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Semiconductor Diode
Q1. A crystal diode has ………
1. one pn junction
2. two pn junctions
3. three pn junctions
4. none of the above
Answer : 1
Q2. A crystal diode has forward resistance of the order of ……………
1. kΩ
2. Ω
3. MΩ
4. none of the above
Answer : 2
Q3. If the arrow of crystal diode symbol is positive w.r.t. bar, then diode is
………….. biased.
1. forward
2. reverse
3. either forward or reverse
4. none of the above
Answer : 1
Q4. The reverse current in a diode is of the order of ……………….
1. kA
2. mA
3. μA
4. A
Answer : 3
Q5. The forward voltage drop across a silicon diode is about …………………
1. 2.5 V
2. 3 V
3. 10 V
4. 0.7 V
Answer : 4
Q6. A crystal diode is used as ……………
1. an amplifier
2. a rectifier
3. an oscillator
4. a voltage regulator
Answer : 2
Q7. The d.c. resistance of a crystal diode is ………….. its a.c. resistance
1. the same as
2. more than
3. less than
4. none of the above
Answer : 3
Q8. An ideal crystal diode is one which behaves as a perfect ……….. when
forward biased.
1. conductor
2. insulator
3. resistance material
4. none of the above
Answer : 1
Q9. The ratio of reverse resistance and forward resistance of a germanium
crystal diode is about ………….
1. 1 : 1
2. 100 : 1
3. 1000 : 1
4. 40,000 : 1
Answer : 4
Q 10. The leakage current in a crystal diode is due to …………….
1. minority carriers
2. majority carriers
3. junction capacitance
4. none of the above
Answer :1
Q11. If the temperature of a crystal diode increases, then leakage current
………..
1. remains the same
2. decreases
3. increases
4. becomes zero
Answer :3
Q12. The PIV rating of a crystal diode is ………….. that of equivalent vacuum
diode
1. the same as
2. lower than
3. more than
4. none of the above
Answer :2
Q13. If the doping level of a crystal diode is increased, the breakdown
voltage………….
1. remains the same
2. is increased
3. is decreased
4. none of the above
Answer :3
Q14. The knee voltage of a crystal diode is approximately equal to ………….
1. applied voltage
2. breakdown voltage
3. forward voltage
4. barrier potential
Answer :4
Q15. When the graph between current through and voltage across a device is
a straight line, the device is referred to as ……………….
1. linear
2. active
3. nonlinear
4. passive
Answer :1
Q16. When the crystal current diode current is large, the bias is …………
1. forward
2. inverse
3. poor
4. reverse
Answer :1
Q17. A crystal diode is a …………… device
1. non-linear
2. bilateral
3. linear
4. none of the above
Answer :1
Q18. A crystal diode utilises …………….. characteristic for rectification
1. reverse
2. forward
3. forward or reverse
4. none of the above
Answer :2
Q19. When a crystal diode is used as a rectifier, the most important
consideration is ………..
1. forward characteristic
2. doping level
3. reverse characteristic
4. PIC rating
Answer :4
Q20. If the doping level in a crystal diode is increased, the width of depletion
layer………..
1. remains the same
2. is decreased
3. in increased
4. none of the above
Answer :3
Q21. A zener diode has ………..
1. one pn junction
2. two pn junctions
3. three pn junctions
4. none of the above
Answer :1
Q22. A zener diode is used as …………….
1. an amplifier
2. a voltage regulator
3. a rectifier
4. a multivibrator
Answer :2
Q23. The doping level in a zener diode is …………… that of a crystal diode
1. the same as
2. less than
3. more than
4. none of the above
Answer :3
Q24. A zener diode is always ………… connected.
1. reverse
2. forward
3. either reverse or forward
4. none of the above
Answer :1
Q25. A zener diode utilizes ……….. characteristics for its operation.
1. forward
2. reverse
3. both forward and reverse
4. none of the above
Answer :2
Q26. In the breakdown region, a zener didoe behaves like a …………… source.
1. constant voltage
2. constant current
3. constant resistance
4. none of the above
Answer :1
27. A zener diode is destroyed if it…………..
1. is forward biased
2. is reverse biased
3. carrier more than rated current
4. none of the above
Answer :3
Q28. A series resistance is connected in the zener circuit to………..
1. properly reverse bias the zener
2. protect the zener
3. properly forward bias the zener
4. none of the above
Answer :2
A29. A zener diode is …………………. device
1. a non-linear
2. a linear
3. an amplifying
4. none of the above
Answer :1
Q30. A zener diode has ………….. breakdown voltage
1. undefined
2. sharp
3. zero
4. none of the above
Answer :2
Q31. ……………. rectifier has the lowest forward resistance
1. solid state
2. vacuum tube
3. gas tube
4. none of the above
Answer :1
Q32. Mains a.c. power is converrted into d.c. power for ……………..
