roles of a database administrator
B. The time to make a decision and the typical roles of a database administrator
C. The typical roles of a database administrator and redesigning existing applications.
Answer- C. The typical roles of a database administrator and redesigning existing applications.
447. Concurrency control is important for which of the following reasons?

A. To ensure data integrity when updates occur to the database in single-user environment.
B. To ensure data integrity when updates occur to the database in Multi-user environment.
C. To ensure data integrity while reading data occurs to the database in Multi-user
environment.
Answer- B. To ensure data integrity when updates occur to the database in Multi- user environment.
448. Which of the following is associated with implementation of e-commerce?

A. LAN
B. WLAN
C. VLAN
D. VAN
Answer- D. VAN (Value Added Network)
449. Which of the following makes Web insecure?

A. RSA security algorithm
B. Network Interface Card (NIC)
C. Static keys
Answer- C. Static keys
450. The buffer in DBMS has data that has to be

A. Accessed
B. Read
C. Transmitted
D. All of the above
451. means that each logical object is placed in a set of memory locations with
strictly consecutive addresses.
A. External Fragmentation
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B. Internal Fragmentation
C. Contiguous Allocation
Answer- C. Contiguous Allocation
452. Which of the following eliminates internal fragmentation?

B. Contiguous Allocation
C. Static partitioning
D. Dynamic partitioning
Answer- D. Dynamic partitioning
453. Wasting of memory between partitions, due to scattering of the free space into a number of
dis-contiguous areas, is called
C. Contiguous Allocation
Answer- A. External Fragmentation
454. A is a hardware complex that contains most of the logic address translation in
microprocessor systems.
A. Memory Management Unit (MMU)
B. Translation Lookaside Buffer (TLB)
C. Page Map Table (PMT)
Answer- A. Memory Management Unit (MMU)
455. Which of the following is a memory cache that stores recent translations of virtual memory to
physical addresses for faster retrieval.
A. Memory Management Unit (MMU)
B. Translation Lookaside Buffer (TLB)
C. Page Map Table (PMT)
Answer- B. Translation Lookaside Buffer (TLB)
456. Which of the following requires that all channels in a message transmission path be of the same
speed?
A. Packet-switched networks
B. Circuit-switched networks
C. Message-switched networks
Answer- B. Circuit-switched networks
457. Which protocol works at the Internet layer and provides a connection service between hosts?
A. Internet Protocol(IP)
B. Packet Internet Gopher(PING)
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C. Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (RARP)
D. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)
Answer- A. Internet Protocol(IP)
458. If a host broadcasts a frame that includes a source and destination hardware address, and its
purpose is to assign IP addresses to itself, Which protocol at the Network Layer does the host use?
A. Internet Control Message Protocol(ICMP)
Answer- C. Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (RARP)
459. When you connect to an online information service you are asked to provide some kind of
identification such as your name, an account number and a password. What is the name given to this brief
dialogue between you and the information system?
A. Security Procedure
B. Safeguard Procedure
C. Identification Procedure
D. Log-on procedure
Answer- D. Log-on procedure
460. A heap allows a very efficient implementation of a

A. Stack
B. Queue
C. Priority Queue
C. Priority Queue
461. Error detection at the data link layer is achieved by?

A. Bit stuffing
B. Cyclic redundancy codes
C. Hamming codes
D. Equalization
Answer- B. Cyclic redundancy codes
462. Which of the following services is used to translate host names into IP addresses?
A. SNMP
B. SMTP
C. UDP
D. DNS
Answer- D. DNS
463. Which of the following functions is not performed by TCP?

A. Flow Control
B. Error Checking
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C. Sequencing
D. Subnetting
Answer- D. Subnetting
464. Which of the following table helps in representing the previous and next state of the sequential
circuit prior to and the clock pulse respectively?
A. Truth Table
B. Characteristic Table
C. Excitation Table
Answer- C. Excitation Table
465. One method of programming a computer to exhibit human intelligence is called modeling or
A. Simulation
B. Cognitization
C. Duplication
Answer- A. Simulation
466. Which of the following is an important component of semantic analysis?

A. Symbol table
B. Type Checking
C. Lex
D. Yacc
Answer- B. Type Checking
467. Which of the following tools will identify the address intermediate hops between two
stations?
A. TCP
B. Telnet
C. Ping
D. Traceroute or Tracert
Answer- D. Traceroute or Tracert
468. Lexical Analyzer transforms an input streams into

A. Regular expression
B. Binary
C. Symbols
D. Sequence Tokens
Answer- D. Sequence Tokens
469. The relative position of the file marker can be changed via the
A. Marker call
B. EXEC Command
C. Fence Register
D. LSEEK Call
Answer- D. LSEEK Call
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470. In a Third Normal Form relation, every attribute is non-transitively and
fully dependent on the every candidate Keys.
A. Prime
B. Unique
C. Non-Prime
Answer- C. Non-Prime
471. Which of the following methods provides the greatest frame throughput?
A. Frame-tag switching
B. ISL Switching
C. Store-and-forward switching
D. Cut-through switching
Answer- D. Cut-through switching
472. What must you do to allow a Virtual LAN(VLAN) to span two or more switches?
A. Configure port security on the switch.
B. Set up a VTP domain
C. Configure the duplex setting on the ports
D. Set up a trunk location.
Answer- D. Set up a trunk location.
473. What is ISL used for?

A. To allow simultaneous routing and switching
B. To allow an Ethernet interface to understand frame tags
C. Both (A) and (B)
Answer- B. To allow an Ethernet interface to understand frame tags
474. What is the name of the protocol used to eliminate loops?

A. Switching
B. Frame tagging
C. Spanning tree protocol
Answer- C. Spanning tree protocol
475. If you wanted to locate the hardware address of a local device, which protocol would you use?
A. Internet Control Message Protocol(ICMP)
Answer- D. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)
476. To which pin on the RAM chip does the address decoder connect in order to signal which
memory chip is being accessed?
A. The address input
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B. The output enable
C. The chip enable
D. The data input
Answer- C. The chip enable
477. The altering of data so that it is not usable unless the changes are undone is
A. Compression
B. Encryption
C. Ergonomics
Answer- B. Encryption
478. Which of the following scheduler is in charge of handling the swapped out process?
A. Medium term
B. Long term
C. Short term
Answer- A. Medium term
479. Race around condition can be eliminated using

A. False Triggering
B. Two clock pulses
C. Master-slave Flip-Flop
D. All of the above
Answer- C. Master-slave Flip-Flop
480. Which of the following is an operating system Call?

A. OPEN
B. CLOSE
C. UNLINK
D. All of the above
481. Which component is used by the data analyst to create the queries that access the database?
A. Data extraction
B. End-user query tool
C. End-user presentation tool
Answer- B. End-user query tool
482. allows wireless mobile devices to access the Internet and its services.
A. WAP
B. Ethernet
C. TCP/IP
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Answer- Wireless Application Protocol (WAP)
483. Which data structure is needed to convert Infix notation to postfixnotation?

A. Tree
B. Queue
C. Stack
Answer- C. Stack
484. Binding the same name to multiple operations whose signature differ in number or types of
arguments?
A. Overloading
B. Object model
C. Package
Answer- A. Overloading
485. Implementation of an inverted list to maintain the record list for each value for a given attribute can
be done by
A. Sequential file
B. Direct file
C. Indexed file
A. Sequential file
486. is a communication mode in which only one signal is transmitted.

A. Half Duplex Channel
B. Full Duplex Channel
C. Simplex Channel
Answer- C. Simplex Channel
487. In Operating Systems, protection in a paging system is achieved mainly by the PMLTR. PMLTR
stands for
A. Page Map Table Limit Record
B. Page Memory Table Limit Register
C. Page Memory Table Limit Register
D. Page Map Table Limit Register
Answer- D. Page Map Table Limit Register. Paging is a memory-management scheme that removes the
requirement of contiguous allocation of physical memory.
488. Which of the following protocol is related to message format in e-mail?

A. RFC 822
B. RFC 832
C. RFC 844
Answer- A. RFC 822
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489. Wasting of memory within a partition, due to a reference in size of a partition and of the object
resident within it, is called
C. Both (A) and (B)
Answer- B. Internal Fragmentation
490. In OSI model, routing is performed by

A. Layer 5
B. Layer 4
C. Layer 6
D. Layer 3
Answer- D. Layer 3
491. What is the purpose of VLAN Trunking Protocol(VTP) Pruning?

A. To simplify the management of VLANS
B. To reduce unnecessary flooded traffic on specified trunk lines.
C. Both (A) and (B)
Answer- B. To reduce unnecessary flooded traffic on specified trunk lines.
492. A network administrator wants to pass traffic between two Virtual LANS(VLANs) on
the same switch. What will he need to accomplish this?
A. bridge
B. switch
C. router
Answer- C. router
493. Which layer uses the segment as a Protocol Data Unit(PDU)?

