VERANO, JOEZER G b.

Rice agar
MEDICAL TECHNOLOGY REVIEWER c. Czapek’s agar
MICROBIOLOGY d. Blood agar
8. Which of the following parasite larva can
1. Which of the following produces be isolated in sputum?
macroconidia that are large, a. Paragonimus westermani
multicellular and club-shaped with b. Entamoeba histolytica
smooth walls? c. Taenia saginata
a. Fonsecaea pedrosi d. Ascaris lumbricoides
b. Microsporum audouinii 9. The following are techniques used for
c. Trichophyton rubrum detection of parasitic infection and their
d. Epidermophyton floccosum corresponding causative agent. Which
2. Corn meal agar test is used to of the following is correctly matched?
identify Candida albicans through the a. Harada Mori Technique and Capillaria
organism’s production of: philippinensis
a. Chlamydospore b. Xenodiagnosis and Leishmania
b. Urease c. Knott’s Technique and Microfilariae
c. Germ tube d. Sellotape Method and Trichuris trichiura
d. Inositol
3. This presumptive test for Candida uses 10.Proper collection of a sample for
serum. recovery of Enterobius
a. Germ tube test vermicularis includes collecting:
b. Latex agglutination a. A 24-hour urine collection
c. Hair perforation test b. A first morning stool with proper
d. Chlamydospore test preservative
4. In order to demonstrate of the c. Capillary blood
encapsulated yeast Cryptococcus d. A scotch tape preparation from the
neoformans in wet preparations of perianal region
patient specimens, what should be 11.Heart-lung migration except:
used? a. Roundworm
a. Methylene blue b. Whipworm
b. India ink c. Hookworm
c. Malachite green d. Seatworm
d. Safranin 12.Diphyllobothrium latum adult resembles
5. Which of the following is diagnostic for the adult form of:
chromoblastomycosis? a. Paragonimus westermani
a. Flowerette conidia b. Echinococcus granulosus
b. Asteroid body c. Taenia saginata
c. Sclerotic body d. Spirometra
d. Germ tube 13.Second intermediate host
6. Rose gardener’s disease: of Paragonimus westermani:
a. Sporotrichosis a. Snail
b. Histoplasmosis b. Fish
c. Coccidioidomycosis c. Freshwater crab
d. Blastomycosis d. Vegetation
7. Which of the following media identifies 14.What is a schistosomule?
species of Aspergillus? a. Cercaria minus a tail
a. Urease medium b. Cercaria minus a head
c. Metacercaria c. Eagles minimum essential medium
d. Cercaria with a tail d. Stuart’s medium
15.The third teania spp.:
a. T. asiatica 23.Lysostaphin susceptibility is a test used to
b. T. crassiceps differentiate:
c. T. taeniaeformis a. Staphylococcus spp. from Micrococcus
d. T. saginata spp.
16.The definitive host to Plasmodium is the: b. Streptococcus
a. Tsetse fly (Glossina) spp. from Staphylococcus spp.
b. Sandfly (Phlebotomus) c. Staphylococcus spp. from Pseudomonas
c. Mosquito (Female Anopheles) spp.
d. Reduviid bug (Male Triatoma) d. Streptococcus spp. from Micrococcus
17.What is the infective stage of Leishmania spp.
spp. to humans? 24.Prosthetic heart valve endocarditis is
a. Amastigote most commonly caused by this
b. Trypomastigote staphylococcal species:
c. Promastigote a. S. aureus
d. Sporozoites b. S. epidermidis
18.Cytomegalovirus isolation is best c. S. saprophyticus
accomplished using: d. S. pyogenes
a. Monkey kidney cells 25.Which Staphylococcus spp. is resistant to
b. A549 cells 5µg novobiocin?
c. Human embryonic fibroblasts a. S. aureus
d. Embryonated hen’s eggs b. S. epidermidis
19.It is the smallest RNA virus: c. S. saprophyticus
a. Enterovirus d. S. pyogenes
b. Picornavirus 26.In the β-lactamase chromogenic
c. Cytomehalovirus cephalosporin method, which of the
d. Togavirus following indicates a positive reaction?
20.Enteroviruses can be differentiated from a. Production of acid
rhinoviruses by: b. Reduction of nitrates
a. Size c. Color change
b. Ether stability d. Turbidity
c. Ribonuclease treatment 27.The following are DNase positive, except:
d. Acid resistance a. Staphylococcus aureus
21.A medium that aids in the presumptive b. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
identification of organisms based on c. Moraxella catarrhalis
their appearance on the medium is d. Serratia marcescens
called: 28.For the antibiotic susceptibility testing of
a. Enriched group A beta-hemolytic streptococci,
b. Differential how many units of bacitracin is used?
c. Selective a. 10.00
d. Transport b. 0.02 – 0.04
22.Which of the following is a suitable c. 5.00
transport medium for bacteria and d. 1.00 – 2.00
virus? 29.Characteristically, species from the
a. Phosphate buffered sucrose (2SP) genus Enterococcus are:
b. Hank’s balanced salt solution a. Unable to grow in 6.5% NaCl
b. Bile esculin positive c. Vibrio cholerae
c. Relatively sensitive to penicillin d. Campylobacter jejuni
d. Sodium hippurate negative 36.Which diphtheroid has the same
30.A positive Quellung test is: morphology
a. Virtual proof that the organism is a as Corynebacterium diphtheriae on
pathogen blood agar plate (BAP)?
b. Visible only by fluorescent light a. C. ulcerans
c. From capsular swelling due to an b. C. minutissimum
antigen-antibody reaction c. C. jeikeium
d. Oxidation but not fermentation d. C. urealyticum
37.Mycobacterium tuberculosis is best
31.A medical technologist cultured a differentiated from Mycobacterium
specimen from a suspected cystic bovis by:
fibrosis patient. After 24 hours of a. Growth rate
incubation, the MT noticed colonies b. Niacin and nitrate reduction tests
which were spreading and flat, with c. Hydrolysis of Tween 80
serrated edges and a metallic sheen. d. Catalase test at 68oC
There was a characteristic corn taco- 38.Woolsorter’s disease is caused by the ___
like odor. Identify the bacteria. form of anthrax.
a. Klebsiella pneumoniae a. Gastrointestinal
b. Escherichia coli b. Cutaneous
c. Staphylococcus aureus c. Pulmonary
d. Pseudomonas aeruginosa d. Urinary
39.Which anaerobic, gram-positive rods
32.Serratia strains are readily differentiated produce terminal “lollipop” spores?
from Klebsiella on the basis of their: a. Clostridium tetani
a. Failure to produce gas from inositol b. Eubacterium lentum
b. Slowness and reluctance to ferment c. Clostridium butyricum
lactose d. Bacteroides ureolyticus
c. Rapid gelatin liquefaction
d. All of the above 40.In water bacteriology, the following are
33.Diagnosis of typhoid fever can be used as confirmatory test media except:
confirmed best by culture of: a. Lactose broth
a. Stool b. Endo agar
b. Urine c. Eosin methylene blue agar
c. Bone marrow d. Brilliant green lactose broth
d. Blood
34.Cultures of Staphylococcus supplies 1. How to prepare agar plates?
which of the following for cultures a. 1/3water first
of Haemophilus? b. Pour all agar first
a. III factor c. ½ agar first
b. I factor d. Pour all water first
c. X factor 2. Water bacteriology completed test?
d. V factor a. Gram neg, non-sporulating on agar
35.String test is used for the diagnosis of slant
which bacteria? b. Lactose broth -Acid with gas
a. Stenotrophomonas maltophilia c. Metallic sheen on EMB
b. Elizabethkingia meningoseptica d. Lactose broth -Acid only
3. By product of acetamide utilization?
a. Carbon dioxide 12. Elevated cream yellow colored
b. Ammonia colonies?
4. Incubation period for fungal a. Staphylococcus epidermidis
development in bone marrow and CSF? b. Staphylococcus haemolyticus
a. 14 days c. Staphylococcus aureus
b. 7 days d. ALL
c. 28 days
d. 20 days
5. Microscope for spirochetes
a. Brightfield
b. Fluorescent 13. Optochin test for S. pneumonia?
c. Electron a. <10 mm zone of inhibition in 6mm disk
d. Phase contrast b. >14mm zone of inhibition in 6mm disk
c. <14mm zone of inhibition in 6mm disk
d. >16mm zone of inhibition in 6mm disk
6. How is water bacteriology reported?
a. CFU 14. Double zone of hemolysis?
b. Colonies/ml a. C. perfringes
c. MPN/100ml b. C. difficile
d. IU/ml c. C. botulinum
7. Household bleach inactivated at? d. B. cereus
a. 1 hour
b. 60 minutes 15. Cause of whooping cough?
c. 10 minutes a. Bordetella parapertusis
d. 60 seconds b. Bordetella pertussis
8. What is bench marking? Asked twice. c. Bordetella bronchiseptica
a. Interlaboratory marketing (1st) d. ALL
b. Interlaboraty monitoring (2nd)
c. Bench so others have space 16. Test for influenza & rubella?
d. Comparing results with peers a. Hemagglutination inhibition
9. Gravid segments contain? b. Neutralization
a. Male reproductive organ c. MIT
b. Female reproductive organ
c. Egg 17. True of Leptorspirosis
d. Scolex a. Smear of urine sediment for diagnosis
b. Difficult to stain and look for in
10. Recovered from cestodes in stool are? microscope
a. Filariform larva c. Stained with PAPs
b. Microfilaria d. all
c. Ova 18. Best Quality control in parasitology
d. Proglottids, scolex, ova Laboratory
a. Slides with ova and adult
11. Enhancement media? b. Hanging drop from preserved stools
a. BAP c. Parasitology atlas
b. Thioglycollate broth d. all
c. Selenite broth 19. Stool delayed for 30 minutes must be
d. all transported in
a. Stuart medium 1.Method of urea determination that is
b. Anderson medium inexpensive but lacks specificity:
c. Francis medium a. Colorimetric and point
d. Saline Mary medium b. Enzymatic
20. Undulating membrane (MOORSE TYPE) c. Colorimetric kinetic
a. Trichomonas d. IDMS
b. Euglena 2. Method of measurement of ceratinine
c. Giardia that measures ammonia colorimetrically
d. Trypanosoma or with ISE:
a. Colorimetric and point
21. Rhabditiform larvae: Thread worm b. Enzymatic
22. Stool sample enrichment: Selenite c. Colorimetric kinetic
broth d. IDMS
23. Vinegar: flukes can’t be killed
24. True of schistosomiasis: Skin
penetration of cercaria in
contaminated water 3. One international unit of enzyme activity
25. Normal oral flora: Viridans is the amount of enzyme that under
26. Common pathogen: Group A specified reaction conditions of
27. Stool contaminated with S. aureus what substrate concentration, pH and
to do? Plate with MSA (7.5%NaCl) temperature, causes usage of substrate
28. 8 nuclei: Entamoeba coli. at the rate of:
29. Differentiate histolytica and hartmanii: a. 1 millimole/min
size b. 1 nanomole/min
30. 90% cause of malaria: Falciparum and c. 1 micromole/min
vivax d. 1 picomole/min
31. POCT for dx of malaria: Falciparum, 4. Which of the following enzymes are
vivax, malariae classified as transferases?
32. Dwarf: H. nana 1. ACP
33. Herpesviridae-ether sensitive 2. ALP
34. True of W.bancroftii: no terminal nuclei 3. PK
(B. malayi yun) 4. Glycogen phosphorylase
35. Cutaneous larva migrans: a. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ancylostoma brasilense b. 1, 2 and 4
36. Used in coagulase test: Human c. 1, 2 and 3
d. 1 and 2
e. 3 and 4
5. This measures the amount of reducing
sugars produced by the hydrolysis of
starch by the usual glucose methods.
Classic reference method expressed in
Somogyi units
a. Saccharogenic
b. Chromogenic
c. Amyloclastic
d. Coupled-enzyme
CLINICAL CHEMISTRY 6. The reference method for determination
of lipase:
a. Tietz and Fiereck d. Para-nitrophenylphosphate
b. Peroxidase coupling 13. Regan isoenzyme has the same
c. Cherry Crandal properties as alkaline phosphatase that
d. Kermen originates in the:
7. When an enzyme requires an inorganic a. Skeleton
substance such as zinc for activity, this b. Intestine
substance is termed as a(n): c. Kidney
a. Activator d. Placenta
b. Conezyme 14. Which of the following may be
c. Facilitator classified as being a function of the
d. Regulator liver?
8. Which of the following are considered a. Detoxification of drugs
primary tissue source of alkaline b. Excretion of bile acids
phosphatase? c. Metabolism of glucose
a. Liver, bone, kidney d. Synthesis of proteins