1. lighting purposes
2. heaters
3. using in electronic equipment
4. none of the above
Answer :3
Q33. The disadvantage of a half-wave rectifier is that the……………….
1. components are expensive
2. diodes must have a higher power rating
3. output is difficult to filter
4. none of the above
Answer :3
Q34. If the a.c. input to a half-wave rectifier is an r.m.s value of 400/√2 volts,
then diode PIV rating is ………………….
1. 400/√2 V
2. 400 V
3. 400 x √2 V
4. none of the above
Answer :2
Q35. The ripple factor of a half-wave rectifier is …………………
1. 2
2. 1.21
3. 2.5
4. 0.48
Answer :4
Q36. There is a need of transformer for ………………..
1. half-wave rectifier
2. centre-tap full-wave rectifier
3. bridge full-wave rectifier
4. none of the above
Answer :2
Q37. The PIV rating of each diode in a bridge rectifier is ……………… that of the
equivalent centre-tap rectifier
1. one-half
2. the same as
3. twice
4. four times
Answer :1
Q38. For the same secondary voltage, the output voltage from a centre-tap
rectifier is ………… than that of bridge rectifier
1. twice
2. thrice
3. four time
4. one-half
Answer :4
Q39. If the PIV rating of a diode is exceeded, ………………
1. the diode conducts poorly
2. the diode is destroyed
3. the diode behaves like a zener diode
4. none of the above
Answer :2
Q40. A 10 V power supply would use …………………. as filter capacitor.
1. paper capacitor
2. mica capacitor
3. electrolytic capacitor
4. air capacitor
Answer :3
Q41. A 1,000 V power supply would use ……….. as a filter capacitor
1. paper capacitor
2. air capacitor
3. mica capacitor
4. electrolytic capacitor
Answer :1
Q42. The ……………….. filter circuit results in the best voltage regulation
1. choke input
2. capacitor input
3. resistance input
4. none of the above
Answer :1
Q43. A half-wave rectifier has an input voltage of 240 V r.m.s. If the step-
down transformer has a turns ratio of 8:1, what is the peak load voltage?
Ignore diode drop.
1. 27.5 V
2. 86.5 V
3. 30 V
4. 42.5 V
Answer :4
Q44. The maximum efficiency of a half-wave rectifier is ………………..
1. 40.6 %
2. 81.2 %
3. 50 %
4. 25 %
Answer :1
Q45. The most widely used rectifier is ……………….
1. half-wave rectifier
2. centre-tap full-wave rectifier
3. bridge full-wave rectifier
4. none of the above
Answer :3
Transistors
Q1. A transistor has …………………
1. one pn junction
2. two pn junctions
3. three pn junctions
4. four pn junctions
Answer : 2
Q2. The number of depletion layers in a transistor is …………
1. four
2. three
3. one
4. two
Answer : 4
Q3. The base of a transistor is ………….. doped
1. heavily
2. moderately
3. lightly
4. none of the above
Answer : 3
Q4. The element that has the biggest size in a transistor is ………………..
1. collector
2. base
3. emitter
4. collector-base-junction
Answer : 1
Q5. In a pnp transistor, the current carriers are ………….
1. acceptor ions
2. donor ions
3. free electrons
4. holes
Answer : 4
Q6. The collector of a transistor is …………. doped
1. heavily
2. moderately
3. lightly
4. none of the above
Answer : 2
Q7. A transistor is a …………… operated device
1. current
2. voltage
3. both voltage and current
4. none of the above
Answer : 1
Q8. In a npn transistor, ……………. are the minority carriers
1. free electrons
2. holes
3. donor ions
4. acceptor ions
Answer : 2
Q9. The emitter of a transistor is ………………… doped
1. lightly
2. heavily
3. moderately
4. none of the above
Answer : 2
Q10. In a transistor, the base current is about ………….. of emitter current
1. 25%
2. 20%
3. 35 %
4. 5%
Answer : 4
Q11. At the base-emitter junctions of a transistor, one finds ……………
1. a reverse bias
2. a wide depletion layer
3. low resistance
4. none of the above
Answer : 3
Q12. The input impedance of a transistor is ………….
1. high
2. low
3. very high
4. almost zero
Answer : 2
Q13. Most of the majority carriers from the emitter ………………..
1. recombine in the base
2. recombine in the emitter
3. pass through the base region to the collector
4. none of the above
Answer :3
Q14. The current IB is …………
1. electron current
2. hole current
3. donor ion current
4. acceptor ion current
Answer : 1
Q15. In a transistor ………………..
IC = IE + IB
IB = IC + IE
IE = IC – IB
IE = IC + IB
Answer : 4
Q16. The value of α of a transistor is ……….
more than 1
less than 1
1
none of the above
Answer : 2
Q17. IC = αIE + ………….