A. Layer 5
B. Layer 3
C. Layer 2
D. Layer 4
Answer- D. Layer 4
494. Which of the following tools can be utilized to test IP connectivity between two devices?
A. Ping
B. Telnet
C. Traceroute
D. All of the Above
495. A descending heap is also called

A. Max heap
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B. Min heap
C. Priority heap
Answer- A. Max heap
496. Piggy backing is a technique for

A. Acknowledgement
B. Flow control
C. Both (A) and (B)
Answer- A. Acknowledgement
497. Tracking and recording of page modifications is usually performed in hardware by adding a
written-into bit to each entry of the page map table. This bit is sometimes called
A. Protection bits
B. Dirty bits
C. Priority bits
Answer- B. Dirty bits
498. The best adequate Normal Form is

A. 2NF
B. 3NF
C. 4NF
Answer- B. 3NF
499. Which of the following is an Object-Oriented Programming (OOP)?

A. AI and expert system
B. Neural Networks
C. Parallel Programming
D. All of the Above
500. In C++, setw is operator.

A. Initialization
B. Conditional
C. Field Width
Answer- C. Field Width
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Compiler Questions
501. translates high level language(source code) into low level language(object
code)
A. Compiler
B. Interpreter
C. Assembler
Answer- A. Compiler
502. System program such as Compiler are designed so that they are
A. Recursive
B. Non-reusable
C. Serially usable
D. Re-enterable
Answer- D. Re-enterable
503. The computer language generally translated to pseudocode is

A. Interpreter
B. Compiler
C. Assembly
Answer- C. Assembly
504. A system program that combines separately compiled modules of a program into a form suitable
for execution is
A. Assembler
B. Linking loader
C. Linker
B. Linking loader
505. In an absolute loading scheme, which loader function is accomplished by programmer?

A. Allocation
B. Linking
C. Both (A) and (B)
506. Resolution is externally defined symbols is performed by

A. Assembler
B. Linking loader
C. Linker
Answer- C. Linker
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507. Which of the following is used for grouping of characters into tokens?
A. Parser
B. Code generator
C. Loader
D. Lexical Analyser
Answer- D. Lexical Analyser
508. A compiler that runs on a particular platform and is capable of generating executable code for
another platform is called a
A. Assembler
B. Linking loader
C. Loader
D. Cross-Compiler
Answer- D. Cross-Compiler
509. A system program that set up an executable program in main memory ready for execution is ?
A. Assembler
B. Linker
C. Loader
D. Text editor
Answer- C. Loader
510. A compiler which allows only the modified section of the source code to be recompiled is
called as
A. Incremental Compiler
B. Dynamic Compiler
C. Subjective Compiler
Answer- A. Incremental Compiler
511. The output of lexical analyser is

A. A set of regular expressions
B. Syntax tree
C. Set of tokens
Answer- C. Set of tokens
512. A bottom-up parser generates

A. right-most derivation
B. left-most derivation
C. right-most derivation in reverse
D. left-most derivation in reverse
Answer- C. right-most derivation in reverse
513. A top-down parser generates

A. right-most derivation
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B. left-most derivation
C. right-most derivation in reverse
D. left-most derivation in reverse
Answer- B. left-most derivation
514. A form of recursive-descent parsing that does not require any back-tracking is known as
A. Predictive parsing
B. Recursive-descent parsing
C. Both (A) and (B)
Answer- A. Predictive parsing
515. checks whether the parse tree constructed follows the rules of a language.
A. Syntax Analysis
B. Semantic Analysis
C. Lexical Analysis
Answer- B. Semantic Analysis
516. Which of the following is/are advantage(s) of Compiler Technology?

A. Parsers for HTML in web browser
B. Software testing
C. Malicious code detection
D. All of the above
517. defines the syntax of a programming language.

A. Token
B. Pattern
C. Context-Free Grammar
Answer- C. Context-Free Grammar
518. The graph that shows the basic blocks and their successor relationship is called
A. Control graph
B. Hamiltonian graph
C. Flow Chart
Answer- C. Flow Chart
519. The optimization technique which is typically applied on loops is

A. Peephole optimization
B. Removal of invariant computation
C. Constant folding
D. All of the Above
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520. Semantic errors can be detected at

A. run time
B. compile time
C. Both (A) and (B)
Answer- B. compile time
521. In an absolute loading scheme which loader function is accomplished by assembler?

A. re-allocation
B. allocation
C. linking
D. loading
Answer- D. loading
522. or scanning is the process where the stream of characters making up the source
program is read from left to right and grouped into tokens.
A. Lexical analysis
B. Diversion
C. Modeling
Answer- A. Lexical analysis
523. Load address for the first word of the program is called
A. Linker address origin
B. load address origin
C. Phase library
Answer- B. load address origin
524. The translator which perform macro expansion is called a

A. Macro processor
B. Macro pre-processor
C. Micro pre-processor
D. assembler
Answer- B. Macro pre-processor
525. Which of the following is permanent database in the general model of compiler?
A. Identifier table
B. Literal table
C. Terminal table
C. Terminal table
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526. Which of the following module does not incorporate initialization of values changed by the
module?
A. reusable module
B. Serially usable module
C. re-enterable module
D. non reusable module
Answer- D. non reusable module
527. Analysis that determines the meaning of a statement once its grammatical structure becomes
known is termed as
A. Semantic analysis
B. Syntax analysis
C. Regular analysis
D. General analysis
Answer- A. Semantic analysis
528. Which of the following system software resides in main memory always?
A. Linker
B. Loader
C. Assembler
Answer- B. Loader
529. Parsing is also known as

A. Lexical analysis
B. Syntax analysis
C. Semantic analysis
D. Code generation
Answer- B. Syntax analysis
530. Back-patching is useful for handling

A. Unconditional jumps
B. Conditional jumps
C. backward references
D. forward references
Answer- D. forward references Software
Engineering Questions:
531. A computer program can often be a very satisfactory of a physical

system such as road traffic conditions.
A. solution
B. replacement
C. model
D. simulation
Answer- D. simulation
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532. Which of the following software engineering concept does Ada language support?
A. abstraction
B. generic
C. information hiding
D. All of the Above
533. A module that is supplied along with the programming language translator to make the language
easier is called a/an
A. intrinsic function
B. benchmark program
C. data structure
Answer- A. intrinsic function
534. The model which reduces the cost of development of software is

A. waterfall model
B. spiral
C. prototyping
Answer- C. prototyping
535. The model which estimates the total effort in terms of person, months of the technical project
staff, is
A. waterfall model
B. spiral
C. COCOMO Model
D. prototyping
Answer- C. COCOMO Model
536. The graph theoretic concept will be useful in software testing is

A. Cyclomatic number
B. Eulerian Cycle
C. Hamultonian circuit
D. prototyping
Answer- A. Cyclomatic number
537. A desirable property of module is

A. multifunctional
B. independency
C. high coupling
B. independency
538. The maximum effort distribution in phases of software development is
A. requirement analysis
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B. testing
C. coding
Answer- B. testing
539. COM stands for

A. Computer on Microprocessor
B. Computer Output Microprocessor
C. Computer on Microfilm
D. Computer Output Microfilm
Answer- D. Computer Output Microfilm
540. In Object oriented design of software, objects have

A. Attributes
B. Operations
C. Both (A) and (B)
541. Which of the following is/are included in the Software Requirement Specification(SRS)
document?
A. Functional requirements
B. Non-Functional requirements
C. Goals of Implementation
D. All of the Above
542. Black box testing is also known as

A. graph based testing
B. loop testing
C. behavioral testing
Answer- C. behavioral testing
543. White box testing, a software testing technique is also called

A. graph based testing
B. loop testing
C. data flow testing
D. structural testing
Answer- D. structural testing
544. In Software development prototype is a

A. Mini-model of existing system
B. rudimentary working model of a product
C. Working model of the existing system
Answer- B. rudimentary working model of a product
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545. is a popular version of the Systems Development Life Cycle (SDLC) model for
Software Engineering.
A. Waterfall Model
B. Iterative Model
C. Spiral Model
D. V Model
Answer- A. Waterfall Model
546. In RAD model, RAD stands for

A. Random Application Development
B. Rapid Access Development
C. Random Application Design
D. Rapid Application Development
Answer- D. Rapid Application Development
547. The traditional methodology used to develop, maintain, and replace information
systems is
A. SDLC
B. RAD
C. OOAD
D. prototyping
Answer- A. SDLC
548. Automated tools for design are also called

A. CASE Tools
B. System design
C. DFD
D. RAD
Answer- A. CASE Tools
549. Which of the following is the Central component of any CASE tool?
A. CASE concentrator
B. CASE origin
C. CASE repository
Answer- C. CASE repository
550. The phase of the SDLC in which an information system is systematically repaired and
improved is referred to as
A. analysis
B. implementation
C. maintenance
Answer- C. maintenance
551. Which of the following model is a combination of Iterative model and Waterfall model?
A. linear-sequential Model
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B. Spiral Model
C. V Model
Answer- B. Spiral Model
552. SRS stands for

A. Software Resolution Specification
B. Software Requirement Standards
C. Software Response Service
D. Software Requirements Specifications
Answer- D. Software Requirements Specifications
553. Which of the following model is also referred to as a linear-sequential life cycle model?
A. Waterfall Model
B. Iterative Model
C. Spiral Model
D. V Model
Answer- A. Waterfall Model
554. SDLC stands for

A. Software Department Load Cycle
B. Software Department Life Cycle
C. Software Development Load Cycle
D. Software Development Life Cycle
Answer- D. Software Development Life Cycle
555. According to Lehman’s laws of software evolution, the software can be divided into
types.
A. Two
B. Four
C. Three
D. Six
Answer- C. Three
556. What is the final result of the requirements analysis and specifications phase ?
A. data flow diagram
B. SRS Document
C. Coding the project
D. User Manual
Answer- B. SRS Document
557. In software development, What is noise?