b. Liver, heart, kidney e. All of the above
c. Kidney, pancreas, heart 15. Increased blood ammonia levels may
d. Prostate, liver, bone be associated with:
9. Which of the following enzymes exhibits a. Hepatic encephalopathy
the least tissue specificity? b. Neurological changes
a. ACP c. Coma
b. AST d. Both B and C
c. CK e. A, B and C
d. LD 16. Which of the following methods
10. Which of the following may be estimates the urine sugar concentration
associated with the creatine kinase by measuring total reducing
isoenzymes? substances?
a. CK-1 referred to as CK-MM a. Copper sulfate
b. CK-3 remains close to the origin during b. Glucose oxidase
electrophorosis c. Hexokinase
c. CK-MM is found in skeletal muscles d. Ferricyanide
d. Both B and C 17. A patient with insulinoma may exhibit
e. A, B and C dizziness and fainting attributable to:
11. Which of the following enzymes is most a. Acidosis
useful in establishing the hepatic origin b. Ketosis
of an elevated serum alkaline c. Hypoglycemia
phosphatase? d. Hyperglycemia
a. Alanine aminotransferase 18. Precipitating agents used to remove
b. Aspartate aminotransferase VLDL and HDL from serum so that only
c. Ornithine carbamyltransferase the HDL cholesterol remains for
d. Gamma-glutamyltranspeptidase measurement include all of the
e. Lactate dehydrogenase following, except:
12. In the Bessey-Lowry-Brock method for a. Citrate/fluoride
determining alkaline phosphatase b. Heparin/manganese
activity, the substrate used is: c. Phosphotungstate/magnesium
a. Monophosphate d. Dextran sulfate
b. Phenylphosphate
c. Disodium phenylphosphate
19. Which electrolyte is significantly d. Both A and B
involved in the transmission of nerve e. All of the above
impulse? 26. Increased anion gap:
a. Iron 1. Uremia
b. Phosphorus 2. Poisoning by methanol
c. Potassium 3. Ketoacidosis
d. Sodium 4. Hypoalbuminemia
20. The composition of the electrode used a. 1 and 3
to measure blood pH is: b. 2 and 4
a. Glass c. 1, 2 and 3
b. Plastic d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
c. Platinum 27. Glucose tolerance factor contains the
d. Valinomycin following trace metal:
21. The role of calciumin body metabolism a. Copper
is that of: b. Chromium
a. Structural contribution to bone formation c. Selenium
b. An activator of the coagulation system d. Zinc
c. Facilitating transmission form of nerve 28. The following metal is most associated
impulse with the “dimentia of dialysis”:
d. Both A and B a. Aluminum
e. A, B and C b. Fluorine
22. The physiologically active form of c. Cadmium
calcium is: d. Zinc
a. Complexes 29. An emphysema patient suffering from
b. Ionized fluid accumulation in the alveolar
c. Lipid-bound spaces is likely to be in what metabolic
d. Protein-bound state?
23. A hospitalized patient is experiencing a. Respiratory acidosis
increased neuromuscular irritability b. Metabolic acidosis
(tetany). Which of the following tests c. Respiratory alkalosis
should be ordered immediately? d. Metabolic alkalosis
a. Calcium 30. The neurohypophysis is the:
b. Phosphorus a. Hypothalamus
c. BUN b. Anterior pituitary
d. Glucose c. Pineal gland
24. The formation of molybdenum blue d. Thyroid gland
complex is assocaited with the e. Posterior pituitary
quantitation of: 31. The anterior pituitary produces all of the
a. Calcium following hormones, except:
b. Iron a. ACTH
c. Magnesium b. FSH
d. Phosphate c. PTH
25. Which of the following clinical disorders d. TSH
is/are associated with magnesium 32. For a hormone to be biochemically
deficiency? active and able to bind its receptor site,
a. Tetany the hormone must be:
b. Convulsions a. Bound to glucose
c. Abnormal cardiac rhythm b. Bound to lipoprotein
c. Bound to protein 39. The amino acid that is the immediate
d. Free, not bound to protein precursor for the biogensis of the
33. Which amino acid is directly involved in catecholamine is:
thyroid synthesis? a. Tryptophan
a. Alanine b. Threonine
b. Glutamine c. Tyrosine
c. Threonine d. Phenylalanine
d. Tyrosine 40. All of the following biochemical
34. TSH test is the most important thyroid changes are seen during pregnancy,
function test. The best screening test. It is except:
increased in: a. Decreased albumin
1. primary hypothyroidism b. Increased alkaline phosphatase
2. hashimoto’s thyroidism c. Increased FSH and LH
3. thyrotoxicosis due to pituitary tumor d. Increased estrogens
4. primary hyperthyroidism 41. Major actions of angiotensin II include:
a. 1 and 3 a. Increased pituitary secretion of rennin
b. 2 and 4 b. Increased parathyroid hormone
c. 1, 2 and 3 secretion by the parathyroid
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4 c. Increased vasoconstriction
35. In patients with developing subclinical d. Decreased adrenal secretion of
hyperthyroidism, TSH levels will likely be aldosterone
___, and fT4 will be likely ___. 42. Estrogen and progestrogen receptor
a. Decreased, increased assays are useful in assessing prognosis
b. Increased, decreased in which of the following?
c. Decreased, normal a. Ovarian cancer
d. Increased, normal b. Endometriosis
36. Which of the following tests may be c. Breast canser
used in the differential diagnosis of d. Amenorrhea
depression? 43. Zinc protoporphyrin or free erythrocyte
a. ACTH stimulation test protoporphyrin measurements are useful
b. Dexamethasone suppression test to assess blood concentrations of:
c. Metapirone inhibition test a. Lead
d. Metyrapone inhibition test b. Mercury
37. The parent substance in the c. Arsenic
biosynthesis of androgens and estrogen d. Beryllium
is: 44. Pharmacological parameters that
a. Cortisol determine serum drug concentration:
b. Catecholamines 1. Liberation
c. Progesterone 2. Absorption
d. Cholesterol 3. Distribution
38. The biologically most active, naturally 4. Metabolism
occuring androgen is: 5. Excretion
a. Androstenedione a. 1 and 3
b. Epiandrosterone b. 2 and 4
c. Dehydroepiandrosteron c. 1, 2, 3 and 4
d. Testosterone d. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
45. A cardiac glycoside that is used in the
treatment of congenital heavy failure
 and arrythmias by increasing the force c. Quality assurance
and velocity of myocardial contraction d. Quality control
is: 2. The process that monitor’s each
a. Digoxin laboratory analysis, using material with
b. Acetaminophen known constituent concentrations, in
c. Lithium order to ensure the accuracy of the test
d. Phenytoin results is:
46. It is used for treatment of petit mal a. Pooled control
(absence seizure) and grand mal. b. Quality assurance
a. Theophylline c. Quality control
b. Lithium d. Accuracy monitoring
c. Valproic acid (Depakene)
d. Digoxin 3. A technique used to detect unlikely
47. The drug of choice for controlling petit combination of values.
mal (absence seizure). a. Previous value check
a. Phenobarbital b. Alert check
b. Carbamazepine c. Pattern recognition
c. Vancomycin d. Randomized duplicate specimens
d. Ethosuximide (Zarontin) 4. A mean value of 100 and standards
48. All of the following may be used to deviation of 1.8 mg/dL were obtained
cleanse the skin when drawing blood for from a set of glucose measurements on
ethanol analysis, except: a control solution. The 95% confidence
a. Alcohol swab interval in mg/dL would be:
b. Merthiolate a. 94.6-105.4
c. Soap and water b. 96.4-103.6
d. Zephiran c. 97.3-102.7
49. Substances with modified structures d. 98.2-101.8
that are analogs of prescription 5. The following five sodium control value
pharmaceuticals or abused are known (mEq/L) were obtained:
as: 140, 135, 138, 140, 142
a. Designer drugs Calculate the coefficient of
b. Generic drugs variation.
c. Trade drugs a. 1.9%
d. Toxic drugs b. 5.6%
50. Morphine is the major metabolism of: c. 2.7%
a. Cocaine d. 6.1%
b. Heroin 6. This test is used to compare means
c. Marijauna between two groups of data.
d. Phnecyclidine a. T-test
b. Pattern recognition
1. The process that encompasses all c. F-test
aspects of laboratory operating d. Average of normal
including patient identification, 7. If the sample population and the method
specimen collection, equipment used in the same as those described in
maintenance, and the reporting of the manual, what is the minimum
patient results: number of individuals that can be
a. Accuracy tested to obtain the reference range,
b. Reliability
 provided that no more than 2 results c. The pipette is color coded
outside the expected range? d. The pipette is a volumetric pipette
a. 5 15. The preferred length of the lancet for
b. 15 skin puncture should be ___ to avoid
c. 10 penetrating the bone.
d. 20 a. 1.75 mm
8. The pairest type of reagent water is: b. 2.0 mm
a. Type I c. 2.25 mm
b. Type II d. 2.5 mm
c. Type III 16. Specimens that require chilling (4oC)
d. All 1. Ammonia
9. Type of extinguisher for Class C fires: 2. Lactic acid
a. Water, dry chemical, loaded stream 3. Blood gases
b. Carbon dioxide, dry chemical, halon 4. Renin
c. Metal X a. 1 and 3
d. None b. 2 and 4
10. Chemicals should be stored: c. 1, 2 and 3
a. Alphabetically, for easy accessibility d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
b. Inside a safety cabinet with proper 17. A medical technologies on duty in the
ventilation Clinical Chemistry section received a
c. According to their chemical properties sterile bottle containing CSF. What
and classification should he or she do first?
d. Inside a fume hood, if toxic vapors can a. Centrifuge the fluid
be released when opened b. Measure the volume
11. 20oC = ___oF c. Put it inside the freezer set at 2o degrees
a. 25 Celsius
b. 53 d. should verify if it is the only bottle
c. 68 collected from the patient
d. 86 18. Analytical testing performed outside
12. 75oF = ___oC the confines of the central laboratory,
a. 15.5 usually by nonlaboratorian personnel
b. 21.0 (nurse, respiratory therapist etc.)
c. 23.8 1. Point of care testing (POCT)
d. 32.6 2. Decentralized testing
13. It is used for nonviscous fluid, self- 3. Near-patient testing
draining; small amount left in the tip 4. Alternate site testing
should not be blown out. a. 1 and 3
a. Volumetric pipet b. 2 and 4
b. Ostwald Folin c. 1, 2 and 3
c. Micropipattes d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
d. Pasteur pipet 19. Beer’s law states that the concentration
14. The etched rings on the top of a of a substance is (1)___ proportional to
pipette means: the amount of light absorbed or (2)___
a. The pipette should be allowed to drain proportional to the logarithm of the
and the last drop should remain in the transmitted light.
pipette a. Directly, inversely
b. The last drop is to be known out after the b. Inversely
pipettes drain c. Both directly proportional
d. Both inversely proportional b. Discrete analyzer
20. The more light absorbed, the higher the c. Multitest analyzer
concentration of analyte in this d. Random-access analyzer
technique of measuring the amount of 26. In a chemical reaction, the amount of
light absorbed by a solution. product formed is measured at specific
a. Atomic absorption intervals during a specified period and
b. Fluorometry then related to the concentration of the
c. Nephelometry analyte in the unknown. This type of
d. Spectrophotometry measurement is known as:
21. The process by which fluorescence of a. Colorimetric
an analyte is reduced due to the b. End-point
excited molecule losing some of its c. Rate
energy by interacting with other d. Ultraviolet
substances in solution is known as: 27. Dubowski method for glucose utilizes:
a. Ionization a. Phosphomolybdic acid
b. Quenching b. Arsenomolybdic acid
c. Phosphorescence c. Ortho-toluidine
d. Self-absorption d. Potassium ferricyanide
22. One sample sequentially following 28. C-peptide is formed during the
