By

Dr. Lal & Jain

UPKAR PRAKASHAN, AGRA-2

© Publishers

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(An ISO 9001 : 2000 Company)

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Phone : 033–25551510

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ISBN : 978-81-7482-161-4
Price : 255·00
(Rs. Two Hundred Fifty Five Only)
Code No. 453

Printed at : UPKAR PRAKASHAN (Printing Unit) Bye-pass, AGRA

 Contents

● Previous Years’ Solved Papers

General Awareness……………………………………………………………… 1–96

General Science……………………………………………..…………………… 1–32

General Intelligence……………………………………………………………... 1–56

Arithmetic…………………………………………………………...…………… 1–48

● Technical Ability

Mechanical Engineering…………………………………………………...… 1–64

Electrical Engineering…………………………………………………..…… 1–32

Electronic Engineering………………………………………………….…… 1–32

 General Information
● Educational Qualification
Matriculation plus course completed Act Apprenticeship/ITI approved by NCVT/SCVT in the
trades of (1) Fitter, (2) Electrician, (3) Instrument Mechanic, (4) Millwright/Maintenance
Mechanic, (5) Mechanic Radio and TV, (6) Electronic Mechanic, (7) Mechanic (Motor Vehicle),
(8) Wireman, (9) Tractor Mechanic, (10) Armature and Coil Winder, (11) Mechanic Diesel /Heat
Engine, (12) Turner, (13) Mechanist, (14) Refrigeration and Air Condition Mechanic OR Diploma
in Mechanical/ Electrical/Electronics/ Automobile Engg. recognized by AICTE in lieu of I.T.I.
Note : Candidates having higher educational qualification in Electrical/Mechanical/Electronics/
Automobile Engineering recognized by AICTE are also eligible.
● Age
A candidate must have attained the age of 18 years and must not have attained the age of 30 years.
(The upper age limit is relaxable in respect of some reserved categories).

● Recruitment Process
The candidates who have elected one of the regional language as medium of examination will be
supplied question booklet in English, Hindi, Urdu & regional language of concerned RRB. Those
who have not elected regional languages as medium of examination will be supplied question
booklet in English, Hindi and Urdu only.
Selection to the posts of Assistant Loco Pilots is done strictly as per merit, on the basis of Written
Examination. First a written examination is conducted. Candidates found successful in the written
examination are called for the Aptitude Test as per norms. Such shortlisted candidates should
produce the vision certificate as per the prescribed format during Aptitude Test, failing which they
will not be permitted for Aptitude Test.
The standard of questions for the written exam will be generally in conformity with the educational
standards and/or minimum technical qualifications prescribed for the posts. The questions will be
of objective type with multiple choice and are likely to include questions pertaining to general
awareness, arithmetic, general intelligence and reasoning, general science and relevant technical
ability. The question paper will be in English, Hindi, Urdu and local languages. The duration of the
1
examination will be 1 hours with 100 to 120 questions.
2
There shall be negative marking in written examination and marks shall be deducted for each
wrong answer@1/3 of the marks allotted for each question.
Based on the performance of candidates in the written examination and Aptitude Test (ALP),
candidates equal to the number of vacancies are called for document verification in the main list. In
addition 30% extra candidates are also called as standby candidates and they are considered for
empanelment only if there is shortfall in empanelment from the main list. During document
verification, candidates will have to produce their original certificates. No additional time will be
given and the candidature of the candidates not producing their original certificates on the date of
verification is liable to be forfeited.
 ( vii )

Appointment of selected candidates is subject to their passing requisite Medical Fitness Test to be
conducted by the Railway Administration, final verification of educational and community
certificates and verification of antecedents/character of the candidates.
● Medical Fitness Test
Candidates recommended for appointment will have to pass requisite medical fitness test(s)
conducted by the Railway Administration to ensure that the candidates are medically fit to carry
out the duties connected with the post. Visual Acuity Standard is one of the important criteria of
medical fitness of railway staff. The medical requirements against the medical standards for A-1
category are outlined below :
A-1 : Physically fit in all respects. Visual Standards Distance Vision : 6/6, 6/6 without glasses.
Near Vision : Sn : 0.6, 0.6 without glasses (must clear fogging test) and must pass tests for Colour
Vision, Binocular Vision, Field of Vision and Night Vision.
Note :
(i) Before indicating options for categories in the boxes against Item No. 1 of the Application
Form, the applicants must ensure that he/she fulfills the prescribed medical standards for that
category/post.
(ii) Candidates qualifying examination for the post of Assistant Loco Pilot but failing in
prescribed medical examination(s) will not under any circumstance be considered for any
alternative appointment.
(iii) Candidates who do not fulfil the prescribed medical standards need not apply.
(iv) The above medical standard (Criteria) are indicative and not exhaustive and apply to candidates
in general.
(v) For Ex-Servicemen different standards apply.

Warning
● Beware of Touts and job racketeers trying to deceive by false promises of
securing job in Railways either through influence or by use of unfair and
unethical means. RRB has not appointed any agent(s) or coaching
center(s) for action on its behalf. Candidates are warned against any
such claims being made by persons/agencies. Candidates are selected
purely as per merit. Please beware of unscrupulous elements and do not
fall in their trap. Candidates attempting to influence RRB directly or
indirectly, shall be disqualified and legal action can be initiated against
them.
● Candidates are advised to consult only the official website of RRBs as
mentioned in advertisement. They should beware of FAKE websites put
up by unscrupulous elements/touts.
 Indian Rail At a Glance
● Beginning of railway—In England, 1825.
● Two companies were established to develop
railways in India—(i) East India Railway
Company, (ii) Great Indian Peninsula Rail-
way Company.
● Afterwards, an another company was also set
up—Madras Railway Company.
● Indian Railway started on 16 April, 1853.
● First train covered a distance of 34 km
between Mumbai and Thane. This train was
run by Great Indian Peninsula company of
Central Railway.
● The name of first rail engine was Beauty.
● There were 400 passengers, in four-wheeler,
14 bogies of the first train.
● In 1854, second train ran between Hoogly and
Howrah.
● Metre gauge started functioning in 1870.
● In the first stage, railway was run by private
sector, since Indian British Government did
not have fund.
● Lord Salisbury had issued three instructions
regarding construction and expansion of
Indian railways in the states.
● Guarantee system in railway started in 1882.
● First electrified train ran on 5 February, 1925.
● Railway was nationalised in 1950.
● Railway Board was set up in 1905 during the
period of Lord Curzon.
● At present, there is provision of a chairman,
one finance commissioner and five members
in the Railway Board.
● First diesel engine in India ran in 1957.
● At present, diesel engines are manufactured in
Varanasi.
● First locomotive factory was set up in
Chittaranjan of West Bengal. This Industrial
coach factory was based on the model of
Switzerland.
● The name of first electric train was Deccan
Queen, which ran between Pune and Mumbai.
● In 1929, it ran between Pune and Kalyan.
● New name of this train is Royal Oriental
Express.
● Indian Railway is the biggest in Asia and
second in the world.
● India is the only country in the world which
has rails of different breadths.
● There are four types of widths of rail lines—
(a) Broad gauge—1676 mm — 1·676 metre.
(b) Metre gauge—1000 mm — 1 metre.
(c) Narrow gauge—762 mm — 0·762 metre.
(d) Special gauge—610 mm—0·61 metre.
● Main Railway factories :
(a) Integral Coach Factory—Perembur
(Chennai).
(b) Rail Coach Factory—Kapurthala.
(c) Wheel and Axle Plant—Bangalore.
(d) Diesel Component Works—Patiala.
(e) Diesel Locomotive—Varanasi.
(f) Chittaranjan Locomotive Works—
Chittaranjan.
● Biggest Yard of India—Mugalsarai (U.P.).
● Biggest railway crossing of India—Itarasi
(M.P.)
 ( ix )
● Biggest railway station of India—Kharagpur.
● Longest railway river bridge of India—Nehru
Setu Bridge near Dehri-on-Sone (Bihar).
● Railway station on maximum height—Jhum
(Darjeeling).
● First rail museum in India—New Delhi.
● The biggest diamond crossing of India—
Dhanbad (Jharkhand).
● First computerised railway reservation of
India—New Delhi.
● First rail-bus service in India—Meratapur,
Rajasthan (12th October, 1994; its speed was
80 km/hr. Total number of passengers was 71,
including driver, among whom-15 were
standing.)
● First rail minister of India—Asaf Ali.
● First woman rail driver of India—Mumtaz
Kathwala.
● There is no railway line in Meghalaya,
Lakshadweep, Sikkim, Andaman and Nicobar
Islands, Dadar and Nagar Haweli.
● First rail agent—Sir Roland Mcganal
Stephen.
● First person who got the train reserved—
Jamashedji G. G. Bhai.
● First rail auditor—Lt. Col. Chesney.
● Beginning of A.C. Coach in India—In 1936.
● Beginning of Fairy Queen—In 1855.
● First electrical engine of India—Mahalakshmi.
● Name of first private train—Deccan Queen.
● Second private train—Palace-on-Wheel.
● First railway postal service in India—1907.
● The longest distance train in India—Vivek
Express (from Debrugarh to Kanyakumari,
4,286 km.)
● Superfast train of narrow gauge—Pink City
Express (Delhi—Jaipur)
● Beginning of insurance in railway—1 April,
1994, with the name ‘train passenger insu-
rance scheme’.
● Name of the insurance company—United
India Insurance Company.
● Present cost of platform ticket— 5.
● Sub-urban trains—Electrical trains which
connect metropolitan cities like Mumbai,
Chennai and Kolkata to their neighbouring
sub-urban cities.
● Railway budget was separated from the
general budget since 1924-25.
● Rail budget is presented by the railway
minister, a few days before the general
budget.
● First live-telecast of rail budget took place on
24 March, 1994.
● Railway minister, Jagjivan Ram presented the
rail budget for the maximum number of times,
that is, continuously seven times.
● There is no first class compartment in Janata
Express.
● 13·28 lakh people are employed in Indian
Railway, which is the highest number in any
enterprize of the world. This is 40% of total
employees of union government.
● Indian Railway started unigauge scheme in
1992. Under this plan, narrow gauge and
metre gauge rail lines are to be converted into
broad gauge.
● Bandra (Mumbai) was the first railway station
of the country, where a private company was
authorised to display the advertisement.
● Hazarat Nizamuddin was the first railway
station of India, the maintenance of which
was handed over to a private company—The
J.K. Tyres.
● Mrs. Indira Gandhi had started Metro rail
(underground rail or tube rail) scheme in
1972. Now metro rail is well developed in
Kolkata. It started on 24 October, 1984. Its
total length is 25 km. Professional metro rail
line continues from Dumdum to New
Garia.
 ( x )
● After Kolkata, metro rail plan was accepted
on 17th September, 1996.
● The then Prime Minister, Atal Bihari
Vajpayee, inaugurated formally the Delhi
Metro Railway on 24 December, 2002.
● The trains running between India and
Pakistan are ‘Samajhota Express’ and ‘Thar
Express’.
● Maitri Express is running between India and
Bangladesh.
● Shatabdi Express started in 1988 on the
occasion of Pt. Nehru’s birth centenary. The
first Shatabdi Express ran between Delhi and
Bhopal.
● Steam engines were manufactured in
Chittaranjan.
● After 1971, production of steam engines was
closed.
● Railway staff college is situated in Varodara.
● Indian Railway Institute of Advance Tech-
nology—Pune.
● Signal Engineering and Telecommunication
Institute—Secunderabad.
● Indian Railway Institute of Electrical Engi-
neering—Nasik.
● Indian Railway Institute of Mechanical and
Electrical Engineering—Jamalpur.
● Railway Service Commission—Allahabad.
● Public enterprizes under Indian Railway—
1. Rail India Technical and Economic
Services, Ltd. (RITES)
2. Indian Railway Construction Company
Ltd. (IRCON)
3. Indian Railway Finance Corporation Ltd.
(IRFC)
4. Container Corporation of India Ltd.
(CONCOR)
5. Konkan Railway Corporation Ltd. (KRC)
● Before Independence, maximum development
of railway in India took place during 1900–
1914. Viceroy Lord Curzon played significant
role in development of railway.
● Rail-fare tribunal started functioning in
March, 1924.
● Assam was linked by railway in 1950.
● During 1943-44, at the time of draught, two
slogans about railway were very famous :
(A) Production of railway wagons should
continue without any hindrance.
(B) Travel, only when it is inevitable.
● At the dawn of independence in 1947, total
length of railway line was 54532 km. In 1947,
only 388 km railway line was electrified.
● 760 km long Konkan railway is the first
railway of the country which was constructed
with public fund. This railway line joins Roha
(Apta) and Mangalore. It passes through
comparatively backward areas of the three
states—Maharashtra (382 km), Goa (105 km)
and Karnataka (273 km). On this line,
maximum speed of a train is 160 km/hr.
Under this scheme, there are 53 railway
stations, 1930 bridges and 92 tunnels.
● Fairy Queen, running on the main rail road, is
the oldest locomotive of the world. Thompson
and Hevypson Company of Britain has
manufactured this locomotive for East India
Company. This train runs between Delhi
Cantt and Alwar. There are 60 seats in the
train.
● By 31st March, 2011, total railway stations in
India is about 7,133.
● By 31st March, 2011, the length of traffic
railway line was 64,460 km.
● By 31st March, 2011, length of electrified
Track (Route) is 19,609 km.
● Total railway engines (As on 31st March,
2011) — 9,213
Steam engines — 43
Diesel engines — 5,137
Electric engines — 4,033
● Number of wagons are 2,29,381 (As on 31st
March, 2011).
● The then railway minister, Prakash Chandra
Sethi, had started ‘Palace on the Wheel’ train
in 1982.
 ( xi )

● Swarna Jayanti trains were started on the
golden jubilee day of independence.
● Steam engine was invented by Thomas in
1698 (U.K).
● Steam engine piston—Thomas Newcamen
1712 (U.K.).
● Steam condenser—James Watt, 1765 (U.K.).
● Locomotive—Richard Ivachick, 1804 (U.K.).
● Diesel engine—Rudolf Diesel, 1895
(Germany).
● For National hospital the Life Line Express
started from Bombay on 16 July, 1991. It was
the first train of its kind in the world.
● First railway minister to tender resignation
due to rail accident was Lal Bahadur Shastri.
● Indian Railway was divided into nine zones.
Two new zones, with headquarters in Hazipur
and Jaipur, started functioning since
1 October, 2002. Headquarters of rest five
new zones are : East-Coastal Railway
(Bhubaneshwar), North-Central Railway
(Allahabad), South-Western Railway (Hubli),
West-Central Railway (Jabalpur) and South-
East-Central Railway (Bilaspur). These five
new zones started functioning from 1 April,
2003. At present, there are 17 working zones
in India.
● Sampurna Kranti Express between Patna and
Delhi was started on the occasion of birth
Centenary of Loknayak Jaiprakash Narayan.
● During the year 2009-10, total running track
length was 87,087 km.

Route Year of
Zone (in km) Headquarters Establishment
(As on 31st
March, 2011)
1. Central Railway (C.R.) 3,905 Mumbai (Chatrapati 5 November, 1951
Shivaji Termi.)
2. Southern Railway (S.R.) 5,102 Chennai 14 April, 1951
3. Northern Railway (N.R.) 6,968 New Delhi 14 April, 1952
4. Western Railway (W.R.) 6,440 Church Gate, Mumbai 5 November, 1951
5. Eastern Railway (E.R.) 2,435 Kolkata 14 April, 1952
6. South-Eastern Railway (S.E.R.) 2,632 Kolkata 1 August, 1955
7. South-Central Railway (S.C.R.) 5,810 Secunderabad 2 October, 1966
8. North-East Frontier Railway 3,908 Maligaon (Guwahati) 15 January, 1958
(N.E.F.R.)
9. North-Eastern Railway (N.E.R.) 3,721 Gorakhpur 14 April, 1952
10. East-Central Railway 3,656 Hazipur 8 September, 1996
11. North-Western Railway 5,464 Jaipur 17 October, 1996
12. East-Coast Railway 2,646 Bhubaneshwar 8 August, 1996
13. North-Central Railway 3,151 Allahabad 28 August, 1996
14. South-Western Railway 3,177 Hubli 1 November, 1996
15. West-Central Railway 2,965 Jabalpur 8 December, 1996
16. South-East Central Railway 2,455 Bilaspur 20 September, 1998
17. Kolkata Metro Rail — Kolkata 29 December, 2010
Total 64,460
 ( xii )

● The first Garib Rath Train was started from ● In 2002-03, Indian Railway celebrated 150th
Saharsa Station on 4 October, 2006 for year of its services. This year was observed as
Amritsar. ‘Passengers’ Safety Year’. The Mono of this
● Indian Railway Catering and Tourism year was ‘Bholu Guard’.
Corporation provides better food to railway ● Research Design and Standard Organisation,
passengers. Lucknow is the Research and Development
Branch of Indian Railway.
● 423 crore was allotted to the Railway in the
First Five Year Plan. ● There had no narrow guage in North-Eastern
● An average of 1·3 crore people travel by Railway.
trains, out of which, 1·2 crore travel without ● Annual Plan for 2013-14 has been proposed
reservation. at 63,363 crore.
Yearwise Length of Different Rail Routes
Route (km) Running track (km) Total track (km)*
Year
Electrified Total Electrified Total Electrified Total
1950-51 388 53,596 937 59,315 1,253 77,609
1960-61 748 56,247 1,752 63,602 2,259 83,706
1970-71 3,706 59,790 7,447 71,669 9,586 98,546
1980-81 5,345 61,240 10,474 75,860 13,448 1,04,480
1990-91 9,968 62,367 18,954 78,607 25,305 1,08,858
2000-01 14,856 63,028 27,937 81,865 36,950 1,08,706
2002-03 16,272 63,122 29,974 82,492 39,358 1,09,221
2003-04 16,776 63,221 30,589 83,859 41,916 1,08,486
2004-05 17,495 63,465 32,686 84,260 43,364 108,805
2005-06 17,907 63,332 33,540 84,370 44,815 1,09,808
2006-07 17,786 63,327 33,623 85,389 44,804 1,09,996
2007-08 18,274 63,273 34,700 85,158 47,296 1,11,599
2008-09 18,559 64,015 35,471 86,937 47,862 1,13,115
2009-10 18,927 63,974 35,811 87,087 48,639 1,13,617

* Includes track in yards, sidings, crossings at stations, etc.

Note : (1) The total rail route kilometrage includes rail route of yards, sidings and station crossings
etc.
(2) Till 31-3-2010, 18,927 km rail route has been electrified.
Railway Recruitment Board
Assistant Loco Pilot Exam.
Solved Paper
(Based on Memory)
 2013
1. The example of open chain compound is— 3
11. The refractive index of glass is . The critical
(A) Benzene (B) Pyridine 2
(C) Ethane (D) Cyclopropane angle for glass-air surface will be—
2. Ammonia gas is—
(A) Coloured (B) Heavy
(sin 42° =
2
3)
(A) 46° (B) 32°
(C) Insoluble in water (D) Colourless
(C) 42° (D) 40°
3. Sulphur dioxide is used in—
(A) Purification of milk 12. Which of the following determines the direc-
tion of induced emf ?
(B) Purification of petroleum
(A) Ampere’s law
(C) Purification of air
(B) Fleming’s right-hand rule
(D) None of the above
(C) Fleming’s left-hand rule
4. Which of the following is least basic ? (D) Maxwell’s cork screw law
(A) Potassium (B) Calcium
13. The position of image of a object placed at a
(C) Beryllium (D) Magnesium distance of 25 cm in front of a concave mirror
5. The diagonal relationship of aluminium is of focal length 50 cm will be—
with— (A) 50 cm, behind the mirror
(A) Li (B) Be (B) 50 cm, in front of mirror
(C) B (D) Si (C) 35 cm, behind the mirror
6. The element of electronic configuration 1s2 (D) 35 cm, in front of mirror
2s2 2p6 3s2 will be—
14. The power of a 25 cm focal length of lens will
(A) Metal (B) Non-metal
be—
(C) Inert gas (D) None of these
(A) – 4D (B) +4D
7. Uranium is a member of— (C) –5D (D) +5D
(A) Actinide series (B) Transition series
15. Dynamo generates—
(C) II period (D) VI period
(A) electron (B) charge
8. The fourth member of compound having (C) e.m.f. (D) magnetic field
general formula Cn H2n + 2 is—
(A) Ethane (B) Propane 16. Which of the following is based on electro-
magnetic induction ?
(C) Pentane (D) Butane
(A) Dynamo (B) Electric motor
9. Saponification is a process of making— (C) Voltmeter (D) None of these
(A) Soap (B) Detergent
17. According to Faraday’s law—
(C) Jam (D) None of these
dφ dφ
10. ................... is used in ripening of fruits. (A) e = +n. (B) e = –n.
dt dt
(A) Methane (B) Ethane 1 dφ dt
(C) e = – · (D) e = –n.
(C) Propane (D) Ethylene n dt dφ
4 | Railway Pilot

18. The correct relation is— 28. According to Ohm’s law the correct relation
1 volt between potential difference and current is—
(A) 1 watt = i
1 amp (A) V ∝ i (B) V ∝
(B) 1 watt = 1 volt × 1 amp q
1 1
(C) 1 watt = (C) V ∝ (D) None of these
1 volt × 1 amp i
1 amp 29. If two resistances R1 and R2 are connected in
(D) 1 watt =
1 volt series, then the value of their equivalent
19. Which of the following is scalar quantity ? resistance R will be—
(A) Force (B) Velocity (A) R 1 – R 2 (B) R 1 × R2
(C) Displacement (D) Volume 1 1
(C) R 1 + R2 (D) +
R1 R2
20. The resultant of two vectors will be maximum
when the angle between them is— 30. The value of electric energy will be—
(A) 0° (B) 60° I2
(A) I2 Rt (B)
(C) 90° (D) 30° Rt
21. ‘Closed Key’ is represented by— I2 I2 R
(C) (D)
R t
(A) (B) ()
31. A current of 3·5 amperes passes through a
(C) () (D) None of these resistance wire connected across the potential
difference of 12 volts for 2 minutes. The
22. The C.G.S. unit of force is— energy consumed in wire will be—
(A) Newton (B) Kilogram (A) 5041 joules (B) 5040 joules
(C) Dyne (D) None of these (C) 4050 joules (D) 4500 joules
23. The correct relation is— 32. Coulomb/second is equal to—
F
(A) τ = F × d (B) τ = (A) Volt (B) Ohm
d (C) Watt (D) Ampere
(C) τ = F × d (D) τ = F – d
33. In the following sequence of alphabets
24. The moment of force is known as— aababaababaaabbababbaaaa
(A) Torque (B) Impulse the number of a’s in between 7th a from left
(C) Work done (D) None of these and 7th a from right is—
25. The unit of energy is— (A) 1 (B) 0
(A) Joule × second (B) Joule/second (C) 3 (D) 2
(C) Kilowatt (D) Kilowatt-hour 34. If A stands for ‘+’, B stands for ‘–’, C for ‘×’
26. In the figure, the equivalent resistance and D for ‘÷’, then
between A and B will be— 1 1 1 1 1
A B C D =
2Ω 2 3 4 5 6
A 17
B (A) 0 (B)
30
2Ω 8 13
(C) (D)
(A) 2 Ω (B) 1 Ω 15 15
(C) 1·5 Ω (D) 2·5 Ω 35. If 1st July, 1977 was a Friday then 1st July,
27. The flow of charge is— 1970 was a—
(A) Work (B) Energy (A) Wednesday (B) Thursday
(C) Current (D) Potential (C) Sunday (D) Tuesday
 Railway Pilot | 5

36. In a certain code language ‘278’ means ‘run (B) Two houses of the Parliament including
very fast’, ‘853’ means ‘come back fast’ and elected and nominated members
‘376’ means ‘run and come’, then ‘back’ may (C) Two houses of the Parliament and
be represented by the digit— speaker
(A) 3 (B) 7 (D) None of the above
(C) 5 (D) 6
45. Ribosome’s main activity is—
37. Find the odd one out— (A) Regulate cell division
(A) Kitchen (B) Psychology (B) Regulate cell function
(C) Campaign (D) Utensil (C) Protein synthesis
38. Natural : Artificial :: Spontaneous— (D) Secretion of hormone
(A) Calculated (B) Impromptu
46. Synovial fluid is found in the—
(C) Instinctive (D) Free of all
(A) Muscle (B) Kidney
39. 5 pencils and 4 erasers cost ` 13 whereas 9 (C) Liver (D) Joints
pencils and 5 erasers cost ` 19. Then the price
of 6 pencils and 3 erasers is— 47. The donor of AB blood group can donate to
recipient of blood group—
(A) ` 9 (B) ` 12 (A) A (B) B
(C) ` 15 (D) ` 18 (C) AB (D) O
40. Consider the natural number 88935. Then the 48. Filariasis is a disease caused by—
least natural number by which we can divide
(A) Worms (B) Fungus
or multiply the number to make it a square
number is— (C) Bacteria (D) Protozoa
(A) 3 49. Lack of vitamin B complex causes—
(B) 5 (A) Beriberi (B) Scurvy
(C) 15 (C) Pellagra (D) Rickets
(D) None of the above 50. Leukaemia is a form of—
41. There is a path, 1 m wide, outside a rectan- (A) Deficiency disease
gular’s field of 16 m length and 11 m breadth. (B) Deformity of body
Then the total area of the path is— (C) Viral infection
(A) 58 m (B) 58 sq m (D) Cancer
(C) 36 sq m (D) 28 sq m
51. The National calendar based on the Saka era
42. A two digit number is such that when it is began on—
divided by the largest single digit prime (A) AD 58 (B) AD 376
number leaves remainder 4. If the difference (C) AD 78 (D) AD 606
of the two digits is 4, then the number is—
(A) 73 (B) 25 52. Udayagiri rock-cut-caves are located in—
(C) 53 (D) 95 (A) Assam
(B) Chhattisgarh
43. A train runs at the speed of 72 km per hour.
The distance between any two stations is 42 (C) Madhya Pradesh
km and the train stops at each stations for 5 (D) Orissa
minutes. Then the time taken by train to go 53. Abel prize is given for major contribution in—
350 km is— (A) Astrophysics (B) Mathematics
(A) 6 h 31 m 40 s (B) 5 h 31 m (C) Genetics (D) Architecture
(C) 5 h 31 m 40 s (D) 5 h 30 m 40 s 54. The King’s Speech is a—
44. The Parliament consists of the— (A) A book
(A) Two houses of the Parliament (B) An autobiography
6 | Railway Pilot

(C) An award winning film (C) British decision to quit India

(D) None of the above (D) None of the above
55. The International Monetary Fund is located 64. The Singalila National Park is located in the
in— state of—
(A) Geneva (B) New York (A) West Bengal (B) Manipur
(C) London (D) Washington (C) Sikkim (D) Orissa
56. Michael Phelps, the Olympic swimmer has 65. Muga variety of silk is native to the state of—
secured …………… Olympic swimming (A) Andhra Pradesh
medals. (B) Madhya Pradesh
(A) 22 (B) 18 (C) Assam
(C) 15 (D) None of these (D) Bihar
57. Cairn India is known for the production of— 66. What is the least number which when incre-
(A) Milk products ased by 13 is divisible by each of 42, 36 and
(B) Information Technology related products 45 ?
(C) Petroleum gas/oil (A) 1273 (B) 1247
(D) Genetically modified cotton (C) 1207 (D) 2507
58. Amri, a Harappan site, is located in the 13 7
67. When 1 is added to th part of , then it is
province of— 15 8
(A) Sind (B) Rajasthan 13
equal to n-th part of . Then n =
(C) Gujarat (D) Baluchistan 7
1560 211
59. The invasion of Alexander took place in (A) (B)
North-West India in 326 B.C. in the period 1477 1560
of— 1477 7
(C) (D)
(A) Ajata Shatru 1560 120
(B) Nandas 68. The ratio of the present age of a man and his
(C) Chandra Gupta Maurya wife is 4 : 3 and 4 years hence, the ratio of
(D) Shishunaga their ages will be 9 : 7. If the ratio of their
ages at the time of their marriage was 13 : 9,
60. The system of cash payment of salary to the how many years ago were they married ?
troops was decreed by— (A) 4 (B) 8
(A) Ibrahim Lodi (B) Iltutmish (C) 6 (D) 9
(C) Alauddin Khalji (D) Balban
69. The average height of 35 students in a class is
61. Lord William Bentinck was the Governor 4'2". Three students of average height 4'10"
General during the period— moved to new section while 6 students of
(A) 1848–56 (B) 1813–24 total height 33'4" joined the class. The
average height of the students in the class is
(C) 1828–35 (D) 1841–44 now—
62. The Montague-Chelmsford reform was passed (A) 4'6" (B) 5'
in the year— (C) 4'4" (D) 4'8"
(A) 1908 (B) 1918
70. If 16 sheep or 12 horses eat the grass of a
(C) 1919 (D) 1916 field in 20 days, then in how many days will 5
63. Clement Attlee’s announcement proclaimed sheep and 4 horses eat it ?
in the Parliament— 30 30
(A) 30 (B) 3
(A) Limited voting powers to Indians 31 31
(B) Formation of cabinet mission (C) 31 (D) 29
 Railway Pilot | 7

71. The smallest positive integer n with 24 divi- 81. In a circuit containing inductance and resis-
sors, considering 1 and n as divisors, is— tance—
(A) 420 (B) 240 (A) e.m.f. leads the current
(C) 360 (D) 480 (B) Current leads the e.m.f.
72. The diagonal of a rectangular field is 50 m (C) Current and e.m.f. are in phase
and one of the sides is 48 m. If the cost of (D) e.m.f. lags the current
cutting the grass of the field is ` 24 per square 82. A virus inside a human organ can triple itself
metre, then the total cost of cutting all grass at every second. Then the ratio of the number
of the rectangular field is— of viruses at 28 seconds and 30 seconds is—
(A) ` 8,420 (B) ` 16,128 (A) 9 : 1 (B) 1 : 3
(C) ` 16,218 (D) ` 15,128 (C) 1 : 9 (D) 14 : 15
73. The ratio of the ages of X and Y three years 83. There are 7 pentagons and hexagons in a
ago was 4 : 5 and that after three years will be chart. If the total number of sides is 38, then
5 : 6. Then the sum of the ages of X and Y the number of pentagons is—
is— (A) 3 (B) 2
(A) 60 yrs. (B) 64 yrs. (C) 5 (D) 4
(C) 72 yrs. (D) 58 yrs. 84. Find the odd one out—
74. What is the formula of sodium zincate ? (A) Physiology (B) Analogy
(A) NaZnO2 (B) Na 2 ZnO2 (C) Psychology (D) Sociology
(C) NaZn2 O2 (D) Na 3 ZnO2 85. Starting from his house Arun moves 5 km to
the north east and then 4 km towards south.
75. Bronze is an alloy. Its constituents are— He now moves 3 km towards east and then
(A) Cu, Zn, Pb (B) Cu, Zn, Sn moves 8 km towards north to reach his
(C) Cu, Zn, Ni (D) Cu, Zn friend’s house. Then his friend’s house is—
76. Which compound (given below) is not a (A) 5 km north-east of Arun’s house
peroxide ? (B) 10 km south-east of Arun’s house
(A) Na 2 O2 (B) H2O2 (C) 10 km north-east of Arun’s house
(D) 10 km north-west of Arun’s house
(C) BaO2 (D) PbO2
86. 32 boys are standing in front of X in a queue.
77. In Bayer’s process the Bauxite ore (for purifi- Y is standing in the 19th position from the
cation) is digested in— back in the same queue. If total number of
(A) KOH (B) NaOH boys is 45, then the number of boys standing
(C) H2SO4 (D) Na 2 CO3 in between X and Y is—
(A) 3 (B) 5
78. The magnitude of a vector is never—
(C) 6 (D) 4
(A) Zero (B) Unity
(C) Negative (D) Positive 87. If ‘+’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘–’ stands for ‘+’, ‘×’ for
‘+’ and ‘÷’ for ×, then 4 + 4 × 2 ÷ 2 – 8 =
79. The force of attraction or repulsion between (A) 0 (B) 12
charges follows— (C) 13 (D) 2
(A) Square law
88. Find the missing number in the following
(B) Inverse square law table—
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of (A) and (B) 1 2 9
80. Ratio of mass of proton and electron will be— 3 4 ?
1 5 6 341
(A) 1836 (B) (A) 19 (B) 35
1836
(C) 1 (D) 0 (C) 91 (D) 121
8 | Railway Pilot

89. The reverse order arrangements of the follow- 95. In a class party arranged for 43 students, 26
ing words— liked both ice-cream and cold drinks, 7
impromptu, impudent, improvise, imprudent disliked ice-cream and 4 disliked both. Then
in a dictionary will be— the number of students who liked ice-cream
is—
(A) impudent, imprudent, impromptu, impro-
vise (A) 26 (B) 33
(B) imprudent, impudent, improvise, impro- (C) 32 (D) 30
mptu 96. A man can swim at 5 km per hour velocity in
(C) impudent, improvise, imprudent, impro- still water. He takes 75 minutes to swim from
mptu position A to the position B and back in a
(D) impudent, imprudent, improvise, impro- river when it is flowing at 1 km per hour. The
mptu distance between A and B is—
2 (A) 6 km (B) 5 km
90. If (a + 1a) = 3, then the value of a3 +
1
a3 (C) 2·5 km (D) 3 km
is— 97. The Indian cricket team is to be selected out
(A) 0 (B) 9 of fifteen players, five of them are bowlers. In
how many ways the team can be selected so
(C) 3 3 (D) 3 that the team contains at least three bowlers—
1 (A) 1260 (B) 1620
91. If x 2 – 6x + 1 = 0, then x 2 + =
x2 (C) 1250 (D) 1200
(A) 0 (B) 3 98. A, B and C are statements such that if both A
(C) 4 (D) 34 and B are true, then C is false. Further A is
92. A fraction is such that when 5 is added to the always true. Then—
numerator, then its value is 1, again when 6 is (A) B is always false
1 (B) If C is true, then B is false
added to the denominator, then the value is .
2 (C) C is always true
The fraction is— (D) If C is false, then B is true
16 13
(A) (B) 99. A invested ` 10,000 for 9 months and B
21 18
invested ` 18,000 for some times in a busi-
11 18
(C) (D) ness. If the profits of A and B are equal, then
16 23 the period of time for which B’s capital was
93. The two sequences 1, 4, 16, 64, … and 5, 20, invested is—
80, 320, … are used to form a new sequence (A) 6 months (B) 5 months
as follows : (C) 4 months (D) 3 months
1, 5, 4, 20, 16, 80, 64, 320, … 100. 50 workers can complete a job in 6 days
Then the number immediately preceding the working 8 hours a day. If 40 workers are
number 1048576 in the new sequence is— employed to complete the job in 20 days, then
(A) 20480 (B) 1310720 the number of hours they should be working
(C) 130720 (D) 262144 per day is—
(A) 4 litre (B) 6 litre
94. The volumes of three kinds of materials are in (C) 9 litre (D) 3 litre
the ratio 3 : 4 : 7 and the weights of equal
volumes of the three materials are in the ratio 101. The marked price of televisions is ` 24,000. A
5 : 2 : 6. If they are mixed to form a material retailer bought it after getting successive dis-
of 65 kg, then the weight of the 2nd material counts of 20 per cent and 10 per cent respec-
in the mixture is— tively. Then the retailer bought it at—
(A) 8 kg (B) 23 kg (A) ` 17,280 (B) ` 18,280
(C) 15 kg (D) 42 kg `
(C) 12,780 (D) ` 19,280
 Railway Pilot | 9

102. A man worked 14 hour a day for the first 2 (B) Member of the parliament
days, 12 hour a day for the next 3 days but (C) Rajya Sabha
did not work on the sixth day. Then on the (D) M.L.A.
average how much did he work in the first
six days ? 111. The term of the Governor of a state is—
(A) 10 hour 4 minute (A) 4 years (B) 5 years
(B) 9 hour 40 minute (C) 6 years (D) None of these
(C) 10 hour 40 minute 112. The Appropriation Act allows the Govern-
(D) 11 hour 40 minute ment to withdraw money from—
103. The number of straight lines that can be (A) Contingency Fund of India
drawn in a plane with 23 given points, (B) Consolidated Fund of India
assuming that no three of them are collinear (C) Reserve Bank of India
is— (D) None of the above
(A) 253 (B) 46
113. The Supreme Court has original jurisdiction
(C) 2·23! (D) 21! on any dispute/decision about—
104. In a mixture of syrup and water there is 60 (A) Regarding clarification of constitution
per cent syrup. If 5 litres of syrup is added (B) Constitutionality of a legislative act
then there is 35 per cent water in the (C) Between government of India and one
mixture. The initial quantity of mixture or more states
was—
(D) None of the above
(A) 40 litre (B) 35 litre
(C) 30 litre (D) 32 litre 114. A good soldered joint would be—
(A) Glossy, bright and shiny
105. The number of four-digit numbers greater
(B) Sufficiently large in size
than or equal to 4321 that can be formed
from the digits 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 allowing for (C) Grainy
repetition of digits is— (D) Flat
(A) 360 (B) 310 115. The instrument used for measuring the S.G.
(C) 131 (D) 311 of electrolyte of a lead-acid battery is
106. Which location does not have an oil called—
refinery ? (A) Lactometer (B) Hydrometer
(A) Numaligarh (B) Kochi (C) Hygrometer (D) Voltmeter
(C) Panipat (D) Agra 116. In order to increase the ampere-hour rating
107. Gulbarga is located in the state of— of a battery, cells are connected in—
(A) Maharashtra (B) Andhra Pradesh (A) Series (B) Parallel
(C) Karnataka (D) Madhya Pradesh (C) Series-parallel (D) Star
108. Black soil is not found in— 117. The capacitors are named according to the—
(A) Tamilnadu (B) Maharashtra (A) Size of capacitor
(C) West Bengal (D) Andhra Pradesh (B) Dielectric material used
109. Right to Equality of Opportunity in Employ- (C) Materials used for the plates
ment is enshrined in Article— (D) Working voltage
(A) 17 (B) 19 118. The capacitance of a capacitor depends on—
(C) 15 (D) 16 (A) The dielectric material
110. The candidate for the office of the President (B) The area of plates
must have qualification required for the— (C) Distance between the plates
(A) Lok Sabha (D) All the above
10 | Railway Pilot

119. In a capacitor, dielectric is used— 3 1

⇒ =
(A) To increase its capacitance value 2 sin C
(B) To increase its size 2
⇒ sin C = = sin 42°
(C) To provide a physical strength to it 3
(D) To decrease the capacitance value ⇒ sin C = sin 42°
120. Which microphone is known as velocity ⇒ C = 42°
operated microphone ? 12. (B) From Fleming’s Right Hand Rule, there is
(A) Dynamic microphone a definite relation among current or induced
(B) Ribbon microphone e.m.f. (electromotive force), lines of force and
(C) Capacitor microphone motion of the conductor.
(D) Electret microphone Fleming’s Right Hand Rule—For a moving
wire in a magnetic field, if the thumb, the first
Answers with Hints and second fingers of right hand are extended
at right angles to one another, with the first
1. (C) CH3 —CH3 (Ethane) is example of open finger representing the direction of magnetic
chain compound. lines of force and the second finger represen-
ting the direction of current flow induced by
2. (D) Ammonia is a compound of Nitrogen and
hydrogen with the formula NH3 . Ammonia is the wire’s motion, the thumb will be pointing
in the direction of motion of the wire.
a colourless gas. It is lighter than air and
highly soluble in water. At 10°C, 1300 parts 13. (A) f = –50 cm, u = –25 cm, v = ?
of ammonia gets dissolved in one part of 1 1 1
water. Formula : = +
f v u
3. (B) 4. (A) 1 1 1
⇒ = +
5. (B) It is obvious from the periodic table that –50 v –25
the elements have diagonal relationship : –1 + 2 1
Second Period Be
⇒ =
Li B C 50 v
⇒ v = 50 cm
Third Period Na Mg Al Si 1
14. (B) P =
6. (A) Electronic configuration of Mg is 1s2 2s2 f
2p6 3s2. where, P = Power (in dioptre)
Mg is an alkaline earth metal. Other alkaline f = focal length (in metre)
earth metals are : Be, Ca, Sr, Ba, Ra. 25 1
we have, f = 25 cm = m= m
7. (A) Uranium is a member of actinide group 100 4
15 radioactive elements are the members of 1
actinide group. P = D = + 4D
1/4
8. (D) Putting n = 4 in Cn H2n + 2 15. (C) 16. (A)
C 4 H2 × 4 + 2 = C4 H10 dφ
C 4 H10 is the molecular formula of Butane. 17. (B) e = –n
dt
9. (A) Saponification is a process of making Induced electromotive force appears the
soap. This process is completed in a certain factors that produce it. Therefore, its direction
steps and the final outcome is the soap. is opposite to the direction of the factors that
10. (D) Ethylene (C 2 H4) gas is used to ripen the produce it. Hence, the right hand side of this
fruits. equation is negative.
11. (C) Let critical angle is ‘C’. 18. (B) Power = Voltage × Current
1 1 Watt = 1 Volt × 1 Amp.
Formula : r μ d = cosec C =
sin C 19. (D)
 Railway Pilot | 11

20. (A) Formula : 31. (B) I = 3·5 amperes, V = 12 volt

t = 2 minutes = 120 seconds, W = ?
V = V1 + V2 + 2V1 ·V2 ·cos θ
2 2
Formula : W = V·I·t
When V1 and V2 are in the same direction,
= 12 × 3·5 × 120 joules
then θ = 0
= 5040 joules
∴ V = V1 2 + V2 2 + 2V1 ·V2 cos 0° q
32. (D) P =
t
= V1 2 + V2 2 + 2V1 ·V2
Coulomb
= V1 + V 2 Ampere =
Second
Hence, the value of V is the maximum and in
33. (A) There is only one ‘a’ between 7th a from
direction of V1 or V 2 . left and 7th a from right.
21. (C) 1 1 1 1 1
22. (C) Dyne is the CGS unit of force. 34. (C) + – × ÷
2 3 4 5 6
23. (A) Moment of force = Force × side of the 1 1 1 6
moment = + – ×
2 3 4 5
⇒ τ = F×d 1 1 3
= + –
Magnitude of the moment of force is the 2 3 10
product of the force and the perpendicular 15 + 10 – 9
distance from the axis to the line of action of =
30
the force. It is also called torque.
16 8
24. (A) Moment of force and torque are the same = =
30 15
and defined in Q. 78.
35. (A) As we know the first day and the last day
25. (D) 1 kilowatt-hour = 3·6 × 106 joules
of any ordinary year occurs on the same day
26. (B) Both the resistances are in parallel. and in leap year the last day enhance by one
1 1 1 day from the first day of that year.
Hence, = +
R R1 R2 1 July, 1977 — Friday
1 1 1 1 July, 1976 — Thursday
⇒ = +
R 2 2 1 July, 1975 — Tuesday
⇒ R = 1Ω 1 July, 1974 — Monday
27. (C) A flow of electric charge is called electric 1 July, 1973 — Sunday
current. Electric current is the result of motion 1 July, 1972 — Saturday
of electrons or ions under the influence of 1 July, 1971 — Thursday
e.m.f. It is measured in amperes. 1 July, 1970 — Wednesday
28. (A) Ohm’s law—This law states that the 36. (C) 2 7 8
current flowing in an electric circuit is Run very fast
directly proportional to the voltage applied to 8 5 3
the circuit.
come back fast
If i is the current flowing in a circuit and V is 3 7 6
the voltage applied, then run and come
V ∝ i By taking together all the three codes we can
V deduce
or = R (a constant)
i 3 = come
29. (C) 8 = fast
30. (A) Let W is electrical power, then 7 = run
V2·t 5 = back
W = I2·R·t = V·I·t =
R Hence, ‘5’ represents ‘back’.
12 | Railway Pilot

37. (D) But the train stop for 5 minute at each station
38. (A) As ‘Artificial is opposite of ‘Natural’. In after covering 42 km.
the same way ‘Calculated’ is opposite of It means the train runs the 42 km in 35 + 5
‘Spontaneous’. = 40 minute
39. (B) Let the price of pencil be ` x and the cost To cover the distance 350 km the train will
of erasers be ` y. take time 5 hour 31 minute 40 second.
5x + 4y = 13 …(i) 44. (D)
9x + 5y = 19 …(ii) 45. (C) Ribosome are the workhorses of protein
By taking together (i) and (ii) and calculating biosynthesis, the process of translating mRNA
x = `1 into protein. The mRNA comprises a series of
codons that dictate to the ribosome the
Placing the value of ‘x’ in equation (i)
sequence of amino acids needed to make the
5 + 4y = 13 protein.
y = `2 46. (D) Synovial fluid is a viscous, non-New-
then the price of 6 pencils and 3 erasers is tonian fluid found in the cavities of synovial
6 × 1 + 3 × 2 = ` 12 joints. With its yolk—like consistency, the
40. (C) principal role of synovial fluid is to reduce
5 88935 friction between the articular cartilage of
synovial joint during movement.
3 17787
47. (C) Group AB can donate to other AB’s but
7 5929 can receive from all other blood group.
11 847 48. (A) Filariasis is a parasitic and infectious
7 77 tropical disease, that is caused by filarial
11 nematode worms in the super family Fila-
5 × 3 = 15 rioidea, also known as ‘filariae’.
If this no. is multiplied by 15 then it will the 49. (A,C) Thiamine deficiencies B1 result in a
square of disease called Beriberi, which causes peri-
5 × 3 × 7 × 11 = 1155 pheral neurological dysfunction and cerebral
neuropathy. Niacin B3 deficiencies cause a
16 M wasting disease known as pellagra, which
1M affects the skin, mucous membrane, gastroin-
41. (D) 11 M 11 M testinal trait as well as the brain, spinal cord
and peripheral nerves.
16 M 50. (D) Leukaemia is a cancer of blood and bone
marrow. When a person has Leukaemia, the
Area of rectangular field body make too many white blood cells
= 16 × 11 = 176 m2 (Leukocytes).
Area of rectangular field and path 51. (C)
= (16 + 1) × (11 + 1) 52. (C) The Udayagiri caves are an early Hindu
= 204 m2 ritual site located near Vidisha in the state of
Total area of path = 204 – 176 = 28 m2 Madhya Pradesh.
42. (D) 53. (B) 54. (C) 55. (D) 56. (A)
43. (C) Q Train covers 72 km in 57. (C) Cairn India is headquartered in Gurgaon,
India. It is engaged in the business of oil and
= 60 minute
gas exploration and production. Cairn India is
60 one of the largest independent oil and gas
∴ Train covers 42 km in × 42
72 exploration and production companies in
= 35 minute India.
 Railway Pilot | 13

58. (A) 59. (B) 60. (C) 61. (C) 62. (C) 6 students of total height of 33'4"
63. (C) 64. (A) 65. (C) = 400 inch joined the total height
66. (B) The L.C.M. of 42, 36 and 45 = 1260. of students height of the class
Let the least no. be x, then Now, total height to be taken with upper line
x + 13 32 + 6 = 38 students
= D(1, 2…) = 1576 + 400
1260
= 1976 inch
x + 13
= 1 Average height of each student
1260
1976
x = 1260 – 13 = 1247 = = 52"
38
13 7 n × 13
67. (C) × +1 = = 4'4"
15 8 7
70. (A) 12 horses = 16 sheep
91 n × 13
+1 = 16 4
120 7 1 horse = = sheep
12 3
211 13n Let the 5 sheep and 4 horses will eat be x
=
120 7 days.
211 × 7 Sheep Days
n =
120 × 13 16 20
1477 16 31
= 5+ = x
1560 3 3
68. (C) Let the age of man be 4x and his wife 3x, 31
after four years : 16 :: 20 : x
3
4x + 4
=
9 16 × 20 × 3 960
3x + 4 7 x = =
31 31
28x + 28 = 27x + 36 30
= 30 days
x = 36 – 28 = 8 31
then the age of man of 71. (C)
8 × 4 = 32 years 72. (B) To know the another side of rectangular
field
the age of his wife = 8 × 3
AC2 = AB2 + BC2
= 24 years
(50) 2 = 482 + BC2
Let the years be t C
32 – t 13
=
24 – t 9
m
50

288 – 9t = 312 – 13t

4t = 24 A B
48 m
24
t = = 6 years BC2 = 2500 – 2304
6
69. (C) The total height of 35 students in class = 196
= 35 × 50 = 1750 inch (4'2" = 50") BC = √ ⎯⎯⎯
196 = 14 metre
After leaving 3 students of average height of Area of the field = 48 × 14
4'10" the total height of 32 students = 672 m2
= 1750 – (4'10" × 3) Total cost of the cutting of all grass
= 1750 – 174 = 672 × 24
= 1576 inch = ` 16,128
14 | Railway Pilot

73. (A) Let the age of X and Y three years ago be 89. (D)
4x and 5x respectively and after six years their
age 90. (A) (a + 1a) = √⎯ 3
4x + 6 5 3
5x + 6
=
6 (a + 1a) = a + a1 + 3(a +1a)
3
3

25x + 30 = 24x + 36 = 3√⎯ 3 – 3⎯√3

x = 36 – 30 = 0
= 6 years x2 1 1
Present age of X = 6 × 4 + 3 91. (D) + = 6=x+
x x x
1 2
= 27 years
Present age of Y = 6 × 5 + 3 ( )x+
x
1
= x2 + 2 + 2
x
= 33 years ⇒ 36 – 2 = 34
The sum of the ages of X and Y 92. (C) 93. (B) 94. (A) 95. (A)
= 27 + 33 96. (D) Man’s rate with the current
= 6 km
= 60 years Man’s rate against the current
74. (B) 75. (B) 76. (D) 77. (B) 78. (C) = 4 km
79. (C) 80. (A) 81. (B) 82. (C) 83. (D) Let AB = x km
84. (B) All are subjects but ‘Analogy’ is a topic x x 5
then, + =
of reasoning. 6 4 4
85. (C) 5x 5
=
12 4
12 × 5
x = = 3 km
4×5
97. (A) The selection can be as follows—
3 bowlers and 8 other players
= 5 C 3 × 10C8
= 10 × 45 = 450
AC2 = AB2 + BC2 4 bowlers and 7 other players
= (4) 2 + (3)2 = 5 C 4 × 10C7
= 16 + 9 = 25 = 5 × 120 = 600
AC = 5 5 bowlers and 6 other players
Then Arun’s friend’s house is 5 + 5 = 10 km = 5 C 5 × 10C6
north from Arun’s house. = 1 × 210 = 210
∴ Required no. of ways
5 Boys
X = 450 + 600 + 210
86. (B) 32 Y = 1260
19
98. (D)
32 + 19 – 45 – 1 = 5 99. (B) A’s investment for 9 months
87. (C) After changing the signs 10,000 × 9 = ` 90,000
4÷4+2×2+8 = 1+2×2+8 The profits of A and B are equal. So B’s
= 1 + 4 + 8 = 13 investment should be ` 90,000 also
88. (C) (1) 3 + (2)3 = 9 B invested ` 18,000
To get the equal profit his investment of
(3) 3 + (4)3 = 91 90‚000
` 90,000 = = 5 months
(5) 3 + (6)3 = 341 18‚000
 Railway Pilot | 15

100. (D) Let the number of hours be x. 115. (B) A hydrometer is an instrument used to
measure the specific gravity or relative
density of liquids; that is, the ratio of the
density of the liquid to the density of water.
40 : 50
20 : 6 } :: 8 : x 116. (B) Series connection of batteries enhance
the voltage capacity on the other hand
50 × 6 × 8 parallel connection of cells increase the
x = ampere-hour rating of a battery.
40 × 20
= 3 hours 117. (B) A dielectric material (dielectric for
101. (A) Retailer purchases at the price of short) is an electrical insulator that can be
polarized by an applied electric field.
80 90
= 24000 × × Capacitors are named according to the
100 100 dielectric material used as paper, mica,
= ` 17,280 ceramic etc.
102. (C) Man’s worked for the first 2 days 118. (D) Capacitance of a capacitor C = KA/d;
= 14 × 2 × 60 K–dielectric constant of the material being
= 1680 minute used as a dielectric, d—distance between the
Man’s worked for the next 3 days plates, A—area of plates.
= 12 × 3 × 60 119. (A) When a dielectric is placed in an electric
= 2160 minute field, electric charges do not flow through
the material as they do in a conductor, but
Total minutes he worked
only slightly shift from their average
= 1680 + 2160 equilibrium positions causing dielectric
= 3840 minute polarization. Because of dielectric polariza-
His average work for one day tion, positive charges are displaced toward
3860 the field and negative charges shift in the
= = 640 minute opposite direction. This creates an internal
6
electric field which reduces the overall field
= 10 hours 40 minute
within the dielectric itself. If a dielectric is
23 × 22 composed of weakly bonded molecules,
103. (A) 23C 2 = = 253.
2 those molecules not only become polarized,
104. (B) 105. (B) 106. (D) 107. (C) 108. (A) but also reorient so that their symmetry axis
109. (D) 110. (A) 111. (B) 112. (B) 113. (C) aligns to the field.
114. (A) The solder should smoothly ramp to 120. (B) Velocity ribbon microphone is a kind of
meet surfaces and be shiny in appearance. pressure gradient microphone in which the
The important thing to look for is any solder resulting force is proportional to the
that looks like it didn’t cling to a surface, or difference between the pressure acting on
is just sitting on top or next to a surface. the two moving elements.
Railway Recruitment Board
Assistant Loco Pilot Exam.
Solved Paper
(Based on Memory)
 2008
01. Sea-coast of which of the following states of 10. Automatic wrist watch gains energy from the
India is the longest ? following—
(A) Kerala (B) Gujarat (A) Torque
(C) Tamil Nadu (D) Andhra Pradesh (B) Liquid crystal
02. Which of the following cities was the capital (C) Battery
of Ranjit Singh, the king of Punjab ? (D) Movement of our hands
(A) Peshawar (B) Amritsar 11. When television is switched on—
(C) Lahore (D) Rawalpindi (A) Sound is heard immediately, while the
03. Fundamental duties of the citizens are visual scene appears later
included in which article of the Indian (B) Visual scene appears immediately, while
Constitution ? the sound is heard later
(A) Article 51A (B) Article 50A (C) It depends on T.V. company
(C) Article 50B (D) Article 51B (D) Sound and appearance of visual scene
start simultaneously
04. What is diamond chemically ?
(A) Zinc (B) Nickel 12. Deficiency of which of the following elements
(C) Nitrogen (D) Carbon in the body causes the goitre disease ?
(A) Iodine (B) Phosphorus
05. Jaundice infects which of the following (C) Nitrogen (D) Calcium
organs of the body ?
(A) Small intestine (B) Liver 13. Hiuen-Tsang came as a messenger in the
Court of—
(C) Stomach (D) Pancreas
(A) Dhananand
06. Which of the following countries has the (B) Pushyamitra Shunga
highest number of post offices ?
(C) Harsha
(A) France (B) China
(D) None of these
(C) India (D) Japan
14. Who wrote ‘Akbarnama’ ?
07. In India, Uttar Pradesh is the top producer of
which of the following crops ? (A) Faiji
(A) Sugar cane (B) Rice (B) Abdul Rahim Khankhana
(C) Barley (D) Wheat (C) Abul Fazal
(D) Abdul Qadir Badayun
08. What is the safe temperature to keep the food
stuffs safely in the refrigerator ? 15. Which of the following metals is used to
(A) 4°C (B) O°C make electromagnet ?
(C) 8°C (D) 10°C (A) Copper (B) Nickel
(C) Iron (D) Cobalt
09. The following instrument is used to measure
the blood pressure— 16. When a sound wave moves, it transports—
(A) Barometer (A) Mass
(B) Altimeter (B) Sound
(C) Sphygmanometer (C) Energy
(D) Tacometer (D) Potential difference
4R | Asstt. Pilot

17. The function of dynamo is to convert— 25. If by adding a natural number P in the product
(A) Electrical energy into mechanical energy of four consecutive even numbers, a perfect
(B) High voltage into low voltage square number is obtained, what is the value
of P ?
(C) Low voltage into high voltage
(A) 8 (B) 2
(D) Mechanical energy into electrical energy
(C) 4 (D) 1
18. Which of the following instruments is used to
measure electric current ? 2
26. Which of the following fraction is between
(A) Barometer (B) Altimeter 3
3
(C) Ammeter (D) Animometer and ?
5
19. Which of the following is the best conductor 2 31
of electricity ? (A) (B)
5 50
(A) Aluminium (B) Copper 1 19
(C) Iron (D) Silver (C) (D)
15 30
20. If the length of a rectangle is increased by 27. Which of the smallest five digit number is
20% and its breadth is decreased by 20%. divisible by 41 ?
Then its area— (A) 10045 (B) 10041
(A) 4% increases (B) 4% decreases (C) 10004 (D) 41000
(C) 1% decreases (D) Will not change
28. In a series, there is a decrease of one letter
21. A train passes two persons moving the same missing between each two consecutive letters.
direction in which the train is running in 10 In which of the following series, this order is
secs and 11 secs respectively. The speed of the followed ?
first man is 3 km/hr while that of other man (A) DJOTV (B) DJOSV
be 5 km/hr. What is the speed of the train ?
(C) DJOSW (D) DIOSU
(A) 28 km/hr (B) 27 km/hr
(C) 25 km/hr (D) 24 km/hr 29. If 38 – 15 = 32 and 62 – 91 = 13 then 74 – 81
=?
22. A works 20% less than B. if A completes a (A) 29 (B) 31
1 (C) 53 (D) 38
work in 7 hrs how much time will be taken
2
by B to do the same work ? 30. If CLOCK is coded as 34235 and TIME as
1 8679, then how will MOLEK be coded ?
(A) 5 hrs (B) 5 hrs (A) 62495 (B) 62945
2
1 (C) 72495 (D) 72945
(C) 6 hrs (D) 6 hrs
2 31. If ASSIGN in coded as SASING, then how
23. If the difference between the compound will KIDNAP be coded ?
interest and simple interest on a certain sum at (A) IKNDPA (B) IKDNPA
5% per annum for 3 years is Rs. 15·25, what (C) IKDNAP (D) IKAPDN
is the sum ?
(A) Rs. 2000 (B) Rs. 1000 32. The plants get the following element from
urea—
(C) Rs. 2500 (D) Rs. 1500
(A) Calcium (B) Phosphorus
24. A person, to repay a debt of Rs. 3250, pays (C) Potassium (D) Nitrogen
Rs. 20 in the first month. After it he increases
Rs. 15 in each monthly installment. In h o w 33. Mica is used for which of the following
many months will be repay the complete debt ? purposes ?
(A) 20 (B) 23 (A) In production of bricks of furnaces
(C) 25 (D) 26 (B) In electrical industries
 Asstt. Pilot | 5R

(C) Steel industries 43. Which of the following substances has the
(D) In the industry of manufacture of pots of lowest resitivity ?
glass and clay (A) Molybdenum (B) Platinum
34. Which of the following is a physical change ? (C) Tantelum (D) Tungsten
(A) Burning cooking gas 44. Which of the following is different from
(B) Becoming sour of milk others ?
(C) Digestion of meal (A) Speed (B) Time
(D) Dissolving of sugar in water (C) Density (D) Force
35. Which of the following chemical compounds 45. Momentum has the same unit as that of—
is used in photography ?
(A) Torque
(A) Aluminium hydroxide
(B) Silver bromide (B) Couple
(C) Potassium nitrate (C) Impulse
(D) Sodium chloride (D) Moment of momentum
36. What causes cholera ? 46. What is the momentum of a man of mass 75
(A) Bacteria (B) Virus kg., when he walks with a uniform velocity of
2 m/s ?
(C) Fungus (D) Algae
(A) 50 kg m/s (B) 75 kg m/s
37. An apparatus for viewing objects lying above
the eye level of the observer and whose direct (C) 100 kg m/s (D) 150 kg m/s
vision is obstructed is known as ? 47. At the centre of the earth, the value of g
(A) Photometer (B) Periscope becomes—
(C) Planimeter (D) Spectrometer (A) Infinity (B) Unity
38. Which atom has only one electron ? (C) Zero (D) None of these
(A) Potassium (B) Nitrogen 48. Two unequal masses possess the same
(C) Oxygen (D) Hydrogen momentum, then the kinetic energy of the
heavier mass is … the kinetic energy of the
39. What is the electrode that is connected to the
lighter mass.
negative pole of the battery is called ?
(A) Cathode (B) Electroplate (A) Smaller than (B) Greater than
(C) Ion (D) Anode (C) Same as (D) None of these

40. The organic acid present in vinegar is— 49. Which of the following is the fastest
switching device ?
(A) Brufanoic acid (B) Propanoic acid
(C) Methanoic acid (D) Ethanoic acid (A) JFET (B) BJT
(C) MOSFET (D) Triodevalve
41. Which of the following is an example of
fossil fuel ? Directions—(Q. 50–55) In each of the
following questions, a number series is given with
(A) Coke (B) Natural gas one term missing. Choose the correct alternative
(C) Coal gas (D) Producer gas that will continue the same pattern and fill in the
42. Water gas consists of— blank spaces—
(A) A mixture of carbon monoxide and 50. 1, 2, 3, 6, 9, 18, (……), 54
hydrogen (A) 18 (B) 27
(B) Water vapour and coal dust (C) 36 (D) 81
(C) A mixture of carbon monoxide and 51. 4, 5, 9, 18, 34, (……)
nitrogen (A) 43 (B) 49
(D) Water vapour and methane (C) 50 (D) 59
6R | Asstt. Pilot

52. 66, 36, 18, (……) 62. The transformer used to decrease the
(A) 3 (B) 6 magnitude of the alternating voltage is a—
(C) 8 (D) 9 (A) Step-up transformer
(B) Step-down transformer
53. 3, 6, 5, 20, 7, 42, 9, (……)
(A) 54 (B) 60 (C) Step-in transformer
(C) 66 (D) 72 (D) Step-out transformer

54. 1, 3, 4, 8, 15, 27, (……) 63. When two bodies are rubbed against each
other ?
(A) 37 (B) 44
(A) They acquire equal and similar charges
(C) 50 (D) 55
(B) They acquire equal and opposite charges
55. 8, 10, 14, 18, (……), 34, 50, 66 (C) They acquire unequal and similar charges
(A) 24 (B) 25 (D) They acquire unequal and opposite
(C) 26 (D) 27 charges
56. The connected load of a consumer is 2 kW 64. Lightning is caused in the sky due to the flow
and his maximum demand is 1·5 kW. The of charge between—
load factor of the consumer is— (A) Two oppositely charged clouds
(A) 0·75 (B) 0·375 (B) Two similarly charged clouds
(C) 1·33 (D) None of these (C) One neutral and one charged clouds
57. Sheaths are used in cables to— (D) None of these
(A) Provide proper insulation 65. Which of these converts sunlight directly into
(B) Provide mechanical strength electrical energy ?
(C) Prevent ingress of moisture (A) Solar cooker (B) Solar cell
(D) None of these (C) Solar furnace (D) Solar water heater
66. Electric charge can flow through—
58. For the stable operation of interconnected
system, the passive element that can be used (A) Insulators
as interconnecting element is— (B) Conductors
(A) Reactor (C) Both insulators and conductors
(B) Resistor (D) Neither conductors nor insulators
(C) Capacitor 67. The electric current which changes its
(D) Resistor and Capacitor direction after fixed intervals of time is
called—
59. The maximum demand of a Power Station is (A) Induced current
40 MW and Relative load is 75 MW. If the (B) Direct current
annual power production is 200 × 106 unit,
what will be the load factor ? (C) Alternating current
(A) 50% (B) 57% (D) None of these
(C) 65% (D) 70% 68. A device used to stabilize the voltage
supplied by electric supply station is a—
60. The order of lightning discharge current is— (A) Dynamo (B) Transformer
(A) 10,000 amp (B) 100 amp (C) Ammeter (D) Generator
(C) 1 amp (D) 1 microampere
69. Silver is a—
61. Which of the following is known as line (A) Magnetic substance
constants ? (B) Good conductor of electricity
(A) Resistance (B) Inductance (C) Bad conductor of electricity
(C) Capacitance (D) All of the above (D) None of these
 Asstt. Pilot | 7R

70. An instrument used to observe heavenly ?

bodies is the— 79. 4, 8, 12, 24, 36, ——
(A) Telescope (B) Camera (A) 72 (B) 60
(C) Microscope (D) Periscope (C) 144 (D) 48
80. Out of these four, three are similar in a certain
71. The maximum percentage in the atmosphere
way. Find the different one—
is of—
(A) Wool (B) Fur
(A) Oxygen (B) Nitrogen
(C) Hair (D) Grass
(C) Carbon dioxide (D) Helium
81. Game : Field : : Cinema : ?
72. What is the function of Ozone layer ? (A) Hall (B) Stage
(A) Prevents harmful infra-red rays of the (C) Screen (D) Drama
sun from reaching the earth
82. Oasis : Desert : : ? : Sea
(B) Prevents radiation escaping the earth,
hence keeping it warm (A) Island (B) Peninsula
(C) It is essential for rainfall (C) Take (D) Ship
(D) It filters harmful ultra-violet rays of the 83. QPRS : TUWV : : JIKL : ?
sun (A) NMOP (B) NMPO
73. In the International system of measurement, (C) MNPO (D) MNOP
the ‘Kelvin’ is the unit of— 84. 5 : 100, 4 : 64 : : 4 : 80 : 3 : ?
(A) Mass (B) Temperature (A) 26 (B) 48
(C) Electric Current (D) Air (C) 60 (D) 54
74. In the following letter series some of the 85. The first nuclear reactor for production of
letters are missing which are given in that electricity was set up in—
order as one of the alternatives below it. (A) Narora (B) Tarapur
Choose the correct alternative—
(C) Rawatbhata (D) Kakrapar
ab–b––c–ca
(A) ccba (B) acba 86. Which of the following chemical compounds
is used in conservation of food ?
(C) bccb (D) bcab
(A) Benzoic acid
Directions—(Q. 75 to 79) In each question (B) Sodium chloride
one sequence is given in which one or more terms
are missing. Choose the correct alternative which (C) Sodium carbonate
will complete the sequence. (D) None of these
? ? ? ? 87. Which of the following fuels does not produce
75. NOAB, OPBC, PQCD — — — —— air pollution ?
(A) QRDE (B) RTEF (A) Hydrogen (B) Diesel
(C) QSDE (D) QRGL (C) Kerosene (D) Coal
?
76. KDW, MGT, OJQ —— 88. Which of the following is responsible for
(A) MNQ (B) QNM causing malaria ?
(C) NMQ (D) QMN (A) Mosquito
? (B) Anopheles mosquitoes
77. 33, 28, 24, —, 19, 18— (C) Mosquitoes of rainy season
(A) 21 (B) 22 (D) Mosquitoes living on water surface
(C) 20 (D) 23
89. Increase in quantity of which of the following
? causes the risk of heart disease ?
78. 6, 10, 18, 34, ——
(A) 46 (B) 56 (A) Glucose (B) Cholesterol
(C) 66 (D) 76 (C) Heperin (D) Haemoglobin
8R | Asstt. Pilot

90. Which of the following helps the blood to (C) 1500°C to 2500°C
clot ? (D) 3000°C to 3500°C
(A) Vitamin B (B) Vitamin B2
99. If two persons complete a work in 9 days,
(C) Vitamin K (D) Vitamin D how many more persons will be required to
91. Main source of energy in the human body complete the double work in 12 days ?
is— (A) 2 (B) 3
(A) Vitamins (B) Mineral salts (C) 1 (D) 4
(C) Carbohydrates (D) Water
100. A piece of ice floats in a glass of water. As
92. A person purchased some items for Rs. 2025. the ice melts, the surface of water in the
He sold one fifth of them at a gain of 20% glass—
and the rest at a gain of 5%. What is his gain (A) Falls
% over all ?
(B) Rises
(A) 6% (B) 7%
(C) 6·5% (D) 8% (C) Remains constant
(D) None of these
93. In a group there are 25 men and 20 women.
Average weight of a man is 48 kg while the 101. In Indian Parliamentary system of Govern-
average weight of a woman is 30 kg. What is ment, the power really vests in—
the average weight of the group ? (A) Parliament (B) Bureaucracy
(A) 35 kg (B) 39 kg (C) Prime Minister (D) President
(C) 40 kg (D) 45 kg
102. Who built the Buddhist mound of Sanchi ?
94. A sum of money was distributed among 120 (A) Chandragupta (B) Ashok
men and some ladies in the ratio of 15 : 21. If
each man got Rs. 5 and a lady Rs. 4. What is (C) Kautilya (D) Gautam Buddha
the total number of ladies ? 103. Who was the founder of Prarthana Samaj ?
(A) 220 (B) 200 (A) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
(C) 190 (D) 210 (B) Dayanand Sarswati
95. Which of the following was the main centre (C) Mahadev Govind Ranade
of education during Buddhism era ?
(D) Swami Sahjanand
(A) Nalanda (B) Delhi
(C) Varanasi (D) Bodhgaya 104. Who was the elected permanent Chairman of
Indian Constituent Assembly ?
96. The maize can be cultivated during the season
(A) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
of—
(A) Kharif (B) Rabi (B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(C) Jaed (D) Round the year (C) Sachchidanand Sinha
(D) B.R. Ambedkar
97. Who takes over charge as the Acting
President, if the posts of President and the 105. Who composed the national song, ‘Vande
Vice-President get vacant ? Mataram’ ?
(A) Speaker of Lok Sabha (A) Bankim Chandra
(B) Chief Justice of India (B) Sarojini Naidu
(C) Prime Minister (C) Ramdhari Singh Dinkar
(D) Attorney General (D) Rabindranath Tagore
98. Normally, the temperature of the filament of a 106. Which of the following plants is used to
lighting bulb is— manufacture biodiesel ?
(A) 100°C to 500°C (A) Marigold (B) Sugarcane
(B) 1000°C to 1500°C (C) Ratanjot (D) White radish
 Asstt. Pilot | 9R

107. The pointer of the magnetic compass points (rate) 2

towards which direction ? 23. (A) Difference = Principal ×
(100) 2
(A) East (B) Sky
(C) North (D) West ( r
100
+T )
108. Where did Lord Buddha get salvation ? P × (5)2
(A) Lumbini (B) Kushinagar
∴ 15·25 =
(100) 2 (1005 + 3)
(C) Bodhgaya (D) Kapilvastu P × 1 305
= ×
Answers with Explanation 400 100
15·25 × 400 × 100
01. (B) 2. (C) 3. (A) 4. (D) 5. (B) ∴ P =
305
06. (C) 7. (A) 8. (B) 9. (C) 10. (C) = Rs. 2000
11. (A) 12. (A) 13. (C) 14. (C) 15. (C) n
24. (A) Sn = [2a + (n – 1)d]
16. (C) 17. (D) 18. (C) 19. (D) 2
20. (B) Change in area n
3250 = [2 × 20 + (n – 1)15]
(100 + x) (100 – y) 2
= – 100 3250 × 2 = n(40 + 15n – 15)
100
(Here x = 20 and y = 20) = 25n + 15n2
(100 + 20) × (100 – 20) ∴ 15n + 25n – 6500 = 0
2
= – 100 ∴ 3n2 + 5n – 1300 = 0
100
120 × 80 – 5 ±√⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
25 + 15600
= – 100 ∴ n =
100 6
= 96 – 100 –5± 125
=
= – 4% 6
∴ Area of rectangle will decrease by 4% = 20 months
21. (C) Let the speed of the train be x km/hr and 25. (D) x(x + 1) (x + 2) (x + 3) + P
length of the train be y metres = (x2 + 3x) (x2 + 3x + 2) + P
5 y (Putting y = x2 + 3x)
∴ (x – 3) × =
18 10 = y(y + 2) + P
or, (x – 3) × 50 = 18y = y2 + 2y + P
or, 50x – 150 = 18y ∴ y2 + 2y + P will be a perfect square
∴ 25x – 9y = 75 …(1) if P = 1
5 y 2/3 + 3/5 10 + 9
and (x – 5) × = 26. (D) Required fraction = =
18 11 2 30
∴ (x – 5) × 55 = 18y 19
=
30
∴ 55x – 275 = 18y
27. (C)
∴ 55x – 18y = 275 … (2)
28. (B) D J O S V
From equ. (1) and (2) x = 25 km/hr.
2 5 4 3 2
22. (C) Work of A for 1 hr =
15 29. (B) As, 38 – 15 ⇒ (8 ~ 5) and (3 ~ 1)
∴ Work of B for 1 hr =
2 100
× =
1 ⇒ 32
15 80 6 and 62 – 91 ⇒ (2 ~ 1) and (6 – 9)
∴ B will take 6 hrs to complete the work. ⇒ 13
10R | Asstt. Pilot

Similarly, 52. (D) 66 36 18 9

74 – 81 ⇒ (4 ~ 1) and (7 ~ 8) ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓
⇒ 31 (8) 2 + 2 (6) 2 (4) 2 + 2 (3) 2
30. (C) As, and 53. (D) +2 +2 +2
C→ 3 T → 8
L→ 4 I → 6 3, 6, 5, 20, 7, 42, 9, 72
O→ 2 M → 7
C→ 3 E → 9 ×2 ×4 ×6 ×8
K→ 5
54. (C) 1
Hence,
3
M→ 7 1+3
4
O→ 2 1+3 +4
8
L→ 4 3+4 +8
15
E→ 9 4 + 8 + 15
K→ 5 27
8 + 15 + 27
31. (B) As, Similarly, 50
A S K I 55. (C) 8 10 14 18 26 34 50 66
S A I K
S S D D +2 +4 +4 +8 + 8 + 16 + 16
I I N N 56. (C) 57. (A) 58. (D) 59. (B) 60. (A)
G N A P 61. (D) 62. (B) 63. (B) 64. (D) 65. (B)
N G P A
66. (B) 67. (C) 68. (B) 69. (B) 70. (A)
32. (D) 33. (B) 34. (D) 71. (B) 72. (D) 73. (B)
35. (B) Formerly, silver bromide had been in use a c b a
in photography. In modern digital photogra- 74. (B) a b — b — — c — c a
phy, it has no use. 75. (A) N + 1 O + 1 P + 1 Q
36 (B) 37. (B) 38. (D) 39. (A) 40. (D) +1 +1 +1
O P Q R
41. (B) +1 +1 +1
A B C D
42. (A) Water gas is a poisonous gas. It is a +1 +1 +1
mixture of certain gases, but main constituents B C D E
are hydrogen and carbon monoxide. 76. (D) +2 +2 +2
K M O Q
43. (D) +3 +3 +3
44. (C) Speed, time and force are correlated. If D G J M
_3 _3 _3
one varies, another also. Density is different W T Q N
from these.
77. (A) 33 28 24 21 19 18
45. (C)
46. (D) Momentum = mass × velocity −5 −4 −3 −2 −1
= 75 × 2 kg m/s
78. (C) 6 10 18 34 66
47. (C) 48. (A) 49. (C)
50. (B) +4 +8 + 16 + 32
1 2 3 6 9 18 27 54
79. (A) 4 8 12 24 36 72
×2 × 1.5 × 2 × 1.5 × 2 × 1.5 × 2
×2 × 1.5 ×2 × 1.5 ×2
51. (D)
4 5 9 18 34 59 80. (D) All the rest grow on animals.
81. (A) As the place of game is field similarly the
+ (1)2 + (2)2 + (3)2 + (4)2 + (5)2 place of cinema is ‘Hall’.
 Asstt. Pilot | 11R

82. (A) As land with some water in desert is 1200 + 600

known as Oasis. Similarly the land in sea is =
45
known island. 1800
83. (C) As, Similarly, =
45
+3 +3
Q T J M = 40 kg.
+5 +5 94. (D) Let the number of women be x
P U I N
R
+5
W K
+5
P 120 × 5 15
=
S
+3
V L
+3
O
x×4 21

84. (B) 120 × 5 × 21 = 15 × x × 4

5 100 : 4 : 64 : : 4 : 80 : 3 : 48 120 × 5 × 21
∴ x =
15 × 4
× 20 × 16 × 20 × 16
= 210
85. (B) 86. (A) 87. (A) 88. (B) 89. (B)
95. (A) 96. (A) 97. (B) 98. (C)
90. (C) 91. (C)
99. (C) Work days Person
1 120
92. (D) Total S.P. = 2025 × × + 2025 1 9 2
5 100
4 105 2 12 x
× ×
5 100 01 : 2
}
12 : 9 : : 2 : x
= 486 + 1701
= 2187 2 × 9 ×2
x =
2187 – 2025 1 × 12
∴ % profit = × 100
2025 = 3
= 8 ∴ Extra person = 3 – 2
93. (C) Average of the group = 1
25 × 48 + 20 × 30 100. (C) 101. (D) 102. (B) 103. (C) 104. (B)
= 105. (A) 106. (C) 107. (C) 108. (B)
25 + 20
Railway Recruitment Board
Assistant Loco Pilot Exam.,
Solved Paper
(Based on Memory)
 2007
01. In a school, ratio of boy students and girl 10. Which of the following diseases is caused by
students is 5 : 2. If the number of boy students virus ?
is 450 more than the girl students, how many (A) Typhoid (B) T. B.
students are there in the school ? (C) Cholera (D) Hepatitis
(A) 750 (B) 950
11. Chromatographic technique is used for the
(C) 1050 (D) None of these following purposes—
02. BFJ : R : : OAF : ? (A) To identify coloured materials
(A) P (B) Q (B) To determine the structure of materials
(C) V (D) W (C) Distillation of coloured materials
03. XPT : JHL : : BDL : ? (D) To separate the materials from the mix-
(A) FAB (B) FXB ture and then analyse them
(C) FBC (D) FDA 12. At simple interest, a principal becomes
3 4 double in 16 years. How much will the
04. If 40% of of of some number is 48, what principal become in 8 years ?
4 5
would be the value of 1 per cent of that 1 1
number ? (A) 1 times (B) 1 times
4 2
(A) 1 (B) 2 1 1
(C) 10 (D) 20 (C) 1 times (D) 1 times
6 3
2
05. 2(–2) = ? 13. A trader allows 10% discount on marked
1 1 price of an article and gets 20% profit. If the
(A) (B) –
8 8 marked price of the article is Rs. 50, what is
(C) 16 (D) – 8 its cost price ?
06. Square of the sum of two positive numbers is (A) Rs. 30 (B) Rs. 32
9. What would be the value of the sum of the (C) Rs. 36 (D) None of these
cubes of these numbers ? 14. Find the least number which when divided by
(A) 27 (B) 81 4, 12 and 16 leaves remainder 3 in each case,
(C) 45 (D) 9 but it is perfectly divisible by 7.
07. Potato belongs to which family ? (A) 48 (B) 51
(A) Gramini (B) Compositae (C) 99 (D) 147
(C) Solanaceae (D) Cucurbitaceae 15. At what rate of simple interest, will a sum of
08. Who discovered the laws of planetary money become 4 times in 15 years ?
motion ? (A) 25% (B) 20%
(A) Newton (B) Galileo 1
(C) 17 % (D) 15%
(C) Copernicus (D) Kepler 2
09. In the battery of the car, the acid used is— 16. A train 130 metres, running at a speed of 45
(A) Acetic acid km/hr, crosses a bridge in 30 seconds. What is
(B) Sulphuric acid the length of the bridge ?
(C) Hydrochloric acid (A) 200 m (B) 225 m
(D) Nitric acid (C) 245 m (D) 250 m
4 | Railway Pilot

17. A man walks at a speed of 4 km/hr and crosses 25. Average age of 25 students is 10 years.
a square-shaped farm diagonally in 3 minutes. Average age rises by one year, if the age of
The area of the farm is— the teacher is also included. What is the age
(A) 20,000 m2 (B) 25,000 m2 of the teacher ?
(C) 18,000 m 2 (D) 19,000 m2 (A) 28 years (B) 36 years
4 (C) 46 years (D) 25 years
18. part of a canister is filled with oil. 6 bottles
5 26. Sum of three numbers is 98. Ratio of first and
of oil is taken out of it, leaving the three- second numbers is 2 : 3 and that of second
fourth part of the canister filled with oil. How and third is 5 : 8. What is second number ?
many bottles of oil can fill the entire canister ? (A) 20 (B) 30
(A) 100 (B) 120 (C) 48 (D) 58
(C) 130 (D) 140 27. How many are the numbers between 200 and
19. If x : y : : 5 : 2 then the value of 600 which are perfectly divisible by 4, 5 and
8x + 9y : 8x : 2y will be— 6?
(A) 5 (B) 6
(A) 22 : 29 (B) 29 : 22
(C) 7 (D) 8
(C) 61 : 26 (D) 26 : 61
28. Area of the largest triangle drawn in a semi-
1 3 circle of radius r will be—
20. A fraction has the same ratio with , that
27 11 (A) r2 (B) r3
5
has with . What is that fraction ? (C) 2r2 (D) 2r3
9
1 29. What would be the value of log 9, if log 27 =
(A) (B) 55 1·431 ?
55
1 3 (A) 0·934 (B) 0·945
(C) (D) (C) 0·954 (D) 0·958
11 11
21. 12 is the H. C. F. of three numbers. If the 30. Three cubes of iron of sides 6 cms., 8 cm and
ratio of these numbers is 1 : 2 : 3, then what 10 cm are melted and then converted into a
are these numbers ? single big cube what would be the side of this
new cube ?
(A) 12, 24, 36 (B) 10, 20, 30
(A) 13 cm (B) 12 cm
(C) 6, 12, 18 (D) 24, 48, 72
(C) 14 cm (D) 18 cm
22. Average of first 50 natural numbers is—
(A) 12·25 (B) 21·25 31. If each side of a square is extended by 25% its
area will increase by—
(C) 25·00 (D) 25·50
(A) 25% (B) 55%
23. There is a group of 8 men. If a new man (C) 40·50% (D) 56·25%
replaces a man of this group of 65 kg, average
weight of the group rises by 1·5 kg. What is 32. At simple interest, if a sum of money
the weight of this new men ? becomes double in 6 years, after how long
(A) 76 kg (B) 76·5 kg will it become 4 times ?
(C) 76·7 kg (D) 77 kg (A) 14 years (B) 12 years
(C) 18 years (D) 16 years
24. Average of 11 observations is 60. 58 is the
average of first 5 observations and 56 is the 33. If cost price of 12 tables is equal to the sale
average of last five observations. What is the price of 16 tables. What is the percentage of
6th observation ? loss ?
(A) 90 (B) 110 (A) 15% (B) 20%
(C) 85 (D) 100 (C) 25% (D) 30%
 Railway Pilot | 5