A. Adding requirements in SRS document
B. Writing irrelevant statement in SRS document
C. Writing over-specific requirements in SRS document
Answer- B. Writing irrelevant statement in SRS document
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558. The 4GT Model is a package of .
A. CASE Tools
B. Software tools
C. Both (A) and (B)
B. Software tools
559. Risk analysis of a project is done in

A. System Analysis phase
B. Implementation phase
C. Maintenance phase
D. Feasibility Study
Answer- D. Feasibility Study
560. Which of the following is the most important phase of Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC)?
A. Requirements analysis
B. Coding
C. Testing
D. Designing
Answer- A. Requirements analysis
DBMS Questions: Part - I

561. Which handles the SQL requests and converts it into a request the individual database
understands?
A. Graphical User Interface(GUI)
B. ActiveX Data Objects (ADO)
C. Universal Data Access (UDA)
D. Open Database Connectivity(ODBC)
Answer- D. Open Database Connectivity(ODBC)
562. is a database that contains billions of table rows.

A. Very Large Database (VLDB)
B. Holographic storage
C. Both (A) and (B)
Answer- A. Very Large Database (VLDB)
563. ACID is a concept that defines four transaction properties of a database.ACID stands for
A. Accuracy, Characteristics, Interface, Data mart
B. Atomicity, Consistency, Interface, Data mart
C. Accuracy, Characteristics, Isolation, Data mart
D. Atomicity, Consistency, Isolation, Durability
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Answer- D. Atomicity, Consistency, Isolation, Durability
564. Which of the following is middle ware designed to support rapid high volume on-line transactions?
A. Oracle
B. Customer Information Control System(CICS)
C. Both (A) and (B)
Answer- B. Customer Information Control System(CICS)
565. Which of the following middle ware technology might need the Interface Definition Language
(IDL)?
A. COBOL
B. RAI
C. CORBA
Answer- C. CORBA
566. CORBA stands for

A. Common Object Request Broker Application
B. Common Oriented Request Broker Application
C. Common Oriented Request Broker Architecture
D. Common Object Request Broker Architecture
Answer- D. Common Object Request Broker Architecture
567. The basic unit of PL/SQL is called

A. Array
B. Row
C. Unit
D. Block
Answer- D. Block
568. is a refinement process of organizing data in the database to avoid data

redundancy and anomalies in insert, delete and updateoperations.
A. Data Modeling
B. Normalization
C. Clustering
B. Normalization
569. Which term is used to describe the process of forecasting or discovering pattern in data?
A. Data Modeling
B. Data Warehousing
C. Data Mining
D. Normalization
Answer- C. Data Mining
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570. Which of the following technology was Microsoft’s first attempt at an object- oriented database
interface?
A. Data Access Objects (DAO)
B. ActiveX Data Objects (ADO)
C. Universal Data Access (UDA)
Answer- A. Data Access Objects (DAO)
571. is a centralized repository that stores data from multiple sources and transforms
them into a common, multi dimensional model for efficient querying and analysis.
A. Data Selection
B. Data Cleaning
C. Data Integration
D. Data Warehouse
Answer- D. Data Warehouse
572. Who is known as the father of data warehousing?

A. Grace Hopper
B. Niklaus Wirth
C. James Gosling
D. William H.Imnon
Answer- D. William H.Imnon
573. is a simple form of Data Warehouse that is focused on single subject.

A. Spread Mart
B. Data Mart
C. Both (A) and (B)
Answer- B. Data Mart
574. Which is/are the basic operation(S) in Online Analytical Processing(OLAP)?

A. Consolidation
B. Drill- down
C. Slicing and Dicing
D. All of the Above
575. is a class of software programs capable of supporting large number of

short online transactions?
A. OLAP
B. OLTP
C. Both (A) and (B)
Answer- B. OLTP
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576. Which performs multidimensional analysis of business data and provides the capability for complex
calculations, trend analysis and sophisticated datamodeling?
A. OLAP
B. OLTP
C. Both (A) and (B)
Answer- A. OLAP
577. Which of the following is the simplest and less technical type of data warehouse?
A. Real Time Data Warehouse
B. Integrated Data Warehouse
C. Offline Data Warehouse
D. Offline operational Data Warehouse
Answer- D. Offline operational Data Warehouse
578. Which of the following Data Warehouse is updated from data in the operational systems on a regular
basis?
D. Offline operational Data Warehouse
Answer- C. Offline Data Warehouse
579. is a data warehouse that can assemble data from different areas of business.
D. Offline operational Data Warehouse Answer-
580. is updated for every transaction performed on the source data.

D. Offline operational Data Warehouse Answer-
581. is described as extracting the information from large amount of data in a

database.
A. Data Modeling
B. Data Warehousing
C. Data Mining
Answer- C. Data Mining
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582. is a type of data mining used in Customer Relationship
Management(CRM)
A. Clustering
B. Web mining
C. Both (A) and (B)
Answer- B. Web mining
583. is the process of using graph theory to analyse the node and connection
structure of a web site.
A. Web structure mining
B. Web content mining
C. Web usage mining
Answer- A. Web structure mining
584. The information gathered through web mining is evaluated by using

A. clustering
B. classification
C. Association
D. All of the Above
585. Which of the following is used to examine data collected by search engines and web spiders?
A. Web structure mining
B. Web content mining
C. Web usage mining
Answer- B. Web content mining
586. a special type of computational cluster that is specifically designed for storing and
analysing large amount of unstructured data.
A. Hadoop Cluster
B. Failover Cluster
C. Both (A) and (B)
A. Hadoop Cluster
587. The process of grouping a set of objects into classes of similar objects is called
A. clustering
B. classification
C. Association
D. All of the Above
Answer- A. clustering
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588. Which parameter is used to discover patterns in data that can lead to reasonable
predictions about the future?
A. clustering
B. classification
C. Association
D. Forecasting
Answer- D. Forecasting
589. Which of the following is the process of detecting and correcting the wrong data?
A. Data Selection
B. Data Cleaning
C. Data Integration
B. Data Cleaning
590. Which of the following is the process of combining data from different resources?
A. Data Selection
B. Data Cleaning
C. Data Integration
Answer- C. Data Integration
591. An important purpose of the shared pool is to cache the executable versions of
statements.
A. SQL
B. PL/SQL
C. Both (A) and (B)
592. Which of the following is/are main component(s) of the shared pool?
A. library Cache
B. dictionary Cache
C. Both (A) and (B)
593. Oracle Database segregates a small amount of the shared pool for large objects(Over
5KB).The segregated area of the shared pool is called
A. Fixed Pool
B. Reserved Pool
C. Allocated Pool
B. Reserved Pool
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594. Which stores the executable(parsed) form of SQL cursors and PL/SQL programs?
A. library Cache
B. dictionary Cache
C. Both (A) and (B)
Answer- A. library Cache
595. Information stored in dictionary cache includes

A. User names
B. Profile data
C. table space information
D. All of the above
596. When a query is submitted to oracle server for execution, oracle checks if same query has
been executed previously. If found the same then this event is known as
A. Library cache hit
B. soft parsing
C. Both (A) and (B)
597. If the parsed form of the statement is not found in the shared pool then new statement is parsed
and its parsed version is stored in Shared SQL area. This is known as
B. Soft parsing
C. Hard parsing
Answer- C. Hard parsing
598. Shared pool size is an important factor for applications.

A. On-line Transaction Processing (OLTP)
B. Decision Support Systems (DSS)
C. Both (A) and (B)
Answer- A. On-line Transaction Processing (OLTP)
599. The shared pool is also able to support in data warehousing

applications.
A. Shared SQL
B. Stored SQL
C. Unsorted SQL
D. Unshared SQL
Answer- D. Unshared SQL
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600. Reuse of shared SQL for multiple users running the same application avoids

B. Soft parsing
C. Hard parsing
Answer- C. Hard parsing
601. Which of the following is/are feature(s) of Oracle 9i?

A. Scalability
B. Reliablity
C. One Development model
D. All of the above
602. Which of the following is an example for Embedded SQL Statement?