another through the system so that conversion of pro-insulin to insulin. The
different analytical functions are being amount of circulating C-peptide
carried on simultaneously on more than provides reliable indicators for
one sample best describes: pancreatic and insulin secretions (beta
a. Automatic clinical analysis cell function). It is decreased in:
b. Centrifugal analysis a. Insulinoma
c. Continuous-flow analysis b. Ingestion of hypoglycemic drugs
d. Dry-slide analysis c. Type 1 DM
23. Direct injection of a sample into very d. Type 2 DM
small diameter tubing, thus minimizing 29. CSF glucose concentration is
lateral diffusion best describes: approximately ___ that of plasma
a. Automatic clinical analysis concentration.
b. Centrifugal analysis a. 50%
c. Continuous-flow analysis b. 60-70%
d. Flow-injection analysis c. 80-100%
24. Which analyzer requires that the d. 65-85%
sample and reagent be pipeted inyo 30. Every 1% change in the HBA1C value
separate chambers in a rotor prior to causes a change of approximately ___
the chemical analysis being performed? in the plasma glucose.
a. Centrifugal a. 10 mg/dL
b. Continuous flow b. 25 mg/dL
c. DuPont aca c. 15 mg/dL
d. Kodak dry, slide d. 35 mg/dL
25. An instrument that can analyze patient 31. A turbidimetric method used for the
samples for only those tests specifically quantitation of total protein in urine and
ordered and can analyze stat samples cerebrospinal fluid specimens is:
by interrupting the normal sequence of a. Biuret
patient analyses is referred to as: b. HABA
a. Batch analyzer c. Coomassie blue
d. SSA e. A, B and C
32. Which of the following nutritional 38. The method of choice for quantifying
markers has been found to be most protein fractions following
sensitive and helpful indicator of electrophoresis?
nutritional status in very ill patients? a. Densitometry
a. Transthyretin b. Fluorometry
b. Transferrin c. Spectrophotometry
c. Albumin d. Nephelometry
d. Somatomedin C 39. The acute-phase reactant that is able
33. Patient with Nephrotic Syndrome is to inhibit enzymatic proteolysis is:
expected to have which of the a. Alpha1 antitrypsin
following results in serum protein b. Complement
electrophoresis? c. Haptoglobin
a. Decreased in all fractions except d. Prealbumin
albumin region 40. The screening procedure useful in
b. Decreased in all fractions except alpha 1 detecting PKU is:
region a. Copper reduction
c. Decreased in all fractions except alpha 2 b. Glucose oxidase
region c. Ferric chloride
d. Decreased in all fractions except beta d. Nitroprusside
region 41. Which of the following elevates
34. Decreased serum albumin levels may carboxyhemoglobin?
be associated with: a. Nitrite poisoning
a. Malnutrition b. Exposure to carbon monoxide
b. Liver disease c. Sulfa drug toxicity
c. Kidney disease d. Sickle cell anemia
d. Both B and C 42. CDC reference method for
e. A, B and C determination of cholesterol:
35. Which of the following is a negative a. Liebermann Burchardt reaction
acute phase reactant? b. Salkowski reaction
a. Prealbumin c. Cholesterol oxidase reaction
b. Ceruloplasmin d. Abell, Levy and Brodie method
c. Albumin 43. When TAG and LDL-c are being
d. Haptoglobin measured, fasting becomes a
36. A protein that precipitates in acid requirement. Require fasting of patients:
solution but redissolves upon heating a. 2 to 4 hours
best describes: b. 4 to 6 hours
a. Albumin c. 6 to 8 hours
b. Bence Jones d. 12 to 14 hours
c. Haptoglobin 44. A cholesterol QC chart has the
d. Transferrin following date for the normal control:
37. Which dye may be used to stain serum x = mean of data
protein fractions following x = 137 mg/dL Sx = 1,918 mg/dL
electrphorosis? 2 SD = 6 mg/dL N = 14
a. Amido black The coefficient of variation for this
b. Ponceau S control is:
c. Fat red a. 1.14%
d. Both A and B b. 4.38%
c. 2.19% 2. 12 mg/dl of uric acid to mmol/l = 0.71
d. 9.49% 3. TC=200; HDL=30; TAG=150 compute
45. The function of the major lipid for LDL = 140mg/dl
components of the very low density 4. Which one is not needed in
lipoproteins (VLDL) is to transport: computation for LDL?
a. Cholesterol from peripheral cells to the LDL = TC – (HDL + VLDL)
liver a. HDL
b. Exogenous triglycerides b. VLDL
c. Cholesterol and phospholipids to c. TAG- indirectly needed
peripheral cells d. TC
d. Endogenous triglycerise 5. Abrupt change to new mean in Levy
46. What is the reference method for Jenning’s chart
quantitation of lipoproteins (LPPs) a. Dispersion
a. Liberman Burchardt b. Shift
b. Van Handel and Zilversmith c. Trend
c. Abell-Kendall 6. Hypothyroidism T3 and T4 uptake are?
d. Ultracentrifugation a. Both high
47. Which of the following lipoproteins is b. Both low
the smallest of all the lipoproteins and is c. One is very high and one is
composed of 50% proteins? moderately high
a. HDL d. Inversely proportional
b. LDL 7. Primary hyperthyroidism with normal
c. Chylomicrons T4. Confirm with
d. Triglycerides a. TBG
48. It is the major and product from the b. TSH
cetabolism of VLDL. It constitutes about c. T3 uptake
50% of the total LPP in plasma: 8. Chloride and Bicarbonate
a. CM relationship? Reciprocal
b. LDL 9. Active male hormone? Testosterone
c. VLDL 10. Screening test for Cushing’s syndrome
d. HDL a. Low dexamethasone -----
49. Which of the following would be most b. 24 hour urine cortisol
adversely affected by a nonfasting c. All items
sample? d. Insulin hypoglycaemia test
a. HDL 11. Hepatic jaundice: Increase in direct
b. Cholesterol and indirect bilirubin (both)
c. LDL 12. Cholelithiasis: Increase in
d. Triglycerides unconjugated bilirubin (increase TB >
50. Method of uric acid determination that 90% is conjugated)
has problem with turbidity and several 13. In case of liver transplant which are
common drugs interface: monitored? Hepatic enzymes, Bilirubin,
a. Colorimetric Coagulation factos
b. Enzymatic H2O2 14. Glucose oxidase negative; Benedict’s
c. Enzymic UV test positive in new born: Inborn error of
d. IDMS metabolism
15. TAG has fasting 12-15 hrs (ideal- 12hrs)
1. What does U stand for in Clearance 16. RACE meaning = rescue, alarm,
= urine UxV/P? Urine Creatinine in mg/dl contain, extinguish
17. <50 mg/dl alcohol level or 0.05%. What 38. Differentiate VLDL from LDL and HDL:
is the presumption TAG and chole content daw po (?)
a. Not under influence of alcohol 39. Characteristics of DM: Destruction of B
b. Presumed to be under influence of cells (sa pancreas hindi sa immunes
alcohol system ibig sabihin nito); deficiency of
c. No presumption can be done insulin receptors; increase blood
18. Endogenous TAG: VLDL glucose
19. Exogenous TAG: Chylomicrons 40. Which of the following is not
20. HEPA meaning= high efficiency considered emergency: ans is
particulate air Glycosuria
21. Uricase: Enzymatic:H202 41. Measure of substance in relation to
22. Fahey and Mancini method: Fahey 48- other substance in solution:
72 hours and sensitive concentration
23. Convert 0.5mg/dl IgD to mmol/L: 5.0 42. Color of <350 nm
24. pH measurement: Potentiometry a. Red
25. Involved in female hormones: b. Orange
a. Hirsutism c. UV
b. Polycistic ovarian dse d. Infrared
c. Infertility 43. Newborn screening:
d. All a. Blood spot test
26. pC02: increase 3% when increase 1’ b. Capillary
temp c. Venipuncture
27. Blood with no anticoagulant blood d. Heat at 42’c----
glucose decreases: 7mg/dl per hour 44. LDL mmol/L: use TAG/2.175 ( Binigay po
28. Activity depends on increase substrate both friedwald and de long but
concentration. Increase in substrate - - - friedwald ang commonly used)
- -for enzyme excess: First order kinetics
29. Rape victims: ACP 45. Variation in basal state: exercise, diet
30. Renal threshold for glucose: 160- (All of the above)
180mg/dl
31. Which enzyme is the least specific?
a. LDH
b. ALT
c. CK
d. ACP
32. Increase in gauge of needle: decrease
in bore of needle.
33. All are true for Sodium except: for
nerve impulses
34. Middle value of date: Median
35. Frequently seen in date: Mode
36. Total divided by the number of
populations: Mean
37. True about continuous flow:
a. Use of separate cuvets
b. Use of stirring rod
c. Continuous tubing
d. Allows STAT
 5. Which stain is commonly used to perform
a reticulocyte count?
a. Wright stain
b. Crystal violet
c. New methylene blue
d. Natural red
6. Which of the following is an appropriate
screening test for the presence of
hemoglobin S?
a. Dithionate solubility test
b. Hemoglobin electrophoresis
c. Heat instability test
HEMATOLOGY d. Acid elution test
7. Which of the following does NOT increase
1. The degree of effective erythropoiesis is the sedimentation of red cells?
best assessed by: a. Rouleaux
a. Serum iron labels b. Poikilocytosis
b. Hemoglobin determinations c. Increased globulins
c. Ferrokinetic studies with Fe59 d. Low erythrocyte count
d. Reticulocyte counts 8. Which of the following is not detected by
2. Any turbidity in a peripheral blood the DAT with polyspecific AHG?
specimen will result in a falsely elevated a. Erythrocyte sensitization with antibodies
hemoglobin determination. Which of “in vivo”
the following is NOT a potential source b. Erythrocyte sensitization with incomplete
of turbidity? antibodies “in vivo”
a. Lipemia c. Erythrocyte sensitization with
b. Increased leukocyte counts complement “in vivo”
c. Increased level of carboxyhemoglobin d. Erythrocyte sensitization with antibodies
d. Presence of hemoglobin S “in vitro”
9. The Donath-Landsteiner test is positive in:
a. PNH
b. CHD
3. The following erythrocyte data were c. PCH
obtained from an EDTA-anticoagulated d. Warm AIHA
specimen: erythrocyte count = 2.84 x 10. A positive sucrose hemolysis test was
1012/L, hemoglobin = 7.2 g/dL, followed by a Ham test. There was
hematocrit = 26% (0.26 L/L), calculate hemolysis of the patient’s cells in
the MCV. acidified serum. These results are
a. 25.3 fL indicative of:
b. 27.7 fL a. G6PD deficiency
c. 65.9 fL b. Hereditary spherocytosis
d. 91.5 fL c. Pyruvate kinase deficiency
4. Which of the following is NOT a condition d. PNH
associated with an elevated ESR? 11. The principal test in the diagnosis of
a. Rheumatoid arthritis heredity spherocytosis is:
b. Polycythemia vera a. Autohemolysis test
c. Multiple myeloma b. Ham test
d. Chronic infection c. Osmotic fragility test
d. Thermal stability test 19. Which of the following erythrocyte
12. Which laboratory test is more inclusions cannot be stained and
appropriate screen for unstable visualized with Romanowsky stain?
hemoglobulin disorders? a. Pappenheimer bodies
a. Heat instability test b. Howell-Jolly bodies
b. Hemoglobin electrophoresis c. Heinz bodies
c. Osmotic fragility d. Basophilic stippling
d. Serum bilirubin 20. Which of the following laboratory tests is
13. The slowest moving hemoglobin on most specific for vitamins B12 or folic
electrophoresis at pH 8.4 is: acid deficiency?
a. Hemoglobin A a. Low ferriti
b. Hemoglobin F b. High RDW
c. Hemoglobin C c. Coomb’s test
d. Hemoglobin G d. MCV > 105
14. In cellulose acetate electrophoresis, 21. Which laboratory result is most useful in
hemoglobin S has the same mobility as: distinguishing iron deficiency anemia
a. Hemoglobin E from anemia of chronic disease?
b. Hemoglobin F a. Serum iron
c. Hemoglobin D b. MCV
d. Hemoglobin C c. Hemoglobin
15. Which of the following hemoglobin d. Transferrin receptor
electrophoresis results is most typical of 22. If a serum transferring receptor assay
sickle cell trait? were performed on an iron deficient
a. 85% Hb S and 15% Hb A individual, what would you expect the
b. 85% Hb F and 15% Hb S result to be:
c. 45% Hb S and 55% Hb A a. Increased