1. IB
2. ICEO
3. ICBO
4. βIB
Answer : 3
Q18. The output impedance of a transistor is ……………..
1. high
2. zero
3. low
4. very low
Answer : 1
Q19. In a tansistor, IC = 100 mA and IE = 100.2 mA. The value of β is …………
1. 100
2. 50
3. about 1
4. 200
Answer : 4
Q20. In a transistor if β = 100 and collector current is 10 mA, then IE is …………
1. 100 mA
2. 100.1 mA
3. 110 mA
4. none of the above
Answer : 2
Q21. The relation between β and α is …………..
1. β = 1 / (1 – α )
2. β = (1 – α ) / α
3. β = α / (1 – α )
4. β = α / (1 + α )
Answer : 3
Q22. The value of β for a transistor is generally ………………..
1. 1
2. less than 1
3. between 20 and 500
4. above 500
Answer : 3
Q23. The most commonly used transistor arrangement is ……………
arrangement
1. common emitter
2. common base
3. common collector
4. none of the above
Answer : 1
Q24. The input impedance of a transistor connected in ……………..
arrangement is the highest
1. common emitter
2. common collector
3. common base
4. none of the above
Answer : 2
Q25. The output impedance of a transistor connected in …………….
arrangement is the highest
1. common emitter
2. common collector
3. common base
4. none of the above
Answer : 3
Q26. The phase difference between the input and output voltages in a
common base arrangement is …………….
1. 180o
2. 90o
3. 270o
4. 0o
Answer : 4
Q27. The power gain in a transistor connected in ……………. arrangement is
the highest
1. common emitter
2. common base
3. common collector
4. none of the above
Answer : 1
Q28. The phase difference between the input and output voltages of a
transistor connected in common emitter arrangement is ………………
1. 0o
2. 180o
3. 90o
4. 270o
Answer : 2
Q29. The voltage gain in a transistor connected in ………………. arrangement is
the highest
1. common base
2. common collector
3. common emitter
4. none of the above
Answer : 3
Q30. As the temperature of a transistor goes up, the base-emitter resistance
……………
1. decreases
2. increases
3. remains the same
4. none of the above
Answer : 1
Q31. The voltage gain of a transistor connected in common collector
arrangement is ………..
1. equal to 1
2. more than 10
3. more than 100
4. less than 1
Answer : 4
Q32. The phase difference between the input and output voltages of a
transistor connected in common collector arrangement is ………………
1. 180o
2. 0o
3. 90o
4. 270o
Answer : 2
Q33. IC = β IB + ………..
1. ICBO
2. IC
3. ICEO
4. αIE
Answer : 3
Q34. IC = [α / (1 – α )] IB + ………….
1. ICEO
2. ICBO
3. IC
4. (1 – α ) IB
Answer : 1
Q35. IC = [α / (1 – α )] IB + […….. / (1 – α )]
1. ICBO
2. ICEO
3. IC
4. IE
Answer : 1
Q36. BC 147 transistor indicates that it is made of …………..
1. germanium
2. silicon
3. carbon
4. none of the above
Answer : 2
Q37. ICEO = (………) ICBO
1. β
2. 1 + α
3. 1 + β
4. none of the above
Answer : 3
Q38. A transistor is connected in CB mode. If it is not connected in CE mode
with same bias voltages, the values of IE, IB and IC will …………..
1. remain the same
2. increase
3. decrease
4. none of the above
Answer : 1
Q39. If the value of α is 0.9, then value of β is ………..
1. 9
2. 0.9
3. 900
4. 90
Answer : 4
Q40. In a transistor, signal is transferred from a …………… circuit
1. high resistance to low resistance
2. low resistance to high resistance
3. high resistance to high resistance
4. low resistance to low resistance
Answer : 2
Q41. The arrow in the symbol of a transistor indicates the direction of ………….
1. electron current in the emitter
2. electron current in the collector
3. hole current in the emitter
4. donor ion current
Answer : 3
Q42. The leakage current in CE arrangement is ……………. that in CB
arrangement
1. more than
2. less than
3. the same as
4. none of the above
Answer : 1
Q43. A heat sink is generally used with a transistor to …………
1. increase the forward current
2. decrease the forward current
3. compensate for excessive doping
4. prevent excessive temperature rise
Answer : 4
Q44. The most commonly used semiconductor in the manufacture of a
transistor is ………….
1. germanium
2. silicon
3. carbon
4. none of the above
Answer : 2
Q45. The collector-base junction in a transistor has ……………..
1. forward bias at all times
2. reverse bias at all times
3. low resistance
4. none of the above
Answer : 2
Transistor Biasing
Q1. Transistor biasing represents ……………. conditions
1. c.