A. ROLLBACK
B. SETROLE
C. ALTER SYSTEM
D. FETCH
Answer- D. FETCH
603. is a tool for entering and running ad-hoc based database statements.
A. MySQL
B. PL/SQL
C. SQL*PLUS
Answer- C. SQL*PLUS
604. Database is the only database specifically designed as an Internet

development and deployment platform
A. Oracle 6i
B. Oracle 7i
C. Oracle 8i
D. Oracle 9i
Answer- D. Oracle 9i
605. Oracle 9i can scale tens of thousands of concurrent users support upto
petabytes data.
A. 124
B. 256
C. 512
D. 624
Answer- C. 512
606. Oracle 9i Reports gives us options for building a Web report.

A. two
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B. three
C. four
D. five
Answer- A. two
607. Oracle 9i Reports is the solution of

A. Paper publishing
B. Web publishing
C. Both (A) and (B)
608. The process is used for inter-instance locking in Real Application Clusters.
A. Front Manager Server
B. Back Manager Server
C. Lock Manager Server
Answer- C. Lock Manager Server
609. The performs recovery when a failed instance starts up again.

A. Log Writer(LGWR)
B. Checkpoint(CKPT)
C. System Monitor(SMON)
D. Process Monitor(PMON)
Answer- C. System Monitor(SMON)
610. The performs process recovery when a user process fails.

A. Log Writer(LGWR)
B. Checkpoint(CKPT)
C. System Monitor(SMON)
D. Process Monitor(PMON)
Answer- D. Process Monitor(PMON)
611. What type of failure occurs when Oracle fails due to an operating system or computer hardware
failure?
A. Application failure
B. Instance Failure
C. Media Failure
D. Roll back failure
Answer- B. Instance Failure
612. Which Oracle backup and recovery file contains user and system data?
A. Control file
B. Data file
C. Offline Redo file
Answer- B. Data file
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613. When is the System Global Area (SGA) created in an Oracle database environment?
A. When the database is created
B. When a user process is started
C. When the database is mounted
D. When the instance is started
Answer- D. When the instance is started
614. What is the type of Oracle backup in which all uncommitted changes have been removed from the
data files?
A. Full backup
B. Consistent backup
C. Inconsistent backup
D. Differential backup
Answer- B. Consistent backup
615. Which type of file is a part of the Oracle database?

A. Control file
B. Password file
C. Parameter files
D. log files
Answer- A. Control file
616. Which password management feature ensures a user cannot reuse a password for a specified time
interval?
A. Account Locking
B. Password History
C. Password Verification
Answer- B. Password History
617. Which privilege is required to create a database?

A. SYSDBA
B. DBA
C. SYSOPER
D. RESOURCE Answer-
A. SYSDBA
618. The most open source DBMS is

A. Oracle
B. Microsoft Access
C. MySQL
Answer- C. MySQL
619. Which database level is the closest level to the users?

A. Internal
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B. External
C. Conceptual
Answer- B. External
620. Which Normal Form(NF) is considered adequate for normal relational database design?
A. 2NF
B. 5NF
C. 4NF
D. 3NF
Answer- D. 3NF
621. Which of the following is used to generate a square root of a number?

(A) MySQL SQRT Function
(B) MySQL RAND Function
(C) MySQL AVG Function
Answer- (A) MySQL SQRT Function
622. Which datatype is used to store up to 65,536 characters?

(A) Memo
(B) Text
(C) Integer
Answer- (A) Memo
623. Which of the following operator combines two or more SELECT statements?
(A) In
(B) Like
(C) Union
Answer- (C) Union
624. Long datatype allows whole numbers between

(A) 0 to 255
(B) -32,768 to 32,767
(C) -2,147,483,648 to 2,147,483,647
Answer- (C) -2,147,483,648 to 2,147,483,647
625. Which of the following datatype holds a string with maximum length of 255 characters?
(A) Text
(B) Medium Text
(C) Long Text
(D) Tiny Text
Answer- (D) Tiny Text
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626. In E-R Diagram, the total participation by entities is represented as
(A) Dashed line
(B) Rectangle
(C) Double rectangle
(D) Double line
Answer- (D) Double line
627. Intersection operator is used to obtain the tuples.

(A) Unique
(B) Common
(C) Different
Answer- (B) Common
628. Which is a low level operator?

(A) Insert
(B) Update
(C) Directory
Answer- (C) Directory
629. The LAST() function is only supported in

(A) MS Word
(B) MS Access
(C) MS Excel
Answer- (B) MS Access
630. are used to specify the rules for the data in a table.
(A) Constraints
(B) Aliases
(C) Wildcards
Answer- (A) Constraints
621. Which of the following is used to generate a square root of a number?

(A) MySQL SQRT Function
(B) MySQL RAND Function
(C) MySQL AVG Function
Answer- (A) MySQL SQRT Function
622. Which datatype is used to store up to 65,536 characters?

(A) Memo
(B) Text
(C) Integer
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Answer- (A) Memo
623. Which of the following operator combines two or more SELECT statements?
(A) In
(B) Like
(C) Union
Answer- (C) Union
624. Long datatype allows whole numbers between

(A) 0 to 255
(B) -32,768 to 32,767
(C) -2,147,483,648 to 2,147,483,647
Answer- (C) -2,147,483,648 to 2,147,483,647
625. Which of the following datatype holds a string with maximum length of 255 characters?
(A) Text
(B) Medium Text
(C) Long Text
(D) Tiny Text
Answer- (D) Tiny Text
626. In E-R Diagram, the total participation by entities is represented as

(A) Dashed line
(B) Rectangle
(D) Double line
Answer- (D) Double line
627. Intersection operator is used to obtain the tuples.

(A) Unique
(B) Common
(C) Different
Answer- (B) Common
628. Which is a low level operator?

(A) Insert
(B) Update
(C) Directory
Answer- (C) Directory
629. The LAST() function is only supported in

(A) MS Word
(B) MS Access
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(C) MS Excel
Answer- (B) MS Access
630. are used to specify the rules for the data in a table.
(A) Constraints
(B) Aliases
(C) Wildcards
Answer- (A) Constraints
631. is the complex search criteria in the where clause.

(A) Substring
(B) Drop Table
(C) Predicate
Answer- (C) Predicate
632. Which of the following clause is an additional filter that is applied to the result?
(A) Having
(B) Group-by
(C) Select
(D) Order by
Answer- (A) Having
633. is the process of organizing data into related tables.

(A) Generalization
(B) Normalization
(C) Specialization
(B) Normalization
634. Which of the following is used to determine whether of a table contains duplicate rows?
(A) Unique predicate
(B) Like Predicate
(C) Null predicate
(D) In predicate
Answer-(A) Unique predicate
635. The candidate key is that you choose to identify each row uniquely is called
(A) Primary Key
(B) Foreign Key
(C) Alternate Key
Answer- (A) Primary Key
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636. An operator is basically a join followed by a project on the attributes of first relation is known as
(A) Join
(B) Inner Join
(C) Full Join
(D) Semi-Join
Answer- (D) Semi-Join
637. Which of the following is a special type of integrity constraint that relates two relations and
maintains consistency across the relations?
(A) Entity Integrity Constraints
(B) Referential Integrity Constraints
(C) Domain Integrity Constraints
Answer- (B) Referential Integrity Constraints
638. Each modification done in database transaction are first recorded into the
(A) Hard Drive
(B) Disk
(C) Log File
(D) Data Mart Answer-
(C) Log File
639. Which of the following is preferred method for enforcing data integrity?
(A) Cursors
(B) Constraints
(C) Triggers
Answer- (B) Constraints
640. Which allows to make copies of the database periodically to help in the cases of crashes and
disasters?
(A) Recovery utility
(B) Data loading utility
(C) Monitoring utility
(D) Backup Utility
Answer- (D) Backup Utility
641. Which operator is used to select values within a range?

(A) WITHIN
(B) RANGE
(C) BETWEEN
Answer- (C) BETWEEN
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642. Which of the following is the most common type of Join?
(A) INNER JOIN
(B) INSIDE JOIN
(C) JOINED
Answer- (A) INNER JOIN
643. DBMS may be combined with or used by type of transaction manager.

(A) DB2
(B) Customer Information Control System (CICS)
(C) Oracle
Answer- (B) Customer Information Control System (CICS)
644. The clause is used to specify the number of records to return.

(A) FROM
(B) WHERE
(C) SELECT TOP
Answer- (C) SELECT TOP
645. In SQL, Wildcard characters are used with the operator.

(A) LIKE
(B) RANGE
(C) BETWEEN
Answer- (A) LIKE
646. Which operator allows to specify multiple values in a WHERE Clause?

(A) LIKE
(B) IN
(C) BETWEEN
Answer- (B) IN
647. In SQL,which of the following wildcard character is used as a substitute for Zero or more
characters?
(A) *
(B) _
(C) ^
(D) %
Answer- (D) %
648. The basic unit of PL/SQL variant is called a

(A) block
(B) cell
(C) table
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Answer- (A) block
649. Which of the following is a special type of stored procedure that is automatically
invoked whenever the data in the table is modified?
(A) Curser
(B) Trigger
(C) Both (A) & (B)
Answer- (B) Trigger
650. are used to temporarily rename a table or heading of a column.