d. 55% Hb F and 455 Hb S b. Decreased
16. The substance that will hasten the c. Normal
sickling of erythrocyte is: d. AOTA
a. Sodium oxalate 23. The electrical impedance principle is
b. Sodium metabisulfite based on the fact that:
c. Sodium citrate a. Blood cells are good conductors of
d. Sodium phosphate electricity
17. Hemoglobin S and D can be b. Blood cells are poor conductors of
differentiated by which test? electricity
a. Autohemolysis test c. Resistance of the electrical path is
b. Acid serum test decreased as the individual cells passes
c. Hemoglobin electrophoresis at pH 8.6 through the aperture
d. Solubility test d. Blood cells have a relative density
18. Increased osmotic fragility could be greater than that of saline
expected in which of the following 24. B-lymphocytes can be distinguished
disorders? from T-lymphocytes by:
a. Iron deficiency anemia a. Morphology on Romanowsky-stained
b. Thalassemia smear
c. Sickle cell anemia b. Size of the cell
d. Hereditary spherocytosis c. Monoclonal antibodies to surface
antigens
d. Presence of granules
25. A manual leukocyte count was
performed on an EDTA-
anticoagualated specimen. The
specimen was diluted 1:20 and a total
of 165 leukocytes were counted in the
four corner squares of the
hemacytometer. What is the leukocyte
count?
a. 1.3 x 109/L
b. 3.3 x 109/L
c. 4.1 x 109/L
d. 8.3 x 109/L
26. Chromosome analysis revealed the
presence of the Philadelphia
chromosome. What myeloproliferative
disorder is present?
a. CML
b. PV
c. ET
d. MMM
27. What cytochemical stain is used to help
differentiate a leukomoid reaction from
CML?
a. Peroxidase
b. New methylene blue
c. Leukocyte alkaline phosphatase
d. Perl’s Prussian blue
28. What cytochemical stain is most useful
in the differentiation of a myeloblast
from a lymphoblast?
a. Periodic acid-Schiff reaction
b. Acid phosphatase
c. Myeloperoxidase
d. α-naphthyl acetate esterase
29. The esterase cytochemical stains are
useful to differentiate:
a. Granulocytic from monocytic leukemias
b. Lymphocytic leukemias from myelocytoc
leukemias
c. Monocytic leukemias from
megakaryocytic leukemias
d. Lymphocytic leukemias from monocytic
leukemias
30. A leukomoid reaction may be
distinguished from chronic myelocytic
leukemia by:
a. The total leukocyte count
b. The presence or absence of immature
neutrophils
c. Chromosome studies
d. The presence or absence of anemia
31. Which of the following stains is not
useful in the differentiation of acute
myelogenous leukemia from acute
lymphocytic leukemia?
a. Chloracetate esterase stain
b. Sudan black B stain
c. Myeloperoxidase stain
d. Periodic acid-Schiff stain
32. Based on the results obtained from the
evaluation of a leukocyte alkaline
phosphatas (LAP) stain, what is the total
LAP score?
Cell Rating
0
1+
2+
3+
4+
a. 65
b. 75
c. 95
d. 130
33. The niroblue tetrazolium test would be
most useful in detecting:
a. Chediak-Higashi syndrome
b. Infectious mononucleosis
c. Chronic granulomatous disease
d. Niemann-Pick disease
34. Heterophil antibodies found in
infectious mononucleosis are absorbed
by:
a. Beef erythrocytes but not guinea pig
kidney cells
b. Both beef erythrocytes and guinea pig
kidney cells
c. Neither beef erythrocytes and guinea
pig kidney cells
d. Guinea pig kidney cells but not beef
erythrocytes
1. Haptoglobin may become depleted in:
a. Inflammatory conditions
b. Acute hemolytic anemia
c. Infectious diseases a. α
d. Kidney disease b. β
2. This form of hemoglobin has iron in the c. g
ferric state: d. µ
a. Sulhemoglubin 10. A peripheral blood smear that has a
b. Methemoglobin mixture of macrocytes, microcytes and
c. Carboxyhemoglobin normal erythrocytes present can be
d. Deoxyhemoglobin best described by which term?
a. Polkilocytosis
3. Which of the following is a cause of b. Polychromatophilia
neutrophilia: c. Megaloblastosis
a. Viral infection d. Anisocytosis
b. Acute bacterial infection 11. What is the iron transport protein?
c. Allergic reaction a. Ferritin
d. Myeloperoxidase deficiency b. Transferrin
4. Which of the following findings would be c. Hemosiderin
most typical of severe septicemia? d. Albumin
a. Toxic granulation 12. What are DÖhle bodies?
b. Auer rods a. Aggregates of rough endoplasmic
c. Hypersegmentation reticulum
d. Alder-Reilly anomaly b. Primary granules
5. The plasma cell develops from the: c. Fat globules
a. Basophil d. Liposomes containing partially degraded
b. T lymphocyte mucopolysaccharides
c. B lymphocyte 13. Multiple myeloma is a disorder of:
d. Monocyte a. T lymphocytes
6. In the neutrophil series of leukocyte b. Plasma cells
development, the earliest stage to c. Megakaryocytes
normally appear in the peripheral blood d. Erythrocytes
is the: 14. The cells considered to be distinctive of
a. Myeloblast Hodgkin’s disease is:
b. Promyelocyte a. Turk’s cells
c. Myelocyte b. Ferrata cells
d. Band c. Reed-Sternberg cells
7. The primary function of neutrophils is: d. Flame cells
a. A mediator of hypersensitivity 15. Alder-Reilly anomaly has effect on
b. Control of parasitic infections leukocytes that closely resembles:
c. Initiation of the immune response a. Toxic granulation
d. Phagocytic defense against b. Hyposegmention
microorganism c. Dohle-like inclusion bodies
8. Sézary cells are: d. Hypersegmentation
a. Lipid-filled histiocytes 16. Aleukoerythrobalstic reaction is
b. Abnormal plasma cells characterized by the presence of ___ in
c. Abnormal cells in Hodgkin’s disease the peripheral blood:
d. Abnormal T lymphocytes a. Immature leukocytes and nucleated
9. This is the first heavy immunoglobulin erythrocytes
chain produced in the maturing B- b. Lymphocytosis and neutropenia
lymphocyte: c. Leukocytosis and erythrocytosis
d. Pseudo-Pelger Huet cells
17. An increased in basophils is associated
with:
a. Chronic myeloproliferative diseases
b. Parasitic infection
c. Chronic infection
d. Administration of glucocorticoids
18. HIV (Human immunodeficiency virus)
infects:
a. B lymphocytes
b. Suppressor T lymphocytes
c. Helper T lymphocytes
d. Cytotoxic T lymphocytes
19. A 2-year old child has a total leukocyte
count of 10 x 109/L and 60%
lymphocytes. The following best
describes this blood picture:
a. Absolutely lymphocytosis
b. Relative lymphocytosis
c. Normal lymphocyte count for a given
age
d. Absolute lymphocytopenia
20. Auer rods are inclusions found in:
a. Myeloblasts
b. Lymphoblasts
c. Erythrocytes
d. Prolymphocytes
21. Extensive bone marrow fibrosis,
leukoerythroblastic peripheral blood
and the presence of anisocytosis with
dacyocytes are most characteristic of:
a. CML
b. PV
c. ET
d. MMM
22. What is the minimum number of bone
marrow blasts needed for the diagnosis
of acute leukemia?
a. 29%
b. 50%
c. 5%
d. 30%
23. In addition to the number of blasts,
what other criterion is essential for the
diagnosis of RARS?
a. More than 15% ringed sideroblasts
b. More than 30% ringed sideroblasts
c. Dyshematopoiesis in all three cell
lineages
d. Pancytopenia
24. The FAB classification of a leukemia
with large blasts that are
myeloperoxidase and specific esterase
negative but have strong Positivity for
nonspecific esterase inhibited by sodium
fluoride is:
a. M1
b. M4
c. M5
d. M7
25. The highest levels of serum and urine
muramidase are found in this leukemia:
a. M0 AML
b. M2 AML
c. CML
d. M5 AML
26. When Auer rods (bodies) are found in
blasts of a case of acute leukemia, the
leukemia is most probably:
a. Undifferentiated leukemia
b. B lymphocytic leukemia
c. T lymphocytic leukemia
d. Myelocytic leukemia
27. The normal lifespan of the platelets in
the peripheral blood is:
a. 8 hours
b. 1 day
c. 10 days
d. 100 days
28. Platelet dense granules are storage
organelles for ___, which are released
after activation.
a. Calcium, ADP and serotonin
b. Fibrinogen, glycoprotein Ib, and von
Willebrand factor
c. ADP, thromboxane A2, and fibrinogen
d. Lysosomal granules, ATP, and factor V
29. Which of the following is needed for
platelets to aggregate?
a. Thrombin
b. Actin
c. von Willebrand factor
d. Fibrinogen
30. Platelet glycoprotein IIb/IIIa complex is:
a. Membrane receptor for fibrinogen
b. Secreted from the dense bodies
c. Secreted by endothelial cells
d. Also called actin
31. The formation of thromboxane A2 in the
activated platelet:
a. Is needed for platelets to adhere to
collagen
b. Is caused by the alpha granule proteins
c. Requires the enzyme cyclooxygenase
d. Occurs via a pathway involving von
Willebrand factor
32. A humoral factor which regulates
platelet production by speeding up the
maturation time of megakaryocyte is
called;
a. Thrombocyte
b. Thrombopoeitin
c. Interleukin 3
d. prostaglandin
33. which of the following is true about
relationship between ADP and
platelets?
a. ADP is necessary for platelet adhesion
b. ADP released from the granules is
required for platelet aggregation
c. ADP is synthesized in the platelet from
arachidonic acid
d. ADP is released from the alpha granule
of the platelet
34. Thrombocytopenia may be associated
with all of the following, EXCEPT:
a. Prolonged bleeding time
b. Prolonged clotting time
c. Poor clot retraction
d. Positive tourniquet test
35. Approximately ___ of the total number
of platelets circulate in the systemic
circulation?
a. One-fourth
b. One-third
c. One-half
d. Two-thirds
36. Clot retraction is a function of:
a. Thromboxane A2
b. Factor XIII
c. Thrombosthenin
d. Thromboplastin
37. A patient with Bernard Soulier disease
will probably have:
a. Increased bleeding time
b. Increased prothrombin time
c. Increased platelet count
d. Abnormal aggregation with ADP and
collagen
38. A patient with Glanzmann
thrombasthenia has:
a. A mutation in the gene for fibrinogen
b. An acquired abnormality of von
Willebrand factor
c. A genetic abnormality of glycoprotein IIb
or IIIa
d. An acquired vascular disorder
39. A patient with hereditary telangiectasia
has:
a. Abnormal platelet adhesion t collagen
b. Thrombocytosis
c. A deficiency of platelet dense bodies
d. Dilated capillaries on mucous
membranes that are likely to cause
bleeding
40. The bleeding time is expected to be
normal in:
a. Hemophilia
b. Drug-induced thrombocytopenia
c. Uremia
d. Bernard-Soulier disease
41. Platelet adhesion is abnormal in
Bernard-Soulier disease because:
a. Glycoprotein Ib of the platelet
membrane is defective
b. A plasma factor needed for platelet
adhesion is absent
c. Antibodies to phospholipid are present
d. Abnormal proteins in the plasma coat
the platelet membrane
42. An elevated platelet count is
associated with:
a. Hemorrhage
b. Megaloblastic anemia
c. Myelodysplastic syndromes
d. Immune thrombocytopenic purpura
43. Platelet aggregation studies revealed
normal aggregation curves with
collagen, epinephrine, and ADP, but an
abnormal aggregation curve with
 ristocetin. Based on these findings, what
is the differential diagnosis?
a. Von Willebrand disease and Bernard-
Soulier syndrome
b. Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia and von
disease
c. Storage pool disease and Glanzmann’s
thrombasthenia
d. Bernard-Soulier syndrome and storage
pool disease
44. Bleeding disorder/s in which platelets
fail to aggregate with ristocetin:
1. von Willebrand’s disease
2. Glanzmann’s disease
3. Bernard-Soulier syndrome
4. Storage pool disease
a. 1 and 3
b. 2 and 4
c. 1, 2 and 3
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
45. Which of the following platelet
responses is most likely associated with
Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia?
a. Decreased platelet aggregation to
ristocetin
b. Defective ADP release; normal response
to ADP
c. Decreased amount of ADP in platelets
d. Markedly decreased aggregation to
epinephrine, ADP and collage