2. c.
3. both a.c. and d.c.
4. none of the above
Answer : 2
Q2. Transistor biasing is done to keep ………… in the circuit
1. Proper direct current
2. Proper alternating current
3. The base current small
4. Collector current small
Answer : 1
Q3. Operating point represents …………..
1. Values of IC and VCE when signal is applied
2. The magnitude of signal
3. Zero signal values of IC and VCE
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q4. If biasing is not done in an amplifier circuit, it results in ……………
1. Decrease in the base current
2. Unfaithful amplification
3. Excessive collector bias
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q5. Transistor biasing is generally provided by a …………….
1. Biasing circuit
2. Bias battery
3. Diode
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q6. For faithful amplification by a transistor circuit, the value of VBE should
………. for a silicon transistor
1. Be zero
2. Be 0.01 V
3. Not fall below 0.7 V
4. Be between 0 V and 0.1 V
Answer : 3
Q7. For proper operation of the transistor, its collector should have …………
1. Proper forward bias
2. Proper reverse bias
3. Very small size
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q8. For faithful amplification by a transistor circuit, the value of VCE should
……….. for silicon transistor
1. Not fall below 1 V
2. Be zero
3. Be 0.2 V
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q9. The circuit that provides the best stabilization of operating point is
…………
1. Base resistor bias
2. Collector feedback bias
3. Potential divider bias
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q10. The point of intersection of d.c. and a.c. load lines represents …………..
1. Operating point
2. Current gain
3. Voltage gain
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q11. An ideal value of stability factor is …………..
1. 100
2. 200
3. More than 200
4. 1
Answer : 4
Q12. The zero signal IC is generally ……………… mA in the initial stages of a
transistor amplifier
1. 4
2. 1
3. 3
4. More than 10
Answer : 2
Q13. If the maximum collector current due to signal alone is 3 mA, then zero
signal collector current should be at least equal to ………..
1. 6 mA
2. mA
3. 3 mA
4. 1 mA
Answer : 3
Q14. The disadvantage of base resistor method of transistor biasing is that it
…………
1. Is complicated
2. Is sensitive to changes in ß
3. Provides high stability
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q15. The biasing circuit has a stability factor of 50. If due to temperature
change, ICBO changes by 1 µA, then IC will change by …………
1. 100 µA
2. 25 µA
3. 20 µA
4. 50 µA
Answer : 4
Q16. For good stabilsation in voltage divider bias, the current I1 flowing
through R1 and R2 should be equal to or greater than
1. 10 IB
2. 3 IB
3. 2 IB
4. 4 IB
Answer : 1
Q17. The leakage current in a silicon transistor is about ………… the leakage
current in a germanium transistor
1. One hundredth
2. One tenth
3. One thousandth
4. One millionth
Answer : 3
Q18. The operating point is also called the ………….
1. Cut off point
2. Quiescent point
3. Saturation point
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q19. For proper amplification by a transistor circuit, the operating point
should be located at the ………….. of the d.c. load line
1. The end point
2. Middle
3. The maximum current point
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q20. The operating point ………………… on the a.c. load line
1. Also line
2. Does not lie
3. May or may not lie
4. Data insufficient
Answer : 1
Q21. The disadvantage of voltage divider bias is that it has ………….
1. High stability factor
2. Low base current
3. Many resistors
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q22. Thermal runaway occurs when ……….
1. Collector is reverse biased
2. Transistor is not biased
3. Emitter is forward biased
4. Junction capacitance is high
Answer : 2
Q23. The purpose of resistance in the emitter circuit of a transistor amplifier
is to ………….
1. Limit the maximum emitter current
2. Provide base-emitter bias
3. Limit the change in emitter current
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q24. In a transistor amplifier circuit VCE = VCB + ……………..
1. VBE
2. 2VBE
3. 5 VBE
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q25. The base resistor method is generally used in ………
1. Amplifier circuits
2. Switching circuits
3. Rectifier circuits
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q26. For germanium transistor amplifier, VCE should ………….. for faithful
amplification
1. Be zero
2. Be 0.2 V
3. Not fall below 0.7 V
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q27. In a base resistor method, if the value of β changes by 50, then collector
current will change by a factor ………
1. 25
2. 50
3. 100
4. 200
Answer : 2
Q28. The stability factor of a collector feedback bias circuit is ……….. that of
base resistor bias.
1. The same as
2. More than
3. Less than
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q29. In the design of a biasing circuit, the value of collector load RC is
determined by …………
1. VCE consideration
2. VBE consideration
3. IB consideration
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q30. If the value of collector current IC increases, then the value of VCE …………
1. Remains the same
2. Decreases
3. Increases
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q31. If the temperature increases, the value of VCE …………
1. Remains the same
2. Is increased
3. Is decreased
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q32. The stabilisation of operating point in potential divider method is
provided by ……….