34. If an electric press is sold for Rs. 600, a profit 42. Ratio of milk and water is 7 : 3 in a mixture
of 20% is obtained. What would be its cost of 30 litre. How much water should be added
price, if it is sold at a profit of 15% ? to the mixture to make the ratio 3 : 7 ?
(A) Rs. 500 (B) Rs. 540 (A) 40 litre (B) 49 litre
(C) Rs. 575 (D) Rs. 600 (C) 56 litre (D) 63 litre
35. If 75% of some number is added to 75, the 43. Radius of a circumcircle of an equlilateral
same original number is obtained. What is triangle is 8 cm. What would be the radius of
this number ? the incircle of this triangle ?
(A) 400 (B) 300 (A) 3·25 cm (B) 3·50 cm
(C) 60 (D) 50 (C) 4 cm (D) 4·25 cm
36. A is 10% taller than B. How much B is 44. Missing term in the series 0, 3, 8, 15, 24, …,
shorter than A ? 48 is—
1 (A) 35 (B) 30
(A) 10% (B) 10 %
2 (C) 36 (D) 39
1 1
(C) 10 % (D) 9 %
11 11 45. Rational factor of 3 √
⎯ 3 is—
37. 65xy is a number of 4 digits in which x and y 1
(A) (B) 3
are such two digits that 65xy is perfectly 3
divisible by 80. Then x + y will be equal to— (C) – 3 (D) 3
(A) 6 (B) 3
46. Flagellated structure of bacteria is called—
(C) 4 (D) 5
(A) Flagella (B) Atrix
38. A can do a piece of work in 6 days and B in (C) Claust (D) Cylindrae
12 days. If both work together and complete
the piece of work, what part of the work will 47. The atom which has comparatively less
be done by A ? number of electrons is called—
1 2 (A) Negative ion (B) Positive ion
(A) (B)
3 3 (C) Neutral ion (D) None of these
1 1
(C) (D) 48. 10 identical taps can jointly fill a tank in 24
4 2 minutes. How long will nine of these taps
39. The sum of first 8 terms of a Geometric take to fill this tank jointly ?
Progression is 6560 and common ratio is 3. (A) 26 minutes
The first term will be— (B) 28·9 minutes
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 30 minutes
(C) 3 (D) 4 2
(D) 26 minutes
2 3
40. If a monthly increment of 2 % is allowed to
3 49. During Alexandar’s invasion, which river was
an employee, he gets Rs. 72 more. His the eastern border of India ?
monthly income will be— (A) Sutelaj (B) Indus
(A) Rs. 7200 (B) Rs. 3600 (C) Beas (D) Chinab
(C) Rs. 2700 (D) Rs. 2000 50. Antarctic circle—
41. Angles of a triangle are in the ratio 2 : 7 : 11. 1° 1°
Meaurements of the angle will be— (A) 63 N (B) 63 N
3 2
(A) 16°, 56°, 88° (B) 18°, 63°, 99° 1°
(C) 56 N (D) 66° 30′ S
(C) 20°, 70°, 90° (D) 25°, 175°, 105° 3
6 | Railway Pilot

51. There is a cylindrical electric geyser with 60. The most appropriate metal for permanent
height 1·5 m and diameter 35 cm. Ignoring magnet is—
the thickness of its well, calculate its external (A) Copper (B) Iron
lateral surface area. (C) Steel (D) Cobalt
(A) 11200 cm2 (B) 13200 cm2
2 61. As the molecular weight of a liquid rises, its
(C) 12100 cm (D) 9600 cm2
viscosity—
52. A discount of 16% is allowed on marked (A) Falls
price of an article. If its sale price is Rs. 546, (B) Rises
what would be its marked price ?
(C) Remains constant
(A) Rs. 750 (B) Rs. 450
(D) None of these
(C) Rs. 650 (D) Rs. 620
62. Study of flowers is called—
13
53. Convert into decimal fraction— (A) Anthology (B) Canology
125
(C) Agrostology (D) Palynology
(A) 0·112 (B) 0·104
(C) 0·108 (D) 0·116 63. Why does a soap bubble appear colourful in
sunlight ?
54. Dimensional formula of momentum is—
(A) There is scattering of light
(A) [MLT–2] (B) [MLT–1]
(B) Dispersion of light
(C) [MLT] (D) None of these
(C) Defraction of light
55. Electric motor converts— (D) Interference of light
(A) Mechanical energy into electrical energy
64. Which of the following states is the foremost
(B) Electrical energy into mechanical energy rubber producer ?
(C) (A) and (B) both (A) Kerala (B) Bihar
(D) None of (A) and (B) (C) Karnataka (D) Goa
56. Viscosity of which of the following is maxi- 65. Who presides over the joint session of both
mum— the Houses of Parliament ?
(A) Rubber
(A) President of India
(B) Aluminium
(B) Vice-President
(C) Steel
(C) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(D) All these have equal viscosity
(D) Prime Minister
57. This time Ritu’s age is four times to that of
her brother Raj’s age. After 4 years, her age 66. Under which Constitution Amendment have
will be twice the age of Raj. What is present the fundamental duties of Indian citizens been
age of each of them ? included in the constitution ?
(A) 4, 2 years (B) 8, 2 years (A) 41st (B) 42nd
(C) 2, 6 years (D) 4, 12 years (C) 43rd (D) 44th
58. After dissolution of Lok Sabha, when is the 67. Who was the chief guest at the celebration of
post of Speaker abolished ? India’s Republic Day 2008 ?
(A) After dissolution of Lok Sabha (A) Gordon Brown (B) Vladimir Putin
(B) Just before dissolution of Lok Sabha (C) Nicolas Sarkozy (D) None of these
(C) Just after first sitting of Lok Sabha
68. Radius of the base of a cylinder is 3 metre
(D) None of these and its height is 14 m. Curved surface of the
59. Painkiller medicines are called— cylinder will be—
(A) Antivenus (B) Antitoxic (A) 264 m2 (B) 184 m2
(C) Analgesic (D) Antiseptic (C) 312 m 2 (D) 222 m2
 Railway Pilot | 7

69. A carbon microphone is a variable— 78. The monthly income of a person was Rs.
(A) Inductance device 13500 and his monthly expenditure was Rs.
(B) Capacitance device 9000. Next year his income increases by 14%
and his expenditure by 7%. Then the
(C) Resistance device
percentage increase in his savings is—
(D) None of these (A) 7% (B) 21%
70. Second Karnataka War (1760) was fought (C) 28% (D) 35%
between—
79. A ladder 13 feet long stands upright against a
(A) British forces and Haider Ali wall. How far must the bottom of the ladder
(B) British forces and French forces be pulled out so as to lower the top by a foot ?
(C) French forces and Haider Ali (A) 6 feet (B) 5 feet
(D) British force and Tipu Sultan (C) 3 feet (D) 1 feet
71. The value of 0·1 × 0·1 × 0·01 × 0·1 is—
4+3 3
(A) 0·1000 (B) 0·0001 80. Given that 3 = 1·73, the value of ,
(C) 0·00001 (D) 1·0000 7+4 3
72. Find the total surface area of a solid cylinder correct to three places of decimal, is—
of radius 5 cm and height 10 cm. Give the (A) ·023 (B) ·464
answer in π. (C) 2·464 (D) 3·023
(A) 120 π cm2 (B) 135 π cm2 81. Liquid-regulated brakes in automobiles
(C) 150 π cm 2 (D) 165 π cm2 function on—
73. Simplify : 2·31 × 0·019. (A) Archimedes principle
(A) 0·14389 (B) 0·4389 (B) Poscal’s principle
(C) 0·04389 (D) 0·44389 (C) Bernoulli’s effect
(D) Poisc’s principle
74. Four men working together take 3 hours to
paint a wall. How much time would six men 82. A girl is sitting in a swing and swinging.
take to do the same job ? Suddenly, she stands up, then time priod
will—
(A) 4 hours (B) 2 hours
(A) Fall
(C) 6 hours (D) 8 hours
(B) Rise
75. A man goes 18 km down the stream in 4 hours (C) Remain constant
and returns against the stream in 12 hours. (D) Oscillation will stop
The speed of the stream in km/hr is—
83. What is the percentage of carbon in steel ?
(A) 1 (B) 1·5
(C) 1·75 (D) 3 (A) 1 – 7% (B) 7 – 10%
(C) 10 – 15% (D) Zero
76. 50 g of an alloy of gold and silver contains
80% gold (by weight). The quantity of gold, 84. Which of the following is the function of
that is to be mixed up with this alloy, so that carburettor ?
it may contain 95% gold, is— (A) It keeps engine cool
(A) 200 g (B) 150 g (B) It controls engine
(C) 50 g (D) 10 g (C) It converts alternating currents into low
voltage
77. If a bucket is 80% full, then it contains 2 litre
2 (D) It mixes air with petrol and then gives
more water than when it is 66 % full. What out cool steam
3
is the capacity of the bucket ? 85. Alloy of which metals is used to make the
(A) 10 Ltr. (B) 15 Ltr. parts of aircrafts and railway wagons.
2 (A) Copper (B) Iron
(C) 16 Ltr. (D) 20 Ltr.
3 (C) Aluminium (D) None of these
8 | Railway Pilot

86. In which of the following media is the velocity 95. Dimensions of ‘a’ in the vander Waal’s
of sound maximum ?
(A) Water (B) Air ( a
equation p + 2
v )
(v – b) = RT are%
(C) Steel (D) Vacuum (A) [ML2T–2] (B) [ML3T–2]
4 –2
(C) [ML T ] (D) [ML5T–2]
87. How does the escape velocity of a matter
depend on its mass m ? It is directly propor- 96. In the first week of the month, owner of a
tional to— factory manufactured 40% of its quota. In the
(A) m2 (B) m second week, he manufactured 50% of the
(C) m0 (D) m–1 first week’s production. During the third and
fourth weeks, he manufactured 17488 tools.
88. A body is in simple harmonic motion. Its What is its monthly quota ?
potential energy will remain in which
position ? (A) 43700 tools (B) 43720 tools
(C) 44500 tools (D) 45620 tools
(A) In the mid
(B) At the position of maximum displace- 97. At a profit of 12%, ‘A’ sells a camera to ‘B’.
ment At a loss of 9%, ‘B’ sells it to ‘C’. If ‘C’
(C) At the position of half displacement purchased it for Rs. 1896, what was the cost
price for ‘A’ ?
(D) In none of the above
(A) Rs. 1600 (B) Rs. 1550
89. Which of the following converts solar energy (C) Rs. 1526 (D) None of these
directly into electrical energy ?
(A) Solar cooker 98. The value of 0·1 × 0·1 × 0·001 × 0·1 is—
(B) Solar cell (A) 0·1000 (B) 0·0001
(C) Solar reactor (C) 0·000001 (D) 1·0000
(D) Solar water heater 99. JKLM is a kite and its diagonals intersect at 0.
If LKLM = 2 LKJM and LKJM = 68°, find
90. Which of the following is called Land of
out the value of LLKO—
Morning Calm ?
(A) 22° (B) 34°
(A) Japan (B) Tibet
(C) 68° (D) 90°
(C) Tiwan (D) Korea
100. Radioactive iodine is used in the treatment of
91. Where is the headquarter of F. A. O. located ?
the diseases of which of the following ?
(A) New York (B) Washington (A) Skin (B) Bone
(C) Rome (D) France (C) Blood cancer (D) Thyroid
92. Which of the following cathode materials 101. Which of the following will decompose if
offers the highest emission capacity ?
electric current passes through its aqueous
(A) Oxide (B) Tungstan solution ?
(C) Thorium (D) Genner (A) Urea (B) Glucose
93. Which of the following is the heaviest metal ? (C) Silver nitrate (D) Benzene
(A) Copper (B) Uranium 102. If current passes through a coil, the energy
(C) Aluminium (D) Silver accumulates in the following form—
94. Main function of moderator in nuclear reactors (A) Electric field (B) Magnetic field
is— (C) Dielectric energy (D) Heat
(A) To change the power-level of reactor 103. Find out the missing term in the following
(B) To reduce the speed of neutrons series—
(C) To remove the heat generated during the 3, 4, 10, ?, 136, 685
process of nuclear fission in the reactor (A) 39 (B) 36
(D) All the above (C) 33 (D) 42
 Railway Pilot | 9

104. In some code language, OTRN is written as 1

MRPL. How can EJID be written in the same (A) 9 times (B) times
9
language ? 1
(A) BGHC (B) GIKF (C) 3 times (D) times
3
(C) CHGB (D) DBGH
114. Bauxite is an ore of which of the following
105. A cricketer has some average of runs of his metals—
16 innings. He scored 85 runs in his 17th (A) Aluminium (B) Copper
innings. Then his average increased by 3 runs.
What is average of runs after 17th innings ? (C) Zinc (D) Tin
(A) 42 (B) 46 115. From the top of a building, a ball is dropped
(C) 34 (D) 37 with an acceleration of 9·8 m/s 2 . After 3
seconds, its velocity will be—
106. What is the percentage of pure gold in 18
carat ? (A) 9·8 m/s2
(A) 50% (B) 75% (B) 19·6 m/s2
(C) 60% (D) 100% (C) 29·4 m/s2
107. Under which constitution amendment has the (D) 39·2 m/s2
age limit for voting been changed from 21 116. Energy flowing in a telephone line is—
years to 18 years ?
(A) Sound energy
(A) 57th (B) 61st
(C) 65th (D) 71st (B) Electrical energy
(C) Radio energy
108. Among the following planets of solar system,
which is the largest ? (D) Mechanical energy
(A) Mars (B) Mercury 117. Ratio of the magnetic fields of a magnet at
(C) Earth (D) Jupiter end on distance d from the magnet and at
109. Which of the following glands is called broad-side-on position will be—
master gland in human body ? (A) 1 (B) 2
(A) Pituitary (B) Thyroid (C) 3 (D) 0·5
(C) Adrenal (D) Pineal
118. What would be the temperature of the water-
110. Which metal is used in storage battery surface of a lake which is just going to freeze ?
(accumulator) ? (A) 0° C (B) – 4° C
(A) Copper (B) Iron
(C) 4° C (D) 20° C
(C) Lead (D) Zinc
111. Dynamo converts— 119. A jet engine functions on which of the
following principles ?
(A) High voltage into low voltage
(B) Electrical energy into mechanical energy (A) Conservation of matter
(C) Mechanical energy into electrical energy (B) Conservation of energy
(D) Low voltage into high voltage (C) Conservation of angular moment
112. 2
If log10 (x – 6x + 45) = 2, then the value of x (D) Conservation of linear momentum
will be— 120. A wire of 4 Ω resistance is folded in the
(A) 10, 5 (B) 11, –5 middle at 180° and its both the ends are
(C) 6, 9 (D) 9, –5 joined. What will be its new resistance ?
113. Velocity of a particle is reduced to one-third (A) 1 Ω (B) 2 Ω
of its initial velocity. Kinetic energy of the 1
particle will become— (C) Ω (D) 4 Ω
4
10 | Railway Pilot

Answers with Explanations R×4

⇒ = 2–1=1
25
01. (C) Let the number of boy students in the 25 1
school be 5x and that of girl-students is 2x. ∴ R = %=6 %
4 4
Then, 5x – 2x = 450 ∴ Amount after 8 years
⇒ x = 150 25 × 8
∴ Number of total students (
= P 1+) 4 × 100
= 5x + 2x
= 7 × 150 = 1050 ( )
= P 1+
1
2
02. (C) . . .B F J : R :: OAF:? 1
⇒ (2 + 6 + 10) : 18 : : (15 + 1 + 6) : ? = 1 times × principal amount
2
22 × 18 13. (C) Let the cost price of the article be = Rs. x
∴ ? =
18 Then, the sale price of the article
= 22 = V (100 + 25)
= x
03. (A) . . . X P T : J H L : : B D L : ? 100
⇒ (24 + 16 + 20) : (10 + 8 + 12) 5
= Rs. x
: : (2 + 4 + 12) : ? 4
∴
30 × 18 Marked price of the article = Rs. 50
∴ ? = = 9
60 As per question,
= (6 + 1 + 2) = F A B 5 (100 – 10)
⇒ x = 50 ×
04. (B) Let the number be = x 4 100
4 3 40 90
Then, x × × × = 48 = 50 ×
5 4 100 100
48 × 25 4
⇒ x = ∴ x = × 45 = Rs. 36
6 5
= 200 14. (D) L. C. M. of 4, 12, 16 = 48
∴
∴ 1 per cent of the number 48 × 1 + 3 = 51, Not divisible by 7
1 and 48 × 2 + 3 = 99, Not divisible by 7
= 200 × =2
100 but, 48 × 3 + 3 = 147, Divisible 7
2
05. (C) Expression = 2(–2) ∴ Lowest multiple of 7 = 147
= 2(–2) × (–2) 15. (B) Let simple annual interest be
= 24 = 16 = R%
06. (D) (Sum of two positive numbers)2 Then, as per question
= 9 = 32 P × R × 15
3P =
⇒ Sum of two positive numbers 100
= 3 = (1 + 2) ⇒ R = 20%
∴ Sum of the cube of those numbers 16. (C) Let the length of the bridge be = x metre
= 13 + 2 3 . . . Speed of the train = 45 km/hr
= 1+8 = 9 5 25
= 45 × = m/sec
07. (C) 8. (D) 9. (B) 10. (D) 11. (D) 18 2
... Distance = Speed × time
12. (B) Let the sum of money = Rs. P
It becomes double in 16 years. Let the rate of 25
⇒ (130 + x) = × 30 = 375
simple annual interest be R% 2
R × 16 ∴
∴
(
2P = P 1 + )
100
x = 375 – 130
= 245 metres
 Railway Pilot | 11

17. (A) . . . Length of diagonal of square-shaped 22. (D) Average of first 50 natural numbers
farm 1
= [Sum of natural numbers]
(= 4× )
5
18
× (3 × 60)
=
50
1
[1 + 2 + 3 + …… + 50]
= 200 metre 50
∴ Area of square-shaped form 1 50
= × × (1 + 50)
1 1 50 2
= × (Diagonal)2 = × (200)2
2 2 51
= = 25·50
= 20,000 m2 2
18. (B) Let the capacity of the canister be = x 23. (D) Weight of new man
bottles = 65 kg. + 8 × 1·5
Then, as per question, = (65 + 12) kg.
∴ 4 3 = 77 kg.
·x–6 = ·x
5 4 24. (A) 6th observation
⇒ ( ) 4 3
5 4
– ·x = 6 ` = 11 × 60 – [5 × 58 + 5 × 56]
= 660 – [290 + 280]
⇒ ( ) 16 – 15
20
·x = 6 = 660 – 570
= 90
∴ x = 6 × 20 25. (B) Teacher’s age
= 120 bottles = (25 + 1) × (10 + 1) – 25 × 10
19. (B) ∴ x:y :: 5:2 = 286 – 250
8x + 9y = 36 years
∴ Expression =
8x + 2y 26. (B) Let the three numbers be A, B and C
x 5 respectively.
8· + 9 8× +9 ∴
y 2 A : B = 2 : 3 = 10 : 15
= =
x 5
8· + 2 8× +2 B : C = 5 : 8 = 15 : 24
y 3
∴ A : B : C = 10 : 15 : 24
29
= = 29 : 22 As per question
22
... 10x + 15x + 24x = 98
x
20. (A) Let required fraction be = 98
1 ⇒ x =
= x:1 49
Then, as per question, = 2
1 3 5 ∴ Second number = B = 15x
x: :: : = 15 × 2
27 11 9
5 1 3 1 = 30
⇒ x× = × = 27. (B) . . . L. C. M. of 4, 5 and 6
9 27 11 99
9 1 1 = 2 × 2 × 3 × 5 = 60
∴ x = × = ∴ The number of required numbers
5 99 55
21. (A) Let three required numbers be x, 2x and 600 – 200
=
3x, respectively. 60
H. C. F. of three numbers = x 40 2
= = 6
= 12 6 3
∴ Required numbers = 12, 12 × 2, 12 × 3 = 6 Numbers
= 12, 24, 36 [240, 300, 360, 420, 480 and 540]
12 | Railway Pilot

28. (A) . . . Perpendicular height of the largest Let that sum become 4 times in T years
triangle drawn in a semi-circle of radius r = r P × 50 × T
∴ 4P – P =
C 3 × 100
T
⇒ 3 =
r 3×2
r r ⇒ T = 18 years
A O B
33. (C) Cost price of 12 tables = Sale price of
∴ Area of the largest possible triangle 16 tables
1
= (base × height) ∴Cost price of 1 table =
16
2 12
1
= (2r) × (r) = r2 4
2 = Sale price of tables
3
.
29. (C) . . log 27 = 1og 3 3 ∴ Required per cent loss
= 3·log 3 = 1·431
Cost price – Sale price
1·431 = × 100%
⇒ log 3 = Cost price
3
∴ log 9 = log 32 = 2 log 3 4
–1
3
= 2×
1·431 2·862
= = × 100%

= 0·954
3 3
() 4
3
30. (B) Let x be a side of newly formed cube after 1
= × 100% = 25%
melting the three cubes. 4
∴ x3 = (63 + 8 3 + 10 3 ) cm3 34. (C) Let the cost price of electric press be
= (216 + 512 + 1000) cm3 = Rs. x
= 1728 cm3 = 12 3 cm3 As per question,
∴ x = 12 cm ... Rs. 600 =
(100 + 20)
×x
31. (D) Let the side of a square be = a 100
Length of the side after elongating 25% 6
= x
(100 + 25) 5 5
= a× = ·a 5
100 4 ⇒ x = × 600 = Rs. 500
∴ Percentage increase in area of the square 6
∴ First sale price of the press
=
5
4 ( ) 2
a – a2
× 100% =
(100 + 15)
×x
a2 100
=
25
16( )
– 1 × 100% =
115
100
× 500 = Rs. 575
9 225 35. (B) Let the required number be = x
= × 100% = %
16 4 Then,
= 56·25% ...
32. (C) Let any sum be = Rs. P 75 + 75% of x = x
75
It becomes double in 6 years at the annual ⇒ 75 + x × = x
simple interest rate of R% 100

∴ P =
P×R×6
100
⇒ x ( )
1–
3
4
= 75

100 2 ∴ x = 4 × 75
⇒ R = = 16 %
6 3 = 300
 Railway Pilot | 13

36. (D) Let the height of B be = 100 cm. 41. (B) Let the values of angles of a triangle be
(100 + 10) 2x°, 7x° and 11x°, respectively
∴ Height of A = × 100 . . . 2x° + 7x° + 11x° = 180°
100
= 110 cm ⇒ 20x° = 180°
∴ Fall of percentage in required height ∴ x° = 9°
(110 – 100) Hence, the values of the angles of triangle are
= × 100%
100 18°, 63°, 99°.
10 × 100 100
= % = % 42. (A) .. . Volume of milk in the mixture
110 11
7
= 9 %
1 × 30
=
11 (7 + 3)
37. (A) As per question, in the number 65 xy, x = 21 litre
and y are such digits that 65 x y is fully Volume of water in the mixture
divisible by 80. 3
= × 30
Then, y = 0 (7 + 3)
. . . In the numbers 651, 652, 653, 654, … 659, = 9 litre
only 656 is divisible by 8. For required ratio in the mixture, let the
Namely, 6560 ÷ 80 = 82 volume of mixed water be = x litre
So, x = 6 Then,
∴ x+y = 6+0 ... 21 3
=
= 6 (9 + x) 7
. . ⇒ (9 + x) = 49
38. (B) . Part of work done by (A + B) in 1 day
1 1 1 ∴ x = 49 – 9
= + = part = 40 litre
6 12 4
⇒ (A + B) will complete the work in 43. (C) Let the one side of the equilateral triangle
be
= 4 days
= a cm
∴ Part of work done by A in 4 days
Then length of radius of circumcircle
1
= 4× =
a
= 8 cm.
6
3
2
= part ⇒ a = 8 3 cm.
3
39. (B) First term of geometric progression ∴ Length of the radius of circumcircle
= a a 8 3
8 == = 4 cm.
. . . Sum of eight terms G. P. = a (3 – 1) 2 3 2 3
(3 – 1)
44. (A) Formation process and sequence of series
= 6560 are as below—
2 × 6560
∴ a = 35
(38 – 1) 0 3 8 15 24 ? 48
2 × 6560
= =2
(6561 – 1) +3 +5 +7 +9 + 11 + 13
40. (C) Let monthly income of the employee be ∴ Missing term = 24 + 11
= Rs. x = 35
8 1
Then, x × × = Rs. 72 45. (D) Rationalisation factor of 3⎯
√ 3 = ⎯√ 3
3 100
⇒ x = 9 × 300 [ . 3√
. . ⎯ 3 × ⎯√ 3 = 9]
= Rs. 2700 46. (A) 47. (B)
14 | Railway Pilot

48. (D) Part of the tank filled in 1 minute by 10 68. (A) Curved surface = 2πrh
1 22
taps =
24 = 2 × × 3 × 14
7
⇒ Part of the tank filled by one tap in 1 = 264 metre2
minute 69. (C) 70. (B)
=
1 71. (C) 0·1 × 0·1 × 0·01 × 0·1
240 = 0·00001
∴ Part of the tank filled by 9 taps in 1 minute 72. (C) Area of whole curved surface of the
9 cylinder
= = 2πR (H + R)
240
Time taken by 9 taps to fill the tank fully = 2π × 5 × (10 + 5)
240 = 150 π cm2
= minutes 231 19
9 73. (C) 2·3 × 0·019 = ×
102 103
2
= 26 minutes 4389
3 =
105
49. (C) 50. (D)
= 0·04389
51. (B) Area of the external lateral surface of the
74. (B) Q 4 Men complete the work in
geyser = 2π R. H.
22 35 = 3 hours
= 2 × × × 120 cm2 ⇒ 1 man will comlete the work in
7 2
= 110 × 120 = 4 × 3 hrs.
= 13200 cm2 ∴ 6 men will complete the work
52. (C) Let marked price of the article be = Rs. x 4×3
= = 2 hrs
Then, as per question, 6
75. (B) Speed of current
. . . x × (100 – 16) = Rs. 546
100 1
= [Speed in direction of current –
546 × 100 2
∴ x = = 26 × 25 Speed in anti-current direction]
84

53. (B)
13
=
= Rs. 650
13 × 8
= [ ]
1 18 18
2 4 12
– km/hr
125 125 × 8
2 [ 12 ]
18 3 – 1
=
104
= = 0·124
1000 = 1·5 km/hr
54. (B) 55. (B) 56. (C) 76. (B) Quantity of gold in the alloy
57. (B) Let present age of Ritu be 4x years and
80
that of Raj is x years. Then, = 50 × = 40 gms
100
... 4x + 4 2
= Let the quantity of gold mixed with be
x+4 1
⇒ 4x + 4 = 2x + 8 = x gm
8–4 Then, as per question,
⇒ x = = 2 years
2 ... (40 + x) 95 19
= =
∴ Present age of Ritu is 8 years and that of (50 + x) 100 20
Raj is 2 years. ⇒ 800 + 20x = 950 + 19x
58. (D) 59. (C) 60. (C) 61. (B) 62. (D) ⇒ (20 – 19)x = 950 – 800
63. (D) 64. (A) 65. (C) 66. (B) 67. (C) ∴ x = 150 gm
 Railway Pilot | 15

77. (B) Let the capacity of the bucket be 4+3 √

⎯3
= x litre 80. (C) Expression =
Then, as per question, ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
√ 7+4 √
⎯3
. . . 80% of x – 662% of x = 2 litre 6+3 √
⎯3 – 2
3 =

⇒ [x
80 200
– ]= 2
⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
√ (4 + 3 + 2·2 √⎯ 3)
100 300
x =
(
3 2+√
⎯3 – 2)
⇒ [240 – 200] = 2
300
2 × 300
√⎯⎯⎯
⎯ (2 + √⎯ 3) 2

∴ x = (
3 2+√
⎯3 – 2)
40
=
= 15 litre (2 + √⎯ 3)
78. (C) . . . Monthly income = Rs. 13,500
Monthly expenditure = Rs. 9000 2 (2 – √
⎯ 3)
= 3–
⇒ Monthly savings = 13500 – 9000 (2 + √⎯ 3) (2 – √⎯ 3)
= Rs. 4500
2 (2 – √
⎯ 3)
As per question next year = 3–
(4 – 3)
114
Monthly income = 13500 × = 3–4+2⎯
√3
100
= Rs. 15390 = 2√ ⎯3 – 1
107 = 2 × 1·732 – 1
Monthly income = 9000 ×
100 = 3·464 – 1
= Rs. 9630 = 2·464
∴ Monthly savings = 15390 – 9630 81. (B) 82. (A) 83. (A) 84. (D) 85. (C)
= Rs. 5760 86. (C) 87. (C) 88. (B) 89. (B) 90. (D)
∴ Percentage of required in savings 91. (C) 92. (C) 93. (B) 94. (B)
a
5760 – 4500 95. (D) Dimension of P and will be the same
= × 100% ⎯2
√
4500
= 28% MLT–2 a
=
79. (B) Let bottom B of the ladder be pulled out 2 6
be x feet from the wall so that the top A is
lowered by 1 foot. ⇒ [a] = [ML5T–2]
P 96. (B) Let number of tools manufactured
monthly in the factory be = x
1 Feet
A Then, a per question,
Production in first week = 40% of x
13 der
t
Fee

40 2
12 Feet = x×
d

= x
La

100 5
Production in second week
B x Feet Q 2
50% of = x
BQ2 = AB2 – AQ2 5
⇒ x2 = 132 – 122 2 50
= x×
= 169 – 144 = 5 2 5 100
∴ x = 5 feet 1
= x
5
16 | Railway Pilot

∴ Production in third and fourth weeks 100. (D) 101. (C) 102. (B)
= x–( 2
5
x+ x
1
5) 103. (C) Following is the given number series—
3
×1+1
3 4
⇒ 17488 = x – x ×2+2
5
10
2 ×3+3
= x 33 ?
5
×4+4
∴ Required monthly quota = x 136
×5+5
5 × 17488 685
=
2
∴ ? = 10 × 3 + 3 = 33
= 43720 104. (C) As, O T R N
97. (D) Let cost price of camera for A be = Rs. x
–2↓ –2↓ –2↓ –2↓
⇒ Cost price of the camera for B
M R P L
112 28
= x× = Rs. x Similarly, E J I D
100 25
⇒ Cost price of camera for C –2↓ –2↓ –2↓ –2↓
C H G B
=( )28
25
x ×
95
100 105. (D) Rise in average after 17th innings = 3
Total increase in runs after 17th innings
=( )28
25
x × Rs.
19
20 = 3 × 17 = 51
But, The player scored 85 runs in 17th innings.
. . . 28 x × 19 = Rs. 1896 ∴ His averaged of 16th innings
25 20 = 85 – 51 = 34
1896 × 500 ∴ Average of his 17th innings
∴ x =
28 × 19 = 34 + 3 = 37
= Rs. 1781·95 106. (B) 18 Percentage of pure gold in 18 carat
98. (C) Given expression
= 0·1 × 0·1 × 0·001 × 0·1 18
= × 100%
= 0·000001 24
99. (A) .. . ∠ KLM = 2 × ∠ KJM =
3
× 100% = 75%
= 2 × 68° = 136° 4
1 107. (B) 108. (D) 109. (A) 110. (C) 111. (C)
∠ LKO = (180° – ∠ KLM)
2 112. (B) . . . log10 (x2 – 6x + 45) = 2
L
⇒ x2 – 6x + 45 = 102 = 100
136°
K M
⇒ x2 – 6x – 55 = 0
O
⇒ (x – 11) (x + 5) = 0
∴ x = 11, – 5
68° 113. (B) 114. (A)
J
115. (C) Let required velocity be = V m/sec
. . ... V = U + ft
[ . LK = LM ⇒ ∠ LKO = ∠ LMO]
1 1 ⇒ V = 0 + 9·8 × 3
= (180° – 136°) = (44°) ∴ V = 29·4 m/sec2
2 2
= 22° 116. (B) 117. (B) 118. (C) 119. (D) 120. (A)

⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
General Knowledge Overview
with Current Affairs
(Objective Type Questions)
 Indian History and Culture
1. Who put up the most stiff resistance against 9. The given map refers to the kingdom of—
the British in India ?
(A) The Marathas (B) The Rajputs
(C) The Sikhs (D) The Moghals
2. Which amidst the following sites/monuments
is not on the UNESCO’s list of World Cultural
Heritages ?
(A) Agra Fort
(B) Humayun’s Tomb at Delhi
(C) Tirupathi-Tirumala Temples
(D) Keoladeo National Park
3. The ancient Indian play Mudrarakshasa of
Visakhadutt has its subject on—
(A) A conflict between Gods and Demons of (A) Akbar at the time of capture of Khandesh
ancient Hindu lore in 1601
(B) The court intrigues at the time of (B) Akbar at the time of his death in 1605
Chandragupta Maurya (C) Aurangzeb at the time of capture of
(C) A romantic story of an Aryan prince and Hyderabad
a tribal woman
(D) Aurangzeb at the time of his death in
(D) The story of power struggle between 1707
two Aryan tribes
4. The practice of military governorship was 10. Who defeated whom in the second Battle of
first introduced in India by the— Tarain (1192 A.D.) ?
(A) Greeks (B) Shakas (A) Prithviraj defeated Mohammad Ghauri
(C) Parthians (D) Mughals (B) Mahmud Ghazni defeated Prithviraj
5. The Raga which is sung early in the morning (C) Prithviraj defeated Mahmud Ghazni
is— (D) Mohammad Ghauri defeated Prithviraj
(A) Todi (B) Darbari
11. Who issued a token currency in copper coins
(C) Bhopali (D) Bhimpalasi
between A.D. 1329 and 1330 ?
6. Which one of the following dynasties was
(A) Alauddin Khalji
ruling over North India at the time of
Alexander's invasion ? (B) Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq
(A) Nanda (B) Maurya (C) Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq
(C) Sunga (D) Kanva (D) Firoj Tughlaq
7. Which among the following was sent by the 12. Which one of the following Muslim rulers
Greek sovereigns as ambassadors to Patali- was hailed as the 'Jagdamba' by his Muslim
putra ? subjects because of his belief in secularism ?
(A) Aristotle (B) Plato (A) Husain Shah (B) Zain-ul-Abidin
(C) Neither of these (D) Megasthenes (C) Ibrahim Adil Shah (D) Mahmud II
8. Who among the following streamlined the 13. Mansabdari system was introduced in Mughal
Maratha administration after Sambhaji ? administration by—
(A) Raja Ram (B) Balaji Viswanath (A) Shah Jahan (B) Akbar
(C) Ganga Bai (D) Nanaji Deshmukh (C) Jahangir (D) Babar
4A | O.G.K.

14. 'Chauth' was— Which of these statements are correct ?

(A) A religious tax imposed by Aurangzeb (A) 1 and 3 (B) 1, 2 and 4
(B) Toll tax imposed by Shivaji (C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) 2, 3 and 4
(C) Irrigation tax charged by Akbar 22. Who among the following Hindu religious
(D) Land tax levied by Shivaji on neighbour- teachers was called to the Ibadat Khana of
ing states Emperor Akbar ?
15. The Indus Valley Houses were built of— (A) Hari Vijaya Suri
(A) Bricks (B) Bamboos (B) Purushottama
(C) Banuchandra Upadhayya
(C) Stones (D) Wood
(D) Vijay Sen Suri
16. The paintings in the Ajanta and Ellora caves 23. Gautam Buddha was born in—
are indicative of the development of art under
the— (A) Bodha Gaya (B) Patliputra
(C) Lumbini (D) Vaishali
(A) Rashtrakutas (B) Pallavas
(C) Pandyas (D) Chalukyas 24. The Indus Valley people were familiar with
the use of—
17. Tansen, a great musician of his time, was in (A) Tin, copper and iron
the court of— (B) Tin, lead and copper
(A) Jahangir (B) Akbar (C) Copper and lead
(C) Shah Jahan (D) Bahadur Shah (D) Copper alone
18. The Court language of the Mughals was— 25. Match List-I with List-II and select the
(A) Urdu (B) Hindi correct answer using the codes given below
(C) Arabic (D) Persian the lists—
19. Who was sent to foreign countries by Asoka List-I List-II
to preach Buddhism ? (a) 78 A.D. 1. Sack of Somnath
(A) Devanampiya (B) Menander Temple
(C) Sanghamitra (D) None of these (b) 476 A.D. 2. Birth of the astro-
nomer Aryabhatta
20. Consider the following statements regarding (c) 1025 A.D. 3. Commencement
the Arab conquest of Sindh— of the Saka Era
1. It did not prove to be permanent. (d) 647 A.D. 4. Death of Harsha
2. It was adequately supported by the Vardhana
Caliphs. Codes :
3. It lasted for about three centuries. (a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 3 4 1
Which of these statements are correct ?
(B) 2 3 1 4
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1 and 2 (C) 3 2 1 4
(C) 2 and 3 (D) 1 and 3 (D) 3 2 4 1
21. Consider the following statements regarding 26. The founder of the pala dynasty of Bengal
the Vijaynagar empire— was—
1. It was named after the city of Vijaynagar. (A) Dharmapala (B) Gopala
2. Krishnadeva Raya was the greatest of all (C) Devapala (D) Mahipala
the Vijaynagar rulers. 27. Assertion (A)—Alauddin Khalji imposed
3. Kings of Vijaynagar ruled on behalf of curbs on the power of the nobility.
Shaivite deity Virupaksha. Reason (R)—Nobles were against Alauddin
4. Vijaynagar empire successfully resisted at the time of his struggle with Jalaluddin.
the march of the Delhi sultans to the (A) Both A and R are true and R is the
South. correct explanation of A
 O.G.K. | 5A

(B) Both A and R are true and R is not the (c) Jhummar 3. Punjab
correct explanation of A (d) Thabal Chongba 4. Tripura
(C) A is true but R is false
Codes :
(D) A is false but R is true
28. Consider the following events : (a) (b) (c) (d)
1. Siraj-ud-Daulah's invasion of the British (A) 1 2 3 4
factory at Kasimbazar. (B) 4 2 3 1
2. Black Hole Tragedy. (C) 1 3 2 4
3. Battle of Plassey. (D) 4 3 2 1
4. Treaty of Alinagar.
33. 'Karagam' a religious folkdance is associated
The correct chronological sequence of these with—
events is— (A) Tamilnadu (B) Kerala
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4 (B) 1, 2, 4, 3 (C) Andhra Pradesh (D) Karnataka
(C) 3, 4, 1, 2 (D) 3, 4, 2, 1
34. Musical instrument ‘sitar’ is the combination
29. Buddha’s preachings were concerned most of—
with—
(A) Bansuri and Veena
(A) Devotionalism (B) Bansuri and Sarangi
(B) Purity of thought and conduct (C) Veena and Tambura
(C) Ritualism (D) Veena and Piano
(D) Belief in the same God 35. Which of the following Tombs is called the
30. The first Muslim ruler to introduce the system second Tajmahal ?
of price control was— (A) Tomb of Anarkali
(A) Balban (B) Tomb of Itimad-ud-Daula
(B) Jalaluddin Khalji (C) Tomb of Rabia-ud-Daurani
(C) Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq (D) None of these
(D) Alauddin Khalji
36. Who was the last Nawab of Lucknow?
31. Match List-I with List-II and select the
(A) Mohd. Ali Shah (B) Vajid Ali Shah
correct answer from the code given below the
lists : (C) Nasiruddin (D) Nissiuddaulah
List-I (Works) List-II (Subject) 37. First Buddhist conference after the death of
Buddha was presided over by—
(a) Astanga-Sangrah 1. Dramaturgy
(A) Mahakashyapa (B) Dharmasen
(b) Dasarupka 2. Grammar
(C) Ajatashatru (D) Nagasen
(c) Leelavati 3. Mathematics
(d) Mahabhasya 4. Medicine 38. Which one of the following places was
known as The 'Shiraj of the East' during the
Codes :
reign of the Sharki Sultans ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) Agra (B) Jaunpur
(A) 3 2 1 4 (C) Delhi (D) Varanasi
(B) 4 1 3 2
39. For the first time the Department of Public
(C) 2 3 4 1 works was established by—
(D) 1 4 2 3 (A) Iltutmish
32. Match List-I with List-II and select the (B) Balban
correct answer using the codes given below (C) Alauddin Khalji
the lists : (D) Firoz Shah Tughlaq
List-I (Folkdance) List-II (State) 40. Losoong is a festival which is celebrated in—
(a) Garia 1. Manipur (A) Tibet (B) Arunachal Pradesh
(b) Garba 2. Gujarat (C) Sikkim (D) Kerala
6A | O.G.K.

41. Given below is a list of traditional dresses of (C) Shiva Shakti

women alongwith states. Which one of them (D) Maha Bali
is not correctly matched ?
(A) Boku — Sikkim 49. The author of 'Arthashastra' was a contempo-
rary of—
(B) Mekhala — Assam
(A) Ashoka
(C) Mundu — Chhattisgarh
(B) Chandragupta Maurya
(D) Pheran — Kashmir (C) Chandragupta Vikramaditya
42. From the excavations of which ancient site (D) Samudra Gupta
information is gathered regarding brisk trade
50. The world famous rock cut Kailasa Temple at
relations between India and Rome during early Ellora was built by the—
centuries of Christian era—
(A) Mauryas (B) Pallavas
(A) Madurai (B) Tamralipti
(C) Chalukyas (D) Rashtrakutas
(C) Tondi (D) Arikamedu
51. Which one of the following silsilas of Sufism
43. Find the two main currencies of Sultanate was against music ?
period from the codes given below :
(A) Chishtiya (B) Suhrawardiya
1. Dam 2. Jital (C) Qadiriya (D) Naqshbandiya
3. Rupiya 4. Tanka
52. Select the correct chronological order for the
Codes : following Muslim rulers form the codes given
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 1 and 3 below the names—
(C) 2 and 3 (D) 2 and 4 1. Ahmad Shah Abdali
44. Moti Masjid in the Red Fort at Delhi was 2. Mohammad Shah
built by— 3. Jehangir
(A) Akbar (B) Jehangir 4. Bahadur Shah
(C) Shahjahan (D) Aurangzeb Codes :
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4 (B) 4, 3, 2, 1
45. Who among the following Mughal emperors
wrote his autobiography in Persian— (C) 3, 2, 1, 4 (D) 2, 1, 3, 4
(A) Babar (B) Akbar 53. Late Dr. M. S. Subbulakshmi distinguished
(C) Jehangir (D) Aurangzeb herself in the field of—
(A) Kathak (B) Bharatnatyam
46. Alexanders' success in India was due to : (C) Playing violin (D) Vocal music
1. There was no central power in India.
2. He had a superior army. 54. 'Din-i-Ilahi' was founded by—
3. He received help from the traitorous (A) Guru Nanak Dev
Indian rulers. (B) Kabir
4. He was a good administrator. (C) Akbar
Select your answer from the following— (D) Shahjahan
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 1, 2 and 3 55. Which of the following performing arts is
(C) 2, 3 and 4 (D) All of these associated with Sumyukta Panigrahi ?
47. Which one of the following is a famous place (A) Painting (B) Violin
of pilgrimage for Jains ? (C) Dance (D) Sports
(A) Parasnath (B) Sarnath 56. Who was the most distinguished Hindi poet
(C) Sanchi (D) Nalanda of Akbar's Court ?
48. The festival of 'Onam' is associated with the (A) Birbal
legend of— (B) Abdur Rahim Khan-i-Khana
(A) Ram's victory over Ravana (C) Raja Bhagwan Dass
(B) Durga's killing of Mahishasur (D) Raja Man Singh
 O.G.K. | 7A

57. Consider the following statements— 63. The Mathura school of Art was influenced
(I) Parshvanatha preached the Jain ideas of by—
Satya, Ahimsa, Asteya and Aparigraha. (A) Amaravati school of Art
(II) Mahavira introduced Brahmacharya. (B) Bodh Gaya school of Art
(III) Mahavira's teachings were first collected (C) Roman school of Art
in the third country B.C. (D) Gandhara school of Art
Which of these statements are correct ? 64. Which one of the following has been the main
(A) I and II (B) I and III feature of the South Indian temple archi-
tecture ?
(C) II and III (D) I, II and III
(A) Sikhara (B) Gopuram
58. Which one of the following Mughal emperors (C) Vimana (D) Mandapa
donated land for the construction of the
golden Temple at Amritsar ? 65. The famous Brihadeeswara temple in Tanjore
was built by—
(A) Akbar (B) Humayun
(A) Pallavas (B) Cholas
(C) Jahangir (D) Shahjahan (C) Pandyas (D) Chalukyas
59. Consider the following statements : 66. Consider the following statements about the
Aurangzeb proceeded to Deccan in 1681 Permanent settlement
for— 1. It ensured a regular flow of income to the
1. Crushing the Marathas. state.
2. Annexing Golconda and Bijapur. 2. Peasants already knew the amount of
3. Driving out the Portuguese from Goa. revenue to be paid.
4. Subduing the revolts of Mughal nobility. 3. It was introduced simultaneously in
Which of these statements are correct ? Bengal, Bihar and Orissa.
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2, 3 and 4 Which of these statements are correct ?
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 1 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 4 (D) 1, 3 and 4
(C) 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3
60. Who among the following, destroyed the 67. The famous Jain scholar Hemachandra was
group of Forty Nobles ? patronized by—
(A) Baharam Shah (B) Iltutmish (A) Amogha Varsha
(C) Sultan Razia (D) Balban (B) Chandragupta Maurya
61. Assertion (A) : The Mauryas achieved (C) Dharmapala
political supremacy over the whole of India. (D) Kumarapala Chalukya
Reason (R) : The Mauryan army was the 68. Which one of following is not a source of
largest known to ancient India. information for the early history of the
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the Aryans in India ?
correct explanation of A (A) Vedas (B) Brahmanas
(B) Both A and R are true but R is not a (C) Smritis (D) Upanishads
correct explanation of A 69. Match List-I with List-II and select the
(C) A is true but R is false correct answer with the help of the codes
(D) A is false but R is true given ahead the lists :
List-I List-II
62. Consider the following foreign travellers :
(Buildings) (Location)
1. Nicolo Conti 2. Abdur Razzaq (a) Adina mosque 1. Gaur (Bengal)
3. Bernier 4. Tavernier (b) Mahmud Gawan's 2. Delhi
Among these, those who visited the Vijaya- Madrasa
nagar Empire include— (c) Jahaz Mahal 3. Mandu
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1 and 2 (d) Kalam Masjid 4. Pandua (Bengal)
(C) 1, 3 and 4 (D) 2 and 4 5. Bidar
8A | O.G.K.

Codes : 75. Hoysala monuments are found in :

(a) (b) (c) (d) (A) Hampi and Hospet
(A) 2 3 1 5 (B) Halebid and Belur
(B) 4 5 3 2 (C) Mysore and Bengalore
(C) 3 4 5 2 (D) Sringeri and Dharwar
(D) 4 5 2 3 76. Who among the following Indian rulers esta-
70. Amir Khusrau was the famous poet in the blished embassies in foreign countries on
Court of— modern lines ?
(A) Akbar (A) Haider Ali (B) Mir Qasim
(B) Shahjahan (C) Shah Alam II (D) Tipu Sultan
(C) Ibrahim Lodhi 77. Which of the following pairs is not correctly
matched ?
(D) Alauddin Khalji
(A) India's first technicolour film—Jhansi Ki
71. Which one of the Chola Kings conquered Rani
Ceylon ? (B) India's first 3-D film—My Dear Kutti-
(A) Aditya I (B) Rajaraja I chathan
(C) Rajendra (D) Vijayalaya (C) India's first insured film—Taal
72. Who among the following presided over the (D) India's first actress to win the Bharat
Buddhist Council held during the reign of Ratna—Meena Kumari
Kanishka at Kashmir ? 78. Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq's experiment of
(A) Parsva (B) Nagarjuna introducing token currency failed on account
(C) Sudraka (D) Vasumitra of the—
73. Which one of the following animals was not (A) Rejection of token coins for purchases by
represented on the seals and terracotta art of foreign merchants
the Harappan culture ? (B) Melting of token coins
(A) Coco (B) Elephant (C) Large scale minting of spurious coins
(C) Rhinoceros (D) Tiger (D) Poor quality of token currency
74. 79. Who issued a firman on 12 August 1765
granting to the English the Diwani of Bengal,
Bihar and Orissa ?
(A) Shah Alam II (B) Bahadur Shah
(C) Furrukhsiyar (D) Muhammad Shah
80. Consider the following statements :
1. Arya Samaj was founded in 1835.
2. Lala Lajpat Rai opposed the appeal of
Arya Samaj to the authority of Vedas in
support of its social reform programmes.
3. Under Keshab Chandra Sen, The Brahm
Samaj campaigned for women's educa-
The shaded area in the above map shows the tion.
empire of : 4. Vinoba Bhave founded the Sarvodaya
(A) Ala-ud-din Khalji Samaj to work among refugees.
(B) Mohammad Tughlaq Which of these statements are correct ?
(C) Shahjahan (A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3
(D) Aurangzeb (C) 2 and 4 (D) 3 and 4
 O.G.K. | 9A

81. The Mangols under Gengis Khan invaded 89. Who among the following Chola Kings
India during the reign of— reigned as Kulotting Chola-I ?
(A) Balban (A) Vikramaditya I
(B) Feroz Tughlaq (B) Vikramaditya II
(C) Iltutmish (C) Rajaraja Narendra I
(D) Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq (D) Rajendra III
82. Which one of the following pairs is correctly 90. Which one of the following sources of Islam
matched ? is associated with the preaching of Prophet
(A) Harappan civilization—Painted grey Mohammad ?
Ware Art (A) Quran (B) Hidaya
(B) The Kushans—Gandhara School of Art
(C) Fiqah (D) Sunnah
(C) The Mughals—Ajanta Paintings
(D) The Marathas—Pahari School of Painting 91. The French East India Company was formed
in—
83. Guru Nanak preached—
(A) 1600 (B) 1660
(A) The unity of the Sikhs (C) 1664 (D) 1668
(B) Sikh religion
(C) Making Sikhs a militant organisation 92. The Indus Valley people traded with the—
(A) Chinese (B) Mesopotamians
(D) Human brotherhood
(C) Parthians (D) Romans
84. Which of the following pairs is correctly
matched ? 93. The Indian National song was composed
(A) Dewan-i-Bandagani—Tughlaq by—
(B) Dewan-i-Mustakhraj—Balban (A) Rabindranath Tagore
(C) Dewan-i-Kohi—Alauddin Khilji (B) Bankim Chandra Chatterji
(D) Dewan-i-Arz—Muhammad Tughlaq (C) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(D) Sarojini Naidu
85. In which one of the following cities is the
Lingaraja Temple located ? 94. Nander Gurudwara is sacred to Sikhs because
(A) Bhubaneswar (B) Bijapur of the tomb of—
(C) Kolkata (D) Shreavanabelagola (A) Guru Amar Das
(B) Guru Angad
86. Which one of the following pairs (of
(C) Guru Arjun Dev
dynasties and their founders) is not correctly
(D) Guru Govind Singh
matched ?
(A) Slave dynasty — Balban 95. Harihara and Bukka founded which Indian
(B) Tughlaq dynasty — Ghiyasuddin Kingdom/dynasty ?
(C) Khalji dynasty — Jalaluddin (A) Vijayanagar (B) Bahamani
(D) Second Afghan Empire — Shershah Suri (C) The Marathas (D) The Tughlaq
87. Babar came to India originally from— 96. Which one of the following places is consi-
(A) Farghana (B) Khiva dered to be a Jain Siddha-Kshetra on account
(C) Khorasan (D) Seistan of its association with Parsvanatha ?
(A) Champa
88. Which one of the following was the result of (B) Pavapuri
the third Buddhist council in ancient India ?
(C) Sammeda Shikhara
(A) Adoption of Vinaya Pitaka
(D) Urjayanta
(B) Compilation of Abhidhamma Pitaka
(C) Permanent split of Buddhist Church into 97. The Torah is the holy book of which Commu-
Stharviras and Mahasanghikas nity ?
(D) Composition of commentaries known as (A) Rastafarians (B) Buddhists
Vibhashas (C) Jews (D) Jesuits
 10A | O.G.K.

98. Four important rulers : 3. Battle with Pushyamitra

1. Adil Shah II 4. Battle with Seleucus Nikator
2. Allauddin Bahman Shah 5. Battle of Koppam
3. Krishnadeva Raya Codes :
4. Chand Bibi (a) (b) (c) (d)
Ruled over provincial Kingdoms at one time (A) 5 4 2 1
or the other. The chronological order in which (B) 5 3 2 4
they appeared is— (C) 2 3 5 1
(A) 4, 3, 2, 1 (B) 1, 3, 2, 4 (D) 2 3 5 4
(C) 2, 4, 1, 3 (D) 2, 3, 4, 1
103. Match List-I with List-II and select the
99. The Finance Minister during the Mughal rule correct answer using the codes given ahead
was— the lists :
(A) Emperor (B) Sadr List-I
(C) Diwan-i-Ala (D) Mir-i-Bakshi (a) Rigveda
100. Consider the following statements. Islam (b) Yajurveda
became popular in India due to : (c) Samaveda
1. Its ideals of common brotherhood. (d) Athervaveda
2. The missionary zeal. List-II
3. Its simplicity.
1. Magic, tantric, rituals etc.
of these statements—
2. Composition of music
(A) 1 and 2 are correct
3. Different yajnas and their rituals
(B) 2 and 3 are correct
(C) 1 alone is correct 4. Hymns relating to natural dieties
(D) 1, 2 and 3 are correct Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
101. Which of the following features show that the
Indus Valley people had a certain pattern of (A) 3 4 2 1
technical uniformity ? (B) 4 3 1 2
1. Use of standardised brick sizes. (C) 3 4 1 2
2. Use of irrigation canals. (D) 4 3 2 1
3. Use of a standard range of copper and 104. Which of the following are said to be the
bronze tools. causes of the decline of Mauryan Empire ?
Select the correct answer using the codes 1. The revolt of provisional governors.
given below— 2. The Hun invasions.
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1 and 2 3. Ashoka's pacifism.
(C) 2 and 3 (D) 1 and 3 4. Brahminical resentment with Ashoka's
102. Match List-I with List-II and select the pro Buddhist policies.
correct answer using the codes given below Select the correct answer using the codes
the lists : given below :
List-I (A) 1, 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 4
(a) Rajendra-II chola (C) 2, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 3 and 4
(b) Skandagupta
(c) Narasimha Varman-I Pallava 105. Ashoka's Dhamma can be best described as
(d) Chandragupta Maurya (A) Modified form of Brahmanism
List-II (B) A socio ethical code of conduct
1. Battle of Kalinga (C) Propagation of Bhakti
2. Battle of Manimangalam (D) Modified form of Dharmasastra
 O.G.K. | 11A

106. Who was the founder of the city of Agra ? 114. Who was the last ruler of Lodi Dynasty ?
(A) Mohammad Tughlaq (A) Bahlol Lodi
(B) Alauddin Khalji (B) Ibrahim Lodi
(C) Sikandar Lodhi (C) Daulat Khan Lodi
(D) Ibrahim Lodhi (D) Sikandar Lodi
107. Which of the following were known by the 115. Which of the following ‘Mughal monarchs’
popular name of ‘redshirts’? has vividly described Indian flora and fauna,
(A) The Congress Socialists seasons, fruits etc., in his diary ?
(B) The Khudai Khidmatgars (A) Akbar (B) Jahangir
(C) The members of the Indian National (C) Babur (D) Aurangzeb
Army 116. The greatness of Shershah lies in his—
(D) None of these (A) Victories against Humayun
108. Who is called the 'Nightingale of India' ? (B) Superior generalship
(A) Vijay Lakshmi Pandit (C) Administrative reforms
(B) Sarojini Naidu (D) Religous tolerance
(C) Aruna Asaf Ali 117. Greek-Roman Art has found a place in—
(D) Sucheta Kriplani (A) Ellora (B) Gandhara
109. The Harappans were the earliest people to (C) Kalinga (D) Buddhist Art
produce—
118. The Ajanta paintings belong to the—
(A) Seals (B) Bronze implements
(A) Harappan period
(C) Cotton (D) Barley
(B) Mauryan period
110. The Megalithic culture (500 B.C.-100 A.D.) (C) Buddhist period
brings us to the historical period in South (D) Gupta period
India. The Megaliths used :
(A) Weapons made of stone 119. The ruins of the glory of Vijayanagar and a
(B) Tools and implements made of stone place of historical importance for its architec-
(C) Graves encircled by big pieces of stones tural style is now found at—
(D) Articles of daily use made of stone (A) Belur (B) Hampi
111. Chinese pilgrim who visited India during (C) Srirangapatnam (D) Tanjore
Harsha Vardhan's period was— 120. The temple built in A.D. 1100 and dominating
(A) Fa-hien (B) I'tsing all other temples in Bhubaneshwar is—
(C) Nishka (D) Hiuen-T-Sang (A) Raja Rani temple
112. Chalukya King Pulakesin II was defeated (B) Kandariya Mahadev
by— (C) Thribhuvaneswara Lingaraja
(A) Mahendra Varman I (D) Mukhteswara
(B) Narsimha Varman I
(C) Parameshwara Verman I 121. The Bahmani Kingdom was founded by—
(D) Jatila Parantaka (A) Ahmad Shah I
(B) Alauddin Hasan
113. Who among the following sultans of Delhi
has been described by the historians as the (C) Mahmud Gawan
mixture of opposites' ? (D) Firoz Shah Bahmani
(A) Balban 122. The Dilwara temples at Mount Abu in
(B) Alauddin Khalji Rajasthan were built by the followers of—
(C) Muhammad-Bin-Tughlaq (A) Buddhism (B) Jainism
(D) Ibrahim Lodi (C) Hinduism (D) Sikhism
 12A | O.G.K.

123. In the third Battle of Panipat, the Marathas 132. The rulers of which dynasty started the
were defeated by— practice of granting tax free villages to
(A) The Afghans (B) The Mughals Brahamanas and Buddhist Monks ?
(C) The English (D) The French (A) Sata-Vahanas (B) Mauryas
124. Alberuni came to India with— (C) Guptas (D) Cholas
(A) Mahmud of Ghazni 133. The most important text of the Vedic Mathe-
(B) Alexander matics is—
(C) Babur (A) Satapatha Brahman
(D) Timur (B) Atharva Veda
(C) Sulva Sutras
125. Where did Aurangzeb die ?
(D) Chhandhogya Upnishad
(A) Ahmed Nagar (B) Aurangabad
(C) Allahabad (D) Lahore 134. Gupta Dynasty was famous for—
(A) Art and Architecture
126. What inspired the paintings of Ajanta ?
(A) Compassionate Buddha (B) Imperialism
(B) Radha Krishna leela (C) Revenue and land reform
(C) Jain Tirthankaras (D) Patronage of literary works
(D) Mahabharat encounters 135. Find out the correct chronological order of the
Buddhist councils held at the four following
127. Who amongst the following is renowned in
places from the code given below—
Hindustani classical music (Vocal) ?
(A) Sholohana Narayan 1. Vaishali 2. Rajgarh
(B) M.S. Subbulaxmi 3. Kundalvana 4. Pataliputra
(C) Pt. Jasraj Codes :
(D) M.S. Gopalkrishnan (A) 1, 2, 3, 4 (B) 4, 3, 2, 1
128. Yavanika or curtain was introduced in Indian (C) 2, 1, 3, 4 (D) 2, 1, 4, 3
theatre by the— 136. The Harappans were—
(A) Shakas (B) Parthians (A) Rural (B) Urban
(C) Greeks (D) Kushanas (C) Nomadic (D) Tribal
129. Who started the Saka Era still used by the 137. The crop which was not known to Vedic
Government of India ? people is—
(A) Kanishka (A) Barely (B) Wheat
(B) Vikramaditya (C) Rice (D) Tobacco
(C) Samundragupta
138. The Rashtrakuta kingdom was founded by—
(D) Asoka
(A) Dandi Durga (Danti Durga)
130. Zafarnama was a letter written to a Mughal (B) Amogha Varsha
emperor by which of the following Sikh (C) Govinda III
Gurus ?
(D) Indra III
(A) Hari Rai (B) Arjun Dev
(C) Teg Bahadur (D) Govind Singh Answers
131. Who among the following is renowned in the 1. (A) 2. (C) 3. (B) 4. (A) 5. (A)
field of painting ? 6. (A) 7. (D) 8. (A) 9. (D) 10. (D)
(A) Parveen Sultana 11. (C) 12. (C) 13. (B) 14. (D) 15. (A)
(B) Prof. T.N. Krishnan 16. (D) 17. (B) 18. (D) 19. (C) 20. (B)
(C) Ram Kinkar 21. (C) 22. (B) 23. (C) 24. (B) 25. (C)
(D) Raja Ravi Verma 26. (B) 27. (C) 28. (B) 29. (B) 30. (D)
 O.G.K. | 13A

31. (B) 32. (B) 33. (B) 34. (D) 35. (C) 126. (A) 127. (C) 128. (C) 129. (A) 130. (D)
36. (B) 37. (A) 38. (B) 39. (D) 40. (B) 131. (D) 132. (A) 133. (C) 134. (A) 135. (D)
41. (B) 42. (D) 43. (D) 44. (D) 45. (C) 136. (B) 137. (D) 138. (A)
46. (D) 47. (A) 48. (D) 49. (B) 50. (D)
51. (D) 52. (B) 53. (D) 54. (C) 55. (C) Hints
56. (B) 57. (A) 58. (A) 59. (C) 60. (D) 44. Red Fort of Delhi was built by Shahjahan and
61. (B) 62. (B) 63. (D) 64. (B) 65. (B) Moti Masjid in the Red Fort was built by
66. (B) 67. (D) 68. (C) 69. (B) 70. (D) Aurangzeb.
71. (C) 72. (D) 73. (A) 74. (C) 75. (B) 57. Statement-III is wrong. Mahavira lived during
76. (D) 77. (D) 78. (C) 79. (A) 80. (D) 540-468 B.C.
81. (C) 82. (B) 83. (D) 84. (A) 85. (A) 58. The plot of land at Amritsar containing a pool
86. (D) 87. (A) 88. (B) 89. (D) 90. (D) was granted by Akbar to Guru Ramdas (1574-
91. (C) 92. (B) 93. (B) 94. (D) 95. (A) 1581). Golden Temple, the famous sikh
96. (C) 97. (C) 98. (D) 99. (C) 100. (D) temple, was constructed on this plot.
101. (D) 102. (B) 103. (D) 104. (D) 105. (B) 70. He wrote in Persian as well as in Hindi.
106. (C) 107. (B) 108. (B) 109. (C) 110. (C) 98. Adil Shah-II (1579-1626)
111. (D) 112. (B) 113. (C) 114. (B) 115. (B) Allauddin Bahman (1347-1358)
116. (C) 117. (B) 118. (D) 119. (B) 120. (C) Krishnadeva Raya (1509-1530)
121. (B) 122. (B) 123. (A) 124. (A) 125. (A) Chand Bibi (1600).
 Indian Polity and Constitution
1. Which of the following articles of the Indian 6. How many times was Atal Bihari Vajpayee
Constitution provides for endeavour of every sworn in as the Prime Minister of India ?
State to arrange adequate facility for instruct- (A) One (B) Two
ion in the mother tongue at the primary stage (C) Three (D) Four
of education ?
(A) Article 349 (B) Article 350 7. Regarding No-Confidence motion—
(C) Article 351 (D) Article 350-A (A) It is expressed against an individual
minister or council of ministers
2. Which Constitutional Amendment accorded
position of primacy to the Directive Principles (B) No grounds have to be set out for the
over Fundamental Rights ? motion
(A) 42nd Amendment (C) Not less than 100 members have to
support it for the speaker to grant leave
(B) 16th Amendment for its introduction
(C) 44th Amendment (D) It is always brought against the prime
(D) 25th Amendment minister
3. The constitution is the supreme law of the 8. The Speaker can ask a member of the House
land. It is protected by— to stop speaking and let another member
(A) The Supreme Court speak. This phenomenon is known as—
(B) The Cabinet (A) Decorum
(C) The Parliament (B) Crossing the floor
(D) The Constituent Assembly (C) Interpellation
4. Consider the following statements : (D) Yielding the floor
1. The Parliament passed the Constitution 9. Consider the following statements about the
(104th) Amendment Bill in December, Attorney General of India.
2005. 1. He is appointed by the President of India.
2. The Bill provides for reservation in 2. He must have the same qualifications as
admission in private unaided educational are required for a Judge of the Supreme
institutions for members of scheduled Court.
castes/tribes and other backward classes. 3. He must be a member of either House of
Which of the above statements is/are correct? Parliament.
4. He can be removed through impeachment
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only
by Parliament.
(C) Neither 1 nor 2 (D) Both 1 and 2
Which of these statements are correct ?
5. Which Constitutional Amendment provides
for reservation in admission in private (A) 1 and 2 (B) 1 and 3
unaided institutions for members of scheduled (C) 2, 3 and 4 (D) 3 and 4
castes/tribes and other backward classes ? 10. Who is the first woman President of India ?
(A) 92nd Constitutional Amendment (A) Indira Gandhi
(B) 93rd Constitutional Amendment (B) Pratibha Patil
(C) 91st Constitutional Amendment (C) Sonia Gandhi
(D) 90th Constitutional Amendment (D) None of these

11. Consider the following functionaries—
1. Cabinet Secretary
2. Chief Election Commissioner
3. Union Cabinet Ministers
4. Chief Justice of India
Their correct sequence in the order of prece-
dence is—
(A) 3, 4, 2, 1
(B) 4, 3, 1, 2
(C) 4, 3, 2, 1
(D) 3, 4, 1, 2
12. The primary function of the Finance Commi-
ssion in India is to—
(A) Distribute revenue between the centre
and the states
(B) Prepare the Annual Budget
(C) Advise the President on financial matters
(D) Allocate the funds to various ministries
of the union and the state governments
13. Which of the following is not a constitutional
body ?
(A) Election Commission
(B) Finance Commission
(C) Inter-state Council
(D) National Advisory Council
14. Central Board of Film Certification comes
under which of the following Ministries of the
Government of India ?
(A) Ministry of Tourism and Culture
(B) Ministry of Human Resource Develop-
ment
(C) Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports
(D) Ministry of Information and Broadcast-
ing
15. A college student desires to get elected to the
Municipal Council of his city. The validity of
his nomination would depend on the impor-
tant condition, among others, that—
(A) He obtains permission from the Principal
of his college
(B) He is a member of a political party
(C) His name figures in the voter's list
(D) He files a declaration owing allegiance to
the Constitution of India
16. In the Centre State financial relations in India,
Gadgil Formula is used in—
(A) Division of tax revenue
O.G.K. | 15A
(B) Formulating the policy for fresh borrow-
ings
(C) Writing off states' indebtedness to the
Centre
(D) Allocating Central Plan assistance be-
tween states
17. Which of the following voting systems has
been adopted for the election of Lok Sabha
and legislative assembly elections in India ?
(A) First Post and Post system
(B) Single transferable vote system
(C) Single Non-transferable vote system
(D) Hare Clark system
18. The Srikrishna Committee report for Telan-
gana (Andhra Pradesh) issue was released
on—
(A) January 6, 2009
(B) December 6, 2010
(C) January 6, 2011
(D) July 31, 2010
19. Parliament can make any law for the whole or
any part of India for implementing inter-
national treaties—
(A) With the consent of all the states
(B) With the consent of the majority of states
(C) With the consent of the states concerned
(D) Without the consent of any state
20. Which one of the following statements about
a Money Bill is not correct ?
(A) A Money Bill can be tabled in either
House of Parliament
(B) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is the final
authority to decide whether a Bill is a
Money Bill or not
(C) The Rajya Sabha must return a Money
Bill passed by the Lok Sabha and send it
for consideration within 14 days
(D) The President cannot return a Money
Bill to the Lok Sabha for reconsideration
21. The 73rd Constitution Amendment Act, 1992
refers to the—
(A) Generation of gainful employment for
the unemployed and the under employed
men and women in rural areas
(B) Generation of employment for the able-
bodied adults who are in need and desi-
rious of work during the lean agricultu-
ral season
16A | O.G.K.
(C) Laying the foundation for strong and
vibrant Panchayati Raj institutions in the
country
(D) Guarantee of right to life, liberty and
security of persons, equality before law
and protection without discrimination.
22. Which part of the Constitution proposes to
establish a welfare state in India ?
(A) Part III and IV (B) Part IV only
(C) Part I and II (D) Part III, IV and XI
23. Who is the Chief Election Commissioner of
India at present ?
(A) M. S. Gill (B) V. S. Sampath
(C) B. B. Tandon (D) T. N. Seshan
24. Consider the following facts about comp-
troller and auditor general of India and chose
the correct answer—
1. CAG is constitutional body
2. CAG has absolute power to audit
accounts of all the functionaries of
central and states governments as well as
of private corporate bodies.
(A) Only 1 is correct
(B) Only 2 is correct
(C) (A) and (B) both are correct
(D) Neither (A) nor (B) is correct
25. The Upper House of Parliament is known
as—
(A) Parliament House
(B) Rashtrapati Bhawan
(C) Rajya Sabha
(D) Lok Sabha
26. The President of India can proclaim National
Emergency—
(A) On the advice of the Council of Ministers
headed by the Prime Minister
(B) On the advice of the Speaker
(C) On the advice of the leader of the ruling
party or set of parties in power
(D) At his own discretion
27. The correct chronological order in which—
1. V.P. Singh
2. Chandra Shekhar
3. Morarji Desai, and
4. Charan Singh
Occupied the office of the Prime Minister of
India is—
(A) 3, 4, 2, 1 (B) 4, 3, 2, 1
(C) 3, 4, 1, 2 (D) 4, 3, 1, 2
28. According to the 73rd Constitution Amend-
ment Act, in the event of dissolution of
Panchayat Raj institutions election for the
new body should be compulsorily held
within—
(A) 2 months (B) 4 months
(C) 6 months (D) 8 months
29. A dispute relating to the election of the
President of India is decided by the—
(A) Election Commission
(B) Chief Justice of India
(C) Supreme Court
(D) Parliament
30. India is a—
(A) Union of Federal States
(B) Federal Union of States
(C) Union of States
(D) Union of States and Union Territories
31. As per Indian Constitution, in the event of
any conflict between the union laws and state
laws—
(A) The matter is referred to the Supreme
Court
(B) The state laws shall prevail
(C) The union laws shall prevail
(D) The matter is referred to the Parlia-
mentary Committee specifically consti-
tuted to resolve the dispute
32. The sitting of the House of the People may be
terminated by—
(A) Adjournment (B) Prorogation
(C) Dissolution (D) All of these
33. Ad hoc judges are appointed in the Supreme
Court when—
(A) Some judges go on long leave
(B) No one is available for permanent
appointment
(C) There is an abnormal increase in cases
pending before the Court
(D) There is no quorum of the judges avail-
able to hold any session of the Court
 O.G.K. | 17A

34. Assertion (A) : There is no stable party 41. Money Bill has been defined by the Cons-
system in India titution under Article—
Reason (R) : There are too many political (A) 109 (B) 110
parties. (C) 111 (D) Both (B) and (C)
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A 42. Zonal councils have been created by—
(B) Both A and R are true and R is not the (A) Constitution
correct explanation of A (B) Act of Parliament
(C) A is true but R is false (C) Government Resolution
(D) A is false but R is true (D) National Development Council
35. Who among the following is the acting Chair- 43. There is no reservation for SC and ST for Lok
man of National Human Rights Commission? Shabha in—
(A) Justice B. N. Kirpal (A) Arunachal Pradesh
(B) Justice K. G. Balakrishnan (B) Jammu & Kashmir
(C) Justice K. T. Thomas (C) Meghalaya
(D) Justice M. S. Buch (D) All the above
36. The President can dissolve the Lok Sabha— 44. Inter-State Councils owe their existence to—
(A) On the advice of the Chief Justice (A) Provision in the Constitution
(B) On the advice of the Prime Minister (B) Act of Parliament
(C) On the advice of the Vice-President (C) Recommendation of the Planning Com-
mission
(D) On the advice of the Speaker of the Lok
(D) Resolution adopted by Chief Ministers
Sabha
conference
37. Which one of the following Articles of the 45. According to the law enacted by Parliament
Indian Constitution belongs to a different in December 1999, the legal age for a citizen
category? to become major is—
(A) Art. 14 (B) Art. 15 (A) 23 years (B) 22 years
(C) Art. 16 (D) Art. 19 (C) 20 years (D) 18 years
38. Which Article of the Indian Constitution 46. Who among the following has been appointed
empowers Parliament to make law for giving Chief Minister of Maharashtra ?
effect to international agreements ? (A) Prithviraj Chavan
(A) Art. 249 (B) Art. 250 (B) Shushil Kumar Shinde
(C) Art. 252 (D) Art. 253 (C) Chhagan Mujbal
39. Who has control over the ‘issue of money’ (D) Prafull Patel
from the Consolidated Fund of India? 47. Which among the following taxes is not
(A) Comptroller and Auditor General of India shared by the Central Government with U.P.
(B) Parliament Government under the Finance Commission
(C) Authorised Ministers Award ?
(D) None of the above (A) Income Tax
(B) Excise Duty
40. Acting Chief Justice of India is appointed by (C) Custom Duty
the—
(D) Agriculture Income Tax
(A) Chief Justice of India
48. ‘Judicial Review’ is the power of the higher
(B) Chief Justice of India with previous
court to declare unconstitutional any—
consent of the President
(C) President 1. Law passed by legislature
(D) President in consultation with the Chief 2. Judgement of the lower court
Justice of India 3. Order of the executive
18A | O.G.K.

Choose the answer from the following (A) 33% seats should be reserved for women
choices : in the Lok Sabha
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 3 only (B) 13% seats should be reserved for women
(C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) 1 and 3 in state assemblies
49. Which of the following bill has not been (C) Opposition parties are demanding speci-
passed in the Monsoon Session of Parliament fic reservation for SC/ST and OBC in
2013 ? this bill
(A) National Food Security Bill (D) The bill has been presented in the Lower
(B) Pension Fund Regulatory and Devel- House
opment Authority Bill 55. The Union Budget is presented in—
(C) Companies Bill
(A) The Lok Sabha
(D) Banking Laus Bill
50. Which one of the following provisions is not (B) The Rajya Sabha
a part of the ‘Directive Principles of State (C) Joint session of the Lok Sabha and the
Policy’ ? Rajya Sabha
(A) Protection of historical monuments (D) Anywhere
(B) Abolition of untouchability 56. Match list-I (Provisions of Indian Constitu-
(C) Promotion of cottage industry tion) with list-II (Sources) and code are given
(D) Provision of adequate means of liveli- below the lists to select the correct answer—
hood for all citizens List-I (Provisions of Indian Constitution)
51. In the Golak Nath case it was decided by the (a) Emergency Provisions
Supreme Court that—
(b) Fundamental Rights
(A) Fundamental Rights are like ordinary
laws (c) Parliamentary System
(B) Fundamental Rights could be amended (d) Directive Principles of State Policy
by the Parliament List-II (Sources)
(C) Fundamental Rights could be amended 1. Ireland
by the Parliament if the basic structure of
2. United Kingdom
the Constitution is not destroyed
(D) Fundamental Rights were transcendental 3. United States of America
and hence could not be amended by the 4. Germany
Parliament Codes :
52. The Nanavati Commission Report which was (a) (b) (c) (d)
prepared by investigating into anti-Sikh riots (A) 4 3 2 1
of 1984 and was submitted to the Government (B) 4 1 2 3
of India in February, 2005, was tabled in the (C) 2 3 4 1
Parliament on—
(D) 2 1 4 3
(A) May 8, 2005 (B) August 8, 2005
(C) August 14, 2005 (D) June 13, 2005 57. Which one of the following is a feature
common to both the Indian Federation and the
53. How can the President of India utilize funds American Federation ?
from the Contingency Fund ? (A) A Federal Supreme Court to interpret the
(A) During National Emergency Constitution
(B) After parliamentary sanction (B) Dual Judiciary
(C) He cannot spend it (C) Three lists in the Constitution
(D) Prior to parliamentary sanction (D) None of these
54. Which of the following statements is false 58. The Constitution of India recognizes—
in reference to women's reservation Bill, (A) Only religious minorities
2000? (B) Only linguistic minorities
 O.G.K. | 19A

(C) Neither religious nor linguistic minorities (A) Enshrined in the Directive Principles of
(D) Religious and linguistic minorities both State Policy
59. Under which Article of the Constitution is (B) Made a Fundamental Right
National Advisory Council constituted ? (C) Outlined in the Preamble of the Cons-
(A) It is an extra Constitutional Authority titution
(B) Article 320 (D) Ignored by the Constitution
(C) Article 387 66. Who held the office of the Vice-President of
(D) None of these India for two full terms ?
(A) S. Radhakrishnan (B) V.V. Giri
60. On the first occasion, the Prime Minister of
(C) B. D. Jatti (D) M. Hidayathullah
India was appointed by—
(A) The Governor General 67. The resolution for removing the Vice-Presi-
dent of India can be moved in the—
(B) The British Emperor
(A) Lok Sabha
(C) Mahatma Gandhi (B) Either House of Parliament
(D) The Viceroy (C) Rajya Sabha alone
61. Which of the following Article/Articles read (D) Joint sitting of Parliament
with the word 'socialist' used in the preamble 68. Fundamental Rights in the Indian Consti-
of the Indian Constitution enabled the tution have been taken from the—
Supreme Court to deduce a fundamental right
(A) Russian Constitution
to equal pay for equal work ?
(B) U.S. Constitution
(A) Article 14
(C) British Constitution
(B) Article14 and 15
(D) Act of 1935
(C) Article 14, 15 and 16
(D) Article 14 and 16 69. The President of India can declare—
(A) National Emergency
62. Under the Cabinet Mission Plan, the total
number of the seats allotted to each province (B) Financial Emergency
in the ratio of one representative to the (C) Constitutional Emergency
population of— (D) All of these
(A) 8 lakh persons (B) 10 lakh persons 70. The Philosopher President of India was—
(C) 12 lakh persons (D) 15 lakh persons (A) V.V. Giri
63. Which Article of the Constitution of India (B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
deals with the appellate jurisdiction of the (C) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
Supreme Court in connection with consti- (D) Dr. Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed
tutional cases?
71. The First General Elections to the Lok Sabha
(A) Article 131
were held in—
(B) Article 132
(A) 1949 (B) 1952
(C) Article 132 read with Article 134A
(C) 1950 (D) 1954
(D) Article 133 read with Article 134A
72. The Lok Sabha is called in session at least—
64. Which one of the following is in the state
(A) Once a year (B) Twice a year
list?
(A) Railway Police (C) Thrice a year (D) Four times a year
(B) Corporation Tax 73. The chairman of the Public Accounts Com-
(C) Census mittee of the parliament is appointed by—
(D) Economic and social planning (A) Prime Minister
65. Right to free education to children of 6 years (B) President
to 14 years of age has been granted vide 86th (C) Finance Minister
Constitutional Amendment, 2002— (D) Speaker of Lok Sabha
20A | O.G.K.
74. Consider the following tasks :
1. Superintendence, direction and conduct
of the election.
2. Preparation of electoral rolls.
3. Proclaiming final verdict in the case of
electoral irregularities.
The tasks of the Election Commission in-
clude—
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1 and 2
(C) 1 and 3 (D) 2 and 3
75. Consider the following recommendations :
1. The Governor designate should not be an
active politician in general and that too
in the recent past.
2. Subjects other than taxation in the state
List should be transferred to the concu-
rrent List.
3. Agricultural income should be taxed.
Which of these are the recommendations
of the Sarkaria Commission on Centre-
State relations.
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 2 (D) 1 and 3
76. No person can be employed in factories or
mines unless he is above the age of—
(A) 12 years (B) 14 years
(C) 18 years (D) 20 years
77. When the offices of both the President and
Vice-President of India are vacant, who will
discharge their functions ?
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Home Minister
(C) Chief Justice of India
(D) The Speaker
78. The Proclamation of Emergency under Arti-
cle 352 of the Constitution of India must be
approved by Parliament within—
(A) 6 months (B) 3 months
(C) 2 months (D) 1 month
79. When the two Houses of Parliament differ
regarding an ordinary Bill, then the deadlock
is resolved by—
(A) A joint sitting of the two Houses
(B) The President of India
(C) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(D) A special committee formed for the
purpose
80. Consider the following functions—
1. Recommendations for better coordination
of policy.
2. Investigating and discussing subjects of
common interest between the Centre and
the State.
3. Monitoring the distribution of the re-
sources amongst the States.
4. Ensuring national integration by formu-
lating effective policies.
The functions of inter state council include—
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3
(C) 3 and 4 (D) 1 and 4
81. Directive Principles are complied with by
the government because they have—
(A) Democratic principles
(B) Gandhian principles
(C) The force of public opinion and morality
behind them
(D) Legal force behind them
82. Which one of the following is the correct
sequence in the descending order of
precedence in the warrant of precedence ?
(A) Attorney General of India–Judges of the
Supreme Court–Members of Parliament–
Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(B) Attorney General of India–Deputy Chair-
man of Rajya Sabha–Judges of the
Supreme Court–Members of Parliament
(C) Judges of the Supreme Court–Deputy
Chairman of Rajya Sabha–Attorney
General of India–Members of Parliament
(D) Judges of the Supreme Court–Attorney
General of India–Deputy Chairman of
Rajya Sabha–Members of Parliament
83. Bodo, Dogri, Maithili and Santhali have been
included in the 8th Schedule of the Constitu-
tion by which Constitutional Amendment?
(A) 92nd Amendment Act, 2003
(B) 91st Amendment Act, 2003
(C) 85th Amendment Act, 2001
(D) 90th Amendment Act, 2003
84. The largest share of revenue receipts of the
state government comes from—
(A) Registration fees
(B) Land revenue
(C) General sales tax
(D) Share of union excise duty
 O.G.K. | 21A

85. Which one of the following Constitutional (B) Only when such advice is sought
Amendments bans floor crossing by a member (C) Only if the matter relates to some basic
elected on a party ticket to a Legislature ? issues
(A) 52nd amended as 91st (D) Only if the issue poses a threat to the
(B) 54th unity and integrity of the country
(C) 56th 93. The Shimla Pact between India and Pakistan
(D) 58th stood for—
86. The allotment of seats in the Rajya Sabha (A) Abstaining from first use of nuclear
from States and Union Territories has been weapons
given in which Schedule of the Constituion of (B) Bilateral settlement of disputes
India ? (C) Final resolution of Jammu and Kashmir
(A) 3rd Schedule (B) 4th Schedule problem
(C) 6th Schedule (D) None of these (D) Resolution of dispute relating to Ranna
of Kachchh
87. A new Chapter IV A on Fundamental Duties
was inserted in the Indian Constitution in— 94. Six months shall not intervene between two
(A) 1972 (B) 1976 sessions of the Indian Parliament because—
(C) 1980 (D) 1984 (A) It is the customary practice
88. The States of Meghalaya, Manipur and (B) It is the British convention followed in
Tripura were created in— India
(C) It is an obligation under the Constitution
(A) 1970 (B) 1971
of India
(C) 1972 (D) 1973 (D) None of the above
89. Which of the following ladies were Chief 95. The states of the Indian union can be
Ministers ? reorganised or their boundaries altered by—
1. Ambika Soni (A) The Union Parliament by a simple majo-
2. Nandini Satpathy rity in the ordinary process of legislation
3. Rajinder Kaur Bhattal (B) Two-thirds majority of both the Houses
4. Syeda Anuwara Taimur of Parliament
Select the correct answer using the codes : (C) Two-thirds majority of both the Houses
Codes : of Parliament and the consent of the
(A) 1 and 4 (B) 2 and 3 legislatures of concerned states.
(C) 1 and 3 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (D) An executive order of the Union Govern-
90. Which one of the following bodies is presided ment with the consent of the concerned
over by a non-member ? State Governments
(A) Lok Sabha 96. The Basic Feature Theory of the Constitution
(B) Rajya Sabha of India was propounded by the Supreme
(C) Vidhan Sabhas of various States Court in the case of—
(D) None of the above (A) Minerva Mills Vs. Union of India
91. The National Development Council is pre- (B) Golaknath Vs. State of Punjab
sided over by the— (C) Maneka Gandhi Vs. Union of India
(A) Prime Minister of India (D) Keshavananda Vs. State of Kerala
(B) Deputy Chairman of the Planning Com- 97. Assertion (A) : Rajya Sabha is a permanent
mission chamber of Indian Parliament.
(C) Finance Minister Reason (R) : One-third of its members retire
(D) Union Minister for Planning every two years and it is not subject to
92. The Supreme Court tenders advice to the dissolution.
President of India on a matter of law or fact— (A) Both A and R are true and R is the
(A) On its own correct explanation of A
 22A | O.G.K.