46. Platelet function is impaired after
ingesting aspirin because:
a. Aspirin blocks certain glycoprotein
receptors on the surface of the platelet
b. Aspirin interferes with liver synthesis of a
number of coagulation factors
c. Aspirin alters the structure of the
glycocalyx
d. Aspirin decreases thromboxane
A2 formation by inhibiting
cyclooxygenase
47. Aspirin ingestion has the following
hemostatic effect in a normal person:
a. Prolonged prothrombin time
b. Prolonged bleeding time
c. Prolonged APTT
d. All of the above
48. Using manual techniques, the most
reproducible test of the following is:
a. Leukocyte count
b. Erythrocyte count
c. Hemoglobin determination
d. Hematocrit determination
49. Hemoglobin is measured
spectrophotometrically at which of the
following wavelength:
a. 340 nm
b. 440 nm
c. 450 nm
d. 540 nm
50. Which of the following may be
confused with reticulocytes in a brilliant
cresyl blue stained smear:
a. Hemoglobin C crystal
b. Basophilic stipplings
c. Hemoglobin H bodies
d. Cabot rings
1. Which of the following is not an
appropriate safety practice?
a. Disposing of needles in biohazard,
puncture-proof containers
b. Frequent hand-washing
c. Sterilizing lancets for reuse
d. Keeping food out of the same areas as
specimens
2. Factors involved with initial activation of
the coagulation system and that require
contact with a negatively charged
surface for their activity belong to the
following group of factors:
a. Prothrombin group
b. Fibrinogen group
c. Fibrinolytic
d. Contact group
3. Factor X can be activated by:
a. Factor XIa
b. Factor IXa, VIIIa, PF3, Ca++
c. Factor XIIa
d. Factor Va and VIIa
4. Which of the following cleaves pro-
thrombin to thrombin?
a. Xa, Va, PF3, Ca++ d. Formation of covalent bonds between
b. IXa, VIIa, PF3, Ca++ fibrin monomers
c. VIIa / TF 12. Prekallikrein is also known as:
d. XIa a. Fletcher factor
5. Activated protein C together with its b. Fitzgerald factor
cofactor, protein S is an inhibitor of: c. Williams factor
a. Factors VIIIa and Va d. Flaujeac factor
b. Plasmin 13. High molecular weight kinninogen is
c. Thrombin also known as:
d. Plasminogen activators a. Extrinsic factor
6. The most concentrated coagulation b. Passavoy factor
factor in the blood is: c. Fletcher factor
a. XII d. Fitzgerald factor
b. IX 14. In the APTT procedure the time is taken
c. X for clot formation is measured after the
d. Fibrinogen addition of:
7. Which of the following is requires in a. Tissue thromboplastin
adequate amounts for stabilization of b. Calcium chloride
the fibrin clot? c. Phospholipid
a. Factor I d. Activator
b. Factor X 15. Which of the following factors is not
c. Factor XI present in BaSO4 adsorbed plasma?
d. Factor XIII a. VIII
8. Hemophilia B is a deficiency of: b. II
a. Factor XI c. XII
b. Factor VIII d. V
c. Factor IX 16. The integrity of the intrinsic coagulation
d. Fibrinogen system is evaluated by the:
9. In which of the following disease would a. Thrombin time test
you most likely find an abnormal pro- b. PT
thrombin time: c. APTT
a. Hemophilia A d. Bleeding time
b. Hemophilia B 17. The activated partial thromboplastin
c. DIC time (APTT) is used as a screen for the
d. Prekallikrein deficiency laboratory evaluation of inherited or
10. Heparin inhibits the clotting of blood by acquired deficiencies in the:
neutralizing the effects of: a. Extrinsic pathway of the coagulation
a. Calcium cascade
b. Thrombin b. Intrinsic pathway of the coagulation
c. Platelets cascade
d. Factor XIII c. Platelets
11. High molecular weight kinninogen d. Vascular system
(HMWK) and kallikrein are coagulation 18. A deficiency in Factor X would affect:
factors involved in: a. Pro-thrombin time and activated partial
a. Synergistic action with factor III thromboplastin time
b. Activation of intrinsic coagulation b. Activated partial thromboplastin time
c. Induction of viscous metamorphosis and template bleeding time
c. Activated partial thromboplastin time b. Factor VIII
and thrombin time c. Factor IX
d. Thrombin time and template bleeding d. Factor XI
time 25. The combination of prolonged APTT
19. A prolonged Stypven (Russell viper and a prolonged test with the mixing
venom) time is associated with study procedures indicates the
deficiency of the following factors presence of:
EXCEPT: a. Circulating inhibitor
a. Factor I b. Factor VIII deficiency
b. Factor II c. Anti-platelet antibodies
c. Factor X d. Excessive vitamin K
d. Factor VII 26. Which laboratory test is specific for
20. If a patient has a prolonged PT and fibrinolysis?
prolonged APTT but both are corrected a. D-dimer test
by aged plasma and serum but not b. Fibrinogen defeciency
corrected with adsorbed plasma, the c. Euglobulin clot lysis
most likely deficiency is factor: d. Antithrombin III
a. X 27. An abnormal thrombin time is
b. V associated with:
c. II a. Factor X deficiency
d. I b. Fibrinogen deficiency
21. The urea solubility test is specific for c. Excess plasminogen
detecting deficiencies of factor: d. Protein C deficiency
a. X 28. The observation of a normal reptilase
b. XII time and a prolonged thrombin time is
c. XIII indicative of:
d. IX a. Presence of fibrin degradation products
22. A patient has a prolonged PT but a b. Dysfibrinogenemia
normal APTT. What is the most likely c. Hypoplasminogenemia
deficiency? d. Presence of heparin
a. Factor VII 29. These cells are important in the
b. Factor X transport of oxygen and carbon dioxide
c. Factor IX between the lungs and body tissues:
d. Factor V a. Platelets
23. The D-dimer test is a specific test for: b. Leukocytes
a. Plasminogen activation c. Thrombocytes
b. Plasmin degradation of fibrinogen d. Erythrocytes
c. Plasmin degragation of fibrin 30. Leukocytes are necessary for:
d. Factor XIII a. Defense against foreign antigens
24. Based on the following data, what is b. Hemostasis
the most likely factor deficiency? c. Oxygen transport
PT normal d. Excretion of cellular metabolism
APTT prolonged 31. This organ is important in maturation of
APTT + normal plasma correction T-lymphocytes:
APTT + adsorbed plasma no a. Lymph nodes
correction b. Liver
APTT + aged serum correction c. Spleen
a. Factor V d. Thymus
32. Nucleoli of cells contain predominantly 39. This metabolic pathway facilities
which of the following: oxygen release from hemoglobin to
a. DNA tissues:
b. RNA a. Embden-Meyerhoff
c. ALP b. Hexose-monophosphate shunt
d. Peroxidase c. Rapoport-Luebering
33. The major erythrocyte production site is d. Metheglobulin reductase
the: 40. In the red blood cell, the hexose
a. Bone marrow monophosphate shunt:
b. Kidney a. Produces adenosine triphosphate (ATP)
c. Liver b. Produces 2,3-diphosphoglycerate (2,3-
d. Spleen DPG)
34. The correct maturation order of c. Helps prevent oxidation of hemoglobin
erythrocyte morphologic stages is: d. Maintains membrane integrity
a. Prorubricyte, rubricyte, rubriblast, 41. The major site for removal of normal
metarubricyte aged erythrocytes is:
b. Rubriblast, prorubricyte, rubricyte, a. Bone marrow
metarubricyte b. Kidney
c. Rubriblast, metarubricyte, rubricyte, c. Liver
prorubricyte d. Spleen
d. Rubriblast, rubricyte, prorubricyte, 42. Relative erythrocytosis may be found:
metarubricyte a. In pulmonary disorders
35. The earliest recognizable erythroid b. At high altitudes
precursor on a Wright-stained smear of c. With high oxygen affinity hemoglobin
the bone marrow is: d. In dehydration
a. Pronormoblast 43. This renal hormone stimulates
b. Basophilic mormoblast erythropoiesis in the bone marrow:
c. CFU-E a. IL-1
d. BFU-E b. Erythropoietin
36. A normal erythrocyte has a lifespan of: c. Granulopoietin
a. 8.2 hours d. Thrombopoietin
b. 5 days 44. These pairs of chains make up the
c. 28 days majority of hemoglobin in normal adults:
d. 120 days a. α2β2
37. Erythrocytes that contain a marked b. α2g2
decrease in spectrin would most likely c. α2δ2
cause: d. z2l2
a. An increase in membrane permeability 45. A shift to the right in the ODC (oxygen
b. Methemoglobinemia dissociation curve) occurs when there is
c. An absence of MN antigens a/an:
d. Decreased erythrocyte membrane a. Increase in O2
permeability b. Increase in CO2
38. Most of the erythrocyte’s energy comes c. Increase in pH
from the: d. Decrease in CO2
a. Embden-Meyerhoff pathway 46. The sigmoid shape of the ODC is due
b. Hexose-monophosphate shunt to:
c. Rapoport-Luebering a. The cooperative binding of O2 by
d. Metheglobulin reduction pathway hemoglobin
b. The Bohr effect 8. Computations for corrected WBC
c. The presence of glycosylated count (2 questions)
hemoglobin 9. When is nRBC considered
d. Erythropoietin significant? 5nRBC present
47. Which of the following is unable to bind 10. Vitamin K dependent (asked twice):
oxygen? 2,7,9,10
a. Carboxyhemoglobin 11. >30 x 10^9 WBC: Dilute at 1:200
b. Sulfhemoglobin 12. 0.1 to 30x10^9: Dilute at 1;20 ____
c. Methemoglobin 13. Patient is bleeding while being treated
d. All of the above with thrombolytic infusion something.
48. Bite cells are associated with: Blood results of blood taken DURING
a. Pyruvate kinase deficiency infusion (heparin)
b. PNH PTT: Very Prolong.
c. G6PD deficiency Fibrinogen: Very Low. What is the most
d. Heredity pyropoikilocytosis likely disease?
49. Patients with beta thalassemia major a. Hypofibrinogenemia
may show increased amounts of: b. Hyperplasminemia
a. Hemoglobin F c. Liver and kidney disease
b. Hemoglobin C d. DIC ans
c. Hemoglobin H 14. Stem cell to blast: 3-5 days. Life span in
d. Hemoglobin A circulation: 121 days. What cell?
50. Which of the following is a pure red cell a. Monocyte
aplasia? b. Erythrocyte ans
a. Bernard-Soulier syndrome c. Lymphocyte
b. DiGuglielmo’s disease d. Basophil
c. Diamond-Blackfan anemia 15. Stem cell to blast: 5. Life span in tissue:
d. Fanconi’s anemia 10 days. What cell?
a. Monocyte an
b. Erythrocyte
Sex chromosome: Barr body, c. Lymphocyte
2. Gray , brown, bluish dots containing d. Basophil
ribosomes: Basophilic stipplings 16. Patient is bleeding while being treated
3. Associated with lead poisoning: with thrombolytic infusion something.
Basophilic stipplings Blood results of blood taken BEFORE
4. Wintrobe tube: 115 mm long 3 mm heparin
internal bore PTT: Prolong. Fibrinogen: Very low
5. Tilt tube test size of test tubes: a. Hypofibrinogenemia
75x10mm b. Hyperplasminemia
6. Average life span of platelets: 10 days c. Liver and Kidney disease
7. Not true cell which fragments only d. DIC
from the mother cell in the bone 17. Bone marrow smear is prepared by:
marrow? a. Crush
a. Erythrocyte b. Concentrate
b. Leukocyte c. Particulate
c. Thombocyte ans d. All ans
d. All 18. How to make good smear?
a. Smooth and rapid
b. Smooth ans
c. Slow
d. Rapid
19. What can be made with automated
smear maker?
a. Wedge ans
b. Cover slip
c. All
20. Failure to create secondary enzymes:
Pelger huet
21. Hyposegmentation: Pelger huet
22. FAB classification of acute
myeloblastic leukemia WITHOUT
maturation = M1
23. Differentiate ALL from AML in that ALL
is: Negative to both esterase and
peroxidise
24. Differentiate CML from leukemoid
a. Basophils present
b. LAP score of more than 100
25. Grading of codocytes 20-50/oif: +3
26. MCV <85; MCHC <31
a. Macrocytic, normochromic
b. Microcytic, hypochromic ans
c. Normo,normo
d. Marco, hypo
27. Increase in WBC:
a. Strenuous exercise
b. Emotions
c. Crying
d. All ans
CLINICAL MICROSCOPY 7. Which of these plasma substances is
NOT normally filtered through the
The primary chemical affected by the glomerulus in significant amounts?
renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system is: a. Protein
a. Chloride b. Glucose
b. Sodium c. Creatinine
c. Potassium d. Urea
d. Hydrogen