1. RE consideration
2. RC consideration
3. VCC consideration
4. None of the above
Answer: 1
Q33. The value of VBE …………….
1. Depends upon IC to moderate extent
2. Is almost independent of IC
3. Is strongly dependant on IC
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q34. When the temperature changes, the operating point is shifted due to
…….
1. Change in ICBO
2. Change in VCC
3. Change in the values of circuit resistance
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q35. The value of stability factor for a base resistor bias is …………
1. RB (β+1)
2. (β+1)RC
3. (β+1)
4. 1-β
Answer : 3
Q36. In a particular biasing circuit, the value of RE is about ………
1. 10 kΩ
2. 1 MΩ
3. 100 kΩ
4. 800 Ω
Answer : 4
Q37. A silicon transistor is biased with base resistor method. If β=100,
VBE =0.7 V, zero signal collector current IC = 1 mA and VCC = 6V , what is the
value of the base resistor RB?
1. 105 kΩ
2. 530 kΩ
3. 315 kΩ
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q38. In voltage divider bias, VCC = 25 V; R1 = 10 kΩ; R2 = 2.2 V ; RC = 3.6 V and
RE =1 kΩ. What is the emitter voltage?
1. 7 V
2. 3 V
V
3. 8 V
Answer : 4
Q39. In the above question (Q38.) , what is the collector voltage?
5. 3 V
6. 8 V
7. 6 V
8. 7 V
Answer : 1
Q40. In voltage divider bias, operating point is 3 V, 2 mA. If VCC = 9 V, RC = 2.2
kΩ, what is the value of RE ?
1. 2000 Ω
2. 1400 Ω
3. 800 Ω
4. 1600 Ω
Answer : 3
Oscillators
Q1. An oscillator converts ……………..
1. c. power into d.c. power
2. c. power into a.c. power
3. mechanical power into a.c. power
4. none of the above
Answer : 2
Q2. In an LC transistor oscillator, the active device is ……………
1. LC tank circuit
2. Biasing circuit
3. Transistor
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q3. In an LC circuit, when the capacitor is maximum, the inductor energy is
……….
1. Minimum
2. Maximum
3. Half-way between maximum and minimum
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q4. In an LC oscillator, the frequency of oscillator is ……………. L or C.
1. Proportional to square of
2. Directly proportional to
3. Independent of the values of
4. Inversely proportional to square root of
Answer : 4
Q5. An oscillator produces……………. oscillations
1. Damped
2. Undamped
3. Modulated
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q6. An oscillator employs ……………… feedback
1. Positive
2. Negative
3. Neither positive nor negative
4. Data insufficient
Answer : 1
Q7. An LC oscillator cannot be used to produce ……………….. frequencies
1. High
2. Audio
3. Very low
4. Very high
Answer : 3
Q8. Hartley oscillator is commonly used in ………………
1. Radio receivers
2. Radio transmitters
3. TV receivers
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q9. In a phase shift oscillator, we use …………. RC sections
1. Two
2. Three
3. Four
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q10. In a phase shift oscillator, the frequency determining elements are
…………
1. L and C
2. R, L and C
3. R and C
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q11. A Wien bridge oscillator uses ……………. feedback
1. Only positive
2. Only negative
3. Both positive and negative
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q12. The piezoelectric effect in a crystal is ……………
1. A voltage developed because of mechanical stress
2. A change in resistance because of temperature
3. A change in frequency because of temperature
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q13. If the crystal frequency changes with temperature, we say that crystal
has ………….. temperature coefficient
1. Positive
2. Zero
3. Negative
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q14. The crystal oscillator frequency is very stable due to ………………. of the
crystal
1. Rigidity
2. Vibrations
3. Low Q
4. High Q
Answer : 4
Q15. The application where one would most likely find a crystal oscillator is
……………..
1. Radio receiver
2. Radio transmitter
3. AF sweep generator
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q16. An oscillator differs from an amplifier because it ………
1. Has more gain
2. Requires no input signal
3. Requires no d.c. supply
4. Always has the same input
Answer : 2
Q17. One condition for oscillation is ………….
1. A phase shift around the feedback loop of 180o
2. A gain around the feedback loop of one-third
3. A phase shift around the feedback loop of 0o
4. A gain around the feedback loop of less than 1
Answer : 3
Q18. A second condition for oscillations is ……………….
1. A gain of 1 around the feedback loop
2. No gain around the feedback loop
3. The attention of the feedback circuit must be one-third
4. The feedback circuit must be capacitive
Answer : 1
Q19. In a certain oscillator Av = 50. The attention of the feedback circuit must
be …………
1. 1
2. 01
3. 10
4. 02
Answer : 4
Q20. For an oscillator to properly start, the gain around the feedback loop
must initially be
1. 1
2. Greater than 1
3. Less than 1
4. Equal to attenuation of feedback circuit
Answer : 2
Q21. In a Wien-bridge oscillator, if the resistances in the positive feedback
circuit are decreased, the frequency……….