(A) Wildcards
(B) Constraints
(C) Joins
(D) Aliases
Answer- (D) Aliases
651. Which SQL statement is used to extract data from a database?

(A) EXTRACT
(B) GET
(C) OPEN
(D) SELECT
Answer- (D) SELECT
652. Which of the following keyword can be used to return different values?
(A) SELECT
(B) GET
(C) OPEN
(D) DISTINCT
Answer- (D) DISTINCT
653. operator is used to display a record if either the first condition or the second condition is
true.
(A) AND
(B) OR
(C) Both (A) & (B)
Answer- (B) OR
654. Which of the following DBMS provides faster response time and better performance?
(A) Relational Database Management System (RDBMS)
(B) NoSQL DBMS
(C) In-Memory Database Management System (IMDBMS)
Answer- (C) In-Memory Database Management System (IMDBMS)
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655. is suitable for data warehouses that have a large number of similar data items.
(A) Relational Database Management System (RDBMS)
(B) Columnar Database Management system (CDBMS)
(C) In-Memory Database Management System (IMDBMS)
Answer- (B) Columnar Database Management system (CDBMS)
656. Which of the following is standard interactive and programming language for getting information
from and updating a database.
(A) SQL
(B) PHP
(C) ASP
Answer- (A) SQL
657. keyword sorts the record in ascending order by default.

(A) ORDER BY
(B) SORT BY
(C) SORT
Answer- (A) ORDER BY
658. Which of the following is an open standard Application Programming Interface (API) for accessing a
database?
(A) Universal Data Access
(B) Open Database Connectivity
(C) Command Line Interface
(D) Open Data-Link Interface
Answer- (B) Open Database Connectivity
659. Which SQL statement is used to insert new data in a database?

(A) INSERT INTO
(B) ADD NEW
(C) ADD RECORD
(A) INSERT INTO
660. Which method of Online Analytical Processing stores data in both a relational and a multi
dimensional database.
(A) Hybrid OLAP
(B) Relational OLAP
(C) OLAP
Answer- (A) Hybrid OLAP
661. OLAP stands for

(A) Online Arithmetic Processing
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(B) Online Analysis Processing
(C) Online Analytical Processing
Answer- (C) Online Analytical Processing
662. The operation allows the combining of two relations by merging pairs of tuples, one from
each relation, into a single tuple.
(A) Join
(B) Intersection
(C) Union
Answer- (A) Join
663. is the multiplication of all the values in the attributes.

(A) Set difference
(B) Cartesian product
(C) Intersection
Answer- (B) Cartesian product
664. Which command is used to remove a relation from an SQL database?

(A) Delete
(B) Remove
(C) Drop
Answer- (C) Drop
665. In SQL, the spaces at the end of the string are removed by function .
(A) Lower
(B) String
(C) Trim
Answer- (C) Trim
666. is used to save permanently any transaction into database.

(A) commit
(B) rollback
(C) savepoint
Answer- (A) commit
667. A unit of storage that can store one or more records in a hash file organization is denoted as
(A) Bucket
(B) Disk pages
(C) Blocks
(D) Nodes
Answer- (A) Bucket
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668. Which of the following operator used for appending two strings?
(A) %
(B) &
(C) +
(D) ||
Answer- (D) ||
669. The management information system (MIS) structure with one main computer system is called a
(A) Decentralized MIS structure

(B) Distributed MIS structure
(C) Centralized MIS structure
Answer- (C) Centralized MIS structure
670. The highest level in the hierarchy of data organization is called

(A) data base
(B) data file
(C) data record
Answer- (A) data base
671. A top to bottom relationship among the items in a database is established by a
(A) Network Schema

(B) Relational Schema
(C) Hierarchical Schema
Answer- (C) Hierarchical Schema
672. Aggregation is a special form of

(A) Specialization
(B) Association
(C) Generalization
Answer- (B) Association
673. In E-R Diagram, represents Key Attribute.

(A) Ellipse with underlying line
(B) Rectangle with underlying line
Answer- (A) Ellipse with underlying line
674. Which TCL command is used to permanently save any transaction into database?
(A) rollback
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(B) savepoint
(C) commit
Answer- (C) commit
675. Which TCL command restores the database to last committed state?
(A) rollback
(B) savepoint
(C) commit
Answer- (A) rollback
676. is used to control privilege in Database.

(A) Data Manipulation Language
(B) Data Definition Language
(C) Data Query Language
(D) Data Control Language
Answer- (D) Data Control Language
677. Which model remains operative until the software is required?

(A) Waterfall model
(B) Incremental model
(C) Prototyping model
(D) Spiral model
Answer- (D) Spiral model
678. In oracle, which tablespace is the minimum required when creating a database?
(A) System tablespace
(B) Undo tablespace
(C) temporary tablespace
Answer- (A) System tablespace
679. Which of the following is another name for weak entity?

(A) Dominant
(B) Child
(C) Owner
Answer- (B) Child
680. ODBC is based on

(A) C++ language
(B) RDBMS
(C) Structured Query Language
(D) C language
Answer- (C) Structured Query Language
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681. The language used in application programs to request data from the DBMS is referred to as the
(A) DML
(B) DDL
(C) DCL
Answer- (A) DML
682. In Oracle, who owns the data dictionary?

(A) DBA
(B) SYS
(C) SYSTEM
Answer- (B) SYS
683. In SQL, which command is used to update existing row in a table?

(A) Insert
(B) Delete
(C) Update
Answer- (C) Update
684. A contains the smallest unit of meaningful data, so you might call it the basic building
block for a data file.
(A) Record
(B) Field
(C) Table
Answer- (B) Field
685. A relation between two entities is treated as a single entity is called

(A) Aggregation
(B) Specialization
(C) Generalization
Answer- (A) Aggregation
686. Data mining evolve as a mechanism to cater the limitations of

systems to deal massive data sets with high dimensionality.
(A) OLAP
(B) OLTP
(C) DWH
Answer- (B) OLTP
687. In Relational table, the term “Attribute” is also used to represent

(A) row
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(B) column (or) field
(C) entity
Answer- (B) column (or) field
688. Which of the following categories of the data integrity RDBMS will enforce specific business
rules?
(A) Entity Integrity
(B) Domain Integrity
(C) User-Defined Integrity
Answer- (C) User-Defined Integrity
689. E-R Modeling technique is a

(A) top-down approach
(B) bottom-up approach
(C) User-Defined
Answer- (A) top-down approach
690. The number of attributes in a relation is called its

(A) row
(B) column
(C) degree
Answer- (C) degree
691. Rows of a relation are called

(A) entity
(B) degree
(C) tuples
Answer- (C) tuples
692. The number of tuples in a relation is termed as

(A) cardinality
(B) entity
(C) column
Answer- (A) cardinality
693. In SQL, Which of the following is a Data Manipulation Language(DML) command?

(A) create
(B) alter
(C) merge
(D) drop
Answer- (C) merge
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694. ….. is a top-down approach in which one higher level entity can be divided into two lower level
entities.
(A) Aggregation
(B) Specialization
(C) Generalization
(B) Specialization
695. Which of the following is not a type of database?

(A) Hierarchical
(B) Relational
(C) Network
(D) Transition
Answer- (D) Transition
696. In a relational database, each tuple is divided into fields called

(A) Relations
(B) Domains
(C) Queries
Answer- (B) Domains
697. In E-R Diagram, attribute is represented by…….

(A) Rectangle
(B) Square
(C) Double Rectangle
(D) eclipse
Answer- (D) eclipse
698. In SQL, TCL stands for

(A) Transmission Control Language
(B) Transaction Central Language
(C) Ternary Control Language
(D) Transaction Control Language
Answer- (D) Transaction Control Language
699. Which of the following is a part of the Oracle database system?

(A) Free lists
(B) Front end
(C) Network
Answer- (B) Front end
700. Which of the following is used with database?

(A) ATM
(B) Payment gateway
(C) Data Mining
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Answer- (C) Data Mining
701. A collection of conceptual tools for describing data, relationships, semantics and constraints is
referred to as ……….
(A) Data Model
(B) E-R Model
(C) DBMS
(D) All of the above Answer-
(A) Data Model
702. Dr.E.F. Codd represented ……. rules that a database must obey if it has to be considered truly
relational.
(A) 10
(B) 15
(C) 14
(D) 12
Answer- (D) 12
703. In E-R Diagram, weak entity is represented by…….

(A) Rectangle
(B) Square
(C) Double Rectangle
(D) Circle
Answer- (C) Double Rectangle
704. An entity that is related with itself is known as…….