2. The fluid leaving the glomerulus has a

specific gravity of:
a. 1.005 8. Which term is defined as a urine
b. 1.010 volume in excess of 2000 mL excreted
c. 1.015 over a 24-hour period?
d. 1.020 a. Anuria
b. Oliguria
3. What are the variables included in the c. Polyuria
Cockgroft and Gault formula for d. Hypersthenuria
creatinine clearance?
1. Age 3. Urine creatinine 9. Which of the following will contribute
2. Sex 4. Body weight to a specimen’s specific gravity if it is
a. 1, 2 and 3 present in a person’s urine?
b. 1 and 3 a. 50-100 RBC/hpf
c. 1, 2 and 4 b. 85 mg/dL glucose
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4 c. 3+ amorphous phosphates
d. Moderate bacteria
4. The average total volume of urine
produced by a normal adult every 24 10. Why is the first-voided morning urine
hours is about: specimen the most desirable specimen
a. 750 mL for routine urinalysis?
b. 1200 mL a. Most dilute specimen of the day
c. 2000 mL b. Less contamination by
d. 2400 mL microorganisms
c. It can detect orthostatic
5. An abnormal decrease in urine proteinuria
production is called: d. Most concentrated specimen of
a. Anuria the day
b. Oliguria
c. Polyuria 11. Freshly voided normal urine is usually
d. Dysuria clear; however, if it is alkaline, a white
turbidity may be present due to:
6. Cloudiness in a freshly-voided urine a. Yeast cells
could indicate the presence of: b. Uroerythrin
a. Protein c. WBCs
b. Sugar d. Amorphous phosphates
c. WBCs
d. Any of these 12. A strong odor of cabbage in a urine
specimen could indicate:
 a. Methionine malabsorption c. Hematuria
b. Trimethylaminuria d. Hemoglobinuria
c. Phenylketonuria
d. Tyrosyluria 18. Reagent strip – specific gravity
readings are affected by:
13. A specimen with a strong ammonia a. Glucose
odor and a heavy white precipitate b. Radiographic dye
when it arrives in the laboratory may c. Alkaline urine
require: d. All of the above
a. Collection of a fresh specimen
b. Centrifugation 19. The reagent strip reaction that
c. Dilution for specific gravity requires the longest reaction time is:
d. Testing under a hood a. Bilirubin
b. Leukocyte esterase
14. A correlation exists between a c. pH
specific gravity of 1.050 and a: d. Glucose
a. 2+ protein
b. 2+ glucose 20. The enzyme dipstick test for glucose
c. Radiographic dye infusion has a sensitivity of:
d. First morning specimen a. 10 mg/dL
b. 50 mg/dL
c. 100 mg/dL
d. 200 mg/dL

15. A yellow-brown specimen that
produces a yellow foam when shaken
can be suspected of containing:
a. Carrots
b. Hemoglobin
c. Rhubarb
d. Bilirubin
16. A patient with a 1+ protein reading
in the afternoon is asked to submit a first
morning specimen. The second
specimen also has a 1+ protein. This
patient is:
a. Positive for orthostatic proteinuria
b. Negative for orthostatic proteinuria
c. Positive for Bence Jones
proteinuria
d. Negative for clinical proteinuria
17. Urinalysis on a patient with severe
back and abnominal pain is frequently
performed to check for:
a. Bilirubinuria
b. Proteinuria
21. Which of the following is true of the
detection of urinary glucose?
a. Any reducing substance can give a
false positive reaction w/ copper
reduction test for glucose
b. The copper reduction method is
specific for glucose
c. Glucose cannot appear in the urine
in the absence of elevated plasma
glucose
d. Ketonuria may produce a false
positive dipstick test for glucose
22. Which of the reagents below is used
to detect urobilinogen in urine?
a. p-Dinitrobenzene
b. p-Aminosalicylate
c. p-Dichloroaniline
d. p-Dimethylaminobenzaldehyde
23. All of the statements below d. All of these
regarding urine bilirubin tests are true
EXCEPT: 29. Blue diaper syndrome is associated
a. A positive test indicates either liver or with:
hepatobiliary disease a. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome
b. The test detects only conjugated b. Hartnup disease
bilirubin c. Alkaptonuria
c. High levels of ascorbate usually do d. Dubin-Johnson syndrome
not interfere
d. Standing urine may become falsely 30. Hurler, Hunter and Sanfilippo
negative due to bacterial hydrolysis syndrome are hereditary disorders
affecting metabolism of:
24. A positive test for blood in urine can a. Tryptophan
occur in the following EXCEPT: b. Purines
a. Extravascular hemolytic anemia c. Mucopolysaccharides
b. Crush injury d. Porphyrins
c. Malignancy of the kidney or
urinary system 31. Uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase
d. Renal calculi deficiency is associated with which of
the following?
25. Which of the following is the major a. Acute intermittent porphyria (AIN)
organic substance found in urine? b. Hereditary coproporphyria (HCP)
a. Sodium c. Congenital erythropoietic
b. Glucose porphyria (CEP)
c. Chloride d. Porphyria cutanea tarda (PCT)
d. Urea
32. Urinary screening tests for
26. A reagent test strip impregnated mucopolysaccharides:
with an aromatic amine such as p- 1. Acid albumin 3. Cyanide-
arsanilic acid or sulfanilamide may be Nitroprusside
used to detect which analyte? 2. CTAB 4. Nitroso-naphthol
a. Bilirubin a. 1 and 2
b. Blood b. 2 only
c. Nitrite c. 1, 2 and 3
d. Urobilinogen d. 3 and 4

27. What is the expected pH range of a 33. He discovered phenylketonuria from

freshly voided urine specimen? a mentally retarded child with a
a. 3.5-8.0 peculiar mousy odor to his urine:
b. 3.5-9.0 a. Ivan Folling
c. 4.0-8.5 b. Garrod
d. 4.5-8.0 c. Cotugno
d. Frederik Dekkers
28. False positive levels of 5-HIAA can be
caused by a diet high in: 34. A clinically significant epithelial cell is
a. Bananas the:
b. Tomatoes a. Cuboidal cell
c. Pineapples b. Clue cell
 c. Caudate cell c. >1%
d. Squamous epithelial cell d. <10%