1. Remains the same
2. Decreases
3. Increases
4. Insufficient data
Answer : 3
Q22. In Colpitt’s oscillator, feedback is obtained …………….
1. By magnetic induction
2. By a tickler coil
3. From the centre of split capacitors
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q23. The Q of the crystal is of the order of …………
1. 100
2. 1000
3. 50
4. More than 10,000
Answer : 4
Q24. Quartz crystal is most commonly used in crystal oscillators because
………….
1. It has superior electrical properties
2. It is easily available
3. It is quite inexpensive
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q25. This question will be available soon
Power Electronics
Q1. A Triac has three terminals viz ………………
1. Drain, source, gate
2. Two main terminal and a gate terminal
3. Cathode, anode, gate
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q2. A triac is equivalent to two SCRs …………..
1. In parallel
2. In series
3. In inverse-parallel
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q3. A triac is a …………. switch
1. Bidirectional
2. Unidirectional
3. Mechanical
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q4. The V-I characteristics for a triac in the first and third quadrants are
essentially identical to those of ………………. in its first quadrant
1. Transistor
2. SCR
3. UJT
4. none of the above
Answer : 2
Q5. A triac can pass a portion of …………… half-cycle through the load
1. Only positive
2. Only negative
3. Both positive and negative
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q6. A diac has ………….. terminals
1. Two
2. Three
3. Four
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q7. A triac has …………….. semiconductor layers
1. Two
2. Three
3. Four
4. Five
Answer : 3
Q8. A diac has …………… pn junctions
1. Four
2. Two
3. Three
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q9. The device that does not have the gate terminal is ……………….
1. Triac
2. FET
3. SCR
4. Diac
Answer : 4
Q10. A diac has ……………… semiconductor layers
1. Three
2. Two
3. Four
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q11. A UJT has ……………….
1. Two pn junctions
2. One pn junction
3. Three pn junctions
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q12. The normal way to turn on a diac is by ………………..
1. Gate current
2. Gate voltage
3. Breakover voltage
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q13. A diac is …………………. switch
1. An c.
2. A d.c.
3. A mechanical
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q14. In a UJT, the p-type emitter is ……………. doped
1. Lightly
2. Heavily
3. Moderately
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q15. Power electronics essentially deals with control of a.c. power at …………
1. Frequencies above 20 kHz
2. Frequencies above 1000 kHz
3. Frequencies less than 10 Hz
4. 50 Hz frequency
Answer : 4
Q16. When the emitter terminal of a UJT is open, the resistance between the
base terminal is generally ………………..
1. High
2. Low
3. Extremely low
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q17. When a UJT is turned ON, the resistance between emitter terminal and
lower base terminal …………….
1. Remains the same
2. Is decreased
3. Is increased
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q18. To turn on UJT, the forward bias on the emitter diode should be
…………… the peak point voltage
1. Less than
2. Equal to
3. More than
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q19. A UJT is sometimes called …………. diode
1. Low resistance
2. High resistance
3. Single-base
4. Double-base
Answer : 4
Q20. When the temperature increases, the inter-base resistance (RBB) of a
UJT ………….
1. Increases
2. Decreases
3. Remains the same
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q21. This question will be available soon
Q22. When the temperature increases, the intrinsic stand off ratio ……….
1. Increases
2. Decreases
3. Essentially remains the same
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q23. Between the peak point and the valley point of UJT emitter
characteristics we have ………….. region
1. Saturation
2. Negative resistance
3. Cut-off
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q24. A diac is turned on by …………………
1. A breakover voltage
2. Gate voltage
3. Gate current
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q25. The device that exhibits negative resistance region is ………………..
1. Diac
2. Triac
3. Transistor
4. UJT
Answer : 4
Q26. The UJT may be used as ……………….
1. Am amplifier
2. A sawtooth generator
3. A rectifier
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q27. A diac is simply ………………
1. A single junction device
2. A three junction device
3. A triac without gate terminal
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q28. After peak point, the UJT operates in the ……………. region
1. Cut-off
2. Saturation
3. Negative resistance
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q29. Which of the following is not a characteristic of UJT?
1. Intrinsic stand off ratio
2. Negative resistance
3. Peak-point voltage
4. Bilateral conduction
Answer : 4
Q30. The triac is …………….