(B) Both A and R are true but R is not the 105. Which one of the following duties is not
correct explanation of A performed by the Comptroller and Auditor
(C) A is true but R is false General of India ?
(D) A is false but R is true (A) To audit and report on all expenditure
98. The 91st Constitution (Amendment) Act, from the Consolidated Fund of India
2003— (B) To audit and report on all expenditure
(A) Limits the size of Council of Ministers from the Contingency Funds and Public
to 15% of the total membership of the Accounts
Lower House of the Legislature (C) To audit and on all trading, manu-
(B) Further tightens the Anti-defection Act facturing, project and loss accounts
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) To control the receipt and issue of public
money and to ensure that the public
(D) Neither (A) nor (B) revenue is lodged in the exchequer
99. If a new state of the Indian Union is to be 106. How many seats does Uttarakhand Assembly
created, which one of the following schedules have ?
of the Constitution must be amended ? (A) 60 (B) 70
(A) First (B) Second
(C) 45 (D) 50
(C) Third (D) Fifth
107. Which one of the following statements
100. Which article of the Constitution of India
correctly describes the fourth Schedule of the
provides for subordinate courts or district
Constitution of India ?
courts?
(A) It lists the distribution of powers bet-
(A) Article 102 (B) Article 103 ween the union and the states
(C) Article 124 (D) Article 233 (B) It contains the languages listed in the
101. Name the Member of Parliament whose Constitution
membership of Rajya Sabha was terminated (C) It contains the provisions regarding the
by the President acting on the advice of administration of tribal areas
Election Commission over the issue of holding (D) It allocates seats in the Council of States
office of profit ?
(A) Dr. Karan Singh (B) Sakshi Maharaj 108. In what way does the Indian Parliament
exercise control over the administration ?
(C) Amar Singh (D) Jaya Bachchan
(A) Through Parliamentary Committees
102. The newly created state of Telangana is the (B) Through consultative committees of
…… State of India. various Ministries
(A) 29th (B) 28th (C) By making the administrators send
(C) 27th (D) 26th periodic reports
103. The resolution for removing the Vice-Presi- (D) By compelling the executive to issue
dent of India can be moved in the— wrists
(A) Lok Sabha alone 109. At block level, Panchayat Samiti is an—
(B) Either House of Parliament (A) Administrative Authority
(C) Joint Sitting of Parliament (B) Advisory Committee
(D) Rajya Sabha alone (C) Advisory Board
104. Which Article of the Constitution provides (D) None of these
that it shall be the endeavour of every state to 110. Consider the following statements about the
provide adequate facility for instruction in the minorities in India :
mother tongue at the primary stage of edu- 1. The Government of India has notified
cation ? five communities, namely, Muslim,
(A) Article 349 (B) Article 350 Sikhs, Christians, Buddhists, Jains and
(C) Article 350A (D) Article 351 Zoroastrians as minorities.
 O.G.K. | 23A

2. The National Commission for minorities 116. The President of India is elected by the—
was given statutory status in 1993. (A) Members of the Lok Sabha
3. The smallest religious minority in India (B) Members of both Houses of Parliament
are the zoroastrians. (C) Members of the State Legislatures
4. The Constitution of India recognizes and (D) Elected members of both Houses of
protects religious and linguistic mino- Parliament and State Assemblies
rities
117. Part IV of the Constitution of India deals
Which of these statements are correct ? with—
(A) 2 and 3 (B) 1 and 4 (A) Fundamental Rights
(C) 2, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 2 and 4 (B) Citizenship
111. In which one of the following areas does the (C) Directive Principles of State Policy
State Government not have control over its (D) Union Executive
local bodies ? 118. The recommendations of the 13th Finance
(A) Citizens’ grievances Commission are for the period—
(B) Financial matters (A) 2002–2007 (B) 2010–2015
(C) Legislation (C) 2006–2011 (D) 2004–2009
(D) Personnel matters 119. Power, authority and responsibilities of
112. Consider the following statements regarding municipalities are listed in which one of the
the High Courts in India : following schedules of the Constitution of
India ?
1. There are twenty one High Courts in the
(A) Ninth (B) Tenth
country.
(C) Eleventh (D) Twelfth
2. Three of them have jurisdiction over
more than one state. 120. Who among the following is the Chairman of
3. No Union Territory has a High Court of the National Integration Council ?
its own. (A) The President
4. Judges of the High Court hold office till (B) The Vice-President
the age of 62. (C) The Prime Minister
Which of these statements is/are correct ? (D) The Chief Justice of India
(A) 1, 2 and 4 (B) 2 and 3 121. The basic parameters of India's foreign policy
(C) 1 and 4 (D) 4 only were laid down by—
113. Which one of the following bodies is not a (A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
creation of the Constitution ? (B) Dr. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan
(A) Finance Commision (C) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Election Commision (D) Dr. Zakir Husain
(C) Planning Commision 122. Which one of the following statements is not
(D) Union Public Service Commision correct ?
(A) In Lok Sabha, no-confidence motion has
114. Who appoints the Governors of Indian states ? to set out the grounds on which it is
(A) Council of Ministers based
(B) Vice-President (B) In the case of a no-confidence motion in
(C) Prime Minister Lok Sabha, no conditions of admissi-
bility have been laid down in the rules
(D) President
(C) A motion of no-confidence, once admit-
115. In India, the Executive is responsible directly ted, has to be taken up within ten days of
to the— the leave being granted
(A) President (B) Judiciary (D) Rajya Sabha is not empowered to enter-
(C) People (D) Legislature tain a motion of no-confidence
 24A | O.G.K.
123. Under which one of the following Articles of 129. The right to vote in the national elections in
the Constitution of India, is the Central
Government bound to place the annual budget
statement before Parliament for approval ?
(A) 112 (B) 111
(C) 110 (D) 109
124. Which article/articles of the Constitution of 130. Which of the following is not included in
India deals/deal with disqualifications of the
Members of Parliament ?
(A) Article 102 (B) Article 103
(C) Neither of these (D) Both of these
125. Which parliamentary committee in India is
normally chaired by a prominent member of
the opposition ?
(A) Estimates Committee
(B) Privileges Committee
(C) Public Accounts Committee
(D) Committee on Government Assurances
126. In the case of elections to the Lok Sabha, the
amount of Security deposited for general
category candidates and SC/ST category 132. With reference to Indian Parliament, which
candidates respectively is—
(A) 25,000 and 12,500
(B) 10,000 and 2,500
(C) 10,000 and 5,000
(D) 15,000 and 7,500
127. As per Indian Protocol, who among the
following ranks highest in the order of prece-
dence ?
(A) Deputy Prime Minister
(B) Former President
(C) Governor of a State within his state
(D) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
128. Can there be a common High Court for two or
more states ?
(A) Yes
(B) No
(C) Only in a financial emergency
(D) Only in a national emergency
India is based on the principle of—
(A) Restricted franchise
(B) Hereditary privileges
(C) Property qualifications
(D) Universal adult suffrage
Article 19 of the Constitution ?
(A) Freedom of speech and expression
(B) Freedom of entertainment, amusement
and fun
(C) Freedom of assembly, association and
unions
(D) Freedom of movement, residence, settle-
ment, profession and trade
131. The Sarvodaya Movement was started by—
(A) Mahatma Gandhi
(B) Jayaprakash Narayan
(C) Vinoba Bhave
(D) Dada Dharmadhikari
one of the following is not correct ?
(A) The Appropriation Bill must be passed
by both the Houses of Parliament before
it can be enacted into law
(B) No money shall be withdrawn from the
consolidated fund of India except under
the appropriation made by the Appro-
priation Act
(C) No Money Bill can be introduced except
on the recommendation of the President
(D) Finance Bill is required for proposing
new taxes but no another Bill/Act is
required for making changes in the rates
of taxes which are already under opera-
tion
133. As per the parliamentary legislation, the salary
of an MP has been increased from Rs. 16,000
to …… besides increase in other perks and
facilities.
(A) 9000 (B) 50000
(C) 16000 (D) 18000
 O.G.K. | 25A

134. Parliament can make any law for the whole or 3. Article 360 — Financial emergency
any part of India for implementing Inter- 4. Article 323A — Administrative Tribunals
national Treaties— Select the correct answer using the codes
(A) With the consent of all the States given below :
(B) With the consent of the majority of (A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 2 and 4
States (C) 1, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 2 and 3
(C) With the consent of the State concerned 142. The Vice President of India is elected by—
(D) Without the consent of any State (A) The members of the Rajya Sabha
135. As per the Constitution of India, a citizen of (B) The members of both the Houses of the
India should not be less than …… of age to Parliament
become the President of India. (C) The members of both the Houses of state
(A) 30 years (B) 35 years legislatures and the Rajya Sabha
(D) An electoral college consisting of elected
(C) 40 years (D) 50 years members of Parliament and state legisla-
136. Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs) were tures
first used in the elections held in the year—
143. The Central Government can issue directions
(A) 1996 (B) 1997 to the States—
(C) 1998 (D) 1999 (A) In respect of Union List
137. The official language as per the Constitution (B) In respect of State List
is— (C) In respect of Concurrent List
(A) Sanskrit (B) Hindi (D) All of the above
(C) English (D) None of these 144. Which of the following provisions under
different Articles exist in the Constitution of
138. India is a Union of States. Executive power of India ?
the union is vested in the—
1. Prohibition of forced labour.
(A) President (B) Prime Minister 2. Prohibition of employment of children
(C) Chief Justice (D) Home Minister under 14 years of age in any capacity in
139. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India any industry or trade.
is appointed by the— 3. Right to just and human conditions of
(A) President work and maternity relief.
(B) Union Public Service Commission 4. Workers' participation in management.
(C) Prime Minister Select the correct answer using the codes
given below—
(D) Finance Commission
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 2, 3 and 4
140. Which is the National Apex Body for (C) 1 and 2 (D) 1, 3 and 4
assessment, monitoring and control of water
145. The code of conduct of political parties
and air pollution ?
during elections is prescribed by the—
(A) Ministry of Environment and Forests (A) President of India
(B) Ministry of Science and Technology (B) Union Cabinet
(C) Central Pollution Control Board (C) Election Commission
(D) Supreme Court (D) Speaker (of Lok Sabha) in consultation
141. Which of the following pairs of Articles of with all the recognised political parties
the Constitution of India and the relevant 146. Consider the following statements :
provisions/subjects dealt with by them are 1. The highest deciding body for planning in
correctly matched ? India is the Planning Commission of India.
1. Article 352 — Proclamation of emergency 2. The Secretary of the Planning Commission
2. Article 356 — Failure of constitutional of India is also the Secretary of National
machinery in the states Development Commission.
 26A | O.G.K.

3. The Constitution included economic and (C) Right against exploitation

social planning in the Concurrent List in (D) Right to property
the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution
of India. 154. The first Speaker of the Lok Sabha was—
Which of the statements given above is/are (A) Rabi Ray
correct ? (B) M. Ananthasayanam Ayangar
(A) 2 and 3 (B) 1 and 2 (C) Hukam Singh
(C) 2 only (D) 3 only (D) G.V. Mavalankar
147. Who certifies a Bill to be a money Bill in 155. The salaries and allowances of the judges of
Indian states ? the High Court are charged to the—
(A) State Assembly Speaker (A) Consolidated Fund of the State
(B) State Finance Minister (B) Contingency Fund of the State
(C) Governor of the State (C) Contingence Fund of India
(D) Chief Justice of High Court (D) Consolidated Fund of India
148. The right to freedom from illegal detention is 156. The first Chief Minister of the newly created
secured through the writ of— Telangana state—
(A) Mandamus (B) Prohibition (A) Chandrababu Naidu
(C) Quo warranto (D) Habeas corpus (B) K. Chandrashekhar Rao
149. The term of profit has been defined by the— (C) Simon Marandi
(A) Parliament (D) Shibu Soren
(B) Supreme court 157. The term ‘Fourth Estate’ is used for—
(C) Constitution (A) The Press and Newspapers
(D) Union council of Ministers (B) Parliament
150. Who is legally competent to declare war or (C) Judiciary
conclude peace treaty ? (D) The Executive
(A) The Prime Minister 158. Implementing laws is the function of—
(B) The Council of Ministers (A) Executive (B) Legislature
(C) The President (C) Judiciary (D) Cabinet
(D) The Parliament 159. Which one of the following is a Fundamental
151. Who decides the disputes regarding the elec- Right guaranteed by the Constitution of
tion of the Vice-President ? India ?
(A) The President (A) Right to govern
(B) The Parliament (B) Right to property
(C) The Supreme Court (C) Right to information
(D) The Election Commission (D) Right to equality

152. Panchayati Raj is organised at the—
(A) Village level
(B) Village and block level
(C) Village, block and district level
(D) Village, block, district and state level
153. Which right in India is a Constitutional Right
but not a Fundamental Right ?
(A) Right to freedom of religion
(B) Cultural and educational rights
160. Education is included in which of the follo-
wing lists ?
(A) Central list (B) State list
(C) Concurrent list (D) Local list
161. The Chief Justice of a High Court is appoin-
ted by—
(A) The President
(B) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
(C) Governor of the State
(D) Chief Minister of the State

162. Can a person who is not a member of Parlia- 168. Which of the following categories of citizens
ment be appointed as a minister ?
(A) No
(B) Yes
(C) Yes, provided the Parliament approves
of such an appointment
(D) Yes, but he has to become a member of
Parliament within six months of his
appointment
169. The system of judicial review originated in—
163. Through which Constitutional Amendment
was the Nagarpalika Bill passed ?
(A) 70th (B) 72th
(C) 73th (D) 74th 170. Right to vote is mentioned in the part of the
164. Under which of the following situations can
the Rajya Sabha be dissolved ?
(A) When financial emergency is declared in
the country
(B) When emergency is declared due to
failure of constitutional machinery
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
165. Who can legislate on those residual matters
which are not mentioned in central/state/con-
current lists ?
(A) State legislatures exclusively
(B) Parliament alone
(C) Parliament after state legislatures concur
(D) Parliament or state legislatures as adjudi-
cated by the Supreme Court
166. The salary of the members of Parliament is
decided by—
(A) The Parliament
(B) The Central Cabinet 173. Which of the following non members of
(C) The President
(D) The Speaker
167. What amidst the following is not true of the
general electoral roll prepared through the
agency of the Election Commission ? It is to
be used for election to the—
174. The preamble of the Indian Constitution was
(A) Lok Sabha
(B) Panchayati Raj and Nagarpalika Institu-
tions
(C) Legislative Assemblies of the States
(D) Legislative Councils of the States where
these exist
O.G.K. | 27A
of the prescribed age may be registered as a
voter ?
(A) Bankrupt
(B) Convicted for certain crimes or corrup-
tion
(C) Non-resident citizens
(D) Mentally unsound
(A) India (B) Germany
(C) Russia (D) U.S.A.
constitution relating to—
(A) Fundamental Rights
(B) Union Legislature
(C) State Legislature
(D) Election
171. A law can be enacted or executive order
issued, even contrary to Article 19, during
proclamation of emergency—
(A) Caused by war or external aggression
(B) Caused by internal armed rebellion
(C) Caused by Constitution breakdown
(D) Caused by financial crisis
172. Which authority recommends the principles
governing the grants-in-aid from the conso-
lidated Fund of India ?
(A) Public Accounts Committee
(B) Union Ministry of Finance
(C) Finance Commission
(D) Inter state Council
Parliament has the right to address it?
(A) Attorney General of India
(B) Solicitor General of India
(C) Chief Justice of India
(D) Chief Election Commissioner
for the first time amended by the—
(A) 24th Amendment
(B) 42nd Amendment
(C) 44th Amendment
(D) None of the above
 28A | O.G.K.
175. What is the implication of the Central
Government granting “Special status” to a
state ?
(A) Substantially large percentage of the
Central assistance will be as grants in-aid
(B) The extent of loan as a percentage of
total assistance will be low
(C) Current account budgetary deficit will be
bridged by the Central Government
(D) Both (A) and (B) above
176. Which amendment to the Constitution of
India provides for National Commissions for
Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes sepa-
rately?
(A) 90th (B) 89th
(C) 91st (D) 88th
177. The Trade Union affiliated with the Congress
Party is—
(A) All India Trade Union Congress
(B) Indian National Trade Union Congress
(C) Centre for Indian Trade Unions
(D) Hind Mazdoor Sabha
178. The following Article of the Indian Consti-
tution abolished the practice of untoucha-
bility—
(A) Article 14 (B) Article 18
(C) Article 17 (D) Article 19
179. Which of the following exercised the most
profound influence in framing the Indian 186. What was the exact constitutional position of
Constitution ?
(A) British Constitution
(B) U.S. Constitution
(C) Irish Constitution
(D) The Government of India Act, 1935
180. In which article of the Constitution of India
has the Joint Sitting of the Lok Sabha and the
Rajya Sabha been provided ?
(A) Article 101
(B) Article 108
(C) Article 133
(D) Article 102
181. Separation of the Judiciary from the Exe-
cutive has been provided in which of the 188. Which writ is issued by a High Court or the
following parts of the Indian Constitution ?
(A) The Preamble
(B) The Fundamental Rights
(C) The Directive Principles of State Policy
(D) The Seventh Schedule
182. A Money Bill passsed by the Lok Sabha is
deemed to have been passed by the Rajya
Sabha also when no action is taken by the
Upper House within—
(A) 10 days (B) 14 days
(C) 20 days (D) 30 days
183. Name the committee for formulating the
framework of restructuring railways—
(A) Jain Committee
(B) Venkatachelliah
(C) Rakesh Mohan Committee
(D) Dinesh Goswami Committee
184. Who is legally competent under the Indian
Constitution to declare war or conclude
peace ?
(A) The President
(B) The Prime Minister
(C) The Council of Ministers
(D) The Parliament
185. Who among the following is/are not appoin-
ted by the President of India ?
(A) Governors of the States
(B) Chief Justice and Judges of the High
Courts
(C) Vice-President
(D) Chief Justice and Judges of the Supreme
Court
the Indian Republic when the Constitution
was brought into force with effect from
January 26, 1950 ?
(A) A Democratic Republic
(B) A Sovereign Democratic Republic
(C) A Sovereign Secular Democratic Repu-
blic
(D) A Sovereign Secular Socialist Demo-
cratic Republic
187. A federal structure of India was first put
forward by the—
(A) Act of 1909 (B) Act of 1919
(C) Act of 1935 (D) Act of 1947
Supreme Court to compel an authority to per-
form a function that it was not performing ?
(A) Writ of Certiorari
 O.G.K. | 29A

(B) Writ of Habeas Corpus (B) The Concurrent List

(C) Writ of Mandamus (C) The State List
(D) Writ of Quo Warranto (D) Both (A) and (B)
189. The Chief Election Commissioner can be 195. Which one of the following was described by
removed from his office— Dr. Ambedkar as the ‘Heart and Soul’ of the
(A) By the Chief Justice of the Supreme Constitution?
Court (A) Right to equality
(B) By the President (B) Right against exploitation
(C) On the basis of a resolution of the (C) Right to constitutional remedies
Cabinet
(D) Right to freedom of religion
(D) On the basis of proved misbehaviour by
2/3rd majority of both Houses of Parlia- 196. In which case did the Supreme Court of India
ment determine that the Parliament has power to
190. Which schedule of the Constitution deals with make amendment in fundamental rights, but it
the disqualification of elected members on the cannot make any change in the basic structure
ground of defection ? of the Constitution ?
(A) 8th (B) 9th (A) Golak Nath case
(C) 10th (D) 11th (B) Keshavanand Bharati case
191. What is the correct order of succession (C) Both (A) and (B)
(earlier to later) among the following Presi- (D) Neither (A) nor (B)
dents of India ? 197. The first woman judge to be appointed to
1. Dr. Zakir Hussian Supreme Court was—
2. Dr. S. Radhakrishnan (A) Rani Jethmalani
3. Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed (B) Anna George Malhotra
4. V.V. Giri
(C) M. Fathima Beevi
(A) 2, 3, 4, 1 (B) 3, 2, 4, 1
(D) Leila Seth
(C) 4, 1, 2, 3 (D) 2, 1, 4, 3
192. In an election, electioneering has to be stop- 198. After becoming President which country did
ped in a Constituency— Pranab Mukherjee visit first—
(A) 24 hours before the poll commences (A) Kazakhstan (B) Mauritius
(B) 24 hours before the closing hour of (C) Myanmar (D) Bangladesh
polling 199. Which of the following political parties was
(C) 48 hours before the hour of commence- first derecognised and later on again re-
ment of polling cognised as a National Party by Election
(D) 48 hours before the closing hour of Commission of India ?
polling (A) Communist Party of India
193. If the Speaker of the Lok Sabha intends to (B) Communist Party of India-Marxist
vacate his office before the expiry of his term,
(C) Samajwadi Party
he sends his resignation to the—
(A) Chairman of the Rajya Sabha (D) Republican Party of India
(B) Leader of the House (Lok Sabha) 200. The status of the Vice-Chairman of the Plann-
(C) Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha ing Commission of India is equal to that of—
(D) President of India (A) Vice-President of India
194. Parliament enjoys the exclusive right to legis- (B) State Minister
late on the subjects contained in— (C) Cabinet Minister
(A) The Union List (D) Judge of Supreme Court
 30A | O.G.K.

201. Who had been appointed the Ist Chairman of 91. (A) 92. (B) 93. (B) 94. (C) 95. (A)
20th Law Commission by Government of 96. (D) 97. (A) 98. (C) 99. (A) 100. (D)
India ? 101. (D) 102. (A) 103. (D) 104. (C) 105. (C)
(A) S. N. Jha (B) D. K. Jain 106. (B) 107. (D) 108. (C) 109. (A) 110. (C)
(C) R. C. Lahoti (D) P. K. Jhalan 111. (D) 112. (A) 113. (C) 114. (D) 115. (D)
116. (D) 117. (C) 118. (B) 119. (D) 120. (C)
202. Who is the Chief Justice of India at present ?
121. (C) 122. (B) 123. (A) 124. (D) 125. (C)
(A) Justice Y. K. Sabharwal
126. (A) 127. (C) 128. (A) 129. (D) 130. (B)
(B) Justice P. Sathasivam
131. (C) 132. (D) 133. (B) 134. (D) 135. (B)
(C) Justice B. N. Kripal
136. (A) 137. (B) 138. (A) 139. (A) 140. (C)
(D) Justice S. N. Jha 141. (A) 142. (B) 143. (D) 144. (A) 145. (C)
203. Right to Education Act came into force on— 146. (A) 147. (D) 148. (D) 149. (C) 150. (C)
(A) 1 March, 2008 (B) 1 April, 2009 151. (C) 152. (C) 153. (D) 154. (D) 155. (D)
(C) 1 April, 2010 (D) None of these 156. (B) 157. (A) 158. (A) 159. (D) 160. (C)
204. Which one of the following is not stated in 161. (A) 162. (D) 163. (D) 164. (D) 165. (B)
the Preamble of the Indian Constitution ? 166. (A) 167. (D) 168. (A) 169. (D) 170. (D)
(A) Justice (B) Adult Franchise 171. (A) 172. (C) 173. (A) 174. (B) 175. (D)
(C) Fraternity (D) Democracy 176. (B) 177. (B) 178. (C) 179. (D) 180. (B)
Answers 181. (C) 182. (B) 183. (C) 184. (A) 185. (C)
186. (B) 187. (B) 188. (C) 189. (D) 190. (C)
1. (D) 2. (A) 3. (A) 4. (D) 5. (B)
191. (D) 192. (D) 193. (C) 194. (A) 195. (C)
6. (C) 7. (A) 8. (D) 9. (A) 10. (B)
196. (B) 197. (C) 198. (D) 199. (B) 200. (C)
11. (C) 12. (A) 13. (D) 14. (D) 15. (C)
201. (B) 202. (B) 203. (C) 204. (B)
16. (D) 17. (A) 18. (C) 19. (D) 20. (A)
21. (C) 22. (B) 23. (B) 24. (A) 25. (C) Hints
26. (A) 27. (C) 28. (C) 29. (C) 30. (C) 37. Articles 14, 15 and 16 relate to Right to
31. (C) 32. (A) 33. (D) 34. (A) 35. (B) Equality, whereas Article 19 relates to Right
36. (B) 37. (D) 38. (D) 39. (B) 40. (C) to Freedom.
41. (B) 42. (B) 43. (B) 44. (A) 45. (D)
54. Assembly elections in Tamil Nadu were held
46. (A) 47. (C) 48. (D) 49. (C) 50. (C)
on a single day, i.e., on May 8, 2006.
51. (D) 52. (B) 53. (D) 54. (B) 55. (A)
56. (A) 57. (A) 58. (D) 59. (A) 60. (D) 74. Any question relating to an election dispute
can be agitated only by an election petition
61. (D) 62. (B) 63. (D) 64. (A) 65. (B) and the power to decide an election petition is
66. (A) 67. (C) 68. (B) 69. (D) 70. (C) vested in the High Court, with appeal to the
71. (B) 72. (B) 73. (D) 74. (B) 75. (C) Supreme Court.
76. (B) 77. (C) 78. (D) 79. (A) 80. (A) 113. Finance Commission (Article 280); Election
81. (C) 82. (C) 83. (A) 84. (D) 85. (A) Commission (Article 324); Union Public
86. (B) 87. (B) 88. (C) 89. (B) 90. (B) Service Commission (Article 315).
 Indian National Movement
1. While delivering the presidential address, the (B) Invite Jinnah to form the government
Congress President who advocated the (C) Invite Nehru and Jinnah to form the
introduction of Roman script for Hindi government together
language was— (D) Invite the army to take over for some
(A) Mahatma Gandhi time
(B) Jawaharlal Nehru
(C) Abul Kalam Azad 8. The native state of Tripura became involved
in the Freedom movement early in the 20th
(D) Subhash Chandra Bose century because—
2. At the time of the partition of India, which (A) The king of Tripura was always anti-
one of the following provinces of British British
India came forward with a plan for united (B) The Bengal revolutionaries took shelter
independent existence ? in Tripura
(A) Punjab (B) Assam (C) The tribes of the state were fiercely
(C) Bengal (D) Bihar freedom loving
3. The Balkan Plan for fragmentation of India (D) There were already some groups fighting
was the brain-child of— against the kingship and its protector,
(A) W. Churchil The British
(B) M.A. Jinnah 9. That the per capita income in India was Rs. 20
(C) Lord Mountbatten in 1867-68, was ascertained for the first time
(D) V.P. Menon by—
4. Which one of the following is not a feature of (A) M.G. Ranade (B) Sir W. Hunter
the Government of India Act of 1935 ? (C) R.C. Dutta (D) Dadabhai Naoroji
(A) Diarchy at the Centre as well as in the
10. After returning from South Africa, Gandhiji
provinces
launched his first successful satyagraha in—
(B) A bicameral legislature
(C) Provincial autonomy (A) Chauri Chaura (B) Dandi
(D) An All India Federation (C) Champaran (D) Bardoli

5. The Indian National Army (I.N.A.) came into 11. ‘Deshbandhu’ is the title of—
existence in 1943 in— (A) B.R. Ambedkar
(A) Japan (B) Then Burma (B) C.R. Das
(C) Singapore (D) Then Malaya (C) B.C. Pal
6. The last major extension of the British Indian (D) Rabindranath Tagore
territory took place during the time of— 12. Assertion (A) : Lord Linlithgo described the
(A) Dufferin (B) Dulhousie August movement of 1942 as the most serious
(C) Lytton (D) Curzon revolt after the sepoy mutiny.
7. As an alternative to the partition of India, Reason (R) : Peasants joined the movement
Gandhiji suggested to Mountbatten that he in large number in some places.
should— (A) Both A and R are true and R is the
(A) Postpone granting of independence correct explanation of A
32A | O.G.K.

(B) Both A and R are true but R is not the 19. The British Prime Minister who declared his
correct explanation of A Communal Award Scheme to India in 1932
(C) A is true but R is false was—
(D) A is false but R is true (A) Winston Churchill
13. Assertion (A) : The basic weakness of the (B) Clement Attlee
early nationalist movement lay in its narrow (C) Ramsay McDonald
social base. (D) Nerille Chamberlain
Reason (R) : It fought for the narrow inte-
20. Santhal was associated with—
rests of the social groups which joined it.
(A) Tribal Rebellion
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A (B) Non-cooperation Movement
(B) Both A and R are true but R is not the (C) Salt satyagraha
correct explanation of A (D) Indigo Revolt
(C) A is true but R is false 21. The Congress is tottering to its fall and one of
(D) A is false but R is true my great ambitions, while in India, is to assist
14. "In this instance we could not play off the it to a peaceful demise.
Mohammedans against the Hindus" To which Who made this statement ?
one of the following events did this remark of (A) Cripps (B) Curzon
Aitchison relate ? (C) Dufferin (D) Irwin
(A) Revolt of 1857
22. Mahatma Gandhi left Bombay for London to
(B) Champaran Satyagraha (1942) participate in the second round table con-
(C) Khilafat and Non-cooperation Move- ference as a Congress representative in the
ment (1919-22) ship known as—
(D) August Movement of 1942 (A) S.S. Rajputana
15. The first Governor General of India was (B) S.S. Viceroy of India
appointed under the provisions of the Act (C) S.S. Mooltan
of— (D) S.S. Conte Rosso
(A) 1773 (B) 1784
23. Who had moved a resolution for the Creation
(C) 1833 (D) 1858 of Pakistan in the Muslim League session of
16. Who among the following is associated with 1940 ?
Bardoli satyagraha ? (A) M.A. Jinnah (B) Mohammad Iqbal
(A) Kaka Kalelkar (B) Vinoba Bhave (C) Rahmat Ali (D) Khaliqujjaman
(C) Sardar Patel (D) Mahatma Gandhi
24. An anti British outfit 'Abhinava Bharat' was
17. Gandhiji believed that satyagraha is a weapon founded by—
of— (A) R.G. Bhandarkar
(A) The poor (B) V.D. Savarkar
(B) The weak (C) C.R. Das
(C) The untouchables (D) Sardar Bhagat Singh
(D) None of these 25. Which of the followimg represented the
18. In the year 1905, Gopal Krishna Gokhale Indian Christians in the First Round Table
founded the— Conference held at London ?
(A) Servants of India society (A) Rao Bahadur Srinivasan
(B) Asiatic society (B) Sir Akbar Hydari
(C) Brahmo samaj (C) Sir A.P. Patro
(D) Bharat sewak samaj (D) K.T. Paul
 O.G.K. | 33A

26. Arrange the following movements in correct 32. Sir Thomas Munro is associated with the land
chronological order by using the codes given revenue settlement—
below : (A) Permanent settlement
1. Civil Disobedience 2. Khilafat (B) Mahalwari settlement
3. Non-cooperation 4. Quit India (C) Rayotwari settlement
Codes : (D) None of the above
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4 (B) 2, 3, 4, 1 33. Persian weekly 'Miratul Akhbar' was pub-
(C) 2, 3, 1, 4 (D) 3, 1, 4, 2 lished by—
27. Arrange the following plans in chronological (A) Lala Lajpat Rai
order : (B) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
1. Cripps Plan (C) Sir Syed Ahmad Khan
2. Cabinet Mission Plan
(D) Maulana Shibli Nomani
3. Mountbatten Plan
4. Wavell Plan 34. Which of the following occurred last ?
(A) 1, 4, 2, 3 (B) 2, 3, 1, 4 (A) Annexation policy
(C) 3, 4, 1, 2 (D) 1, 3, 2, 4 (B) Partition of Bengal
28. The 'Young India' was started as a weekly (C) Permanent settlement
by— (D) Subsidiary Alliance
(A) The Home Rule Party 35. Karamchand Gandhi was a Dewan of—
(B) The Extremist Party (A) Porbandar
(C) Ghadar Party (B) Rajkot
(D) Swaraj Party (C) Wakaner
29. Which of the following said that Mohammad (D) All of the above states
Ali Jinnah was the ‘Ambassador of Hindu- 36. Which one of the following persons called
Muslim unity’ ? Irwin and Gandhiji ‘the two mahatmas’ ?
(A) Sarojini Naidu (A) Mira Benn
(B) Annie Besant (B) Sarojini Naidu
(C) Raj Kumari Amrit Kaur (C) Madan Mohan Malviya
(D) Aruna Asaf Ali (D) Jawaharlal Nehru
30. The Congress supported the Khilafat move- 37. Which one of the following was the first to
ment mainly for : impose censorship of the press ?
1. Reinstatement of Caliph (A) Wellesley (B) Hastings
2. Removal of Caliph (C) Johan Adams (D) Dalhousie
3. Getting the sympathy of the Muslims
38. Assertion (A) : Britain granted independence
4. Marginalising Jinnah in the Congress
to India in 1947.
Select the correct answer from the codes
Reason (R) : Britain was weakened in the
given below—
world war II.
(A) 1 and 3 (B) 2 and 4
Choose the correct answer from the codes
(C) 3 and 4 (D) 1 and 4 given below—
31. ‘Depressed Classes League’ was established (A) Both A and R are true and R is the
by— correct explanation of A
(A) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (B) Both A and R are true but R is not the
(B) Babu Jagjiwan Ram correct explanation of A
(C) N.S. Kajrolkar (C) A is true but R is false
(D) Mahatma Jyotiba Phule (D) A is false but R is true
34A | O.G.K.

39. On November 1, 1858, Queen Victoria Pro- 46. Assertion (A) : Bal Gangadher Tilak was a
clamation was read out at Allahabad by— communalist.
(A) Lord William Bentick Reason (R) : He used religion as a political
(B) Lord Canning weapon.
(C) Lord Bernham (A) Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
(D) Sir Harcourt Butler.
(B) Both A and R are true but R is not the
40. The prefix 'Mahatma' was added with the correct explanation of A
name of Gandhi— (C) A is true but R is false
(A) During Champaran satyagrah (D) A is false but R is true
(B) During the satyagrah against Rowlatt Act 47. Who accused Indian National Congress of
(C) In the Amritsar session of the Indian practising ‘politics’ of prayer, petition and
National Congress 1919 protest—
(D) At the beginning of khilafat movement (A) Lala Hardayal
41. Who was the first President of All India Trade (B) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
Union Congress— (C) Subhash Chandra Bose
(A) Dewan Chaman Lal (D) Sardar Bhagat Singh
(B) Lala Lajpat Rai 48. The person who returned his token of honour
to Government of India on May 30, 1919
(C) N.G. Ranga was—
(D) Swami Sahajanand (A) Jamnalal Bajaj
42. Kanpur conspirarcy case was against leaders (B) Tej Bahadur Sapru
of— (C) Mahatma Gandhi
(A) Khilafat movement (D) Rabindra Nath Tagore
(B) Non-cooperation movement 49. Name of the leader who was regarded by
(C) Communist movement Mahatma Gandhi as his political guru—
(D) Revolutionary movement (A) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(B) Rabindranath Tagore
43. Of the following who was not a signatory to (C) Lord Irwin
the historic Poona Pact of 1932 ? (D) Leo Tolstoy
(A) B.R. Ambedkar
50. The Simon Commision visited India after
(B) Madan Mohan Malviya the—
(C) C. Rajgopalachari (A) Civil Disobedience Movement
(D) M.K. Gandhi (B) Non-cooperation Movement
44. The American publicist who was with (C) Swadeshi Movement
Mahatma Gandhi during his ‘Quit India’ (D) Quit India Movement
movement was—
51. Vande Mataram was taken from—
(A) Louis Fischer (B) William L. Shiver
(A) Rajtarangani (B) Anand Math
(C) Web Miller (D) Negley Farson (C) Akbarnama (D) Akbar Kosha
45. Find the correct sequence of the following 52. “Repression is repression; if it is legal, (it
events from the codes given below : must be resisted peacefully; but if it is illegal,
1. Chauri Chaura episode. it must be illegally met)”. Who made this
2. Suspension of non-cooperation movement. remark ?
3. Bardoli resolution. (A) Jawaharlal Nehru
Codes : (B) Gandhiji
(A) 1, 2, 3 (B) 2, 3, 1 (C) Dadabhai Naoroji
(C) 1, 3, 2 (D) 2, 1, 3 (D) Bal Gangadhar Tilak

53. Assertion (A) : Abolition of Sati was the
most salutary measure of the Company's
Government.
Reason (R) : Sati was practised mainly in
Punjab, Rajasthan, Madura and Ganges
Velley.
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true
54. Assertion (A) : After leaving the Indian
National Congress, Subhash Chandra Bose
formed the Forward Bloc.
Reason (R) : Indian National Army had a
Gandhi Brigade.
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true
55. Assertion (A) : Lord Curzon partitioned
Bengal.
Reason (R) : The Congress was split between
the Moderates and Extremists.
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true
56. In which of the following sessions of the
Indian National Congress was the demand for
‘Swarajya’ made ?
(A) Lahore, 1929 (B) Lucknow, 1899
(C) Calcutta, 1928 (D) Karachi, 1931
57. Which one of the following authors put forth
the theory of the Drain of India's resources to
England ?
(A) Raja Rammohan Roy
(B) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
(C) G.G. Agarkar
(D) Dadabhai Naoroji
58. During the Indian freedom struggle, an un-
armed large crowd gathered in the Jallianwala
O.G.K. | 35A
Bagh at Amritsar on 13th April 1919 to protest
against the arrest of—
(A) Dr. Saifuddin Kitchlu and Dr. Satyapal
(B) Swami Shraddhanand and Mazharul Haq
(C) Madan Mohan Malaviya and Mohammed
Ali Jinnah
(D) Mahatma Gandhi and Abul Kalam Azad
59. Under the permanent settlement 1793, the
Zamindars were required to issue pattas to the
farmers which were not issued by many of the
Zamindars. The reason was—
(A) The Zamindars were trusted by the
farmers
(B) There was no official check upon the
Zamindars.
(C) It was the responsibility of the British
Government
(D) The farmers were not interested in
getting pattas.
60. Who among the following leaders proposed to
adopt complete Independence as the goal of
the Congress in the Ahmedabad session of
1920 ?
(A) Abul Kalam Azad
(B) Hasrat Mohani
(C) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(D) Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi
61. Who among the following organized the
famous Chittagong Armoury raid ?
(A) Laxmi Sehgal
(B) Surya Sen
(C) Batukeshwar Dutta
(D) J.M. Sengupta
62. A London branch of the All India Muslim
League was established in 1908 under the
presidency of—
(A) Aga Khan
(B) Ameer Ali
(C) Liaquat Ali Khan
(D) M.A. Jinnah
63. Who among the following was the President
of The All India State ‘Peoples’ Conference
in 1937 ?
(A) Jaya Prakash Narayan
(B) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(C) Seikh Abdullah
(D) Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel
36A | O.G.K.
64. All India Muslim League was formed in—
(A) Lahor (B) Aligarh
(C) Lucknow (D) Dhaka
65. Which one of the following Viceroys of India
utilised for the first time local self govern-
ment as the basis of election?
(A) Lord Bentinck (B) Lord Cornwallis
(C) Lord Ripon (D) Lord Lansdowne
66. Mahatma Gandhi gave up his 'Fast unto death'
he had undertaken to protest against the
Communal Award because—
(A) The British Government withdrew the
offer of Communal Award
(B) The depressed classes refused to accept
the concessions awarded to them by the
government
(C) The Congress agreed to fight against the
award, till it was withdrawn by the
government
(D) The Poona pact was ratified by the Hindu
Mahasabha and accepted by the Govern-
ment
67. Which of the followimg pairs are correctly
matched ?
1. Surya Sen—Chittagong armoury raid
2. Rabindranath Tagore—Raksha-bandhan
festival
3. Sir Syed Ahmad Khan—Aligarh move-
ment
4. Lord Lytton—Ilbert Bill
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below—
(A) 2, 3 and 4 (B) 1, 2 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 2 and 3
68. In the colonial period of India, which one of
the following was a consequence of the other
three ?
(A) Reform movement of the 19th century
(B) Rise of the middle classes
(C) Spread of education
(D) Missionary activity
69. Which one of the following was the aim of
the Nehru Report of 1928 ?
(A) To draft a Constitution for India
(B) To prepare a plan to achieve freedom for
India through revolution
(C) To bring a rapprochement between the
Indian National Congress and the Muslim
League
(D) To determine the responsibility of Brig-
Dyer for the Jallianwala Bagh tragedy
70. Three amongst the following were charged
with waging war against the King Emperor in
November 1945. Who was not ?
(A) Col. Shah Nawaz Khan
(B) Capt. Sehgal
(C) Lt. G.S. Dhillon
(D) Damodar Chapekar
71. The Government of India Act 1935 provided
for a federation with the provinces and the
princely states as its units. Why did this part
of the Act not come into force? Because—
(A) The Congress did not accept it
(B) The Muslim league did not accept it
(C) Some of the provinces did not accept it
(D) The rulers of the princely states did not
consent to join
72. The Hunter Inquiry Committee was appointed
by the British Government which was
expected to look into—
(A) Bardoli Satyagraha
(B) Khilafat agitation
(C) Jallianwala Bagh Massacre
(D) Chauri-Chaura incident
73. Why did the Indians decide to boycott the
Simon Commission appointed to look into the
working of the Act of 1919? Because—
(A) It intended to provide communal
representation to the untouchables
(B) It denied the Congress the right to
nominate a Muslim as a representative on
the Commission
(C) It did not include any Indian as its
member
(D) It accorded greater representation to the
Muslims than their strength in Muslim
minority areas
74. Which of the following states was not annexed
under the Doctrine of Lapse ?
(A) Satara (B) Jhansi
(C) Awadh (D) Nagpur
 O.G.K. | 37A

75. What was Lala Lajpat Rai demostrating 82. The Simon Commission was formed to
against when he succumbed to police review—
brutality ? (A) Legislatures in India
(A) Rowlatt Act (B) Fitness of India for further reforms
(B) Minto Morley Reforms (C) The position of the Viceroy
(C) Pitts India Act (D) A Constitution for India
(D) Simon Commission
83. One time associate of Mahatma Gandhi broke
76. Who founded the Servants of India Society ? off from him and launched a radical move-
(A) Chittaranjan Das ment called ‘Self respect movement’ Who was
he?
(B) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(C) Lala Her Dayal (A) P. Thyagaraja Shetti
(D) Gopal Krishna Gokhale (B) Chhatrapati Maharaj
(C) E.V. Ramaswamy Naicker
77. The first Governor General of The East India
(D) Jyotirao Govindrao Phule
Company in India was—
(A) Robert Clive 84. The first attempt to introduce a representative
(B) Sir John Shore and popular element in the governance of
India was made through—
(C) Warren Hastings
(A) Indian Councils Act 1861
(D) Marquis of Hastings
(B) Indian Councils Act 1892
78. Who among the following attended all the (C) Indian Councils Act 1909
three Round Table Conferences ?
(D) Govenment of India Act 1919
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
85. What was the attempt of Jyotiba Phule's
(B) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar satyashodhak samaj in the last century ?
(C) Vallabh Bhai Patel (A) Saving the lower castes from hypocritical
(D) Dr. Rajendra Prasad Brahmans and their opportunistic scrip-
tures
79. The Indian National Army (I.N.A.) came into
existence in— (B) Attacking the caste system
(A) Burma (C) Led an anti landlord and anti mahajan up-
surge in Satara
(B) Japan
(D) Separate representation for untouchables
(C) Malaysia
(D) Singapore 86. In which of the following movements did
Mahatma Gandhi make the first use of hunger
80. The call ‘Dilli Challo’ was given by— strike as a weapon?
(A) Lala Lajpat Rai (A) Non-cooperation Movement 1920-22
(B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (B) Rowlatt Satyagraha 1919
(C) Subhash Chandra Bose (C) Ahmedabad Strike 1918
(D) Mahatma Gandhi (D) Bardoli Satyagraha
81. Who among the following was instrumental 87. Who led the Salt Satyagraha Movement with
in the abolition of sati in 1829 ? Gandhi ?
(A) Lord Hastings (A) Annie Besant
(B) Lord Rippon (B) Mridula Sarabhai
(C) Lord Bentinck (C) Muthu Lakshmi
(D) Lord Irwin (D) Sarojini Naidu
38A | O.G.K.

88. Who persuaded the ratings of the RIN (Royal Answers

Indian Navy) to surrender on February 23,
1946 ? 1. (D) 2. (C) 3. (C) 4. (A) 5. (C)
(A) Mahatma Gandhi 6. (A) 7. (B) 8. (B) 9. (D) 10. (C)
(B) Jawaharlal Nehru and Maulana Abul 11. (B) 12. (B) 13. (C) 14. (C) 15. (A)
Kalam Azad 16. (C) 17. (D) 18. (A) 19. (C) 20. (A)
(C) Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel and M.A. 21. (B) 22. (A) 23. (A) 24. (B) 25. (C)
Jinnah 26. (C) 27. (A) 28. (A) 29. (A) 30. (A)
(D) Morarji Desai and J.B. Kripalani 31. (A) 32. (C) 33. (B) 34. (B) 35. (D)
89. On September 20, 1932 Mahatma Gandhi 36. (B) 37. (A) 38. (A) 39. (B) 40. (A)
began a fast unto death in Yervada jail 41. (B) 42. (C) 43. (B) 44. (C) 45. (A)
against the— 46. (D) 47. (B) 48. (D) 49. (A) 50. (B)
(A) British repression of the satyagrahis 51. (B) 52. (D) 53. (C) 54. (C) 55. (B)
(B) Violation of the Gandhi Irwin Pact 56. (A) 57. (D) 58. (A) 59. (B) 60. (D)
(C) Communal award of Ramsay Mac- 61. (B) 62. (B) 63. (B) 64. (D) 65. (C)
Donald
66. (D) 67. (D) 68. (A) 69. (A) 70. (D)
(D) Communal riots in Calcutta
71. (A) 72. (C) 73. (C) 74. (C) 75. (D)
90. What was the ultimate goal of Mahatma
76. (D) 77. (C) 78. (B) 79. (D) 80. (C)
Gandhi's salt satyagraha ?
(A) Repeal of salt satyagraha 81. (C) 82. (B) 83. (C) 84. (D) 85. (B)
(B) Curtailment of the Government's power 86. (C) 87. (D) 88. (C) 89. (C) 90. (D)
(C) Economic relief to the common people 91. (B) 92. (A) 93. (D) 94. (B)
(D) Purna swaraj for India
91. In 1939, for the first time, Gandhiji tried out Hints
his specific techniques of controlled mass
struggle in his native state. He allowed one of 15. Warren Hastings.
his close associates to lead a satyagraha. Who 17. Gandhiji believed that Satyagrah is the
was he ? weapon of the strong or brave.
(A) K.T. Bhashyam in Mysore 37. Wellesley was the first to impose censorship
(B) Jamnalal Bajaj in Jaipur of press in 1799.
(C) Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel in Rajkot 41. The first session of All India Trade Union
(D) Nebakrishna Chaudhri in Dhenkanal Congress was held at Bombay, Lala Lajpat
92. Bengal was partitioned in 1905 under the Rai was the president of this session.
Viceroyalty of— 46. Tilak started akharas, lathi clubs, Shivaji and
(A) Lord Curzon (B) Lord Dufferin Ganapati festivals to inculcate among the
(C) Lord Hardinge (D) Lord Minto people the spirit of service to the nation. He
used religion as a political weapon but he was
93. Where did Mahatma Gandhi first apply his not a communalist.
technique of satyagraha?
48. On may 10, 1919 Rabindra Nath Tagore
(A) Dandi (B) Champaran
returned his token of Honour to the Govern-
(C) England (D) South Africa ment of India in protest against Jallianwalah
94. The Azad Hind Fauj was formed in— Bagh massacre.
(A) 1937 (B) 1942 64. In 1906.
(C) 1943 (D) 1945 65. In 1881-82.
 Economics
1. As per RBI monetary and Credit Policy (April
1, 2014) Cash Reserve Ration (CRR) and
repo rate stood at—
(A) 3·75% and 8·0% respectively
(B) 3·75% and 8·25% respectively
(C) 4·0% and 8·0% respectively
(D) 4·0% and 8·25% respectively
2. When was decimal coinage introduced in
India?
(A) 1950 (B) 1957
(C) 1947 (D) 1960
3. At present how many banks are working
under public sector in India ?
(A) 19 (B) 26
(C) 28 (D) 20
4. Consider the following statements :
1. National Thermal Power Corporation has
diversified into hydropower sector.
2. Power Grid Corporation of India has
diversified into telecom sector.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct ?
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
5. Which one of the following states has the
highest female literacy rate in India ?
(A) Kerala (B) Rajasthan
(C) Tamil Nadu (D) Karnataka
6. Economic liberalisation in India started with—
(A) Substantial changes in industrial lincen-
sing policy
(B) The convertibility of Indian rupee
(C) Doing away with procedural formalities
for foreign direct investment
(D) Significant reduction in tax rates
7. Gilt edged market means—
(A) Bullion market
(B) Market of government securities
(C) Market of guns
(D) Market of pure metals
8. Who is considered as the Father of White
Revolution in India ?
(A) Norman Borlaug
(B) Varghese Kurien
(C) V. K. R. V. Rao
(D) M. S. Swaminathan
9. The growth rate of per capita income at
current prices is higher than that of the per
capita income at constant prices, because the
latter takes into account the rate of—
(A) Growth of population
(B) Increase in price level
(C) Growth of money supply
(D) Increase in the wage rate
10. In an open economy, the national income (Y)
of the economy is ( C, I, G, X, M stand for
consumption, Investment, Government ex-
penditure, total exports and total imports
respectively)—
(A) Y = C + I + G + X
(B) Y = C + I + G – X + M
(C) Y = C + I + G + (X – M)
(D) Y = C + I – G + X – M
11. The present (from June 14, 2014) S.L.R. is—
(A) 8·50 per cent (B) 23 per cent
(C) 8·25 per cent (D) 22·5 per cent
12. A rise in ‘SENSEX’ means—
(A) A rise in prices of shares of all com-
panies registered with Bombay Stock
Exchange
(B) A rise in prices of shares of all com-
panies registered with National Stock
Exchange
40A | O.G.K.
(C) An overall rise in prices of shares of
group of companies registered with
Bombay Stock Exchange
(D) A rise in prices of shares of all compa-
nies belonging to a group of companies
registered with Bombay Stock Exchange
13. As per 2011 population census, India’s popu-
lation is—
(A) 102 crore (B) 112 crore
(C) 121 crore (D) 125 crore
14. Which one of the following statements rela-
ting to India’s external debt during the current
decade of 21st century is not correct ?
(A) Total external debt as a proportion of
GDP has been on decline
(B) Short term debt (with an original matu-
rity of upto one year) as proportion of
total debt has been on decline
(C) The concessional debt as proportion of
total debt has been on increase
(D) The debt service payments as a pro-
portion of current receipts have been on
decline during the decade
15. Which one of the following countries occu-
pies the first place in the ‘Global Competitive
Report’ of World Economic Forum ?
(A) U.S.A. (B) Singapore
(C) Hong Kong (D) France
16. Assertion (A) : The rate of growth of India’s
exports has shown an appreciable increase
after 1991.
Reason (R) : The government of India has
resorted to devaluation.
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true
17. We have all heard of a venture capitalist in
the IT industry. Who or what is an angel
investor ?
(A) Someone who puts money in the begin-
ning of the project and usually does not
expect returns on the investment
(B) Someone who puts money in an internet
company that is running into losses
(C) Someone who gives only technical con-
sultancy for the project
(D) None of the above
18. Which company has been listed as the highest
spender on advertisements ?
(A) Reliance (B) Hindustan Lever
(C) Dabur India (D) Nestle India
19. As per projections made by FICCI, India’s
economic growth is likely to pick-up and
attain ........... per cent in 2014-15.
(A) 5·0% (B) 5·2%
(C) 5·5% (D) 5·8%
20. On April 2, 2014 RBI granted ‘in Principle’
approval to Set-up bank. Out of 25 applicants
this approval was given to only—
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) 5
21. Which one of the following statements is not
correct ?
(A) Under the Targeted Public Distribution
System, the families Below Poverty Line
are provided 50 kg of foodgrains per
month per family at subsidised price
(B) Under Annapurna Scheme, indigent
senior citizens of 65 years of age or
above are eligible for National Old Age
Pension but not getting pension can get
10 kg of foodgrains per person per month
free of cost
(C) Ministry of Social Justice and Empo-
werment has a scheme in which indigent
people living in welfare institutions like
orphanages are given 15 kg of foodgrains
per person per month at BPL rates
(D) Ministry of Human Resource Develop-
ment gives financial support to Mid-day
Meal Scheme for the benefit of class I to
V students in Government or Govern-
ment aided schools
22. ‘Silviculture’ is related to—
(A) Flower Production
(B) Silk Worm Rearing
(C) Forest Development
(D) Grape Production
 O.G.K. | 41A

23. In February 2014, Ennore Port in Tamil Nadu 31. ‘Dumping’ in the context of international trade
was renamed as— refers to—
(A) Rajeev Gandhi Port (A) Exporting goods at prices below the
(B) Kamrajar Port actual cost of production
(C) MG Ramchandran Port (B) Exporting goods without paying the
(D) Indira Gandhi Port appropriate taxes in the receiving coun-
try
24. With which airlines does virgin Atlantic have (C) Exporting goods of inferior quality
a strategic tie up ?
(D) Exporting goods only to re-import them
(A) United Airlines at cheaper rates
(B) British Airways
32. The degree of inflation is measured with the
(C) Singapore Airlines help of—
(D) Air India (A) Market information
25. The largest company of making ‘Cell Phone’ (B) Income-index number
in the world is—
(C) General price index number
(A) Samsung (B) Nokia
(D) Prices of goods and services
(C) Panasonic (D) Motorola
26. Since August 1991 uptill March 2013, the 33. Silicon Valley of India is located in—
largest source of Foreign Direct Investment in (A) Dehradun (B) Bengaluru
India is— (C) Hyderabad (D) Srinagar
(A) Germany (B) Japan 34. Which one of the following agencies has the
(C) Mauritius (D) Italy power to declare any industrial unit as a
27. Which one of the following has been the main potentially sick unit ?
accusation against the software company (A) BIFR (B) MRTPC
microsoft ? (C) FICCI (D) IRBI
(A) Cheating shareholders 35. Consider the following statements :
(B) Monopoly trade The foreign exchange reserve of India consist
(C) Tax evasion of—
(D) Funding political parties 1. Foreign currency assets held by the RBI.
28. The total sum of the goods and services pro- 2. Gold holding of the RBI.
duced within a country in a year minus depre- 3. Special Drawing Rights.
ciation is called the— 4. Reserve Tranche with IMF.
(A) Gross National Product Which of these statements are correct ?
(B) Net National Product (A) 1 and 3 (B) 1 and 2
(C) Gross Domestic Product (C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(D) Net Domestic Product 36. Committee on decontrolling the prices of
29. Which country is the largest producer of petrol and diesel was headed by—
coffee in the world ? (A) Kelkar Vijay (B) Kirit S. Parekh
(A) China (B) India (C) Abhijit Sen (D) C. Rangarajan
(C) Mexico (D) Brazil 37. Which one of the following organisations has
recently been set up by the Government of
30. India State of Forest Report 2011 puts forest
India to provide single-point interface bet-
area in the country at—
ween foreign investors and the government
(A) Below 25% machinery ?
(B) Between 25% to 35% (A) Foreign Investment Monitoring Agency
(C) Between 25% to 27% (B) Foreign Investment Implementation
(D) Between 35% to 40% Agency
42A | O.G.K.

(C) Foreign Investment Monitoring Autho- 45. Which of the following are the main causes of
rity slow rate of growth of per capita income in
(D) Foreign Investment Implementation India ?
Authority 1. High capital-output ratio
38. Consider the following budgetary features of 2. High rate of growth of population
2014-15 budget : 3. High rate of capital formation
1. Income Tax slabs broadened—20% on 4. High level of fiscal deficits
Income above 8 lakh to 10 lakh. Find correct answer from the codes given
2. Fiscal deficit is estimated at about 4·1% below—
of GDP. (A) 1 and 2 (B) 2, 3 and 4
3. Revenue deficit is estimated at about (C) 1 and 4 (D) All of these
2·9%. 46. Which of the Indian companies have been
Which of the above are true ? named among the world’s most admired
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 1, 2 and 3 companies by fortune magazine ?
(C) 1 and 3 (D) 2 and 3 (A) Tata Steel and ONGC
(B) BHEL and ONGC
39. In which of the following states, Internet
(C) BHEL and Tata Steel
users are maximum in India ?
(D) RIL and ONGC
(A) Uttar Pradesh (B) Punjab
(C) Kerala (D) Maharashtra 47. Liberalised exchange rate system was declared
in the Union Budget of—
40. The gold stocks of RBI are valued at the rate (A) 1991-92 (B) 1992-93
of—
(C) 1993-94 (D) 1994-95
(A) International Gold Price
48. The two top Indian occupy the place in the
(B) Prevailing Domestic Market Price
world billionaire list-2014 prepared by Forbes
(C) 10,000 per 10 gm are :
(D) 20,000 per 10 gm 1. Anil Ambani 2. Laxmi N. Mittal
41. The average annual growth target for the 3. Azim Premji 4. Mukesh Ambani
Twelth Five Year Plan as revised by the Select the correct answer from the codes
Planning Commission is— given below—
(A) 8 per cent (B) 9 per cent
(A) 1 and 2 are correct
(C) 8·5 per cent (D) 8·2 per cent (B) 2 and 3 are correct
42. PLR is directly related to Commercial (C) 3 and 4 are correct
Bank’s— (D) 4 and 2 are correct
(A) Deposits
(B) Income 49. Which of the following has chosen Gross
National Happiness as the index of pro-
(C) Borrowings
gress?
(D) Capital adequacy ratio
(A) Sweden (B) Switzerland
43. Which of the following foodgrains has regis- (C) Bhutan (D) Japan
tered maximum increase in average produc-
tion/quintal per acre during the last 50 years 50. Sustainable agriculture means—
in India ? (A) Self-sufficiency
(A) Rice (B) Wheat (B) To be able to export and import under
WTO norms
(C) Maize (D) Pulses
(C) To utilise land so that its quality remains
44. India’s wage policy is based on— intact
(A) Cost of living (B) Standard of living (D) To utilise waste land for agricultural
(C) Productivity (D) None of these purposes
 O.G.K. | 43A

51. ‘CENVAT’ is related to— 58. What is the number of ‘Navratan’ companies
(A) Income Tax (B) Sales Tax in India at present ?
(C) Excise Duty (D) None of these (A) 11 (B) 17
52. Which among the following State/UT/city has (C) 14 (D) 19
the highest per capita electricity consumption 59. If all banks in an economy are nationalised
in the country ? and converted into a monopoly bank, the total
(A) Pudduchery deposits—
(B) Delhi (A) will neither increase nor decrease
(C) Mumbai (B) will decrease
(D) Dadra and Nagar Haveli (C) will increase
53. Which among the following sectors has (D) None of the above
largest contribution in Gross Domestic 60. Find the odd one out—
Savings in India ?
(A) NSE (B) BSE
(A) Public Sector
(B) Households (C) DSE (D) SEBI
(C) Private Sector Corporates 61. Highly Profitable Public Sector Unit is—
(D) Unorganised Sector (A) Videsh Sanchar Nigam Ltd.
54. What is the theme of World Development (B) Oil & Natural Gas Corporation
Report 2013 ? (C) Indian Oil Corporation
(A) Job (D) None of the above
(B) Millennium Development Goals 62. National Insurance Company Ltd. is a subsi-
(C) Human Development to Eradicate diary of —
Poverty (A) Kotak Mahindra
(D) People’s Participation (B) LIC of India
55. Which of the following causes have been (C) Telco
mainly responsible for the slow growth of real (D) General Insurance Corporation of India
per capita income in India ?
63. After 1991, the Central Government imple-
1. Rapid rise in population. mented various far-reaching reforms in the
2. Rapid rise in prices. area of taxation. This was based on the
3. Slow pace of progress in agricultural and recommendations of the—
industrial fields. (A) Wanchoo Committee
4. Non-availability of foreign exchange.
(B) Rajah Chelliah Committee
Find correct answer from the codes given
below— (C) Raj Committee
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only (D) Narsimham Committee
(C) 1 and 4 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 64. A steady increase in the general level of
prices as a result of excessive increase in
56. “The Rise of the South : Human Progress in a aggregate demand as compared to aggregate
Diverse World” is the theme of— supply is termed as—
(A) World Development Report 2013 (A) Demand Pull inflation
(B) Global Economic Prospects 2013 (B) Cost Push inflation
(C) Human Development Report 2013 (C) Stagflation
(D) None of the above (D) Structural inflation
57. What is the estimated replacement reproduc- 65. After the initiation of economic reforms in
tion level per married couple to obtain zero 1991-92, the amount of—
population growth ? (A) Direct taxes increased and that of
(A) 2.0 (B) 2.1 indirect taxes decreased in gross tax
(C) 2.6 (D) 3.0 revenue
44A | O.G.K.

(B) Both direct and indirect taxes increased 70. Consider the following factors regarding an
in gross tax revenue industry :
(C) Both direct and indirect taxes decreased 1. Capital investments
in gross tax revenue 2. Business turn over
(D) Direct taxes decreased and that of 3. Labour force
indirect taxes increased in gross tax 4. Power consumption
revenue Which of these determine the nature and size
66. In India, rural incomes are generally lower of the industry ?
than the urban incomes, which of the (A) 1, 3 and 4 (B) 1, 2 and 4
following reasons account for this ? (C) 2, 3 and 4 (D) 2 and 3
1. A large number of farmers are illiterate 71. The most appropriate measure of a country's
and know little about scientific agri- economic growth is its—
culture
(A) Gross Domestic Product
2. Prices of primary products are lower
(B) Net Domestic Product
than those of manufactured products
(C) Net National Product
3. Investment in agriculture has been low
when compared to investment in (D) Per Capita Real Income
industry 72. Match the List-I with List-II and select the
(A) 1 and 3 (B) 2 and 3 correct answer using the codes given below
(C) 1 and 2 (D) All of these the Lists—
List-I List-II
67. Consider the following states :
(Term) (Explanation)
1. Gujarat 2. Karnataka
(a) Fiscal 1. Excess of total expendi-
3. Maharashtra 4. Tamil Nadu
deficit ture over total receipts.
The descending order of these states with
reference to their level of per capita Net State (b) Budget 2. Excess of revenue ex-
Domestic Product is— deficit penditure over revenue
(A) 1, 3, 4, 2 (B) 3, 1, 2, 4 receipts.
(C) 1, 3, 2, 4 (D) 3, 1, 4, 2 (c) Revenue 3. Excess of total expendi-
deficit ture over total receipts
68. Consider the following : less borrowings.
1. Market borrowing.
(d) Primary 4. Excess of total expendi-
2. Treasury bills.
deficit ture over total receipts
3. Special securities issued to RBI.
less borrowings and
Which of these is/are component(s) of inter-
interest payments.
nal debt ?
Codes :
(A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(C) 2 only (D) 1, 2 and 3
(A) 3 1 2 4
69. Consider the following statements regarding (B) 4 3 2 1
Reserve Bank of India :
(C) 1 3 2 4
1. It is a banker to the Central Government.
2. It formulates and administers monetary (D) 3 1 4 2
policy. 73. Which of the following is not included in
3. It acts as an agent of the government in infrastructure in India ?
respect of India’s membership of IMF. (A) Education (B) Insurance
4. It handles the borrowing programme of (C) Energy (D) Transport
Government of India. 74. Which of the following is not viewed as a
Which of these statements are correct ? national debt ?
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2, 3 and 4 (A) Life insurance Policies
(C) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (D) 3 and 4 (B) Long-term Government Bonds
 O.G.K. | 45A

(C) Provident funds 83. Abid Hussain Committee recommendations

(D) National Saving Certificates were related to—
75. Which of the following committees examined (A) Small Scale Industry
and suggested Financial sector reforms in (B) Telecommunication
India ? (C) Railway
(A) Abid Hussain Committee (D) Capital Market
(B) Bhagwati Committee 84. The National Disaster Management Authority
(C) Chelliah Committee was constituted on—
(D) Narasimham Committee (A) June 5, 2006 (B) May 25, 2006
76. In India, which one among the following (C) August 3, 2006 (D) July 15, 2006
formulates the fiscal policy ? 85. Which of the following forms of intellectuals
(A) Ministry of finance property can provide the longest protection ?
(B) Finance Commission (A) Copy right (B) Patent
(C) Reserve Bank of India (C) Trademark (D) Industrial designs
(D) Planning Commission 86. The famous international company 'De Beers'
77. National Income in India is estimated by— is engaged in the business of—
(A) CSO (A) Larger beer (B) Animal skins
(B) Finance Commission (C) Shares & stocks (D) Diamonds
(C) Planning Commission 87. Which of the following is a Maharatna PSU ?
(D) Indian Statistical Institute
(A) VSNL (B) CMC
78. Which of the following is a wrong match ? (C) SAIL (D) IPCL
(A) Santro — Korea (B) Matiz — Taiwan
88. Which of the following has been declared as
(C) Zen — Japan (D) Maruti — India the decade of innovation in India ?
79. Consider the following indicators : (A) 1990-2000 (B) 2010-2020
1. Life expectancy at birth. (C) 1980-1990 (D) None of the above
2. Adult literacy rate.
89. The 12th Five Year Plan envisaged the highest
3. Infant mortality rate. sectoral growth for—
Which of these are taken into account while
(A) Agriculture (B) Industry
preparing the Human Development Index in
India ? (C) Manufacturing (D) Service
(A) 2 and 3 (B) Only 1 90. If a country devalued its currency it would be
(C) 1 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3 having the—
(A) Floating exchange rate system
80. Which of the following is a Direct tax ?
(A) Entertainment Tax (B) Fixed exchange rate system
(B) Estate duty (C) Closed Economy
(C) Excise duty (D) Open Economy
(D) Sales tax 91. The crucial determinant of the size of the
81. A tax that takes away a higher proportion of market is—
one’s income as the income rises is termed (A) Monetary expansion
as— (B) Inductment for investment
(A) Progressive tax (B) Proportional tax (C) Productivity
(C) Regressive tax (D) Indirect tax (D) Savings
82. Which of the following has been identified as 92. Which one of the following is not an example
a Scarce Natural Resources of India in Draft of Direct tax ?
Five Year Plan (2012–17) ?
(A) Water (B) Coal (A) Income Tax (B) Wealth
(C) Natural Gas (D) Petroleum (C) Gift Tax (D) Trade Tax
 46A | O.G.K.

93. According to the quantity theory of money, 102. Division of labour is limited by—
the quantity of money determines the— (A) The number of workers
(A) Interest rate (B) Hours of work
(B) Level of real output (C) Extent of the market
(C) Price level (D) Working space
(D) Level of employment 103. The number of major ports in India is—
94. A company is said to be ‘Sick’ when the (A) 13 (B) 12
accumulated loss at the end of any financial (C) 14 (D) 15
year leads to erosion of ……… per cent of its 104. Who among the following is the Chairman of
net worth. the National Disaster Management Authority?
(A) 100% (B) 75% (A) Finance Minister of India
(C) 50% (D) 25% (B) Union Minister for Planning
(C) Prime Minister
95. The abbreviation TRP denotes—
(D) The Union Home Minister
(A) Technical Research Project
105. Which one of the following is the most
(B) Trade Related Procedures sensitive indicator of the health of a Com-
(C) Tax Related Protocols munity ?
(D) Television Rating Point (A) Birth-rate
96. Who is called the Father of Economics ? (B) Infant mortality-rate
(A) J. M. Keynes (B) Malthus (C) Death-rate
(D) Maternal mortality-rate
(C) Ricardo (D) Adam Smith
106. Commercial Banks in India were nationalised
97. The term ‘market’ in Economics means— for the first time in the year—
(A) A central place of Exchange (A) 1950 (B) 1960
(B) Presence of competition (C) 1969 (D) 1979
(C) Place where goods are stored 107. The objectives of Indian Planning are—
(D) Shops and super bazars (A) Increasing national income and employ-
ment
98. Commercial banking system in India is— (B) Reducing inequalities in income and
(A) Mixed banking (B) Unit banking wealth
(C) Branch banking (D) None of the above (C) Elimination of poverty and inequalities
99. The gilt edged market in the capital market of (D) All of the above
India refers to— 108. The Gandhian economy was based on the
(A) Long term private securities principle of—
(B) Market dealing in existing securities (A) State control
(C) Market for corporate securities (B) Competition
(D) Market for government securities (C) Trusteeship
(D) Rural co-operation
100. Which of the following yields the largest
revenue to the Government of India ? 109. Fiscal policy is concerned with—
(A) Sales tax (B) Corporation tax (A) Public revenue
(B) Public expenditure and debt
(C) Income tax (D) Excise duty
(C) Bank rate policy
101. Credit control operation in India is performed (D) Both (A) and (B)
by— 110. The theory of distribution relates to which of
(A) Rural Banks the following ?
(B) Commercial Banks (A) The distribution of assets
(C) Reserve Bank of India (B) The distribution of income among vari-
(D) State Bank of India ous items of expenditure

(C) The distribution of factor payments
(D) Equality in the distribution of income
and wealth
111. If an industry is characterised by economies
of scale then—
(A) Barriers to entry are not very large
(B) Long run unit costs of production decre- 119. The income elasticity of demand being
ases as the quantity the firm produces
increases
(C) Capital requirment are small due to the
efficiency of the large scale operation
(D) The costs of entry into the market are
likely to be substantial
112. Say's Law of Market holds that—
(A) Supply is not equal to demand
(B) Supply creates its own demand
(C) Demand creates its own supply
(D) Supply is greater than demand
113. Movement along the same demand curve is
known as—
(A) Extension and contraction of demand
(B) Increase and decrease of demand
(C) Contraction of supply
(D) Increase of supply
114. Which is a credit rating agency in India ?
(A) CRISIL (B) ICRA
(C) CARE (D) All of the above
115. A tax is characterised by horizontal equity if
its liability is—
(A) Proportional to the income of tax payers
(B) Similar for tax payers in similar circum-
stances
(C) Proportional to the expenditure of tax
payers
(D) The same for every tax payer
116. What does a leasing company provide ?
(A) Machinery and capital equipment on hire
(B) Legal guidance in establishing an enter- 122. National Development Council (NDC) was
prise
(C) Office accommodation on hire
(D) Technical consultancy and experts for a
fee
117. When too much money is chasing too few
goods, the situation is—
(A) Deflation (B) Inflation
(C) Recession (D) Stagflation
O.G.K. | 47A
118. When there is a change in demand leading to
a shift of the Demand Curve to the right, at
the same price as before, the quantity de-
manded will—
(A) Decrease (B) Increase
(C) Remain the same (D) Fluctuate
greater than one, the commodity must be—
(A) A necessity
(B) A luxury
(C) An inferior goods
(D) A Giffin goods
120. 'Marginal efficiency of capital' is—
(A) The expected rate of return on new
investment
(B) The expected rate of return on exist-
ing investment
(C) The difference between the rate of profit
and the rate of interest
(D) The value of output per unit of capi-
tal invested
121. With reference to Indian Public Finance,
consider the following statements :
1. Disbursements from Public Accounts of
India are subject to the vote of Parlia-
ment.
2. The Indian Constitution provides for the
establishment of a Consolidated Fund, a
Public Account and a Contigency Fund
for each state.
3. Appropriations and disbursements under
the Railway Budget are subject to the
same form of parliamentary control as
other appropriations and disbursements.
Which of the statements given above are
correct ?
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1 and 2
(C) 1 and 3 (D) 2 and 3
constituted in—
(A) 1947 (B) 1950
(C) 1952 (D) 1951
123. The major aim of devalution is to—
(A) Encourage imports
(B) Encourage exports
(C) Encourage both exports and imports
(D) Discourage both exports and imports
 48A | O.G.K.

124. Which among the following markets deals 132. Net growth-rate of population is determined
with the government securities ? by—
(A) Primary market (A) Gross reproduction rate
(B) Gilts market (B) The birth-rate & the death-rate
(C) Foreign exchange market (C) The pressure of population
(D) Secondary market (D) The birth-rate in a country
125. Structural unemployment arises due to— 133. A closed economy is one which—
(A) Deflationary conditions (A) Does not trade with other country
(B) Heavy industry bias (B) Does not possess any means of inter-
national transport
(C) Shortage of raw materials
(C) Does not share coastal line
(D) Inadequate productive capacity
(D) Is not a member of the U.N.O.
126. Which states have not yet established 134. Foreign aid will—
Regional Rural Banks ? (A) Raise the level of investment
(A) Sikkim and Goa (B) Be used to enlarge technical resources
(B) Bihar and Rajasthan (C) Be used for building up industries
(C) Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh (D) All of the above
(D) Nagaland and Manipur 135. Operating surplus arises in the—
127. What is the name of MTNL's cellular service? (A) Government sector
(A) Connect next (B) Dolphin (B) Income-tax Returns
(C) Tnex (D) BSNL (C) Agricultural farming
(D) Enterprise sector
128. ‘Open Market Operations’ is a part of—
(A) Income Policy 136. The most important of the non-tariff trade
barriers are—
(B) Fiscal Policy
(A) Quotas
(C) Labour Policy
(B) Health regulations
(D) Credit Policy
(C) Pollution standards
129. When is the budget traditionally presented ? (D) Labelling and packaging regulations
(A) Last working day of the month of
137. Investment is equal to—
February
(A) Gross total of all types of physical
(B) First day of the month of March capital assets
(C) Last week of February (B) Gross total of all capital assets minus
(D) Last week of March wear and tear
130. Countries known as ‘The Four Pacific Tiger (C) Stock of plants, machines and equip-
Economies’ are— ments
(A) Japan, Indonesia, Singapore and (D) None of the above
Hongkong 138. Consider the following steel producing units :
(B) China, Japan, Hongkong and Singapore 1. Bhilai Steel Plant
(C) Singapore, Taiwan, Hongkong and 2. Durgapur Steel Plant
South Korea 3. Rourkela Steel Plant
(D) Indonesia, Philippines, North Korea and 4. Bokaro Steel Plant
Japan 5. IISCO
131. Which U.S. rice growing company was Which of these steel producing plants are
granted the patent of Indian Basmati ? managed by Steel Authority of India Limited?
(A) Kasmati (B) Tex Rice (A) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 (B) 1 and 2
(C) Rice Tec (D) Texmati (C) 2 and 4 (D) 1, 3 and 4
 O.G.K. | 49A

139. What is NABARD's primary role ? (B) Elastic

(A) To provide term loans to state Coope-
rative Banks
(B) To assist State Governments for share
capital contribution
(C) To act as refinance institution
(D) All of the above
140. The sale proceeds of the Government Bonds
come under the budget head of—
(A) Revenue Receipts
(B) Current Expenditure
(C) Capital Outlay
(D) Capital Receipts
141. The term utility means—
(A) Usefulness of a commodity
(B) The satisfaction which a commodity
yields
(C) The service which a commodity is
capable of rendering
(D) None of the above
142. Under flexible exchange rate system, the 149. The concept of mixed economy means—
exchange rate is determined by—
(A) The Central Bank of the country
(B) The forces of demand and supply in the
foreign exchange market
(C) The price of gold
(D) The purchasing power of currencies
143. The size of the market for a product refers
to—
(A) The number of people in the given area
(B) The geographical area served by the
producers
(C) The volume of potential sales of the
product
(D) The number of potential buyers of the
product
144. Economic problem arises mainly due to—
(A) Overpopulation
(B) Unemployment
(C) Scarcity of resources
(D) Lack of small industries
145. If the change in demand for a commodity is at 152. Indian Railways earn maximum revenue
a faster rate than change in the price of the
commodity then the demand is—
(A) Perfectly inelastic
(C) Perfectly elastic
(D) Inelastic
146. Which of the following is/are not fixed costs ?
(A) Rent on land
(B) Municipal taxes
(C) Wages paid to workers
(D) Insurance charges
147. The demand for money, according to Keynes,
is for—
(A) Speculative motive
(B) Transaction motive
(C) Precautionary motive
(D) All the above motives
148. The Reserve Bank of India issues currency
notes under the—
(A) Fixed fiduciary system
(B) Maximum fiduciary system
(C) Fixed minimum reserve system
(D) Proportional reserve system
(A) To have balanced development in the
agricultural and industrial sector
(B) Simultaneous development of the rural
and urban sector
(C) To have equal distribution of wealth
among the rural and the urban poor
(D) Simultaneous existence of the private
and public sector
150. As per 2013-14 Budget, the Income Tax rate
of 30% will be applicable for tax payees
above the income—
(A) 10 lakh (B) 8 lakh
(C) 5 lakh (D) 12 lakh
151. Highest growth rate in 11th Five Year Plan
has been recorded by—
(A) Manufacturing
(B) Transport, Storage and Communication
(C) Financing & Insurance
(D) Construction
from—
(A) Freight (B) Passenger Fare
(C) Traffic Tax (D) Passenger Tax
 50A | O.G.K.

153. Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) inflows into 11. (D) 12. (C) 13. (C) 14. (D) 15. (B)
India jumped stood at ........... in 2013-14. 16. (B) 17. (A) 18. (B) 19. (C) 20. (A)
(A) USD 24·3 billion 21. (A) 22. (C) 23. (B) 24. (D) 25. (A)
(B) USD 22·2 billion 26. (C) 27. (B) 28. (D) 29. (D) 30. (A)
(C) USD 31·1 billion 31. (A) 32. (C) 33. (B) 34. (A) 35. (D)
(D) USD 32·53 billion 36. (B) 37. (D) 38. (D) 39. (D) 40. (A)
154. ‘Equilibrium Price’ is that price which— 41. (A) 42. (C) 43. (B) 44. (A) 45. (A)
46. (A) 47. (B) 48. (C) 49. (B) 50. (C)
(A) Maximizes producers profit
51. (C) 52. (D) 53. (B) 54. (A) 55. (B)
(B) Equates consumers and producers sur-
56. (C) 57. (B) 58. (C) 59. (A) 60. (D)
plus
61. (B) 62. (D) 63. (B) 64. (A) 65. (B)
(C) Maximize consumers satisfaction
66. (D) 67. (D) 68. (D) 69. (C) 70. (B)
(D) Equates supply and demand 71. (D) 72. (A) 73. (B) 74. (D) 75. (D)
155. Where is National Sugar Institute established? 76. (A) 77. (A) 78. (B) 79. (B) 80. (B)
(A) Kanpur (B) New Delhi 81. (A) 82. (A) 83. (A) 84. (D) 85. (B)
(C) Lucknow (D) Gajrola 86. (D) 87. (C) 88. (B) 89. (D) 90. (B)
156. ‘Finance is no laughing matter’ is the punch 91. (B) 92. (D) 93. (C) 94. (A) 95. (B)
line of— 96. (D) 97. (A) 98. (A) 99. (D) 100. (B)
(A) L.I.C. mutual fund 101. (C) 102. (A) 103. (A) 104. (C) 105. (B)
(B) Business standard 106. (C) 107. (D) 108. (C) 109. (D) 110. (C)
111. (B) 112. (B) 113. (A) 114. (D) 115. (A)
(C) ICICI mutual fund
116. (A) 117. (B) 118. (B) 119. (B) 120. (A)
(D) HDFC
121. (A) 122. (C) 123. (B) 124. (B) 125. (D)
157. Consider the following statements : 126. (A) 127. (B) 128. (D) 129. (A) 130. (C)
India continues to be dependent on imports to 131. (C) 132. (B) 133. (A) 134. (D) 135. (D)
meet the requirement of oilseeds in the 136. (A) 137. (B) 138. (A) 139. (A) 140. (D)
country because— 141. (B) 142. (B) 143. (D) 144. (C) 145. (B)
1. Farmers prefer to grow foodgrains with 146. (C) 147. (D) 148. (C) 149. (D) 150. (A)
highly remunerative support prices.
151. (B) 152. (A) 153. (A) 154. (D) 155. (A)
2. Most of the cultivation of oilseeds crops
156. (A) 157. (B) 158. (D)
continues to the dependent on rain fall.
3. Oils from the seeds of tree origin and Hints
rice bran have remained unexploited. 34. Board for Industrial and Financial Recons-
4. It is far cheaper to import oilseeds than truction.
to cultivate the oil seeds crops. 48. The two Indian families among the 48 inclu-
Which of the statements given above are ded in the list of billionaire in the world
correct? according to ‘Forbes billionaire list-2012’ are
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 1, 2 and 3 Mukesh Ambani ($ 22·3 billion) and Laxmi
(C) 3 and 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 N. Mittal ($ 20·7 billion).
158. According to India’s IT industry watch body, 49. Generally per capita income is the indicator
NASSCOM, the Indian IT and Business of progress of any country. But Switzerland
Process Management (BPM) industry will has chosen gross National Happiness as the
grow at rate of........ in financial year 2014-15. index of progress.
(A) 11-13% (B) 12-15% 56. As per World Development Report 2011, the
per capita income (GNI) of Norway in 2009
(C) 13-17% (D) 13-15%
was $ 86440.
Answers 60. All others are Stock Exchanges in India.
1. (C) 2. (C) 3. (B) 4. (A) 5. (A) 97. Where exchange of goods or services takes
6. (A) 7. (B) 8. (B) 9. (B) 10. (C) place.
 Geography of India
1. The Neyyar Irrigation Project is located in— (C) S.W. Monsoon in summer and N.E.
(A) Arunachal Pradesh trade winds in winter
(B) Kerala (D) Nearness to equator
(C) Meghalaya 8. Along which one of the following meridians
(D) Sikkim did India experienced the first light of the
sunrise of the New Millennium ?
2. The formation of Telangana state took place (A) 2°30′ W (B) 82°30′ E
on—
(C) 92°30′ W (D) 97° E
(A) 1st June, 2014 (B) 2nd June, 2014
(C) 1st Feb., 2014 (D) 2nd Feb., 2014 9. Consider the following statements :
1. Tides are of great help in navigation and
3. Telangana constitutes of—
fishing.
(A) 10 districts (B) 12 districts
2. High tides enables big ships to enter or
(C) 15 districts (D) 8 districts leave the harbour safely.
4. Which one of the following pairs of primitive 3. Tide presents siltation in the harbours.
tribes and places of their inhabitation is not 4. Kandla and Diamond Harbour are tidal
correctly matched ? ports.
(A) Buksa : Pauri-Garhwal Which of these statements are correct ?
(B) Kol : Jabalpur (A) 1 and 4 (B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) Munda : Chhota Nagpur (C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(D) Korba : Kodagu
10. HBJ pipelines carry natural gas from—
5. Consider the following statements : (A) Hathras to Bhatinda and Jhansi
1. Damodar Valley Corporation is the first (B) Hosangabad to Bilaspur and Jabalpur
multipurpose river valley project of
independent India. (C) Hazira to Bijapur and Jagdishpur
2. Damodar Valley Corporation includes (D) Hissar to Barmer and Jaisalmer
thermal and gas power stations. 11. Which one of the following shipyards builds
Which of the statements given above is/are warships for Indian Navy ?
correct ? (A) Mazgaon Docks, Mumbai
(A) 1 only (B) Both 1 and 2 (B) Cochin Shipyard, Kochi
(C) 2 only (D) Neither 1 nor 2 (C) Hindustan Shipyard, Vishakhapatnam
6. Which one of the following ports of India (D) Garden Reach Workshop, Kolkata
handles the highest tonnage of import Cargo ? 12. Which one of the following statements is not
(A) Kolkata (B) Kandla true ?
(C) Mumbai (D) Vishakhapatnam (A) Ghaggar’s water is utilised in the Indira
7. Tamil Nadu Coast receives rains both in sum- Gandhi Canal
mer and winter from— (B) Narmada rises from Amarkantak region
(A) Land and sea breezes (C) Nizam Sagar is situated on the Manjra
(B) Frequent cyclones from the Bay of river
Bengal (D) Penganga is a tributary of the Godavari
52A | O.G.K.