(A) binary relationship
(B) recursive relationship
(C) ternary relationship
Answer- (B) recursive relationship
705. ……. is a bottom-up approach in which two lower level entities combine to form a higher level
entity.
(A) Aggregation
(B) Specialization
(C) Generalization
(C) Generalization
706. An entity set that does not have sufficient attributes to form a primary key, is a
……
(A) Primary entity set
(B) Weak entity set
(C) Strong entity set
Answer- (B) Weak entity set
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707. Which SQL command delete all the records and does not remove the structure?
(A) Drop
(B) Insert
(C) Truncate
Answer- (C) Truncate
708. Which of the following is a Data Definition Language (DDL) command?

(A) Delete
(B) Insert
(C) Drop
(D) Merge
Answer- (C) Drop
709. In …….. database, data is organized in the form of trees with nodes.
(A) Hierarchical
(B) Relational
(C) Network
Answer- (A) Hierarchical
710. Which command is used to retrieve records from one or more table?
(A) Delete
(B) Insert
(C) Drop
(D) Select
Answer- (D) Select
711. allows a unique number to be generated when a new record is inserted into a
table.
(A) Insert Into Select
(B) Insert Into
(C) Select Into
(D) Auto Increment
Answer- (D) Auto Increment
712. Which of the following constraint is used to limit the value range that can be placed in a column?
(A) Check
(B) Default
(C) Unique
Answer- (A) Check
713. A Foreign key in one table points to a key in another table.

(A) Alternate
(B) Default
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(C) Primary
Answer- (C) Primary
714. Domain constraints, functional dependency and referential integrity are special forms of
(A) Foreign key
(B) Primary key
(C) Referential constraint
(D) Assertion
Answer- (D) Assertion
715. 4NF stands for

(A) Fourth Normal File
(B) Fourth Normal Form
(C) Fourth Normal Fraction
(D) Fourth Negative File
Answer- (B) Fourth Normal Form
716. Which of the following field type is used to store photograph of employees?
(A) Memo
(B) Picture
(C) OLE
(D) Photo Answer-
(C) OLE
717. statement is used in conjunction with the aggregate functions to group the
result-set by one or more columns.
(A) Select
(B) Group By
(C) Distinct
Answer- (B) Group By
718. Which of the following method can be used to add more tables in a database?
(A) Design View
(B) Table Wizard
(C) Both (A) & (B)
(C) Both (A) & (B)
719. Which of the following field type is the best to store serial numbers?
(A) Number
(B) Auto Number
(C) Text
(D) Memo
Answer- (B) Auto Number
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720. The feature that database allows to access only certain records in database is
(A) Queries
(B) Reports
(C) Forms
(D) Tables
Answer- (A) Queries
Mixed Questions:2
721. The process by which the structure of the database is modified to eliminate hidden
dependencies and replacing groups is
A. Normalization
B. Indexing
C. Enforcing referential integrity
D. Enforcing data integrity
Answer- A. Normalization
722. Which kind of lock includes a keypad that can be used to control access into areas?
A. Cipher
B. Warded
C. Device
D. Tumber
Answer- A. Cipher
723. Programs that automatically submit your search request to several search engines
simultaneously are called-
A. WebCrawler
B. Meta search engines
C. Spiders
D. Hits
Answer- B. Meta search engines
724. This tier processes HTTP protocol, scripting tasks, performs calculations,
and
provides access to data.
A. Applications/Web server
B. Client
C. Enterprise server
D. DBA
Answer- B. Client
725. A communication processor that connects dissimilar networks by providing the translation from one
set of protocol to another is
A. Bridge
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B. Router
C. Gateway
D. Modem
Answer- C. Gateway
726. Which the result of a computation depends on the speed of the processes involved there is
said to be ?
A. Cycle stealing
B. Race condition
C. A time look
D. A dead lock
Answer- B. Race condition
727. A method which transfers the entire block of data from its own buffer to main memory takes place
without intervention by CPU.
A. Programmed Input/Output
B. Input driven Input/output
C. Direct Memory Access
Answer- C. Direct Memory Access
728. In C++ a function contained within a class is called

A. Member Function
B. A Class Function
C. An operator
Answer- A. Member Function
729. CIDR (Classless Inter Domain Routing)–

A. It is used in class C Networks
B. It is used in class B Networks
C. It is used in class A Networks
D. All of the above
Answer- A. It is used in class C Networks
730. Classes are useful because they

A. are removed from memory when not in use
B. permit data to be hidden from other classes
C. bring together all aspects of an entity in one place
D. can closely model objects in the real world
Answer- B. permit data to be hidden from other classes
731. Which of the following systems implementation approaches should be used if you want to run the
old system and the new system at the same time for a specified period?
A. direct
B. pilot
C. phased
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D. parallel
Answer- D. parallel
732. The usual method of mapping is by some arithmetical

manipulation of the key value, in direct file organization.
A. Random
B. Serial
C. Direct
D. One to many
Answer- C. Direct
733. A generalization of the Boyce Codd Normal Form to relation schemes which includes the
multivalued dependencies is called
A. Second Normal Form
B. Third Normal Form
C. Fourth Normal Form
D. Fifth Normal Form
Answer- C. Fourth Normal Form
734. PPP (Point to Point Protocol) used for which purpose?

A. Error Detection
B. Authentication
C. Both (A) and (B)
735. PPP used in which layer?

A. Layer 1
B. Layer 3
C. Layer 5
D. Layer 2
Answer- B. Layer 3
736. If communication software can be called the "traffic cop" of a micro communication
system, then what should the modem be called?
A. Park
B. Bridge
C. Interface
D. Link
Answer- B. Bridge
737. Yacc is available as a command (utility) on the

A. DOS
B. UNIX
C. MINIX
D. None of these
Answer- B. UNIX
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738. Which of the following communications service provides message preparation and transmission
facilities?
A. Teletex
B. Teletext
C. x400
D. Fax
Answer- A. Teletex
739. An assembler that runs on one machine but produces machine code for another machine
is called
A. Simulator
B. Emulator
C. Boot-Strap loader
D. Cross Assembler
Answer- D. Cross Assembler
740. Resolution of externally defined symbols is performed by

A. Linker
B. Loader
C. Compiler
D. Assembler
Answer- A. Linker
741. A transition between two memory resident process in a multiprogramming system is called
A. Process Switch
B. Mode Switch
C. Transition Switch
D. All of the above
Answer-A. Process Switch
742. The memory address of the first element of an array is called

A. floor address
B. first address
C. foundation address
D. base address
Answer- D. base address
743. A set of resources' allocations such that the system can allocate resources to each process in
some order, and still avoid a deadlock is called
A. Unsafe state
B. Safe state
C. Starvation
D. Greedy allocation
Answer- B. Safe state
744. Which of the following does not allow multiple users or devices to share one communications
line?
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A. doubleplexer
B. multiplexer
C. concentrator
D. controller
Answer- A. doubleplexer
745. Consider an operation of addition. For two numbers the operation will generate a sum. If the
operands are strings, and the same operation would produce a third string by concatenation. This feature is
called
A. Inheritance
B. Encapsulation
C. Polymorphism
D. Binding
Answer- C. Polymorphism
746. Precedence determines which operator is

A. is evaluated first
B. is more important
C. is fastest number
Answer- A. is evaluated first
747. In a circular linked list organization, insertion of a record involves modification of

A. one pointer
B. two pointers
C. multiple pointers
D. no pointer
Answer- A. one pointer
748. A operator precedence parser is a

A. Bottom-up parser
B. Top-down parser
C. Back tracing parser
D. None of the above.
Answer- C. Back tracing parser
749. Programming in a language that actually controls the path of signals or data within the computer
is controlled
A. micro-programming
B. instruction set
C. assembly language programming
D. machine language programming.
Answer- A. micro-programming
750. A utility programme that takes a procedure and searches a library to locate copies of any
procedures called but not defined in the first procedure, is called
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A. linker
B. re-locator
C. loader
D. text editor
Answer- A. linker
DBMS Questions: Part - 2
751. This is a type of program that lets one or more computer users create, manage, and
access data in a database.
A. B2B
B. DBMS
C. multidimensional database
D. None Answer-
DBMS
752. In a relational database, this is a data structure that organizes the information about a single topic
into rows and columns.
A. block
B. record
C. tuple
D. table
Answer- table
753. This is a family of relational database management system products from IBM that serve a number
of different operating system platforms.
A. Cognos
B. DB2
C. ADO
D. Universal Data Access
Answer- DB2
754. This is a central repository for all or significant parts of the data that an enterprise's various
business systems collect.
A. data warehouse
B. business information warehouse
C. knowledge warehouse
D. None
Answer- data warehouse
755. This is the job title of someone who directs or performs all activities related to maintaining a
successful database environment.
A. DBA
B. MOLAP
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C. PHP
D. RFC
Answer- DBA
756. This is a common standard language used to update and get information from a database.
A. VB
B. TMQL
C. PHP
D. SQL
Answer- SQL
757. This is a file format that contains the values in a table in which column values are separated by a
comma and each row starts a new line.
A. ASCII
B. CSV file
C. virtual organization
D. None
Answer- CSV file
758. In a relational database, this is the data structure that holds a single piece of data, such as first
name or phone number.
A. catalog
B. field
C. entity
D. object
Answer- field
759. This is an organized selection of data from a database that allows you to look at it from a
particular perspective.
A. Venn diagram
B. Gantt chart
C. view
D. splay tree
Answer- view
760. This a program tool allows you to reorganize and summarize selected columns and rows of data in
a spreadsheet or database table to obtain a desired report.
A. pivot table
B. PERT chart
C. quad tree
D. ODBC
Answer- pivot table
761. At this level of normalization, each column in a table that is not a determiner of the contents of
another column, must itself be a function of the other columns in the table.
A. 1NF
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B. 2NF
C. 3NF
D. DKNF
Answer- 2NF
762. This method of online analytical processing stores data in both a relational and a multi dimensional
database.
A. HOLAP
B. ROLAP
C. OLAP
D. DIMM Answer-
HOLAP
763. Which technology was Microsoft's first attempt at an object-oriented database interface?
A. MQSeries
B. ADO
C. DAO
D. UDA
Answer- DAO
764. What concept would a data modeler NOT be expected to know?