1. Like a bidirectional SCR
2. A four-terminal device
3. Not a thyristor
4. Answers (1) and (2)
Answer : 1
Electronic Instruments
Q1. An ammeter is connected in …………….. with the circuit element whose
current we wish to measure
1. Series
2. Parallel
3. Series or parallel
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q2. A galvanometer in series with a high resistance is called ……………
1. An ammeter
2. A voltmeter
3. A wattmeter
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q3. An ammeter should have ………….. resistance
1. Infinite
2. Very large
3. Very low
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q4. A voltmeter is connected in a ………….. with the circuit component across
which potential difference is to be measured
1. Parallel
2. Series
3. Series or parallel
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q5. A voltmeter should have ………. resistance
1. Zero
2. Very high
3. Very low
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q6. The sensitivity of a multimeter is given in ……………..
1. Ω
2. Amperes
3. kΩ/V
4. none of the above
Answer : 3
Q7. If the full-scale deflection current of a multimeter is 50 μA, its sensitivity
is ……..
1. 10 kΩ/V
2. 100 kΩ/V
3. 50 kΩ/V
4. 20 kΩ/V
Answer : 4
Q8. If a multimeter has a sensitivity of 1000 Ω per volt and reads 50 V full
scale, its internal resistance is ………..
1. 20 kΩ
2. 50 kΩ
3. 10 kΩ
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q9. A VTVM has ………. input resistance than that of a multimeter
1. More
2. Less
3. Same
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q10. The input resistance of a VTVM is about ………..
1. 1000 Ω
2. 10 kΩ
3. 20 kΩ
4. 10 MΩ
Answer : 4
Q11. If the negative potential on the control grid of CRT is increased, the
intensity of spot ………….
1. Is increased
2. Is decreased
3. Remains the same
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q12. For display of signal pattern ………… voltage is applied to the horizontal
plates of a CRO
1. Sinusoidal
2. Rectangular
3. Sawtooth
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q13. Two multimeters A and B have sensitivities of 10 kΩ/V and 30 kΩ/V
respectively. Then …………..
1. Multimeter A is more sensitive
2. Multimeter B is more sensitive
3. Both are equally sensitive
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q14. A galvanometer of resistance G is shunted by a very small resistance S.
The resistance of the resulting ammeter is ………………
1. GS/(G+S)
2. G+S
3. G-S
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q15. A VTVM is never used to measure …………..
1. Voltage
2. Current
3. Resistance
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q16. The sensitivity of a voltmeter which uses a 100 μA meter movement is
……………..
1. 1 kΩ/V
2. 10 kΩ/V
3. 5 kΩ/V
4. Data insufficient
Answer : 2
Q17. What is the total resistance of a voltmeter on the 10 V range when the
meter movement is rated for 50 μA of full-scale current?
1. 10 kΩ
2. 20 kΩ
3. 200 kΩ
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q18. The materil used to coat inside the face of CRT is …………..
1. Carbon
2. Sulphur
3. Silicon
4. Phosphorous
Answer : 4
Q19. When an ammeter is inserted in the circuit, the circuit current will
………..
1. Increase
2. Decrease
3. Remain the same
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q20. A series ohmmeter circuit uses a 3 V battery and a 1 mA meter
movement. What is the half-scale resistance for this movement?
1. 3 kΩ
kΩ
kΩ
2. 6 kΩ
Answer : 1
Q21. The most accurate device for measuring voltage is ………….
5. Voltmeter
6. Multimeter
7. CRO
8. VTVM
Answer : 3
Q22. The horizontal plates of a CRO are supplied with …………. to observe the
waveform of signal.
1. Sinusoidal wave
2. Cosine wave
3. Sawtooth wave
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q23. A CRO is used to measure ………….
1. Voltage
2. Frequency
3. Phase
4. All of above
Answer : 4
Q24. If 2% of the main current is to be passed through a galvanometer of
resistance G, then resistance of the shunt required is ……….
1. G/50
2. G/49
3. 49 G
4. 50 G
Answer : 2
Q25. Which of the following is likely to have the largest resistance?
1. Voltmeter of range 10 V
2. Moving coil galvanometer
3. Ammeter of range 1 A
4. A copper wire of length 1 m and diameter 3 mm
Answer : 1
Q26. An ideal ammeter has ………… resistance
1. Low
2. Infinite
3. Zero
4. High
Answer : 3
Q27. The resistance of an ideal voltmeter is …………
1. Low
2. Infinite
3. Zero
4. High
Answer : 2
Q28. To send 10% of the main current through a moving coil galvanometer of
resistance 99 Ω the shunt required is …………..
1. 11 Ω
2. 9 Ω
3. 100 Ω
4. 9 Ω
Answer : 1
Q29. A voltmeter has a resistance of G ohms and range V volts. The value of
resistance required in series to convert it into voltmeter of range nV is
……………
1. nG
2. G/n
3. G/(n-1)
4. (n-1)G
Answer : 4
Q30. An ammeter has a resistance of G ohms and range of I amperes. The
value of resistance required in parallel to convert it into an ammeter of range
nI is ………….