13. Consider the following statements about the 19. The mean monthly temperature and rainfall of
megacities of India : a city are plotted in the given diagram :
1. Population of each megacity is more than
5 million.
2. All the megacities are important sea ports.
3. Megacities are either national or state
capitals.
Which of these statements are correct ?
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1 and 2
(C) 2 and 3 (D) 1 and 3
14. The correct sequence in decreasing order of
the four sugarcane producing states in India
is— The city in question is—
(A) Maharashtra, U.P., Tamil Nadu, Andhra (A) Allahabad (B) Amritsar
Pradesh (C) Delhi (D) Jaipur
(B) U.P., Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu, Andhra 20. Shyok is a tributary of—
Pradesh (A) Brahamaputra (B) Indus
(C) Maharashtra, U.P., Andhra Pradesh, (C) Chenab (D) Sutlej
Tamil Nadu 21. Uranium Corporation of India Limited is
(D) U.P., Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, situated in—
Tamil Nadu (A) Maharashtra (B) West Bengal
15. The maximum area under crops in India is (C) Jharkhand (D) Rajasthan
used for the cultivation of— 22. Match List-I with List-II and select the cor-
(A) Wheat (B) Rice rect answer from the code given below the
(C) Sugarcane (D) Cotton lists—
List-I List-II
16. Consider the following statements :
(State) (Tourist Centre)
1. Maharashtra has the highest acreage under
jawar in India. (a) Himachal Pradesh 1. Auli
(b) Uttarakhand 2. Ooty
2. Gujarat is the largest producer of
(c) Karnataka 3. Keylong
groundnut in India.
(d) Tamil Nadu 4. Chikmaglur
3. Rajasthan has the largest area of cultivable
wastelands in India. Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
4. Andhra Pradesh has the highest per
(A) 3 1 4 2
hectare yield of maize in India.
(B) 1 2 3 4
Which of these statements are correct ? (C) 3 4 1 2
(A) 1 and 4 (B) 2 and 3 (D) 4 3 2 1
(C) 1 and 3 (D) 2 and 4 23. In 1498, Vasco-De-Gama reached—
17. Obra known for— (A) Thrivanantpuram (B) Cochin
(A) A new refinery (C) Calicut (D) Ratnagiri
(B) A new aluminium plant 24. Match List-I (Biosphere Reserves) with List-
(C) A bird sanctuary II (States) and select the correct answer using
the codes given below the Lists :
(D) A thermal power station List-I List-II
18. Kishtwar town is situated on the banks of— (Biosphere Reserves) (States)
(A) Beas (B) Chenab (a) Similipal 1. Sikkim
(C) Jhelum (D) Ravi (b) Dehong Debang 2. Uttarakhand
 O.G.K. | 53A

(c) Nokrek 3. Arunachal (C) At Mumbai the sun can come overhead;
Pradesh but it will never do so at Delhi
(d) Kanchanjunga 4. Odisha (D) At Delhi, the sun can come overhead but
5. Meghalaya it will never do so at Mumbai
Codes : 31. The shaded area in the given map of India
(a) (b) (c) (d) shows the distribution of—
(A) 4 3 5 1
(B) 1 3 5 4
(C) 4 5 2 1
(D) 1 5 2 4
25. Which of the following Indian states is
broadly as large as the European nation
Austria ?
(A) Kerala (B) West Bengal
(C) Odisha (D) Karnataka
26. Which of the following district is on the
international border of India ? (A) Coffee (B) Coconut
(A) Sirsa (B) Anantnag (C) Groundnut (D) Tobacco
(C) Karimganj (D) Purulia 32. Consider the following seaports :
27. River that drains on maximum area in 1. Chennai
Telangana state— 2. Machilipatnam
(A) Krishna (B) Tunghbhadra 3. Nagapattinam
(C) Godavari (D) Musi 4. Tuticorin
28. Which one of the following states had a The correct sequence of these ports as one
higher literarcy rate than the rest, according to moves from north to south is—
the 2011 census ?
(A) 1, 2, 4, 3 (B) 2, 1, 3, 4
(A) Mizoram
(C) 1, 3, 2, 4 (D) 2, 1, 4, 3
(B) Goa
(C) Bihar 33. The most commonly consumed staples cereal
(D) Jammu and Kashmir in India is—
29. Which of the following states in India has the (A) Rice (B) Wheat
highest net sown area ? (C) Bajra (D) Maize
(A) Punjab 34. Palk strait separates—
(B) Odisha (A) India and Pakistan
(C) Andhra Pradesh (B) India and Myanmar
(D) Mizoram (C) India and Sri Lanka
30. The axis of rotation of the earth is tilted by (D) India and Afghanistan
23·5° to the plane of revolution around the
Sun. The latitude of Mumbai is less than 35. To ensure the early completion of selected
23·5° whereas the latitude of Delhi is more irrigation and multipurpose projects, the
than 23·5°. government of India launched a programme
to provide central loans to states. The pro-
Which one of the following statements in this
gramme in question is—
regard is correct ?
(A) Command Area Development Project
(A) The Sun can come overhead at both these
places (B) Catchment Area Benefit Programme
(B) The Sun will never come overhead at (C) National Irrigation Development Project
either of these places (D) Accelerated Irrigation Benifit Programme
54A | O.G.K.

36. The dots in the given map of India represent 40. Which among the following National High-
the location of— way routes is the longest ?
(A) Kolkata–Hajira
(B) Agra–Mumbai
(C) Chennai–Thane
(D) Pune–Machilipatnam
41. What is the correct sequence of the descen-
ding order of the following states in respect of
density of population as per the 2011 census.
1. Andhra Pradesh 2. Maharashtra
3. Tamil Nadu 4. West Bengal
Codes :
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4 (B) 4, 3, 2, 1
(C) 3, 4, 1, 2 (D) 4, 2, 3, 1
(A) Bauxite deposits (B) Copper deposits 42. The Radcliffe Line is the International border
between—
(C) Lead deposits (D) Maganese deposits
(A) India and Pakistan
37. 'Indian Standard Meridian' passes through the (B) India and China
states of U.P., M.P.— (C) India and Bangladesh
(A) Chhattisgarh and A.P. (D) India and Nepal
(B) A.P. and Tamil Nadu 43. The Indian Rice Research Institute is located
(C) Karnataka and Tamil Nadu in—
(D) Karnataka and A.P. (A) Kolkata (B) Burdwan
38. The shaded area in the given map of India (C) Trivandrum (D) Cuttack
show the main concentration of— 44. India's first Naval Museum is commissioned
at which of the following sea ports?
(A) Chennai (B) Mumbai
(C) Vishakhapatnam (D) Kochi
45. The Valley of Kashmir is located on a—
(A) Nappe (B) Fault trough
(C) Plateau (D) Plain
46. Which one of the following states has the
largest Kilometrage of National Highways in
India ?
(A) Andhra Pradesh (B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Rajasthan (D) Uttar Pradesh
47. The most flood prone state of India is—
(A) Cotton and banana cultivation (A) Assam (B) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Groundnut and arecanut cultivation (C) Bihar (D) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Groundnut and cardamom cultivation 48. Which of the following statements are true
(D) Cotton and cardamom cultivation about Punjab ? Select the correct answer from
the code given below the statements :
39. ‘Mansar Lake’ is located in—
I. It is the richest state of India.
(A) Jammu and Kashmir II. It has the highest proportion of S.C. in
(B) Himachal Pradesh its total population.
(C) Punjab III. It has reached the replacement level of
(D) Uttar Pradesh population.
 O.G.K. | 55A

Codes : (A) 1 and 2 are correct

(A) I and II (B) I and III (B) 2 and 3 are correct
(C) II and III (D) I, II and III (C) 3 and 4 are correct
49. Which one of the following is not correctly (D) 1 and 4 are correct
matched ? 55. Which one of the following crops is the
(A) Chhattisgarh — Dandkarya Region greatest beneficiary of the Green Revolution
(B) Jharkhand — Chhota Nagpur Plateau in both production and productivity?
(C) Maharashtra — Rain-shadow Region (A) Jawar (B) Maize
(D) Andhra Pradesh — Malnad (C) Rice (D) Wheat
50. Laterite soils are predominant in— 56. Which one of the following is an important
(A) Malbar Region tribe of the Dhauladhar Range?
(B) Coromandal Region (A) Abor (B) Gaddi
(C) Bundelkhand (C) Lepcha (D) Tharu
(D) Baghelkhand 57. Which of the following states is the largest
51. The atomic power plant which became active producer of mica in India ?
recently is located at— (A) Andhra Pradesh (B) Karnataka
(A) Kalpakkam (B) Narora (C) Rajasthan (D) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Tarapore (D) Kaiga
58. The industry for which Nepa Nagar is known
52. Which of the following statements is not true is—
about India ?
(A) Cement (B) Fertilizer
(A) India has 2% of the total geographical
area of the world (C) Handloom (D) Newsprint paper
(B) Occupies 0.1% of global forest cover and 59. Which one of the following cities is not con-
6.5% of total grazing area nected by National Highway No. 3?
(C) Receives 10% of total rainfall (A) Agra (B) Bhopal
(D) Holds 26% of global human population (C) Dhule (D) Gwalior
and 3% of global farm animal population
60. Which one of the following cities does not
53. Foodgrain production during 2013-14 would have the special economic zone ?
be (approximately)— (A) Chennai (B) Kandla
(A) 263·2 million ton
(C) Kochi (D) Surat
(B) 220 million ton
(C) 215 million ton 61. India leads the world in the export of—
(D) 205 million ton (A) Coffee (B) Cotton
54. While India's human population is growing at (C) Manganese (D) Mica
an astounding pace. The birds population is 62. Which one of the following factors is the
shrinking fast mainly because : main reason for the peninsular rivers to flow
1. There has an abnormal increase in the towards the East ?
number of hunters. (A) Western part is rainy
2. Bio-pesticides and organic manure are (B) Western Ghats act as major water divide
being used on a large scale. (C) Rivers follow riftvalleys
3. There has been a large scale reduction in
the habitats of the birds. (D) Eastern Ghats are lower than the
Western Ghats
4. There has been a large scale use of pesti-
cides, chemical fertilizers and mosquito 63. In India Dhariwal and Ludhiana towns are
repellents. famous for—
Select your answer correctly using the codes (A) Silk textiles (B) Woollen textiles
given below : (C) Cotton textiles (D) Synthetic textiles
56A | O.G.K.

64. Fibre crops are— 70. Which of the following is the correct
(A) Jute, sugarcane, linseed and rice sequence in descending order of the persons,
(B) Cotton, maize, tobacco and banana using as mother tongue.
(C) Cotton, hemp, jute and mesta 1. Bengali 2. Marathi
(D) Hemp, cotton, maize and saffron 3. Tamil 4. Telugu
Select the correct answer using the codes
65. Which one of the following ports is located given below :
on the Eastern coast of India ?
(A) 1, 4, 3, 2 (B) 1, 2, 4, 3
(A) Kandla (B) Kochi
(C) 1, 4, 2, 3 (D) 4, 2, 1, 3
(C) Marmugao (D) Paradeep
71. Which one of the following states of India is
66. Maithan in Jharkhand generates …… power. the least densely populated ?
(A) Atomic (B) Solar (A) Arunachal Pradesh
(C) Thermal (D) Hydel (B) Sikkim
67. Which one of the following pairs of cities has (C) Jharkhand
recently been connected by a six lane express (D) Chhattisgarh
way ?
72. The population of Uttar Pradesh exceeds the
(A) Ahmedabad and Vadodra
total population of each country of one of the
(B) Dhaka and Chittagong groups given below :
(C) Islamabad and Lahore (A) Germany, France, Indonesia, Brazil
(D) Mumbai and Pune (B) Japan, Russia, Brazil, Nigeria
68. Which one of the following statements is not (C) U.K., Germany, Japan, Pakistan
true for laterite soils ? (D) U.K., U.S.A., Japan, Bangladesh
(A) These are the soils of the humid tropical 73. The total fertility rate in India is the highest
regions in—
(B) These are highly leached soils (A) Andhra Pradesh (B) Bihar
(C) These are low fertility soils (C) Tamil Nadu (D) Uttar Pradesh
(D) These are rich in lime 74. The Capital of Andaman and Nicobar islands
is—
69. Match list-I (Institutes) with list-II (City) and (A) Port Blair (B) Diu
select the correct answer using the codes (C) Kolkata (D) Tirupati
given below the lists :
List-I (Institutes) 75. Petroleum was first discovered in India at—
(A) Ankaleshwar (B) Barauni
a. National Institute of Ocean Technology
(C) Digboi (D) Mumbai
b. National Centre for Antarcta and Ocean
Research 76. Hirakud dam has been built on the river—
c. Indian National Centre for Indian Ocean (A) Mahanadi (B) Krishna
Information Services (C) Cauvery (D) Brahmaputra
List-II (City) 77. The oldest oil refinery in India is located in—
1. Chennai 2. Goa (A) Digboi (Assam)
(B) Haldia (Near Kolkata)
3. Hyderabad 4. Vishakhapatnam
(C) Koyali (Near Baroda)
Codes :
(D) Noonmati (Assam)
(a) (b) (c) 78. Which of the following important centres of
(A) 2 3 4 pilgrimage is not situated on the bank of the
(B) 1 2 3 river Ganges ?
(C) 1 2 4 (A) Allahabad (B) Haridwar
(D) 2 1 3 (C) Mathura (D) Varanasi
 O.G.K. | 57A

79. The state of India with the largest percentage 86.

of land area under forest cover as per 2011
report is—
(A) Madhya Pradesh (B) Mizoram
(C) Assam (D) Odisha
80. According to the latest population census the
average annual growth-rate of population in
India—
(A) Showed an increasing trend
(B) Showed a decreasing trend
(C) Has increased explosively
(D) Has remained constant
81. The success of green revolution depends on In the rough map of India given above the
the availability of— areas labelled as 1, 2, 3 and 4 represent
(A) High yielding variety (HYV) of seeds respectively regions or sites of—
(B) Adequate irrigation facilities
(C) Chemical fertilizers and pesticides (A) Mica, bauxite, iron ore and hydropower
(D) All of these (B) Iron ore, mica, hydropower and bauxite
82. The longest highway in India runs from— (C) Bauxite, hydropower, mica and iron ore
(A) Kolkata to Jammu (D) Hydropower, iron ore, bauxite and mica
(B) Jammu to Kanyakumari 87.
(C) Ambala to Nagercoil
(D) Varanasi to Kanyakumari
83. According to the Final Census (2011), the
lowest literacy rate is in—
(A) Uttar Pradesh (B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Bihar (D) Arunachal Pradesh
84. The city of Surat is located on the bank of
river—
(A) Yamuna (B) Saraswati
(C) Tapti (D) Mahanadi
85.
The mean monthly temperature in centigrade
and rainfall in cm data presented in the above
diagram represent climatic conditions obtain-
ing at :
(A) Kolkata (B) Kochi
(C) Mumbai (D) Marmagao
88. The Indian Naval Academy is located at—
(A) Mumbai (B) Cochin
(C) Goa (D) Vishakhapatnam
89. Rana Pratap Sagar Plant (Rajasthan) is asso-
ciated with—
(A) Nuclear power (B) Solar energy
In the rough map of India shown above. The
shaded area represents which one of the (C) Hydroelectricity (D) Irrigation
following crop zones ? 90. Which one of the following state is a leading
(A) Maize (B) Mustard producer of woollen textiles ?
(C) Gram (D) Barley (A) Jammu and Kashmir
58A | O.G.K.

(B) Punjab 95. Consider the following statements regarding

(C) Rajasthan power sector in India—
(D) Himachal Pradesh 1. The capacity of power generation at pre-
sent is around 1,63,669 MW.
91. To which of the following Indian states does
the Badoga Tribe belong ? 2. Nuclear plants contribute nearly 15% of
the total power generation.
(A) Assam
3. Hydroelectricity plants contribute nearly
(B) Andhra Pradesh 40% of total power generation.
(C) Madhya Pradesh
4. Thermal plants at present account for
(D) Tamil Nadu nearly 68% of total power generation.
92. Lakshadweep Islands are the product of— Which of these statements is/are correct ?
(A) Volcanic activity (A) 1 only (B) 2 and 3
(B) Wave action (C) 3 and 4 (D) 1 and 4
(C) Sea floor expansion 96. The approximate age of the Aravallis range
(D) Coral formation is—
93. Consider the following statements regarding (A) 370 million years
environmental issue of India— (B) 470 million years
1. Gulf of Mannar is one of the biosphere (C) 570 million years
reserves. (D) 670 million years
2. The Ganga action plan, phase II has been
merged with the National River Con- 97.
servation Plan.
3. The National Museum of Natural History
at New Delhi imparts a non-formal educa-
tion in environment and conservation.
4. Environmental Information System
(ENVIS) acts as a decentralised informa-
tion network for environmental informa-
tion.
In the above map, the block marks show the
Which of these statements are correct ? distribution of—
(A) 1, 2 and 4 (B) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (A) Asbestos (B) Gypsum
(C) 2 and 3 (D) 1, 3 and 4 (C) Limestone (D) Mica
94. Consider the following statements regarding 98.
the Armed Forces—
1. First batch of women pilots was com-
missioned in Indian Air Force in 1996.
2. Officers Training Academy is located in
Nagpur.
3. Southern Command of Indian Navy has
its headquarters at Chennai.
4. One of the Regional Headquarters of
Coast Guard is located at Port Blair. In the shaded area of the above map, the mean
temperature for the month of July varies
Which of these statements are correct ? between—
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (A) 22.5° C - 25.0° C
(B) 2, 3 and 4 (B) 25.0° C - 27.5° C
(C) 3 only (C) 27.5° C - 30.0° C
(D) 4 only (D) 30.0° C - 32.5° C
 O.G.K. | 59A

99. Where has India installed a telescope which

provides the highest window to the universe ?
(A) Dalhousie (B) Darjeeling
(C) Gangtok (D) Hosakote
100. What is the length of the LPG pipeline
recently dedicated to the Nation joining Jam-
Nagar to Loni ?
(A) 1100 km (B) 1200 km
(C) 1250 km (D) 1350 km
101. The largest number of Buddhists is found (A) Coffee (B) Jute
in— (C) Tea (D) Cotton
(A) Bihar (B) Karnataka 107. Match the List-I with List-II and select the
(C) Maharashtra (D) Uttar Pradesh correct answer using the codes given below
102. Kohima is the capital of— the Lists :
(A) Manipur (B) Mizoram List-I List-II
(C) Nagaland (D) Meghalaya (National Parks) (State)
(a) Kaziranga 1. Assam
103. Which of the following does not belong to the
group ? (b) Kanha 2. Arunachal Pradesh
(A) Itanagar (c) Nokrek 3. Madhya Pradesh
(B) Dispur (d) Namdhapa 4. Meghalaya
(C) Chandigarh Codes :
(D) Ranchi (a) (b) (c) (d)
104. Which one of the following climatic regions (A) 1 3 4 2
does the shaded portion in the given map (B) 1 3 2 4
represent ? (C) 3 1 4 2
(D) 3 1 2 4
108. Which one of the following types of vege-
tations is found in the shaded area shown in
the given map ?

(A) Tropical dry

(B) Humid Subtropical
(C) Semi arid
(D) Arid
105. The Information Technology Capital of India (A) Dry tropical thorn
is— (B) Moist tropical deciduous
(A) Hyderabad (B) Bangluru (C) Dry tropical deciduous
(C) Mumbai (D) Chennai (D) Moist tropical evergreen
106. Which one of the following commercial crops
is grown in the shaded areas of the given 109. Kaziranga is known for—
map ? (A) Project Tiger
 60A | O.G.K.

(B) Two horned Rhino (A) Cuttack (B) Jaipur

(C) One horned Rhino (C) Patna (D) Jodhpur
(D) Operation Flood 119. The places marked a, b, c and d in the given
110. To which country India exports the largest rough outline map are respectively—
quantity of iron ore ?
(A) Japan (B) U.S.A.
(C) Egypt (D) Germany
111. During Indian Decennial census operations—
(A) Only Indians on Indian soil are counted
(B) Both Indians and foreigners on Indian
soil are counted
(C) Both Indians by birth and by domicile
only are counted
(D) None of these
112. In which one of the following Union Terri-
tories do the people of the Onge tribe live ? (A) Rihand, Krishnaraja sagar, Gandhi sagar
(A) Dadar and Nagar Haveli and Nagrjuna sagar
(B) Andaman and Nicobar Island (B) Gandhi sagar, Rihand, Nagarjuna sagar
(C) Daman and Diu and Krishnaraja sagar
(D) Lakshadweep (C) Rihand, Gandhi sagar, Krishnaraja sagar
and Nagarjuna sagar
113. As per the India’s Final Census (2011), ……
is the most literate state in the country. (D) Gandhi sagar, Krishnaraja sagar, Naga-
rjuna sagar and Rihand
(A) Delhi (B) Maharashtra
(C) Kerala (D) Tamil Nadu 120. Which of the following Indian states is
broadly as large as the European nation
114. In which of the following places, is heavy Poland ?
water plant not situated?
(A) Bihar
(A) Hazira (B) Tuticorin
(B) Odisha
(C) Kakrapar (D) Rawat Bhata
(C) Maharashtra
115. The Indian Railways consist of an extensive
(D) Madhya Pradesh
network of about—
(A) 40,000 km (B) 50,000 km 121. The correct chronological order in terms of
geological sequence in which the given parts
(C) 64,460 km (D) 70,000 km of India were formed is—
116. Which gauge out of the following is not an (A) Himalayas, Peninsular India, Indo Gan-
internal part of Indian Railways ? getic plain, Thar desert
(A) Narrow gauge (B) Metre gauge (B) Peninsular India, Himalayas, Indo Gan-
(C) Broad gauge (D) Standard gauge getic plain, Thar desert
117. With reference to the Central Government (C) Peninsular India, Himalayas, Thar
programmes, ‘Golden Quadrantal Project’ desert, Indo-gangetic plain
aims at the development of— (D) Himalayas, Indo-Gangetic plain, Thar
(A) Airways (B) Highways desert, Peninsular India
(C) Rural roads (D) State roads 122. Which one of the following types of erosion,
118. Where is the world's first Integrated solar is responsible for the formation of Chambal
combined cycle power project proposed to be Ravines ?
set up ? (A) Splash
 O.G.K. | 61A

(B) Sheet 128. Cotton is facing competition from sugarcane

(C) Rill in the black soil areas of Maharashtra. This is
due to—
(D) Gully
(A) The declining yield of cotton in this
123. The main advantage of crop rotation is— region
(A) Less need for irrigation (B) A general change in the climate of this
(B) Eradication of weeds region
(C) Preservation of soil fertility (C) The more profit in sugar cane cultivation
(D) Facility of growing more than one crop with the expansion of irrigation
in the same piece of land (D) The increasing demand for sugar and the
124. Coastal Andhra Pradesh and Odisha often rising price of sugar in the country
face natural disasters due to— 129. Which two iron and steel plants have been set
(A) Earthquakes (B) Landslides up in collaboration with former Soviet Union ?
(C) Tornadoes (D) Cyclones (A) Jamshedpur and Rourkela
(B) Durgapur and Bokaro
125. The rivers labelled a, b, c and d in the rough
are respectively— (C) Bhilai and Durgapur
(D) Bokaro and Bhilai
130. Consider the following statements :
Among the Indian States
1. Andhra Pradesh has the longest coastline.
2. Gujarat has the highest number of air-
ports.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(A) Tapi, Vaigai, Brahmani and Gomati (D) Neither 1 nor 2
(B) Sabarmati, Vaigai, Brahmani, and
Gandak 131. Almati dam is being built across the river—
(C) Tapi, Kaveri, Subarnarekha and Gandak (A) Tungabhadra (B) Godavari
(D) Sabarmati, Kaveri, Subarnarekha and (C) Krishna (D) Sharvati
Gomati 132. Which of the following Indian states is broa-
126. Which one of the following types of forests dly as large as the European Nation Greece ?
occupies the maximum land area in India ? (A) Tamil Nadu (B) Orissa
(A) Mangrove forests (C) Bihar (D) Assam
(B) Temperate evergreen forests 133. River Damodar is called ‘Sorrow of Bengal’
(C) Tropical deciduous forests because it—
(D) Tropical evergreen forests (A) Causes maximum soil erosion
127. Darjeeling and Dharamasala would be the (B) Gets flooded often causing havoc
right places to visit if one wanted to get a (C) Forms number of dangerous waterfalls
clear view respectively of— (D) Is not a perennial river
(A) Kanchanjunga and Dhauladhar ranges 134. A coal mining area of the Damodar Valley
(B) Nandadevi and Dhauladhar ranges is—
(C) Kanchanjunga and Nandadevi (A) Korba (B) Sambhalpur
(D) Nandadevi and Nanga Parbat (C) Singareni (D) Raniganj
 62A | O.G.K.

135. Which racial group does the tribals of (A) Geological Survey of India (G.S.I.)
Andaman Islands resemble ? (B) National Atlas & Thematic Mapping
(A) Negrito (B) Mongoloid Organisation (N.A.T.M.O.)
(C) Alpinoid (D) Nordic (C) Indian Meteorological Department
(I.M.D.)
136. Which food crop in India is sown in October-
November and reaped in April ? (D) Survey of India (S.O.I.)
(A) Coconut (B) Coffee 145. Pune is famous for—
(C) Rice (D) Wheat (A) Sugar mill
(B) Hindustan Antibiotic
137. The Nagarjuna Sagar project is constructed on
the river— (C) Chemical industry
(A) Kaveri (B) Krishna (D) Above all
(C) Godavari (D) Indus 146. Which one of the following states produces
about 50 per cent of the total silk textiles in
138. Which public sector oil corporation will be India ?
setting up a new oil refinery at Bina in
Madhya Pradesh ? (A) Karnataka
(A) Indian Oil Corporation (B) West Bengal
(B) Bharat Petroleum Corporation (C) Jammu and Kashmir
(C) Hindustan Petroleum Corporation (D) Assam
(D) Indo-Burma Petroleum Corporation 147. The new name given to Calcutta city is—
139. The variety of coffee, largely grown in India, (A) Kalighat (B) Kalicutta
is— (C) Kolkatta (D) Kolkata
(A) Old chicks (B) Coorgs 148. The package technology which brought about
(C) Arabica (D) Kents green revolution comprised mainly of—
140. The largest estuary in India is at the mouth of (A) Man power, mechanical cultivators and
river— electricity
(A) Hooghly (B) Bhagirathi (B) Changes in crop pattern, industrialisation
and chemical fertilizers
(C) Godavari (D) Krishna
(C) Irrigation, bio-chemical fertilizers and
141. The period by which the entire country in high yield varieties of seeds
India comes under South-West monsoon is— (D) Electricity, irrigation and introduction of
(A) 1st - 10th June (B) 10th - 20th June dry farming
(C) 20th - 30th June (D) 1st - 15th July
149. The dotted area in the given map of India has
142. The most extensive soil cover of India com- the mean monthly temperature of January
prise— between—
(A) Laterite soils (B) Black soils
(C) Alluvial soils (D) Marshy soils
143. Evergreen rain forests are mainly found in
regions having well distributed annual rain-
fall—
(A) Below 50 cm
(B) 50 - 100 cm
(C) 100 - 200 cm
(D) More than 200 cm
144. Which one of the following organisations is
responsible for publishing topographical (A) 10° to 15° C (B) 15° to 20° C
sheets ? (C) 20° to 25° C (D) 25° to 30° C
 O.G.K. | 63A

150. The new alluvial deposits found in the (C) West Bengal
gangetic plain are known as— (D) Jammu and Kashmir
(A) Bhabar (B) Bhangar 158. Le Corbusier, the architect of Chandigarh was
(C) Khadar (D) Tarai a national of—
151. Which one of the following states is the largest (A) Netherlands
producer of coffee ? (B) Portugal
(A) Karnataka (C) U.K.
(B) Kerala (D) France
(C) Assam 159. Which state has the lowest area under forests ?
(D) Arunachal Pradesh (A) Gujarat
152. The West to East extension of the Himalayas (B) Uttar Pradesh
is from— (C) Andhra Pradesh
(A) Indus gorge to Dihang gorge (D) Punjab
(B) K-2 to Chomolhari Answers
(C) Nanga Parbat to Numcha Barwa
(D) Rakaposhi to Lohit river 1. (B) 2. (B) 3. (A) 4. (D) 5. (B)
6. (C) 7. (C) 8. (D) 9. (D) 10. (C)
153. Where is the Bandipur National Park ?
(A) Rajasthan 11. (A) 12. (A) 13. (D) 14. (B) 15. (B)
(B) Andhra Pradesh 16. (B) 17. (D) 18. (C) 19. (B) 20. (B)
(C) Karnataka 21. (C) 22. (A) 23. (C) 24. (A) 25. (B)
(D) Assam 26. (C) 27. (C) 28. (A) 29. (A) 30. (C)
154. Where are the Todas found ? 31. (B) 32. (B) 33. (A) 34. (C) 35. (D)
(A) Madhya Pradesh 36. (B) 37. (A) 38. (D) 39. (A) 40. (A)
(B) Rajasthan 41. (B) 42. (A) 43. (D) 44. (C) 45. (B)
(C) Tamil Nadu 46. (D) 47. (A) 48. (B) 49. (C) 50. (A)
(D) Arunachal Pradesh 51. (D) 52. (D) 53. (A) 54. (C) 55. (D)
155. The animal which has become extinct 56. (B) 57. (A) 58. (D) 59. (B) 60. (A)
recently in India happens to be—
61. (D) 62. (D) 63. (B) 64. (C) 65. (D)
(A) Golden cat
66. (D) 67. (D) 68. (D) 69. (B) 70. (C)
(B) Cheetah
71. (A) 72. (C) 73. (B) 74. (A) 75. (C)
(C) Wooly wolf
(D) Rhinoceros 76. (A) 77. (A) 78. (C) 79. (B) 80. (B)
81. (D) 82. (D) 83. (C) 84. (C) 85. (D)
156. The production of onion is the highest in—
86. (D) 87. (A) 88. (B) 89. (A) 90. (B)
(A) Uttar Pradesh
91. (D) 92. (D) 93. (B) 94. (D) 95. (D)
(B) Madhya Pradesh
96. (B) 97. (C) 98. (B) 99. (D) 100. (C)
(C) Maharashtra
101. (C) 102. (C) 103. (C) 104. (C) 105. (B)
(D) Andhra Pradesh
106. (C) 107. (A) 108. (A) 109. (C) 110. (A)
157. The Jawahar Tunnel, the largest in India is
located in— 111. (A) 112. (B) 113. (C) 114. (C) 115. (C)
(A) Himachal Pradesh 116. (D) 117. (B) 118. (D) 119. (B) 120. (C)
(B) Rajasthan 121. (B) 122. (D) 123. (C) 124. (D) 125. (B)
64A | O.G.K.

126. (C) 127. (A) 128. (D) 129. (D) 130. (D) 3. Maharashtra—365 persons km2
131. (C) 132. (A) 133. (B) 134. (D) 135. (A) 4. Andhra Pradesh—308 persons km2
136. (D) 137. (B) 138. (B) 139. (C) 140. (A) 56. Dhauladhar range is situated in Himachal
141. (D) 142. (C) 143. (D) 144. (D) 145. (B) Pradesh. Gaddi is the main tribe of this range,
146. (A) 147. (D) 148. (C) 149. (C) 150. (C) Abor is the tribe of North-East state, Lepcha
of West Bengal and Bihar and Tharu of Tarai
151. (A) 152. (C) 153. (C) 154. (C) 155. (B) region of Uttar Pradesh.
156. (C) 157. (D) 158. (D) 159. (D) 59. The cities which are conneted by National
Highway No. 3 are Agra, Gwalior, Shivpuri,
Hints Indore, Dhule, Nasik, Thane and Mumbai.
5. Damodar Valley Corporation (DVC) was Bhopal is connected by National Highway
established on July 7, 1948. Five thermal No. 12.
power stations, three hydro-electric stations 60. The cities which have the special economic
and one gas turbine station are currently in zone are Kandla, Surat, Santacruz and
operation as part of the DVC. Kochi.
20. In Ladakh (J & K). 82. National Highway No. 7—2369 km.
28. According to 2011 Census Mizoram has 113. As per final census data of 2011, Kerala has
91·3% Literacy while Goa, Jammu & 94·0% literacy rate.
Kashmir and Bihar have 88·7%, 67·2% and 130. Among all the Indian States and UTs, Gujarat
61·8% respectively.
has the longest coastline.
41. As per final census of 2011. Following is the
159. As per forests report of 2009 Punjab has
density of States given in question.
2
3·30% of forested area while Uttar Pradesh
1. West Bengal—1028 persons km (5·95%), Gujarat (7·46%), Andhra Pradesh
2. Tamil Nadu—555 persons km2 (16·40%).
 World Geography
1. Match the List-I (Sea) with List-II (Country) (B) Meanders
and select the correct answer using the codes (C) Inter-locking spurs
given below the Lists— (D) V-shaped Valley
List-I List-II 5. Consider the following statements about the
(Sea) (Country) ‘Roaring Forties’—
(a) Black Sea 1. Bulgaria 1. They blow uninterrupted in the Northern
(b) Red Sea 2. China and Southern Hemispheres.
(c) Yellow Sea 3. Eritrea 2. They blow with great strength and
(d) Caspian Sea 4. Kazakhstan consistancy.
Codes : 3. Their direction is generally from North
(a) (b) (c) (d) West to East in the Southern Hemi-
sphere.
(A) 1 4 2 3
4. Overcast skies, rain and rough weather
(B) 2 3 1 4 are generally associated with them.
(C) 1 3 2 4 Which of these statements are correct ?
(D) 2 4 1 3 (A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2, 3 and 4
2. Match the List-I with List-II and select the (C) 1, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 2 and 4
correct answer using the codes given below 6. The great Asian river Mekong does not run
the Lists— through—
List-I List-II (A) China (B) Malaysia
(Ocean Trench) (Location) (C) Cambodia (D) Laos
(a) Aleutian 1. Indian ocean 7. Which one of the following lakes forms an
(b) Kermadec 2. North pacific international boundary between Tanzania and
ocean Uganda ?
(c) Sunda 3. South pacific (A) Chad (B) Malawi
ocean (C) Victoria (D) Zambezi
(d) S. Sandwich 4. South atlantic 8. Solar energy is received by the earth
ocean through—
Codes : (A) Conduction (B) Radiation
(a) (b) (c) (d) (C) Convection (D) Refraction
(A) 2 4 1 3 9. The total surface area of the earth is—
(A) 511 million sq. km
(B) 2 3 1 4
(B) 610 million sq. km
(C) 1 3 2 4 (C) 710 million sq. km
(D) 1 4 2 3 (D) 810 million sq. km
3. Which one of the following is an igneous 10. Match the List-I with List-II and select the
rock ? correct answer using the codes given below
(A) Sandstone (B) Shale the Lists—
(C) Quartzite (D) Granite List-I List-II
4. The greatest erosive power of a river is (Active Volcano) (Place)
associated with— (a) Etna 1. Hawaii
(A) Gorges (b) Mauna Loa 2. Java
66A | O.G.K.

(c) Fujiyama 3. Sicily (C) Mediterranean sea

(d) Merapu 4. Japan (D) Red sea
18. Which one of the following is the characteris-
Codes :
tic vegetation of regions between the snow
(a) (b) (c) (d) line and about 3000 metres mean sea level of
(A) 3 1 2 4 the Himalayan region ?
(B) 1 3 2 4 (A) Thick forests of birch, fir, spruce and
(C) 1 3 4 2 other trees
(D) 3 1 4 2 (B) Forests of oak, deodar, chestnut and
11. While Venus is seen only for one to two maple trees
hours either after sunset or before sunrise, (C) A few dwarf shrubs
Jupiter is seen for the whole night whenever it (D) Forests of Khair, sandalwood, palas and
is visible in the sky. The reason for this is other trees
that— 19. In context of exports, which one of the
(A) Venus is much smaller than Jupiter following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(B) Venus is much closer to the earth then
(A) Cape Town : Wool and Wine
Jupiter
(C) The orbit of Venus is inside the earth's (B) Adelaide : Wheat and Wool
orbit whereas the orbit of Jupiter lies (C) Perth : Rice and Corn
outside the orbit of the earth (D) San Francisco : Fruits and Wine
(D) Venus reflects lesser amount of sunlight 20. The largest postal network in the world is
than Jupiter in—
12. Which one of the following countries is not a (A) U.S.A. (B) China
part of the Horn of Africa ? (C) India (D) Brazil
(A) Somalia (B) Ethiopia 21. 'Khamsin' is a hot and dry local wind
(C) Eritrea (D) Rwanda experienced in—
13. The planets on either side of the earth are— (A) Iran (B) Egypt
(A) Mars and Jupiter (C) Nigeria (D) Saudi Arabia
(B) Mercury and Venus 22. If it is 6.00 A.M. at Greenwich, then it will be
(C) Venus and Saturn 11.00 A.M. at—
(D) Mars and Venus (A) 90° E (B) 60° E
14. Which one of the following is the largest lake (C) 75° E (D) 15° W
in the world ? 23. Which one of the following is most prone to
(A) Lake Superior (B) Caspian Sea earthquakes ?
(C) Lake Baikal (D) Lake Victoria (A) Coastal plains
15. Detroit (U.S.A.) is famous for which of the (B) Old Shields
following industries ? (C) Plateaus
(A) Iron and steel (B) Automobile (D) Young folded mountains
(C) Petro chemical (D) Cotton textile 24. The lowest fertility rate in the world is that
16. Rainfall in the doldrums is of the nature of— of—
(A) Orographic precipitation (A) China (B) Italy
(B) Natural precipitation (C) Sweden (D) U.S.A.
(C) Frontal precipitation 25. Which one of the following salts contributes
(D) Convectional precipitation maximum to the salinity of sea water ?
17. A ship met with an accident at 30° E and (A) Calcium sulphate
35° N. The ship was sailing in the— (B) Magnesium sulphate
(A) Baltic sea (C) Magnesium carbonate
(B) Black sea (D) Sodium chloride
 O.G.K. | 67A

26. Which one of the following longitudes along 4. Adverse impact on health.
with the Prime Meridian forms a great circle Select the correct answer from the codes
on the globe? given below—
(A) 0° (B) 90° E Codes :
(C) 90° W (D) 180° (A) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
27. Which one of the following is the biggest (B) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
shipping canal in the world? (C) 1, 2 and 4 are correct
(A) Kiel Canal (B) Panama Canal (D) 1, 3 and 4 are correct
(C) Soo Canal (D) Suez Canal 35. The 'Bermuda Triangle' lies in—
28. The area of Asia is more than …… million (A) Western North Atlantic ocean
sq. km. (B) Eastern South Atlantic ocean
(A) 60 (B) 65 (C) North Pacific ocean
(C) 50 (D) 31 (D) South Indian ocean
29. 821 /2° E longitude is geographically signifi- 36. When it is noon at IST meridian, what would
cant to India because— be the local time at 120° East longitude?
(A) It has a bearing on the tropical climate of (A) 09.30 (B) 14.30
India (C) 17.30 (D) 20.00
(B) It determines the Indian Standard time
37. Which one of the following is correctly
(C) It divides India into eastern and western
matched ?
zones
(A) Eskimo : Canada
(D) It enables one to determine local time in
eastern India (B) Oran : Japan
(C) Lapps : India
30. The length of its day and tilt of its axis are
(D) Gonds : Africa
almost identical to those of the earth. This is
true of— 38. The coniferous forests are not found in—
(A) Uranus (B) Neptune (A) Amazonia (B) Scandinavia
(C) Saturn (D) Mars (C) Canada (D) Finland
31. The milky way is classified as— 39. Which one of the following is not correctly
(A) Spiral galaxy (B) Electrical galaxy matched ?
(A) Fiji : Suva
(C) Irregular galaxy (D) Round galaxy
(B) Finland : Oslo
32. The substances present at the centre of the sun (C) Guyana : George Town
are in— (D) Labanon : Beirut
(A) Solid, liquid and gaseous states
(B) Liquid state only 40. Which animal is the symbol of the World
Wildlife Fund ?
(C) Gaseous state only
(D) Both liquid and gaseous states (A) Tiger (B) Giant Panda
(C) Hornbill (D) White Bear
33. Which one of the following is not a member
of the Ganga-Mekong Swarnbhoomi Coope- 41. Assertion (A) : The green Belt represents a
ration Project ? planning concept for controlling the physical
(A) India (B) Bangladesh expansion of large cities.
(C) Laos (D) Vietnam Reason (R) : It is an integral component of a
city.
34. As a result of global warming there has been : (A) Both A and R are true and R is the
1. Better global communication. correct explanation of A
2. Melting of glaciers. (B) Both A and R are true but R is not a
3. Flowering of mango trees before time. correct explanation of A
68A | O.G.K.

(C) A is true but R is false Out of the shaded areas labelled as 1, 2, 3 and
(D) A is false but R is true 4 in the given map, the region of Tornados is
42. The maternal mortality rate in Asia is the the one labelled—
highest in— (A) 1 (B) 2
(A) Bangladesh (B) India (C) 3 (D) 4
(C) Indonesia (D) Nepal 50. A large number of species are found within a
43. Which one of the following statements is small unit of area of—
correct ? (A) Mangrove coastal forests
(A) Cirrus clouds exhibit a flat base and have (B) Coniferous temperate forests
the appearance of rising domes (C) Deciduous monsoon forests
(B) Cumulus clouds are white and thin, and (D) Wet evergreen equatorial forests
form delicate patches and give a fibrous 51. Out of the areas marked as 1, 2, 3 and 4 in the
and feathery appearance given rough map showing the Balkan region
(C) Cumulus clouds are classified as high
clouds
(D) Cirrus clouds are composed of ice
crystals
44. Tea is grown in—
(A) Hot, wet and hilly region
(B) Flat region
(C) Winter season
(D) Very cold region
45. In terms of longitude, the International Date
Line generally follows—
(A) 90° E (B) 90° W
(C) 180° (E or W) (D) None of these of Yugoslavia and Macedonia, the one
46. Which of the following instruments is used representing Kosovo province is—
for recording 'Earthquake waves' ? (A) 1 (B) 2
(A) Barograph (B) Hydrograph (C) 3 (D) 4
(C) Pantograph (D) Seismograph 52. The seasonal movement of man with animals
47. The shape of our milky way galaxy is— in search of pastures is known as—
(A) Circular (B) Elliptical (A) Pastoral farming
(C) Spiral (D) None of these (B) Nomadic herding
48. Which one of the following seas is without a (C) Trans humance
coastline ? (D) Shifting cultivation
(A) White sea (B) Saragossa sea
53. Number of persons expressed in terms of unit
(C) Sea of okhotsk (D) Tasman sea area of agricultural land is known as—
49. (A) Agricultural density
(B) Economic density
(C) Physiological density
(D) Arithmetical density
54. What is the ‘sleepy hollow’ discovered
recently ?
(A) A shallow bowl on the surface of the
planet Mars
(B) A hollow crater on the top of Mt. Everest
 O.G.K. | 69A

(C) A camera to probe into the galaxy 59. Consider the following statements :
(D) A neutron star approaching the earth 1. Most magmas are a combination of liquid,
55. Consider the following statements associated solid and gas.
with mediterranean climate : 2. Water vapour and carbon dioxide are the
1. It is so named because it occurs extensi- principal gases dissolved in a magma.
vely in the periphery of mediterranean sea. 3. Basaltic magma is hotter than the silicic
2. These lands are exposed to hot, dry, land magma.
winds during the summer months. 4. The magma solidified between sedimen-
3. The seasonal range of temperatures is tary rocks in a horizontal position is known
considerably less than that in other areas as dike.
of corresponding latitudes. Which of these statements are correct ?
Which of these statements are correct ? (A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1 and 4 (D) 1, 2 and 4
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1 and 2
(C) 2 and 3 (D) 1 and 3 60. Consider the following statements regarding
the earthquakes :
56. A star which appears ‘blue’ is—
1. The intensity of earthquake is measured on
(A) Cooler than the moon mercalli scale.
(B) Hotter than the sun
2. The magnitude of an earthquake is a mea-
(C) As hot as the sun sure of energy released.
(D) Cooler than the sun 3. Earthquake magnitudes are based on direct
57. The atmosphere above the earth is shown in measurements of the amplitude of seismic
the given diagram in which distances from the waves.
OUTER SPACE 4. In the Richter scale, each whole number
1000 km demonstrates a hundred fold increase in
the amount of energy released.
d Which of these statements are correct ?
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2, 3 and 4
600 km (C) 1 and 4 (D) 1 and 3
c
500 km 61. Which one of the following does not border
Panama ?
b (A) Venezuela (B) Costa Rica
100 km (C) Pacific Ocean (D) Colombia
a
62. Cloudy nights are warmer compared to clear
cloudless nights, because clouds—
EARTH
(A) Prevent cold waves from the sky from
earth are marked. The atmosphere shows four descending on earth
zones a, b, c and d. The ozone layer lies in the (B) Reflect back the heat given off by earth
zone marked—
(C) Produce heat and radiate it towards earth
(A) a (B) b
(C) c (D) d (D) Absorb heat from the atmosphere and
send it towards earth
58. Which of the following indexes is developed
to measure life expectancy, level of literacy, 63. Which one of the following weather condi-
education and standard of living of people in tions is indicated by a sudden fall in baro-
a country ? meter reading ?
(A) Inflation (A) Stormy weather
(B) Human Development Index (B) Calm weather
(C) Sensex (C) Cold and dry weather
(D) SLR (D) Hot and sunny weather
70A | O.G.K.

64. Who amongst the following was the first to 71. Which one of the following metals has the
state that the earth was spherical ? highest density ?
(A) Aristotle (B) Copernicus (A) Gold (B) Iron
(C) Ptolemy (D) Strabo (C) Platinum (D) Lead
65. If stars are seen to rise perpendicular to the 72. The contact of two air masses differing
horizon by an observer, he is located on the— sharply in humidity originates—
(A) Equator (B) Tropic of cancer (A) Tropical cyclones
(C) South pole (D) North pole (B) Inter tropical convergence
(C) Temperate cyclones
66. The high density of population in Nile Valley (D) Tropospheric instability
and Island of Java is primary due to—
73. Mekong Ganga cooperation project is :
(A) Intensive agriculture
(A) An irrigation project involving India and
(B) Industrialization Myanmar
(C) Urbanization (B) A joint tourism initiative of some Asian
(D) Topographic constraints Countries
67. Consider the following statements made (C) A hydroelectric power project involving
about the sedimentary rocks : India, Bangladesh and Myanmar
1. Sedimentary rocks are formed at earth's (D) A defence and security agreement of
surface by the hydrological system. India with its eastern neighbours
2. The formation of sedimentary rocks 74. Which one of the following is a fresh water
involves the weathering of pre existing fish ?
rocks. (A) Pomfret (B) Rohu
3. Sedimentary rocks contain fossils. (C) Sardine (D) Salmon
4. Sedimentary rocks typically occur in 75. More than 90% of the rock forming minerals
layers. in the earth's crust consist of—
Which of these statements are correct ? (A) Silicates
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 1 and 4 (B) Oxides
(C) 2, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (C) Carbonates
68. A class of animals known as marsupials is a (D) Sulphides and sulphates
characteristic feature of— 76. Which of the following is the largest island ?
(A) Africa (B) Australia (A) Sumatra (B) Madagascar
(C) South America (D) South-East Asia (C) Honshu (D) Cuba
69. Identify the correct order of the processes of 77. When the Sun is nearest to the Earth, the
soil erosion from the following— Earth is said to be in—
(A) Splash erosion, sheet erosion, rill ero- (A) Aphelion (B) Perihelion
sion, gully erosion (C) Apogee (D) Perigee
(B) Sheet erosion, splash erosion, gully
erosion, rill erosion 78. Where is the Doldrums Belt located ?
(C) Rill erosion, gully erosion, sheet erosion, (A) Near the Equator
splash erosion (B) Near the Poles
(D) Gully erosion, rill erosion, sheet erosion, (C) Near the Tropic of Cancer
splash erosion (D) Near the Tropic of Capricorn
70. Which one of the following rivers falls in a 79. The most important activity of the Tundra
land-locked sea ? region is—
(A) St. Lawrence (B) Niger (A) Fish farming (B) Cattle rearing
(C) Volga (D) Danube (C) Hunting (D) Cropping
 O.G.K. | 71A

80. The most urbanised country in the world is— Select the correct answer using the codes
(A) Japan given below—
(B) Singapore Codes :
(C) Germany (A) 2, 3 and 4 (B) 1, 2 and 4
(D) Israel (C) 1, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 2 and 3
81. Which is the poorest country among the 87. Water from an artesian well flows up
following ? automatically due to—
(A) Sierra Leone (B) Uganda (A) Heavy rainfall in region
(C) Bangladesh (D) Somalia (B) Volcanic activity
82. Which is the land of morning calm ? (C) Hydrostatic pressure
(A) Finland (B) Korea (D) Geothermal energy
(C) Japan (D) Thailand 88. On which particular date does the sun remain
at its shortest distance from the earth ?
83. Richter scale is a/an …… scale to measure
earth tremors. (A) 21st March (B) 22nd December
(A) Exponential (C) 3rd January (D) 4th July
(B) Logarithmic 89. Which of the following is known as the morn-
(C) Geometric ing star ?
(D) Physical (A) Saturn (B) Jupiter
84. Which of the following pairs of deserts and (C) Mars (D) Venus
their locations are correctly matched ? 90. The innermost layer of the earth is known
1. Mohave — N. America as—
2. Atacama — S. America (A) Lithosphere (B) Mesosphere
3. Kalahari — S. Africa (C) Asthenosphere (D) Barysphere
Select the correct answer using the codes 91. Which one of the following is not a cold
given below— current ?
(A) 2 and 3 (B) 1 and 3 (A) California (B) Oyashio
(C) 1 and 2 (D) 1, 2 and 3 (C) Kuroshio (D) Canaries
85. The correct sequence of the given planets in 92. Which of the following absorbs part of the
increasing order of their distance from the insolation and preserves earth's radiated heat ?
Sun is— (A) Oxygen
(A) Mercury, Venus, Mars, Saturn, Jupiter (B) Nitrogen
(B) Venus, Mercury, Mars, Saturn, Jupiter (C) Water vapour
(D) Carbon dioxide
(C) Mercury, Venus, Mars, Jupiter, Saturn
(D) Venus, Mercury, Jupiter, Mars, Saturn 93. Arakan yoma is the extension of the Hima-
layas located in—
86. Which of the following statements about the (A) Baluchistan (B) Myanmar
Jurassic period are correct ? (C) Nepal (D) Kashmir
1. Many large dinosaurs lived then.
94. Sun belt of U.S.A. is important for which one
2. Evidence of first birds and mammals has of the following industries ?
been found in fossils of this period.
(A) Cotton textile
3. It saw the emergence of many forms of
primates. (B) Petro chemical
4. This period related to what the Earth was (C) Hi-tech electronics
200 to 250 million years ago. (D) Food processing
 72A | O.G.K.

95. Coffee is a— 105. The soil water which is of the greatest

(A) Sub-tropical shrub importance to the plant life is—
(B) Warm temperate shrub (A) Gravitational water
(C) Tropical shrub (B) Capillary water
(D) Cool temperate shrub (C) Hygroscopic water
(D) Combined water
96. The best variety of world's cotton is known
as— 106. Which of the following oceans has the shape
(A) Sea Island (B) Upland American of the English alphabet S ?
(C) Egyptian (D) Short staple Indian (A) Arctic ocean
97. Which planet orbits closest to the earth ? (B) Indian ocean
(A) Mars (B) Jupiter (C) Atlantic ocean
(C) Venus (D) Mercury (D) Pacific ocean
98. The largest flightless bird which can run at a 107. Which one of the following covers the highest
great speed is— percentage of the earth’s area ?
(A) Penguin (B) Kiwi (A) Arid regions
(C) Ostrich (D) Emu (B) Semi-arid regions
99. Which of the following rivers flows in (C) Humid regions
Germany ? (D) Sub-humid regions
(A) Seine (B) Volga 108. Trade winds are due to—
(C) Danube (D) Thames (A) Conduction
100. The presence of a lion in the forest is essential (B) Convection
in order to— (C) Radiation
(A) Keep the trees safe from falling (D) Scattering
(B) Add beauty in the forests 109. Ozone hole in the atmosphere is largely
(C) Save the pastures from being overgrazed caused by the presence of—
(D) Keep other carnivorous animals away (A) Oxygen
101. Most of the devastating earthquakes are (B) Hydrogen
usually caused by— (C) Chloro fluro carbon
(A) Eustatic movement (D) Radioactive waste
(B) Isostatic adjustment 110. What is the longest mountain range in the
(C) Collision of earth plates world?
(D) Volcanic eruption (A) Andes Mountains
102. Which of the following has the highest wind (B) Himalayas
velocity ? (C) Alps
(A) Typhoon (B) Hurricane (D) Pyreneess mountains
(C) Cyclone (D) Tornado 111. The term Roaring Forties is related to the—
103. Speed of wind is measured by— (A) Trade winds (B) Planetary winds
(A) Barometer (B) Hygrometer (C) Westerlies (D) Polar winds
(C) Thermometer (D) Anemometer 112. Ultra-violet radiations of the sun do not reach
104. Which one is not a non-conventional energy the earth because, earth's atmosphere is
source ? surrounded by—
(A) Nuclear energy (B) Solar energy (A) Carbon dioxide (B) Ammonia
(C) Wind energy (D) Tidal power (C) Chlorine (D) Ozone
 O.G.K. | 73A

113. In order to prevent the expansion of deserts, (A) Himalayas (B) Rockies
trees are planted in stripes or blocks with the (C) Andes (D) Appalachians
shortest trees on the desert side and the tallest 123. Which of the following pair is not correctly
on the other side. Such plantation is called— matched ?
(A) Shelter belts (B) Agro forests (A) Haematite : Copper
(C) Wind breaks (D) Social forests (B) Bauxite : Aluminium
114. Where is lake superior, the largest fresh-water (C) Monazite : Thorium
lake in the world located ? (D) Pitchblende : Uranium
(A) U.S.A. (B) Brazil 124. Which of the following country has become
(C) Mexico (D) Russia 193rd Independent country of the world ?
115. Laterite soil develops as a result of— (A) Akrotiri (B) South Sudan
(A) Deposits of Alluvial (C) Wake Island (D) Comoros
(B) Deposition of loess 125. Prime Meridian passes through—
(C) Leaching (A) Greenwich (B) Ujjain
(D) Continued vegetation cover (C) New York (D) Tokyo
126. The capital of South Sudan is—
116. Clove, the commonly used spice, is obtained
from the— (A) Sanna (B) Juba
(A) Root (B) Stem (C) Vienna (D) Warsaw
(C) Flower bud (D) Fruit Answers
117. Which country is not adjacent to 1. (C) 2. (B) 3. (D) 4. (A) 5. (B)
Afghanistan ?
6. (B) 7. (C) 8. (B) 9. (A) 10. (D)
(A) Uzbekistan (B) Turkmenistan 11. (B) 12. (D) 13. (D) 14. (B) 15. (B)
(C) Tajikistan (D) Russia 16. (D) 17. (C) 18. (A) 19. (C) 20. (C)
118. Which country is geographically in North 21. (B) 22. (C) 23. (D) 24. (C) 25. (D)
America but politically a part of European 26. (D) 27. (D) 28. (D) 29. (B) 30. (D)
country? 31. (A) 32. (C) 33. (B) 34. (B) 35. (A)
(A) Iceland (B) Greenland 36. (B) 37. (A) 38. (A) 39. (B) 40. (B)
(C) Canary Island (D) Cuba 41. (A) 42. (D) 43. (D) 44. (A) 45. (C)
119. Very strong and cold icy winds that blow in 46. (D) 47. (C) 48. (B) 49. (C) 50. (A)
the Polar regions are called— 51. (C) 52. (C) 53. (A) 54. (A) 55. (B)
(A) Blizzards (B) Typhoons 56. (B) 57. (A) 58. (B) 59. (A) 60. (A)
(C) Tornadoes (D) Polar winds 61. (A) 62. (B) 63. (A) 64. (C) 65. (A)
66. (A) 67. (D) 68. (B) 69. (A) 70. (C)
120. Atmospheric pressure exerted on the earth is
71. (A) 72. (B) 73. (B) 74. (B) 75. (A)
due to the—
76. (B) 77. (B) 78. (A) 79. (C) 80. (B)
(A) Rotation of the earth
81. (D) 82. (B) 83. (B) 84. (D) 85. (C)
(B) Revolution of the earth 86. (D) 87. (C) 88. (C) 89. (D) 90. (D)
(C) Gravitational pull 91. (C) 92. (D) 93. (B) 94. (D) 95. (C)
(D) Uneven heating of the earth 96. (B) 97. (C) 98. (B) 99. (C) 100. (C)
121. Pruning is an essential part in the cultivation 101. (C) 102. (D) 103. (D) 104. (A) 105. (B)
of— 106. (C) 107. (D) 108. (B) 109. (C) 110. (A)
(A) Rubber (B) Tobacco 111. (C) 112. (D) 113. (A) 114. (A) 115. (C)
(C) Coffee (D) Tea 116. (C) 117. (D) 118. (B) 119. (A) 120. (C)
122. The deposits at the ancient Tethys sea were 121. (D) 122. (A) 123. (A) 124. (B) 125. (A)
folded to form the— 126. (B)
74A | O.G.K.

Hints
10. Stromboli is in Sicily. 32. The substances present at the centre of the sun
30. The angle of inclination and the length of the are always in gaseous state only due to high
day of Mars is nearly the same as that of temperature.
Earth. Mars appears as a reddish ball and 33. The member countries of the Ganga Mekong
hence, is also called the Red Planet. Swarnbhoomi Cooperation Project are India,
Myanmar, Vietnam, Laos, Thailand and
31. Galaxies occur in three structural forms : Cambodia.
spiral, elliptical and irregular. Spiral galaxies
have a central nucleus with great spiralling 39. The capital of Finland is Helsinki.
arms trailing around them; examples include
our milky way and Andromeda galaxies. 51. Kosovo is in south-west of Serbia.
Elliptical galaxies are without spiralling arms 114. Lake Superior is located on the border of
and irregular ones have no clear shape. U.S.A. and Canada.
 Sports
1. Who won the men’s single title in the 9. Which country hosted 2014 World Uber Cup
Wimbledon Open Tennis 2014 ? Tournament ?
(A) Andy Murray (B) Rafael Nadal (A) Britain (B) China
(C) Paul Hanley (D) Novak Djokovic (C) Malaysia (D) India
2. Which country will host 2016 Olympic 10. Which one among the following is not the
Games ? winner of French Open Tennis 2014 ?
(A) Germany (Berlin) (A) Rafael Nadal
(B) Reo de Janeiro (Brazil)
(B) Sara Errani
(C) Malaysia (Kuala Lumpur)
(C) Maria Sharapova
(D) Australia (Sydney)
(D) Peng Shuai
3. Who won the Deodhar Trophy Cricket played
in March 2014 ? 11. Who won the Men’s singles title in the
(A) North Zone (B) West Zone Australian Open Tennis 2014 ?
(C) East Zone (D) South Zone (A) Fernando Gonzalez (Chile)
4. Which team won National Volleyball Cham- (B) Stanislas Wawrinka (Switzerland)
pionship 2013 ? (C) Rafael Nadal (Spain)
(A) Tamil Nadu (B) Rajasthan (D) Ivan Ljubicic (Croatia)
(C) Karnataka (D) Goa 12. Which of the following team has won the
5. Which of the following country has won the Santosh Trophy Football Championship 2014?
2011 ICC World Cup Cricket ? (A) Goa (B) Bengal
(A) Australia (B) India (C) Punjab (D) Railways
(C) Pakistan (D) Sri Lanka 13. Which country won the highest number of
6. India won the first Olympic Hockey gold cup medals in the 20th Commonwealth Games
at— played in 2014 in Glasgow ?
(A) London (B) Berlin (A) Canada (B) England
(C) Amsterdam (D) Los Angeles (C) Australia (D) India
7. Who is the first woman of the world to swim 14. Which country won the 2014 Thomas Cup ?
across all the five continents of the world ?
(A) China (B) Indonesia
(A) Aarti Gupta (India)
(C) Malaysia (D) Japan
(B) Shikha Tandon (India)
(C) Jenny Thompson (USA) 15. Which country will host 2015–Cricket World
(D) Bula Chaudhury (India) Cup ?
(A) India (B) Australia
8. The women’s singles title in the Australian
Open Tennis 2014 was won by— (C) New Zealand (D) Both (B) and (C)
(A) Li Na (China) 16. How many silver medals won by Indians at
(B) Serena Williams (USA) London Olympic Games 2012 ?
(C) Maria Sharapova (Russia) (A) 1 (B) 2
(D) Paola Suarez (Argentina) (C) 3 (D) 4
76A | O.G.K.

17. The cricketer who became the brand Amba- 27. Who won the Rajiv Gandhi Khelratna Award-
ssador of ‘Indigo Nation’ is— 2013 ?
(A) Sachin Tendulkar (B) Sourav Ganguly (A) Vijay Kumar (B) Mary Com
(C) Anil Kumble (D) Ajay Ratra (C) Yogeshwardatt (D) Ronjan Sodhi
18. Who won the World Snooker Championship 28. Which of the following games has been
2014 ? introduced for the first time in Olympic 2012
(A) Peter Aden (B) Mark Selby at London?
(C) Pankaj Advani (D) R.O. Sullivan (A) Women Skating (B) Women Boxing
19. Who is the first Indian woman athlete to win (C) Women Cycling (D) Women Wrestling
a medal in Olympic Games 2012 ? 29. Match the List-I with List-II and select the
(A) Saina Nehwal (B) Mary Com correct answer using the codes given below
(C) Deepika Kumari (D) Sudha Singh the lists—
List-I List-II
20. Saina Nehwal is a famous name in—
(A) Swimming (B) Weightlifting (a) Basketball 1. Half Nelson
(C) Badminton (D) Boxing (b) Bridge 2. Revoke
(c) Golf 3. Pivot
21. Famous Michael Schumacher, the World No.
1 in motor racing (Formula 1), belongs to— (d) Wrestling 4. Bunker
(A) Italy (B) Spain Codes :
(C) Germany (D) Brazil (a) (b) (c) (d)
22. Which team won the Pepsi Indian Premier (A) 2 3 1 4
League in 2014 ? (B) 2 3 4 1
(A) Kolkata Knight Riders (C) 3 2 1 4
(B) Mumbai Indians (D) 3 2 4 1
(C) Rajasthan Royals 30. Match the List-I with List-II and select the
(D) Delhi Daredevils correct answer using the codes given below
the lists—
23. Who won the Augusta Masters Golf Title
List-I (Person)
2014 ?
(a) K. M. Beenamol (b) Anjali Bhagwat
(A) Bubba Watson (B) Adam Scott
(c) Anju B. George (d) Sania Mirza
(C) Jyoti Randhawa (D) None of these
List-II (Achievement)
24. Vijay Kumar won the silver medal in London
1. Rifle Shooting
Olympic Games 2012 in—
2. Athletics
(A) Boxing (B) Wrestling
3. Tennis
(C) Shooting (D) Swimming
4. Medium range racer
25. Which country won the FIFA World Football Codes :
Cup of the year 2014 ? (a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) France (B) Spain (A) 4 3 2 1
(C) Germany (D) Brazil (B) 2 4 1 3
26. Germany won the FIFA World Cup Football (C) 4 1 2 3
2014 in 2014. Which country secured the (D) 2 1 3 4
runner-up place in it ? 31. What is the another name of Athletics ?
(A) France (B) Argentina (A) Sports (B) Track & Field
(C) Portugal (D) Switzerland (C) Gymnastic (D) Decathlon
 O.G.K. | 77A

32. The World Chess Champion Veselin Topalov 38. The highest wicket taker in test matches is
belongs to— now—
(A) Albania (B) Kazakhstan (A) Shane Warne
(C) Russia (D) Brazil (B) Muthia Muralitharan
33. Match the List-I with List-II and select the (C) Kapil Dev
correct answer using the codes given below
(D) Dennis Lillee
the lists—
List-I List-II 39. Which country has won the Davis Cup for
(a) Square leg 1. Hockey 2013 in Lawn Tennis ?
(b) Touch down 2. Bridge (A) India (B) Czech Republic
(c) Bully 3. Rugby (C) Australia (D) France
(d) Grandslam 4. Cricket 40. Who is the athlete who set the maximum
Codes : number (6) of the world records in a span of
(a) (b) (c) (d) 45 minutes ?
(A) 4 3 2 1 (A) Michael Johnson
(B) 4 3 1 2 (B) ‘Jesse’ (John Cleveland) Owens
(C) 3 4 1 2 (C) Florence G. Joyner
(D) 3 4 2 1 (D) Carl Lewis
34. Which of the following is the winner of
41. Which country has won the ICC Twenty-20
Wimbledon 2014 women’s single title ?
World Cup Cricket played in April 2014 ?
(A) Venus Williams (B) Petra Kvitova
(A) West Indies (B) Sri Lanka
(C) Serena Williams (D) Marion Bartoli
(C) India (D) Australia
35. Who holds the record for the highest number
of runs in Test Cricket ? 42. Who retained the Chess World Championship
(A) Sunil Gavaskar (B) Geoffrey Boycott 2013 ?
(C) Sachin Tendulkar (D) Gary Sobers (A) Magnus Carlsen
36. Match the following— (B) Veselin Topalov
List-I List-II (C) Boris Spasky
(Countries) (Sports) (D) Almasi
1. Australia (a) Bull fighting
43. Who was the Indian to win the All England
2. U.S.A. (b) Ice hockey Championship in Badminton ?
3. Spain (c) Cricket
(A) P. Gopichand (B) Mahesh Bhupati
4. Japan (d) Baseball
(C) Vijay Amritraj (D) Malleshwari
(e) Ju Jitsu
Codes : 44. Identify Lionel Messi—
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e) (A) FIFA Footballer of the year 2012
(A) 4 3 1 2 — (B) He is the United States Baseball player
(B) — 2 3 1 4 (C) He is Brazil No. 2 seeded football player
(C) 3 — 1 2 4 (D) None of the above
(D) 3 2 1 — 4
45. Standard cricket bats are made of—
37. Who won the Chennai Open Tennis Tourna-
ment 2014 ? (A) Pine wood (B) Rose wood
(A) Mahesh Bhupati (C) Teak wood (D) Willow wood
(B) Janko Tipsarevic 46. India’s Saina Nehwal created a hat-trick by
(C) Leander Paes winning third super series title. Whom did she
(D) Stanislas Wawrinka defeat in Indonesia Open Super Series ?
78A | O.G.K.

(A) China (B) Indonesia Codes :

(C) Japan (D) Pakistan (a) (b) (c) (d)
47. With which game is Geet Sethi associated ? (A) 1 2 3 4
(A) Lawn Tennis (B) Kabaddi (B) 1 3 2 4
(C) Billiards (D) Squash
(C) 2 1 3 4
48. The most popular game in the United States
of America is— (D) 1 2 4 3
(A) Baseball (B) Cricket 56. Who are the man and woman winners of the
(C) Hockey (D) Lawn Tennis singles title in French Open Lawn Tennis
49. Who won the men’s single title in the Miami Tournament held in Paris in June 2014 ?
International Tennis in 2014 ? (A) Rafael Nadal and Maria Sharapova
(A) Novak Djokovic (B) Rafael Nadal (B) Pete Sampras and Serena Williams
(C) Ivan Ljubicic (D) Mikhail Youzhny (C) Rafael Nadal and Justine Henin Hardenne
50. Who among the following has won the (D) Peter Sampras and Venus Williams
Hungarian Grand Prix Race in 2014 ?
(A) Vijay Singh 57. The winner of Vijay Hazare Trophy in Cricket
(B) Arjun Atwal 2013-14 was—
(C) Daniel Ricciordo (A) Uttar Pradesh (B) Maharashtra
(D) Randhawa (C) Karnataka (D) Punjab
51. Who won ICC U-19 Cricket World Cup 2014 58. Which of the following event was dropped
at ? from the Olympics ?
(A) South Africa (B) Australia (A) Polo (B) Football
(C) New Zealand (D) U. K. (C) Hockey (D) Tennis
52. Who is the first cricket player from Kerala to 59. Who has won the Santosh Trophy 2014 ?
make a test debut ?
(A) Mizoram (B) Gujarat
(A) T. Krishnan (B) T. S. Shekar
(C) Rajasthan (D) Karnataka
(C) T. Yohannan (D) R. Somasunder
53. Who is the latest Indian to have joined the 60. Match the List-I (Sport person) with List-II
ranks of those who have achieved the distinc- (Sport/game) and select the correct answer
tion of having scored a century on their debut using the codes given below the lists—
in a test match ?
List-I List-II
(A) Azaharuddin (B) Gavaskar
(C) Sehwag (D) Tendulkar (Sport person) (Sport/game)
(a) Arjun Singh 1. Car Racing
54. Which of the following won Wimbledon
Lawn Tennis men’s singles title for 2014 ? (b) Baichung Bhutia 2. Golf
(A) Andy Murry (B) Andy Roddick (c) Narain Karthikeyan 3. Football
(C) Marat Safin (D) Novak Djokovic
(d) Subramanium 4. Table Tennis
55. Match the List-I with List-II and select the Raman
correct answer using the codes given below
the lists— Codes :
List-I (Player) List-II (Event) (a) (b) (c) (d)
(a) Sushil Kumar 1. Boxing (A) 2 3 1 4
(b) Mary Com 2. Wrestling (B) 4 3 1 2
(c) Vijay Kumar 3. Shooting (C) 2 1 3 4
(d) Saina Nehwal 4. Badminton (D) 4 1 3 2
 O.G.K. | 79A

61. Who won the French Open Tennis Champi- 69. ‘Come Out And Play’ is the anthem of—
onship’s Men’s Singles Title played in May/ (A) Olympic Games 2008
June 2014 ? (B) Commonwealth Games 2010
(A) Roger Federer (Switzerland) (C) National Games 2008
(B) Gaston Gaudio (Argentina) (D) None of the above
(C) Rafael Nadal (Spain)
70. Who won the Asia Cup Cricket Tournament
(D) Jonas Bijorkman (Sweden)
2014 ?
62. Who is the youngest world champion in the (A) Bangladesh (B) Sri Lanka
history of Formula One Races to-late ?
(C) India (D) Pakistan
(A) Felipe Massa
(B) Robert Kubic 71. Which of the following has won the first ever
individual gold medal for India in Olympic
(C) Kimi Raikkonen
Games 2008 ?
(D) Lewis Hamilton
(A) Vijendra Kumar
63. Which place has been given to India’s ace (B) Abhinav Bindra
cricketer Mahendra Singh Dhoni in ICC ODI
(C) Sushil Kumar
ranking in August 2011 ?
(D) Anju Bobby George
(A) 4th place (B) 3rd place
(C) 5th place (D) 8th place 72. Who has won Australian Open Tennis Cham-
pionship (Men’s singles title) 2014 ?
64. Who won Australia Open Super Series, title
played in June 2014 ? (A) Novak Djokovic
(A) Carolina Marin (B) Saina Nehwal (B) Andy Murray
(C) Jwala Gutta (D) Jyotshna P. (C) Rafael Nadal
(D) Stanislas Wawrinka
65. Who won the Sudirman Cup World Badmin-
ton Championship in May 2013 ? Answers
(A) China (B) Singapore
1. (D) 2. (B) 3. (B) 4. (A) 5. (B)
(C) South Korea (D) Denmark
6. (B) 7. (C) 8. (A) 9. (D) 10. (A)
66. Who won the U.S. Open tennis champion- 11. (B) 12. (B) 13. (B) 14. (D) 15. (D)
ship’s of women’s singles title played in Sept.
2013 ? 16. (B) 17. (C) 18. (B) 19. (A) 20. (C)
21. (C) 22. (A) 23. (A) 24. (C) 25. (C)
(A) Maria Sharapova (Russia)
26. (B) 27. (D) 28. (B) 29. (A) 30. (C)
(B) Samantha Stosur (Australia)
31. (B) 32. (D) 33. (B) 34. (B) 35. (C)
(C) Serena Williams (U.S.A.)
36. (C) 37. (D) 38. (B) 39. (B) 40. (B)
(D) Amelie Mauresmo (France)
41. (B) 42. (A) 43. (A) 44. (A) 45. (D)
67. Who won the U.S. Open tennis champion- 46. (C) 47. (C) 48. (A) 49. (A) 50. (C)
ship’s men’s singles title played in September
2013 ? 51. (A) 52. (C) 53. (C) 54. (D) 55. (C)
(A) Rafael Nadal (Spain) 56. (A) 57. (C) 58. (A) 59. (A) 60. (A)
(B) Juan Martin del Potro (Argentina) 61. (C) 62. (D) 63. (D) 64. (B) 65. (A)
(C) Ivan Ljubicic (Croatia) 66. (C) 67. (A) 68. (C) 69. (B) 70. (B)
(D) David Nalbandian (Argentina) 71. (B) 72. (D)
68. The winner of the Ranji Trophy Cricket Hint
played in January 2014 was— 2. 1980 Olympics were held in Moscow. India
(A) Punjab (B) Uttar Pradesh won Gold Medals in 1928, 1932, 1936, 1948,
(C) Karnataka (D) West Bengal 1952, 1956, 1964 and 1980.
 Books and Authors
1. Who is the author of the book “The Blood of Codes :
Flowers”? (a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) Anita Shreva (B) Jodi Picoult (A) 2 4 3 1
(C) Anita Amirrezvani (D) Kofi Annan
(B) 4 2 3 1
2. Match the List-I (Books) with List-II
(Authors) and select the correct answer using (C) 4 2 1 3
the codes given below the Lists— (D) 2 4 1 3
List-I (Books) List-II (Authors) 6. Which one of the following pairs is correctly
matched ?
(a) My Music, My 1. Laxman Gaikwad
Life (A) Zia-ud-din Barni : Tarikh i-Muhammadi
(B) Shams-i-Siraj Afif : Tarikh-i-Feroze
(b) Adha Gaon 2. Rahi Masoom Raza Shahi
(c) Radha 3. Ramakanta Rath (C) Ibn Batuta : Fatwa-i-Jahandari
(d) The Pilferer 4. Ravi Shankar (D) Amir Khusro : Tabqat-i- Nasiri
Codes : 7. Match the following—
List-I List-II
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 2 4 1 (Books) (Authors)
(B) 4 2 3 1 (a) Price of Partition 1. Abdul Kalam
(C) 4 1 3 2 (b) Ulysses 2. S.S. Gill
(D) 3 1 4 2 (c) India 2020 3. Rafiq Zakaria
3. The book “The Family and the Nation” has (d) Pathology of Cor- 4. James Joyce
been written by— ruption
(A) Raj Kamal Jha 5. P.N. Chopra
(B) Salman Rushdie Select the correct answer from the codes
(C) Tarun Tejpal given below—
(D) Acharya Mahapragya and Dr. A. P. J. Codes :
Abdul Kalam (a) (b) (c) (d)
4. Who is the author of the book “Forgive Me (A) 3 5 1 2
Amma”? (B) 4 2 5 1
(A) J. K. Rowling
(B) Sandeep Mishra (C) 3 4 1 2
(C) Both of them in joint authorship (D) 4 3 2 5
(D) None of these 8. The book “Accidental Prime Minister” has
5. Match the List-I with List-II and select the been written by—
correct answer using the codes given below (A) P. C. Parakh (B) Sanjay Baru
the Lists— (C) Digviay Singh (D) Kiran Bedi
List-I List-II
(Name of Book) (Authors) 9. Which one of the following is the author of
(a) 3001 : Final 1. Steven Weinberg “A Passage to Hope : Women and Inter-
Odyssey national Migration” is ?
(b) A Brief History 2. Stephen Hawking (A) A book written on the theme of uplift-
of Time ment of women
(c) The First Three 3. Carl Sagan (B) The theme of the new realised ‘State of
Minutes World Population Report-2006’ by
(d) Cosmos 4. Arthur C. Clarke UNFPA
 O.G.K. | 81A

(C) A documentary film on global migration List-I

of women (a) Manju Kapoor
(D) A report on the status of women in the (b) Vikram Seth
world (c) Mahasweta Devi
10. Match the List-I with List-II and select the (d) K. Venkatasubramaniam
correct answer using the codes given below List-II
the Lists— 1. Two Lives
List-I List-II 2. Old Woman
(Authors) (Books) 3. Difficult Daughters
(a) Mahatma Gandhi 1. India Divided 4. India’s Development As Knowledge
(b) Ram Manohar Lohia 2. India Wins Society
Freedom Codes :
(c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad 3. Hind Swaraj (a) (b) (c) (d)
(d) Abul Kalam Azad 4. The Wheel of (A) 1 3 2 4
History (B) 3 1 2 4
Codes : (C) 3 2 1 4
(a) (b) (c) (d) (D) 4 2 1 3
(A) 1 3 4 2 17. Match the List-I with List-II and select the
(B) 4 3 2 1 correct answer using the codes given below
(C) 3 4 1 2 the Lists—
(D) 2 3 4 1 List-I List-II
11. Persian translation of the Mahabharata is (a) Vishakhadatta 1. Mrichhakatika
titled as— (b) Shudraka 2. Ritusamhara
(A) Anwar-i- Suheli (B) Rajm Nama (c) Kalidasa 3. Kamasutra
(C) Hasht Bahisht (D) Ayar Danish (d) Vatsyayana 4. Devichandraguptam
12. Which one of the following is correctly Codes :
matched ? (a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) Mahatma Gandhi : Muk Naik (A) 1 4 2 3
(B) Bal Gangadhar Tilak : Young India (B) 4 1 3 2
(C) Annie Besant : Commonweal (C) 1 4 3 2
(D) B.R. Ambedkar : Kesari (D) 4 1 2 3
13. The book “Crusader or Conspirator” has been 18. Match the List-I with List-II and select the
authored by— correct answer using the codes given below
(A) A. Joseph Antony the Lists—
(B) Prakash Karat List-I (Books)
(C) P.C. Parakh (a) The Struggle in My Life
(D) Sanjay Baru (b) The Struggle and the Triumph
14. “The Universe in a Single Atom” is a recently (c) Friends and Foes
published book written by— (d) Rebirth
List-II (Authors)
(A) George Bush (B) Dalai Lama
1. Lech Walesa
(C) Hillary Clinton (D) Vladimir Putin 2. Nelson Mandela
15. The book “Envisioning an Empowered 3. Leonid Brezhnev
Nation” is written by— 4. Zulfikar Ali Bhutto
(A) Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam 5. Sheikh Mujibur Rehman
(B) Atal Behari Vajpai Codes :
(C) Amartya Sen (a) (b) (c) (d)
(D) None of these (A) 1 2 5 3
16. Match the List-I with List-II and select the (B) 2 1 5 3
correct answer using the codes given below (C) 1 2 3 4
the Lists— (D) 2 1 3 4
82A | O.G.K.