35. When using the glass slide and 41. A disorder characterized by the
coverslip method, which of the following disruption of the electrical charges that
might be missed if the coverslip is produce the tightly fitting podocyte
overflowed? barrier resulting in massive loss of
a. RBCs proteins and lipids:
b. WBCs a. Alport syndrome
c. Casts b. Nephrotic syndrome
d. Bacteria c. IgA nephropathy
d. Lipid nephrosis
36. Which of the following should be
used to reduce light intensity in bright- 42. Visicoureteral reflux or the reflux of
field microscopy? urine from the bladder back into the
a. Centering screws ureters may result to:
b. Aperture diaphragm a. Acute glomerulonephritis
c. Rheostat b. Cystitis
d. Condenser aperture diaphragm c. Acute pyelonephritis
d. Acute interstitial nephritis

43. The presence of renal tubular

epithelial cells and casts is an indication
37. The finding of dysmorphic RBCs is of:
indicative of: a. Acute interstitial nephritis
a. Renal calculi b. Chronic glomerulonephritis
b. Traumatic injury c. Minimal change disease
c. Glomerular bleeding d. Acute tubular necrosis
d. Coagulation disorders
44. End-stage renal disease is
38. The primary component of urinary characterized by all of the following
mucus is: EXCEPT:
a. Albumin a. Electrolyte imbalance
b. Uromodulin b. Azotemia
c. Goblet cells c. Hypersthenuria
d. Beta2-microglobulin d. Isosthenuria

39. The purpose of the Hansel stain is to 45. Broad and waxy casts are most likely
identify: associated with:
a. Neutrophils a. Nephrotic syndrome
b. Monocytes b. Acute renal failure
c. Renal tubular cells c. Chronic renal failure
d. Eosinophils d. Focal segmental
glomerulosclerosis
40. What is the normal value for urinary
eosinophils? 46. It is described as a genetic disorder
a. >10% showing lamellated and thinning of
b. <1% glomerular basement membrane:
 a. Goodpasture syndrome
b. Alport syndrome
c. Nephrotic syndrome
d. Wegener’s granulomatosis
47. Casts are formed primarily in which
portion of the kidney?
a. Distal convoluted tubule
b. Glomerulus
c. Loop of Henle
d. Proximal convoluted tubule
48. A parasite associated with a positive
leukocyte esterase is:
a. Enterobius vermicularis
b. Trichomonas vaginalis
c. Schistosoma haematobium
d. Candida albicans
49. The hormone characteristically
present in the blood of pregnant
women and which, when
concentration in the blood reaches a
certain point, also appears in the urine
is:
a. Estradiol
b. Aldosterone
c. Progesterone
d. hCG
50. HCG is produced by which of the
following?
a. Cytotrophoblast cells
b. Argentaffin cells
c. Endocervical glandular cells
d. Type II pneumocytes
51. The most common composition of
renal calculi is:
a. Calcium oxalate
b. Magnesium ammonium
phosphate
c. Cystine
d. Uric acid
52. A renal calculi described as
yellowish to brownish red in color with a
moderately hard consistency is:
a. Cystine
b. Phosphate
c. Calcium oxalate
d. Uric acid
53. A renal calculi described as pale
and friable is:
a. Cystine
b. Phosphate
c. Calcium oxalate
its d. Uric acid
54. A stool specimen collected from an
infant with diarrhea has a pH of 5.0. This
result correlates with a:
a. Positive APT test
b. Negative trypsin test
c. Positive Clinitest
d. Negative occult blood test
55. What is the gold standard for fecal
fat determination?
a. Van de Kamer titration
b. Van den Berg reaction
c. APT test
d, D-Xylose test
56. Which of the following pairings of
stool appearance and cause does not
match?
a. Pale, frothy: steatorrhea
b. Black, tarry: blood
c. Yellow-gray: bile duct obstruction
d. Yellow-green: barium sulfate
57. All of the following statements about
CSF are true EXCEPT:
a. CSF is formed by ultrafiltration of 63. Which of the following stains is used
plasma through the choroid plexus to determine sperm viability?
b. CSF circulates in the subarachnoid a. Eosin
space and ventricles of the brain b. Hematoxylin
c. The chemical composition of CSF is c. Papanicolau
similar to plasma d. Methylene blue
d. Reabsorption of CSF occurs via
vessels in the sagittal sinus 64. Seminal fluid viscosity graded as 4 is
described as:
58. All of the following are indication of a. Watery
CSF traumatic tap EXCEPT: b. Fair
a. Clearing of fluid as it is aspirated c. Friable
b. A clear supernatant after d. Gel-like
centrifugation
c. Xanthochromia 65. The sugar present in the seminal fluid
d. Presence of a clot in the sample in high concentration is:
a. Glucose
59. The term used to denote a high WBC b. Lactose
count in the CSF is: c. Fructose
a. Empyema d. Sucrose
b. Neutrophilia
c. Pleocytosis 66. Maturation of spermatozoa takes
d. Lymphocytosis place in the:
a. Sertoli cells
60. The limulus lysate test on CSF is a b. Seminiferous tubules
sensitive assay for: c. Epididymis
a. Viral meningitis d. Seminal vesicles
b. Cryptococcal meningitis
c. Gram positive bacterial exotoxin 67. Which test for FLM is least affected
d. Gram negative bacterial by contamination with hemoglobin and
endotoxin meconium?
a. Amniostat-FLM
61. A normal CSF glucose and lactate b. Foam stability
level is associated with which type of c. Lamellar body count
meningitis? d. L/S ratio
a. Viral meningitis
b. Bacterial meningitis 68. How are specimens for FLM testing
c. Fungal meningitis delivered to and stored in the
d. Tubercular meningitis laboratory?
a. Delivered on ice and refrigerated
62. The most common cause of male or frozen
infertility is: b. Immediately centrifuged
a. Mumps c. Kept at room temperature
b. Klinefelter’s syndrome d. Protected from light
c. Varicocele
d. Malignancy 69. The presence of a fetal neural tube
disorder may be detected by:
a. Increased amniotic fluid bilirubin
 b. Increased maternal serum alpha-
fetoprotein
c. Decreased amniotic fluid
phosphatidyl glycerol
d. Decreased maternal serum
acetylcholinesterase
70. What type of tube for gastric fluid
collection is inserted through the
mouth?
a. Rehfuss tube
b. Levine tube
c. Diagnex tube
d. None of these
71. A gastric disorder characterized by
achlorhydria due to the presence of
anti-parietal cell antibodies:
a. Zollinger-Ellison disease
b. Helicobacter pylori infection
c. Pernicious anemia
d. Cystic fibrosis
72. All of the following may be
associated with bronchial asthma
EXCEPT:
a. Creola bodies
b. Curschmann’s spirals
c. Charcot-Leyden crystals
d. Pneumoliths
73. A sputum that is rusty-colored and
filled with pus is associated with:
a. Congestive heart failure
b. Lobar pneumonia
c. Tuberculosis
d. Anthracosis
74. Rice bodies are called so because:
a. It was discovered by Dr. Rice
b. It resembles cooked rice
c. It resembles uncooked rice
d. It resembles polished rice
75. Lyme arthritis is caused by:
a. Borrelia recurrentis
b. Borrelia hermsii
c. Borrelia burgdorferi
d. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
76. CYFRA 21-1 is a tumor marker for:
a. Uterine cancer
b. Colon cancer
c. Lung cancer
d. Breast cancer
77. This is a sensitive test for the
detection of intra-abdominal bleeding:
a. Peritoneal lavage
b. Bronchioalveolar lavage
c. Thoracic lavage
d. Pericardial lavage
78. What is the method of choice for
preservation of routine urinalysis
samples?
a. Boric acid
b. Formalin
c. Sodium fluoride
d. Refrigeration
79. A urine specimen for routine
urinalysis would be rejected by the
laboratory because:
a. The specimen had been
refrigerated
b. More than 50 mL was in the
container
c. The label was placed on the side
of the container
d. The specimen and accompanying
request did not match
80. Which of the following is the
preferred urine specimen for cytology
studies?
a. Catheterized
b. First morning
c. Suprapubic aspiration
d. Three-glass collection
81. Following collection, urine specimens
should be delivered to the laboratory
promptly and tested within ___ hour(s)
 a. 1 b. Frozen
b. 2 c. Body temperature
c. 3 d. Room temperature
d. 4
87. It is the process that provides
82. All of the following changes occur in documentation of proper sample
unpreserved urine EXCEPT: identification from the time of collection
1. Decreased glucose 3. Increased to the receipt of laboratory results:
ketones 5. Incr. urobilinogen a. Proficiency testing
2. Increased pH 4. Increased clarity b. Accreditation
6. Increased bacteria c. Chain of custody
a. 3, 4 and 5 d. Pre-analytical phase
b. 1, 2 and 6
c. 1, 3 and 5 88. This is also known as the modulation
d. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 contrast microscope:
a. Nomarski
83. Which of the following matches b. Hoffman
regarding specimen collection is/are c. Kohler
incorrect? d. Phase-contrast
1. Arthrocentesis – synovial fluid 3.
Thoracentesis – Ascitic fluid 89. It refers to the ability of a
Pericardiocentesis – Pleural fluid microscopic lens to distinguish two small
a. 1 and 2 objects that are a specific distance
b. 3 and 4 apart:
c. 1 and 3 a. Parfocal
d. 2 and 4 b. Birefringence
c. Illumination
84. The most representative sample for d. Resolution
fecal fat analysis is:
a. First morning 90. Which type of microscopy is used to
b. 3-day collection aid in identification of cholesterol in oval
c. 2-day collection fat bodies, fatty casts and crystals?
d. None of the above a. Polarizing
b. Phase-contrast
85. Three labeled tubes of CSF specimen c. Interference-contrast
were sent to the laboratory. Which of d. Dark-field
these tubes will be used for cell
counting?
a. Tube 1
b. Tube 2 91. It is based on the principle that the
c. Tube 3 frequency of a sound wave entering a
d. Any of these solution changes in proportion to the
density of the solution
86. If seminal fluid fructose analysis will a. Harmonic oscillation densitometry
be delayed for more than 2 hours, the b. Refractive index
sample should be stored at what c. Urinometer
condition? d. Reagent strip
a. Refrigerator temperature
92. What is the minimum urine volume c. H2O2
required by the Clinitek Atlas d. Sodium hypochlorite
automated instrument?
a. 1 mL 98. The last thing to do when a fire is
b. 2 mL discovered is to:
c. 7 mL a. Rescue persons in danger
d. 15 mL b. Activate the alarm system
c. Close doors to other areas
93. All of the following are important to d. Extinguish the fire if possible
protect the integrity of reagent strips
EXCEPT: 99. A class ABC fire extinguisher
a. Storing in an opaque bottle contains:
b. Storing at room temperature a. Water
c. Removing the dessicant from the b. Dry chemicals
bottle c. Sand
d. Resealing the bottle after d. Acid
removing a strip
100. Correct procedure for
94. When a control is run, what handwashing, EXCEPT:
information is documented? a. Wet hands with warm water
a. The lot number b. Thoroughly clean between fingers
b. Expiration date of the control for at least 15 seconds
c. The test results c. Rinse hands in an upward position
d. All of the above d. Turn off faucets with a clean paper
towel
95. Given the following, identify the
preanalytical errors:
1. Patient misidentification 4.
Insufficient urine volume
2. Poor handwriting 5. Delayed
transport of urine to lab
3. Reagent deterioration 6.
Instrument malfunction
a. 1, 4 and 5 c. 1, 2 and 3
b. 2, 3 and 6 d. 4, 5 and 6