A. class
B. object
C. UML
D. FMP
Answer- FMP
765. Which of the following tree structures is unique in that the tree organization varies depending on
which nodes are most frequently accessed?
A. B-tree
B. binary tree
C. quad tree
D. splay tree Answer-
splay tree
766. The basic unit of this SQL variant is called a block.

A. PL/SQL
B. XQL
C. SQLJ
D. TMQL
Answer- PL/SQL
767. The acronym ACID is typically used in reference to

A. transactions
B. CRM analytics
C. data integrity
D. stubs
122 | P a g
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Answer- transactions
768. A Database Management System (DBMS) may be used by, or combined with, this type of
transaction manager.
A. DB2
B. CICS
C. Oracle
D. Cognos
Answer- CICS
769. Encapsulation, types, classes, inheritance, overriding combined with late binding, and
extensibility are all features of this type of database.
A. multidimensional database
B. relational database
C. object-oriented
D. open source
Answer- object-oriented
770. A programmer using this type of middleware might need the Interface Definition
Language (IDL).
A. RPC
B. ORB
C. MUD
D. EAI Answer-
ORB
771. This is a collection of data items organized as a set of formally-described tables from which
data can be accessed or reassembled in many different ways without having to reorganize the
database tables.
A. relational database
B. array
C. file allocation table
D. splay tree
Answer- relational database
772. This is a standard interactive and programming language for getting information from
and updating a database.
A. dynamic data exchange
B. Structured Query Language
C. ASCII
D. Erlang programming language Answer-
Structured Query Language
773. In creating a database, this is the process of organizing it into tables insuch a way that the results
of using the database are always unambiguous.
A. probability
B. normalization
C. data modeling
123 | P a g
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D. query by example
Answer- normalization
774. This family of products is IBM's cross-platform relational database management

system.
A. DBA
B. DB2
C. PHP
D. RDF
Answer- DB2
775. This is an open standard application programming interface (API) for accessing a
database.
A. Universal Data Access
B. Open Database Connectivity
C. Topic Map Query Language
D. Open Data-Link Interface
Answer- Open Database Connectivity
776. This term, used to describe a database that occupies magnetic storage in the terabyte range,
describes a database that contains billions of table rows.
A. Very Large Database
B. holographic storage
C. Cold Fusion
D. giant
Answer- Very Large Database
777. This is a collection of descriptions about data objects that is created for the benefit of
programmers and others who might need to refer to them.
A. data dictionary
B. stored procedure
C. Virtual File Allocation table
D. catalog
Answer- data dictionary
778. This term is used to describe the process of forecasting, or simply discovering patterns in data that
can lead to predictions about the future.
A. customer relationship management
B. PERT chart
C. data mining
D. enterprise risk management
Answer- data mining
779. In the relational modes, cardinality is termed as:

A. Number of tuples.
B. Number of attributes.
C. Number of tables.
D. Number of constraints
124 | P a g
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Answer- Number of tuples.
780. Relational calculus is a

A. Procedural language.
B. Non- Procedural language.
C. Data definition language.
D. High level language
Answer- Non- Procedural language.
781. The view of total database content is

A. Conceptual view.
B. Internal view.
C. External view
D. None
Answer- Conceptual view.
782. Which type of file is part of the Oracle database?

A. Control file
B. Password file
C. Parameter files
D. Archived log files
Answer- Control file
783. Which statements are use to UNLOCK the user?

A. Alter user Scott account lock;
B. Modified user Scott account unlock;
C. Alter user Scott account unlock;
D. Alter user Scott unlock
Answer- Alter user Scott account unlock;
784. For which two constraints are indexes created when the constraint is added?
A. Primary key
B. Unique
C. Not null
D. Both (A) & (B) Answer-
Both (A) & (B)
785. What type of failure occurs when Oracle fails due to an operating system or computer hardware
failure?
A. Application failure
B. Instance Failure
C. Media Failure
D. Rollback failure
Answer- Instance Failure
786. When is the SGA created in an Oracle database environment?

A. When the database is created
B. When a user process is started
125 | P a g
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C. When the database is mounted
D. When the instance is started
Answer- When the database is created
787. Which password management feature ensures a user cannot reuse a password for a specified time
interval?
A. Account Locking
B. Password History
C. Password Verification
D. Password Expiration and Aging
Answer- Password History
788. Which privilege is required to create a database?

A. SYSDBA
B. DBA
C. SYSOPER
D. RESOURCE
Answer- SYSDBA
789. What is the type of Oracle backup in which all uncommitted changes have been removed from the
Data files?
A. Full backup
B. Consistent backup
C. Inconsistent backup
D. Differential backup Answer-
Consistent backup
790. Which are the physical structures that constitute the Oracle database?
A. control file
B. Data file
C. Log file
D. All of the above Answer-
All of the above
791. DML is provided for

A. Description of logical structure of database.
B. Addition of new structures in the database system.
C. Manipulation & processing of database.
D. Definition of physical structure of database system.
Answer- Manipulation & processing of database.
792.‘AS’ clause is used in SQL for

A. Selection operation.
B. Rename operation.
C. Join operation.
D. Projection operation Answer-
Rename operation.
126 | P a g
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793. ODBC stands for
A. Object Database Connectivity.
B. Oral Database Connectivity.
C. Oracle Database Connectivity.
D. Open Database Connectivity.
Answer- Open Database Connectivity.
794. In an E-R diagram attributes are represented by

A. rectangle.
B. Square.
C. Ellipse.
D. Triangle.
Answer- Ellipse.
795. The database environment has all of the following components except:
A. Users.
B. Separate files.
C. Database.
D. Database administrator
Answer- Users.
796. The language which has recently become the de-facto standard for interfacing application
programs with relational database system is
A. Oracle.
B. SQL.
C. DBase.
D. None
Answer- SQL.
797. In an E-R diagram an entity set is represented by a

A. Rectangle.
B. Ellipse.
C. Diamond box.
D. Circle.
Answer- Rectangle.
798. The DBMS language component which can be embedded in a program is

A. The data definition language (DDL).
B. The data manipulation language (DML).
C. The database administrator (DBA).
D. A query language.
Answer- The data manipulation language (DML).
799. A relational database developer refers to a record as

A. A criteria.
B. A relation.
C. A tuple.
D. An attribute.
127 | P a g
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Answer- A tuple.
800. The method in which records are physically stored in a specified order according to a key
field in each record is
A. Hash.
B. Direct.
C. Sequential.
D. All of the above.
Answer- Hash.
801. Count function in SQL returns the number of

A. Values.
B. Distinct values.
C. Groups.
D. Columns.
Answer- Values.
802. An advantage of the database management approach is

A. Data is dependent on programs.
B. Data redundancy increases.
C. Data is integrated and can be accessed by multiple programs.
Answer- Data is integrated and can be accessed by multiple programs.
803. A DBMS query language is designed to

A. Support end users who use English-like commands.
B. Support in the development of complex applications software.
C. Specify the structure of a database.
D. None
Answer- Specify the structure of a database.
804. The method of access which uses key transformation is known as

A. Direct.
B. Hash.
C. Random.
D. Sequential.
Answer- Hash.
805. The statement in SQL which allows to change the definition of a table is
A. Alter.
B. Update.
C. Create.
D. Select.
Answer- Alter.
806. Relational Algebra is

A. Data Definition Language.
B. Meta Language
128 | P a g
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C. Procedural query Language
Answer- Procedural query Language
807. Key to represent relationship between tables is called

A. Primary key
B. Secondary Key
C. Foreign Key
D. None of these
Answer- Foreign Key
808. DBMS helps to achieve

A. Data independence
B. Centralized control of data
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. None
Answer- Both (A) and (B)
809. Which of the following are the properties of entities?