19. Who amongst the following Englishmen, first (C) Jaswant Singh
translated Bhagvadgita into English ? (D) Probodh Chandra Bagchi
(A) William Jones 30. The author of the book “Joseph Anton” is—
(B) Charles Wilkins (A) John Lennon (B) Shakespeare
(C) Alexander Cunningham (C) Amitav Gosh (D) Salman Rushadi
(D) John Marshall 31. “Life Divine” is a book written by—
20. Which one of the following pairs is not (A) Gandhiji (B) Tagore
correctly matched ? (C) Radhakrishnan (D) Sri Aurobindo
(A) Anand Math : Bankim Chandra 32. Which of the following combinations of
Chatterjee Authors and Books is incorrectly matched ?
(B) India Wins Freedom : Surendranath
Bannerjee (A) Vishakhadatta : Mudrarakshasa
(C) Indian Poverty and UN-British Rule in (B) Kautilya : Arthashastra
India : Dadabhai Naoroji (C) Megasthenes : Indica
(D) Unhappy India : Lala Lajpat Rai (D) Nagarjuna : Dhruvaswamini
21. Consider the following literary works : 33. Who has written the book “The Man Who
1. Kumarsambhava 2. Mudrarakshasa Killed Gandhi” ?
3. Raghuvansa 4. Ritusamhara (A) Gopal Das Neeraj
Which of these were the works of Kalidasa ? (B) Dr. Ram Vilas Sharma
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2, 3 and 4 (C) Manohar Malgonkar
(C) 1, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 2 and 4 (D) Srilal Shukla
22. Who was the author of “Geet Govind” ? 34. Who is the author of the book “A Brief
(A) Vidyapati (B) Surdas History of Time” ?
(C) Jayadeva (D) Mirabai (A) K. S. Ramchandran
23. Who is the author of the book “The White (B) Stephen Hawkins
Tiger” ? (C) J. K. Rowling
(A) Arvind Adiga (B) Jagmohan Dalmia (D) Tony Blair
(C) Kapil Dev (D) Sunil Gavaskar 35. Who wrote “India Votes” ?
24. The author of the book “The Red Sari” is— (A) M. J . Akbar (B) Pran Chopra
(A) Justin Cromin (B) Javier Moro (C) M. S. Rana (D) Rajmohan Gandhi
(C) Jon Stroud (D) Jhumpa Lahiri 36. Who wrote the “Ganit Sar” ?
25. The book “Drishtikon” has been written by— (A) Sridhara (B) Bhaskar II
(A) Amitav Ghosh (B) Monica Ali (C) Aryabhatta II (D) Brahmagupta
(C) Arjun Munda (D) None of these 37. The religious text of the Jews is named as—
26. A book that brought awareness of environ- (A) The Analectus (B) Torah
ment all over the world was “Silent Spring”. (C) Tripatika (D) Zend Avesta
It was written by—
(A) Julien Huxley (B) Jane Goodall 38. Who among the following is the author of the
(C) John Seymour (D) Rachel Carson book “Songs of Blood and Sword” ?
27. Who is the author of “Business At the Speed (A) Kavita Krishnamurthy
of Thought” ? (B) Fatima Bhutto
(A) Dick Francis (B) John Gray (C) Jaswant Singh
(C) Bill Gates (D) David Baldacci (D) Shobha De
28. “Mao, the Unknown Story” is a book written 39. Who among the following is the author of the
by— book “Keeping the Faith : Memories of
(A) Jyoti Basu Parliamentarian” ?
(B) L.K. Advani (A) Murali Manohar Joshi
(C) Bill Clinton
(D) Jung Chang & Jon Halliday (B) Somnath Chatterjee
29. Who is the author of the book “India and (C) Sushma Swaraj
China—A Thousand Years of Cultural Rela- (D) L. K. Advani
tions” ? 40. The writer of the Harry Potter book series is—
(A) Rajmohan Gandhi (A) DBC Pierre
(B) Amitav Ghosh (B) Dominique Lapierre and Lary Collins
 O.G.K. | 83A

(C) Jhumpa Lahiri 52. Who is the author of the book “Wolf Hall” ?
(D) J. K. Rowling (A) Arundhati Roy (B) Hilary Mantle
41. The book “The Google Story” has been (C) Shobha De (D) J. K. Rowling
authored by— 53. Who is the author of the book “Jinnah : India-
(A) David A. Vise (B) Kuldip Nayyar Partition-Independence” ?
(C) Pawan Verma (D) Shobha De (A) Yashwant Sinha
42. Who wrote “In the Line of Fire : A Memoir”? (B) Jaswant Singh
(C) A. B. Vajpai
(A) Begum Khalida Zia
(D) Lt. Gen. S. K. Sinha
(B) Nawaj Sharif 54. Who among the following is the author of the
(C) Parvez Musharraf book “Keeping the Earth—Memoirs of Parlia-
(D) Sonia Gandhi mentarian” ?
43. Who is the author of the book “Harry Potter (A) A. B. Bardhan
and the Deathly Hollows” ? (B) Somnath Chatterjee
(A) Stephen Hawkins (B) J. K. Rowling (C) Prakash Karat
(C) Don De Lillo (D) Sophie Kinsella (D) L. K. Advani
44. Who has written the book “The Elephant, The 55. Who amongst the following is the author of
Tiger and The Cellphone”? the book “The Indian Parliament : A Demo-
(A) Alice Hoffman (B) Shashi Tharoor cracy at Work” ?
(C) Bridie Clark (D) J. D. Robb (A) V. S. Ramchandran
45. The book “Termites in the Trading System— (B) B. L. Shankar and Valerian Rodrigues
How Preferential Agreements Undermine (C) Rudra Krishna
Free Trade” has been written by— (D) Ashutosh Garg
56. Who amongst the following is the author of
(A) Don DeLillo (B) Jagdish Bhagwati the book “Graham Buffet and Me” ?
(C) Sophie Kinsella (D) Khaled Hosseini (A) Emi Rafael (B) Aryaman Dalmia
46. Who has written the book “A View from the (C) Sonia Gandhi (D) Shobha De
Outside” ? 57. Who authored the book “Muslim in Indian
(A) Amartya Sen (B) P. Chidambaram Cities” ?
(C) Yashwant Sinha (D) Jaswant Singh (A) NAK Browne (B) M. Hamid Ansari
47. Who is the author of the book “India’s New (C) P. V. Naik (D) V. K. Singh
Middle Class” ?
58. Who amongst the following is the author of
(A) Jaswant Singh (B) Meera Nayar the book “A Gardener in the Wasteland” ?
(C) L. K. Advani (D) Leela Fernandis
48. Who is the author of the book “Law of (A) Sushan Orlean
Attraction”? (B) Srividya Natarajan
(A) Narendra Modi (B) Michael J. Loslier (C) Anupam Kher
(C) Jaswant Singh (D) Peter Leonard (D) None of these
49. Who is the author of the book “Unaccusto-
med Earth”?
Answers
(A) L. K. Advani (B) Jhumpa Lahiri 1. (C) 2. (B) 3. (D) 4. (B) 5. (B)
(C) Shobha De (D) Arundhati Roy 6. (B) 7. (C) 8. (B) 9. (B) 10. (C)
50. Who is the author of the book “Wedding 11. (B) 12. (C) 13. (C) 14. (B) 15. (A)
Album” ? 16. (B) 17. (D) 18. (B) 19. (A) 20. (B)
(A) Meera Nayer (B) Amitabh Ghosh 21. (C) 22. (C) 23. (A) 24. (B) 25. (C)
(C) Girish Karnard (D) Shobha de 26. (D) 27. (C) 28. (D) 29. (D) 30. (D)
51. Who is the author of the book “The Immor- 31. (D) 32. (D) 33. (C) 34. (B) 35. (C)
tals” ? 36. (A) 37. (B) 38. (B) 39. (B) 40. (D)
(A) Barack Obama 41. (A) 42. (C) 43. (B) 44. (B) 45. (B)
(B) Amit Choudhury 46. (B) 47. (D) 48. (B) 49. (B) 50. (C)
(C) Lt. Gen. S. K. Sinha 51. (B) 52. (B) 53. (B) 54. (B) 55. (B)
(D) L. K. Advani 56. (B) 57. (B) 58. (B)
 United Nations Organisation
1. Match the List-I with List-II and select the 4. The World Habitat Day is observed on—
correct answer using the codes given below (A) March 21
the Lists—
(B) March 23
List-I
(C) June 5
(a) UN Development Programme
(b) National Council of Applied Economic (D) 1st Monday of October
Research 5. The International Youth Day is observed on—
(c) Indira Gandhi Institute of Development
(A) August 2 (B) August 12
Research
(d) World Bank (C) September 10 (D) October 1
List-II 6. Members of the European Union signed the
1. India Human Development Report historic Constitution of the European Union
2. India Development Report in Rome on—
3. World Development Report (A) 15th October, 2004
4. Human Development Report (B) 31st December, 2004
Codes : (C) 21st July, 2004
(a) (b) (c) (d) (D) 29th October, 2004
(A) 4 1 2 3 7. The six official languages of the UN are
(B) 4 2 1 3 Russia, Chinese, English, French, Spanish
and—
(C) 2 3 4 1
(A) Hindi
(D) 2 1 4 3 (B) Urdu
2. What are the countries which have formed a (C) Arabic
group supporting each other for a permanent (D) Japanese
seat in the U. N. Security Council ?
8. Match the List-I with List-II and select the
(A) India, South Africa, Indonesia, Japan correct answer using the codes given below
(B) India, Brazil, Germany and Japan the Lists—
(C) Italy, Germany, Spain and Japan
List-I List-II
(D) Germany, Greece, Brazil, India
(Important day) (Date)
3. Which Organisation has been decided to
observe the International Day of Non-vio- (a) World Environment 1. March 20
lence each year on 2nd October ? Day
(A) WTO (b) World Forestry Day 2. June 5
(B) UNEP (c) World Standard Day 3. September 16
(C) UNESCO (d) World Ozone Day 4. October 14
(D) UN General Assembly 5. December 10
 O.G.K. | 85A

Codes : 14. The 193rd member of the United Nations

Organisation is—
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) East Timore (B) South Sudan
(A) 2 1 4 5
(C) Switzerland (D) None of these
(B) 1 2 4 3
15. The origin of the phrase "United Nations" is
(C) 1 2 3 4 associated with one of the following perso-
(D) 2 1 4 3 nalities—
9. Consider the following organisations : (A) Jawaharlal Nehru
1. International Bank for Reconstruction (B) Franklin D. Roosevelt
and Development. (C) Charles De Gaulle
2. International Finance Corporation. (D) Woodrow Wilson
3. International Fund for Agricultural 16. Where is the headquarters of the International
Development. Bank for Reconstruction and Development of
4. International Monetary Fund. the World Bank ?
Which of these are agencies of the United (A) California
Nations ? (B) New York
(A) 1 and 2 (C) Washington DC
(B) 2 and 3 (D) Philadelphia
(C) 3 and 4
17. Who is the new Managing Director of Inter-
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
national Monetary Fund ?
10. The Year 2014 is being observed as— (A) Dominique Strauss Kahn
(A) International Year of Chemistry
(B) Horst Koehler
(B) International Year for the Rapproach-
(C) Gro Harlem Brundtland
ment of Cultures
(D) Christine Lagarde
(C) International Year of Family Farming
(D) None of these 18. The Year 2014 is observed by UNO as—
(A) International Year of Potato
11. The World Refugee Day is observed on—
(B) International Year of Sanitation
(A) May 20 (B) August 20
(C) International Year of Crystallography
(C) July 15 (D) June 20
(D) International Year of Planet Earth
12. Who among the following was the Secretary 19. The Constitution of UNO is called—
General of the Amnesty International who (A) Magna Carta
was the first woman, the first Asian and the
(B) Peace Agreement
first Muslim to head this organisation ?
(C) Charter
(A) Sakina Khan (D) Declaration
(B) Najma Sayeed
20. The number of non permanent members of the
(C) Irene Zubaida Khan
Security Council is—
(D) Zulia P. Khan (A) 6 (B) 8
13. The World Bank's headquarters are in— (C) 10 (D) 12
(A) Geneva 21. How many members States are there in the
(B) New York World Trade Organisation ?
(C) Paris (A) 159 (B) 145
(D) Washington D.C. (C) 139 (D) 142
86A | O.G.K.

22. December 10 is observed as— 33. Name the most important member of the
(A) World Health Day Collective Security Treaty Organisation
(B) U.N. Day (CSTO)—
(C) World Red Cross Day (A) The U.S.A. (B) France
(C) The U. K. (D) Russia
(D) Human Rights Day
23. United Nations was established in— 34. How many members are there in NAM (Non-
Aligned Movement) ?
(A) 1942 (B) 1945
(C) 1939 (D) 1941 (A) 120 (B) 121
(C) 118 (D) 125
24. The World Red Cross Day is observed on—
(A) May 3 (B) May 6 35. Who is the Present President of International
Court of Justice ?
(C) May 8 (D) May 15 (A) Peter Tomka
25. The Headquarters of UNESCO are in— (B) Kenneth Keith
(A) Germany (B) Paris (C) Ronny Abraham
(C) U.S.A. (D) Italy (D) Christopher Greenwood
26. How many members are there in the Asia- 36. Sixteenth NAM (Non-Aligned Movement)
Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC) ? summit has been held in 2012 at—
(A) 25 (B) 21 (A) Sharm El Sheikh (B) Hawana
(C) 32 (D) 35 (C) Tehran (D) Durban
27. The fourth meeting of the World Public 37. The 24th ASEAN Summit was held on 10-11
Forum Dialogue of Civilizations was held May, 2014 at—
in— (A) Beijing (B) Jakarta
(A) Russia (B) Iran (C) Kuala Lumpur (D) Nai Pyi Taw
(C) Greece (D) USA 38. How many countries are there in ‘BRICS’
28. How many members are there in the United groups of countries ?
Nations ? (A) 3 (B) 4
(A) 188 (B) 189 (C) 5 (D) 6
(C) 191 (D) 193
39. Newly independent country of world is—
29. How many members are there in the European
Union ? (A) South Sudan (B) Croatia
(A) 24 (B) 25 (C) East Sudan (D) North Sudan
(C) 26 (D) 28 Answers
30. Who is the present UN Secretary General ?
(A) Kofi Annan 1. (A) 2. (B) 3. (D) 4. (D) 5. (B)
(B) Ban Ki-Moon 6. (D) 7. (C) 8. (D) 9. (D) 10. (C)
(C) Koichiro Matsuura 11. (D) 12. (C) 13. (D) 14. (B) 15. (B)
(D) Horst Koehler 16. (C) 17. (D) 18. (C) 19. (C) 20. (C)
31. The present Director General of UNESCO 21. (A) 22. (D) 23. (B) 24. (C) 25. (B)
is— 26. (B) 27. (C) 28. (D) 29. (D) 30. (B)
(A) Rodrigo Rato (B) Irina Bokova 31. (B) 32. (B) 33. (D) 34. (A) 35. (A)
(C) Hamadour Toure (D) Ban Ki-Moon 36. (C) 37. (D) 38. (C) 39. (A)
32. The Director General of World Trade Organi- Hints
sation (WTO) from Sept. 2013 is—
(A) Rodrigo Rato 6. The member countries of Shangai Coopera-
tion Organisation are Russia, Kazakhstan,
(B) Roberto Azevedo Kyrgyzstan, Uzbekistan, Tajikistan and China.
(C) Francois Bourguignon 28. Montenegro became the new member, i.e.
(D) Robert Zoellick 192nd member of the UN.
 Awards and Current Affairs
1. Which film won the best feature film award in 7. The winners of Nobel Prize 2013 in Econo-
the 61st National Film Award announced in mics are—
March 2014 ? (A) Eugene F. Fama
(A) Jolly LLB (B) Lars Peter Hansen
(B) Paan Singh Tomar (C) Both of the above
(C) Lage Raho Munna Bhai (D) None of the above
(D) Omkara 8. Match the List-I with List-II and select the
2. 86th Oscar Award declared in February 2014 correct answer using the codes given below
for the best feature film went to the film— the lists—
(A) 12 Years A Slave List-I
(B) Argo (a) Chief Election Commissioner
(C) Lagaan
(b) Chief Justice
(D) Elizabeth
(c) RBI Governors
3. Which one of the following is not a recipient
of Padma Vibhushan awardees for the year (d) Chairman Rajya Sabha
2014 ? List-II
(A) Shabana Azmi 1. R. M. Lodha
(B) Dr. Raghunath A. Mashelkar 2. Hamid Ansari
(C) B. K. S. Iyenger 3. V. S. Sampat
(D) None of the above 4. Raghuram Rajan
4. The Ramon Magsaysay Award 2014 has been Codes :
conferred to— (a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) Habiba Sarabi (A) 1 3 4 2
(B) Lahpai Seng (B) 3 1 4 2
(C) Sakti Samuha (C) 1 3 2 4
(D) 3 1 2 4
(D) Randy Holasan
5. The NATO 2012 Summit was held in May 9. Who among the following has been honoured
2012 at— with Bharat Ratna for the year 2014 ?
(A) Toyako (A) Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
(B) G. Madhavan Nair
(B) Heiligendamm
(C) Pt. Bhimsen Joshi
(C) Chicago
(D) Sachin Tendulkar
(D) St. Petersburg
10. Which Hindi author has been selected for the
6. Who was awarded the UNESCO—Guillermo K. K. Birla Vyas Samman 2013 for his
Cano World Press Freedom Award for 2014 ? memoir, Vyomkesh Darvesh ?
(A) Ahmet Sik (A) Sri Lal Shukla
(B) Reeyot Alemu (B) Gopal Das Neeraj
(C) Mai Chidiac (C) Vishwanath Tripathi
(D) N. Swaminathan (D) None of the above
88A | O.G.K.

11. Who was awarded the Nobel Prize for Peace (A) Dr. Homi Bhabha
in the year 2013 ? (B) Dr. J. C. Bose
(A) Ellen Johnson Sirleaf (C) Dr. C. V. Raman
(B) Tawakkul Karman (D) Dr. Vikram Sarabhai
(C) Leymah Gbowee 19. Who among the following was awarded Nobel
(D) O.P.C.W. Prize for Literature-2013 ?
12. Which of the following has been selected for (A) Alice Munro (B) Bill Clinton
Padma Bhushan Award for 2014 ? (C) Paul Lauterbur (D) Shirin Ebadi
(A) R. A. Mashelkar (B) BKS Iyengar 20. Who got the Best Actor Award in the 61st
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these National Film Awards announced in March
13. The first Indian to win Nobel Prize was— 2014 ?
(A) Amitabh Bachchan
(A) C.V. Raman
(B) Shahrukh Khan
(B) Rabindra Nath Tagore
(C) Rajkumar and Suraj Venjaramoodu
(C) Hargovind Khurana (D) Nana Patekar
(D) Amartya Sen
21. The winner of Nobel Prize-2013 in Physics
14. Who was awarded the UNESCO Confucius was—
Literacy Prize 2013 ? (A) Saul Perlmutter
(A) Non-formal and continuing Education (B) Brian P. Schmidt
Programme (Bhutan) (C) Adam G. Riess
(B) The Saakshar Bharat (Literate India) (D) Francois Englert and Peter Higgs
Mission
22. The G-7 Summit was held in 2014 in—
(C) Tony Blair
(A) Germany
(D) George W. Bush (B) USA
15. Julianne Moore has begged best actress award (C) Brussels
in 66th International Film Festival of Cannes (D) Canada
2014 for the film—
23. Which of the following companies is the
(A) A Screaming Man world’s number one car maker ?
(B) Of Gods and Men (A) Honda Motor (B) Volvo Motor
(C) Maps to the Star (C) Suzuki Motor (D) General Motor
(D) Ano Bisiesto 24. With what game is the name of Cara Black
16. Who has been awarded the Best Woman associated ?
Player Award in FIFA Women’s World Cup (A) Lawn Tennis (B) Badminton
Football 2011 ? (C) Table Tennis (D) Chess
(A) Diego Forlan (B) Homare Sawa
25. India successfully launched its first moon
(C) Andres Iniesta (D) Iker Casillas mission Chandrayaan-1 ?
17. Who among the following won the Nobel (A) 21st Nov., 2006 (B) 31st Jan., 2007
Prize for Medicine 2013 ?
(C) 12th Feb., 2007 (D) 22nd Oct., 2008
(A) Bruce A. Boutler
26. Where does the 18th SAARC Summit will
(B) Jules A. Hoffmann held in Nov. 2014 ?
(C) Ralph M. Steimman (A) Vientiane (B) Kuala Lumpur
(D) James E. Rothman and Randy Schekman (C) Kathmandu (D) Hanoi
18. Which Indian Scientist has had the distinction 27. Which scientist received Shanti Swarup
of receiving not only the Nobel Prize, but also Bhatnagar Award 2013 for Mathematical
Bharat Ratna ? Sciences ?
 O.G.K. | 89A

(A) Debashish Goswami 35. Who among the following is heading the
(B) Eknath Prabhakar Ghate SEBI’s Committee on Corporate governance?
(C) Both (A) and (B) (A) Ratan Tata (B) G. N. Bajpai
(D) None of the above (C) Narayan Murthy (D) J. S. Verma
28. Which of the following is a recipient of 36. As on December 31, 2013, the total foreign
Dhyan Chand Award, announced in August debt on Indian economy stood at—
2013 ? (A) $ 404·9 billion (B) $ 426·0 billion
(A) Girraj Singh (C) $ 433·0 billion (D) $ 443·0 billion
(B) Anil Mann 37. The person who headed U. N. Weapons
(C) Syed Ali Inspectors in Iraq was—
(D) All of the above (A) Hans Blix (B) Aron Sorkin
29. COP19 Summit concluded in November 2013 (C) Huge Jackson (D) Martin Sheen
in— 38. Who won the Miss Universe 2013 ?
(A) Kuala Lumpur (B) Warsaw (A) Shandi Finnessey
(C) Beijing (D) Hanoi (B) Alba Reyes
30. World’s Least Developed Countries Summit (C) Natalie Glebova
was held in May 2011 in— (D) Maria Gabriela Isler
(A) Jakarta (B) Istanbul 39. Which of the following entrepreneur has been
(C) Kuala Lumpur (D) Davos awarded Entrepreneur of the year Award
31. India’s newly built and tested missile ‘Astra’ 2013, in February 2014 ?
is meant for— (A) Udai Kotak
(A) Surface to air strike (B) Siddharth Birla
(B) Air to air strike (C) Rajan Bharti
(C) Ship to ship strike (D) S. Gopal Krishnan
(D) Surface to surface strike 40. Who was appointed the first Chief Infor-
32. Who has been appointed the first woman mation Commissioner following the coming
Prime Minister of Thailand ? into force of the Right to Information Act,
2005 ?
(A) Kamla Das
(A) Dalvir Chandra Bhandari
(B) Kamla Devi
(B) G. Madhavan
(C) Yingluck Shinavatra (C) Vajahat Habibullah
(D) Kamla K. Singh (D) None of the above
33. Which of the following is a recipient of 41. In which of the following states has the Tata
Dronacharya Award 2014 ? Tele-service (TTSL) started its first operation
(A) Yashvir Singh Ramphal under the new name Tata Indicom?
(B) J. S. Bhatia (A) Goa (B) Kerala
(C) Mahavir Singh (C) Tamil Nadu (D) Maharashtra
(D) Jose Jacob 42. Who among the following is the USA’s new
34. The Nobel Prize for Chemistry for the year Foreign Secretary or Secretary of State follo-
2013 was conferred on— wing Presidential elections in Nov. 2012 ?
(A) Martin Karplus and Michael Levitt (A) James Rumsfeld
(B) Thomas A. Steitz (B) John Kerry
(C) Ada E. Yonuth (C) Armitage
(D) All the above (D) None of the above
90A | O.G.K.

43. Which company recently hit the business (C) Save Water, Save Life
headlines for striking a historic natural gas (D) Water and Human
discovery near Kakinada in Andhra Pradesh ?
51. With the admission of a new members into
(A) Gas Authority of India Ltd. the European Union on July 2013, the
(B) ONGC membership of the organisation has now risen
(C) Oil India Ltd. to—
(D) Reliance Industries (A) 25 (B) 19
44. Who became the first Indian women to cross (C) 28 (D) 15
Gobi Desert in July 2011 ? 52. The famous Akshardham Temple is situated
(A) Amrita Singh in the city of—
(B) Ankita Singh (A) Madurai (B) Gandhi Nagar
(C) Sucheta Kadethanker (C) Jammu (D) Srinagar
(D) None of the above 53. With the admission of one new nations into
45. How many states in the country have been the SAARC countries, the membership of the
chosen for a pilot project to introduce a new organisation has now risen to—
multipurpose National Identity Card ? (A) 8 (B) 12
(A) 16 (B) 15 (C) 15 (D) 18
(C) 14 (D) 13 54. Which International Telecom Company uses
46. Who among the following was the Indian flag the baseline ‘Intelligence Everywhere’ ?
bearer at the 30th Olympic Games held at (A) Motorola (B) Alcatel
London, Greece in July/August 2012 ?
(C) Nokia (D) Ericsson
(A) Jaspal Rana (B) Anjali Bhagwat
(C) Sushil Kumar (D) Mahesh Bhupati 55. The 12th Pravasi Bharatiya Diwas was cele-
brated in India on January 7–9, 2014 at—
47. On which of the following grounds did (A) Hyderabad (B) Delhi
Sachin Tendulkar play his 100th test ? (C) Bengaluru (D) Chennai
(A) Mumbai (B) Kandy
(C) Oval (D) Capetown 56. The XIIIth India-EU Summit was held in
2013 at—
48. Which of the following airports has been
declared risky for landing by the Civil Avia- (A) Beijing (B) Brussels
tion ministry ? (C) Saint Petersburg (D) Dhaka
(A) Lucknow Airport 57. The multinational company which has laun-
(B) Chandigarh Airport ched ‘Bio Colour Television’ in Indian market?
(C) Patna Airport (A) L.G. (B) Samsung
(D) Ranchi Airport (C) BPL (D) Philips
49. Which country along with India has begun its 58. ‘Power’ a variety of petrol has been intro-
first ever joint co-ordinated patrols in the duced in the market by—
Andaman Sea to check poaching, smuggling
and drug trafficking in the region ? (A) BPCL (B) ONGC
(C) IOC (D) HPCL
(A) USA (B) Sri Lanka
(C) Indonesia (D) Korea 59. Who is the new President of the European
Council ?
50. May 22, 2014 was celebratest throughout the
world as World Water Day. This year’s theme (A) Leszek Miller
was— (B) Marek Belka
(A) Water is Life (C) Gerhard Schroeder
(B) Water and Energy (D) Herman Van Rompuy
 O.G.K. | 91A

60. Who was awarded the 86th Oscar Award for 69. ‘Vision India 2020’ is a book written by—
the Best Actor on 24th February, 2014 ? (A) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
(A) Jamie Foxx (B) I. K. Gujral
(B) Daniel Day—Lewis (C) Narendra Modi
(C) Morgan Freeman (D) Shushil Kumar Shinde
(D) Matthew Mc Conaughey 70. The company which sponsored the Wisden
Indian Cricketer of the century is—
61. Which one of the following countries of the
world is worst affected by the economic (A) Birla (B) Onida
meltdown currently plaguing the world ? (C) Electrolux (D) Sony
(A) China (B) India 71. Who among the following has been honoured
(C) The U.K. (D) The U.S.A. with Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarma-
62. Name the magazine which has been circulated ment and Development for the year 2013 ?
on the board of Indian Airlines after replacing (A) Mohd. El Baradei
‘Swagat.’ (B) Dalai Lama
(A) Cosmopolitan (B) Darpan (C) Angela Merkel
(C) Welcome (D) Flying World (D) Barack Obama
63. Government of India formed a new South- 72. Which of the following states is planning to
Western Command of the Indian land army. set up India’s first Agri Export Zone (AEZ)
With this the number of commands will be for Soyabean ?
raised to— (A) Maharashtra (B) Madhya Pradesh
(A) 6 (B) 8 (C) Rajasthan (D) Uttar Pradesh
(C) 7 (D) 5 73. The centre is planning to set up the National
64. Per Capital milk availability is highest in the Institute of Animal Welfare in the state of—
state of— (A) Rajasthan
(A) Uttar Pradesh (B) Gujarat (B) Haryana
(C) Punjab (D) Haryana (C) Himachal Pradesh
(D) Punjab
65. Who has set a new record for the fastest
century in 30 balls ? 74. Britain’s Virgin Atlantic has ended code-
(A) M. S. Dhoni (B) Sachin share agreement with—
(C) Chris Gayle (D) None of these (A) Indian Airlines
(B) Air India
66. How many seats did the Bahujan Samaj
(C) Canadian Airlines
Party (BSP) bag on its own in the Lok Sabha
election in 2014 ? (D) PIA
(A) 14 (B) 13 75. Which of the following Universities will hold
(C) 8 (D) None of these the ‘ISRO Chair’ for the research related to
the area of space science ?
67. How many seats did the Bhartiya Janta Party
(BJP) bag on its own in the Lok Sabha (A) Delhi University
election in 2014 ? (B) J.L.N. University
(A) 244 (B) 285 (C) Pune University
(C) 282 (D) 216 (D) Vishwa Bharati University
68. ‘India’s Gateway to the World’ the famous 76. Who has been appointed as Chairman of
slogan is of— ICC?
(A) Air India (B) BSNL (A) Suresh Kalmadi (B) Sunil Gavaskar
(C) VSNL (D) Wipro (C) N. Srinivasan (D) Alan Isaac
92A | O.G.K.

77. Laura Chinchilla is— 85. The first World Hindi Day was celebrated for
(A) Governor of Tamil Nadu the time on—
(B) Chairman of the Central Board of Film (A) 1st January, 2006
Certification (B) 15th August, 2006
(C) First Woman President of Costa Rica (C) 1st December, 2006
(D) Chairman of Jnanpith Award Committee (D) 10th January, 2007
78. Which of the following was crowned Miss 86. Identify Mullaithivu—
World 2013 ? (A) It is the name of the town which was one
(A) Ms. Jovana Marjanovic (Serbia and of the strong holds of the LTTE in Sri
Montenegro) Lanka
(B) Ms. Kataizyna Borowicz (Poland) (B) It is a terrorist organisation in Sri Lanka
(C) Megan Young (Philippines) (C) It is a place of pilgrimage in Tamil Nadu
(D) Ms. Amell Santa (Domintcan Republic) (D) None of the above
79. African Union Summit was held in June 2014 87. Which of the following is not a member of
in— G-20 developing nations ?
(A) Adis Ababa (B) Moscow (A) Argentina (B) India
(C) Tokyo (D) Malabo (C) Pakistan (D) USA
80. Who has been appointed as Director General 88. Which of the following was crowned Femina
of National Investigation Agency ? Miss India World 2014 ?
(A) Dr. Surjit S. Bhalla (A) Niharica Raizada
(B) Sarad Kumar (B) Navneet Kaur Dhillon
(C) M. N. Prasad (C) Cher Merchand
(D) Pradeep Kapoor (D) Koyal Rana
81. Who is the Chief Justice of India ?
Answers
(A) Justice K. G. Balakrishnan
(B) Justice R. M. Lodha 1. (A) 2. (A) 3. (A) 4. (D) 5. (C)
(C) Justice B. D. Anand 6. (B) 7. (C) 8. (B) 9. (D) 10. (C)
(D) Justice V. N. Khare 11. (D) 12. (C) 13. (B) 14. (B) 15. (C)
82. Who has been chosen Laureus Sportsman of 16. (B) 17. (D) 18. (C) 19. (A) 20. (C)
the year 2013 ? 21. (D) 22. (C) 23. (D) 24. (A) 25. (D)
(A) Usen Bolt 26. (C) 27. (B) 28. (D) 29. (B) 30. (B)
(B) Roger Federer 31. (B) 32. (C) 33. (C) 34. (A) 35. (C)
(C) Both (A) and (B) 36. (B) 37. (A) 38. (D) 39. (A) 40. (C)
(D) None of the above
41. (C) 42. (B) 43. (D) 44. (C) 45. (D)
83. Who is the New Election Commissioner of 46. (C) 47. (C) 48. (C) 49. (C) 50. (B)
India ?
51. (C) 52. (B) 53. (A) 54. (A) 55. (B)
(A) N. Gopalaswami
56. (B) 57. (B) 58. (D) 59. (D) 60. (D)
(B) V. S. Sampat
(C) M. S. Swaminathan 61. (D) 62. (B) 63. (C) 64. (C) 65. (C)
(D) None of the above 66. (D) 67. (C) 68. (C) 69. (A) 70. (C)
71. (C) 72. (B) 73. (B) 74. (B) 75. (C)
84. Which of the following is not a member of
IBSA ? 76. (C) 77. (C) 78. (C) 79. (D) 80. (B)
(A) India (B) Brazil 81. (B) 82. (A) 83. (B) 84. (D) 85. (D)
(C) S. Africa (D) Sri Lanka 86. (A) 87. (D) 88. (D)
 Miscellaneous
1. Who is the newly elected President of CII ? (B) Shinzo Abe, Prime Minister of Japan
(A) Azim Premji (C) Luiz Inacio Lula da Silva, President of
(B) Rahul Bajaj Brazil
(C) Ajay S. Shriram (D) Jigme Khesar Namgyal Wangchuck
(D) S. Narayan Murthy King of Bhutan
2. Who is newly appointed President of FICCI ? 8. Who was the first Prime Minister of England ?
(A) R. V. Kanoria (A) Oliver Cromwell
(B) Harsh Mariwala (B) Benjamin Disraeli
(C) Sidharth Birla (C) Robert Walpole
(D) Rajiv Kumar (D) Gladstone
3. Who was the first woman Prime Minister of 9. Name the inventor of ATM who died re-
Thailand ? cently—
(A) Gloria Macapagal (A) John Shepherd Barron
(B) Angela Markel (B) Leszek Miller
(C) Yingluck Shinawatra (C) Ada E. Yonuth
(D) None of these (D) Willard S. Boyal
4. The Nobel Laureate who is fighting to libe- 10. What is Fahrenheit 9/11 ?
rate the people of Myanmar is—
(A) A device developed to measure the
(A) Corazon Aquino explosive effect of a hydrogen bomb
(B) Benazir Bhutto (B) An instrument devised by a research
(C) Aung San Suukyi establishment in Germany to follow the
(D) Winnie Mandela internal movements of human cells
5. Which of the following is called the Mother (C) U S Film-maker Michael Moore’s film
of Parliaments ? which bagged top prize in May 2004 at
the Canves Film Festival
(A) The German Parliament
(B) The American Parliament (D) None of these
(C) The French Parliament 11. What is "NMD" ?
(D) The British Parliament (A) New Monetary Devices
6. "India House" is located in— (B) National Meteorological Department
(A) New Delhi (B) Kolkata (C) National Missile Defence Space based
(C) London (D) New York anti ballistic missile system being set up
by the US
7. Who was the Chief Guest at the Republic Day (D) New Monroe Doctrine
function on January 26, 2014 in New Delhi ?
(A) Gen. Olusegun Obasanjo, President of 12. Who was the first Caliph ?
Nigeria (A) Sulaiman, the Great
94A | O.G.K.

(B) Abu Bakr 20. The Bandung Conference was a major mile-
(C) Iman Hussain stone in the history of—
(D) Constantine (A) The Non-Aligned Movement
13. One of the following is an odd combination. (B) Indo-Chinese Relationship
Which is that ? (C) U.S. Vietnam War
(A) Fascism : Dictatorship (D) Creation of ASEAN
(B) Individualism : State control
21. Former Soviet President Mr. Mikhail
(C) IBRD : Loans Gorbachev had become popular for his policy
(D) Mahatma Gandhi : Non-violence of—
14. Whose teachings inspired the French Revolu- (A) Market Economy
tion ? (B) Perestroika
(A) Locke (B) Rousseau
(C) Socialist Economy
(C) Hegel (D) Plato
(D) Dictatorship of Proletariat
15. D-Day is the day when—
(A) Germany declared war on Britain 22. National Integration Day is observed on—
(B) US dropped the atom bomb on (A) January 30 (B) May 21
Hiroshima (C) October 30 (D) None of these
(C) Allied troops landed in Normandy
23. Who is popularly known as 'Missile Man of
(D) Germany surrendered to the allies
India' ?
16. The first airline to allow flyers to surf the net
(A) Dr. C.V. Raman
was—
(A) United Airlines (B) Dr. Hargobind Khurana
(B) Singapore Airlines (C) Dr. S. Chandra Sekhar
(C) Emirates Airlines (D) Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
(D) Air Canada 24. The abbreviation TRAI stands for—
17. World Computer Literacy Day is celebrated (A) Taxation Research and Analysis Institute
on—
(A) 2nd December (B) 'Tourist Resorts ' Agents of India
(B) 5th July (C) Telecom Regulatory Authority of India
(C) 14th November (D) Trade Related Accounts and Indices
(D) 3rd November 25. ‘Arunima Sinha’ who was in news is a—
18. Fabianism is closely related to— (A) Writer
(A) Fascism
(B) Historian
(B) Communism
(C) Democratic Socialism (C) Mountaineer
(D) Liberalism (D) Artist
19. The Prime Minister of India constituted in 26. Match the following—
January 2009 Global Advisory Council List-I List-II
with— (a) Cold War 1. Mao (China)
(A) Dr. M. S. Swaminathan as its first
Chairman (b) Holy War 2. 1917
(B) Himself as its Chairman (c) The Long March 3. Crusades
(C) Kapil Sibbal as its first Chairman (d) The Russian 4. US Vs. USSR
(D) None of these Revolution
 O.G.K. | 95A

Codes : (C) Goa

(a) (b) (c) (d) (D) Vishakhapatnam
(A) 4 1 3 2
33. Who among the following has been choosen
(B) 3 2 1 4 for K. K. Birla’s Foundation Saraswati
(C) 4 3 1 2 Samman for the year 2013 announced in
(D) 2 1 4 3 March 2014 ?
27. Who said, " Man is a Social Animal“ ? (A) Khushwant Singh
(B) Sugatha Kumari
(A) Plato
(C) Govind Mishra
(B) Aristotle (D) S. R. Yatri
(C) Rousseau 34. Which of the following is India’s first nuclear
(D) Socrates Powered Submarine, Launched on 26 July,
2009 ?
28. The Government of India in a bid to attract
foreign investments into India has appointed (A) INS Arihant
the Investment Commission which is headed (B) INS Vikrant
by—
(C) INS Virat
(A) Azim Premji
(D) INS Talwar
(B) Mukesh Ambani
35. What is the full form of CMP ?
(C) Ashok Ganguly (A) Committee on Management Programme
(D) Ratan Tata (B) Common Minimum Programme
29. 'Red Revolution' in China took place in— (C) Correct Measurement of Polio
(A) 1917 (D) Communist (Marxist) Politbureau
(B) 1949 36. The motto of CNBC India is—
(C) 1959 (A) Profit from it
(D) 1962 (B) With you all the way
30. Who was ruling over Pakistan at the time (C) Leading the way
when Bangladesh became independent ? (D) Makes life simple
(A) Ayub Khan 37. World Social Forum meeting in March 2013
(B) Yahya Khan was held in—
(C) Zulfiqar Ali Bhutto (A) India (B) Tunisia
(D) Zia ul Haq (C) China (D) Iraq
31. The present Chairman of the Indian Space 38. Which country has recently announced of
Research Organisation is— having built the world’s highest elevated
railway line ?
(A) Sudhir Narain (A) China (B) India
(B) Justice B. N. Kripal (C) Russia (D) Poland
(C) Justice R. S. Lahoti 39. Who amongst the following has been crow-
(D) K. Radhakrishnan ned Miss Universe 2013 ?
32. The first unified theatre commanded by the (A) Jimena Navarrete
Indian Defence Forces has been set at— (B) Ushoshi Sengupta
(A) Andaman Nicobar Islands (C) Maria Gabriela
(B) Cochin (D) None of the above
96A | O.G.K.

40. Which among the following has been re- 47. Who was awarded the 2013 World Food
elected to the United Nations Human Rights Prize?
Committee for the fourth time ? (A) Dr. Philip E. Nelson
(A) Nisuke Ando (B) Mary Dell Chilton
(B) Ivan Shearer (C) Dr. Monty Jones
(C) Michael O’ Flaherty (D) Bob Dole
(D) Justice P. N. Bhagwati 48. The Shanghai Cooperation Organisation
41. Who has been appointed Attorney General of (SCO) summit in June 2013 was held in—
India ? (A) Havana (B) Bishkek
(A) Mukul Rohatgi (C) Tehran (D) Durban
(B) Ram Jethmalani 49. The COP19 Summit on Climate Change was
(C) G. E. Vahanvati held in 2013 in—
(D) Prashant Bhushan (A) Singapore (B) London
42. Who was awarded the 2013 Vyas Samman ? (C) Warsaw (D) Tobago
(A) Mahashweta Devi 50. Who among the following is the newly
(B) Amrita Preetam appointed Chief of the Indian Air Force ?
(C) Vishwanath Tripathi (A) Amar Kant (B) NAK Browne
(D) Narendra Kohli (C) P. S. Naik (D) Arup Raha
43. Which of the following bagged M.P. Govern- 51. The Golden Jublee African Union Summit
ment’s Kishore Kumar Samman for 2011-12? was held at—
(A) Dilip Kumar (A) Beijing (B) Moscow
(B) Devanand (C) New Delhi (D) Adis Ababa
(C) Shahrukh Khan 52. Which of the following is a recipient of
(D) Salim Khan 65th Ashok Chakra Award 2014 conferred in
44. Which of the following is a recipient of Arjun August 15, 2014 ?
Award 2014 ? (A) Haviladar Dayal Singh (Posthumous)
(A) Joseph Abraham (Athletics) (B) Colonnel Neeraj Sood (Posthumous)
(B) Krishna Poonia (Athletics) (C) Lt. Navdeep Singh (Posthumous)
(C) Jhulan Goswami (Cricket) (D) Mukund Varadarajan (Posthumous)
(D) Tintu Luka (Athletics) Answers
45. In Global Innovation Index for 2013, which 1. (C) 2. (C) 3. (C) 4. (C) 5. (D)
country has been placed at first rank ? 6. (C) 7. (B) 8. (C) 9. (A) 10. (C)
(A) Switzerland 11. (C) 12. (B) 13. (B) 14. (B) 15. (C)
(B) Germany 16. (B) 17. (A) 18. (C) 19. (B) 20. (A)
(C) Sweden 21. (B) 22. (D) 23. (D) 24. (C) 25. (C)
(D) UK 26. (C) 27. (B) 28. (D) 29. (B) 30. (B)
46. ‘Daughters of Shame’ is a book written by— 31. (D) 32. (A) 33. (B) 34. (A) 35. (B)
(A) Jasvinder Sanghera 36. (A) 37. (B) 38. (A) 39. (C) 40. (D)
(B) Mehar Fatima Hussain 41. (A) 42. (C) 43. (D) 44. (D) 45. (A)
(C) Kermit Roosevelt 46. (A) 47. (B) 48. (B) 49. (C) 50. (D)
(D) Shazia Aziz 51. (D) 52. (D)
EVERYDAY SCIENCE
 Everyday Science
PHYSICS 5. Galvanized iron is coated with a thin coating
of—
1. The dimensions of Planck’s constant are the (a) Copper (b) Tin
same as the dimensions of— (c) Zinc (d) Aluminium
(a) Energy (e) White lead
(b) Frequency 6. Tick out the only wrong statement in the
(c) Lienar Momentum following—
(d) Angular Momentum (a) Light travels with a speed greater than that
(e) None of the above of sound
2. The blue colour of the water in the Sea is due (b) Light cannot travel through vacuum
to— (c) Light travels in a straight line
(a) refraction of the blue light by the impu- (d) Light is a wave motion
rities in the Sea water. (e) Light shows diffraction
(b) reflection of blue sky by Sea water 7. In the visible spectrum the colour having the
(c) scattering of blue light by water molecules shortest wavelength is—
(d) absorption of other colours except the blue (a) Violet (b) Blue
colour by water molecules (c) Red (d) Yellow
(e) blue colouring of the Sea water (e) Green
3. Sometimes the tubes in the well-inflated tyres 8. The unit of power is—
of a cycle left in the sun burst open— (a) Joule per second only
(a) Because the pressure of air inside the tube (b) Joule only
increases (c) Joule per second and watt both
(b) Because the volume of air inside the tube (d) Watt only
increases due to rise in its temperature (e) Erg.
(c) Because the tube containing air melts 9. The heater element in an electric iron is made
(d) Because the volume and the pressure both of—
increase (a) Copper (b) Tungsten
(e) Nothing of the above (c) Nichrome (d) Iron
4. A glass tumbler containing ice shows droplets (e) Platinum
of water on the outer surface because— 10. If woollen cloth of red colour is seen in the
(a) The outer surface of the tumbler shows light of a mercury vapour lamp, then the cloth
hygroscopic effect will appear—
(b) Water from inside oozes out through the (a) Black (b) Red
wall of the tumbler (c) Green (d) Blue
(c) The moisture in the air on coming in (e) Violet
contact with the cold surface of the tumbler 11. At sun rise or at sun set, the sun appears to be
condenses in the form of droplets of water reddish while at midday it looks white. This is
(d) (a) & (b) because—
(e) None of the above (a) The sun is colder at sunrise or at sunset
4/ E.S.

(b) Diffraction sends red rays to the earth at (a) 0°C (b) more than 4°C
these times (c) 4°C (d) less than 4°C
(c) Refraction causes this phenomenon (e) – 2°C
(d) Scattering due to dust particles and air 18. If you float on your back on water, your weight
molecules causes this phenomenon is—
(e) None of these (a) Equal to your normal weight
12. Water is transparent to visible light. Still it is (b) Half of your normal weight
not possible to see objects at a distance in fog
(c) Zero
which consists of fine drops of water suspended
in the air. This is so because— (d) Greater than the weight of water displaced
by you
(a) Fog affects our vision adversely
(e) Less than the weight of water displaced by
(b) Fine drops of water are opaque to visible you
light
(c) Most of the light is scattered and hence this 19. Which of the following is the most viscous
medium ?
apparent opacity
(a) coaltar (b) water
(d) The light rays suffer total internal reflec-
tion and cannot reach the eyes of the (c) glycerine (d) alcohol
observer (e) air
(e) Both (a) and (d) are correct 20. In a Bunsen’s burner, use is made of—
13. The radiant energy of the sun results from— (a) Surface tension
(a) Nuclear fusion (b) Nuclear fission (b) Suction Pump
(c) Cosmic radiation (d) Combustion (c) Boyle’s Law
(e) Explosion (d) Bernoulli’s theorem
14. A microscope, in which maximum magni- (e) Archmedes’ principle
fication is achieved, but the object cannot be 21. Railway tracks are banked on curves so that—
seen by eye, is called—
(a) no frictional force may be produced bet-
(a) simple microscope ween the track and the wheels
(b) dissecting microscope
(b) the train may not fall down inwards
(c) electron microscope
(c) the weight of the train may be reduced
(d) phase contrast microscope
(e) compound microscope (d) necessary centripetal force may be ob-
tained from the horizontal component of
15. The image formed on the retina of the eye is—
the weight of the train
(a) upright and real (e) necessary centrifugal force may be ob-
(b) virtual and upright tained from the horizontal component of
(c) real and inverted the weight of the train
(d) enlarged and real 22. The density of water is maximum at—
(e) larger than the object (a) 0°C (b) 4°C
16. The transverse nature of light is shown by— (c) 25°C (d) 50°C
(a) refraction of light (e) 100°C
(b) reflection of light
23. Oil rises up the wick in a lamp because—
(c) interference of light
(a) oil is volatile
(d) polarization of light
(b) oil is very light
(e) dispersion of light
(c) of the surface tension phenomenon
17. The surface water in a lake is just going to
freeze. What is the termperature of water at the (d) of the diffusion of oil through the wick
bottom ? (e) of the capillary action phenomenon
 E.S./ 5

24. An ice cube contains an iron ball in it and floats (d) thermosflask is made of a material having
in water contained in a vessel. What will the property of maintaining temperature at
happen if the ice melts away ? constant
(a) The water level will go up (e) none of these
(b) The water level will go down 31. To a space traveller on the moon during day
(c) There will be no change in the water level time the lunar sky appears—
(d) The water level will first rise and later it (a) blue (b) black
will go down (c) white (d) red
(e) None of these (e) yellow
25. Which of the following utilizes Newton’s third 32. At which temperature do the reading of the
law of motion ? Centigrade and the Fahrenheit scales coincide?
(a) Archery (a) 0° (b) 100°
(b) Space-rocket (c) – 40° (d) – 80°
(c) Venturimeter (e) none of these
(d) Internal combustion engine 33. Sound is a form of—
(e) Kite flying
(a) energy
26. The function of cement in masonry is based on
(b) matter
the phenomenon of—
(c) radiation
(a) adhesion (b) cohesion
(c) rigidity (d) elasticity (d) electromagnetic energy
(e) flexibility (e) none of these
27. The main source of heat is— 34. Lightning is observed earlier than the sound is
(a) the sun heard, bacauase—
(b) the stars (excluding the sun) (a) light travels faster than sound
(c) the interior of the earth (b) thunder is produced later
(d) chemical reactions (c) thunder is produced simultaneously but it
(e) electricity travels after light has reached the
observer’s eyes
28. Transmission of heat by the movement of
heated particles is called— (d) man’s sense of vision is sharper than his
sense of hearing
(a) Conduction (b) Convection
(e) none of these
(c) Radiation (d) Regelation
35. Which of the following statements is true—
(e) Expansion
(a) Sound waves, not light waves, bend around
29. The air becomes heated by— obstacles
(a) Conduction (b) Convection (b) Light waves, not sound waves, bend
(c) Radiation (d) Expansion around obstacles
(e) Diffussion (c) Both light and sound waves bend around
30. In a thermosflask, a warm substance remains obstacles
warm because— (d) Neither sound waves not light waves bend
(a) transfer of heat has been minimised in it around obstacles
(b) no heat either enters into nor leaves the (e) None of these
inside of the thermosflask by any of the 36. The instrument connected with the recording
three methods of transmission conduction, and reproduction of sound is called—
convection and radiation (a) Gramophone (b) Headphone
(c) heat is constantly generated to maintain the (c) Hydrophone (d) Ear Phone
temperature of the cooling substance (e) None of these
6/ E.S.

37. A mirage is the result of— (d) the gravitational attraction of the celestial
(a) the reflection of light from hot sand bodies inhabiting the space
(b) fluctuation in the refractive index of the (e) the gravitational attraction of the sun on
atmosphere with height the satellite
(c) increase in the refractive index of the 44. The phenomenon of radio activity is associated
atmosphere with height with—
(d) decrease in the refractive index of the (a) emission of electrons
atmosphere with height (b) emission of spectra
(e) none of these (c) fusion of nucleus
38. How should a man wearing spectacles work (d) decay of the nucleus
with a microscope ?
(e) none of these
(a) He should keep on wearing spectacle 45. Conversion of heat into electrical energy can be
(b) He should take off spectacle achieved by using a—
(c) He cannot use the microscope at all
(a) ammeter (b) hydrometer
(d) Wearing or taking off makes little diffe-
(c) voltmeter (d) thermocouple
rence
(e) None of these (e) photo-electric tube
39. A person cannot see objects clearly which are 46. A ‘Celsius’ is a unit—
nearer than 75 cms. from his eyes. What (a) of electric potential difference
disease is he suffering from ? (b) of heat potential difference
(a) Astigmatism (b) Colour blindness (c) of trignometeric angle
(c) Myopia (d) Hypermetropia (d) equivalent to degree kelvin
(e) Hydrophobia (e) equivalent to degree centigrade
40. A man cannot see clearly beyond 10 metres. 47. Which of the following may be used as fuel for
What disease is he suffering from ? nuclear reactors ?
(a) Far sight (b) Myopia (a) Plutonium (b) Cadmium
(c) Hypermetropia (d) Cataract (c) Lead (d) Aluminium
(e) None of these (e) Chromium
41. A pond of clear water appears less deep than it 48. The men talking on the surface of the moon—
really is. This is due to— (a) cannot hear the sound of each other
(a) reflection (b) hear the same sound again and again
(b) refraction (c) hear the sound of each other in less time
(c) the transparency of water than on the earth
(d) dispersion (d) can hear the sound but its intensity will be
(e) none of these very low
42. The speed of light was first measured by— (e) find the sound of their voices magnified
(a) Romer (b) Newton 49. X-rays were discovered by—
(c) Galileo (d) Huygens (a) Thomson (b) Braggs
(e) Davy (c) Johnson (d) Milikan
43. An earth satellite is kept moving in its orbit. It (e) Rontgen
is due to the phenomenon of centripetal force 50. The Theory of Electrolysis was propounded
provided by— by—
(a) the rocket engine propelling the Satellite (a) Ohm
(b) the gravitational attraction of the earth on (b) Faraday
the satellite (c) Coulomb
(c) the radio waves sent to the satellite from (d) Coulomb and Faraday jointly
the ground (e) None of these
 E.S./ 7

51. Which one of the following is not a primary (a) separating two pieces of metal by melting
colour ? by external heat
(a) red (b) green (b) melting to liquid the two pieces of different
(c) yellow (d) blue metals and mixing them to obtain a new
(e) all the primary colours metal
52. The earth moves round the sun in an elliptical (c) to use an alloy for joining metal
path and not in circular one, so the distance (d) joining two pieces of metals by means of
between the two is not fixed but keeps on
nails without using heat
varying as the earth goes around the sun. The
speed of the earth in its orbital path around the (e) both (b) and (d)
sun— 57. Two objects losing the same weight when
(a) is variable immersed in water must have the same—
(b) decreases when the distance between them (a) weight in air
increases and vice versa (b) weight in water
(c) increases when the distance between them (c) weight anywhere else
increases and vice versa (d) volume
(d) increases when the distance between them (e) density
increases and vice versa 58. Mention the ray which appears to originate
(e) none of these outside of the earth—
53. Kinetic energy is the energy possessed by the (a) cosmic ray
body by virtue of its motion, potential energy is (b) the ultra-violet ray
possessed by the body by virtue of its—
(c) the alpha ray
(a) size (b) weight or mass
(d) the beta ray
(c) volume (d) position or shape
(e) the X-ray
(e) density
59. What is always contained in amalgams ?
54. A ray of light from air enters water, then
through a thick layer of glass placed below (a) mercury (b) iron
water. After passing through glass, it again (c) gold (d) copper
comes out in air medium. Then the final (e) zinc
emergent ray will— 60. Sound travels fastest in—
(a) bend towards the normal (a) water (b) steel
(b) bend away from the normal (c) vacuum (d) air
(c) have the same path as if it had not passed (e) alcohol
through water and glass 61. Which of the following radiations is not
(d) suffer lateral displacement dangerous ?
(e) none of the above (a) cosmic rays
55. Water in a reservoir exerts pressure— (b) ultra-violet rays
(a) upwards only (c) X-ray
(b) downwards only (d) short radio waves
(c) side ways (e) gamma rays
62. Jet engines are—
(d) in all directions
(a) turbine engines
(e) all the above are wrong
56. Welding is to joint two pieces of metal by (b) reaction engines
raising the temperature at the joint by means of (c) rotary engines
the external heat of heavy electric current, (d) external combustion engines
soldering is— (e) nuclear engines
8/ E.S.

63. A sensitive magnetic instrument can be sheil- 70. It takes less time for food to be cooked in a
ded very effectively from outside fields by pressure cooker. It is because—
placing it inside a box of— (a) boiling point of water increases
(a) plastic (b) boiling point of water decreases
(b) teak wood (c) food consumes less heat
(c) a metal of high conductivity (d) it gives heat internally
(d) soft iron of high permeability (e) the statement itself is incorrect
(e) glass 71. The process in which no heat change takes
64. The temperature below which a gas should be place is—
cooled before it can be liquefied by pre-ssure (a) a reversible process
only, is termed as— (b) a irreversible process
(a) the freezing point (c) an isothermal process
(b) the dew point (d) an adiabatic process
(c) the semi-saturation point (e) an entropic process
(d) the saturation point 72. The name of the galaxy in which the earth is a
planet is—
(e) the critical point
(a) Ursa Major System
65. Water is used in hot water bottles because—
(b) Ursa Minor System
(a) it is easily obtained in pure form (c) The milky way
(b) it has high specific heat (d) Solar system
(c) it is cheaper and is not harmful (e) Andromeda
(d) it is easy to heat water 73. Two pieces of gold and silver weighing 100
(e) nothing of these gm. each are immersed in a liquid. Then what
will happen ?
66. A number of images of a candle flame can be
seen in a thick mirror. The brightest image is— (a) both pieces will weigh the same
(a) last (b) fourth (b) gold piece will weigh more
(c) third (d) second (c) silver piece will weigh more
(e) first (d) it will depend on the density of the liquid
74. An athelete claimed that his timing for a 100 m
67. Hydrogen bomb is based on the pheno-menon dash should be corrected because the starting
of— signal was given by a gun fired from a point 10
(a) nuclear fusion (b) nuclear fission m away from him and the time-keeper was
(c) nuclear reaction (d) nuclear explosion standing close to the gun. The eroor due to this
could be—
(e) none of these
(a) 0·6 sec. (b) 0·3 sec.
68. The rate of loss of heat by a hot body depends (c) 0·1 sec. (d) 0·03 sec.
upon—
75. The material used in the manufacture of lead
(a) its radiating area
pencils is—
(b) its temperature
(a) graphite (b) lead
(c) its nature of radiating surface
(d) all the above factors (c) carbon (d) mica
(e) none of these (e) manganese
69. Comets are luminous celestial bodies moving 76. Transformer is a device to convert—
around the— (a) D.C. into A.C.
(a) Sun (b) Moon (b) Low voltage D.C. into high voltage D.C.
(c) Earth (d) Jupiter (c) Low voltage A.C. into high voltage A.C.
(e) Mars (d) Mechanical energy into electrical energy

77. In a diesel engine the high temperature needed
to ignite the fuel is achieved by—
(a) by a spark plug
(b) compressing air in the cylinder
(c) heating the cylinder with a flame
(d) using heat from exhaust
(e) none of these
78. The device used for converting alternating
current to direct current is called—
(a) Inverter (b) Rectifier
(c) Transmitter (d) Transformer
(e) Transducer
79. Wollen clothes keep us warm in winter because
they—
(a) prevent cold air from entering the body
(b) prevent the heat of the body from escaping
(c) do not radiate heat
(d) supply extra heat to the body
(e) they produce heat in the body by some
chemico-physical reaction
80. Water pipes are apt to burst in cold weather
because—
(a) on account of snow heavy pressure is
exerted
(b) the water in the pipe cannot evaporate
(c) they contract in cold
(d) they expand in cold
(e) the water in the pipe freezes into ice and
expands
81. Metal tea pots have wooden handles beca-
use—
(a) wood is bad conductor of heat
(b) it prevents electric shock
(c) it gives beauty to the pots
(d) it is hygienic
(e) none of these
82. A Sextant is used to measure—
(a) height of an object
(b) volume of a building
(c) breadth of a tower
(d) area of a place
(e) length of a space
E.S./ 9
83. The image of anything seen through an ordi-
nary looking glass is—
(a) inverted
(b) not visible in strong light
(c) a little bigger than the object
(d) a little smaller than the object
(e) laterally inverted
84. The boiling point of water is not affected by—
(a) the external pressure
(b) the altitude at which water is boiled
(c) the amount of dissolved substances
(d) the kind of dissolved substances
(e) the temperature of the heat source
85. Which of the following statement is wrong?
(a) Sound travels as waves
(b) Sound travels as straight lines
(c) Sound waves require a material medium to
travel
(d) Sound is a form of energy
(e) Sound travels faster in vacuum than in air
86. the principle involved in the absorption of ink
or water by a piece of blotting papers is—
(a) sucktion action
(b) principle of absorption
(c) capillary action
(d) offset procedure
(e) condensation
87. Tick out the only scalar quantity from the follo-
wing—
(a) force (b) velocity
(c) energy (d) momentum
(e) acceleration
88. When a man circles round the earth in a sate-
llite then his—
(a) mass becomes zero but weight remains
constant
(b) mass remains constant but weight becomes
zero
(c) both mass and weight remains constant
(d) both mass and weight becomes zero
(e) none of the above
89. The colour of a star is an indication of its—
(a) weight (b) temperature
10/ E.S.

(c) distance (d) size 20

(e) frequency

VELOCITY (m/s)
90. The tides in the ocean are due to— 15
(a) wind over the oceans
(b) gravitational pull of the moon 10
(c) rotation of the earth
(d) revolution of the earth 5
91. The dense mass of small water drops on smoke
or dust particles in the lower layers of the
atmosphere is—
0 1 2 3 4 5 6
(a) Dew (b) Fog TIME (s)
(c) Frost (d) Hail (a) 20 metres (b) 30 metres
92. When water freezes its density— (c) 40 metres (d) 50 metres
(a) increases (b) decreases 96. The Sri Lanka Broadcasting Corporation
(c) remains constant (d) becomes zero broadcasts its programmes on the 25 metre
band. Which one of the following is the frequ-
93. For stable equilibrium of a floating body it is
ency of broadcasting ?
necessary that its metacentric should be—
(a) 12 Kilo Hertz (b) 1·2 Mega Hertz
(a) above its centre of gravity
(c) 12 Mega Hertz (d) 120 Mega Hertz
(b) below its centre of gravity 97. The phenomenon of polarisation in light
(c) coincident with its centre of gravity indicates that—
(d) anywhere with respect to its centre of (a) Light waves are longitudinal
gravity (b) Light waves are transverse
94. A ball is thrown vertically in vacuum. It goes (c) Light waves exhibit diffraction
up and falls down on the earth. Which of the (d) Light waves undergo interference
given figures represents its true time-velocity
98. A double convex air bubble in water would
graph.
behave as a—
(a) convergent lens
VELOCITY

(b) divergent lens

VELOCITY

(c) both convergent and divergent lenses

(d) none of them
99. Parsec is a measure of—
(a) brightness of heavenly body
TIME TIME (b) astronomical distance
(a) (b) (c) density of stars
(d) orbital velocity of giant stars
VELOCITY

100. What will be potential difference between

VELOCITY

points A and B in the following circuit?

V=? 1 VOLT
A 2Ω B 1Ω C
I I
TIME TIME E
(c) (d) _ K
+
95. The figure represents time-velocity graph of a
moving body. How much distance does the (a) 1 Volt (b) 2 Volts
body cover ? (b) 3 Volts (d) 4 Volts
 E.S./ 11

CHEMISTRY (d) Acetic acid

101. Water exists both as solid and liquid at— (e) None of the above
(a) 100°C (b) 50°C 109. Atoms of the same element, i.e., having the
(c) 2·5°C (d) 0°C same atomic number, that differ in atomic
(e) – 10°C weight, are called—
102. The formation of a chemical bond is associated (a) isotopes (b) isomers
with— (c) isobars (d) isohytes
(a) a decrease in potential energy (e) isotherms
(b) an increase in potential energy 110. Boyle’s law deals with the relationship of—
(c) no change in potential energy (a) pressure and volume
(d) first a decrease, then an increase in poten- (b) mass and volume
tial energy (c) pressure and temperature
(e) none of the above (d) volume and temperature
103. Which is the smallest possible unit of a (e) temperature and volume
chemical compound ? 111. A chemical reaction that takes place with the
(a) atom (b) electron evolution of heat is called a/an—
(c) proton (d) molecule (a) reversible reaction
(e) neutron (b) endothermic reaction
104. Which of the following is the property of (c) thermal reaction
carbon monoxide ?
(d) exothermic reaction
(a) oxidising agent (b) catalytic agent
(e) irreversible reaction
(c) neutral oxide (d) reducing agent
112. Neutron was discovered by—
(e) none of these
105. The pure crystalline form of silica used in (a) Einstein (b) Rutherford
scientific apparatus for passing ultraviolet light (c) Bohr (d) Somerfield
is called— (e) Chadwick
(a) soda glass (b) pyrex glass 113. The total number of sigma bonds in between
(c) corning glass (d) quartz glass (C2 H6) is—
(e) crown glass (a) six (b) seven
106. Which one of the following is neither an ele- (c) four (d) five
ment nor a compound ? (e) eight
(a) Air (b) Glucose 114. Cooking oil can be converted into vegetable
(c) Gold (d) Water ghee by the process of—
(e) Carbon (a) hydrogenation (b) distillation
107. The quantum number that tends to specify the (c) crystallisation (d) oxidation
orientation in space for an orbital is the—
(e) ionisation
(a) principal quantum number
115. Which of the following gases do not form part
(b) orbital quantum number of the atmosphere ?
(c) magnetic quantum number
(a) Nitrogen (b) Chlorine
(d) spin quantum number
(c) Coarbon dioxide (d) Oxygen
(e) azimuthal quantum number
108. Fermentation invariably leads to the formation (e) Ozone
of— 116. The proportion of nitrogen in the open air is—
(a) Ethyl alcohol (a) 21% by volume (b) 50% by weight
(b) Methyl alcohol (c) 21% by weight (d) 78% by volume
(c) Carbon dioxide (e) 29% by volume
12/ E.S.

117. By fixation of nitrogen is meant— 125. The oxidation state of manganese in K2MnO4
(a) manufacture of nitrogen is—
(b) liquefication of nitrogen (a) + 7 (b) + 9
(c) conversion of nitrogen into nitric acid (c) + 4 (d) + 5
(d) conversion of atmospheric nitrogen into (e) + 6
useful compounds 126. Hydrogen is liberated from nitric acid by the
(e) mixing of nitrogen with other elements action of—
118. White phosphorous is generally kept under— (a) Nickel
(a) alcohol (b) water (b) Mercury
(d) glycerine (d) kerosene oil (c) Magnesium
(e) ether (d) Copper
119. The bell metal is an alloy of—
(e) Potassium chloronate
(a) nickel and copper 127. The most abundant element in the earth’s crust
(b) zinc and copper is—
(c) tin and copper
(a) O (b) Al
(d) tin and aluminium
(c) Si (d) Fe
(e) brass and nickel
120. Which of the following is amorphous ? (e) N
(a) glass (b) sodium chloride 128. Which one of the following is used as fuel ?
(c) powdered marble (d) cane sugar (a) CO2 (b) CH4
(e) none of these (c) CH3 OH (d) CH3 COOH
121. Carbohydrates are the compounds of— (e) SO2
(a) Carbon and hydrogen 129. Which of the following has the strongest
(b) Carbon, oxygen and hydrogen bleaching property ?
(c) Carbon, oxygen, hydrogen and nitrogen (a) Chlorine (b) Fluorine
(d) Carbon, nitrogen and hydrogen (c) Bromine (d) Iodine
(e) none of these (e) Lithium
122. A solution containing one mole of a solute 130. Which gas is used in the preparation of Soda
dissolved in 1000g. of solvent is— water ?
(a) a normal solution (a) Carbon monoxide (b) Carbon
(b) a molal solution (c) Sulphur (d) Chlorine
(c) a molar solution (e) Carbon dioxide
(d) an unsaturated solution 131. The compound having the molecular formula
(e) a saturated solution C 2 H4O2 is an—
123. The manufacture of iron from iron ore involves (a) acid (b) aldehyde
the process of—
(c) alkali (d) ether
(a) oxidation
(e) ketone
(b) reduction
132. Sulphur dioxide bleaches colouring matter
(c) fractional distillation
by—
(d) electrolysis
(e) none of the above (a) reduction (b) oxidation
124. Iron obtained from blast furnace is— (c) dehydration (d) decomposition
(a) mild steel (e) none of these
(b) pig iron 133. Nitric acid does not react with—
(c) structural steel (a) copper (b) gold
(d) wrought iron (c) silver (d) zinc
(e) none of the above (e) iron
 E.S./ 13

134. Silver halides are used in photographic plates (c) solid carbon dioxide
because they are— (d) forzen heavy water
(a) oxidised in air (e) none of these
(b) colourless
142. Milk is an example of—
(c) easily soluble in hypo solution
(a) suspension (b) emulsion
(d) readily reduced by light
(c) gel (d) foam
(e) none of the above
(e) colloidal
135. Oxygen is manufactured by the fractional
evaporation of— 143. During burning of fuels, carbon and hydrogen
present in the fuels are—
(a) water
(a) converted into carbon dioxide and water
(b) liquid air
vapour
(c) hydrogen peroxide
(b) released into the atmosphere
(d) liquid oxygen
(c) absorbed by the surroundings
(e) none of the above
(d) converted into alkanes
136. Calcination is the process of—
(e) reduced
(a) heating the ore in an oxidising atmosphere
(b) heating the ore in a reducing atmosphere 144. Which of the following states Avogadro’s law?
(c) heating the ore in the absence air (a) The pressure of a fixed mass of a gas at
(d) heating the ore in the presence of air constant temperature is inversely pro-
portional to its volume
(e) extraction of metal from the ore
137. Sodium burns in air to give— (b) At a constant temperature and pressure, the
rate of diffusion of a gas is inversely pro-
(a) Sodium peroxide
portional to the square root of its density
(b) Sodium hydroxide
(c) Equal volumes of all gases under similar
(c) Sodium monoxide
conditions of temperature and pressure
(d) Sodium oxide and sodium nitride contain equal numbers of molecules
138. Cooling of the molten glass is technically (d) The production of specific heat and ato-
known as— mic weight of a solid element is constant
(a) soldering (b) moulding (approximately 6·4)
(c) tampering (d) cooling (e) None of these
(e) annealing 145. If two liquids have widely different boiling
139. The compound which can be used to prepare points, they may be separated by—
iodoform is— (a) steam distillation
(a) acetic acid (b) methyl iodide (b) decantation
(c) acetone (d) propionaldehyde (c) evaporation
(e) oxalic acid (d) fractional distillation
140. Brass is an alloy of— (e) sublimation
(a) copper and zinc 146. The aim of galvanising the iron is to—
(b) copper and aluminium (a) give it to better look
(c) zinc and aluminium (b) protect it from rusting
(d) manganese and copper (c) increase its hardness
(e) aluminium and manganese (d) make it more elastic
141. Dry ice is— (e) make it stronger
(a) ice which never melts 147. Formaldehyde is the starting material for the
(b) a term used for insensitive persons manufacture of—
14/ E.S.

(a) D.D.T. (b) rayon (b) sulphur dioxide

(c) bakelite (d) caprolactam (c) nitrous oxide
(e) nylon (d) hydrogen peroxide
148. Which of the following elements is not (e) carbon monoxide
radioactive ? 156. Molecular weight of a substance is—
(a) uranium (b) radium (a) only a number
(c) Zirconium (d) plutonium (b) expressed in mesons
(e) thorium (c) expressed in microns
149. Which of the following substance can act as (d) expressed in grams
both oxidising and reducing agent ?
(e) expressed in miligrams
(a) HNO 3 (b) KMnO4
157. At constant temperature the rate of a chemical
(c) H2O2 (d) K2Cr2 O7 reaction—
(e) H2SO4
(a) is equal to the product of active masses
150. Which of the following may correctly be called
(b) is inversely proportional to the product of
a ‘Colligative property’ ?
active masses
(a) half-life of a radioactive element
(c) is directly proportional to the product of
(b) surface tension of a solution active masses
(c) conductance of solution (d) has no relation to the product of active
(d) osmotic pressure of a solution masses
(e) vapour pressure of a liquid 158. The crystalline substance that changes into
151. Argon gas was discovered by— liquid on exposure to moist air is said to be—
(a) William Ramsay (b) Charles (a) Effervescent (b) Eflorescent
(c) Cavendish (d) John Davy (c) Deliquescent (d) Volatile
(e) Alfred Werner (e) Non-hydroscopic
152. Gelatin is used as ingredient in the manufacture 159. Which one of the following gases is most
of ice-cream. This is due to— soluble in water ?
(a) to stablise the colloid and prevent crystal (a) NO (b) SO2
formation (c) Cl (d) CO2
(b) to prevent the formation of colloid (e) NH3
(c) to give colour to the colloid 160. Which of the following methods is not used in
(d) to give flavour to the colloid making hard water soft ?
(e) to give taste (a) boiling method
153. The phenomenon of ‘metamerism’ is shown (b) adding washing soda
by— (c) permutit process
(a) acetone and propionaldehye (d) demineralization
(b) methyl propylether and diethyl ether (e) chlorinating
(c) ethyl alcohol and dimethyl ether 161. Who gave the theory of ionization?
(d) propionic acid and acetic acid (a) Faraday (b) Arrhenius
(e) oxalic acid and lactic acid (c) Rutherford (d) Cavendish
154. The metal used in storage batteries is— (e) Charles
(a) tin (b) copper 162. Which of the following is used for plastering of
(c) lead (d) nickel the fractured bones ?
(e) zinc (a) white cement (b) zinc sulphate
155. What is laughing gas ? (c) zinc oxide (d) white lead
(a) carbon dioxide (e) plaster of Paris
 E.S./ 15

163. Oxygen may be prepared by the action of water (d) no change is noted at first; a white preci-
on— pitate is formed on standing
(a) oxides (e) none of these is formed
(b) sub-oxides 169. The substances which can be used for remov-
(c) peroxides ing nitrogen from air is—
(d) compound oxides (a) Magnesium (b) Phosphorous
(e) mercury (c) Calcium Chloride (d) Lime water
164. Temporary hardness of water is due to the (e) None of these
presence of— 170. Sulphuric acid can be differentiated from
(a) nitrates of calcium and magnesium sulphurous acid by the addition of—
(b) chlorides of calcium and magnesium (a) ferric chloride solution
(c) bicarbonates of calcium and magnesium (b) magnesium power
(d) sulphates of calcium and magnesium (c) litmus solution
(e) sulphates of potassium and magnesium (d) sodium carbonate solution
165. Which of the following does not contain a (e) sodium chloride solution
hydrophobic structure ? 171. Which one of the following is not soluble in
water ?
(a) rubber (b) glycogen
(c) lanolin (d) linseed oil (a) Lead sulphate
(e) nylon (b) Zinc sulphate
166. Substances which do not react with cold water (c) Calcium sulphate
but which do react with steam are— (d) Sodium sulphate
(a) iron, aluminium, chlorine (e) None of these
(b) carbon, iron, magnesium 172. Which one of the following forms of phos-
phorous is most reactive ?
(c) carbon, calcium, sulphur dioxide
(a) black phosphorous
(d) carbon, dioxide, sodium, magnesium
(b) white phosphorous
167. Aqua regia ia a mixture of—
(c) violet phosphorous
(a) one volume of hydrochloric acid and three
volumes of nitric acid (d) red phosphorous
(b) equal volumes of hydrochloric and nitric 173. When water vapour is passed over red hot
iron—
acid
(a) nothing happens
(c) one volume of hydrochloric acid and two
(b) oxygen and Fe(OH)2 are produced
volumes of nitric acid
(c) hydrogen and Fe2O3 are produced
(d) three volumes of hydrochloric acid and one
volume of nitric acid (d) hydrogen and Fe3O4 are produced
(e) two volumes of hydrochloric acid and three (e) hydrogen and Fe2O5 are produced
volumes of nitric acid 174. Heavy water (Deuterium) is usually prepared
168. What would you observe if you add, with from—
shaking, excess of dilute NaOH solution to an (a) heavy hydrogen (b) rain water only
aqueous solution of aluminium chloride ? (c) sea water only (d) river water only
(a) a white precipitate which dissolves in (e) ordinary water
excess NaOH 175. Which one of the metals is the best conductor
(b) a permanent white precipitate is formed of electricity and heat ?
immediately (a) Silver (b) Potassium
(c) a green precipitate forms which turns red (c) Copper (d) Sodium
on standing in air (e) Aluminium
16/ E.S.

176. German silver is an alloy— 184. Which of the following substance can be used
(a) of silver and copper as antipyretic ?
(b) of silver and aluminium (a) Morphine (b) Barbituric acid
(c) of copper, zinc and nickel (c) Paracetamol (d) Benzedrene
(e) Cocain
(d) of nickel and aluminium
185. The inert gas which is substituted for nitrogen
(e) that was first made in Germany in the air used by deep sea divers for breathing
177. Which is the heaviest among the following ? is—
(a) Gold (b) Silver (a) Neon (b) Krypton
(c) Iron (d) Copper (c) Argon (d) Helium
(e) Brass (e) Xenon
178. Which one of the following is known as caustic 186. The principal mineral in marble is—
soda ? (a) Carbon (b) Sodium
(a) Na 3 P (b) Na 2 CO3 (c) Iodine (d) Calcite Crystal
(c) Ba(OH)2 (d) NaOH (e) Chalk
(e) NaHCO3 187. Alkali metals are usually kept under—
179. Rusting of iron is due to formation of— (a) Petrol
(a) ferric hydroxide (b) Absolute alcohol
(b) hydrated ferrous oxide (c) Carbon tetrachloride
(c) hydrated ferric oxide (d) Kerosene
(e) Water
(d) ferrous oxide
188. Which of the following is the sweetest ?
(e) none of these
(a) sucrose (b) maltose
180. An extremely acid resistant alloy is—
(c) glucose (d) fructose
(a) brass (b) magnesium
(e) saccharin
(c) ferro silicon (d) German silver 189. A bundle of energy is known as—
(e) ferrous sulphate (a) joules (b) photon
181. Highly electro positive metals are best pro- (c) joules/photon (d) quantum
duced by—
(e) calories per quantum
(a) electrolytic methods
190. Mostly nuclear reactions are caused by—
(b) reduction with carbon of their oxides
(a) positrons (b) mesons
(c) straight thermal decomposition of salts
(c) neutrons (d) protons only
(d) reduction with hydrogen of their halides
(e) charged particles
(e) none of these
191. Purity of butter is determined in terms of—
182. Sugar are converted in the liver into—
(a) Acetyl value
(a) ptyalin
(b) Reichert-Miessal Value
(b) glycogen
(c) carbon dioxide and water (c) Iodine Value
(d) monosaccharides (d) Saponification Value
(e) glucose (e) Hydrogenation Value
183. Which one of the following Vitamins contains 192. Which of the following is used to measure the
nitrogen ? configurations of sugars ?
(a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin B (a) Threose (b) Glyceraldehyde
(c) Vitamin C (d) Vitamin D (c) Glucose (d) Ribose
(e) Vitamin K (e) Pentose
 E.S./ 17

193. Number of optical isomers in which sugar can BIOLOGY

exist—
(a) 8 (b) 4 201. Genes are located on—
(c) 16 (d) 32 (a) mitochondria
(b) chromosomes
(e) 64
(c) plastids
194. Carbohydrates respond to—
(d) nuclear membrane
(a) Molish’s test (b) Marsh test (e) plasma membrane
(c) Iodoform test (d) Furfural test 202. DNA consists of units called—
(e) Luca’s test (a) glucosides (b) deoxyribose
195. Sodium metal reacts with— (c) nucleotides (d) peptides
(a) Ethanol (b) Ethyl ether (e) none of these
203. Golgi apparatus is most abundantly found in—
(c) Acetone (d) Propene
(a) Muscle cells (b) Nerve cells
(e) Alkyl halide
(c) Pancreatic cells (d) Erythrocytes
196. An alcohol on oxidation first yield aldehyde (e) Leucocytes
which on further oxidation yield carboxylic 204. Thrombosis is a disease of the—
acid, both containing same number of carbon (a) thyroid gland (b) lungs
atoms as the alcohol, the alcohol is—
(c) narve bursting (d) brain
(a) Primary alcohol (e) blood
(b) Polyhydric alcohol 205. DNA differs from RNA in having—
(c) Tertiary alcohol (a) uracil (b) adenine
(d) Secondary alcohol (c) tymine (d) cytosine
(e) None of the above (e) both, adenine and cytosine
197. Ethyl alcohol can be differentiated from methyl 206. Stomata are bound by a pair of guard cells.
alcohol chemically by— Stomata close when guard cells become—
(a) Victor Meyer’s test (a) turgid (b) flacid
(b) Idoform test (c) half turgid (d) half flacid
(c) Luca’s test (e) small
(d) Oxidation product 207. Hydrophobia is caused by—
(e) Furfural test (a) acute virus (b) bacteria
198. Ethylene oxide on hydrolysis yield— (c) rabies virus (d) varoa virus
(a) Ethyl alcohol (b) Ethylene glycol (e) tubercle
(c) Ethanol (d) Acetone 208. Which is collip’s hormone ?
(e) None of these (a) Thyroxine (b) Parathormone
199. Which of the following find use in the manu- (c) Insulin (d) Esterogen
facture of candle ? (e) Glucagon
(a) Bees wax (b) Spermaceti wax 209. A nucleoprotein resembling eukaryotic chro-
(c) Lanodin wax (d) Paraffin wax mosome is—
(e) All of these (a) Virus (b) Liporotein
200. Wood spirit is— (c) Permease (d) Biloprotein
(a) Methyl alcohol (e) Nucleoprotein
210. An antiviral protein which might help in curing
(b) Ethyl alcohol viral diseases in future is—
(c) Butyl alcohol (a) Antibody (b) Histone
(d) Propyl alcohol (c) Nucleoprotein (d) Interferon
(e) Isopropyl alcohol (e) Antigen
18/ E.S.