96. The best way to break the chain of

infection is:
a. Decontamination
b. PPE
c. Aerosol prevention
d. Handwashing

97. An acceptable disinfectant for

blood and body fluid decontamination
is:
a. NaOH
b. Antimicrobial soap
1. B 62. C
2. B 63. A
3. C 64. D
4. B 65. C
5. B 66. C
6. C 67. A
7. A 68. A
8. C 69. B
9. B 70. A
10. D 71. C
11. D 72. D
12. A 73. B
13. A 74. D
14. C 75. C
15. D 76. C
16. B 77. A
17. C 78. C
18. C 79. D
19. B 80. C
20. C 81. B
21. A 82. A
22. D 83. B
23. C 84. B
24. A 85. C
25. D 86. B
26. C 87. C
27. D 88. B
28. D 89. D
29. B 90. A
30. C 91. A
31. D 92. B
32. A 93. C
33. A 94. D
34. B 95. A
35. C 96. D
36. C 97. D
37. C 98. D
38. B 99. B
39. D 100. C
40. B
41. B
42. C
43. D
44. C
45. C
46. B
47. A
48. B
49. D
50. A
51. A
52. D
53. B
54. C
55. A
56. D
57. C
58. C
59. C
60. D
61. A
1. Urinometer steps: 1. Fill urine; 2. Place 13. Phosphate: Aluminum molybdate for
urinometer in twisting motion; 3. Read at determination
lower meniscus 14. Fructose in seminalysis if delayed for 2
2. Principle of protein strip? Protein errors hours: store at Freezing temp till
of indicators. available for analysis
3. Stain that best differentiates small 15. CaOx Monohydrate shape: Elongated
cells and monocytic cells? hourglass shape
a. PAPS 16. True about sputum
b. Gram stain a. Normal body fluid
c. Giemsa b. Usually green color
d. NMB c. All of the items
4. Gives greatest problem in d. From tracheo-bronchial
refractometer? 17. First stage in spermatogenesis:
a. bubbles Spermatogonia
b. Cells 18. For newborn screening specimen
c. Crystals collection: Blood spot test
d. High protein 19. Bilirubin conjugated with albumin to be
5. Same patient voided urine thrice. processed in the liver?
Which has highest specific gravity? a. Unconjugated
a. All have same SG b. Conjugated
b. 30 ml c. Direct
c. 100ml d. None
d. 80ml 20. Bilirubin measurement in amniotic fluid:
6. High renin corresponds to? Spectrophotometry
a. Low sodium and low plasma volume 21. True of Biosafety cabinet II: Laminar
b. High potassium and low plasma flow
volume 22. Biohazard symbol: Three circles
c. Low aldosterone arrange in a triangle connected by a
7. Low EPO due to: circle in the middle
a. Renal disease 23. Sharps sympol: Syringe enclosed in a
b. Cardiomegaly circle to make it look like an “X”
8. Diluent for WBC CSF Count: Acetic 24. Oligoclonal band: Neurosyphilis not
Acid Multiple MYELOMA (common mistake)
9. Dilute urine effect on RBC: Swell; 25. Occult blood in stool:
appears like a halo Pseudoperoxidase activity of
10. Curshman spirals haemoglobin
a. Elongated crystals with Charcot 26. Blondheim: To differentiate myoglobin
Leyden and haemoglobin
b. Spiral microorganisms staining gram 27. Principle of protein reagent strip:
negative Albumin accepts hydrogen ions which
11. How much can the glomerulus filter? changes the pH
Less than… 28. Ketone reagent strip color: Purple
a. <50kDa 29. Ketone reagent strip:
b. <60kDa a. Acetoacetic acid and nitroprusside
c. <70kDa b. Acetone and phenosuphthalein
d. 7000 c. All items
12. Temperature for Total WBC CSF count: d. Betahydroxybutyric acid and ---
Refrigeration temp.
30. What tell patient in collection for
seminalysis: (MOORSE TYPE)
a. Abstain for 2-3 weeks = (2-7 days)
b. No alcohol driking
c. Place in penicillin bottle
d. No smoking
31. Stool WBC differential count:
a. Polymorphonuclear cells and
Monocyte
b. Phagocytic and non-phagocytic
c. Segmenters, Monocytes, Eosinophils
32. Most abundant WBC in urine:
Neutrophil (?)
33. Best indicator for urinary bladder
infection: Neutrophil
34. Indicator for Acute tubular necrosis:
a. Brown cast
b. >1000WBC
c. Renal cell- renal tubular epithelial
cells
d. Hemoglobinuria
35. Most significant cell: Renal cell (RTE)
36. Blood in peritoneal fluid
a. TB peritonitis
b. Malignancy
37. Least significant to most significant
cast: hyaline > wbc > granular >rbc
>Waxy > broad
hyaline - rbc – granular- wbc-Waxy

38. Cast in athlete: Cylinduria

39. Granular cast derived from: Cells
(Apollon)
40. Associated with Melanuria: Albinism

41. Which is not a PPE: sharp’s container

 BLOOD BANKING 6. What type of blood should be given in
an emergency transfusion when there is
1. He was said to have been given the no time to type the recipient’s sample?
world’s first blood transfusion by his
Jewish physician Giacomo di San a. O Rh-negative, whole blood
Genesio, who had him drink the blood b. O Rh-positive, whole blood
of three 10-year-old boys. c. O Rh-negative, pRBCs
a. Pope Innocent VII d. O Rh-positive, pRBCs
b. Pope Pius I 7. This blood group is an anthropological
c. Pope Gregory III marker in Asian ancestry:
d. Pope Boniface IV
2. The number of H antigen structures a. Diego
currently identified are: b. Cartwright
c. Colton
a. Two d. Gerbich
b. Four 8. The activity of this antibody is enhanced
c. Six in an acidic environment.
d. Eight
3. Greatest amount of H antigen: a. Anti-S
b. Anti-U
a. A1 c. Anti-N
b. O d. Anti-M
c. AB 9. Shelf-life of packed red blood cells
d. B obtained through open system with
4. Identify the blood type based on the ACD anticoagulant:
following reactions:
a. 21 days
b. 35 days
FORWARD REVERSE GROUPING c. 42 days
GROUPIN d. None of the choices
G 10. Indication for transfusion of neocytes:
Anti- Anti- A cells B cells
A B a. Immune thrombocytopenic purpura
O 4+ 3+ O b. Hemolytic transfusion reaction
c. Thalassemia
d. Hydrops fetalis
a. Type O
b. Type A
11. Citrate in ACD functions as:
c. Type B
d. Type AB
5. Bombay phenotype antibodies include: a. Anticoagulant
b. ATP source
c. RBC membrane stabilizer
a. Anti-A
d. Caramelization inhibitor
b. Anti-B
c. Anti-H
d. All of the choices 12. The most common cause of transfusion-
related sepsis is:
a. Whole blood b. Herpes simplex
b. Packed red blood cells c. Candidiasis
c. Leukocyte concentrates d. Kaposi’s sarcoma
d. Platelets concentrates
18. A febrile transfusion reaction is defined
13. Major advantage of gel technology: as a rise in body temperature of ___
occurring in association with the
a. Decreased sample volume transfusion of blood or components and
b. Improved productivity without any other explanation.
c. Enhanced sensitivity
d. Standardization a. 1oC or more
b. 1oF or more
14. Agglutination reaction: “Several large c. 3oC or more
clumps with clear background” d. 3oF or more

a. 4+ 19. The most severe form of HDN is

b. 3+ associated with:
c. 2+
d. 1+ a. Anti-A
b. Anti-B
15. This type of autologous donation occurs c. Anti-K
when blood is collected from the d. Anti-D
patient before the start of surgery. The
patient’s blood volume is returned to 20. This is a diagnostic prenatal test in which
normal with fluids, and autologous a sample of the baby’s blood is
blood may be returned to the patient removed from the umbilical cord for
after the surgery is complete. testing:

a. Preoperative a. Cordocentesis
b. Normovolemic hemodilution b. PUBS
c. Intraoperative salvage c. Both
d. Postoperative salvage d. None of the above

16. The anticoagulant preferred in direct

antiglobulin testing is:

a. EDTA
b. Heparin 21. Year of discovery of the T cell receptor
c. Citrate gene:
d. Oxalate
a. 1964
17. A donor was deferred by the physician b. 1974
due to the presence of bluish purple c. 1984
areas under the skin of the donor. This is d. 1994
typical of:
22. Percentage of B cells present in the
a. Syphilis circulation
a. 2-5% patients as early as 1-day post onset of
b. 5-10% symptoms (DPO), and up to 18 DPO.
c. 10-15%
d. 75-85% a. NS1
b. C
23. C3b c. E
d. prM
a. Anaphylatoxin
b. Opsonin 29. These are expressed in the developing
c. Chemotaxin fetus and in rapidly dividing tissue, such
d. Cytokine as that associated with tumors, but that
are absent in normal adult tissue:
24. What is the most common complement
component deficiency? a. Oncogenes
b. Sarcoma
a. C1 c. Oncofetal antigens
b. C2 d. Tumor specific antigen
c. C3
d. C4 30. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is a/an
___ assay.
25. Which of the following is the most
common congenital a. Chemical
immonudeficiency? b. Molecular
c. Enzymatic
a. Severe combined immonudeficiency d. Biologic
b. Selective IgA deficiency
c. X-linked agammaglobulinemia 31. Restriction Fragment Length
d. Common variable immunodeficiency Polymorphism (RFLP) is a/an ___ assay.

26. Which disease might be indicated by a. Chemical

antibodies to smooth muscle? b. Molecular
c. Enzymatic
a. Chronic active hepatitis d. Biologic
b. Primary biliary cirrhosis
c. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
d. Myasthenia gravis

27. The most common fungal infection for 32. Hives and itching are under what type
AIDS patients is caused by: of hypersensitivity?

a. Candida albicans a. Type I

b. Cryptococcus neoformans b. Type II
c. Blastomyces dermatitidis c. Type III
d. Cryptosporidium parvum d. Type IV

28. This dengue antigen has been detected

in the serum of dengue virus infected
33. Gamma counter uses these substances c. Class III
as labels: d. Class IV

a. Isotopes 39. Which of the following activates both T

b. Fluorochromes and B cells?
c. Enzymes
d. Immune complexes a. Pokeweed mitogen
b. Lipopolysaccharide
34. Treponema pallidum immobilization (TPI) c. Concanavalin A
test: 10% treponemes are immobilized. d. Phytohemagglutinin
Interpret the result.
40. It is used as the receptor for the sheep
a. Positive red blood cells (sRBC) for e-rosette
b. Negative assay:
c. Doubtful
d. Indeterminate a. CD2
b. CD4
35. When reading for a slide agglutination c. CD8
for Salmonella, macroscopic d. CD12
agglutination is graded as 25%.
Interpret.

a. Non-reactive
b. Negative
c. Positive
d. 1+

36. Other name for “HCV RNA”:

a. Viral clade
b. Surface antigen
c. Viral load
d. Core antigen

37. Not included as a Hepatitis B serologic

marker:

a. HBcAg
b. HBeAg
c. Anti-HBeAg
d. Anti-HBcAg

38. Autoimmune diseases are mostly

associated with which class of HLA?

a. Class I
b. Class II