A. Groups
B. Table
C. Attributes
D. Switchboards
Answer- Attributes
810. Which of the following is a valid SQL type?

A. CHARACTER
B. NUMERIC
C. FLOAT
All of the above
811. Which of the following is an advantage of view?

A. Data security
B. Derived columns
C. Hiding of complex queries
All of the above
812. Which database level is closest to the users?

A. External
B. Internal
C. Physical
D. Conceptual
Answer- External
813. A set of possible data values is called

A. Attribute.
129 | P a g
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B. Degree.
C. Tuple.
D. Domain. Answer-
Domain.
814. Which of the following is another name for weak entity?

A. Child
B. Owner
C. Dominant
D. All of the above
Answer- Child
815. Which of the following database object does not physically exist?
A. Base table
B. Index
C. View
Answer- View
816. Which two files are used during operation of the DBMS?
A. Query languages and utilities
B. DML and query language
C. Data dictionary and transaction log
D. Data dictionary and query language
Answer- Data dictionary and transaction log
817. …………data type can store unstructured data

A. RAW
B. CHAR
C. NUMERIC
D. VARCHAR
Answer- RAW
818. Cartesian product in relational algebra is

A. a Unary operator
B. a Binary operator
C. a Ternary operator
D. None
Answer- a Binary operator
819. In a Hierarchical model records are organized as

A. Graph.
B. List.
C. Links.
D. Tree.
Answer- Tree.
820. In case of entity integrity, the primary key may be
130 | P a g
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A. not Null
B. Null
C. both Null & not Null.
D. any value.
Answer- not Null
821. The language used in application programs to request data from the DBMS is referred to as the
A. DML
B. DDL
C. VDL
D. SDL
Answer- DML
822. A subschema expresses

A. the logical view.
B. the physical view.
C. the external view.
D. all of the above.
Answer- the external view.
823. E-R model uses this symbol to represent weak entity set?
A. Dotted rectangle.
B. Diamond
C. Doubly outlined rectangle
D. None of these
Answer-Doubly outlined rectangle
824. SET concept is used in :

A. Network Model
B. Hierarchical Model
C. Relational Model
D. None of these
Answer- Network Model
825. produces the relation that has attributes of R1 and R2

A. Cartesian product
B. Difference
C. Intersection
D. Product
Answer- Cartesian product
826. In a relation
A. Ordering of rows is immaterial
B. No two rows are identical
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. None of these.
Answer- Both (A) and (B)
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827. The conceptual model is
A. dependent on hardware.
B. dependent on software.
C. dependent on both hardware and software.
D. independent of both hardware and software.
Answer- independent of both hardware and software.
828. Which of the following operation is used if we are interested in only certain columns of a table?
A. PROJECTION
B. SELECTION
C. UNION
D. JOIN
Answer- PROJECTION
829. The users who use easy-to-use menu are called

A. Sophisticated end users.
B. Naive users.
C. Stand-alone users.
D. Casual end users.
Answer- Naive users.
830. Which are the two ways in which entities can participate in a relationship?
A. Passive and active
B. Total and partial
C. Simple and Complex
D. All of the above
Answer- Total and partial
831. Which of the following is a comparison operator in SQL?

A. =
B. LIKE
C. BETWEEN
All of the above
832. A data dictionary is a special file that contains:

A. The name of all fields in all files.
B. The width of all fields in all files.
C. The data type of all fields in all files.
D. All of the above. Answer-
All of the above.
833. A file manipulation command that extracts some of the records from a file is called
A. SELECT
B. PROJECT
132 | P a g
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C. JOIN
D. PRODUCT
Answer- SELECT
834. The physical location of a record is determined by a mathematical formula that transforms a file key
into a record location is :
A. B-Tree File
B. Hashed File
C. Indexed File
D. Sequential file.
Answer- Hashed File
835. Which of the following is record based logical model?

A. Network Model
B. Object oriented model
C. E-R Model
D. None of these
Answer- Network Model
836. A primary key is combined with a foreign key creates

A. Parent-Child relationship between the tables that connect them.
B. Many to many relationship between the tables that connect them.
C. Network model between the tables that connect them.
Answer- A. Parent-Child relationship between the tables that connect them.
837. The natural join is equal to

A. Cartesian Product
B. Combination of Union and Cartesian product
C. Combination of selection and Cartesian product
D. Combination of projection and Cartesian product
Answer- Combination of projection and Cartesian product
838. In E-R Diagram relationship type is represented by

A. Ellipse
B. Dashed ellipse
C. Rectangle
D. Diamond Answer-
Diamond
839. The operator is used to compare a value to a list of literals values that have been
specified.
A. BETWEEN
B. ANY
C. IN
D. ALL
Answer-BETWEEN
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840. function divides one numeric expression by another and returns the
remainder.
A. POWER
B. MOD
C. ROUND
D. REMAINDER
Answer- MOD
841. In E-R diagram generalization is represented by

A. Ellipse
B. Dashed ellipse
C. Rectangle
D. Triangle Answer-
Triangle
842. is a virtual table that draws its data from the result of an SQL SELECT
statement.
A. View
B. Synonym
C. Sequence
D. Transaction
Answer- View
843. A table joined with itself is called

A. Join
B. Self Join
C. Outer Join
D. Equi Join
Answer- Self Join
844. A DBMS query language is designed to

A. support end users who use English-like commands.
B. support in the development of complex applications software.
C. specify the structure of a database.
All of the above
845. Transaction processing is associated with everything below except

A. producing detail, summary, or exception reports.
B. recording a business activity.
C. confirming an action or triggering a response.
D. maintaining data
Answer- confirming an action or triggering a response.
846. It is possible to define a schema completely using

A. VDL and DDL.
B. DDL and DML.
C. SDL and DDL.
134 | P a g
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D. VDL and DML
Answer- DDL and DML.
847. It is better to use files than a DBMS when there are

A. Stringent real-time requirements.
B. Multiple users wish to access the data.
C. Complex relationships among data.
D. All of the above.
Answer- Multiple users wish to access the data.
848. Which of the operations constitute a basic set of operations for manipulating relational data?
A. Predicate calculus
B. Relational calculus
C. Relational algebra
Relational algebra
849. A key more than one attribute is called

A. composite key
B. primary key
C. candidate key
Answer- composite key
850. An attribute or set of attributes that uniquely identifies an entity iscalled

A. Super key
B. primary key
C. candidate key
Answer- Super key
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IT Officer Questions & Answers

2. A protocol that provides configuration information from a table is called…..

3. CIDR stands for

4. In PPP, a three-way handshaking protocol used for authentication is known as……

5. A technique in which a protocol used for address resolution is called……

6. Which of the following converts user friendly names to IP addresses?

8. Which of the following is an application service for retrieving a webdocument?

13. An Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) request is

15. RARP stands for

21. Communication in a Hybrid Fiber Coaxial (HFC) cable TV network can be

22. Circuit switching uses…..

23. ADSL stands for

26. OSI stands for…..

28. Which of the following layer is the User Support layer?

29. Error detection at the data link layer is achieved by…..

30. Port address in TCP/IP is ….. bits long

32. WEP stands for

33. What is the key element of a Protocol?

34. Gigabit Ethernet has a data rate of

35. The datalink layer of Ethernet consists of

37. SNMP stands for

41. Peer-to-Peer (P2P) is a ……..communications model

44. Fiber Distributed Data Interface (FDDI) is an example of which topology?

46. An IPV6 address is…… bits long

47. Addresses in Class D are used for…..

48. An IPV4 address is…..bits long

49. How many classes are there in IPV4 addresses?

50. What are the three types of addresses in IPV6?

51. Switch is a device of……. Layer of OSI model?

52. Packets are found at which layer?

53. The IP address 135.0.10.27 belongs to address class?

54. An http request contains how many parts?

56. Which of the following function is performed by TCP?

58. Which of the following is a timer used for collision avoidance?

59. The access method used in DCF MAC sub-layer is

60. The access method used in PCF MAC sub-layer is

61. Which layer is the closest to transmission medium?

62. Which protocol is used to eliminate loops?

63. What kind of scheme is the http protocol?

65. Which of the following is an example of client-server model?

68. Which Protocol use link state routing?

69. Which PPP Protocol provides authentication and dynamic addressing?

70. Which of the following layer is the network support layer?

72. Which protocol does Ping use?

73. UDP stands for

81. What is the default subnet mask for a class B network?

82. What is loopback address?

83. A central computer surrounded by one or more satellite computers is called a

84. A networking device that receives a signal on an electromagnetic or an optical transmission

85. What is the default subnet mask for a class A network?

86. UTP stands for

87. Which of the following organization defines standards for modems?

88. Which topology requires a hub?

90. FDDI stands for

94. Where does Bridge operate in OSI model?

95. uses a standard called IEEE 802.6.

99. Routers operate in which layer of the OSI model?

Operating Systems Questions:

101. Producer – Consumer problem, one of the classical problems of

105. Which of the following is standard print command in Unix?

106. In Unix, “file” command is used to determine ……

107. What is the full form of RTSP?