211. The red colour of red sea is because of— (c) root pressure
(a) Red algae (d) osmotic pressure
(b) Cephaleuros (e) turgor pressure
(c) Brown algae 219. Diseases transmitted by the head louse is—
(d) Trichodesmium erythrium (a) plague (b) rabies
(e) None of the above
(c) scurvy (d) typhoid
212. Plants can be made disease resistant by—
(e) cholera
(a) Treating with colchicine 220. Red blood corpuscles are formed in the—
(b) Inducing mutations (a) small intestine (b) bone marrow
(c) Breading with their wild relatives (c) liver (d) heart
(d) treating with fungicides
(e) kidneys
(e) treating with 2-4D 221. Deficiency of Vitamin ‘C’ causes—
213. Which one of the following gases is considered
as atmospheric pollutant ? (a) Rheumatism
(b) Kidney malfunction
(a) oxygen (b) ozone
(c) SO2 (d) nitrogen (c) Scurvy
(d) Respiratory disease
(e) argon
214. The age of tree can be calculated by— (e) Night blindness
222. Trachoma is the disease of the—
(a) counting number of branches
(a) skin (b) eyes
(b) measuring its girth
(c) ear (d) lungs
(c) counting the number of annual rings
(e) liver
(d) measuring its height
223. The enzyme found in the saliva is—
(e) feeling its hardness
(a) ptylin (b) pepsin
215. The movement of water molecule from one cell
to another depends on— (c) maltose (d) lipase
(e) amylase
(a) osmotic concentration
224. Which type of soil is the best for wheat crop ?
(b) turgor pressure
(a) loam (b) sandy loam
(c) Wall pressure
(c) sandy (d) gravel
(d) plasma pressure (e) clay
(e) diffusion pressure deficit 225. Which of the following processes liberates
216. The genes are arranged on chromosome in a— energy ?
(a) Randon manner (a) osmosis (b) symbiosis
(b) Spiral manner (c) photosynthesis (d) respiration
(c) Linear manner (e) digestion
(d) Irregular manner 226. The heart of a young man beats about—
(e) None of the above manner
(a) 50 times per minute
217. Which of the following can be used for
biological control of mosquitoes ? (b) 72 times per minute
(a) Oil (b) Ointments (c) 90 times per minute
(c) D.D.T. (d) Gambusia (d) 110 times per minute
(e) Gamaxene (e) 120 times per minute
218. Water from soil enters into root hairs owing 227. What is the name of the longest bone of thigh ?
to— (a) vistula (b) femur
(a) atmospheric pressure (c) fibula (d) humerous
(b) capillarity (e) tibia
 E.S./ 19

228. The total number of bones in the human body 236. Bile is secreated by the—
is— (a) kidney (b) liver
(a) 206 (b) 260 (c) pancrease (d) spleen
(c) 306 (d) 360 (e) walls of the stomach
(e) 417
237. The ‘Universal Recipient’ belongs to blood
229. The main function of white blood corpuscles in group—
the body is—
(a) O (b) A
(a) to carry food
(c) B (d) AB
(b) to help in the formation of clot
(e) None of these
(c) to carry oxygen
238. Carbon becomes available to crop plants in the
(d) to protect the body against diseases form of—
(e) to help extricate waste products (a) amino acids (b) carbon dioxide
230. Deficiency of vitamin E results in—
(c) carbonates (d) element carbon
(a) Scurvy
(e) carbohydrates
(b) Loss of fertility
239. Which one of the following cartilage helps in
(c) Rickets the easy birth of young ones without damage to
(d) Beri-Beri pelvic girdle ?
(e) Xeropthalmia (a) Fibrous Cartilage
231. Haemoglobin is a pigment present in— (b) Hyaline Cartilage
(a) the plasma (c) Elastic Cartilage
(b) red blood cells (d) Non-elastic Cartilage
(c) white blood cells (e) None of the above
(d) spleen 240. Blood circulates from arteries to veins through
(e) hepatic cells microscopic vessels known as—
232. Which of the following is anti-coagulant ? (a) capillaries (b) corpuscles
(a) Thromboplastin (c) cells (d) calories
(b) Sodium chloride (e) tubes
(c) Ptassium chloride 241. Antibiotics are—
(d) Fibrinogen (a) anaesthetic substances
(e) Sodium oxalate (b) sleeping pills
233. Blood Plasma is composed chiefly of—
(c) special medicines used during surgical
(a) water operations
(b) the hormone component (d) drugs prepared from moulds and mould
(c) the antibody component like organisms
(d) haemoglobin (e) medicines against contamination of
(e) lymph wounds
234. ‘Universal Donor’ belongs to blood group— 242. Blood is composite system consisting of—
(a) O (b) AB (a) Plasma and red blood cells
(c) B (d) A
(b) Plasma, white blood cells and red blood
(e) None of these
cells
235. Diabetes can be controlled by the injection
of— (c) cells of bone marrow and spleen, and
(a) penicillin (b) thyrosin plasma
(c) terramycin (d) auromycin (d) plasma and white blood cells
(e) insulin (e) protoplasm and haemoglobin
20/ E.S.

243. Xerophytes are— (a) James Watson and Francis Crick

(a) plant tissues which carry out transportation (b) Hargovind Khurana
of water minerals and food from one part (c) Jagdish Candra Bose
to another (d) Mendeleef
(b) the plants adapted to grow in dry habitats
(e) None of these
(c) the male reproductive parts of the flower
251. Which of the following is not a defect of eye ?
(d) organisms living on dead organic matter
(a) Myopia (b) Hypermertropia
(e) none of these
(c) Glucoma (d) Trachoma
244. What does phototropism mean ?
(a) movement of the plant towards water and (e) Eczema
moisture 252. Which of the following is not an endocrine
(b) specialised protoplasm from which arises a gland ?
cilia (a) Pituitary (b) Thyroid
(c) union between unequal gametes (c) Adrenal (d) Spleen
(d) movement of plant towards light (e) Parathyroid
(e) movement 253. ‘Polycythemia’ is the increase in the number of
245. Who discovered Insulin ? RBCs in the body due to—
(a) F. Banting (b) Edward Jenner (a) Muscular exercise
(c) Ronald Ross (d) Jonas E. Salk (b) Environmental temperature
(e) S. A. Wakesman (c) High altitude
246. With what discovery is Alexander Flemming (d) Hormonal disease
associated ? (e) All of these
(a) circulation of blood 254. Name the disease of the bones caused by the
(b) laws of heredity deficiency of vitamin D in the body—
(c) discovery of tubercle bacillus (a) Beri-Beri (b) Scurvy
(d) discovery of penicillin (c) Trachoma (d) Diabetes
(e) discovery of sap in plants (e) Rickets
247. The deficiency of which constituent causes 255. Blood is purified in—
goitre ?
(a) lungs (b) kidneys
(a) water (b) vitamin C
(d) vitamin A (e) iodine (c) arteries (d) veins
(e) calcium (e) heart
248. Name the part or organ of the human body 256. Reflex action is the function of—
most commonly affected by diphtheria— (a) autonomous nervous system
(a) Lungs (b) Intestine (b) spinal chord
(c) Eyes (d) Nose (c) medulla
(e) Throat (d) cerebellum
249. Where is the location of the pitutiary gland in (e) cerebrum
the body ? 257. Fats are digested by—
(a) Base of the brain (a) bile (b) erepsin
(b) Base of the neck (c) pancreatic juice (d) enzyme lipase
(c) Behind the stomach (e) enzyme ptyalin
(d) Kidneys 258. Sunlight produces—
(e) Liver (a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin B
250. Who is/are credited with the discovery of the (c) Vitamin C (d) Vitamin D
structure of DNA ? (e) Vitamin E
 E.S./ 21

259. Hepatitis is a disease of the— (c) Insulin

(a) eyes (b) liver (d) Malaria parasite
(c) kidney (d) heart (e) Radium
(e) brain 268. Blood group of an individual is determined
260. Which of the following is not an essential by—
function of the skin in the human body ? (a) haemoglobin
(a) protects the internal organs of the body (b) antigen on RBC
(b) acts as a sensory organ (c) antigen on WBC
(c) throws out nitrogenous waste in the form (d) genes
of sweat (e) both, by RBC and WBC
(d) regulates the temperature of the body 269. A cardiogram is used to trace the—
(e) gives shape to the body (a) growth of plants
261. Which of the following is not concerned with (b) pulsation of the cardiac nerve
lungs ? (c) defects in the small intestine
(a) respiration (d) proper heart function
(b) pneumonia (e) function of lungs
(c) pulmonary tuberculosis 270. What is allergy ?
(d) purification of blood (a) It is a high altitude disease
(e) epilepsy (b) it is an abnormal reaction of the body by
262. In digestion bile provides— the introduction of a foreign substance
(a) enzymes (b) hormones (c) It is an attitude of repulsion towards one’s
(c) alkaline medium in the duodenum enemies
(d) iron (d) It is a bad habit of backbiting others
(e) copper (e) It is a high blood pressure disease
263. Oxyntic cells in stomach mainly secrete— 271. The poor children of the under developed
(a) Pepsin (b) HCl countries normally suffer from a disease known
(c) Mucous (d) Lipase as kwashiorkor. It is due to the deficiency of—
(e) Ptyalin (a) Iron (b) Calcium
264. Who was the founder of Homeopathy ? (c) Vitamin A (d) Vitamin B
(a) Berliner (b) Robert Koch (e) Protein
(c) Hahnemann (d) Broquet 272. The bacteria, which decompose nitrates of the
soil to set free nitrogen, are called—
(e) Elias How
265. Streptomycin was discovered by— (a) nitrifying bacteria
(b) symbiotic bacteria
(a) Alexander Flemming
(c) nitrosifying bacteria
(b) Joseph Lister
(d) denitribying bacteria
(c) Wakesman
(e) nitrogenous bacteria
(d) W. Shockley
273. Which of the following is a proteolytic
(e) None of these
enzyme?
266. Pigmented layer of the eye is known as— (a) adenine (b) insulin
(a) retina (b) sclerotic (c) diastage (d) pepsin
(c) choroid (d) cornea (e) thymine
(e) cone 274. Man is—
267. Edward Jenner discovered— (a) a primate (b) an animal
(a) Antiseptic surgery (c) a carnivore (d) a rodent
(b) Small pox Vaccine (e) none of the above
 22/ E.S.

275. In a normal man the amount of blood put out (d) All the above
by the heart per minute is about— (e) None of the above
(a) 1 litres (b) 2 litres 285. Pyorrhoea is a disease of—
(c) 3 litres (d) 4 litres (a) Liver (b) Lungs
(e) 5 litres (c) Intestine (d) Teeth
276. Centripetal xylem is the characteristic of—
(e) Throat
(a) Roots (b) Stems
286. Mention the science dealing with fossil
(c) Leaves (d) Petioles plants—
(e) Inflorescence
(a) Palaeobotany (b) Geology
277. D.N.A. (Deoxyribonucleic acid) is concen-
trated in the— (c) Epistemology (d) Entomology
(a) Chromatin (b) Nucleoplasm (e) Histology
287. Acupuncture is a technique—
(c) Microsome (d) Cell Wall
(a) to correct a tube puncture
(e) Protoplasm
278. The human blood has a specific gravity of— (b) to subside the pain
(c) to cure certain diseases, e.g., arthritis,
(a) 1·055 (b) 1·235
rheumatism, etc.
(c) 2·015 (d) 2·00
(e) 2·45 (d) for operation and removal of a body part
279. Insulin controls the metabolism of— (e) none of the above
(a) hormones (b) proteins 288. Which one of the following is an indicator of
(c) sugars (d) fats air pollution ?
(e) salts (a) Lichens (b) Cycas
280. The name of the disease called Lock-jaw is— (c) Algae (d) Bryophytes
(a) Hypetropia (b) Epilepsy (e) Pteridophytes
(c) Apoplexy (d) Tetanus 289. The association of nodules bacteria with the
(e) Arthritis roots of legumes is called as—
281. 20% of the total volume of the blood is stored (a) parasitism (b) symbiosis
up in the— (c) epiphytism (d) saprophytism
(a) Heart (b) Liver (e) commensalism
(c) Spleen (d) Lungs 290. The organism that lives at the cost of another
(e) Pancreas living organism is called—
282. It is not advisable to sleep under a tree at night
because— (a) aphrodite (b) saprophyte
(a) it is cold over there (c) graminivor (d) parasite
(b) the leaves produce a sticky substance (e) epiphyte
(c) the tree gives out CO2 at night 291. The substance which has recently received
(d) oxygen is produced by the air greater attention in investigations concerning
disases of the heart and blood vessels is—
(e) supernatural beings inhabit the trees at
(a) protein (b) fats
night
(c) glycerol (d) cholestrol
283. Total water content in soil is known as—
(e) amino acids
(a) Echard (b) Chresard 292. Which of the following phenomena normally
(c) Apostrophe (d) Holard leads to coronary heart disease—
(e) None of the above (a) blood pressure
284. Ionizing radiations are used in— (b) anaemia
(a) Sterilization (c) Arteriosclerosis
(b) Preservation of food stuffs (d) indigestion
(c) Inducing artificially mutation (e) worry
 E.S./ 23

293. The cell is considered to be the fundamental (c) Hookworm infestation

living unit because— (d) Ringworm infestation
(a) it is the smallest part of organism that is (e) Tapeworm infestation
visible under the microscope 300. Which of the following disease is not a water
(b) the biologist can not test experimentally a borne disease ?
smaller unit of material (a) Cholera
(c) the organism is composed of cells (b) Typhoid
(d) it contains the organelles of life (c) Asthama
(e) it i s the smallest amount of material that (d) Amoebic dysentery
exhibits growth, metabolism, self regula-
(e) Tularemia
tion and self-reproduction
301. Bacteria do not need sunlight to grow
294. Red-green colour blindness in man is known because—
as—
(a) they make their food without light
(a) Protanopia
(b) Deuteranopia (b) they use other kinds of light for manu-
(c) Both a & b facturing their food
(d) Marfan’s syndrome (c) they are incapable of manufacturing their
(e) None of these own food
295. One of the following pigments protect plants (d) they like darkness
from harmful effect of ultraviolet rays, is— (e) none of the above
(a) Chlorophyll (b) Carotenoid 302. The viruses lack—
(c) Phycocyanin (d) Phycoerythrin (a) Proteins (b) Enzymes
(e) Plastid (c) Nucleic acids (d) Tentacles
296. Genetics is the study of the— (e) All of these
303. Putrefaction involves—
(a) mutations
(b) cell division (a) Anaerobic degradation of proteins by
bacteria
(c) reproduction
(b) Aerobic breakdown of proteins
(d) mechanism of inheritance
(c) Degradation of carbohydrates
(e) growth and differentiation in living orga-
nism (d) Degradation of fats
297. Supersonic jets cause pollution by thinning (e) None of these
of— 304. Commercial source of streptomycin is—
(a) Sulphur dioxide layer (a) Streptomyces venezuellae
(b) Carbon dioxide layer (b) Streptomyces griseus
(c) Ozone layer (c) Streptomyces scoleus
(d) All of these (d) Streptomyces aureus
(e) None of these (e) All of these
298. ‘World Evironment Day’ is celebrated every 305. Pneumonia is caused by—
year on— (a) virus (b) fungi
(a) 15 January (b) 26 August (c) bacteria (d) algae
(c) 5 June (d) 10 July (e) none of these
(e) 20 July 306. The poisonous substance produced by bacteria
299. Which of the following disease is caused by a is known as—
fungus ? (a) toxin (b) caffein
(a) Mumps (c) antibodies (d) auxin
(b) Trichinosis (e) antitoxin
24/ E.S.

307. Which one of the following is commonly called 316. Which is not a vector borne disease ?
‘Edible sponge mushroom’ ? (a) Malaria
(a) Sargassum (b) Morchella (b) Sleeping sickness
(c) Agaricus (d) Polyporus (c) Ascariasis
(e) None of these (d) Rabies
308. One of the following is the rich source of (e) Dengue fever
natural litmus— 317. Teratology is the branch of biology which deals
(a) Red algae (b) Lichens with the study of—
(c) Rocella (d) Agaricus (a) Extra-embryonic memberane
(e) Sargassum (b) Post-embronic development
309. The most important part of a green plant is— (c) Abnormal development after birth or
(a) stalk (b) leaf hatching
(c) root (d) flower (d) Haemopoisis
(e) none of these (e) Abnormal development during embryo-
310. Aflatoxin in humans is produced by— genesis
(a) Penicillium 318. Larva of mosquito is known as—
(b) Rhizopus nigricous (a) Imago (b) Maggot
(c) Yeast (c) Caterpillar (d) Wriggler
(d) Aspergillus (e) Chrysalis
319. The language of Honey-bees was decoded
(e) Puccinia
by—
311. The banch of the science dealing with the study
(a) Carolus Linnaeus
of human skin is called—
(b) William Harvey
(a) Physiology (b) Pathology (c) Karl von Frisch
(c) Anatomy (d) Biochemistry (d) Charles Darwin
(e) Dermatology (e) Mendel
312. What is the distinct human vision normally ? 320. Which insect is not found in wild state ?
(a) 12-30 feet (b) 1-2metres (a) Silk Moths (b) Honey bees
(b) 25-30 metres (d) 50-75 cms. (c) Cochineal insects (d) Lac insects
(e) 25-30 cms. (e) None of the above
313. Gaseous exchange between old corky stem and 321. The function of the tapetum in the anther is—
internal tissue takes place through— (a) protective (b) productive
(a) xylem (b) phloem (c) nutritive (d) decorative
(c) lenticles (d) stomata (e) conduction
(e) leaves 322. The fastest running animal is—
314. Which of the following disease is caused by air (a) Ape (b) Dog
pollution ? (c) Tiger (d) Lion
(a) Leukemia (b) Bronchitis (e) Leopard
(c) Rheumatism (d) Goitre 323. Diabetes incipidus is caused due to the defi-
(e) Rubeola ciency of—
315. The total number of muscles in the human (a) Insulin
body is— (b) Anti-diuretic hormone (ADH)
(a) 525 (b) 639 (c) Glucagon
(c) 373 (d) 457 (d) Thyroxine
(e) 734 (e) ASH
 E.S./ 25

324. An injury caused to the rear portion of the (d) Stratum corneum
cerebrum would most likely affect— (e) None of these
(a) the sense of hearing 332. Grafting in monocot plant is not possible
(b) the snese of sight because they—
(c) muscular co-ordination (a) Lack cambium
(d) the hand jerk (b) Lack secondary growth
(e) swallowing (c) Have adventitious roots
325. Chloromycetin is obtained from— (d) Have scattered vascular bundles
(a) Streptomyces griseus (e) None of these
(b) Streptomyces venezuelae 333. Plants are killed in winter by frost because—
(a) Water expands and breaks the cells
(c) Acetobactor aceti
(b) Water in the plants freezes
(d) Aspergillus niger
(c) Of desication
(e) All of these
(d) No photosynthesis at low temperature
326. Introduction of dead or weak pathogen in the
body results in— (e) None of these
(a) Natural immunity 334. The Hydroponics refers to—
(b) Passive acquired immunity (a) Marine water plantation
(c) Active acquired immunity (b) Growing plants in loam soil
(d) Multiplication of pathogens (c) Growing plants in soil-less medium s u p-
(e) None of these plemented with essential elements
327. What is the chemical name for Vitamin B1 — (d) Culture of plants
(a) Glycodin (b) Cholesterol (e) Dry land plantation
(c) Glucose (d) Thiamine 335. Most of the atmospheric nitrogen in nature is
(e) Riboflavine fixed by—
(a) Prokaryotes (b) Anabaena
328. Clotting of blood in blood-vessels is known
as— (c) Green plants (d) Azotobacter
(e) All of these
(a) haemolysis (b) Haemopoisis
336. Which of the following is a non-essential
(c) Thrombosis (d) Agglutination
element for the growth of plants ?
(e) Rheumatism
(a) Calcium (b) Sodium
329. Which is the only mammal which can fly ?
(c) Iron (d) Potassium
(a) Whale (b) Snake (e) Magnesium
(c) Hen (d) Lizard 337. Why is rotation of crops essential ?
(e) Bat (a) For increasing the quantity of minerals
330. What are the main chemical elements of the (b) For increasing the quantity of proteins
bone ? (c) For getting different kinds of crops
(a) Carbon, phosphorus and hydrogen (d) For increasing fertility of the soil
(b) Calcium, phosphorus and oxygen (e) For the above purposes
(c) Nitrogen, phosphorus and potassium 338. Which of the following is present in plant
(d) Oxygen, hydrogen and nitrogen embryo ?
(e) Carbon, hydrogen and oxygen (a) cotyledons
331. The outer most layer of epidermis is— (b) cotyledons and plumule
(a) Stratum geminatum (c) radicle, plumule and cotyledons
(b) Stratum lucidium (d) cotyledons and endosperm
(c) Stratum granulosum (e) radicle and plumule
26/ E.S.

339. Anaemia in man is caused due to the deficiency 352. Which of the following is a chemical property?
of— (a) attraction to a magent
(a) Vitamin C (b) Vitamin B12 (b) conduction of an electric current
(c) Vitamin A (d) Folic acid
(c) soluble in a water solution
(e) Vitamin D (d) coats itself with an oxide in air
340. Saffron is derived from—
(e) floating of oil on the surface of another
(a) Roots of crocus liquid of higher density
(b) Petals of crocus 353. Which was the first country whose scientists
(c) Leaves of crocus succeeded in fertilizing the human embryo in
(d) Styles and stigmas of crocus the test-tube ?
(e) All of these (a) U.S.A. (b) U.S.S.R.
Below are given statements. Write ‘Yes’ (c) U.K. (d) India
against those which are correct and ‘No’ (e) China
against those which are incorrect. 354. The unit of force in the S.I. system is—
341. Genetic code is a code of characters by which (a) Hertz (b) Newton
inherited characters are transmitted from one (b) Dyne (d) Joule
generation to another. Yes/No
(e) Watt
342. Charles Darwin propounded cell theory. 355. The substance which acts as a strong bleaching
Yes/No agent and disinfectant is—
343. The thyroid gland is situated in the head. (a) Bromine (b) Iodine
Yes/No (c) Chlorine (d) Fluorine
(e) Astatine
344. Deciduous trees are the tress which shed their
356. Decibel is a unit of—
leaves in a certain season. Yes/No
(a) Pitch (b) Sound energy
345. Endemic disease are those which are constantly (c) Loudness (d) Length
present in a population of a area but affects
only a few at a time. Yes/No (e) Frequency
357. The equivalent of Watt can be expressed in—
346. Soil-erosion cannot be controlled by con-
servation techniques. Yes/No (a) Foot-pounds
347. Biofertilizers are essential for sustaining soid (b) Foot-pounds per second
fertility. Yes/No (c) Pounds per square inch
348. Dwarf mexican varities of wheat are low (d) Calories
yielding once. Yes/No (e) Volts
349. Rice is a dryland crop. Yes/No 358. What is the term which bears the same
350. Horticulture deals with garden crops. Yes/No relationship to light as pitch bears to sound ?
(a) Wavelength (b) Shade
Miscellaneous Questions on (c) Amplitude (d) Colour
Science (e) Frequency
351. A new galaxy known as Carina Dwarf has been 359. Soft water is used in industrial operations
discovered by— because—
(a) Dr. Russell Cannon of Britain (a) it is a better conductor
(b) Dr. Raja Rammana of India (b) it boils at a lower temperature
(c) A Russiaon scientist (c) it leaves less mineral deposits as scales
(d) A Swiss scientist (d) it has less living organisms
(e) An Italian scientist (e) it tastes better
 E.S./ 27

360. Two objects which lose the same weight in 368. Jet engines are—
water have the same— (a) external combustion engines
(a) Density (b) turbine engines
(b) Specific gravity (c) reaction engines
(c) Weight in water (d) rotary engines
(d) Weight in air (e) electromagnetic energy engines
(e) Volume 369. Low melting point alloys usually contain lead
361. What is the lowest frequency we can heat and—
about? (a) zinc (b) copper
(a) 2000 vibrations per second (c) mercury (d) aluminium
(b) 200 vibrations per second 370. Who was the first scientist to produce artificial
transmutation of an element ?
(c) 100 vibrations per second
(a) Ernest Solvay
(d) 20 vibrations per second
(b) Sir Ernest Rutherford
(e) 500 vibrations per second
(c) John Dalton
362. An instrument used to compare the intensities
(d) Thomson Graham
of two sources of light is called—
(e) Henri Bacquerel
(a) Actinometer (b) Densitometer
371. The length of night on Venus is—
(c) Eudiometer (d) Photometer
(a) 180 earth days
(e) A light meter (b) 135 earth days
363. Which is the most malleable and ductile of all (c) 118 earth days
metals ?
(d) 50 earth days
(a) gold (b) silver (e) 30 earth days
(c) aluminium (d) tungsten 372. The Laws of Planetary Motion were discovered
(d) platinum in 1609 by—
364. Plaster of Paris is made from— (a) Copernicus (b) Galileo
(a) gypsum (b) zinc (c) Kepler (d) Cabral
(c) slaked lime (d) limestone (e) Baron Napier
(d) marble 373. Laws of heredity were enunciated by—
365. As a person becomes older, his blood pressure (a) Charles Darwin
generally— (b) Herbert Spencer
(a) decreases sharply (c) Lamarck
(b) increases (d) A. C. Benson
(c) varies widely (e) Gragor Mendel
(d) remains the same 374. Printing Press was invented by—
(e) decreases (a) James Watt (b) William Caxton
366. Internal-Combustion engine was invented by— (c) Robert Watson (d) Newton
(a) Watson Watt (b) Daimler (e) Roger Bacon
(c) Davy (d) Diesel 375. The discovery of crystal dynamics is associated
(e) Macmillan with—
367. An element used as a semi-conductor in (a) J. C. Bose
transistor is— (b) C. Ramanujam
(a) chromium (b) silicon (c) C. V. Raman
(c) germanium (d) gold (d) Hargovind Khurana
(e) copper (e) H. J. Bhabha
28/ E.S.

What do the following abbreviations stand for ? (b) benzoic acid

376. A. T. S. …… (c) butanoic acid
377. B. A. R. C. …… (d) barbituric acid
378. B. C. G. …… (e) nicotinic acid
379. C. S. I. R. …… 399. The acid present in lemons and oranges is—
380. D. D. T. …… (a) acetic acid
381. D. N. A. …… (b) hydrochloric acid
382. E. R. D. A. …… (c) citric acid
383. I. A. E. A. …… (d) oxalic acid
384. I. R. B. M. …… (e) ascorbic acid
385. O. T. S. …… 400. Water for civil supplies is commonly purified
by—
Fill in the blanks (a) chlorination (b) distillation
(c) filtration (d) decantation
386. An instrument to hear and analyse movements
(e) All of these
of heart and lungs.
387. A gas which is atmospheric pollutant and most ANSWERS
fatal for man. 1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (c)
388. A disaccharides present in the milk. 6. (b) 7. (a) 8. (c) 9. (c) 10. (a)
389. A disease caused by entamoeba. 11. (d) 12. (c) 13. (a) 14. (c) 15. (c)
390. An instrument used to estimate the purity of 16. (d) 17. (c) 18. (c) 19. (a) 20. (d)
milk.
21. (d) 22. (b) 23. (c) 24. (b) 25. (b)
391. A science related with the improvement of
26. (a) 27. (a) 28. (b) 29. (b) 30. (b)
human race.
31. (b) 32. (c) 33. (a) 34. (a) 35. (e)
392. A branch of science dealing with insects.
36. (a) 37. (c) 38. (b) 39. (d) 40. (b)
393. Pathogens which show their effects only in
living tissues, otherwise chemically are com- 41. (b) 42. (a) 43. (b) 44. (d) 45. (d)
plex protein compounds. 46. (e) 47. (a) 48. (a) 49. (e) 50. (b)
394. Poisonous substances which are produced by 51. (c) 52. (b) 53. (d) 54. (d) 55. (d)
pathogens in the host. 56. (c) 57. (d) 58. (a) 59. (a) 60. (b)
395. Name two common communicable diseases. 61. (d) 62. (b) 63. (d) 64. (e) 65. (b)
396. During dehydration, the substance that is 66. (d) 67. (a) 68. (d) 69. (a) 70. (a)
usually lost by the body— 71. (d) 72. (c) 73. (b) 74. (d) 75. (a)
(a) Sugar 76. (c) 77. (b) 78. (b) 79. (b) 80. (e)
(b) Sodium chloride 81. (a) 82. (a) 83. (e) 84. (e) 85. (e)
(c) Calcium phosphate 86. (c) 87. (c) 88. (b) 89. (b) 90. (b)
(d) Potassium chloride 91. (b) 92. (b) 93. (a) 94. (d) 95. (d)
(e) Phosphorus salts 96. (c) 97. (b) 98. (b) 99. (d) 100. (b)
397. Drinking soda is— 101. (d) 102. (a) 103. (d) 104. (d) 105. (d)
(a) neutral 106. (a) 107. (c) 108. (a) 109. (a) 110. (c)
(b) an oxidising agent 111. (d) 112. (e) 113. (b) 114. (a) 115. (b)
(c) acidic in nature 116. (d) 117. (d) 118. (b) 119. (c) 120. (a)
(d) basic in nature 121. (b) 122. (b) 123. (b) 124. (b) 125. (e)
(e) a reducing agent 126. (c) 127. (a) 128. (b) 129. (a) 130. (e)
398. The acid that can be used as a hypnotic is— 131. (a) 132. (a) 133. (b) 134. (d) 135. (b)
(a) tartaric acid 136. (c) 137. (a) 138. (e) 139. (c) 140. (a)
 E.S./ 29

141. (c) 142. (b) 143. (a) 144. (c) 145. (d) 361. (d) 362. (d) 363. (a) 364. (a) 365. (b)
146. (b) 147. (c) 148. (c) 149. (c) 150. (d) 366. (b) 367. (c) 368. (b) 369. (d) 370. (b)
151. (a) 152. (a) 153. (b) 154. (c) 155. (c) 371. (c) 372. (c) 373. (e) 374. (b) 375. (c)
156. (a) 157. (c) 158. (c) 159. (e) 160. (e) 376. Anti-Tetanus-Serum
161. (b) 162. (e) 163. (c) 164. (c) 165. (b) 377. Bhabha Atomic Research Centre
166. (b) 167. (d) 168. (a) 169. (a) 170. (a) 378. Bacillus Calmetee Guerin (Anti-Tuberculo-
171. (a) 172. (b) 173. (d) 174. (e) 175. (a) sis Vaccine)
176. (c) 177. (a) 178. (d) 179. (a) 180. (c) 379. Council of Scientific and Industrial Research
181. (a) 182. (b) 183. (b) 184. (c) 185. (d) 380. Dichloro-Diphenyl Trichloro ethane (disin-
186. (d) 187. (d) 188. (e) 189. (d) 190. (e) fectant)
191. (b) 192. (b) 193. (c) 194. (a) 195. (a) 381. Deoxyribonucleic acid
196. (a) 197. (b) 198. (c) 199. (d) 200. (a)
382. Energy Research and Development Admi-
201. (b) 202. (c) 203. (c) 204. (e) 205. (c) nistration
206. (b) 207. (c) 208. (b) 209. (a) 210. (d) 383. International Atomic Energy Agency
211. (d) 212. (c) 213. (c) 214. (c) 215. (a) 384. Intermediate Range Ballistic Missile
216. (c) 217. (d) 218. (d) 219. (d) 220. (b) 385. Orbital Test Satellite
221. (c) 222. (b) 223. (a) 224. (a) 225. (d) 386. Stethoscope
226. (b) 227. (b) 228. (a) 229. (d) 230. (b) 387. CO
231. (b) 232. (e) 233. (a) 234. (a) 235. (e) 388. Lactose
236. (b) 237. (d) 238. (b) 239. (a) 240. (a) 389. Dysentery
241. (d) 242. (b) 243. (b) 244. (d) 245. (a) 390. Lactometer
246. (d) 247. (d) 248. (e) 249. (a) 250. (a) 391. Eugenics
251. (e) 252. (d) 253. (c) 254. (e) 255. (b) 392. Entomology
256. (b) 257. (c) 258. (d) 259. (b) 260. (e) 394. Toxins
261. (e) 262. (c) 263. (b) 264 (c) 265. (c) 395. Small pox and tuberculosis
266. (c) 267. (b) 268. (b) 269. (d) 270. (b) 396. (b) 397. (c) 398. (d) 399. (c) 400. (a)
271. (e) 272. (d) 273. (d) 274. (a) 275. (e)
276. (a) 277. (a) 278. (a) 279. (c) 280. (d) EXPLANATORY NOTES
281. (b) 282. (c) 283. (d) 284. (d) 285. (d) 14. Electron microscope—An instrument similar in
286. (a) 287. (c) 288. (a) 289. (b) 290. (d) purpose to the ordinary light microscope, but
291. (d) 292. (c) 293. (e) 294. (c) 295. (b) with a much greater resolving power. Instead of
296. (d) 297. (c) 298. (c) 299. (d) 300. (c) a beam of light to illuminate the object, a beam
301. (c) 302. (b) 303. (a) 304. (b) 305. (c) of electrons from an electron gun is used. The
image of the object is received on a fluorescent
306. (a) 307. (b) 308. (c) 309. (b) 310. (d)
screen and recorded by a camera. Magnifica-
311. (e) 312. (e) 313. (c) 314. (b) 315. (b) tions upto 2,00,000 can be achieved.
316. (c) 317. (e) 318. (d) 319. (c) 320. (c) 25. Newton’s laws of motion—The fundamental
321. (c) 322. (c) 323. (b) 324. (b) 325. (b) laws on which classical dynamics is based. The
326. (c) 327. (d) 328. (c) 329. (c) 330. (b) third law is—to every action there is an equal
331. (d) 332. (e) 333. (c) 334. (c) 335. (a) and opposite reaction. A space rocket is a
336. (b) 337. (d) 338. (c) 339. (b) 340. (d) projectile driven by reaction propulsion that
contains its own propellants.
341. Yes 342. No 343. No 344. Yes 345. Yes
45. Thermocouple—It consists of two wires of
346. No 347. Yes 348. No 349. No 350. Yes different metals joined at each end. One junc-
351. (a) 352. (d) 353. (c) 354. (b) 355. (c) tion is at the point where the temperature is to
356. (c) 357. (b) 358. (d) 359. (c) 360. (e) be measured and the other is kept at a lower
30/ E.S.

fixed temperature. Owing to this difference of 102. The formation of a chemical bond is associated
temperature of the junctions, a thermoelectric with a change in the equilibrium from unstable
E.M.F. is generated. causing an electric current to stable postion. Positions of unstable
to flow in the circuit. equilibrium are positions of maximum poten-
47. Nuclear reactor Atomic pile. An assembly in tial energy. Thus a decreases in potential
which a nuclear fission chain reaction is main- energy occurs in this change.
tained and controlled for the production of 107. An electron within an atom is specified by four
nuclear energy, radioactive isotopes, or artifi- quantum number; (1) the principal quantum
cial elements. The nuclear fuel used in a reactor number, (2) the azimuthal quantum number,
consists of a fossile material (e.g. plutonium), (3) the magnetic quantum number, which
which under goes fission. determines the orientation of the orbit with
48. Moon is devoid of atmosphere. reference to a strong magnetic field, (4) the
58. Cosmic rays–very energetic radiations fall-ing magnetic spin quantum number.
upon the Earth from outer space, and consisting 113. In C2 H6, when two atoms of carbon unite with
chiefly of charged particles. The majority of six atoms of hydrogen, seven sigma bonds
these are most probably protons, although appear—
electrons and alpha particles are also present. H H
The origin of cosmic rays is not known with | |
certainty although some appear to emanate H—C —C —H
from the sun. | |
H H
71. Adiabatic—Taking place without heat entering In this compound, carbon atoms unite with one
or leaving the system. another by a single covalent bond.
94. At time t = 0 velocity is maximum. As time 120. Glass is a hard brittle, amorphous mixture of
passes, velocity goes on decreasing. At highest the silicates of calcium, sodium or other
point the velocity is momentarily zero. Then metals. Sodium chloride (common salt), pow-
the ball begins to fall and its velocity goes on dered marble and canesugar (sucrose), all the
increasing. three form crystals.
95. Distance travelled by the body 122. Molal solution is a solution containing one
= area under the graph mole of a solute per kilogram of solvent.
1 1 128. Butane C4 H 10 . A hydrocarbon of the alkane
= × 20 (2–0) + 20 × (3–2) + × 20 × (4–3) series. Gas at ordinary temperature. Boiling
2 2
= 20 + 20 + 10 = 50 m. point – 0·5° C. It is used as a fuel. It is filled in
cylinders under pressure under the trade name
96. C = nλ or n = c/λ Butagas.
3 × 108 131. Acetic acid, Ethanoic acid, CH3 COOH.
∴n= = 12 × 10 6 Hertz
25 147. Bakelite—A Trade name for various synthetic
= 12 Mega Hertz resines of which phenol formalde-hyde resines
are amongst the most widely known.
98. Air lens is submerged in water i.e., in a medium
of greater refractive index. It will change its 148. Zirconium—Zr. Element. A rare metal, used in
nature. Convergent lens will behave as a alloys, abrasives, and flame proofing com-
divergent lens and vice versa. ponds.
1 150. Those properties of a substance (e.g. a solu-
100. I = = 1 amp. tion) that depend only on the concentration of
1 particles (molecules or ions) present and not
As the resistance are connected in series, the upon their nature, e.g. osmotic pressure, are
same current will flow through the 2 ohm called colligative properties.
resistance. Hence P.D. across it 153. Metamerism—A type of isomerism exhibited
= 2 × 1 = 2 volts. by organic compounds of smae chemical class
 E.S./ 31

or type; it is caused by the attachment of 198. CH2 —CH2 + H2 O ⎯→ CH2OH⎯CH2 OH

different radicals to the same central atom or
group. For example, diethyl ether, (C2 H5)2O, O
and methyl propylether, CH3OC3 H7. 208. Parathormone (PTH) hormone is secred by
165. Hydrophobic—having no affinity for water; parathyroid gland and was discovered by
water-repellent. Collip, hence called as Collip’s hormone.
173. 3Fe + 4H2 O ⎯→ Fe3 O4 + 4H2 209. Viruses resemble eukaryotic chromosome in
Water vapour two ways—both are nucleoproteins and both
multiply only inside the living cells.
179. Rust—An hydrated oxide of iron, mainly 210. Interferon is a non-specific antiviral antibody
Fe2 O3H2O, formed on the surface of iron when produced by cells in response to infection by
it is exposed to miosture and air. viruses. If it can be synthesised on a com-
185. Since Helium is much less soluble in blood mercial scale, it will serve as the best control
than nitrogen even under high pressure condi- for viral diseases.
tions, as such 80% Helium and 20% Oxygen 211. It is blue green algae, wherein, the red colour
mixuture is similar to air for breathing, but predominates due to the excess of C-phy-
very much less solubility of Helium in blood coerythrin.
saves diver from the uncomfortable trouble 212. Since the wild varieties have the genes for
known as bends disability. resistance to most diseases.
186. Marble—A form of natural calcium carbonate, 239. The fibrous cartilage occurs in the inter-
CaCO3 . vertibral diss, where it acts like a cushion and
187. Alkali metals are highly reactive and can react in public symphysis of pelvic girdle, it allows
readily with air or ogygen in open container. birth of young ones without damage to the
pelvic girdle.
191. It is defined as the number of ml of 0·1 N KOH
solution required to neutralize fat or oil. RM 263. The gastric glands are in stomach. In the
value for pure butter lies between 20-30. fundus part of stomach, the gastric glands have
three types of cells, (a) mucus secreting cells
CHO
| which secrete mucus, (b) Zymogen cells
192. HO—C—OH is D configuration, secreting pepsin and (c) Oxyntic cells which
| produce hydro chloric acid. In the pyloric part
CH2 OH of stomach these gastric glands produce only
mucus.
CHO
| 276. In all the monocot and dicot roots the diffe-
while HO—C—H is L configuration. rentiation of metaxylem takes place from
| periphery towards the centre, hence called cen-
CH2 OH tripetal xylem. In stems, metaxylem differen-
193. Number of assymetric carbon atoms in glucose tiates from centre towards the cortex and they
is 4, hence the number of optical isomers = 24 are said to have centrifugal xylem.
= 16. 283. Holard is the total water content of the soil.
194. To carbohydrate solution add a drop or two of Chresard is the water absorbed by plants, i.e.,
Alcoholic alpha nepthol, then add slowly conc. available water. Echard is remaining water in
H2SO4 , violet ring indicates the presence of the soil, i.e., unavailable water. Apostrophe
carbohydrate. This is Molish’s test. means irregular arrangement of chloroplast in
mesophyll cells in diffused light.
1
195. Na + C2 H5OH ⎯→ C 2 H5Na + H2 . 294. Red colour blindness is knwon as Protanopia
2 and due to an impairment of the functioning of
(O) (O) red sensitive cones. Green colour blindness is
196. RCH 2 OH ⎯→ RCHO ⎯→ RCOOH
known as Deuteranopia and is due to an
197. Ehanol with I2 in presence of base gives yellow impairment of green sensitive cones. Red-
precipitate of Idoform, methanol does not give green colour blindness refers to both. it is
this test. inherited as sex linked ceressive character.
32/ E.S.
297. Supersonic jets release aerosols in the upper
atmosphere with great force in the form of
vapours. Aerosols are chemicals which contain
carbon compounds having fluorine (Fluoro-
carbon). Presence of fluorocarbons in the
stratosphere depleted the ozone layer, which is
a protective shield against the harmful effect of
ultraviolet rays reaching the earth.
302. The viruses do not have their won enzymes.
They emtabolise at the expense of the host
cytoplasm by synthesing enzymes in the host
cell. The only enzyme associated with a virus
is a lysozyme present at the tip of the tail of T-
bacteriophages which helps in the dissolution
of host cell-wall during infection and at the
time of lysis.
307. Morchella is a cup fungus wherein the apothe-
cium is modified to resemble the sponges. It
forms a delicious human food and is rich in
proteins.
310. It results in a breathing problem in human
beings; the disease is called aspergillosis.
318. Larva of housefly is known as maggot. The
fully formed adult insect is known imago (pre-
adult). The larva of mosquito is known as
wriggler. The larva of silk-moth is known as
caterpillar.
⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
323. Deficiency of insulin results in Diabetes
millitus (sugar passing along urine). Glu-cagon
hormone helps to convert glycogen into
glucose when blood sugar level decreases.
Anti-diuretic hormone is releases by posterior
pituitary to be and helps the kidney in reab-
sorption of water. Deficiency of this (ADH)
hormone results in frequent urination (Diabetes
incipidus).
325. Acetobacter aceti helps in the formation of
vineger, i.e., acetic acid. Aspergillus niger is
commercial source of acetic acid. Strept-
omyces griseus is source of streptomysin.
Streptomyces venezuelae is source of chloro-
mycetin.
326. A person who is never affected by pathogens
and never contracts the disease is said to have
natural immunity. When immunity is acquired
by a person (patient) by introducing readymade
antibodies in his body, it is known as passive
acquired immunity. When immunity is
acquired by any person by introducing vaccine
so that patient prepares its own antibodies, it is
known as active acquired immunity.
335. The only nitrogen fixer in nature are bacterial
blue-green algae, both of which are prokar-
yotes.
Reasoning Test
(Verbal)
 Relationship or Analogy Test
In this type of test, an effort is made to esta- from A which is the second letter of third word.
blish relationship between the two objects. Two Similarly the third and fourth letter of first word
objects related in some way are given and third stand for each corresponding letter of the second
object is also given with five alternative answers. word three and four places ahead respectively.
The candidates are required to find out which one Therefore, third and fourth letters of fourth word
of the alternatives bears the same relation with the will stand three places and four places ahead of T
third object as first and second objects are related. and E.
The following examples will clarify the idea As, M I L D
clearly— + 1↓ + 2↓ + 3↓ + 4↓
Example 1. Flower : Flower Pot : : Player : ? N K O H
(A) Captain (B) Ground Similarly, G A T E
(C) Team (D) Game + 1↓ + 2↓ + 3↓ + 4↓
(E) Crowd H C W I
Answer with Explanation—(C) As flower Exercise
pot consists of flowers, in the same way team
Directions—(Q. 1–16) Find out the correct
consists of players. Hence correct answer is (C).
choice to replace the question mark (?).
Example 2. If ‘Squint’ is related to ‘Vision’
1. Child : Parents : : Book : ?
in the same way ‘Stammering’ is related to—
(A) Author (B) Publisher
(A) Speech (B) Mouth
(C) Teacher (D) Printer
(C) Tongue (D) Hearing
(E) Press
(E) None of these
Answer with Explanation—(A) As ‘Squint’ 2. Bird : Sky : : Fish : ?
is the defect of ‘Vision’, similarly ‘Stammering’ is (A) Carbon (B) Oxygen
the defect of ‘Speech’. (C) Water (D) Ship
Example 3. MILD : NKOH : : GATE : ? (E) House
(A) HWCT (B) HCWI 3. Hat : Head : : Spectacles : ?
(C) HCWT (D) EYRC (A) Nose (B) Lip
(E) None of these (C) Pocket (D) Eyes
Answer with Explanation—(B) First letter (E) Wrist
of the first word is ‘M’ and the first letter of the 4. House : Roof : : Earth : ?
second word is ‘N’. Since ‘N’ is the nearest letter (A) Mountain (B) Air
to ‘M’ according to alphabet. Therefore, the first
(C) Sky (D) Atmosphere
letter of the fourth word should be the next letter
(E) Pole
of ‘G’ i.e., H. Similarly the second letters of the
first and second words are I and K respectively 5. Coal : Mine : : Water : ?
and one letter of alphabet is missing between I and (A) Tank (B) Drink
K. Therefore, the second letter of the fourth word (C) River (D) Well
should be next letter C after leaving one letter B (E) Sea
4 | Reasoning V.

6. Mountain : Valley : : Light : ? 16. River : Dam : : Traffic : ?

(A) Sun (B) Dark (A) Light Signals (B) Vehicle
(C) Night (D) Morning (C) Speed (D) Path
(E) Electricity (E) None of these
7. When : Where : : Time : ? 17. As ‘Shirt’ is related to ‘Cloth’, similarly
(A) Logic (B) Reaction ‘Shoes’ are related to—
(C) Place (D) Length (A) Cobbler (B) Tailor
(E) Clock (C) Leather (D) Hammer
8. Student : Classroom : : Player : ? (E) None of these
(A) Game (B) Stadium 18. As ‘KOPT’ is related to ‘AEFJ’, similarly
(C) Cricket (D) Coach ‘QUVZ’ is related to—
(E) Match (A) GLKP (B) GKLP
9. Drama : Director : : Newspaper : ? (C) HKLP (D) HKQL
(A) Owner (B) Editor (E) GPKL
(C) Manager (D) Column writer
19. As ‘LOGIC’ is related to ‘BHFNK’, similarly
(E) Press ‘CLERK’ is related to—
10. Cunning : Fox : : Foolish : ? (A) JQDKB (B) QBKJA
(A) Elephant (B) Hare (C) LPRTU (D) XVRPA
(C) Tiger (D) Ass (E) None of these
(E) Monkey
20. As ‘NET’ is related to ‘13227’, similarly
11. Medicine : Disease : : Book : ? ‘YAM’ is related to—
(A) Ignorance
(A) 25113 (B) 22614
(B) Knowledge
(C) 14520 (D) 25614
(C) Writer
(E) 22416
(D) Teacher
(E) Book seller 21. As ‘Hope’ is related to ‘Joy’, similarly ‘Hope-
lessness’ is related to—
12. Coconut : Shell : : Letter : ?
(A) Enevelope (B) Post (A) Jealousy (B) Sadness
(C) Post stamp (D) Letter Box (C) Life (D) Grave
(E) Paper (E) Happiness
13. Tailor : Cloth : : Cobbler : ? 22. As ‘Wind’ is related to ‘Cyclone’, similarly
(A) Machine (B) Repairing ‘Drizzling’ rain is related to—
(C) Leather (D) Sewing (A) Winter (B) Flood
(E) Make (C) Rain in torrents (D) Sprinkling
14. Meal : Menu : : Library : ? (E) None of these
(A) Books (B) Librarian 23. As ‘Pond’ is related to ‘Still water’, similarly
(C) Catalogue (D) Self ‘River’ is related to—
(E) Room (A) Irrigation water
15. Success : Joy : : Unsuccess : ? (B) Rain water
(A) Anger (B) Sadness (C) Flowing water
(C) Hopelessness (D) Defeat (D) Drinking water
(E) None of these (E) Pure water

24. As ‘Cake’ is related to ‘Eating’, similarly
‘Lemon’ is related to—
(A) Ice (B) Drinking
(C) Thirsty (D) Straw
(E) None of these
25. As ‘Heart’ is related to ‘Blood’, similarly
‘Lungs’ are related to—
(A) Oxygen
(B) Chest
(C) Purification
(D) Air
(E) Breathing
26. As ‘Face’ is related to ‘Expression’, similarly
‘Hand’ is related to—
(A) Signal
(B) Work
(C) Shaking hand
(D) Direction
(E) Working
Answers with Explanations
01. (A) As ‘parents’ produce a ‘child’, similarly
the ‘author’ produces a ‘book’.
02. (C) As ‘birds’ fly in the ‘sky’, similarly
‘fishes’ swim in ‘water’.
03. (D) As the ‘hat’ is put up on ‘head’, similarly
‘spectacles’ are put up on ‘eyes’.
04. (C) As ‘roof’ is above a ‘house’, similarly
‘sky’ is above the ‘earth’.
05. (D) As ‘Coal’ is taken out from ‘mine’, simi-
larly ‘water’ is taken out from ‘well’.
06. (B) As ‘valley’ is the antonym of ‘moun-
tain’, similarly ‘dark’ is the antonym of
‘light’.
07. (C) As ‘When’ signifies ‘time’, similarly
‘where’ signifies ‘place’.
08. (B) As ‘student’ studies in a ‘classroom’,
similarly ‘player’ plays in a ‘stadium’.
09. (B) As the ‘director’ directs a ‘drama’, simi-
larly the ‘editor’ edits a ‘newspaper’.
10. (D) As ‘fox’ is ‘cunning’, similarly ‘ass’ is
‘foolish’.
11. (A) As ‘medicine’ removes ‘disease’, simi-
larly ‘book’ removes ‘ignorance’.
Reasoning V. | 5
12. (A) The cover of a ‘coconut’ is a ‘shell’,
similarly cover of a ‘letter’ is an ‘enve-
lope’.
13. (C) Raw material for ‘tailor’ is ‘cloth’, simi-
larly raw material for ‘cobbler’ is ‘lea-
ther’.
14. (C) Details about the ‘meal’ contents are
found in a ‘menu’, similarly details
about ‘library’ contents can be found in a
‘catalogue’.
15. (B) As ‘joy’ is the feeling about ‘success’,
similarly ‘sadness’ is the feeling about
‘unsuccess’.
16. (A) As ‘Dam’ controls the ‘riverflow’, simi-
larly ‘Light signals’ controls the ‘traffic’.
17. (C) As ‘shirt’ is made from ‘cloth’, similarly
‘shoes’ are made from ‘leather’.
18. (B) Each letter of the first word stands for
each corresponding letter of second word
10 places ahead.
19. (A) Each letter of the first word in reverse
direction is the next letter to each corres-
ponding letter of second word in correct
direction.
20. (B) Place of N in reverse order of alphabet is
13 and the place of E in reverse order of
alphabet is 22 and the place of T in
reverse order is 7.
∴ NET = 13227
Similarly YAM = 22614
21. (B) As ‘Hope’ brings out ‘Joy’, similarly
‘Hopelessness’ brings out ‘Sadness’.
22. (C) As antonym of ‘wind’ is ‘cyclone’, simi-
larly antonym of ‘drizzling rain’ is ‘rain
in torrents’.
23. (C) As water in Pond is still, similarly water
in a river is flowing.
24. (B) As ‘cake’ is used for ‘eating’, similarly
‘lemon’ is used for ‘drinking’.
25. (D) As ‘Heart’ purifies ‘Blood’, similarly
‘Lungs’ purify ‘Air’.
26. (A) As ‘Expression’ is made through ‘face’,
similarly ‘signal’ is made through ‘hand’.
6 | Reasoning V.

Spotting Out the Dissimilar

In this type of test five words are given out of (A) 64 (B) 9
which four are almost same in nature but the rest (C) 217 (D) 126
one is different from the four. The candidate has (E) 28
to findout which one word is different from the
Answer with Explanation—(A) All the
rest.
other numbers are 23 + 1, 63 + 1, 53 + 1, 33 + 1 but
For clarification few illustrations are given 64 is not the number of this type. Therefore, 64 is
below— different from the rest.
Example 1. Which one of the five words
given below is different from the rest ? Exercise
(A) Jasmine (B) Rose Directions—(Q. 1–7) In each of the follow-
(C) Marigold (D) Sandal ing questions five words are given out of which
(E) Lotus four are similar in a certain way while the rest one
Answer with Explanation—(D) All the rest is different. Find out the different one.
are flowers while sandal is a wood. Therefore, 1. (A) Barometer (B) Thermometer
sandal is different from the rest.
(C) Diameter (D) Lactometer
Example 2. Which one of the pairs is diffe-
(E) Beambalance
rent from the rest ?
(A) Fast and Slow 2. (A) Gentle (B) Citizen
(C) Impertinent (D) Humble
(B) Easy and Difficult
(E) Naughty
(C) Cloth and Rag
(D) Life and Death 3. (A) Gallon (B) Ton
(C) Quintal (D) Kilogram
(E) Strong and Weak
(E) Pound
Answer with Explanation—(C) In all the
rest pairs one word is opposite to other while cloth 4. (A) Circle (B) Ellipse
and Rag have the same meaning. Therefore, this (C) Cube (D) Sphere
pair is different from the rest pairs. (E) Semi-circle
Example 3. Which one of the letter groups is 5. (A) Root (B) Foundation
different from the rest groups ? (C) Tunnel (D) Base
(A) KMO (B) EFG (E) Bottom
(C) GIK (D) ACE 6. (A) CGNX (B) IMTD
(E) LNP (C) JNUE (D) ORYJ
Answer with Explanation—(B) In all the (E) AELV
other letter groups according to alphabet one letter 7. (A) ANCPER (B) IVKXMA
is missing between the first and second letters and (C) KXMZOB (D) FSHUJW
one letter is missing between the second and third (E) GNIPKR
letters. But in the group (B) all the letters are in
Directions—(Q. 8–9) Which one of the pairs
alphabetic order. Therefore, group (B) is different
is different from the rest of the four pairs ?
from the rest.
8. (A) Society—Member
Example 4. Four numbers out of the given
(B) Office—Worker
five numbers are similar in a certain way while
one number is different from the rest four num- (C) Government—Public
bers. Find out the number which is different from (D) Team—Player
the rest ? (E) School—Student
 Reasoning V. | 7

9. (A) Permission—Obstruction 20. (A) Delhi

(B) Transparent—Opaque (B) Mumbai (Bombay)
(C) Convergent—Divergent (C) Chennai (Madras)
(D) Abundant—Replete (D) Rangoon
(E) True-False (E) Indore
10. Which letter group is different from the rest ? 21. (A) 73 (B) 53
(A) ZX (B) RP (C) 59 (D) 87
(C) JG (D) VT (E) 67
(E) TR 22. (A) CE (B) HK
(C) SQ (D) MN
Directions—(Q. 11–28) In each of the follo-
wing questions, four out of the given five words (E) DG
are similar in a certain way and form a group. 23. (A) Uncle (B) Father
Which one does not belong to the group ? (C) Mother (D) Mother’s sister
11. (A) Brinjal (B) Tomato (E) Son
(C) Mango (D) Potato 24. (A) BCD (B) NPR
(E) Apple (C) KLM (D) RQP
(E) KJI
12. (A) Chicken (B) Pony
(C) Puppy (D) Duckling 25. (A) Ears (B) Hands
(E) Fawn (C) Fingers (D) Eyes
(E) Legs
13. (A) Poster (B) Chart
26. (A) Bud (B) Branch
(C) Paper (D) Diagram
(C) Leaf (D) Plant
(E) Picture
(E) Flower
14. (A) Damp (B) Dry 27. (A) Cow (B) Hegoat
(C) Moist (D) Wet (C) Ox (D) Bull
(E) Humid (E) Horse
15. (A) Sofa (B) Bed 28. (A) Crowd (B) Fleet
(C) Divan (D) Table (C) Flock (D) Team
(E) Chair (E) Gang
16. (A) Mango (B) Apple 29. Find out the odd one—
(C) Brinjal (D) Grape Chennai (Madras), Delhi, Vishakhapattnam,
(E) Watermelon Cochin, Mumbai (Bombay).
(A) Cochin
17. (A) Teacher (B) Principal (B) Vishakhapattnam
(C) Student (D) Professor (C) Chennai (Madras)
(E) Lecturer (D) Delhi
18. (A) Moon (B) Jupiter (E) Mumbai (Bombay)
(C) Mars (D) Saturn 30. Find out the odd one—
(E) Mercury 16, 64, 49, 19, 25
19. (A) Red (B) Paint (A) 19 (B) 49
(C) Green (D) Yellow (C) 64 (D) 16
(E) Blue (E) 25
8 | Reasoning V.
Answers with Explanations
1. (C) All the rest are the insturments of measu-
rement.
2. (B) All the rest are human characteristics.
3. (A) All the rest are the units of mass while
gallon is the unit of capacity.
4. (C) All the rest have curved surface.
5. (C) All the rest are the names of lower part a
body.
6. (D) In all the rest terms three letters accord-
ing to alphabet are missing between first
and second letters, six letters are missing
between second and third letters and nine
letters are missing between third and
fourth letters.
7. (B) In all the rest terms according to alpha-
bet one letter is missing between the first
and third and fifth letters and one letter is
missing between the second, fourth and
sixth letters.
8. (C) In all the rest pairs, second word is the
part of first.
9. (D) In all the rest pairs both words are oppo-
site to one another.
10. (C) In all the rest pairs one letter is missing
between the two letters in reverse order
of alphabet.
11. (D) All the rest grow above the ground while
potato grows under the ground.
Series Completion Test
In this type of test some numbers and/or
alphabetical letters are given. They all form a
series and change in a certain order. Series has one
or more letters or numbers missing. The candi-
dates are required to observe that specific order in
which the number or letters would suit for the
blank space if they continue to change in the same
order.
It will be clarified from the following exam-
ples.
Example 1. Which of the alternative figures
would correctly fill in the blank space in the
following series of numbers ?
12. (B) All the rest are young ones.
13. (C) All the rest are made on the paper.
14. (B) In all the rest there is water.
15. (D) All the rest items are to take rest.
16. (C) All the rest are fruits while brinjal is a
vegetable.
17. (C) All the rest are attached to educative
profession.
18. (A) All the rest are the names of planets
while moon is a satellite.
19. (B) All the rest are names of colours.
20. (D) All the rest are Indian cities.
21. (D) All the rest are prime numbers.
22. (C) In all the rest terms second letter comes
after the first letter in alphabet.
23. (D) All the rest are family members while
mother’s sister is a relative.
24. (B) In all the rest terms the letters are either
in alphabetic order or in reverse order
25. (C) All the rest are in pairs of the body.
26. (D) All the rest are the parts of a plant.
27. (A) All the rest are masculine.
28. (D) In all the rest the number of members is
not fixed.
29. (D) All the rest have sea ports.
30. (A) All the rest are perfect squares.
6, 13, 27, 55, 111, —
(A) 225 (B) 224
(C) 223 (D) 231
(E) 230
Answer with Explanation—(C) 13 is grea-
ter than the double of 6 by 1. Similarly 27 is
greater than the double of 13 by 1. 55 is greater
than the double of 27 by 1. 111 is greater than the
double of 55 by 1. Thus, in blank space there be
2 × 111 + 1 i.e. 223
Hence the correct answer is (C).
 Reasoning V. | 9

Example 2. Which one of the letter groups 3. 3, 5, 10, 12, 24, 26, ?
given below would replace the question mark (?) (A) 52 (B) 30
in the letter series ? (C) 28 (D) 48
YCL, MQZ, AEN, ? (E) 26
(A) OSB (B) PUE
4. 3, 6, 5, 20, 7, 42, 9, ?
(C) MPX (D) OTC
(A) 60 (B) 54
(E) PVF
(C) 72 (D) 66
Answer with Explanation—(A) Last letter
of the first group is L and the first letter of second (E) 46
group is M. Here, M is the next letter of L in 5. 2, 3, 5, 6, 7, 9, 10, 11, 13, ?
alphabet. Similarly the last letter of second group (A) 12 (B) 15
is Z and the first letter of the third group is A.
Here A is the next letter of Z in alphabet. There- (C) 14 (D) 16
fore, the first letter of blank space should be the (E) 19
next letter of N, which is O. Besides, there is a gap
6. 3, 8, 11, 19, 30, 49, ?
of three letters between the first and second letters
of each group. Therefore, second letter of blank (A) 87 (B) 79
space should be fourth letter after O i.e. it should (C) 77 (D) 73
be S. In given alternatives only (A) is such (E) 78
alternative that has first letter as O and second as
S. Hence (A) is the correct answer. 7. 5, 4, 15, 7, 23, 11, 29, 16, 33, ?
Example 3. Some letters are missing in the (A) 22 (B) 29
following letter series. The missing letters are (C) 34 (D) 15
given in the proper sequence as one of the alter- (E) 28
natives among the five given below. Find the
correct alternative. 8. 10, 12, 18, 22, 34, 42, 66, 82, ?
a—b—c—a—b (A) 148 (B) 138
(A) aabc (B) cbcb (C) 130 (D) 126
(C) acba (D) cabc (E) 127
(E) abca
Answer with Explanation—(D) If the 9. 9, 17, 32, 61, 118, 231, ?
letters of the alternatives (D) are filled in the blank (A) 456 (B) 236
spaces of the series, then the series acbacbacb is (C) 224 (D) 218
formed in which acb is repeated thrice. Any other (E) 356
laternative answer does not form any particular
series. Hence, the correct answer is (D). 10. 5, 9, 16, 29, 54, 103, ?
Exercise (A) 102 (B) 94
Directions—(Q. 1–12) Find out the number (C) 103 (D) 200
that would replace the question mark (?) in each (E) 92
of the following questions—
11. 4, 9, 20, 43, 90, ?
1. 20, 32, 45, 59, 74, ?
(A) 180 (B) 182
(A) 95 (B) 90
(C) 85 (D) 79 (C) 179 (D) 185
(E) 74 (E) 172
2. 210, 195, 175, 150, 120, ? 12. 6, 12, 21, 33, ?
(A) 75 (B) 80 (A) 38 (B) 40
(C) 85 (D) 90 (C) 45 (D) 48
(E) 95 (E) 51
10 | Reasoning V.

Directions—(Q. 13–18) Find out the missing 22. 1, 5, ……, 30, 55

term in each of the following questions— (A) 9 (B) 10
13. EDBA, KJHG, QPNM, ? (C) 13 (D) 14
(A) KIGH (B) QOMK (E) 15
(C) WVTS (D) ZXVU
23. 18, 14, 12, ……, 14, 18
(E) LMQR
(A) 10 (B) 12
14. ced, ihg, lkm, ……, uts
(C) 14 (D) 16
(A) npo (B) orq
(E) 18
(C) oqp (D) qro
(E) roq 24. 1, 3, 6, 10, 15, ……, 28, 36
15. ACE, GIK, ?, SUW, YAC (A) 20 (B) 21
(A) MOQ (B) MNP (C) 23 (D) 24
(C) MOP (D) MPQ (E) 25
(E) QMP 25. 1, 5, 21, 57, 121, ……
16. AZBY, ?, EVFU, GTHS (A) 150 (B) 176
(A) BYCZ (B) CYDR (C) 200 (D) 221
(C) CXDW (D) EXDZ (E) 201
(E) HTSG
Directions—(Q. 26–30) Some letters are
17. ……, zxv, fdb, ljh, rpn missing in the following letter-series. The missing
(A) ywv (B) ayw letters are given in the proper sequence as one of
(C) lxu (D) wxu the alternatives among the five given below. Find
out the correct alternative.
(E) pnr
18. prt, ……, bdf, hjl, npr 26. a—bbc—aab—cca—bbcc
(A) vya (B) xza (A) bacb (B) acba
(C) vxz (D) uyb (C) abba (D) caba
(E) avy (E) bcba
Directions—(Q. 19–20) Complete the follo- 27. ab—aa—bbb—aaa—bbba
wing series from the given alternatives— (A) abba (B) baab
19. DKY, FJW, HIU, JHS, ? (C) aaab (D) abab
(A) KGR (B) LFQ (E) abbb
(C) KFR (D) LGQ 28. bc—b—c—b—ccb
(E) MAC
(A) cbcb (B) bbcb
20. afo, zgl, bhi, yif, ? (C) cbbc (D) bcbc
(A) cjd (B) ckc (E) bbcc
(C) xjc (D) cjc
(E) jcj 29. abb—baa—a—bab—aba
(A) abba (B) abab
Directions—(Q. 21–25) In each of the
following questions which number will complete (C) ccac (D) aabb
the series if filled in the blank spaces— (E) bbaa
21. 4, 8, 16, ……, 44 30. abca—bcaab—aa—caa—c
(A) 24 (B) 28 (A) ccaa (B) acbb
(C) 32 (D) 40 (C) abac (D) abba
(E) 42 (E) aaba

Answers with Explanations
1. (B) The differences of two consecutive num-
bers are 12, 13, 14, 15 and 16 respecti-
vely.
2. (C) The differences of two consecutive num-
bers are 15, 20, 25, 30 and 35 respec-
tively.
3. (A) On adding 2 in the first number, second
number is obtained and on doubling the
second number, third number is obtai-
ned.
4. (C) In the series second term is double of the
first term, fourth term is four times of
third term, sixth term is six times of fifth
term and thus eight term will eighth
times of the seventh term.
5. (C) There are three series in the original
series—
2, 6, 10, …; 3, 7, 11, … and 5, 9, 13, …
In each series the difference of two con-
secutive terms is 4.
6. (B) Third term is the sum of first and second
terms. Fourth term is the sum of second
and third terms. The same order is repea-
ted.
7. (A) Two series are formed in this—
5, 15, 23, 29, 33,…and 4, 7, 11, 16, 22,…
8. (C) Third terms is two less than the double
of first term and fifth term is also two
less than the double of third term. The
same order is repeated. Fourth term is
two less than the double of second term
and sixth term is two less than the
double of fourth term. The same order is
repeated.
9. (A) Second term is 1 less than the double of
first term. Third term is 2 less than the
double of second term. The same order is
repeated.
10. (D) The numbers are as follows—
5, 5 × 2 – 1 = 9, 9 × 2 – 2 = 16, 16 × 2 – 3
= 29, 29 × 2 – 4 = 54, 54 × 2 – 5 = 103,
103 × 2 – 6 = 200
11. (D) The numbers are as follows—
4, 4 × 2 + 1 = 9, 9 × 2 + 2 = 20, 20 × 2 + 3
= 43, 43 × 2 + 4 = 90, 90 × 2 + 5 = 185
12. (D) The difference of two consecutive num-
bers are 6, 9, 12 and 15.
Reasoning V. | 11
13. (C) In each term first and second letters are
in reverse order of alphabet. Similarly
the third and fourth letters are. Besides,
there is a gap of one letter between the
second and third letters.
14. (C) By interchanging the second and third
letters of first term, the letters are arran-
ged in alphabetical order. Similarly by
interchanging the first and third letters of
second term, the letters are arranged in
alphabetical order. The same order is
repeated. Besides, after arranging the
letters in alphabetic order, there is a gap
of one letter between the last letter of
first term and first letter of second term.
15. (A) In each term one letter is missing bet-
ween two consecutive letters.
16. (C) In each term the first and third letters are
in alphabetical order while the second
and fourth letters are in reverse order.
17. (B) In each term between the two conse-
qutive letters one letter is missing in
reverse direction of alphabet.
18. (C) In each term between the two consecu-
tive letters one letter is missing. Besides,
the first letter of each term stands two
places ahead from the last letter of its
previous term.
19. (D) The first letters of each term are in
alphabetical order and one letter is miss-
ing between them. The second letters of
each term are in reverse order of
alphabet. Third letters of each are also
reverse order of alphabet and one letter
is missing between them.
20. (D) First letters of first and third terms are in
alphabetical order while the first letters
of second and fourth terms are in reverse
order. Second letter of each term is in
alphabetical order while third letter of
each term is in reverse order and two
letters are missing between third letters
of two consecutive terms.
21. (B) The differences of two consecutive num-
bers are 4, 8, 12 and 16 i.e. they are mul-
tiple of 4.
22. (D) On keeping 14 in blank space the diffe-
rences between two consecutive numbers
are 22 , 32 , 42 , and 52 .
23. (B) The series is completed on reversing the
first three terms in reverse order.
12 | Reasoning V.

24. (B) The differences between two consecutive
numbers are 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7 and 8 res-
pectively.
25. (D) The differences between two consecutive
numbers are 2 2 , 42 , 62 , 82 and 102.
26. (B) aabbcc is repeated thrice.
27. (B) The series formed is—
abbaaabbbaaaabbbb.
28. (A) bccb is repeated thrice.
29. (A) abbabaab is repeated twice.
30. (B) abca is repeated four times.

Coding and Decoding Test

In this type of test, some letters are given and Similarly,
they do not represent their real value but represent
S U D H I R
some other value. In other words we can say that
they represent some artificial values. These arti- _1 _1
ficial values are known as code language. This
code language is to changed into their original Q H G C T R
value and vice-versa.
Example 2. If in a certain language
In order to solve these questions, the candi-
‘ENGLISH’ is coded as ‘2357964’, how is
date should write full alphabet and should com- ‘ISHNGEL’ is coded in that code ?
pare their real and artificial values. Thus knowing
the both values of those letters he can convert the (A) 9643527 (B) 9643257
original language into code language and vice- (C) 9642357 (D) 9435276
versa. (E) None of these
The following examples will clarify the idea Answer with Explanation—(A) By com-
clearly— paring the letters of the original word with the
Example 1. If in a certain language digits of code we get.
‘LOKESH’ is coded as ‘GRDJNK’, how 2 stands for E
‘SUDHIR’ is coded in that code ? ,, ,, N
3
(A) RTCQHG (B) RTCGHQ ,, ,, G
(C) QHGCTR (D) QCTHGR 5
7 ,, ,, L
(E) None of these
9 ,, ,, I
Answer with Explanation—(C) Last letter
‘H’ of the word ‘LOKESH’ is the next letter of the 6 ,, ,, S
first letter of ‘G’ of the word ‘GRDJNK’. Simi- 4 ,, ,, H
larly the last but one letter ‘S’ of the word ∴ Code for ISHNGEL is 9643527.
‘LOKESH’ is the next letter of the second letter
‘R’ of the word ‘GRDJNK’. The same order is Example 3. If ‘1 + 2 + 3’ means ‘some are
repeated for other letters. Therefore, the last letter brave’. ‘2 + 3 + 4’ means ‘some are cowards’ and
R of the word ‘SUDHIR’ should be the next letter ‘3 + 4 + 5 + 6’ means ‘some cowards have come’;
of the required word i.e., it should be Q. Similarly which digit means ‘are’ in that language ?
the second letter of the required word should be (A) 1 (B) 3
the previous letter of I i.e., H. Therefore, after
(C) 2 (D) 4
finding the letters of the required word it should
be QHGCTR. Hence the correct answer is (C). (E) None of these
As, Answer with Explanation—(C). By compar-
ing first, second and third we get 3 is used for
L O K E S H
‘some’ because 3 and some are common. Now on
_1 _1 comparing first and second we get 2 + 3 is used
for ‘some are’. Therefore, it is clear that for ‘are’
G R D J N K ‘2’ is used. Hence, the correct answer is (C).
 Reasoning V. | 13

Exercise 8. If 1 is coded as F, 2 as P, 3 as X, 4 as Z, 5 as
B, 6 as W, 7 as L, 8 as U and 9 as D. How
1. In a certain code ‘STABILISE’ is written as
would 853417 be coded in that code ?
‘UVCDKNKUG’. How would ‘CRICKET’
be written in that code ? (A) UBDXZF (B) UBXDFL
(A) ETKATCR (B) ETKFMGV (C) UBXZFL (D) UDXZFL
(C) ETKEMGV (D) ESLEMGV (E) None of these
(E) None of these 9. In a certain code ‘MOMENT’ is written as
‘OMOCPR’. How would ‘THERMO’ be
2. In a certain code ‘BACK’ is written as written in that code ?
‘ONPX’. How would ‘HAND’ be written in
(A) VFGQOM (B) VFGPPM
that code ?
(C) VEGPON (D) VFGPOM
(A) UNAQ (B) NUAQ
(E) None of these
(C) OPNX (D) QANU
(E) None of these 10. In a certain code language—
(i) ‘Mit Ju Push’ means ‘Orange is red’
3. In a certain code ‘PLAY’ is written as
‘TPEC’. How would ‘GAME’ be written in (ii) ‘Ju Sa Dum’ means ‘Red and black’
that code ? (iii) ‘Sa Push Num’ means ‘Watch is white’
(A) KEQA (B) KIQE Which word in that language means ‘Orange’?
(C) KAQI (D) KEQI (A) Push (B) Ju
(E) None of these (C) Mit (D) Sa
4. In a certain code ‘GOLDEN’ is written as (E) None of these
‘ODNGLE’. How would ‘SENIOR’ be writ- 11. In a certain code language—
ten in that code ?
(i) 453 means ‘PENS ARE NEW.’
(A) EIRSNO (B) NOSEIR
(ii) 362 means ‘BOYS ARE YOUNG.’
(C) ENSIRO (D) IORSEN
(iii) 598 means ‘BUY NEW CLOTHES.’
(E) None of these
Which digits in that language means ‘PENS’?
5. In a certain code ‘TEMPLE’ is written as (A) 3 (B) 4
‘ETPMEL’. How would ‘STUDENT’ be
(C) 8 (D) 6
written in that code ?
(E) None of these
(A) UDENTST (B) DENTSUT
(C) TSDUNET (D) TSUDENT 12. In a certain code language—
(E) None of these (i) ‘Jad Mhao’ means ‘Red Rose’
(ii) ‘Rus San’ means ‘Beautiful Picture’
6. If the following codes are arranged in order
which alternative answer will be correct ? (iii) ‘San Mhao Ne’ means ‘Red And Beauti-
ful’
State = a, Dirstict = b, Country = c and Town
=d Which word in that language means ‘And’?
(A) abcd (B) bcad (A) Jad (B) Mhao
(C) dbca (D) bcda (C) Rus (D) Ne
(E) None of these (E) None of these
7. In a certain code ‘BEARING’ is written as 13. In a certain code ‘Pencil’ is written as
‘1234567’. How would ‘BEING’ be written ‘TIRGMP’. How would ‘Board’ be written in
in that code? that code ?
(A) 12567 (B) 16752 (A) FSEUH (B) ESEVH
(C) 65279 (D) 12657 (C) FSEVH (D) FSEVG
(E) None of these (E) None of these
14 | Reasoning V.

14. If 1 is coded as X, 2 as Z, 3 as M, 4 as P, 5 as (ii) DIK SEK FAR means Tomato Is Green.

L, 6 as S, 7 as G, 8 as N and 9 as H. How (iii) VOK TIR FAR means Food Is Tasty.
would 93464 be coded in that code ?
What is the code for ‘Tomato is Tasty’ ?
(A) HPMSP (B) HMPSP
(A) FAR TIR DIK
(C) MHPSP (D) NMPSM
(E) None of these (B) DIK FAR SEK
(C) TIR MI FAR
15. If ‘TEACHER’ and ‘HIGHLY’ are coded as
‘XWPBRWM’ and ‘RSNRDZ’ respectively. (D) Cannot be decided
How would ‘CHARITY’ be coded ? (E) None of these
(A) BPRNSBZ (B) BRPMSZB
(C) BRPMSDZ (D) BRPMSXZ Answers with Explanations
(E) None of these 1. (C) Each letter of ‘UVCDKNUG’ stands
16. If ‘SCHOOL = PNIKKB’ and ‘ME = ZY’. for each corresponding letter of the
How would ‘COOLHOME’ be coded ? ‘STABILISE’ two letters ahead.
(A) NKKBIKZY 2. (A) Each letter of the code stands for each
(B) NKKLIKZY corresponding letter of the original word,
thirteen letters ahead.
(C) PKKNIKYZ
(D) NKKBPKZY 3. (D) Each letter of the code stands for each
corresponding letter of the original word
(E) None of these
four letters ahead.
Directions—(Q. 17–19). If POSTER and 4. (A) The second, fourth and sixth letters of
MOON are coded as 234678 and 5331 respecti-
the original word are the first, second
vely. How would you code the following words ?
and third letters respectively in the code
17. MOST while the first, third and fifth letters of
(A) 5436 (B) 3546 the original word are the fourth, fifth and
(C) 5346 (D) 5376 sixth letters respectively in the code.
(E) None of these 5. (C) First and second letters of the original
18. STOPS word are second and first letters of the
(A) 46314 (B) 46754 code. The same order is repeated for
(C) 46324 (D) 46234 STUDENT.
(E) None of these 6. (E) Country contains many states, there are
many districts in a state and there are
19. STERN many towns in a district.
(A) 46587 (B) 46581
7. (A) Codes are as given below—
(C) 46781 (D) 46671
B = 1, E = 2, I = 5, N = 6 and G = 7.
(E) None of these
8. (C)
20. In a certain code ‘GOODNESS’ is written as
‘HNPCODTR’. How would ‘GREATNESS’ 9. (D) First, third and fifth letters of the code
be written in that code ? stand for each corresponding letter of the
(A) HQFZUODTR original word two places ahead but
second, fourth and sixth letters of the
(B) HQFZUMFRT
original word stand for each correspond-
(C) HQFZSMFRT
ing letter of the code two places ahead.
(D) FSDBSODTR
10. (C) By comparing (i) and (ii) Ju means
(E) None of these
‘Red.’ By comparing (i) and (iii) Push
21. In a certain code language— means ‘is’—
(i) TIR MI SEK means Green and Tasty. ∴ For Orange there is Mit.

11. (B) By comparing (i) and (ii) 3 means
‘ARE’. By comparing (i) and (iii) 5
means ‘NEW’
∴ For PENS there is ‘4’.
12. (D)
13. (C) Each letter of the code stands for each
corresponding letter of the original word
4 places ahead.
14. (B)
15. (D) On comparing the original word and
code we get—
T = X, E = W, A = P, C = B, H = R, R = M,
I = S, G = N, L = D and Y = Z
∴ CHARITY = BRPMSXZ.
16. (A) On comparing the original word and
code we get—
S = P, C = N, H = I, O = K, L = B, M = Z
and E = Y.
∴ COOLHOME = NKKBIKZY.
Direction Sense Test
The object of this type of test is to ascertain
the sense of direction in the candidates. They are
required to use their sense about direction and
answer the given questions correctly. The follow-
ing examples will clarify exactly.
Example 1. A man started to walk in West.
After moving a distance he turned to his right.
After moving a distance he turned to his right.
After moving a little he turned in the end to his
left. Now in which direction was he going ?
(A) North (B) South
(C) East (D) West
(E) None of these
Answer with Explanation—(A) The man
started to walk from A towards West and reached
to B after moving a little distance.
E (E) None of these
N C D Answer with Explanation—(D) All the five
W E
A
S B
Reasoning V. | 15
For Q. 17 to 19.
On comparing the letter of original words and
the digits of codes we get—
P = 2, O = 3, S = 4, T = 6, E = 7, R = 8, M = 5
and N = 1.
17. (C) 18. (C) 19. (C)
20. (B) Each letter at the odd places in the code
stands for each corresponding letter of
the original word one place ahead while
each letter at the even places in the orig-
inal word stands for each corresponding
letter of code one place ahead.
21. (A) On comparing (i) and (ii) we get SEK =
Green.
On comparing (i) and (iii) we get TIR =
Tasty
On comparing (ii) and (iii) we get FAR
= Is
∴ MI = And
and DIK = Tomato
Hence, Tomato is tasty = FAR TIR DIK.
Then from B he turned to his right i.e., in
North direction. And after moving a little distance
he reached at C. From C he turned to his right i.e.,
in East direction. After moving in this direction a
little distance he reached at D. At D he turned to
his left. Therefore, he was going in the North
direction. Hence, the correct answer is (A).
Example 2. Five people are sitting in a row
facing you. D is at the left of C. B is sitting at the
right of E. A is sitting at the right of C and B is
sitting at the left of D. If E is sitting at one-end,
who is in the middle ?
(A) A (B) C
(C) B (D) D
people are sitting in the following order—
A C D B E
● ● ● ● ●
16 | Reasoning V.

Exercise left. Malti is at one end of the row. Who is at

the other end of the row ?
1. Sonia walks 12 m to South and then she (A) Nila (B) Liji
walks 14 m to East. After this she walks 10 m
to North. Then she turns right and walks 6 m. (C) Vidya (D) Pushpa
Her distance from the starting point is— (E) None of these
(A) 24 m (B) 22 m 7. Lalit goes to East 8 km and turning to South-
West he goes 8 km. After this he turns to
(C) √
⎯⎯⎯
404 m (D) 15 m North-West and goes 8 km. Now in which
(E) None of these direction is he from the starting point ?
Directions—(Q. 2–4) (i) Five people lived in (A) North-East (B) South-East
five houses out of six houses P, Q, R, S, T and U. (C) West (D) East
(i) The main gate of each house was to- (E) None of these
wards North.
8. Five people are sitting in a circle facing to the
(ii) Satish’s house was next to Vinod’s centre and are playing cards. Mukund is to the
house towards Eest.
left to Rajesh. Vijay is between Anil and
(iii) Pritam’s house was just next to Madan’s Nagesh and is to the right of Anil. Who is
house towards West. sitting to the right of Nagesh ?
(iv) The house of Vinod was as far from the (A) Vijay (B) Rajesh
house of Satish towards West as the (C) Anil (D) Mukund
house of Pritam was from the house of
Satish towards East. (E) None of these
(v) Ajay’s house was just next to Satish’s 9. A person walks 10 km to North. From there
house towards East. he walks 6 km to South. After this he walks 3
km to East. In which direction and how far is
2. Which house was unoccupied ?
he now from the starting point ?
(A) S (B) Q
(A) 7 km, East
(C) R (D) P or U
(B) 5 km, West
(E) None of these
(C) 5 km, North-East
3. Which one of the statements is unnecessary ?
(D) 7 km, West
(A) (iv) (B) (iii)
(C) (ii) (D) (v) (E) None of these
(E) None of these 10. Mohit walks 5 km to South, then he walks 3
4. Who lived in the end towards West ? km turning to his right. Again he turns to his
right and walks 5 km. After this turning to his
(A) Satish (B) Pritam left he walks 5 km. In which direction and
(C) Vinod (D) Madan how far is he now from the starting point ?
(E) Ajay (A) 5 km, West (B) 3 km, North
5. Vijay, Narain, Sukumar, Ravi and Bipin are (C) 3 km, East (D) 8 km, West
taking part in a car race. Vijay is ahead of (E) None of these
Sukumar but behind Bipin. Bipin is ahead of
Vijay but behind Ravi. Narain is in the 11. Ramesh began to walk towards North. He
turned to his left after walking 10 m and
middle. Who is ahead of all ?
walked 15 m. Then he turned to his right and
(A) Vijay (B) Sukumar walked 5 m. Again he turned to his right and
(C) Bipin (D) Ravi walked 15 m. Now how far is he from his
(E) Narain starting point ?
6. Five girls are standing in a row facing North. (A) 10 m (B) 15 m
Nila is between Liji and Vidya. Pushpa is just (C) 35 m (D) 45 m
next to Liji to the left. Liji is second from the (E) 32 m
 Reasoning V. | 17

12. Ram started to walk facing to South and
turned to his left after walking 30 m and then
walked 25 m. He again turned to his left, and
walked 30 m. Now in which direction and
how far is he from the starting point ?
(A) At the starting point
(B) 25 m, West
(C) 25 m, East
(D) 30 m, East
(E) None of these
17. Rakesh walks 10 m to South after walking 20
m to East. After this he walks 5 m North after
walking 35 m to West. Then he walks 15 m to
East. What is the shortest distance between
the starting and the terminal points ?
(A) 0 m
(B) 5 m
(C) 10 m
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these

13. Sita and Ram both started to walk 10 km from 18. A whimsical man turns to his right after
a place to North. Sita turned to her left and walking 20 km to North and walks 30 km.
Ram to his right. Sita stopped for some time Then walks 35 km after turning to his right.
and then walked for 5 km in the direction in Now he turns to his left and walks 15 km.
which she turned on the other side Ram After this he turns to his left and walks 15
walked only 3 km. Then Sita turned to her left km. In the end he turns to his left and walks
and Ram to his right. Now both walked 15 15 km. In which direction and how far is he
km ahead. How far is Sita from Ram ? from his starting point ?
(A) 15 km (B) 10 km (A) 45, km East (B) 30 km, East
(C) 8 km (D) 12 km (C) 15 km, West (D) 30 km, West
(E) None of these (E) None of these
14. When the bus reaches Radha’s school, it faces 19. Five persons are sitting in a row. Tarak is to
North. After starting from Radha’s house to the right of John. Murli is to the left of John
the school it turns twice to its right and once but to the right of Lalit. If Tarak is to the left
to its left. In which direction it was facing of Khurshid who is at the extreme left ?
when it left bus stop at Radha’s house ? (A) John (B) Tarak
(A) South (B) West (C) Lalit (D) Khurshid
(C) East (D) North (E) None of these
(E) None of these 20. A, B, C, and D are standing on the four cor-
15. If South-East becomes East and North-West ners of the square field as shown in the figure
becomes West. South-West becomes South given below—
and all the rest directions are changed in the A B
same manner, then what will be the direction E
for North ?
(A) East (B) North-West N S
(C) South (D) North-East
(E) None of these W
1 1 D C
16. A man walks 3 km to North and then 1 km
2 2 If A and C move one and half length of the
to West. He then turns to his left and walks side of the field clockwise while B and D
1 move one and half length of the side of the
3 km. How far is he now from his starting
2 field anticlockwise, which of the following
point ? statements is correct ?
1 (A) A and D will on the same place
(A) 1 km (B) 5 km
2 (B) B and A will on the same place
1 (C) C and D will on the same place
(C) 3 km (D) 7 km
2 (D) A and C will on the same place
(E) None of these (E) None of these
18 | Reasoning V.