1. nG
2. (n-1)G
3. G/(n-1)
4. G/n
Answer : 3
Integrated Circuits
Q1. An IC has …………….. size
1. Very large
2. Large
3. Extremely small
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q2. ICs are generally made of ………………
1. Silicon
2. Germanium
3. Copper
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q3. ……………… ICs are the most commonly used
1. Thin films
2. Monolithic
3. Hybrid
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q4. The most popular form of IC package is ……………..
1. DIL
2. Flatpack
3. TO-5
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q5. ……………. cannot be fabricated on an IC
1. Transistors
2. Diodes
3. Resistors
4. Large inductors and transformers
Answer : 4
Q6. An audio amplifier is an example of ………………
1. Digital IC
2. Linear IC
3. Both digital and linear IC
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q7. The active components in an IC are ………….
1. Resistors
2. Capacitors
3. Transistors and diodes
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q8. We use ……………….. ICs in computers
1. Digital
2. Linear
3. Both digital and linear
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q9. The SiO2 layer in an IC acts as ………….
1. A resistor
2. An insulating layer
3. Mechanical output
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q10. ICs are used in ……………
1. Linear devices only
2. Digital devices only
3. Both linear and digital devices
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q11. A transistor takes …………… inductor on a silicon IC chip
1. Less space than
2. More space than
3. Same space as
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q12. The most popular types of ICs are …………..
1. Thin-film
2. Hybrid
3. Thick-film
4. Monolithic
Answer : 4
Q13. Digital ICs process …………….
1. Linear signals only
2. Digital signals only
3. Both digital and linear signals
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q14. Operational amplifiers use …………..
1. Linear ICs
2. Digital ICs
3. Both linear and digital ICs
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q15. Which of the following is most difficult to fabricate in an IC?
1. Diode
2. Transistor
3. FET
4. Capacitor
Answer : 4
Hybrid Parameters
Q1. Hybrid means ………………
1. Mixed
2. Single
3. Unique
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q2. There are …………… h parameters of a transistor
1. Two
2. Four
3. Three
4. None of the above
Answer: 2
Q3. The h parameter approach gives correct results for …………
1. Large signals only
2. Small signals only
3. Both small and large signals
4. None of the above
Answer: 2
Q4. A transistor behaves as a linear device for ………….
1. Small signals only
2. Large signals only
3. Both small and large signals
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q5. The parameter hie stands for input impedance in ………..
1. CB arrangement with output shorted
2. CC arrangement with output shorted
3. CE arrangement with output shorted
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q6. The dimensions of hie parameter are ………..
1. Mho
2. Ohm
3. Farad
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q7. The hfe parameter is called ……………. in CE arrangement with output
shorted
1. Voltage gain
2. Current gain
3. Input impedance
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q8. If the operating point changes, the h parameters of transistor ………..
1. Also change
2. Do not change
3. May or may not change
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q9. The values of h parameter of a transistor in CE arrangement are
……………… arrangement
1. The same as for CB
2. The same as for CC
3. Different from that in CB
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q10. In order to determine hfe and hie parameters of a transistor, ………… is an
a.c. short-circuited
1. Input
2. Output
3. Input as well as output
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q11. If temperature changes, h parameters of a transistor ………….
1. May or may not change
2. Do not change
3. Also change
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q12. In CE arrangement, the value of input impedance is approximately equal
to …………..
1. Hie
2. Hoe
3. Hre
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Digital Electronics
Q1. The binary number 10101 is equivalent to decimal number …………..
1. 19
2. 12
3. 27
4. 21
Answer : 4
Q2. The universal gate is ………………
1. NAND gate
2. OR gate
3. AND gate
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q3. The inverter is ……………
1. NOT gate
2. OR gate
3. AND gate
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q4. The inputs of a NAND gate are connected together. The resulting circuit is
………….
1. OR gate
2. AND gate
3. NOT gate
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q5. The NOR gate is OR gate followed by ………………
1. AND gate
2. NAND gate
3. NOT gate
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q6. The NAND gate is AND gate followed by …………………
1. NOT gate
2. OR gate
3. AND gate
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q7. Digital circuit can be made by the repeated use of ………………
1. OR gates
2. NOT gates
3. NAND gates
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q8. The only function of NOT gate is to ……………..
1. Stop signal
2. Invert input signal
3. Act as a universal gate
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q9. When an input signal 1 is applied to a NOT gate, the output is ………………
1. 0
2. 1
3. Either 0 & 1
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q10. In Boolean algebra, the bar sign (-) indicates ………………..
1. OR operation
2. AND operation
3. NOT operation
4. None of the above
Answer : 3