Answers with Explanations 7. (C)

8 km N
1. (C)
N
W E

km
A

8
km

8
W E

2m S
S
∴ He is in the West from his starting point.
p E
D 6m 8. (D) The seating arrangement of the five
12 m
10 m people is as given below—
Mukund Nagesh

B 14 m C
To right To left
In Δ AFE, AE 2 = AF2 + FE2 Vijay
∴ AE2 = (2) 2 + (20)2 Anil
Rajesh
= 4 + 400
Hence, Mukund is sitting to the right of
= 404
Nagesh.
∴ AE = √
⎯⎯⎯
404 m 9. (C)
For Q. 2 to 4.
North N
The order of houses is as given below—
W E
6 km

P Q R S T U
S
10 km

Vinod Satish Ajay Pritam Madan 3 km

East
N
4 km

5 km
W E
A

S Therefore, he is at a distance of 5 km
from the starting point in North-East
2. (B) 3. (A) 4. (C) direction.
5. (D) The position of these five are as follows
10. (D)
— Sukumar, Vijay, Narain, Bipin, Ravi.
E 5 km
6. (D) These girls are standing in following A
D
order—
N 5 km 5 km
N

W E
W E C 3 km B
S

S ∴ Mohit is at a distance of 8 km from his

Pushpa, Liji, Nila, Vidya, Malti. starting point in West direction.
 Reasoning V. | 19

11. (B) The direction of North will be North-West.

16. (A)
15 m E N
D 1
1 km
W E
2
5m
B 1 1
C 15 m S 3 km 3 km
2 r 2
10 m
B A
Last position Starting point
A
1
It is clear from the diagram that Ramesh The man is at a distance of 1 km from
2
is at a distance of 15 metres from the the starting point.
starting point.
17. (B)
12. (C)
N
A D
N
W E Starting point
30 m

30 m

W E 20 m
S
15 m 5 m

10 m
S
B 25 m C 5m Last point
∴ Ram is at a distance of 25 m from the 35 m
starting point in East.
The distance between the starting and
13. (C)
terminal points is 5 metres.
N
18. (B)
W E N
5 km 3 km 30 km
B C
Sita Ram S W E
10 km

20 km

S
15 km 15 km G
Starting point F
35 km

A
15 km

Sita 8 km
Ram
D 15 km E
Therefore, the distance between Sita and
Ram is 8 km. The starting point is A and the terminal
14. (B) point is G.
School N 19. (C) The seating arrangements of the five
people is as given below—
W E
Lalit, Murli, John, Tarak, Kurshid.
S
Bus Stop 20. (A)
Radha's
house B
At the time of leaving the bus-stop, the E
bus was facing towards West.
15. (B) N S A, D
W N N W
W E C

S E S Therefore, A and D are on the same place.

20 | Reasoning V.

Blood Relation
This type of test is meant to test candidates 2. Daughter of the only son of the father of my
ability about blood relation. In this type of test father’s sister is to me—
questions are given such that the relation between (A) Niece (B) Sister
two persons is given and the relation of the other (C) Aunt (D) Cousin sister
is to be found out. For clarification some exam-
(E) Daughter
ples are given below—
Example 1. L is the mother of K and sister 3. Kamal is the son of Sheela. The son of the
of N. Sister of O is K. If P is the husband of O, daughter of Kamal’s grand father has only
what is the relation of O with N ? one maternal uncle. What relation does this
uncle has with Sheela ?
(A) Nephew
(A) Husband
(B) Mother’s sister
(B) Uncle
(C) Maternal aunt
(C) Brother-in-law of father
(D) Niece
(D) Father
(E) Brother
(E) Son
Answer with Explanation—(D) Since L is
4. Ravi is the son of A. D is the father of Sunita.
the mother of K and sister of N. Hence N is the
A is the sister of Naresh. If D is married to
maternal uncle or mother’s sister of K. Therefore,
Ravi’s mother. What is the relation of Naresh
N is the maternal uncle or aunt of K. Since sister
with Sunita ?
of O is K and O is the wife of P. Hence, N is the
maternal uncle or aunt of O and O is the niece of (A) Brother
N. (B) Maternal uncle
Example 2. ‘P + K’ means P is the sister of (C) Grand father
K. ‘P × K’ means P is the brother of K, and ‘P – K’ (D) Maternal grand father
means P is the father of K. Which of the following (E) None of these
means A is the aunt of B ?
5. C and N are sisters. N is the mother of B. R is
(A) A + P + B (B) B – P + A
the son of B. If D is the son of C, which of the
(C) A – P + B (D) A + P – B
following relations is correct ?
(E) B – P + A (A) There are only two ladies among C, N,
Answer with Explanation—(D) A + P – B B, R and D
means A is the sister of P and P is the father of B. (B) R and D are maternal cousins
Thus A is the aunt of B. (C) D and B are brothers
Exercise (D) Nothing can be said
(E) None of these
1. There are six members A B C D S K in a
family in which there are three ladies and one 6. Introducing a man, a lady said, “The father of
couple. A is the mother of C and D is the son his father-in-law is my father-in-law.” How is
of C. Husband of A is B and C is her son the man related to the lady ?
while K is her daughter. The group of ladies (A) Husband
is— (B) Son-in-law
(A) S K A (B) A B C (C) Son
(C) A S D (D) S A C (D) Father
(E) None of these (E) Uncle
 Reasoning V. | 21

7. Introducing a lady, a man said, “Her father is (iii) P and C are married and M and N are
my mother’s only son.” How is the lady re- their sons.
lated to the man ? (iv) Rohan has a son S and a daughter T.
(A) Sister
(v) T is married to B and they have two
(B) Daughter daughters D and E and a son G.
(C) Aunt
12. How Q is related to N ?
(D) Mother
(E) Grand mother (A) Father (B) Grand father
(C) Maternal uncle (D) Uncle
8. Vinod is the brother of Bhaskar, Manohar is
(E) Son
the sister of Vinod, Bisval is the brother of
Preetam and Preetam is the duaghter of 13. How is Dinesh related to E ?
Bhaskar. Who is the uncle of Bisval ? (A) Grand father (B) Uncle
(A) Bhaskar (C) Brother (D) Father
(B) Manohar (E) Son
(C) Vinod 14. How is M related to R ?
(D) Data in adequate (A) Niece (B) Cousin brother
(E) None of these (C) Daughter (D) Mother
9. Pointing Jayesh Radha said, “Her sister is my (E) None of these
monther’s only daughter.” How is Radha 15. How is Dinesh related to T ?
related to Jayesh ?
(A) Father (B) Father-in-law
(A) Mother (B) Daughter
(C) Uncle (D) Maternal uncle
(C) Cousin (D) Sister
(E) Son
(E) Aunt
16. How is E related to S ?
10. Ram is the father of Sushil and Kiran. Sushil (A) Grand son
is the son of Ram but Kiran is not the son of (B) Uncle
Ram. How is Kiran related to Ram ?
(C) Sister’s daughter
(A) Son-in-law (B) Niece
(D) Nephew
(C) Mother (D) Daughter
(E) Father
(E) None of these
11. My mother is the sister of your brother. What 17. Pointing to a man, another man said to a lady,
relation you have with me ? “His mother is the only daughter of your
father.” How is the lady related to the man ?
(A) Uncle
(B) Maternal uncle (A) Sister (B) Mother
(C) Cousin (C) Wife (D) Daughter
(D) Brother-in-law of the mother (E) Grand mother
(E) None of these 18. If ‘A + B’ means A is the brother of B, ‘A –
Directions—Read the following statements B’ means A is the sister of B, ‘A × B’ means
carefully and answer each of the questions from A is mother of B and ‘A ÷ B’ mean A is the
12 to 16— father of B, which of the following means P is
(i) Dinesh has to sons A and B and a the maternal uncle of Q ?
duaghter C. (A) P × Q – S (B) P – S × Q
(ii) Shyam has two sons P and Q and a (C) P + S × Q (D) P – Q × S
daughter R. (E) Q – P × S
22 | Reasoning V.

Answers with Explanations 10. (D) Kiran is the child of Ram but not son.
Therefore, Kiran will be daughter of
01. (A) In this family B, C and D are gents while Ram.
A, K and S are ladies. 11. (B) My mother is the sister of your brother,
02. (B) The son of the father of my father’s therefore, you will be the brother of my
sister is my father and his daughter is my mother. Hence you will be my maternal
sister. uncle.
03. (A) The maternal uncle of the son of the For Q. 12 to 16—
daughter of Kamal’s grand father, is the Son A P Son M
father of Kamal. Therefore, Kamal’s
father is the husband of Sheela. Dinesh Son B Married
04. (B) A is the sister of Naresh and A is the Daughter C C Son N
mother of Ravi. A is married to the Son P B Daughter D
father of Sunita. Therefore, Naresh is the
maternal uncle of Sunita. Shyam Son Q Married Daughter E
05. (D) Daughter R Son G
06. (B) Since the father of the father-in-law of Son S
the man, is the father-in-law of lady, Rohan
therefore, the father-in-law of the man is
the husband of the lady and the man is Daughter T
son-in-law of the lady. From above
07. (B) Since the father of the lady, is the only 12. (D) 13. (A)
son of the mother of the man, therefore,
the father of the lady is that man and the 14. (E) M is the nephew of R.
lady is the duaghter of the man. 15. (B) 16. (C)
08. (C) Manohar is the sister of Vinod and
17. (B) The lady herself is the only daughter of
Bhaskar. Bisval and Preetam are respec-
tively the son and daughter of Bhaskar. the father of the man. Therefore, the lady
Therefore, Vinod is the uncle of Bisval. is the mother of the man.
09. (D) The daughter of the mother of the sister 18. (C) P + S × Q means P is the brother of S
of Jayesh is Radha. Therefore, Radha is and S is the mother of Q. Therefore, P is
the sister of Jayesh. the maternal uncle of Q.

Problems based on Alphabet

In this type of test, the knowledge of a candi- (A) I (B) H
date about alphabets is put on test. The problems (C) J (D) E
in this type of test contain some words in which (E) F
lettters are disorderly arranged and contain various Answer with Explanation—(B) When Eng-
questions based on them. The candidates keeping lish alphabets are written in reverse order, the 16th
the questions in mind, have to arrange the letters. letter from the left will be K and the third letter
Example 1. If English alphabets are written from its right will be ‘H’.
in reverse order, what will be the third letter right Example 2. There are two letters in the word
from the 16th letter from the left ? ‘DOUBLE’ such that the number of letters bet-
 Reasoning V. | 23

ween them is the same as the number of letters (C) B (D) N

between them in alphabets. Find out both the (E) P
letters ?
5. There are two letters in the word ‘CALCU-
(A) D, B (B) E, U LATOR’ in which there are same number of
(C) B, E (D) O, L letters in between them as there are in the
(E) None of these alphabet between them. The letter which
comes after words, is your answer. If there are
Answer with Explanation—(D) The letters not such letters, then your answer is X and if
between O and L in the word ‘DOUBLE’ are two, there are more than 1, letters of this type then
U and B. In alphabet also the letters between O your answer is Z.
and L are two i.e. M and N. Hence the required (A) L (B) Z
letters are O and L.
(C) R (D) X
Exercise (E) T

1. If English alphabet is written in reverse order, 6. In the following alphabet which letter is just
what will be the 7th letter to the right of the in the middle between the 18th letter from the
12th letter from the left ? left and 10th letter from the right ?
(A) F (B) G ABCDEFGHIJKLMNOPQRST
UVWXYZ
(C) V (D) S
(A) Q (B) R
(E) L
(C) K (D) J
2. In the following alphabet which is the 6th (E) None of these
letter from the left of 14th letter from the
right ? 7. How many words in English can be made by
ABCDEFGHIJKLMNOPQRST using the letters of the word ‘ASTOUNDER’?
UVWXYZ Each letter can be used only once and the
order of letters should remain the same.
(A) G (B) U
(A) 0 (B) 2
(C) F (D) T
(C) 3 (D) 4
(E) M
(E) None of these
3. If some meaningful word can be formed from
third, sixth, ninth and 12th letters of the word 8. How many pairs of letters are such in the
‘ELECTRIFICATION’, which of the follo- word ‘IDEAL’ having the same number of
wing will be the 3rd letter of that word. If no letters in between them in the word as they
word can be formed, then your answer is X have in the alphabetical series ?
and if more than one word can be formed then (A) 0 (B) 1
your answer is M. (C) 2 (D) 4
(A) E (B) M (E) None of these
(C) T (D) X 9. From the following letters which is the 10th
(E) C letter the right of the 18th letter from the left
4. If the following alphabet is written in reverse corner of the letters ?
order, which will be the 6th letter from the ABCDEFGHIJKLMNOPQRST
left of the 9th letter from your right ? UVWXYZ
ABCDEFGHIJKLMNOPQRST (A) H (B) Y
UVWXYZ (C) A (D) U
(A) O (B) C (E) None of these
24 | Reasoning V.

10. If the following letters are written in reverse (B) GRINDER

order, which will be 6th letter from the left to (C) DROOP
10th letter from the right ?
(D) SUPERIOR
ABCDEFGHIJKLMNOPQRST
(E) POOR
UVWXYZ
(A) W (B) P 16. CHROMATOGRAPHIC
(C) D (D) K (A) PRAGMATIC
(E) M (B) PHOTO
11. How many pairs of letters are such in the (C) GOTHAM
word ‘HORIZON’ having the same number (D) MARGIN
of letters in between them in the word as they (E) TOPO
have in alphabetical series ?
17. In the following alphabet which letter is just
(A) 1 (B) 2 in the middle between the 15th letter from the
(C) 3 (D) 4 left and 10th letter from the right ?
(E) None of these ABCDEFGHIJKLMNOPQRST
UVWXYZ
Directions—In each of the questions from 12
to 16 if the letters of the given word are used as (A) P (B) Q
many times as one wants to use which of the (C) O (D) R
words given below cannot be formed ?
(E) L
12. SIGNIFICANT 18. If the 1st and 6th letters of the word
(A) NASCENT ‘PHOTOGRAPH’ are interchanged, also 2nd
(B) INFANT and 7th letters, and so on, which of the follo-
(C) INSIGNIA wing would be the 4th letter from your right ?
(D) GIANT (A) H (B) P
(E) FINTAS (C) O (D) T
(E) G
13. GERMINATION
(A) ORNAMENT 19. If with the second, seventh, eighth and ninth
letters of the word ‘WONDERFUL’ a mean-
(B) TERMINAL ingful word can be formed. Which of the
(C) IGNITE following will be third letter of that word ? If
(D) NIGER no word is possible the answer is X and if
(E) RIGEN more than one word are possible, then answer
is M.
14. TOURNAMENT (A) F (B) M
(A) NORMAN (C) U (D) X
(B) ROTTEN (E) L
(C) MANOEUVRE
(D) MANNER Answers with Explanations
(E) TANMER 1. (C) When the letters of alphabet are written
in reverse order, 12th letter from the left
15. CORRESPONDING will be O and 7th letter from O to the
(A) DISCERN right will be V.

2. (A) 14th letter from the right in the alphabet
is M and 6th letter to the left of M is G.
3. (B) The meaningful words formed are : RITE,
TIER and TIRE.
4. (A) When the letters of alphabet are written
in reverse order, 9th letter from our right
is I and 6th letter to the left of I is O.
5. (B) There are 3 pairs : ALC, LATO and TOR.
6. (E) 18th letter from the left is ‘R’ and 10th
letter from the right is ‘Q’. Hence there
is no letter in the middle of R and Q.
7. (D) Four words are possible pairs from
‘ASTOUNDER’—AS, TO, ASTOUND
and UNDER.
8. (B) ‘DE’ is only the pair in ‘IDEAL’ such
that there is no letter between D and E.
Time Sequence Test
This type of test is meant to test candidate’s
ability about sequence of days of the week, calen-
dar months, time etc.
Example 1. If 3rd of the month falls on
Friday, what day will be on the 4th day after 21st
of the month ?
(A) Monday (B) Thursday
(C) Saturday (D) Tuesday
(E) Friday
Answer with Explanation—(C). The fourth
day after 21st of the month will be 25th of the
month. From 3rd to 25th excluding 3rd there will
be 22 days. If 22 is divided by 7 the reminder will
be 1. Hence one day after Friday, it will be Satur-
day.
Example 2. Which of the following is a leap
year ?
(A) 2000 (B) 1800
(C) 1400 (D) 1700
(E) None of these
Answer with Explanation—(A) In case of a
century, a leap year is that which is divisible by
400.
Reasoning V. | 25
9. (A) 18th letter from the left end is R and
10th letter to the right of R is ‘H’.
10. (B) When the letters of the alphabet are in
reverse order, 10th letter from right is J
and 6th letter to left of ‘J’ is P.
11. (D) There are 4 possible pairs—
H—N, R—O, R—N and O—N.
12. (A) 13. (B) 14. (C) 15. (D)
16. (D)
17. (A) 15th letter from the left is O and 10th
letter from the right is Q. The middle
letter between Q and O is P.
18. (A) After interchanging the letters according
the instruction the word ‘GRAPH-
PHOTO’ is formed. Its 4th letter from
the right is H.
19. (C) FOUL
Exercise
1. My birthday falls after 64 days of my bro-
ther’s birthday. If my brother’s birthday falls
on Monday, what will be the day on my birth-
day ?
(A) Tuesday
(B) Sunday
(C) Saturday
(D) Wednesday
(E) None of these
2. If Sunday falls on fifth day after from today
i.e. 6th January, what was the day on 1st Dec.
of last year ?
(A) Monday
(B) Tuesday
(C) Thursday
(D) Friday
(E) None of these
3. My brother is 352 days older to me while my
sister is 65 weeks older to him. If my sister
was born on Saturday, on which day was I
born ?
26 | Reasoning V.

(A) Sunday (A) 22 Feb. (B) 21 Feb.

(B) Monday (C) 18 Feb. (D) 20 Feb.
(C) Tuesday (E) None of these
(D) Wednesday 9. A century is a leap year when it is divisible
(E) None of these by—
4. Rakesh was born on 3rd March, 1982. Mohan (A) 300 (B) 200
was born 4 days before Rakesh. If Republic (C) 400 (D) 4
Day of that year falls on Saturday. Which day (E) 100
was Mohan’s birthday ?
(A) Wednesday 10. If by looking in a mirror it appears that it is
9 : 30 in the clock, what is the real time ?
(B) Friday
(A) 4 : 30 (B) 6 : 30
(C) Tuesday
(C) 2 : 30 (D) 6 : 10
(D) Thursday
(E) None of these
(E) None of these
11. Lokesh remembers that his brother Laksh-
5. My brother is 562 days older to me while my man’s birthday is after 20 but before 28
sister is 75 weeks older to him. If my sister August. Rita remembers that Lakshman’s
was born on Tuesday, on which day was I
birthday is after 12 but before 22 August.
born ? What is the date of birthday of Lakshman ?
(A) Sunday (A) 20 August
(B) Thursday (B) 21 August
(C) Wednesday (C) 22 August
(D) Monday (D) Can not be decided
(E) Tuesday (E) None of these
6. A remembers that his uncle had visited them
after 13th but before 18th of a month, while B Answers with Explanations
remembers that the uncle had visited them
01. (A) The difference between my birthday and
after 16th but before 20th. On which date did
my brother’s birthday is 64 days. On
their uncle visit A and B ?
dividing 64 by 7 we get 1 as remainder.
(A) 14 (B) 16
Therefore, 1 day after Monday my
(C) 15 (D) 17 birthday i.e. Tuesday.
(E) None of these
02. (A) 5th day after 6th January is 11th January.
7. If the day after tomorrow be Friday. What day
Therefore, on 11th January it is Sunday.
would have been on Yesterday ? The number of days from 1st December
(A) Sunday of last year to 11th January (in which
(B) Tuesday 11th January is not included) is 41. On
(C) Wednesday dividing 41 by 7 we get 6 as remainder.
(D) Saturday Therefore 6 days before Sunday, it will
(E) None of these be Monday.
8. Jyoti remembers that her brother’s birthday is 03. (B) Difference of number of days of my
after 17th but before 21st Feb., while her sister’s age and my age = 65 × 7 × 352 =
brother remembers that his birthday is after 807. On dividing 807 by 7 we get 2 as
19th but before 24th Feb. On which date is remainder. Therefore, 2 days after Satur-
his birthday ? day it will be Monday.

04. (A) 4 days before 3rd March, means 27th
Feb. Since on 26th Jan. falls on Satur-
day, therefore, on 2nd, 9th, 16th and
23rd Feb. will fall on Saturday. Hence
on 27th Feb. it will be Wednesday.
05. (B) Difference of number of days of my
sister’s age and my age is 75 × 7 + 562 =
1087. On dividing 1087 by 7 we get 2 as
remainder. Therefore, 2 days after Tues-
day is Thursday.
06. (D) After 13th but before 18th means 14, 15,
16 and 17. While after 16th but before
20th mean 17, 18 and 19. Since among
these dates only 17th is common. There-
fore, their uncle visited on 17th.
07. (B) Since the day after tomorrow is on
Friday, therefore, today is on Wednesday
and Yesterday is on Tuesday.
Venn Diagram and Chart Type Test
In this type of test, diagram or chart is made
and according to the question data are filled in the
diagram or chart. Then by consulting the diagram
or chart the questions asked are easily answered.
Following Examples will clarify the idea clearly.
Example 1. The following figure represents
a set of persons. The triangle represents educated
persons, the rectangle represents policemen, the
circle represents road tax payers and ellipse repre-
sents shopkeepers.
Looking at the picture we can conclude that—
(A) all educated shopkeepers pay road tax
(B) all road tax paying policemen are edu-
cated
(C) all educated policemen pay road tax
(D) all road tax paying shopkeepers are
educated.
(E) None of these
Reasoning V. | 27
08. (D) After 17th but before 21st means 18, 19
and 20 while after 19th but before 24th
means 20, 21, 22 and 23. Since among
these days only 20th is common. There-
fore, his birthday is on 20th.
09. (C)
10. (C) When the hour hand of the clock is bet-
ween 2 and 3, it will appear to between 9
and 10 in the mirror and when the minute
hand is on 6 it will appear in the mirror
on 6. Thus when it is actually 2 : 30 in a
clock it will appear 9 : 30 in the mirror.
11. (B) Since according to Rita, the date of birth
of Lakshman is after 12th August but
before 22nd August. But according to
Lokesh the date of birh of Lakshman is
after 20th August but before 28 August.
Therefore, 21st August will be the date
of birth of Lakshman.
Answer with Explanation—(B) Since some
of the common portion of the triangle and the
ellipse is inside the circle and some is outside the
circle. Hence all educated shopkeepers do not pay
road tax. Since all the common portion of the
rectangle and circle, is inside the triangle. There-
fore, all road tax paying policemen are educated.
Since all the common portion of the triangle and
rectangle is not inside the circle. Therefore all the
educated policemen do not pay road tax. Since all
the common portion of the circle and ellipse is not
inside the triangle. Therefore, all the road tax
paying shopkeepers are not educated. Therefore,
the correct answer is (B).
Example 2. There is a group of five persons
A, B, C, D and E. One of them is a professor of
Mathematics, one is of Agriculture and one is of
Commerce. A and D are two unmarried ladies,
none of them is a specialist of any subject. One is
a married couple in which E is the husband of C.
B who is neither is a specialist of Agriculture nor
Commerce, is the brother of C. No lady is the
professor of Mathematics or Commerce. Who is
the professor of Commerce ?
28 | Reasoning V.

(A) D (B) C (A) 17 (B) 30

(C) E (D) A (C) 8 (D) 19
(E) None of these (E) None of these
Answer with Explanation—(C) A and D are 5. How many players are neither artists nor
unmarried ladies and wife of E is also a lady. Thus doctors ?
there are three ladies and two gents in the group. E (A) 22 (B) 4
and B are gents. No lady is the specialist of (C) 25 (D) 3
Commerce and B also is not the specialist of (E) None of these
Commerce. Hence only E is left and he should be
the professor of Commerce. Directions—Study the following figure
carefully and answer the questions from 6 to 10.
Exercise The rectangle represents managers, the triangle
represents women and the circle represents singers
Directions—Study the following figure care- and the number represents figures of that area in
fully and answer the questions from 1 to 5. The which they are.
triangle represents doctors. The circle represents
players and the rectangle represents artists. 15
P 7 16
12 4 9
25 4 17 35
22 3 8 D
30 A 6. How many people are singers ?
(A) 8 (B) 4
1. How many doctors are both players and (C) 16 (D) 35
artists ?
(E) 38
(A) 6
(B) 8 7. How many women are both managers and
(C) 4 singers ?
(D) 3 (A) 7 (B) 4
(E) None of these (C) 12 (D) 11
2. How many artists are players ? (E) None of these
(A) 30 8. How many managers are neither women nor
(B) 29 singers ?
(C) 25 (A) 23 (B) 35
(D) 17 (C) 19 (D) 26
(E) None of these (E) None of these
3. How many artists are neither players nor 9. How many singers are neither women nor
doctors ? managers ?
(A) 29 (A) 15 (B) 27
(B) 30 (C) 12 (D) 19
(C) 22 (E) None of these
(D) 8 10. How many women are managers ?
(E) None of these (A) 29 (B) 32
4. How many doctors are neither players nor (C) 13 (D) 12
artists ? (E) None of these
 Reasoning V. | 29

Directions—Read the following information 15. Which of the following pairs is group of male
and answer the questions from 11 to 12. doctors ?
There are five friends. Among them Ramesh (A) P, T (B) R, S
plays on Sitar and Sarangi. Jyoti plays on Sitar (C) P, R (D) Q, T
and Violen. Lalit plays on Santoor and Violen. (E) None of these
Ganesh plays on such an instrument on which
Ramesh and Jyoti both can play. Shobha plays on 16. Who is Surgeon ?
such an instrument on which Jyoti and Lalit both (A) P
can play. (B) Q
11. Which of the following pairs can play on (C) R
Sitar ? (D) P or Q
(A) Ganesh and Lalit (E) Cannot determine
(B) Jyoti and Shobha 17. The members of which of the groups are
(C) Shobha and Ramesh related to each other ?
(D) Ramesh and Jyoti (A) P, Q, R
(E) None of these (B) Q, R, T
12. On which of the instruments Shobha plays? (C) P, R, S
(A) Sitar (B) Sarangi (D) P, S, T
(C) Santoor (D) Violen (E) None of these
(E) None of these
Directions—Read the following information
Answers with Explanations
carefully and answer the questions from 13 to 17. 1. (D) 2. (C) 3. (B) 4. (A)
(i) There is a group of five doctors P, Q, R, 5. (C) 6. (E) 7. (B) 8. (B)
S and T in a polyclinic. 9. (A) 10. (C)
(ii) The doctors in this group are of Psycho- For questions 11 to 12
therapy, Surgery and Anesthesia. Sitar Sarangi Violen Santoor
(iii) P and S are unmarried ladies. Ramesh √ √ × ×
(iv) No lady is a doctor of Psychotherapy or Jyoti √ × √ ×
Surgery.
Lalit × × √ √
(v) In this group there is a married couple
Ganesh √ × × ×
in which T is husband.
Shobha × × √ ×
(vi) R’s brother is Q who is neither the doc-
11. (D) 12. (D)
tor of Surgery nor Anesthesia.
For questions 13 to 17
13. In this group how many ladies are doctors ? Unmarried ladies no specialists
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) 5
P Q R S T
(E) None of these Anesthetic No Psycho- Anes- Male
14. Which one of the following pairs is married No Surgeon therapist thetic Husband
couple ? No Anesthetic No Surgeon
Psychotherapist Wife
(A) T, S (B) P, Q Brother
(C) T, R (D) P, S 13. (B) 14. (C) 15. (D) 16. (E)
(E) None of these 17. (B)
30 | Reasoning V.

Mathematical Ability Test

In this questions on Arithmetic, Algebra and Answer with Explanation—(C) In such
Geometry are asked. Generally in Arithmetic, the questions first of all it is found by which rule the
questions on signs are asked. The candidates numbers are filled. It is found that the number in
should know the order of simplification of signs. 3rd square from the left is sum of first square and
The order of signs is : of, ÷, ×, + and – twice of second square from the left.
As 8 × 2 + 4 = 20, 2 × 3 + 9 = 15,
Besides, the knowledge of area of figures in
∴ Reqd. number = 2 × 6 + 6 = 18,
Geometry and the knowledge of Algebra is also
essential. Hence the correct answer is (C).
Example 1. If + means ×, – means ÷, × Exercise
means – and ÷ means + the value of :
1. How many squares are there in the following
6+5÷5–3×6=? figure ?
2 1 A E B
(A) 25 (B) 14
3 3
2 2
(C) 17 (D) 15
3 3 I
H F
(E) None of these
Answer with Explanation—(A) In solving
such questions, first of all artificial signs are
converted into real signs and after it the question C G D
is solved. (A) 8 (B) 6
∴ ? = 6+5÷5–3×6 (C) 4 (D) 5
= 6×5+5÷3–6 (E) 7
1
= 6×5+5× –6 2. How many triangles are there in the following
3 figure ?
5 A E B
= 30 + – 6
3
90 + 5 – 18
= I
3 H F
77
=
3
2 C G D
= 25
3
(A) 12 (B) 9
∴ The correct answer is (A).
(C) 8 (D) 6
Example 2. Which of the numbers would be
filled in the blank space ? (E) 10

4 8 20 3. The salary of A is more than the salary of B

by Rs. 300 and the salary of B is more than
9 3 15 the salary of C by Rs. 200. If the sum of the
6 6 ? salaries of B and C is Rs. 1800, what is the
salary of A ?
(A) 22 (B) 20 (A) Rs. 3100 (B) Rs. 1300
(C) 18 (D) 24 (C) Rs. 800 (D) Rs. 1000
(E) None of these (E) None of these
 Reasoning V. | 31

4. Which of the following numbers should be in 9. How many squares are there in the following
blank space ? figure ?
? 9
6 16

4 36
3 64

(A) 3 (B) 4
(C) 8 (D) 6
(E) None of these (A) 14 (B) 13
5. One cow is tethered in a field by a rope of 7 (C) 12 (D) 11
metres length. If the cow graze 22 sq. m grass (E) None of these
each day, for how many days the grass will be 10. If means × , means +, means –,
sufficient for her ? means ÷, means = and means <, which
(A) 4 (B) 8 of the following equations is correct ?
(C) 7 (D) 11
(E) None of these (A) 10 2 6 15 2 13

6. If P = %, C = –, R = +, F = × and A = ÷ then (B) 5 4 2 7 7 12

(5 P of 100 R 40 C 4)A 9 = ? (C) 11 8 3 14 7 9
37
(A) (D) 16 2 3 8 8 2
9
(E) None of these
41
(B) 11. If a represents ÷, b represents +, c represents
9
65 – and d represents × then 24 a 6 d 4 b 9 c 8 =?
(C) (A) 2 (B) 17
9
72 (C) 34 (D) 19
(D)
9 (E) None of these
(E) None of these 12. How many 6’s are there in the following
number series which are preceded by 8 but
Directions—(7 to 8) Which number will re- not followed by 5 ?
place the question mark ? 5865186486865568656685865
7. 86556368
50 31 42 21 43 11 (A) 2 (B) 3
9 7 ? (C) 4 (D) 5
(E) None of these
(A) 6 (B) 5 13. Four different positions of a dice are shown
(C) 8 (D) 9 below. How many dots will be on the face
(E) None of these opposite to face which contains one dot ?
2 3 6
8.
3 33 2 4 54 2 3 ? 5
4 5 4
(A) 94 (B) 86 (A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 82 (D) 78 (C) 4 (D) 6
(E) None of these (E) None of these
32 | Reasoning V.

14. If × means addition, < means minus, > means (i) HEA (ii) EFB (iii) FGD (iv) HGC (v) EGH
multiplication, + means division, – means (vi) EGF (vii) HFG (viii) HFE (ix) HEI
equal to, ÷ means greater than and = means (x) EFI (xi) HIG (xii) GFI.
less than, which one of the alternatives is
correct ? 3. (B) Let the salary of A be Rs. x.
(A) 8 < 4 × 3 – 3 × 2 × 1 ∴ Salary of B = x – 300
(B) 8 > 4 < 3 – 3 > 2 < 1 and salary of C = x – 500
(C) 8 + 4 < 3 ÷ 3 < 2 < 1 ∴ x – 300 + x – 500 = 1800
(D) 8 + 4 × 3 = 3 > 2 × 1 or, 2x = 2600
(E) None of these ∴ x = Rs. 1300
15. Raghav is 8th from the top and 28th from the 4. (C) 9 = (3)2, 16 = (4)2, 36 = (6)2
bottom in the class. How many students are in and 64 = (8)2.
the class ?
5. (C) Total area of grass = πr2
(A) 36 (B) 34
22
(C) 33 (D) 35 = ×7×7
7
(E) None of these
= 154 sq. m
16. In a class of girls Zeenat’s position is 11th
from the top and Divya’s position is 2nd from If 22 sq. m grass is grazed by cow in 1 day
the bottom. There are five girls between them. 1
What is the total number of girls ? ∴ 1 sq. m grass is grazed by cow =
22
(A) 16 (B) 17 ∴ 154 sq. m grass is grazed by cow
(C) 18 (D) 19 1
(E) None of these = × 154
22
Answers with Explanations = 7
6. (B) (5 P of 100 R 40 C 4) A 9
1. (B) There as 6 suqares in the given figure—
= (5% of 100 + 40 – 4) ÷ 9
A E B
1 41
= (5 + 40 – 4) =
9 9
I 7. (A) The sum of upper two number is 9 times
H F of the lower number in each figure.
8. (B) In each circle the inner number is the
sum of the squares of outer numbers.
C G D 9. (A) There are 14 squares in the figure.
(i) ABDC (ii) AEIH (iii) EBFI (iv) HIGC A B
(v) IFDG (vi) HEFG
C E
2. (A) There are 12 triangles in the given fig- D
ure— H
F G I
A E B
K L M N
J
I
H F
O P Q R S
(1) ABCD (2) DCGF (3) CEHG (4) FGKJ
C G D (5) GHLK (6) HIML (7) JKPO (8) KLQP
 Reasoning V. | 33

(9) LMRQ (10) MNSR (11) DELJ (12) FHQO face containing point 1, have points, 2, 3
(13) GIRP (14) GLPJ. and 5. From second position it is also
10. (A) Converting the artificial signs into real found that the face opposite to the face
10 2 6 15 2 13 which contains point 1, should be adja-
cent to the faces containing points 2 and
or, 10 + 2 ÷ 6 < 15 – 2 ÷ 13 5. From third position it is clear that the
2 2 adjacent face to the faces containing
or, 10 + < 15 –
6 13 points 2 and 5, contains point 6. There-
31 193 fore the face opposite to the face con-
or, < taining point 1, must have 6 points.
3 13
11. (B) 24 ÷ 6 × 4 + 9 – 8 = 4 × 4 + 9 – 8 14. (D) 8 ÷ 4 + 3 < 3 × 2 + 1
= 16 + 9 – 8 ⇒2+3<6+1
= 17 ⇒ 5 < 7.
12. (A) Required 6’s are printed boldly in the 15. (D) No. of students in the class
following number series— = 28 + 8 – 1
586518648686556865668 = 35
586586556368 16. (C) No. of girls in the class
13. (D) From first and second positions it is = 11 + 2 + 5
found that on the adjacent faces to the = 18.

Arranging in Order
In this test there may be two types of test. than Palem and Balkum is larger than Phalpur but
One in which words are in their natural sequence not so large as Palem. Which is the larget district ?
and the other in which they arranged according to (A) Ambegaon (B) Phalpur
their size, age etc. (C) Palem (D) Dhanbad
In first type the words are given in disorder (E) None of these
and the candidate has to arrange them in such an Answer with Explanation—(D) Arranging
order in which they are found in natural way. all the five districts from larger to smaller the
Example 1. If doctor, fever, medicine and order is as given below—
healthy are arranged in natural sequence, which of Dhanbad, Palem, Balkum, Phalpur, Ambe-
the following arrangements is correct ? gaon.
Therefore, the largest district is ‘Dhanbad’.
(A) Healthy, fever, doctor, medicine
(B) Doctor, fever, medicine, healthy Exercise
(C) Medicine, healthy, fever, doctor
1. Among the five villages, Badgaon is smaller
(D) Fever, doctor, medicine, healthy than Jutgaon, Bhiwani is larger than Mohgaon
(E) Fever, medicine, doctor, healthy and Ranjini is larger than Jutgaon, but not so
Answer with Explanation—(D) When a large as Mohgaon. Which one of the villages
man is suffering from fever, he goes to a doctor is largest ?
for his treatment. The doctor gives him medicine. (A) Badgaon (B) Mohgaon
After taking medicine his fever is removed and he (C) Ranjini (D) Bhiwani
becomes healthy. Therefore, the natural sequence (E) Jutgaon
will be Fever, Doctor, Medicine, Healthy. 2. Which one of the following is in natural
Example 2. Among the five districts Ambe- sequence ?
gaon is smaller than Phalpur. Dhanbad is larger (A) To digest, to chew , to cook
34 | Reasoning V.

(B) To cook, to digest, to chew 8. Amit can jump 8 inches more than Nandu.
(C) To cook, to chew, to digest Mangesh can jump 3 inches more than
(D) To digest, to cook, to chew Nandu. Nandu can jump 5 inches more than
Dinesh and Vishnu can jump 2 inches less
(E) To chew, to cook, to digest
than Dinesh. Which of the following can be
3. Kumar is older than Vishnu who is younger kept in the middle according to the distances
than Ashoka. Harsha is older than Anil but of their jumping ?
younger than Vishnu, Ashoka is younger than (A) Amit (B) Nandu
Kumar. Who is the youngest ? (C) Mangesh (D) Dinesh
(A) Kumar (B) Ashoka (E) None of these
(C) Vishnu (D) Anil Directions—(Q. 9–11). Gopal is taller than
(E) None of these Rakesh. Rakesh is taller than Rajesh. Mangesh is
4. Ravi is heavier than Prakash but lighter than taller than Gopal, but shorter than Naresh.
Joy. Prakash is heavier than Ramesh. Biju is 9. Who is the shortest ?
heavier than Ravi but lighter than Joy. Who is (A) Rajesh (B) Rakesh
the heaviest ?
(C) Gopal (D) Naresh
(A) Ramesh (B) Ravi
(E) None of these
(C) Prakash (D) Biju
10. Who is the tallest ?
(E) Joy
(A) Gopal (B) Rajesh
Directions—(5–6). Read the following infor-
(C) Naresh (D) Rakesh
mations—
(E) None of these
Mukesh is taller than Rajiv but shorter than
11. Who is exact in the middle ?
Amar. Suman is taller than Mukesh but shorter
than Vinay. (A) Mangesh (B) Gopal
(C) Naresh (D) Rajesh
5. If these are arranged in descending order of (E) None of these
height, who will be in fourth place ?
12. Five people A, B, C, D and E live in five
(A) Amar (B) Rajiv storeys in the same building. B lives above C
(C) Mukesh (D) Suman and D. E lives in the middle. D lives between
(E) None of these B and E. A lives in the lowermost storey.
Who lives in the second storey from above ?
6. Who is the longest ? (A) A (B) B
(A) Vinay (B) Suman (C) C (D) D
(C) Rajiv (D) Cannot be decided (E) None of these
(E) None of these Directions—Each of the questions from 13 to
17 is based on the following statements. Five
7. Among five friends, Manish is longer than
alternative answers are given to each question.
Harish but shorter than Jayesh. Jayesh is These alternatives are represented by A, B, C, D
longer than Vijay and Sharad. Vijay is shorter and E. One of these is the correct answer of the
than Harish but is longer than the shortest. If question. After finding the correct answer mark on
they are arranged in descending order of its number.
length who will be in 4th place ?
Statements—Ram, Shyam, Chand, Pramod
(A) Manish (B) Harish
and Vinod are five students. Ram is taller than
(C) Sharad (D) Vijay Shyam. Chand is shorter than Pramod. Ram is
(E) None of these shorter than Vinod. Shyam is taller than Pramod.
 Reasoning V. | 35

13. Who is the tallest ? (A) e b c a d (B) e a b d c

(A) Shyam (B) Pramod (C) e d c b a (D) e c a d b
(E) None of these
(C) Ram (D) Vinod
(E) None of these 21. Which one of the following is the best natural
sequence ?
14. Who is the shortest ? (a) Treatment (b) Doctor
(A) Shyam (B) Ram (c) Diagnosis (d) Patient
(C) Vinod (D) Chand (e) Gain of health
(E) None of these (A) d a c b e (B) b d c a e
15. Who is next to the tallest ? (C) b d a c e (D) d b c a e
(A) Chand (B) Ram (E) None of these
(C) Pramod (D) Vinod
(E) None of these
Answers with Explanations
1. (D) Arranging the villages in order of
16. Who is next to the shortest ? smaller—
(A) Pramod (B) Ram Bhiwani, Mohgaon, Ranjini, Jutgaon,
(C) Vinod (D) Chand Badgaon.
(E) None of these Therefore, the largest village is ‘Bhiwani’.
17. Who is shorter than Ram but taller than 2. (C) First of all food is cooked, then chewed
Pramod ? and after it is digested.
(A) Pramod (B) Chand 3. (D) The order is as given below—
(C) Shyam (D) Vinod Kumar > Ashoka > Vishnu > Harsha >
Anil.
(E) None of these
4. (E) Order of decreasing weight—
18. A, B, C, D and E are five rivers. A is shorter Joy > Biju > Ravi > Prakash > Ramesh
than B but longer than E. C is the longest and For questions 5 and 6
D is a little shorter than B and a little longer Arrangement in decreasing order—
than A. Which is the shortest river ?
Amar
(A) A (B) B Mukesh > Rajiv
Vinay > Suman
(C) C (D) E
(E) D 5. (C) Vinay, Suman and Amar are taller than
Mukesh. Therefore on the four place
19. Which of the following is the best natural there is Mukesh.
sequence ? 6. (D) It is not clear who is taller among Amar
(a) State (b) Proper person and Vinay.
(c) City (d) District 7. (D) In decreasing order of length.
(e) House
(A) b c e a d (B) aecdb
(C) c a d e b (D) becda
(E) None of these
20. Which one of the following is the best natural
sequence ?
(a) Spring season (b) Odour
(c) Snow (d) Flower Jayesh Manish Harish Vijay Sharad
(e) Winter season (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
36 | Reasoning V.

8. (B) In increasing order of distance— ● C

Vishnu < Dinesh < Nandu < Mangesh < ● A
Amit For questions 13 to 17
∴ Nandu is exact in the middle. In decreasing order of height —
For questions 9 to 11
Vinod > Ram > Shyam > Pramod > Chand.
According to decreasing of height their order
is— 13. (D) 14. (D) 15. (B) 16. (A)
Naresh, Mangesh, Gopal, Rakesh, Rajesh. 17. (C)
9. (A) 10. (C) 11. (B)
18. (D) According to the decreasing in length,
12. (D) Their order is as given below —
they are as follow—
● B
● D C B D A E
● E 19. (D) 20. (D) 21. (D)

Statements and Logical Conclusions

The given statements to be true even if they from the given statements disregarding commonly
seem to be varience from commonly known facts. known facts.
The conclusions related to the given statements Exercise
can be drawn by Venn diagram easily. Venn 1. Statements :
diagram represents by the circles which shows a Some nails are plates.
group of things, persons etc. as follows : Some plates are disks.
Some snakes are butterfly. All disks are mirrors.
All mirrors are tyres.
Snakes
Conclusions :
I. Some tyres are plates.
Snakes Butterfly or Butterfly II. Some tyres are nails.
III. Some mirrors are plates.
(A) Only I and II follow
(B) Only I and III follow
All fowls are butterflies.
(C) Only II and III follow
Butterflies (D) All I, II and III follow
(E) None of these
Fowls 2. Statements :
Some beads are chairs.
All chairs are trucks.
Some trucks are bricks.
Now according to given question statements, All bricks are cars.
we draw maximum number of Venn diagram as Conclusions :
possible drive conclusions successively. It will be
I. Some cars are chairs.
clerify by given examples as follows :
II. Some cars are trucks.
Directions—(Q. 1 to 6) In each of the ques- III. Some trucks are beads.
tions below are given four statements followed by (A) Only I and II follow
three conclusion numbered I, II and III. You have
(B) Only I and III follow
to take the given statements to be true even if they
seem to be at variance from commonly known (C) Only II and III follow
facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide (D) All I, II and III follow
which of the given conclusions logically follows (E) None of these

3. Statements :
All flowers are houses.
All houses are tigers.
All tigers are goats.
Some goats are bullocks.
Conclusions :
I. Some goats are flowers.
II. Some tigers are flowers.
III. Some bullocks are tigers.
(A) Only I and II follow
(B) Only II and III follow
(C) Only I and III follow
(D) All I, II and III follow
(E) None of these
4. Statements :
Some windows are lakes.
Some lakes are forests.
Some forests are hills.
All hills are curtains.
Conclusions :
I. Some hills are windows.
II. Some curtains are lakes.
III. Some forests are windows.
(A) None follows
(B) Only I follows
(C) Only II follows
(D) Only III follows
(E) Only I and III follow
5. Statements :
All shirts are hats.
No hat is suit.
Some rings are suits.
All rings are bangles.
Conclusions :
I. Some rings are hats.
II. Some bangles are suits.
III. No ring is hat.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only II follows
(C) Only III follows
(D) Only either I or III follows
(E) Only either I or III and II follow
6. Statements :
All tapes are branches.
Some branches are roads.
All roads are fruits.
Some fruits are trees.
Reasoning V. | 37
Conclusions :
I. Some trees are tapes.
II. Some fruits are tapes.
III. Some fruits are branches.
(A) None follows
(B) Only I follows
(C) Only II follows
(D) Only III follows
(E) Only II and III follow
Directions—(Q. 7–11) In each of the ques-
tions below are given four statements followed by
three conclusions number I, II and III. You have
to take the given statements to be true even if they
seem to be at variance from commonly known
facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide
which of the given conclusions logically follows
from the given statements disregarding commonly
known facts.
7. Statements :
Some skies are rains.
Some rains are stars.
All stars are planets.
All planets are clouds.
Conclusions :
I. Some clouds are rains.
II. Some planets are skies.
III. Some planets are rains.
(A) Only I and II follow
(B) Only I and III follow
(C) Only II and III follow
(D) All I, II and III follow
(E) None of these
8. Statements :
All birds are goats.
No goat is flower.
Some flowers are mountains.
Some mountains are nets.
Conclusions :
I. Some nets are goats.
II. No net is goat.
III. Some mountains are birds.
(A) None follows
(B) Only I follows
(C) Only either I or II follows
(D) Only II follows
(E) Only III follows
9. Statements :
All spoons are bowls.
All bowls are pans.
38 | Reasoning V.

All pans are sticks. (A) If only conclusion I follows

All sticks are knives. (B) If only conclusion II follows
Conclusions : (C) If either conclusion I or II follows
I. Some knives are pans. (D) If neither conclusion I nor II follows
II. Some sticks are bowls. (E) If both conclusions I and II follow
III. Some pans are spoons. 12. Statements :
(A) Only I and II follow Some shirts are pants.
(B) Only II and III follow All pants are clothes.
(C) Only I and III follow Some clothes are napkins.
(D) All I, II and III follow Conclusions :
(E) None of these I. Some napkins are shirts.
10. Statements : II. Some clothes are shirts.
All threads are walls. 13. Statements :
All lamps are walls. All packets are tents.
Some kites are lamps. All tents are houses.
Some boxes are houses.
Some lamps are rays.
Conclusions :
Conclusions : I. Some houses are packets.
I. Some kites are threads. II. Some boxes are tents.
II. Some kites are walls. 14. Statements :
III. Some lamps are threads. Some nuts are bolts.
(A) None follows Some bolts are hammers.
(B) Only I follows Some hammers are nails.
(C) Only II follows Conclusions :
(D) Only III follows I. Some nails are bolts.
(E) Only I and III follow II. No nail is bolt.
11. Statements : 15. Statements :
Some tables are chairs. All windows are doors.
Some chairs are wheels. No door is mountain.
Some wheels are boards. Some mountains are roads.
Some boards are chalks. Conclusions :
Conclusions : I. Some roads are windows.
I. Some chalks are wheels. II. Some roads are doors.
16. Statements :
II. Some boards are chairs.
Some phones are bangles.
III. Some wheels are tables.
Some bangles are rings.
(A) None follows (B) Only I follows All rings are sticks.
(C) Only II follows (D) Only III follows Conclusions :
(E) Only II and III follow I. Some rings are phones.
Directions—(Q. 12–17) In each question II. Some sticks are bangles.
below are three statements followed by two 17. Statements :
conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take All bricks are walls.
the three given statements to be true even if they
seem to be at variance from commonly known All stones are walls.
facts and then decide which of the given conclu- All candles are walls.
sions logically follows from the three statements Conclusions :
disregarding commonly known facts. Give ans- I. Some walls are bricks.
wer— II. Some walls are candles.
 Reasoning V. | 39

Answers with Explanations Or

Flowers
Tyres
Goats
Plates Mirrors

1. (B)

Nails Bullocks
Tigers
Disks Houses
Lakes Hills
Or

Nails
4. (A)
Plates

Windows Forests Curtains

Or
Tyres
Windows Lakes
Mirrors
Disks

Hills
Forests
Beads Trucks Bricks
Curtains
2. (C)
Rings
Hats
Chairs Cars 5. (E) Shirts

Or Suits Bangles

Trucks Or
Beads
Chairs Hats

Shirts

Bangles Rings
Cars
Bricks

Flowers Suits
Goats
Branches Fruits

3. (A)
6. (D)
Bullocks
Tigers Trees
Houses Tapes Roads
40 | Reasoning V.

Or Threads
Walls
Fruits
Tapes

Roads 10 (C)
Lamps
Branches

Trees
Rays Kites
Clouds
Rains Or
Skies
Kites
7. (B)
Rays

Planets Lamps
Stars

Or Threads
Skies Rains Walls
Tables Wheels Chalks

11. (A)

Chairs Boards
Stars Clouds
Planets Or
Birds Boards
Flowers Chalks
8. (C) Nets
Tables

Mountains
Goats
Wheels
Or Chairs

Nets 12. (B)

Birds

Flowers

Goats Mountains
Or
Knives
Sticks Clothes

Shirts Pants
9. (D) Spoons

Napkins
Pans
Bowls
 Reasoning V. | 41

13. (A) 16. (B)

Or
Or

17. (E)
14. (C)

Or
Or

15. (D)

Exercise
Directions—(Q. 1–6) In each of the ques-
tions below are given three statements followed
Or by two conclusions numbered I & II. You have to
take the given statements to be true even if they
seem to be at variance from commonly known
facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide
which of the given conclusions logically follows
from the given statements disregarding commonly
Or known facts.
Windows Give answers :
Doors
(A) If only Conclusion I follows.
(B) If only Conclusion II follows.
(C) If either Conclusion I or II follows.
Roads
(D) If neither Conclusion I nor II follows.
Mountain
(E) If both Conclusions I and II follow.
42 | Reasoning V.
1. Statements :
All forests are villages.
All villages are trains.
All trains are buses.
Conclusions :
I. Some buses are villages.
II. Some trains are forests.
2. Statements :
All books are radios.
No radio is pen.
Some pens are tables.
Conclusions :
I. Some tables are books.
II. Some pens are books.
3. Statements :
All sticks are hotels.
Some hotels are buildings.
Some buildings are windows.
Conclusions :
I. Some windows are hotels.
II. Some buildings are sticks.
4. Statements :
All goats are lions.
Some lions are horses.
All horses are camels.
Conclusions :
I. Some camels are lions.
II. Some camels are goats.
5. Statements :
Some rocks are toys.
Some toys are flowers.
All flowers are pots.
Conclusions :
I. Some pots are rocks.
II. Some pots are toys.
6. Statements :
Some desks are chairs.
Some chairs are benches.
Some benches are roads.
Conclusions :
I. Some roads are desks.
II. No road is desk.
Directions—(Q. 7–12) In each of the ques-
tions below are given three statements followed
by two conclusions numbered I & II. You have to
take the given statements to be true even if they
seem to be at variance from commonly known
facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide
which of the given conclusions logically follows
from the given statements disregarding commonly
known facts.
Give answers :
(A) If only Conclusion I follows
(B) If only Conclusion II follows
(C) If either Conclusion I or II follows
(D) If neither Conclusion I nor II follows
(E) If both Conclusions I and II follow
7. Statements : Some boys are flowers.
All flowers are jungles.
All jungles are houses.
Conclusions :
I. Some houses are flowers.
II. Some houses are boys.
8. Statements : All bottles are tanks.
All tanks are drums.
All drums are pipes.
Conclusions :
I. Some pipes are tanks.
II. Some drums are bottles.
9. Statements : All sticks are brushes.
No brush is fruit.
Some fruits are trees.
Conclusions :
I. Some trees are sticks.
II. No tree is stick.
10. Statements : Some spoons are pots.
All pots are cups.
Some cups are cards.
Conclusions :
I. Some cards are spoons.
II. Some cups are spoons.
11. Statements : Some keys are locks.
Some locks are doors.
Some doors are windows.
 Reasoning V. | 43

Conclusions : (D) All I, II and III follow

I. Some windows are locks. (E) None of these
II. Some doors are keys.
15. Statements :
12. Statements : All buses are trains.
Some trains are coaches. All baskets are apples.
All coaches are stations. Some apples are bananas.
Conclusions : All bananas are grapes.
I. Some stations are trains. Conclusions :
II. Some coaches are buses. I. Some grapes are baskets.
Directions—(Q. 13–17) In each of the ques- II. Some grapes are apples.
tions below are given three statements followed by III. Some bananas are baskets.
three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have (A) Only I follows
to take the given statements to be true even if they (B) Only II follows
seem to be at variance from commonly known (C) Only III follows
facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide (D) Only I and II follow
which of the given conclusions logically follows (E) None of these
from the given statements disregarding commonly
known facts. 16. Statements :
All fruits are jungles.
13. Statements :
All leaves are jungles.
Some trains are mats.
All rains are jungles.
All mats are sofas.
Some sofas are umbrellas. Conclusions :
Conclusions : I. Some rains are leaves.
I. Some umbrellas are mats. II. Some rains are fruits.
II. Some umbrellas are trains. III. No rain is leaf.
III. Some sofas are trains. (A) None follows
(A) None follows (B) Only I follows
(C) Only II follows
(B) Only I follows
(D) Only III follows
(C) Only II follows
(E) Only either I or III follows
(D) Only III follows
(E) Only I and III follow 17. Statements :
Some chairs are houses.
14. Statements :
All houses are windows.
All plates are cups.
No window is tree.
All cups are bowls.
Conclusions :
All bowls are jars. I. No chair is tree.
Conclusions : II. Some houses are trees.
I. Some jars are bowls. III. Some windows are chairs.
II. Some bowls are plates. (A) None follows
III. Some jars are cups.
(B) Only I follows
(A) Only I and II follow (C) Only III follows
(B) Only II and III follow (D) Only II follows
(C) Only I and III follow (E) Only II and III follow
44 | Reasoning V.

Directions—(Q. 18–22) In each question II. Some knives are papers.

below are three statements followed by three con- III. Some wheels are papers.
clusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take (A) Only I and II follow
the three given statements to be true even if they (B) Only I and III follow
seem to be at variance from commonly known (C) Only II and III follow
facts and then decide which of the given con-
(D) All I, II and III follow
clusions logically follows from the three given
(E) None of these
statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Then, decide which of the answers (A), (B), (C), 21. Statements :
(D) and (E) is the correct answer and indicate your All tables are doors.
correct response ? No door is window.
18. Statements : Some windows are walls.
All desks are pillars.
Conclusions :
Some pillars are tents.
I. Some walls are tables.
All tents are buckets.
II. Some windows are tables.
Conclusions :
I. Some buckets are pillars. III. Some doors are tables.
II. Some buckets are desks. (A) None follows
III. Some tents are desks. (B) Only I follows
(A) None follows (C) Only II follows
(B) Only I follows (D) Only III follows
(C) Only II follows (E) Only II and III follow
(D) Only III follows 22. Statements :
(E) Only I and III follow Some sofas are glasses.
19. Statements : All glasses are pens.
Some chairs are hotels. Some pens are houses.
Some hotels are jugs. Conclusions :
Some jugs are baskets. I. Some houses are glasses.
II. Some pens are sofas.
Conclusions :
III. Some houses are sofas.
I. Some jugs are chairs.
II. Some baskets are chairs. (A) None follows
III. No basket is chair. (B) Only I follows
(C) Only II follows
(A) None follows
(D) Only III follows
(B) Only I follows
(E) Only II and III follow
(C) Only II follows
(D) Only III follows Directions—(Q. 23 to 27) In each of the
(E) Only either II or III follows questions below are given four statements follo-
wed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III.
20. Statements : You have to take the given statements to be true
All papers are knives. even if they seem to be at variance from com-
Some knives are pins. monly known facts. Read all the conclusions and
All pins are wheels. then decide which of the given conclusions
Conclusions : logically follows from the given statements disre-
I. Some wheels are knives. garding commonly known facts.

23. Statements :
Some villages are towns.
Some towns are huts.
All huts are rivers.
Some rivers are tents.
Conclusions :
I. Some tents are towns.
II. Some rivers are towns.
III. Some huts are villages.
(A) None follows
(B) Only I follows
(C) Only II follows
(D) Only III follows
(E) Only II and III follow
24. Statements :
All hotels are buses.
Some buses are cars.
All cars are trams.
Some trams are clouds
Conclusions :
I. Some trams are buses.
II. Some trams are hotels.
III. Some clouds are cars.
(A) None follows
(B) Only I follows
(C) Only II follows
(D) Only III follows
(E) Only I and III follow
25. Statements :
All flowers are books.
All books are carpets.
Some carpets are keys.
Some keys are locks.
Conclusions :
I. Some keys are books.
II. Some keys are flowers.
III. Some locks are books.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only II follows
(C) Only III follows
(D) Only I and II follow
(E) None follows
Reasoning V. | 45
26. Statements :
All boxes are cups.
All chairs are cups.
All cups are mirrors.
All tables are mirrors
Conclusions :
I. Some tables are chairs.
II. Some mirrors are boxes.
III. Some mirrors are chairs.
(A) Only I and II follow
(B) Only I and III follow
(C) Only II follows
(D) Only III follows
(E) Only II and III follow
27. Statements :
Some pins are needles.
All needles are ropes.
Some ropes are buckets.
All buckets are trees.
Conclusions :
I. Some buckets are pins.
II. Some ropes are pins.
III. No bucket is pin.
(A) Only either I or III and II follow
(B) Only either I or III follows
(C) Only II follow
(D) Only either I or II and III follow
(E) None of these
Directions—(Q. 28-33) In each of the ques-
tions below are given three statements followed
by three conclusions numbered I, II & III. You
have to take the given statements to be true even if
they seem to be at variance from commonly known
facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide
which of the given conclusions logically follows
from the given statements disregarding commonly
known facts.
28. Statements :
All telephones are wires.
All wires are tents.
All tents are cans.
46 | Reasoning V.

Conclusions : (A) Only I and II follow

I. Some cans are wires. (B) Only I and III follow
II. Some tents are telephones. (C) Only II and III follow
III. Some cans are telephones. (D) All I, II and III follow
(A) Only I and II follow (E) None of these
(B) Only II and III follow 32. Statements :
(C) Only I and III follow Some leaves are baskets.
(D) All I, II and III follow Some baskets are flowers.
(E) None of these Some flowers are lakes.
29. Statements : Conclusions :
Some cards are pictures. I. Some lakes are baskets.
All pictures are paints. II. Some flowers are lakes.
Some paints are nails. III. No lake is basket.
Conclusions : (A) Only I follows
I. Some paints are cards. (B) Only II follows
II. Some nails are cards. (C) Only III follows
III. Some nails are pictures. (D) Only either I or III follows
(A) None follows (B) Only I follows (E) None of these
(C) Only II follows (D) Only III follows 33. Statements :
(E) Only I and II follow All pictures are bands.
30. Statements : Some bands are chairs.
All walls are glasses. Some chairs are tables.
No glass is table. Conclusions :
Some tables are windows. I. Some tables are bands.
Conclusions : II. Some chairs are pictures.
I. Some windows are walls. III. Some tables are pictures.
II. Some tables are walls. (A) None follows
III. Some windows are glasses. (B) Only I follows
(A) None follows (C) Only II follows
(B) Only I follows (D) Only I and II follow
(C) Only II follows (E) Only III follows
(D) Only III follows
Directions—(Q. 34–39) In each question
(E) Only I and II follow
below are three statements followed by three
31. Statements : conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to
All baskets are poles. take the three given statements to be true even if
Some poles are lamps. they seem to be at variance from commonly
All lamps are roads. known facts and then decide which of the given
conclusions logically follows from the three given
Conclusions :
statements disregarding commonly known fact.
I. Some lamps are baskets. Then decide which of the answers (A), (B), (C),
II. Some roads are poles. (D) and (E) is the correct answer and indicate the
III. Some lamps are poles. correct answer.
 Reasoning V. | 47

34. Statements : All cups are benches. Some 38. Statements : Some tables are chairs. All chairs
benches are drums. All drums are kites. are houses. All houses are tents.
Conclusions : Conclusions :
I. Some kites are cups. I. All houses are chairs.
II. Some kites are benches. II. Some tents are chairs.
III. Some drums are cups. III. Some houses are tables.
(A) None follows (B) Only I follows (A) Only I and II follow
(C) Only II follows (D) Only III follows
(B) Only I and III follow
(E) Only II and III follow (C) Only II and III follow
35. Statements : Some bikes are cars. Some cars (D) All I, II and III follow
are trains. Some trains are buses.
(E) None of these
Conclusions :
I. Some buses are cars. 39. Statements : Some boxes are walls. No wall
is roads. All roads are rivers.
II. Some trains are bikes.
Conclusions :
III. Some buses are bikes.
I. Some rivers are walls.
(A) None follows (B) Only I follows
II. Some roads are boxes.
(C) Only II follows (D) Only III follows
III. No wall is river.
(E) Only I and II follow
(A) Only I follow
36. Statements : All dogs are cats. Some cats are
rats. All rats are mats. (B) Only either I or III follows
(C) Only III follows
Conclusions :
I. Some mats are cats. (D) Only II follows
II. Some mats are dogs. (E) Only II and III follow

III. Some rat are cats. Directions—(Q. 40–44) In each of the ques-
tions below are given three statements followed
(A) Only I follows
by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have
(B) Only II follows to take the given statements to be true even if they
(C) Only III follows seem to be at variance from commonly known
(D) Only I and III follow facts. Read both of the conclusions and then
decide which of the given conclusions logically
(E) None of these
follows from the given statements disregarding
37. Statements : All pens are sticks. All sticks are commonly known facts.
rings. All rings are rods.
Read the statements and the conclusions
Conclusions : which follow it and
I. Some rings are pens.
Give answer :
II. Some rods are sticks.
(A) if only conclusion I is true.
III. Some rods are pens.
(B) if only conclusion II is true.
(A) Only I and II follow
(C) if either conclusion I or conclusion II is
(B) Only I and III follow true.
(C) Only II and III follow (D) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II
(D) All I, II and III follow is true.
(E) None of these (E) if both conclusions I and II are true.
48 | Reasoning V.

40. Statements : 45. Statements :

No pen is a mobile. Some desks are chairs.
Some mobiles are bottles. All chairs are tables.
All bottles are papers. Some tables are mats.
Conclusions : Conclusions :
I. Some papers are pens. I. Some mats are desks.
II. All bottles are pens. II. Some tables are desks.
41. Statements : III. Some mats are chairs.
All computers are radios. (A) Only I follows
All radios are televisions. (B) Only II follows
Some televisions are watches. (C) Only III follows
Conclusions : (D) Only II and III follow
I. Some watches are computers. (E) None of these
II. Some televisions are computers. 46. Statements :
42. Statements : All sweets are fruits.
Some desks are chairs. No fruit is pencil.
Some chairs are doors. Some pencils are glasses.
Some doors are walls. Conclusions :
Conclusions : I. Some glasses are sweets.
I. Some walls are chairs. II. Some pencils are sweets.
II. No chair is a wall. III. No glass is sweet.
43. Statements : (A) Only I follows
All stars are fishes. (B) Only II follows
Some fishes are moons. (C) Only III follows
All moons are birds. (D) Only I and III follow
Conclusions : (E) None of these
I. Some birds are fishes.
47. Statements :
II. Some stars are moons.
Some books are flowers.
44. Statements :
Some flowers are chains.
All leaves are roots.
Some chains are hammers.
All stems are roots.
Conclusions :
All roots are flowers.
I. Some hammers are flowers.
Conclusions :
II. Some chains are books.
I. Some flowers are stems.
III. Some hammers are books.
II. Some flowers are leaves.
(A) None follows
Directions—(Q. 45–50) In each question
below are three statements followed by three (B) Only I follows
conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to (C) Only II follows
take the three given statements to be true even if (D) Only III follow
they seem to be at variance from commonly
(E) Only II and III follow
known facts and then decide which of the given
conclusions logically follows from the three given 48. Statements :
statements disregarding commonly known facts. All roofs are cameras.
Then decide which of the answers (A), (B), (C),
(D) and (E) is the correct answer and indicate the Some cameras are photographs.
correct alternative. Some photographs are stores.
 Reasonig V. | 49

Conclusions : (B) Only I and II follow

I. Some stores are cameras. (C) Only I and III follow
II. Some stores are roofs. (D) Only II and III follow
III. Some cameras are roofs. (E) All I, II and III follow
(A) Only I follows 50. Statements :
(B) Only II follows
All buildings are towers.
(C) Only III follows
All towers are roads.
(D) Only II and III follow
All roads are huts.
(E) None of these
Conclusions :
49. Statements :
I. Some roads are buildings.
Some nails are horses.
II. All towers are huts.
All horses are tablets.
III. All huts are roads.
All tablets are crows.
Conclusions : (A) Only I and II follow

I. Some crows are nails. (B) Only I and III follow

II. Some tablets are nails (C) Only II and III follow
III. Some crows are horses. (D) All I, II and III follow
(A) Only I follows (E) None of these

Answers with Explanations

1. (E) 3. (D)
Buses Windows
Villeges Hotels
Trains
Sticks

Forests
Buildings

Or
2. (D) Windows
Sticks
Radios Pens Tables

Books Buildings

Hotels

Or 4. (A)
Radios Pens Goats Camels
Books

Tables

Horses

Lions
50 | Reasoning V.

Or 9. (C) Fruits Trees

Lions
Horses

Brushes Sticks
Or
Camels Sticks
Goats Fruits
5. (B)
Toys Pots Brushes Trees
10. (B) Spoons Cups
Cards

Rocks Flowers
Or Pots
Rocks Toys Or
Cups
Spoons

Pots

Pots
Cards
Flowers
6. (C) 11. (D) Locks Windows
Chairs Roads

Keys Doors

Desks Benches Or

Or Windows
Roads
Chairs Locks
Keys

Doors
Benches
Desks 12. (A) Buses Stations
7. (E) Houses

Boys Jungles

Flowers Trains Coaches

Or
Pipes
8. (E) Buses Stations
Drums

Tanks

Bottles Trains Coaches

 Reasoning V. | 51

13. (D) Windows

Mats Umbrellas
17. (C)

Trees
Chairs Houses
Trains Sofas Or
Or Trees Windows

Trains Mats

Chairs Houses
Sofas
18. (B)
Umbrellas
Desks
Buckets
Jars

Bowls

14. (D)
Cups Pillars Tents

Or
Plates
Desks
Buckets
Apples Bananas

15. (B)

Grapes Pillars Tents

Baskets
19. (E)
Or
Hotels Baskets
Apples Bananas

Chairs Jugs
Grapes
Baskets
Or
16. (E) Baskets
Fruits
Jungles

Leaves Chairs Hotels

Jugs
Rains

Or 20. (A)
Fruits Papers
Wheels
Jungles
Leaves

Rains Knives Pins

52 | Reasoning V.

Or 24. (B)
Papers Hotels Cars
Wheels
Clouds

Knives Pins Trams

Buses
21. (D) Or
Clouds
Doors
Tables Cars

Trams
Windows Walls
Hotels
Buses
Or
Doors Tables 25. (E)
Carpets
Keys
Locks

Windows
Walls
Books
22. (C) Flowers
Sofas Or
Pens
Flowers Books
Carpets
Keys
Houses
Glasses
Or
Sofas Locks
Pens 26. (E)
Glasses Mirror

Chairs
Houses

23. (C)
Villages Huts Tents

Tables Cups
Boxes
Towns Rivers Or
Mirror
Or
Tables
Tents

Towns

Villages

Huts Cups
Rivers Chairs Boxes
 Reasoning V. | 53

27. (A) Or
Trees Glasses Tables
Ropes
Pins
Walls

Windows
Needles Buckets
Baskets Roads
Poles
Or 31. (C)
Pins Ropes
Lamps

Or
Needles Poles
Lamps

Buckets Trees

Cans
Tents Roads
Baskets

Baskets Lakes
28. (D)
32. (E)

Wires
Leaves Flowers
Telephones
Or
Cards
Paints Lakes
Baskets
29. (B) Nails

Leaves
Pictures
Flowers

Or Bands Chairs

Cards
Paints 33. (A)
Pictures

Tables
Pictures
Nails Or
Pictures Tables
Glasses Tables

30. (A) Walls

Bands
Windows Chairs
54 | Reasoning V.

Benches Kites Walls Rivers

34. (C) 39. (B)

Boxes
Cups Roads
Drums
Or Or
Walls Rivers
Benches Kites

Boxes
Cups Drums Roads
Cars Buses Or
Rivers
35. (A)
Roads
Bikes Trains
Or
Bikes Cars Boxes Walls
40. (D)
Pen
Papers
Mobile
Trains Buses
Mobile
Cats Mats Or

36. (D) Pen Bottles Paper Bottles

41. (B)
Dogs Rats
Radio Television Radio Television
Or
Cats Mats Or

Watches Watches
Computer Computer
Dogs Rats 42. (A)
Sticks Rods Doors
Desk

Desk Doors
37. (D) Pens Or
Chairs

Chairs Walls Walls

Rings

Chairs Tents 43. (A)

Fishes Birds Fishes Birds

38. (C) Or

Tables Houses Stars Moons Stars Moons

 Reasoning V. | 55

44. (E) Leaves Stems Flowers Hammers

Flower

47. (A)
Roots
Or
Books Chains
Stems
Leaves Or
Flower Roots
Books Hammers
45. (B)
Tables
Desks

Chains Flowers

Cameras
Mats Photographs
Chairs

Or 48. (C)
Tables
Desks
Roofs Stores

Or
Mats Cameras
Photographs
Chairs
Or Roofs
Tables
Desks

Stores

Chairs
Mats 49. (E) Crows
Fruits
Pencils
Nails
Tablets
46. (D) Horses

50. (A)
Glasses
Buildings
Sweets
Or
Fruits Pencils
Huts

Roads
Glasses
Sweets Towers
Objective Arithmetic
 1
Four Fundamental Rules
Example 1. and Suresh is Rs. 100, what is the daily wage of
What is the product of the greatest number of Suresh ?
five digits and smallest number of four digits ? Solution :
Solution : Total of daily wages of Sandeep, Naresh and
The greatest number of five digits Suresh = Rs. 200
= 99999 and total of daily wages of Sandeep, and
and the smallest number of four digits Suresh = Rs. 150
= 1000 ∴ Daily wage of Naresh = 200 – 150
∴ Product = 99999 × 1000 = Rs. 50
= 99999000 Ans. But the total of daily wages of Naresh and
Example 2. Suresh = Rs. 100
∴ Daily wages of Suresh = 100 – 50
If 5 dozen bananas cost Rs. 9, what is the cost
of 20 bananas ? = Rs. 50 Ans.
Solution : Exercise
1. When the greatest number of four digits is
5 dozen bananas = 5 × 12
subtracted from the smallest number of six
= 60 bananas digits the result is ?
∴
C. P. of 60 bananas = Rs. 9 (A) 99001 (B) 9901
9 (C) 99901 (D) 90001
∴ C. P. of 1 banana = Rs. (E) None of these
60
9 × 20 2. If $ 875 is equal to Rs. 10000, then how
∴ C. P. of 20 bananas = Rs. many dollars are equivalent to Rs. 1400 ?
60
= Rs. 3 Ans. (A) $ 121·50 (B) $ 122
Example 3. (C) $ 115·50 (D) $ 127·50
Ram is older than Shyam by 5 years and (E) None of these
Shyam is younger than Mohan by 3 years. If Ram 11 × 11 – 21
is 30 years old, what is the age of Mohan ? 3. =?
9×6–2 × 2
Solution : 21
(A) 0 (B)
Age of Ram = 30 years 52
∴ Age of Shyam = 30 – 5 = 25 years 1
(C) 2 (D)
2
∴ Age of Mohan = 25 + 3 = 28 years
Ans. (E) 20
Example 4. 4. 4312 – 879 + 1362 – 173 = ?
Total of daily wages of Sandeep, Naresh and (A) 4132 (B) 4624
Suresh is Rs. 200. If total of daily wages of (C) 4264 (D) 5524
Sandeep and Suresh is Rs. 150 and that of Naresh (E) None of these
4 | R. Arith.

5. 96 ÷ 24 × 4 ÷ 2 = ? Prakash earn Rs. 94 per day and Bipin and

(A) 5 (B) 8 Chandra Prakash earn Rs. 76 per day, then
(C) 2 (D) 16 Chandra Prakash’s earning per day is :
(E) None of these (A) Rs. 56 (B) Rs. 75
(C) Rs. 20 (D) Rs. 39
(108 + 96)
6. What is the value of 24 + ×2=? (E) None of these
12
(A) 82 (B) 58 13. 3207 – 976 – 1781 = ?
(C) 80 (D) 72 (A) 452 (B) 4012
(E) None of these (C) 442 (D) 2241
7. Which of the following numbers can be divi- (E) None of these
ded by the maximum number of numbers ? 14. If the rate of exchange is $ 7·50 for Rs. 100,
(e.g. the number 20 can be divided by 1, 2, 4, then how many dollars will be equal to
5 and 10 i.e. 5 numbers). Rs. 550 ?
(A) 64 (B) 36 (A) $ 41·75 (B) $ 42·25
(C) 48 (D) 30 (C) $ 42·75 (D) $ 40·50
(E) 50 (E) None of these
6
8. 12 ÷ 8 × 3 – 3 × = ? 15. 576 ÷ (36 + 12) = ?
5
(A) 28 (B) 11
(A) 2 (B) –2
(C) 12 (D) 22
1 9
(C) 1 (D) (E) None of these
4 10
(E) None of these 16. The sum of two numbers is 97 and their diffe-
rence is 37. Find out their product.
(36 – 4) ÷ 8 – 4
9. =? (A) 2010 (B) 8040
4 × 8 – 2 × 16 + 1
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2128 (D) 1914
63 (E) None of these
(C) 8 (D)
2 17. How many numbers are divisible by 7 bet-
(E) None of these ween 4 and 100 ?
102 ÷ 21 (A) 9 (B) 11
10. =? (C) 17 (D) 14
204 ÷ 42
1 (E) None of these
(A) (B) 4
4 18. In an election, Ashok, Mahesh and Pramod
1 got altogether 150 votes. Ashok and Pramod
(C) 1 (D)
2 together got 94 votes, Mahesh and Pramod
(E) None of these together got 76 votes. How many votes did
Pramod get ?
11. Inland postal rates for letters are – for the first
10 gms 50 paise and 15 paise for every (A) 76 (B) 56
additional 10 gms or part of it. If Sanjay (C) 20 (D) 74
wishes to send a letter weighing 27 gms. (E) None of these
What will be the postal charges ? 19. If the largest three digit number is subtracted
(A) 80 paise (B) Rs. 2·75 from the smallest five digit number, then the
(C) Rs. 2·60 (D) 60 paise balance is :
(E) None of these (A) 9000 (B) 901
12. If Amar, Bipin and Chandra Prakash earn (C) 1 (D) 9001
Rs. 150 per day while Amar and Chandra (E) None of these
 R. Arith. | 5

20. Thrice a number plus two times the same (D) 40 × 25 + 25 × 5

number equals 100. Find the number : (E) None of these
(A) 25 (B) 30 24. A number when divided by 105 leaves 99 as
(C) 35 (D) 40 remainder. What will be the remainder if the
(E) None of these number is divided by 21 ?
21. A number is three less than 4 times another. (A) 99 (B) 20
If their sum is equal to 32, then the greatest (C) 14 (D) 16
number is : (E) None of these
(A) 68 (B) 93 25. A man offers 2 flowers on even days, 3
(C) 105 (D) 72 flowers on odd days divisible by 3 and offer 2
(E) None of these extra flowers on the days divisible by 5, how
22. The population of a town exceeds one-fifth of many flowers did he offer in April 1984 ?
its own population by 5000. What is the (A) 87 (B) 89
population of the town ? (C) 88 (D) 90
(A) 25000 (B) 10000 (E) None of these
(C) 6250 (D) 4000 26. In an auditorium containing 310 persons, the
(E) None of these total number of men and women was 220,
23. Which of the following is equal to the pro- that of children and women 265. How many
duct of 45 × 25 ? women were in the auditorium ?
(A) 40 × 20 + 5 × 5 (A) 45 (B) 90
(B) 45 × 20 + 5 × 5 (C) 175 (D) 185
(C) 40 × 25 + 5 × 5 + 5 × 5 (E) None of these

2
Decimal Fractions
Addition and Subtraction of Decimal—
While doing a sum of addition or subtraction, the
following steps should be executed :
1. The number should be placed in columns
in ones under ones, tenths under tenths
etc.
2. The decimal points should form one
column.
3. The numbers are added or subtracted in
the same way as whole numbers.
4. The decimal point is put in the answer
directly under the column of decimals.
Multiplication of Decimals—Ignore the
decimal point and multiply the two numbers as the
whole numbers in the products; put a decimal
point after as many places from the right as there
are in the multiplier and multiplicand together.
Division of Decimals—When the divisor is a
whole number, perform the division as in the case
of whole number. In the quotient, put a decimal
point after as many places from the right as there
are in the dividend.
When the divisor is a decimal, remove the
decimal point of the divisor to the right until it
becomes a whole number. Next remove the deci-
mal point of the dividend by the same number of
places to the right adding zeroes. Then proceed to
divide as given above.
Example 1.
Simplify : 16 – 3·60 ÷ 0·4 of 0·3 × 0·5
Solution :
16 – 3·60 ÷ 0·4 of 0·3 × 0·5
1
= 16 – 3·60 × × 0·5
0·12
∴ = 16 – 15 = 1 Ans.
6 | R. Arith.

Example 2. (C) 4 (D) 18

1·7 × 1·7 – 1·3 × 1·3 (E) None of these
Simplify :
(1·7 – 1·3) 7. What decimal fraction of 0·3 metres is 6
Solution : centimetres ?
(A) 0·2 (B) 0·18
1·7 × 1·7 – 1·3 × 1·3
(1·7 – 1·3) (C) 1·2 (D) 0·02
(1·7)2 – (1·3)2 (E) None of these
= 170
(1·7 – 1·3) 8. What is the value of in decimals ?
(1·7 + 1·3) (1·7 – 1·3) 272
= (A) 0·170 (B) 0·375
(1·7 – 1·3)
= 1·7 + 1·3 = 3 Ans. (C) 0·625 (D) 0·127
(E) None of these
Exercise 9. 0·319 ÷ 2·9 = ?
1. If 434 ÷ 14 = 31, then the value of 0·000434 ÷ (A) 11 (B) 1·1
0·14 is : (C) 0·11 (D) 0·011
(A) 0·31 (B) 0·031 (E) None of these
(C) 0·0031 (D) 310000
10. 41·01 + 9·9 + 18·77 = ?
(E) 0·00031 (A) 60·77 (B) 69·78
2. A shopkeeper bought 6 tons of wheat and
(C) 68·87 (D) 69·68
sold 4·7 tons out of it. How many kilograms
of wheat has he with him now ? (E) None of these
(A) 130 (B) 13 11. 0·5 – 0·0036 = ?
(C) 1300 (D) 1·3 (A) 0·4964 (B) 0·4864
(E) None of these (C) 0·4854 (D) 0·4954
(E) None of these
3. 42·837 – ? = 29·8 + 13
12. 0·135 ÷ 2·7 = ?
(A) 0·37 (B) 3·7
(A) 0·5 (B) 0·0005
(C) 0·037 (D) 0·0037
(C) 0·005 (D) 0·05
(E) None of these
(E) None of these
0·1 × 0·1 + 0·02
4. Simplify : =? 13. 4·2 – 1·4 ÷ 0·7 = ?
0·2 × 0·2 + 0·01
(A) 4 (B) 2·2
3 12
(A) (B) (C) 2·1 (D) 0·4
5 41
(E) None of these
3 8
(C) (D) 14. There are 12 cases of apples with each case
41 9
containing 12 boxes and each box holding 18
(E) None of these apples. If all the 12 cases were sold for
5. Which of the following is equal to : Rs. 1632·96, what will be the price of a dozen
3·14 × 106 ? apples ?
(A) 314 (B) 314000 (A) Rs. 5·56 (B) Rs. 6·56
(C) 3140000 (D) 3140 (C) Rs. 7·56 (D) Rs. 10
(E) None of these (E) None of these
36 15. How many pieces, each of length 4·5 m can
6. =? be cut of 225 m of wire ?
4
29 – (A) 45 (B) 50
0·2
4 (C) 90 (D) 25
(A) (B) 2 (E) None of these
3
 R. Arith. | 7

3
H.C.F. and L.C.M.
H.C.F. stands for ‘Highest Common Factor’. Solution :
H.C.F. of two or more numbers is the largest 86 – 52 = 34
number which divides each of them exactly.
120 – 86 = 34
L.C.M. stands for ‘Lowest Common Multi-
ple’. L.C.M. of two or more numbers is the The H.C.F. of 34 and 34 = 34
smallest number which is exactly divisible by ∴ Largest number is = 34 Ans.
each of them. Exercise
Fundamental Rules : 1. Find the simplest number which is divisible
1. Multiplication of both the numbers of by 12, 15, 20 and is a perfect square.
L.C.M. and H.C.F. (A) 400 (B) 623
= Multiplication of both numbers. (C) 900 (D) 1000
2. L.C.M. of fraction (E) 180
L.C.M. of Numerator 2. Which is the smallest positive number, which
= when divided by 3, 4 and 5 will have a re-
H.C.F. of Denominator
3. H.C.F. of fraction mainder of 2 ?
(A) 22 (B) 42
H.C.F. of Numerator
= (C) 62 (D) 122
L.C.M. of Denominator
(E) 60
Example 1.
3. Find the least number which when divided by
Find out the L.C.M. of 90, 126, 135 and 255. 8, 9, 12 and 15, leaves the remainder 1.
Solution : (A) 359 (B) 181
2 90, 126, 135, 255 (C) 179 (D) 361
(E) None of these
3 45, 63, 135, 255
4. The largest number that divides 245 and
3 15, 21, 45, 85 1029, leaving remainder 5 in each case is :
5 5, 7, 15, 85 (A) 16 (B) 18
1, 7, 3, 17 (C) 17 (D) 15
∴ L.C.M. = 2 × 3 × 3 × 3 × 5 × 7 × 17 (E) None of these
= 32130 Ans. 5. Two containers contain 60 and 165 litres of
Example 2. milk, respectively. Find the maximum capa-
The L.C.M. of two numbers is 112 and the city of a container which can measure the
H.C.F. is 4. If one number is 28, find out the other milk in each container an exact number of
number. times.
(A) 5 (B) 15
Solution :
(C) 3 (D) 10
L.C.M. × H.C.F.
Reqd. number = (E) None of these
First Number
6. A person has three iron bars whose lengths
112 × 4
= = 16 Ans. are 10, 15 and 20 metres respectively. He
28 wants to cut the longest possible pieces, all of
Example 3. the same length from each of the three bars.
What is the greatest number which leaves the What is the length of each piece, if he is to cut
same number as remainder when it divides 52, 86 without any wastage ?
and 120 ? (A) 3 metre (B) 30 metre
8 | R. Arith.

(C) 15 metre (D) 5 metre 11. What is the smallest number which when
(E) None of these divided by 12 leaves 10, when divided by 16
7. Two baskets contain, respectively, 195 and leaves 14 and when divided by 24 leaves 22
250 bananas which are distributed in equal as remainder ?
number among children. Find the largest (A) 140 (B) 46
number of bananas that can be given, so that 3 (C) 64 (D) 94
bananas are left over from the first basket and (E) None of these
2 from the second. 12. What is the highest number of three digits
(A) 8 (B) 18 which will leave a remainder of 1 when
(C) 4 (D) 6 divided by any of the numbers 6, 9, 12, 15 or
(E) None of these 18 ?
8. Traffic light at one particular crossing changes (A) 998 (B) 181
after every 40 seconds. The traffic light at the (C) 899 (D) 901
next crossing changes after every 32 seconds. (E) None of these
At a certain time they change together. After 13. The greatest number that must be taken out
what time will they again change together ? from 999, such that the resulting number may
(A) 64 seconds (B) 160 seconds be divisible by 10, 15 and 18 is :
(C) 80 seconds (D) 8 seconds (A) 909 (B) 9
(E) None of these (C) 900 (D) 180
9. The L.C.M. of two numbers is 280 and their (E) None of these
H.C.F. is 7. One of the numbers is 35. Find 14. Find the least number divisible by 4, 6, 8 and
the other number. 20 and it must be a perfect square also.
(A) 56 (B) 28 (A) 900 (B) 400
(C) 42 (D) 49 (C) 3600 (D) 1800
(E) None of these (E) None of these
2 6 8 15. Find the least number which when divided by
10. The L.C.M. , and is :
5 25 35 8, 12 and 16 leaves 3 as remainder in each
12 2 case, but when divided by 7, leaves no
(A) (B)
5 175 remainder ?
24 24 (A) 84 (B) 98
(C) (D)
5 175 (C) 126 (D) 112
(E) None of these (E) 147

4
Vulgar Fraction
When several fractions are connected by the Example 1.
sign +, –, × , ÷ ‘of’; the order of simplification Which fraction is greatest in the following ?
should be as given below : 2 3 4
, ,
BODMAS 15 10 21
1. First of all ‘of’ should be simplified. 28‚ 63‚ 40
2. Then ÷ should be simplified. It should be Solution :
210
changed in × and the term on its right 28 63 40 63
hand must be inverted. < and < is greatest.
210 210 210 210
3. Then × should be simplified. 3
4. In the end comes + and –. Hence, is the greatest fraction. Ans.
10
 R. Arith. | 9

Example 2. 4 7 7
4. × ÷ =?
Simplify : 6 + 42 ÷ 7 of 3. 5 12 24
Solution : 8 5
(A) (B)
5 8
Given expression = 6 + 42 ÷ 7 of 3
= 6 + 42 ÷ (7 × 3) 3 7
(C) (D)
1 8 8
= 6 + 42 × (E) None of these
21
= 6+2=8 Ans. 5. Which of the following set of fraction is in
Example 3. descending order ?
4 7 9 13 13 9 7
If the value of part of the land is Rs. 1680. (A) , , (B) , ,
5 12 17 24 24 17 12
Then what is the value of the half part of the land ? 9 13 7 7 13 9
(C) , , (D) , ,
Solution : 17 24 12 12 24 17
∴ 4 (E) None of these
The value of part of the land
5 2
= Rs. 1680 6. Mukesh has rd of the money that Sunil has
3
∴ The value of 1 part of the land 3
and Sunil has th of the money that Panna
1680 × 5 5
=
4 has. Panna has Rs. 400 with him. Then how
1 much money does Mukesh have ?
∴ The value of part of the land
2 (A) Rs. 266·67 (B) Rs. 16
1680 × 5 (C) Rs. 2000 (D) Rs. 160
=
4×2 (E) None of these
= Rs. 1050 Ans.
7. Pramod got one third marks of Arithmetic in
Exercise English. If the total marks obtained by him in
1 1 1 both the subjects is 128, then how many
1. 4 +3 +2 =? marks did he get in Arithmetic ?
2 6 3
(A) 11 (B) 12 (A) 96 (B) 64
3 (C) 32 (D) 16
(C) 9 (D) 10 (E) None of these
4
5 8. Which is the greatest fraction ?
(E) 9
6 5 2
(A) (B)
3 2 9 3
2. of 68 is less than of 114 by :
4 3 3 5
(C) (D)
(A) 12 (B) 25 8 6
(C) 35 (D) 48 (E) All are equal
(E) None of these 9. Which of the following fractions is more than
1 1 1 3
3. + ÷ = ? ?
2 2 2 4
1 35 13
(A) (B) 1 (A) (B)
2 71 20
3 3 19 71
(C) (D) (C) (D)
2 4 24 101
(E) None of these (E) None of these
10 | R. Arith.

1 1 2 1 5 1
10. +1 + =2 16. 8 – + = ?
2 3 ? 7 8 6
(A) 2 (B) 3 1291 1491
(A) (B)
(C) 6 (D) 12 168 168
(E) None of these 11 1289
(C) 8 (D)
12 168
11. If three times of a number is greater than (E) None of these
3/5th of it by 60, what is the number ?
(A) 25 (B) 20
1
17. 7 ÷
2 (279 + 3127 ) = ?
(C) 30 (D) 60
229 51
(E) None of these (A) (B) 1
270 229
12. By how much is three-fourths of 64 greater 41 41
(C) 2 (D) 1
than two-thirds of 48 ? 229 229
(A) 32 (B) 14 (E) None of these
(C) 18 (D) 26 18. How much more is 2/5 of 105 than 3/4 of 48 ?
(E) None of these (A) 5 (B) 6
13. What is the least number which must be added (C) 7 (D) 8
3 (E) None of these
to 15 to make it an odd integer ?
5 19. Which of the following fraction is the largest?
2 2 10 14
(A) (B) 1 (A) (B)
5 5 11 15
2 2 12 13
(C) 2 (D) 3 (C) (D)
5 5 13 14
(E) None of these 11
(E)
1 7 1 12
14. 2 ÷ ×1 =?
17 10 33 1 1 1 1
2 ×4 –4 ÷6
1 3 4 6 4
(A) 3 20. =?
33 1 1 2
3 ÷4 ×5
1 3 4 3
(B) 2 1 21
33 (A) 21 (B) 2
1 62 160
(C) 4 13 7
22 (C) 2 (D)
1 160 1000
(D) 3 (E) None of these
22
(E) None of these 37 .
21. The difference between two numbers is 9
75
2 1 1 8 ,
15. 5 ×3 +2 =? If one of them is 3 the other is :
3 6 3 15
7 5 2 4
(A) 20 (B) 20 (A) 13 (B) 13
18 18 75 75
1 1 72 61
(C) 20 (D) 20 (C) 5 (D) 5
18 9 75 75
(E) None of these (E) None of these
 R. Arith. | 11

5
Square Root
The square root of a number is one of the two 9 ×9 =9
equal numbers which if multiplied together =
produce that number. 8 ×8 8
The square root of any number is denoted by 1
= 1 Ans.
symbol ‘(√)’. 8
Square root of fraction Example 4.
Square root of numerator Some persons contributed Rs. 1089. Each
= person gave as many rupees as they were in
Square root of denominator
number. Find their number.
Example 1.
Solution :
Find the square root of 3572100. Suppose the number of persons were x.
∴
Solution : x × x = 1089
1 8 9 0 ⇒ x2 = 1089
———
1 3 57 21 00 ∴ x = √ ⎯⎯⎯⎯
1089
1 = 33
28 257 Hence the number of persons = 33 Ans.
224
Exercise
369 3321
3321 1.
⎯⎯⎯
√ 196
×
17
×
78
=?
× 14 ⎯⎯⎯
√ 289 √⎯⎯169
Hence the square root of 3572100 is (A) 1 (B) 2
= ± 1890 Ans. (C) 6 (D) 4
Example 2. (E) 13
Find the square root of 0·9. ?
2. = 250
Solution : ⎯⎯·25
√
·94 (A) 500 (B) 125
—— (C) 5 (D) 0
9 · 90 00
81 (E) 100
184 900 189
3. = 1·89
736 ⎯?
√
164 (A) 10 (B) 100
(C) 1000 (D) 10000
∴ √ ⎯⎯⎯⎯
·9000 = ± ·94 approximately Ans. (E) None of these
Example 3. 4. A certain number of people collected Rs. 529.
17 If each person contributed as many rupees as
Find the value of 1 they were in number, find the number of
64
persons.
Solution :
(A) 22 (B) 21
17 81 (C) 23 (D) 43
1 =
64 64 (E) 33
12 | R. Arith.

5. √
⎯⎯12 + ⎯√⎯24 equals costing Rs. 13. If the teacher’s contribution is
Rs. 4, then the number of the boys in the class
(A) 2 √
⎯ 6 + 2√
⎯3 (B) √
⎯⎯36 is :
(C) √
⎯⎯⎯
288 (D) 6 √
⎯2 (A) 3
(E) None of these (B) 30
(C) 90
6. Find √
⎯⎯⎯
100 + ⎯
√⎯49 (D) Cannot be determined exactly
(A) √
⎯⎯⎯
149 (B) 17 (E) None of these
(C) √
⎯⎯⎯
490 (D) √
⎯⎯14 + ⎯√⎯10 10. There are two grades A and B of workers in a
(E) None of these workshop. Every worker contributes as many
rupees as there are workers of his own
⎯⎯⎯
√ 1·21 0·12 category. If the total amount contributed is
7. + =? Rs. 196 including Rs. 16 contributed by the
0·11 ⎯⎯18
√ owner of the workshop, what is the total
1 3 number of workers in that workshop ?
(A) 12 (B)
3 4 (A) 18 (B) 14
1 1
(C) 1 (D) 11 (C) 12 (D) 10
3 3
(E) None of these
(E) None of these
11. A man plants 22801 trees in his garden. There
8. Each student in a class contributed as many were as many trees in one row as the number
rupees as the number of students in the class of rows. Find the number of rows.
for a picnic. The school contributed Rs. 150
per teacher who led the trip. If the total (A) 171 (B) 751
amount collected was Rs. 1,350 and the num- (C) 151 (D) 161
ber of teachers who led the trip was 3, how (E) None of these
many students were there in that class ? 12. A gardener plants an orchard with 5776 trees.
(A) 30 (B) 35 In each row there were as many trees as the
(C) 34 (D) 36 number of rows. Find the number of rows.
(E) None of these (A) 76 (B) 186
9. In a class each boy contributed as many paise (C) 66 (D) 96
as the number of boys so as to purchase a gift (E) None of these

6
Percentage
Percentage means for every hundred. A ∴ The income of Dinesh = 100 + 150
fraction whose denominator is 100 is known as ∴ = Rs. 250
per cent. The numerator of the fraction is known The income of Dinesh is Rs. 250 then
as the Rate of Per cent. It is denoted by %. income of Mahesh = 100
Example 1. ∴ The income of Dinesh is Rs. 100 then
100 × 100
If the income of Dinesh is 150% higher than income of Mahesh =
250
Mahesh. Then by what per cent the income of = Rs. 40
Mahesh is less than Dinesh ? ∴
The difference in the income of Dinesh
Solution : and Mahesh = 100 – 40 = 60
Therefore, the income of Mahesh is 60% less
Suppose the income of Mahesh = Rs. 100 than Dinesh. Ans.
 R. Arith. | 13

Example 2. (A) Rs. 8700 (B) Rs. 7395

What is 35% of 800 ? (C) Rs. 8495 (D) Rs. 8295
Solution : (E) None of these
35 1
35% of 800 = of 800 5. Find the value of 12 % of Rs. 400 :
100 2
35
= × 800 (A) 44 (B) 48
100
(C) 50 (D) 55
= 280 Ans.
(E) 60
Example 3.
What is that number whose 15% is 1800 ? 6. A man’s wage was reduced by 50% and again
Solution : the reduced wage was increased by 50%.
What is his loss ?
Suppose that number is = x.
(A) Nothing (B) 25%
∴ 15x
15% of x = (C) 40% (D) 50%
100
(E) 30%
15x
⇒ = 1800 7. There is 15 litres of a 20% alcohol mixture, 3
100
1800 × 100 litres of water are added to it. What is the
∴ x = strength of the resultant volume ?
15
= 12,000 Ans. (A) 17% (B) 15%
Example 4. (C) 18·5% (D) 16·67%
2 (E) 20%
What is the % of ?
5 8. What single discount is equivalent to two
Solution : successive discounts of 10% and 15% ?
2 2 1 (A) 20% (B) 40%
The per cent of = ×
5 5 100 (C) 23·5% (D) 30%
= 0·004 Ans. (E) None of these
Exercise 9. 6 students in a class failed in maths. This
2
1. 75% of 48 is : represents 16 % of the class. How many
3
(A) 24 (B) 36 students were there in the class ?
(C) 45 (D) 60 (A) 48 (B) 36
(E) None of these (C) 42 (D) 30
2. 6·25% of what is Rs. 100 ? (E) None of these
(A) Rs. 1200 (B) Rs. 1400 10. If A’s salary is 10% more than B, then B’s
(C) Rs. 1500 (D) Rs. 1800 salary is less than A by :
(E) None of these 1
(A) 10% (B) 9 %
3. When the price of radio was reduced by 20%, 11
the sale increased by 80%. What was the net 1 10
(C) 11 % (D) 9 %
effect on sale ? 9 11
(A) 44% increase (B) 44% decrease (E) None of these
(C) 66% increase (D) 75% increase 7
11. The value of as a percentage is :
(E) 60% increase 8
7
4. Mr. Chunilal invests 65% of his money in (A) % (B) 78%
8
machinery and 20% in raw material. He is left
with Rs. 1305 cash in hand. How much money (C) 87·5% (D) 75%
did he spend ? (E) None of these
14 | R. Arith.

12. What is 0·1% as a decimal ? (A) 63 (B) 65

(A) 1 (B) 0·1 (C) 66 (D) 64
(C) 0·01 (D) 0·001 (E) None of these
(E) None of these 17. Which of the following multipliers will cause
a number to increase it by 17% ?
1
13. What is 4 % as a fraction ? (A) 11·7 (B) 1·17
6
(C) 117 (D) 0·117
1 1 (E) None of these
(A) (B)
48 18
1 2 9
18. 35% of =?
(C) (D) 21
24 3
(A) 0·25 (B) 15
(E) None of these
(C) 1·5 (D) 0·15
14. 60% of 60 + 50% of 50 = ? (E) None of these
(A) 11 (B) 86 4
(C) 85 (D) 110 19. 63% of 4 = ?
9
(E) None of these (A) 2·6 (B) 2·7
15. Jayesh purchased 15 dozen toys from a (C) 2·8 (D) 2·4
company. The company offers 5% discount (E) None of these
on the printed price of the first 5 dozen toys 20. Praveen’s income increases by 25% and
and 10% discount on the next 10 dozen toys 1
to Jayesh. If the total discount is Rs. 12·50, becomes 1 times to that of Rakesh. What
2
what was the printed price of the toys per were the total emoluments of Praveen before
dozen ? the increase ?
(A) Rs. 1·25 (B) Rs. 15 (A) Rs. 1875
(C) Rs. 10 (D) Rs. 12·50 (B) Rs. 3750
(E) None of these (C) Rs. 120
1 (D) Cannot be determined
16. What per cent of 70 is 46 ? (E) None of these
5

7
Ratio and Proportion
A ratio is always the relation between two If your quantities are in proportion then the
quantities of the same kind. The ratio is obtained product of means is equal to the product of
by dividing one quantity by another. The result extremes.
obtained is an abstract number. It has no unit. The Example 1.
ratio may be an integer or fraction. What will be the cost of 32 metres of cloth if
60 metres cost is Rs. 135 ?
When two ratios are equal, we say it is in
Solution :
proportion. If =
a c a
it means is in proportion ∴
b d b 60 : 32 :: 135 : x
c 60 135
with and can be written as a : b : : c : d where a ⇒ =
d 32 x
and d are known as extremes and b and c are 32 × 135
∴ x = = Rs. 72 Ans.
known as means. 60
 R. Arith. | 15

Example 2. (C) 30°C (D) 32°C

In a mixture of 35 litres, the ratio of milk and (E) None of these
water is 4 : 1. Another 7 litres of water is added to
6. Three sons aged 10 years, 6 years and 3 years
the mixture. Find the ratio of milk and water in the
inherit their father’s property in the ratio of
resulting mixture.
their age. The youngest gets Rs. 75,000, what
Solution : A was the total property worth ?
Ratio of milk and water = 4 : 1 (A) Rs. 2,25,000 (B) Rs. 4,75,000
4 (C) Rs. 7,50,000 (D) Rs. 7,00,000
Milk in the mixture = 35 ×
5 (E) None of these
= 28 litres
1 7. 12·5 : ? :: 2·5 : 0·5
Water in the mixture = 35 × (A) 6 (B) 5·5
5
= 7 litres (C) 5·5 (D) 2·5
In the new mixture, milk = 28 litres (E) None of these
In the new mixture, water = 7 + 7 8. What is the weight of 5 metres of a uniform
= 14 litres iron rod if 13 metres of it weighs 23·4 kg. ?
= 28 : 14 (A) 9 kg. (B) 10 kg.
∴ Reqd. ratio = 2 : 1 Ans. (C) 4·68 kg. (D) 6·5 kg.
Exercise (E) None of these
? 63 9. If half the distance is to be covered in twice
1. If = then which of the following num-
28 ? the time, what will be the ratio of the new
bers replaces the question mark ? speed to the original one ?
(A) 14 (B) 21 (A) 1 : 4 (B) 1 : 2
(C) 28 (D) 42 (C) 2 : 1 (D) 4 : 1
(E) None of these (E) None of these
2. Three persons A, B and C distribute Rs. 2,600
10. If ·75 : x : : 5 : 8 then x = ?
in the ratio of 11 : 18 : 23. What is the share
of B ? (A) 1·25 (B) 1·2
(A) Rs. 600 (B) Rs. 900 (C) 1 (D) 6
(C) Rs. 1100 (D) Rs. 1500 (E) None of these
(E) Rs. 2000 3 1 2
11. If : x : : : then x equals :
3. Find the value of ‘X’. 5 : 2 : : 10 : X 5 5 3
(A) 4 (B) 5 (A) 2 (B) 1
(C) 8 (D) 10 (C) 3 (D) 4
(E) 12 (E) None of these
4. In a bag there are coins of 25 paise, 10 paise 12. 8 : 9 : : ? : 3
and 5 paise in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3. If there are in 1 2
all Rs. 30 in the bag, how many coins of 5 (A) 2 (B) 2
3 3
paise are there ?
(A) 50 (B) 100 (C) √
⎯8 (D) 2
(C) 125 (D) 150 (E) None of these
(E) None of these 13. If the shadow of the pole is 15 m, then the
5. From 9 a.m. to 2 p.m. the temperature rose at length of the pole is 6 m. What will be the
a constant rate from 21°C to 36°C. What was length of the pole when the shadow is 25 m
the temperature at noon ? long ?
(A) 28·5°C (B) 27°C (A) 15 m (B) 12 m
16 | R. Arith.

(C) 10 m (D) 20 m (D) The number cannot be found out

(E) None of these (E) None of these
14. The sum of three numbers is 116. The ratio of 15. The sum of present ages of two brothers is 36
second and the third number is 9 : 16 and the years. After 4 years their ages will be 5 : 6.
1st and the third are as 1 : 4, what is second The age of the elder brother is :
number ?
(A) 29 (A) 12 years (B) 16 years
(B) 16 (C) 20 years (D) 30 years
(C) 14 (E) None of these

8
Partnership
When two or more person do combined busi- 19
= × (600 + Pavan’s capital) for 1
ness, it is known as partnership and the persons 2
who take part in business, are called partners : month
Total profit from the business is divided to Investment of Pavan
partners in the ratio of the investments by them. If 15
the period of their investments is different, the = Pavan’s capital for months
2
time during which the amount remains invested in 15
the business is also taken into consideration. = × Pavan’s capital for 1 month
2
Example 1. Investment of Abhay Abhay’s share
Q =
In a business Abhay invests Rs. 600 more Investment of Pavan Pavan’s share
than Pavan. Pavan’s capital remains invested for 19
=
1 12
7 months while Abhay’s capital remains invested
2 (600 + Pavan’s capital) 5
for 2 months more. If the total profit is Rs. 620, =
Pavan’s capital 4
out of which Pavan get Rs. 140 less than Abhay, By cross multiplication
find the capital invested by each. ⇒ 2400 + 4 × Pavan’s capital = 5 × Pavan’s
Solution : capital
Out of Rs. 620, Pavan gets 140 less than ∴ 2400 = 5 × Pavan’s capital – 4 × Pavan’s
Abhay. Hence = Pavan’s capital
620 – 140 Abhay’s capital = Rs. 600 + Pavan’s capital =
Abhay’s share = Rs. 140 + Rs. Rs. 600 + Rs. 2,400 = Rs. 3,000
2
= Rs. 380
Pavan’s share = Rs. 620 – Rs. 380
Abhay’s capital = Rs. 3‚000
Pavan’s capital = Rs. 2‚400 } Ans.

= Rs. 240 Exercise

Abhay’s share : Pavan’s share 1. ‘X’, ‘Y’ and ‘Z’ purchased mangoes, in a
= Rs. 380 : Rs. 240 ratio 5 : 3 : 2. If the total number of mangoes
= 19 : 12 of ‘Y’ and ‘Z’ is 60, find out the number of
Investment of Abhay mangoes of ‘X’.
19 (A) 40 (B) 80
= (Rs. 600 + Pavan’s Capital) for (C) 100 (D) 50
2
months (E) 60
 R. Arith. | 17

2. ‘X’ grazes 10 sheep for 3 weeks, ‘Y’ grazes 6. Ram, Shyam and Hari started a business with
15 sheep for 4 weeks in a field. How should a capital of Rs. 5,000, Rs. 7,000 and
they divide a rent of Rs. 60 ? Rs. 8,000. At the end of the year there is a
(A) 1 : 2 (B) 2 : 1 profit of Rs. 800, find out the share of profit
to Hari.
(C) 3 : 1 (D) Rs. 25 : Rs. 35
(A) Rs. 200 (B) Rs. 320
(E) Rs. 48 : Rs. 12
(C) Rs. 280 (D) Rs. 160
3 In a trade A invested Rs. 9,000 but he with-
drew at the end of the sixth month. But B had (E) None of these
entered the business at the end of the third 7. A, B and C started a business in which they
month with an investment of Rs. 6000. If the contributed Rs. 30,000. Out of the total profit
total profit at the end of the first year of Rs. 7,200; A got Rs. 1,920 and C got
amounted to Rs. 1,352, what will be A’s Rs. 2,880, find the capital invested by B.
share ? (A) Rs. 9,000 (B) Rs. 15,000
(A) Rs. 376 (B) Rs. 476 (C) Rs. 12,000 (D) Rs. 10,000
(C) Rs. 576 (D) Rs. 676 (E) None of these
(E) None of these 8. Mahesh invested Rs. 1,000 for 3 months and
Rajvir invested Rs. 800 for 4 months. If they
4. Krishna started a business with a capital of gained Rs. 620, how much Rajvir will get out
Rs. 9,000. Four months later Rani joined him of it ?
with a capital of Rs. 12,000. At the end of the (A) Rs. 320 (B) Rs. 400
year, total profit earned was Rs. 2,550. Find
Rani’s share in the profit ? (C) Rs. 220 (D) Rs. 350
(E) None of these
(A) Rs. 975 (B) Rs. 1,350
(C) Rs. 1,000 (D) Rs. 1,200 9. A, B and C rented a house for 1 year at
Rs. 288. They remained together for 4 months
(E) Rs. 1,050 and C left afterwards. After 4 months more B
5. Divide Rs. 1,200 in the ratio of 1 : 2 : 3. also left. How much did B pay ?
(A) 300, 350, 450 (B) 200, 400, 600 (A) Rs. 96 (B) Rs. 82
(C) 300, 400, 500 (D) 100, 250, 850 (C) Rs. 92 (D) Rs. 72
(E) None of these (E) None of these

9
Profit and Loss
Cost price (C.P.) is the price at which a Actual loss × 100
particular article is bought. 4. % of loss =
Cost price
Selling price (S.P.) is that price at which a 5. In case of profit, S.P.
particular article is sold.
Important Formulae :
= C.P. ( 100 + % of profit
100 )
1. Profit = S.P. – C.P. In case of loss, S.P.
2. Loss = C.P. – S.P. C.P. (100 – % of loss)
=
Note : The profit or loss per cent is always 100
counted on the C.P. 6. In case of profit, C.P.
Actual profit × 100 S.P. × 100
3. % of Profit = =
Cost price (100 + % of profit)
18 | R. Arith.

In cases of loss, C.P. Exercise

S.P. × 100 1. Dilip buys a radio at 3/4 of its value and sells
=
(100 – % of loss) it for 20% more than its value. What is his
Example 1. gain % ?
Sohan purchased an old car for Rs. 6,200 and (A) 20% (B) 45%
he spent Rs. 1,700 on its repairing. If he sold the (C) 60% (D) 75%
car for Rs. 8,200, what is his profit ? (E) None of these
Solution : 2. Apples cost 5 paise each. They are sold at
C.P. of the old car = Rs. 6,200 20% profit. Find out the selling price of one
and the money spent on its repairing dozen apples.
= Rs. 1,700 (A) 6 paise (B) 60 paise
∴ Total cost of the car (C) 72 paise (D) 80 paise
= 6,200 + 1,700 (E) None of these
= Rs. 7,900 3. If I buy a radio for Rs. 300 and sell it for
But S.P. of the car = Rs. 8,200 Rs. 330, my gain percentage is :
∴ Profit = 8,200 – 7,900 (A) 3% (B) 10%
= Rs. 300 Ans. (C) 15% (D) 20%
Example 2. (E) 30%
Atul sold his watch for Rs. 198 at a profit of 4. An umbrella marked at Rs. 80 is sold for
10%. What was the cost price of the watch ? Rs. 68. What is the rate of discount ?
Solution : (A) 15% (B) 17%
(C) 18·5% (D) 20%
S.P. × 100 (E) None of these
C.P. =
(100 + % of Profit)
5. A man buys a bicycle for Rs. 330 after
198 × 100 receiving 12% discount. What is the marked
=
(100 + 10) price ?
198 × 100 (A) Rs. 375 (B) Rs. 380
= = Rs. 180 Ans.
110 (C) Rs. 369·60 (D) Rs. 342
Example 3. (E) None of these
T.V. was sold for Rs. 1,230 at a loss of 18%. 6. If a merchant makes a profit of 20% based on
If it is sold for Rs. 1,600, find the percentage of the selling price of an article, what profit does
profit or loss. he make based on the cost ?
Solution : (A) 25% (B) 40%
S.P. × 100 (C) 30% (D) 28%
C.P. =
(100 + % of Profit) (E) None of these
1‚230 × 100 7. If price are reduced by 25% and the sales go
=
(100 – 18) up by 20%, what is the effect on the total
1‚230 × 100 money received ?
=
82 (A) Decreased by 5%
= Rs. 1,500 (B) Remain the same
Now, C.P. = Rs. 1,500
(C) Decrease by 10%
and S.P. = Rs. 1,600
(D) Increase by 5%
∴ Actual profit = Rs. 1,600 – Rs. 1,500
= Rs. 100 (E) None of these
100 × 100 8. By selling an electric pump at a cost for
∴ Reqd. % of profit = % Rs. 4,800, a farmer loses one-quarter of what
1‚500
20 2 it cost him. What was the cost price ?
= % = 6 % Ans. (A) Rs. 6,400
3 3
 R. Arith. | 19

(B) Rs. 1,200 (D) Cannot be determined

(C) Rs. 6,000 (E) None of these
(D) Cannot be determined 12. A man sold an article for Rs. 7,200 thus bear-
(E) None of these 1
ing a loss of th of this cost. The cost of the
9. The loss incurred in selling an article for 4
Rs. 19 is as much as the profit made when it article is :
is sold at 5 per cent profit. To get 5 per cent (A) Rs. 8,000 (B) Rs. 7,200
profit what should be its selling price ? (C) Rs. 9,600 (D) Rs. 9,000
(A) Rs. 21 (E) None of these
(B) Rs. 20·50 13. A man sold his watch for Rs. 190 thus bear-
(C) Rs. 19·95 ing a loss of 5%. The cost price of the watch
(D) Cannot be determined is :
(A) Rs. 237·50 (B) Rs. 220
(E) None of these
(C) Rs. 210 (D) Rs. 200
10. Mohandas mixes 10 kg of oil purchased at Rs. (E) None of these
15 per kg with 5 kg of oil purchased at Rs. 10
14. A trader bears a loss of 25% by selling 40
per kg. If he sells the mixture and gets 12·5%
needles for a rupee. How many needle should
profit, what is the selling price of the oil per be sold for a rupee in order to earn a profit of
kg ? 20% ?
(A) Rs. 14 (B) Rs. 15 (A) 23 (B) 20
(C) Rs. 11·25 (D) Rs. 15·75 (C) 25 (D) 27
(E) None of these (E) None of these
11. When the price of a heater was increased by 15. What will be the gain or loss per cent, if the
20 per cent, the number of heaters sold cost price of 20 articles equals the selling
decrease by 20 per cent. What was the effect price of 30 articles ?
on sales ? 1 1
(A) 33 % loss (B) 33 % gain
(A) 4% increase 3 3
(B) 4% decrease (C) 50% loss (D) 50% gain
(C) No effect on sales (E) None of these

10
Work and Time
If the number of workers is increased then the Solution :
time is decreased in the same ratio and if the ∴
Work of 4 men = Work of 7 women
number of workers is decreased then time is
increased in the same ratio. 7×8
⇒ Work of 8 men = Work of
4
Example 1.
= Work of 14 women
If 4 men or 7 women can do a piece of work
in 60 days, how long will 8 men and 7 women 7 + 14 = 21 Women
∴
take to do it ? 7 women can do a work in = 60 days
20 | R. Arith.

∴ 21 women can do a work in 3. One pipe can fill a tank in 40 minutes, another
pipe can empty it in 60 minutes. If both the
60 × 7 pipes are opened at the same time, then how
=
21 much time it will take to fill up the tank ?
= 20 days Ans. (A) 80 minutes (B) 90 minutes
Example 2. (C) 100 minutes (D) 120 minutes
(E) 140 minutes
Two pipes A and B, would fill a cistern in
1 4. 4 men or 6 women can do some work in 12
37 minutes and 45 minutes respectively. Both days. In how many days will 4 men and 12
2
pipes being opened, find when the second pipe women do the same work ?
must be turned off, so that the cistern may be (A) 6 days (B) 24 days
filled in half an hour. (C) 4 days (D) 3 days
(E) None of these
Solution :
5. A man takes 15 minutes to wash 3 shirts and
2 30 minutes to wash and dry 4 shirts and 5
A can fill in 1 minute =
75 vests. If he takes 30 minutes to only wash 2
1 shirts and 10 vests, then what is the time
and B can fill in 1 minute = taken for drying ?
45
(A) 5 minutes (B) 15 minutes
The part of cistern filled by A in half an hour
(C) 10 minutes (D) 0 minute
2 4 (E) None of these
= × 30 =
75 5
6. 15 men work 8 hours per day and require 10
∴ The remaining part of the cistern to be days to build a wall. If 8 men are available,
4 1 how many hours per day must they work to
filled by B = 1– =
5 5 finish the work in 10 days ?
1 (A) 10 hrs. (B) 15 hrs.
Since cistern is filled up by B in = 1 min. (C) 12 hrs. (D) 18 hrs.
45
1 (E) None of these
∴ cistern is filled up by B in 7. If 12 men can do a piece of work in 24 days,
5
then in how many days 18 men can do the
1 same work ?
= 45 × = 9 min.
5 (A) 36 (B) 20
Hence the second pipe must be turned off (C) 18 (D) 16
after 9 minutes. Ans. (E) None of these
Exercise 8. Ramesh can finish a job in 20 days and
Suresh in 25 days. They start working together
1. If 12 men can finish a work in 20 days, then but after 5 days Suresh leaves. In how many
in how many days 15 men will complete that more days Ramesh alone can finish the work ?
work ?
(A) 11 days (B) 9 days
(A) 15 (B) 12
(C) 7 days (D) 13 days
(C) 18 (D) 20
(E) None of these
(E) None of these
1 9. A and B can finish a work in 16 days while A
2. 15 men can do work in 20 days. In how alone can do the same work in 24 days.
2
many days will 20 men do the full work ? Therefore, B alone can finish it in :
(A) 30 days (B) 35 days (A) 36 days (B) 24 days
(C) 15 days (D) 40 days (C) 48 days (D) 56 days
(E) 20 days (E) None of these
 R. Arith. | 21

10. Deepak can do a piece of work in 12 days. He 11. Pipes A and B can fill tank in respectively 30
works for 4 days, when Prakash joins him. minutes and 20 minutes. Pipe C can empty
They together complete the remaining work this tank in 15 minutes. If all three pipes are
in 5 days. How many days will be taken by opened, when will the tank be full ?
Prakash to complete the remaining work (A) 60 mts.
alone ? (B) 45 mts.
(A) 10 (B) 15 (C) 30 mts.
(C) 16 (D) 20 (D) 12 mts.
(E) None of these (E) None of these

11
Time and Distance
If the bodies are moving in the same direction, moving in opposite directions, how long will they
then their relative speed, i.e., the speed by which take to pass each other ?
they overtake one another is equal to the difference Solution :
of their speeds.
Relative speed = (25 + 35)
If they are moving in opposite direction then = 60 km./hour
their relative speed is equal to the sum of their 60 × 1‚000
speeds. =
60 × 60
Distance = Speed × Time 50
Time = Distance ÷ Speed = metres/sec.
3
Speed = Distance ÷ Time And the total distance to be covered
Example 1. = (80 + 120) m
A train 500 metres long running at a uniform = 200 metres
speed passes a platform in 35 seconds. If the 200 × 3
∴ Time taken =
length of the platform be 221 metres, find the 50
speed of the train in km. per hour. = 12 second Ans.
Solution :
Exercise
The distance covered by the train
1. A train 250 metres long passes a pole in 12
= 221 + 500 seconds. Then the speed of train is :
= 721 metre (A) 25 km/hour (B) 68 km/hour
Time taken by the train = 35 seconds (C) 72 km/hour (D) 75 km/hour
721 (E) 135 km/hour
∴ Speed of the train = m/sec.
35
2. A train is running at the speed of 86·4 km per
721 × 60 × 60 hour, then how much distance will it cover in
=
1‚000 × 35 10 minutes ?
= 74·16 km./hour (A) 0·014 km (B) 144 km
Ans. (C) 1·44 km (D) 14·4 km
Example 2. (E) None of these
Two trains 80 metres and 120 metres long are 3. How many seconds will a 100 metres long
running at the rates of 25 km. per hour and 35 km. train running at the rate of 60 metres per
per hour respectively on parallel rails. If they are minute take to pass a certain telegraph post ?
22 | R. Arith.

(A) 1 second (B) 1 min. 10 sec. 8. A passenger train running at the speed of 80
(C) 10 seconds (D) 100 seconds km/hour leaves the railway station 6 hours
(E) 60 minutes after a goods train leaves and overtakes it in 4
4. A train runs 84 kms. per hour. Calculate the hours. What is the speed of the goods train ?
speed per second in metre. (A) 32 km/hr. (B) 60 km/hr.
(A) 61/3 (B) 67/3 (C) 80 km/hr. (D) 120 km/hr.
(C) 70/3 (D) 71/3 (E) None of these
(E) 73/3
9. A and B have to cross 1400 metres distance
5. A train 220 metres long takes 20 seconds to and the time (in minutes) taken by them is in
cross a platform 280 metres long. What is the the ratio of 3 : 7. If B take 16 minutes more
speed of the train ? than A then what is B’s speed (in kms) per
(A) 39·6 kmph (B) 90 kmph hour ?
(C) 50·4 kmph (D) 48 kmph (A) 7 (B) 5·25
(E) None of these (C) 3 (D) 2·5
(E) None of these
6. A train covers a distance of 60 km between
station A and B in 45 minutes. If its speed is 10. A railway train travelling at 72 km per hour
reduced by 5 km/hr, how much time in crosses a signal in 9 seconds. What is the
minutes will it take to cover the same length of the train in metres ?
distance ? (A) 1800 (B) 180
(A) 80 (B) 42 (C) 90 (D) 18
(C) 48 (D) 50 (E) None of these
(E) None of these 11. A 220 metre long railway train crosses
another 180 metre long train running in the
7. If a train running at 75 km per hour crosses a opposite direction in 8 seconds. If the speed
man walking in the same direction at a speed of this longer train is 40 metre/second, the
of 10 km/h in 6 seconds, what will be the speed of the other shorter train in metre/sec.
length of the train ? is :
(A) 130 m. (B) 140 m. (A) 50 (B) 90
(C) 140·55 m. (D) 141·66 m. (C) 40 (D) 10
(E) None of these (E) None of these

12
Interest
Interest is the money paid for the use of due but is added to the principal after a fixed
money borrowed. period, so that the amount, at the end of the period
becomes the principal for the next period.
The sum borrowed is called the Principal.
The sum of interest and principal is called the Important Formulae :
Amount. If the interest is paid as it falls due, it is 1. Amount = Principal + Interest
called the simple interest (S.I.) 2. Simple Interest
Money is said to be lent at compound inte- Principal × Rate × Time
rest, if the interest is not paid as soon as it falls =
100
 R. Arith. | 23

3. Amount for Compound Interest 3. In how many years a sum will be thrice of it
Rate Time at the rate of 10% per annum ?
= Principal 1 + (
100 ) (A) 50 years (B) 40 years
(C) 30 years (D) 20 years
4. Compound Interest
(E) 10 years
Rate Time
= Principal 1+[(100
–1) ] 4. In how many years does a sum get doubled at
simple interest rate of 12·5% p.a. ?
Example 1. (A) 6 years
1 (B) 8 years
Find the simple interest of Rs. 850 for 4 (C) 10 years
3
years at the rate of 6% per annum. (D) Cannot be determined
Solution : (E) None of these
5. Ram invests a part of Rs. 8,000 at 4% per
P×R×T year and the remainder at 5% per year. His
S.I. =
100 annual income from the investment is
850 × 6 × 13 Rs. 350. The ratio of two parts of investment
= = 221 Ans.
100 × 3 is :
Example 2. (A) 4 : 5 (B) 5 : 4
Find the compound interest for Rs. 2,000 for (C) 3 : 5 (D) 5 : 3
3 years at the rate of 10% per annum. (E) None of these
6. At what rate per cent per annum of simple
Solution : interest will a certain sum of money become
Compound interest triple in 8 years ?
Time (A) 5 (B) 8
= Principal[(1 + Rate
100 )
– 1 ] (C) 10 (D) 12
3 (E) None of these
= 2,000 [(1 +
100)
– 1]
10
7. If simple interest on a sum at the rate of 10%
amounts to Rs. 4,000 in 4 years. What will be
= 2,000 ( × × – 1)
11 11 11 the sum ?
10 10 10 (A) Rs. 9,000 (B) Rs. 10,000
(C) Rs. 11,000 (D) Rs. 12,000
= 2,000 (
1‚000 )
1‚331
–1
(E) None of these
331 8. A sum of money doubles itself in 8 years at a
= 2,000 × = Rs. 662 Ans. simple interest. What is the rate of interest ?
1‚000
2
Exercise (A) 12% (B) 12 %
3
1. Find the sum which amounts to Rs. 1,460 in 4 2 1
(C) 8 % (D) 12 %
1 3 2
years at 11 % rate ? (E) None of these
2
(A) Rs. 564 (B) Rs. 790 9. In what time Rs. 150 will produce the same
(C) Rs. 1,000 (D) Rs. 1,200 interest at 8% as Rs. 800 produce in 3 years at
(E) None of these 1
4 %?
2
2. Simple interest on Rs. 200 at 5% per annum (A) 9 years (B) 8 years
1
for 2 years is : (C) 12 years (D) 6 years
2 (E) None of these
(A) Rs. 12·5 (B) Rs. 15 10. If Rs. 450 amount to Rs. 540 in 4 years at
(C) Rs. 20 (D) Rs. 25 simple interest; what sum will amount to
(E) Rs. 30 Rs. 637·50 in 5 years at the same rate ?
24 | R. Arith.

(A) Rs. 550 (B) Rs. 510 3

(C) 1 years (D) 2 years
(C) Rs. 455 (D) Rs. 505 4
(E) None of these (E) None of these
11. A man buys a house and pays Rs. 10,000 cash 16. Rs. 10,000 lent at 10% per annum on com-
and Rs. 8,800 at 2 years credit at 5%. Find the pound interest in 4 years will amount to :
cash price of the house. (A) Rs. 14,641 (B) Rs. 14,541
(A) Rs. 20,000 (B) Rs. 16,000 (C) Rs. 13,310 (D) Rs. 13,210
(C) Rs. 17,000 (D) Rs. 18,000 (E) None of these
(E) None of these 17. The simple interest on a certain sum at a
12. A bank pays 3% on all home saving deposits certain rate in 3 years is Rs. 78 and the com-
and has a system of adding interest to the pound interest in 2 years is Rs. 53·04, find the
principal after every 6 months. If I deposit rate.
now Rs. 1,000, how much interest shall I get (A) 5% (B) 3%
after 2 years ? (C) 6% (D) 4·5%
(A) Rs. 61·36 (B) Rs. 59·36 (E) None of these
(C) Rs. 62·76 (D) Rs. 68·36 18. A certain sum put out at compound interest
(E) None of these amounts to Rs. 8,820 in 3 years and to
13. A sum of Rs. 600 amounts to Rs. 720 in 4 Rs. 9,261 in 4 years. Find the rate.
years. What will it amount to if the rate of (A) 5·5% (B) 3·8%
interest is increased by 2% ? (C) 6% (D) 5%
(A) Rs. 648 (B) Rs. 768 (E) None of these
(C) Rs. 672 (D) Rs. 792 19. Find the difference between Compound Inte-
(E) None of these rest and Simple Interest on Rs. 1,000 in 3
14. The difference between simple interest and years at 10% yearly.
compound interest on a certain amount @ (A) Rs. 331 (B) Rs. 441
10% p.a. for 2 years is Rs. 1·50. What is the (C) Rs. 341 (D) Rs. 300
amount ?
(E) None of these
(A) Rs. 150 (B) Rs. 750
(C) Rs. 1,500 (D) Rs. 7,500 20. The compound interest on a certain sum at
(E) None of these 1
5% in 1 years is Rs. 91·50, find the simple
15. In how many years will a sum of Rs. 1600 will 2
amount to Rs. 1852·25 P @ 10% per annum interest.
compounded half yearly ? (A) Rs. 80 (B) Rs. 110
1 (C) Rs. 90 (D) Rs. 100
(A) 1 year (B) 1 years
2 (E) None of these

13
Average
To find average of any number of quantities Example 1.
of the same kind is to add all the items together
and then divide the sum by the number of items. The weight of 5 boys in a class are 49·6 kg,
Sum of all items 39·8 kg, 40·8 kg, 45·2 kg, and 24·6 kg. Find their
∴ Average = average weight.
No. of items
 R. Arith. | 25

Solution :
Exercise
Total weight of 5 boys = 49·6 + 39·8 + 40·8 +
45·2 + 24·6 = 200 kg. 1. Average age of 30 boys in a class is 10 years,
If however, the age of their teacher is also
200
∴ Average weight = = 40 kg. Ans. included, then the average increases by one
5 year. What is the age of the teacher ?
Example 2. (A) 38 years (B) 40 years
The average temperature for Monday, Tues- (C) 30 years (D) 41 years
day and Wednesday was 36°C. The average tem- (E) None of these
perature for Tuesday, Wednesday and Thursday
was 38°C and that for Thursday it was 37°C. What 2. The average of 3 numbers is 7 and average of
was the temperature on Monday ? the first two numbers is 5. What is the third
number ?
Solution :
(A) 11 (B) 7
Average temperature for Mondy, Tuesday and (C) 3 (D) 2
Wednesday = 36°C
(E) 6
∴ Total temperature for Monday, Tuesday
and Wednesday = 3 × 36 3. A motorist completes the journey between A
and B at a constant speed of 20 kmph and
= 108°C covers the returns journey from B to A at a
∴
Average temprature for Tuesday, Wed- constant speed of 30 kmph. What was the
nesday and Thursday average speed ?
= 38°C (A) 50 kmph (B) 25 kmph
∴ Total temperature for Tuesday, Wednes- (C) 24 kmph (D) 26 kmph
day and Thursday = 3 × 38 (E) None of these
= 114°C 4. Two cyclist start together for a point A, 20
But temperature for Thursday km away. One cyclist goes steadily at 10
kmph while the other goes faster but with
= 37°C constant speed. The faster cyclist reaches the
∴ Total temperature for Tuesday and point A and returns to meet the slower cyclist
Wednesday = 114 – 37 exactly half way to the point A. The speed of
= 77°C the faster cyclist was :
∴ Temperature on Monday (A) 15 kmph (B) 24 kmph
= 108° – 77° (C) 30 kmph (D) 18 kmph
= 31°C Ans. (E) None of these
Example 3. 5. The average number of students in 5
classes (I to V) is 29. If the average number
The average age of 7 members of a family is of students in class I, III and V is 30, then the
18 years. If the head of the family is excluded, the total number of students in II and IV classes
average age of the rest of the members would be 5 are :
years less. Find the age of the head of the family.
(A) 45
Solution : (B) 55
Total age of 7 members of the family (C) 50
= 7 × 18 = 126 years (D) Cannot be determined
Total age of 6 members of the family exclud- (E) None of these
ing the head = 6 × 13 = 78 years 6. The average salary of Raju, Sashi and Mahesh
Age of the head of the family is Rs. 800 and the average salary of Sashi,
Pramod and Mahesh is Rs. 900 and if
= 126 – 78 Pramod’s salary is Rs. 900, what is Raju’s
= 48 years Ans. salary ?
26 | R. Arith.

(A) Rs. 600 (C) 55 (D) 105

(B) Rs. 300 (E) None of these
9. The average of three numbers is 77. The first
(C) Rs. 1,700 number is double the second, the second is
(D) Cannot be found out double the third. The number are :
(E) None of these (A) 22, 44, 88 (B) 24, 48, 96
(C) 33, 66, 132 (D) 35, 70, 140
7. The average age of three persons is 45 years,
their ages are in the ratio of 2 : 3 : 4. The (E) None of these
difference between the ages of the youngest 10. The average of two numbers is 180. If one of
them is half the other, the numbers are :
and the eldest person is :
(A) 110, 220 (B) 120, 240
(A) 15 years (B) 20 years (C) 130, 260 (D) 140, 280
(C) 30 years (D) 45 years (E) None of these
(E) None of these 11. The average of three numbers of which
8. The average of the runs scored by a cricket greatest is 16 is 12. If the smallest is half of
eleven is 50. If the runs scored by the captain the greatest, the remaining number is :
is excluded, the average score rises by 5. How (A) 8 (B) 10
many runs did the captain score ? (C) 12 (D) 14
(A) 0 (B) 50 (E) None of these

14
Area
Place occupied by rectilinear figures is Solution :
known as area. Its unit is square metres. Length of the room = 5·56 m
Important Formulae :
and breadth of the room = 3·15 m
1. Area of a rectangle = length × breadth
2. Area of four walls of a room ∴ Area of the roof of room
= 2 × height (length + breadth) = 5·56 × 3·15
3. Area of circle = π (radius)2 = 17·514 sq. m
4. Circumference of a circle = 2π (radius) Ans.
5. Area of a square = (side)2 Example 2.
1 A hall is 15 m long and 10 m wide. If the
6. Area of a Triangle = × base × height
2 height of the hall is 6 m, what is the area of its four
7. The area of triangle having given its three walls ?
sides = √ ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
s(s – a) (s – b) (s – c) where Solution :
1
s = (a + b + c) and a, b, c are lengths of Area of the four walls = 2 × 6 (15 + 10)
2
its sides. = 12 × 25
Example 1. = 300 m2 Ans.
If the length and breadth of a room are 5·56 Example 3.
m and 3·15 m respectively, what is the area of the If the radius of a circle is 56 cm, what is its
roof of the room ? area ?
 R. Arith. | 27

Solution : (A) 84 cm2 (B) 124 cm2

Area of the circle = π × (56) 2 (C) 164 cm2 (D) 180 cm2
22 (E) None of these
= × 56 × 56
7 7. If the cost of white-washing the four walls of
= 9856 cm2 Ans. a rectangular room is Rs. 25, then the cost of
Example 4. white-washing a room twice the length,
If the area of triangle is 60 cm2 and its base is breadth and height will be :
8 cm, find its height. (A) Rs. 50 (B) Rs. 100
Solution : (C) Rs. 150 (D) Rs. 200
∴ 1 (E) Rs. 250
Area of a triangle = × base × height
2
8. The length of a hall is 28 metres. If the floor
1
⇒ 60 = × 8 × height area is 616 sq. metres, what is the breadth of
2 the hall in metres ?
∴ Height = 15 cm (A) 24·82 (B) 2·20
Exercise (C) 24·25 (D) 22·00
(E) None of these
1. The breadth of a field is 3/4th of its length. If
its area is 1200 sq. metres, then the length of 9. The difference between the length and breadth
the field is : of a rectangle is 23 m. If the perimeter of the
(A) 40 metres (B) 30 metres rectangle is 206 m, find its area.
(C) 35 metres (D) 60 metres (A) 2420 sq. m. (B) 2480 sq. m.
(E) 45 metres (C) 2520 sq. m. (D) 1520 sq. m.
2. The base of a triangle is 4 cm and height 5 (E) None of these
cm; the area of the triangle will be : 10. The length and the breadth of a rectangular
(A) 20 sq. cm (B) 20 cm piece of land are in the ratio 3 : 2. The owner
(C) 10 sq. cm. (D) 10 cm of the land spent Rs. 2,000 on drawing a fence
(E) None of these @ Rs. 12·50 per meter round it. By how much
3. If the area of a square is 144 sq. metres, its does the length of the land exceed its breadth
perimeter will be : in metres ?
(A) 12 metres (B) 24 metres (A) 16 (B) 32
(C) 48 metres (D) 60 metres (C) 80 (D) 160
(E) 36 metres (E) None of these
4. The radius of circle is diminished by 10%, the 11. The breadth of a rectangle is 3/4 of its length.
area is diminished by : The area of the rectangle is 192 sq. metre. Its
(A) 10% (B) 15% perimeter is :
(C) 19% (D) 20% (A) 16 (B) 12
(E) 30% 2
(C) 56 (D) 74
3
5. If a man can eat 98 chapatties of 6 inches (E) None of these
diameter. How many chapatties of 42 inches
diameter can he eat ? 12. The diameter of a circle is R3 , the area of the
(A) 2 (B) 4 circle is :
(C) 6 (D) 8 (A) 22/7 R9 (B) 22/7 R6
3
3 22 R 6
(E) None of these
6. The length, breadth and height of a brick is 10
(C) ( )22 R
7×2
(D)
7 () 2
cm 4 cm and 3 cm. What is its surface area ? (E) None of these
28 | R. Arith.

15
Volume
Volume of a figure is expressed in cubic 3. All the faces of a 4 inch cube have been
metres or in any other cubic unit. painted. If this cube is cut into 1 inch cubes,
Important Formulae : the number of cubes that have been painted
Volume of a rectangular solid on one of their faces is :
(A) 27 (B) 16
= length × breadth × height
(C) 9 (D) 8
Example 1.
(E) 24
Volume of a rectangular solid is 960 cu. cm.
If its length and breadth are 12 cm and 10 cm 4. An ice box is 8 inches deep, 5 inches long and
respectively. What is its height ? 4 inches wide. How many 2 inch ice cubes
can it hold ?
Solution : (A) 80 (B) 40
Volume of a rectangular solid (C) 20 (D) 16
= l×b×h (E) None of these
960 = 12 × 10 × h
5. Each side of cube measures 8 metres. What is
960 the volume of the cube ?
∴ h = = 8 cm. Ans.
12 × 10 (A) 72 cu. m. (B) 144 cu. m.
Example 2. (C) 196 cu. m. (D) 36 cu. m.
Three cubes whose edges are 3, 4 and 5 cm (E) None of these
respectively are melted and formed into a larger
cube. Find the edge of the larger cube. 6. The breadth and height of a brick are 10 cm
and 15 cm and the volume is 3 litres. What is
Solution : its length ?
Total volume of the three cubes (A) 16 cm (B) 20 cm
= 33 + 4 3 + 5 3 (C) 18 cm (D) 22 cm
= 27 + 64 + 125 (E) None of these
= 216 cu. cm 7. A ten rupee note measures 5 inches by 2
∴ Edge of the larger cube so formed 1
inches. A packet of 100 notes is inch thick.
3 2
= √
⎯⎯⎯
216 = 6 cm Ans. What is the maximum money, in ten rupee
Exercise notes that can be laid flat in box of size 10
inches × 6 inches × 2 inches ?
1. The volume of a cube is 216 cubic metres, its
side will be : (A) Rs. 20,000 (B) Rs. 30,000
(A) 16 metres (B) 6 metres (C) Rs. 18,000 (D) Rs. 24,000
(C) 26 metres (D) 32 metres (E) None of these
(E) None of these 8. What is the volume of the cubical tank open
2. The volume of a rectangular solid is 32 cubic at the top, if the cost of coating its inside with
inch. It is 8 inches high and has a square base. the aluminium comes out to be Rs. 375 @
What is the length of its base ? Rs. 1·25 per sq. m. ?
(A) 60 cu. m.
(A) 4 inch (B) 2 inch
(B) 120 cu. m.
(C) 6·25 inch (D) 2·5 inch
(E) 3·5 inch (C) 120 ⎯
√⎯15 cu. m.
 R. Arith. | 29

(D) Insufficient data to calculate (C) 120 cm3 (D) 150 cm3
(E) None of these (E) None of these
9. Water flows into a tank 200 m × 150 m 13. A tank 72 cm long, 60 cm wide, 36 cm deep
through a rectangular pipe 1·5 m × 1·25 m at contains water to a depth of 18 cm. A metal
20 kmph. In what time will the water rise by 2 block 48 cm by 36 m by 15 cm is put into the
mtrs ? tank and totally submerged. Find in cm the
(A) 1 hour 36 min. (B) 1 hour 20 min. height of the water level rises.
(C) 1 hour 16 min. (D) 1 hour 30 min. (A) 4 cm (B) 10 cm
(E) None of these (C) 8 cm (D) 6 cm
10. A cistern contains 120 cu mtrs. of water. Find (E) None of these
the length of the second cistern with square 14. The volume of a wall, 5 times as high as it is
base whose depth is 30 mtrs. and contains 4 broad, and 8 times as long as it is high, is
times the quantity of water. 18225 cubic metres. Find the breadth of the
(A) 5 mtrs. (B) 2 mtrs. wall.
(C) 6 mtrs. (D) 4 mtrs. (A) 4·5 metre (B) 5 metre
(E) None of these (C) 7·5 metre (D) 6·4 metre
11. How many bricks, each 25 cm by 15 cm by 8 (E) None of these
cm are required for a wall 32 m long, 3 m 15. A rectangular tank 20 mtrs long, 10 mtrs wide
high, 40 cm thick ? and 4 mtrs deep is dug into a field 50 mtrs
(A) 2,800 (B) 12,800 long 40 mtrs wide. The dug out soil is spread
(C) 13,800 (D) 3,280 on the remaining portion of the ground. Find
(E) None of these the height of the soil.
12. If the perimeter of one face of a cube is 20 (A) 9/4 mtr. (B) 5/9 mtr.
cm. What will be the volume of the cube ? (C) 4/9 mtr. (D) 3/4 mtr.
(A) 125 cm3 (B) 135 cm3 (E) None of these

16
Interpretation of Data
In the questions of ‘Interpretation of Data’, Wheat production (in lakh tonnes)
a graph or a chart is given. Some questions are
States 2006 2007 2008 2009 2010
given below the graph or the chart. These ques-
tions are connected with the data of the given A 9·0 10·7 8·9 11·6 8·4
graph or chart. Five alternative answers are given B 14·5 16·3 16·2 16·4 16·8
for each question. Out of these alternative answers C 14·9 15·7 16·8 16·9 17·8
only one is correct. The candidate has to find the
correct answer. To find the correct answer the D 7·6 8·4 7·4 7·9 8·6
candidate must study the graph or chart thoro- E 21·0 22·6 23·2 22·2 23·9
ughly. After that he should decide which is the
correct answer. 1. In 2008, which state contributed close to one-
eighth of the total production of all the five
Exercise States ?
(A) A (B) B
Directions—(Q. 1–5) Study the data given in
t h e following table carefully and answer the (C) C (D) D
questions given below it : (E) E
30 | R. Arith.

2. In which year did the production of State D 8. In which year have people not shown pre-
fall for the first time ? ference for more than one cloth ?
(A) 2006 (B) 2007 (A) 2001
(C) 2008 (D) 2009 (B) 2003
(E) 2010 (C) 2004
3. In which State, the production in 2009 showed (D) Cannot be determined
the highest increase over that in 2006 ? (E) None of these
(A) A (B) B
(C) C (D) D 9. Which variety of cloth is the most popular
over the years ?
(E) E
(A) B (B) C
4. In which year does the production in State E (C) D (D) E
show the highest precentage of increase over
that in the previous year ? (E) None of these
(A) 2006 (B) 2007 10. The popularity of which cloth increased
(C) 2008 (D) 2009 slowly initially but again declined ?
(E) 2010 (A) A (B) B
5. In which state did the production of wheat (C) C (D) D
increase continuously from 2006 to 2010 ? (E) E
(A) A (B) B Directions—(Q. 11–15) Answer the following
(C) C (D) D questions based on the information given in the
(E) E following table regarding some manufacturing
concern.
Directions—(Q. 6–10) Study the table and
answer the questions given below : (in lakhs of rupees)
Percentage of people preferring five different Year Total Turn Gross Net Profit
varieties of cloth A, B, C, D and E. over Profit
2005 351·6 155·5 54·2
Variety Percentage of people 2006 407·9 134·3 42·6
⎯⎯⎯→
Year ↓ A B C D E 2007 380·1 149·9 38·9
2001 12 45 40 20 10 2008 439·7 160·5 50·3
2009 485·9 203·3 65·8
2002 15 35 42 22 12
2003 20 40 35 24 10 11. Which of the year(s) show(s) increase in all
the three categories simultaneously, i.e., total
2004 18 35 45 26 14 turnover, gross profit and the net profit as
2005 14 37 50 27 20 compared to the previous year(s) ?
2006 10 30 52 28 20 (A) 2009 and 2007 both
(B) 2007 and 2008 both
6. Which variety of cloth is gaining every year (C) 2008 only
in popularity ? (D) 2008 and 2009 both
(A) A (B) D (E) None of these
(C) C (D) E 12. The net profit in 2007 is approx. what % of
(E) None of these total turnover in 2009 ?
7. Which variety of cloth has registered gain and (A) 7% (B) 8%
loss in popularity every alternate year ? (C) 9% (D) 7·8%
(E) None of these
(A) A (B) B
13. The per cent increase in the gross profit was
(C) C (D) D the largest in which year as compared to the
(E) E previous one ?
 R. Arith. | 31

(A) 2006 (B) 2007 19. During 2006-07, which of the following crops
(C) 2009 (D) 2008 showed decrease in production in comparison
(E) None of these to the previous year ?
14. The total turnover in 2008 is approx. what per (A) Barley
cent of the total turnover in 2005 ?
(B) Bajra
(A) 75% (B) 125%
(C) 115% (D) 95% (C) Rice
(E) None of these (D) Potatoes
15. In which year difference between the total (E) None of these
turnover and the gross profit is the least ? 20. The production of potatoes in 2005-06 is app-
(A) 2006 (B) 2007 roximately how many times that in 2000-01 ?
(C) 2008 (D) 2009
(E) None of these (A) 1·82 (B) 2
(C) 2·1 (D) 1·9
Directions—(Q. 16–20) Production of Crops (E) None of these
in India during 2000-07.
(In tonnes)
Year Wheat Rice Bajra Maize Barley Pulses Potatoes
2000-01 6121 874 565 80 300 415 210
2001-02 7010 964 655 60 312 417 220
2002-03 7112 960 780 55 210 680 222
2003-04 7056 985 1110 40 200 310 245
2004-05 6896 716 1160 90 216 370 315
2005-06 6912 826 1450 110 160 300 400
2006-07 7617 812 1460 75 216 260 445
16. Wheat production started showing a slump Directions—(Q. 21–25) The production of
during : wheat in various years is shown by the following
(A) 2003-04 graph. On the basis of the information available
therein, anwer the following questions :
(B) 2005-06
(C) 2004-05 82
78.1
(D) 2006-07
78 77.7 77.4
(E) None of these
73.9
17. Which of the following crops showed the 74
continuous increase in production during
Production

2003-07 ? 70 67.8
68.9
(A) Maize
66.5
(B) Barley 66
(C) Pulses 63.0 63.3
62
(D) Bajra
59.1
(E) None of these 58.6
58
18. What is the average yield of potatoes during 1971 1973 1975 1977 1979 1981
the period 2000-01 to 2006-07 ? Year
(A) 300 tonnes 21. The difference between the highest production
(B) 293·86 tonnes and the average production is (in lakh tonnes):
(C) 353·96 tonnes (A) 10·5 (B) 9·5
(D) 253·86 tonnes (C) 9·1 (D) 8·8
(E) None of these (E) None of these
32 | R. Arith.

22. In which of the following years, the produc- 24. The difference between the maximum and the
tion is very close to that of the average pro- minimum production is :
duction ? (A) 20·5 (B) 19·1
(A) 1977 (B) 1972 (C) 18·8 (D) 19·5
(C) 1980 (D) 1974 (E) None of these
(E) 1971
25. The sharp decline in production was registered
23. In which period the production registered the in which period over that of the preceding
sharp increase over that of the preceding one ? one ?
(A) 1977-78 (B) 1973-74 (A) 1979-80 (B) 1976-77
(C) 1975-76 (D) 1980-81 (C) 1974-75 (D) 1972-73
(E) None of these (E) None of these

17
Miscellaneous Exercise
1. Smitha’s mother was 4 times as old as Smitha (C) 1·5 metres (D) 2·2 metres
10 years back. After 10 years, her age will be (E) None of these
twice as that of Smitha’s age. Find the present
age of Smitha. 6. In a class of 50 students, 25 take Hindi and 16
take Marathi. 12 students take no languages.
(A) 20 years (B) 22 years
How many take both Hindi and Marathi ?
(C) 26 years (D) 18 years
(A) 9 (B) 4
(E) 25 years
(C) 3 (D) 13
2. Which of the following numbers will appear
(E) None of these
in the series ?
6, 15, 24, 33, 42, 51,……… 7. (5°) (8′) equals :
(A) 2700 (B) 2610 (A) 40′ (B) 5′
(C) 2613 (D) 60 (C) 200 (D) 308′
(E) None of these (E) None of these
3. The least number by which 2 × 6 × 7 × 7 8. Which is the greatest of the following ?
should be multiplied to make it a perfect
(A) 0·49
square is :
49
(A) 2 (B) 3 (B) 3·5 × 0·2 × × 0·7
100
(C) 6 (D) 7
0·98 – (0·7) 2
(E) None of these (C) 98% of
0·98% of 100
4. Side of a square is always the square root of 2402
its : (D)
3430
(A) Volume (B) Perimeter
(E) None of these
(C) Circumference (D) Area
(E) None of these 9. Which is the least of the following ?
5. A wheel revolves 1254 times in travelling a (A) 1
distance of 2 kms 5 hectometres and 8 metres. (B) 30% of 3·3
The circumference of wheel is : 21
(C)
(A) 2 metres (B) 2·5 metres 20
 R. Arith. | 33

(D) One-third of the difference between the (A) 35 m (B) 30 m

smallest two numbers above 10 that can (C) 40 m (D) 50 m
not be divided exactly by any other
number (E) None of these
4 3 1 17. A trader sells 9 bullocks and 7 cows for
(E) + –
7 7 4 Rs. 30,000 to a customer and to another
customer he sells 6 bullocks and 13 cows at
10. 4, 5, 9, 18, 34, ?
the same price for the same sum. The price of
(A) 59 (B) 50 a bullock is :
(C) 43 (D) 52 (A) Rs. 3,000
(E) None of these (B) Rs. 2,400
11. 2, 5, 12, 27, 58, ? (C) Rs. 2,100
(A) 73 (B) 91 (D) Rs. 3,700
(C) 116 (D) 121 (E) None of these
(E) None of these 18. The mother is five times older to her son.
12. Five years back the age of Ambica was seven After 4 years the sum of their ages would be
times the age of her daughter Chanda. At pre- 44 years. Then the son’s age at present is :
sent Chanda’s age is one fourth of Ambica’s (A) 7 years (B) 6 years
age. What is Ambica’s present age ? (C) 5 years (D) 8 years
(A) 35 years (B) 40 years (E) None of these
(C) 26 years (D) 32 years
19. Which of the following numbers is not a
(E) None of these square number of any natural number ?
13. Which of the following numbers belong to the (A) 676 (B) 961
series ?
(C) 1296 (D) 1025
4, 11, 18, 25, 32, 39, ………
(E) None of these
(A) 2099 (B) 2096
20. Which of the following numbers belongs to
(C) 2098 (D) 2097
the series given below :
(E) None of these
7, 18, 29, 40, ………
14. Find the sum of all the numbers lying bet- (A) 2095 (B) 2094
ween 310 and 325.
(C) 2197 (D) 2107
(A) 5080 (B) 4755 (E) None of these
(C) 4770 (D) 4445
21. Suresh is as much younger in age than Rajesh
(E) None of these
as he is older in age than Nitin. If the sum of
15. A father told his son, “I was as old as you are the ages of Rajesh and Nitin is 48 years, then
at present at the time of your birth.” If the Suresh’s age is :
father is 38 years old now then what was the (A) 12 years (B) 24 years
son’s age five years back ?
(C) 36 years (D) 42 years
(A) 14 years (B) 19 years
(E) None of these
(C) 38 years (D) 33 years
(E) None of these 22. The semi-circumference of a circle with dia-
meter 28 will be :
16. The length and breadth of a rectangular hall
are 40 m and 30 m respectively. What is the (A) 88 cm (B) 44 cm
distance between the two opposite corners of (C) 102 cm (D) 176 cm
the hall ? (E) None of these
34 | R. Arith.

Answers with Hints

Chapter-1 19. (D) 20. (E) 21. (E)
1. (D) 2. (E) 3. (C) 4. (E) 5. (B) 1 4
22. (C) 1– =
5 5
6. (B)
∴ 4
7. (C) 64 can be divided by 1, 2, 4, 8, 16, 32. part = 5,000
5
36 can be divided by 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 9, 12 and 18
5
48 can be divided by 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 8, 12, 16 ∴ 1 part = 5,000 × = 6,250 Ans.
4
and 24.
23. (D) 24. (E)
30 can be divided by 1, 2, 3, 5, 6, 10, and 15
25. (E) No. of even days in April 1984 =15 (2, 4,
50 can be divided by 1, 2, 5, 10 and 25 6, ……, 28, 30)
Here 48 is a number which is divisible by
No. of odd days in April 1984 divisible by 3 =
maximum numbers. Ans.
5 (3, 9, 15, 21, 27)
8. (D) 9. (A) 10. (C)
No. of odd days in April 1984 divisible by 5 =
11. (A) 27 gms. = 10 + 10 + 7
2 (5, 25) because 15 is already used previously
∴ Required postal charges
∴ Total No. of flowers offered
= 50 + 15 + 15
= 15 × 2 + 5 × 3 + 2 × 5
= 80 paise. Ans.
∴ = 30 + 15 + 10
12. (C) Earning of Amar, Bipin and Chandra
= 55 Ans.
Prakash = Rs. 150 per day
26. (C)
⇒ Earning of Amar and Chandra Prakash
Chapter-2
= Rs. 94 per day
⇒ Earning of Bipin and Chandra Prakash 1. (C)
2. (C) 6 – 4·7 = 1·3 tons
= Rs. 76 per day
= 1·3 × 1000
∴ Chandra Prakash’s earning per day
= 1300 kgm Ans.
= Rs. (94 + 76) – Rs. 150
3. (C) 4. (A) 5. (C) 6. (C) 7. (A)
= Rs. (170 – 150) 8. (C) 9. (C) 10. (D) 11. (A) 12. (D)
= Rs. 20 Ans. 13. (B)
13. (E) 14. (E) 15. (C) 16. (A) 17. (D) 14. (C) Total number of Apples in 12 cases
18. (C) Votes obtained by Ashok and Pramod = 12 × 12 × 18 = 2592
= 94 ∴
Cost of 2592 Apples
Votes obtained by Mahesh and Pramod = Rs. 1632·96
= 76
∴ Cost of 12 Apples
∴ Votes obtained by Ashok + 2 Pramod +
Mahesh = 94 + 76 1632·96 × 12
= = Rs. 7·56 Ans.
2592
= 170
15. (B)
But votes obtained by Ashok + Pramod +
Mahesh = 150 Chapter-3
∴ Votes obtained by Pramod only 1. (C) 2. (C) 3. (D) 4. (A)
= 170 – 150 5. (B) The maximum capacity of a container
= 20 Ans. which can measure the milk in each container
 R. Arith. | 35

an exact number of times, is the H.C.F. of 60 14. (C)

and 165. ∴
15. (E) LCM of 8, 12, 16 = 48
60) 165 (2
120 ⇒ 48 × 1 + 3 = 51 (Not divisible by 7)
45) 60 (1 ⇒ 48 × 2 + 3 = 99 (Not divisible by 7)
45 ⇒ 48 × 3 + 3 = 147 (Divisible by 7)
15) 45 (3 ∴ Reqd. Number = 147 Ans.
45 Chapter-4
×
1. (D) 2. (B) 3. (C) 4. (A) 5. (D)
∴ H.C.F. of 60 and 165 = 15
3
Hence the required answer = 15 litre Ans. 6. (D) Money with Sunil = of Rs. 400
5
6. (D) 10) 15 (1 = Rs. 240
10 2
5) 10 (2 Money with Mukesh = of Rs. 240
3
10 = Rs. 160 Ans.
× 7. (A) If Pramod got 1 mark in Arithmetic, the
5) 20 (4 1
marks obtained in English =
20 3
× ∴ 1 4
1+ =
∴ H.C.F. of 10, 15 and 20 = 5 m 3 3
Hence the required length of each piece = 5 4
metres Ans. If total marks obtained is then marks in
3
7. (A) 195 – 3 = 192 Arithmetic = 1
250 – 2 = 248 4
∴ 1 mark obtained as then marks in Arith-
192) 248 (1 3
3
192 metic = 1×
4
56) 192 (3 4
168 ∴ 128 marks obtained as then marks in
3
24) 56 (2 3
Arithmetic = × 128
48 4
8) 24 (3 = 96 Ans.
24 8. (D) 9. (C) 10. (D)
× 11. (A) Let the required number be x. Then
∴ The required number of banana = 8 Ans. ∴ 3
3x – x = 60
8. (B) 2 32, 40 5
(15 – 3)x
2 16, 20 ⇒ = 60
5
2 8, 10 60 × 5
∴ x = = 25 Ans.
4, 5 12
12. (E) 13. (B) 14. (A) 15. (B) 16. (A)
∴ L.C.M. of 32 and 40
17. (D) 18. (B)
= 2 × 2 × 2 × 4 × 5 = 160 sec. ∴ 10 11 12 13 14
19. (B) < < < <
Hence they will again change together after 11 12 13 14 15
160 sec. Ans. 14
∴ Largest fraction = Ans.
9. (A) 10. (C) 11. (B) 12. (D) 13. (A) 15
36 | R. Arith.

1 1 1 1 10. (A) The contribution by the workers in the

2 ×4 –4 ÷6 workshop = 196 – 16
3 4 6 4
20. (C) = Rs. 180
1 1 2
3 ÷4 ×5
3 4 3 Let the number of workers in A grade be x
7 17 25 25 and in B grade be y.
× – ÷ ∴
3 4 6 4 x 2 + y2 = 180
=
10 17 17 Now, by putting x = 12 and y = 6, we get
÷ ×
3 4 3 x 2 + y2 = 12 2 + 6 2 = 180
7 17 25 4
× – × ∴ x + y = 12 + 6
3 4 6 25 = 18 Ans.
=
10 4 17
× × 11. (C) 12. (A)
3 17 3
119 2 111 Chapter-6
–
12 3 12 1. (B) 2. (E)
= =
40 40 3. (A) Let the price of radio before reduction be
9 9 Rs. 100 and number of radios sold be 100.
111 9 333 13 ∴ Money received = 100 × 100
= × = =2 Ans.
12 40 160 160
= Rs. 10000
21. (A) On reduction the price of radio
Chapter-5 = 100 – 20
= Rs. 80
1. (C) 2. (B) 3. (D)
And the number of the radios sold
4. (C) Let the number of persons be x
∴ = 100 + 80
x × x = 529 = 180
⇒ x 2 = 529 ∴ Money received after reduction
∴ x = √
⎯⎯⎯
529 = 23 = 180 × 80
Hence the number of persons = 23 Ans. = Rs. 14400
5. (A) 6. (B) 7. (E) ∴ Percentage increase
8. (A) Let the number of students in the class (14400 – 10000) × 100
= %
= x 10000
∴ Collected rupees by the students = 44% Ans.
= x×x 4. (B) Suppose Chunilal had Rs. 100
= Rs. x 2 ∴ Money invested in machinery
and collected rupees by the teachers = Rs. 65
= 150 × 3 And money invested in raw material
= Rs. 450 = Rs. 20
But the total amount collected ∴ Total money spent = 65 + 20 = Rs. 85
= Rs. 1,350
∴ ∴ Money left = 100 – 85 = Rs. 15
x 2 = 1,350 – 450
If Rs. 15 are left then money spent = Rs. 85
= 900
∴ Rs. 1305 are left then money spent
∴ x = √⎯⎯⎯
900 = 30 85 × 1305
=
Hence the number of students in the class 15
= 30. Ans. = Rs. 7395 Ans.
9. (B) 5. (C) 6. (B)
 R. Arith. | 37

7. (D) The amount of alcohol in 15 litres of ∴ Temperature at noon (12 a.m.)

15 × 20 = 21 + 3 × 3 = 30°C Ans.
mixture = = 3 litres
100 6. (B) Let the total property be of Rs. x
Volume of mixture on addition of 3 litres of Ratio in the ages of the sons
water = 15 + 3 = 18 litres = 3 : 6 : 10
Percentage of alcohol in new mixture ∴ Sum of ratios = 3 + 6 + 10
3 × 100 = 19
= % = 16·67% Ans.
18 But the property of the youngest son
8. (C) Equivalent Discount = Rs. 75,000
10 × 15 ∴ x×3
[
= 10 + 15 –
100
%] 75,000 =
19
= [25 – 1·5]% = 23·5% Ans. 75‚000 × 19
∴ x =
9. (B) 10. (B) 11. (C) 12. (D) 13. (C) 3
14. (E) = Rs. 4,75,000 Ans.
15. (C) Let the printed price of the toys per dozen 7. (D) 8. (A)
be Rs. 100 9. (A) Let the distance = D and Time = T
∴ Discount at 5% on 5 dozen ∴ Original speed =
D
…(1)
5 × 100 × 5 T
= = Rs. 25
100 As per question,
And discount at 10% on next 10 dozen D
10 × 100 × 10 New speed =
2 1 D
= ·
= 2×T 4 T
100
= Rs. 100 ∴ Reqd. Ratio = New speed : Original speed
∴ Total discount = 100 + 25 = Rs. 125 =
1D D
: =1:4 Ans.
If Rs. 125 is the total discount, the printed 4T T
price of the toys per dozen 10. (B) 11. (A) 12. (B) 13. (C)
= Rs. 100 14. (E) Let the three numbers are x, y and z. Then
∴ 12·5 is the total discount, the printed x + y + z = 116 …(1)
price of the toys per dozen y : z = 9 : 16 …(2)
100 × 12·5 x:z = 1:4 …(3)
=
125 ∴ 1 9
z + z + z = 116
= Rs. 10 per dozen Ans. 4 16
(4 + 9 + 16)
16. (C) 17. (B) 18. (D) 19. (C) 20. (D) ⇒ z = 116
16
Chapter-7 116 × 16
∴ z = = 64
29
1. (D)
∴ ∴ Second number = y =
9 9
z = × 64
2. (B) Sum of ratios = 11 + 8 + 23 = 52
16 16
2‚600 × 18 = 36 Ans.
∴ Share of B =
52 15. (C) Let the age of the elder brother be x years
= Rs. 900 Ans. ∴ Age of the younger brother
3. (A) 4. (D) = (36– x) years
5. (C) Rise in temperature from 9 a.m. to 2 p.m. ∴ 36 – x + 4 5
=
= 36 – 21 = 15°C x+4 6
∴
Rise in temperature in 5 hours 40 – x 5
⇒ =
= 15°C x+4 6
38 | R. Arith.

⇒ 5x + 20 = 240 – 6x ⇒ x : 30,000 :: 2,400 : 7,200

⇒ 5x + 6x = 240 – 20 2‚400 × 30‚000
⇒ 11x = 220 ∴ x =
7‚200
220 = Rs. 10,000 Ans.
∴ x =
11 8. (A)
= 20 years Ans.
9. (A) Since ratio of A, B and C is follows :
Chapter-8 A : B : C : : 12 months : 8 months : 4 months
1. (E) ::3:2:1
∴
2. (A) Sheeps grazed by X for 3 weeks Sum of ratios = 3 + 2 + 1 = 6
= 10 2
∴ Rent to be paid by B = × 288
∴ Sheeps grazed by X for 1 week (3 + 2 + 1)
= 10 × 3 = 30 2
= × 288
∴ 6
Sheeps grazed by Y for 4 weeks
= Rs. 96 Ans.
= 15
∴ Sheeps grazed by Y for 1 week Chapter-9
= 15 × 4 = 60
∴ 1. (C)
Ratio in the number of sheeps of X and Y ∴
2. (C) C.P. of one apple = 5 paise
= 30 : 60 = 1 : 2 Profit = 20%
∴ Ratio in the rent = 1 : 2 Ans. (100 + 20)
3. (D) ∴ S.P. of one apple = ×5
100
4. (D) Capital of Krishna for 12 months 6
= Rs. 9,000 = × 5 = 6 paise
5
∴ Capital of Krishna for 1 month ∴ S.P. of one dozen apples
= 9,000 × 12 = 12 × 6
= Rs. 1,08,000 = 72 paise Ans.
Capital of Rani for 1 month 3. (B)
∴
= 12,000 × 8 4. (A) Marked price of Umbrella = Rs. 80
= Rs. 96,000 ⇒ S.P. of Umbrella = Rs. 68
∴ Ratio of their capitals ⇒ Discount = Rs. (80 – 68)
= 1,08,000 : 96,000 = Rs. 12
= 9:8 12
∴ Rate of Discount = × 100%
∴ Sum of ratio = 9 : 8 80
= 17 = 15% Ans.
∴ Share of Rani in the profit 5. (A)
2‚550 × 8 6. (A) Let the S.P. of the article be Rs. 100
=
17 ∴ Profit on the article = Rs. 20
= Rs. 1,200 Ans. ∴ C.P. = 100 – 20
5. (B) 6. (B) = 80
7. (D) Let the capital invested by B = Rs. x
∴ If C.P. is Rs. 80 then profit is Rs. 20
Share of B in total profit
∴ C.P. is Rs. 100 then profit is Rs.
= Rs. (7,200 – 1,920 – 2,800) 20 × 100
= %
= Rs. (7,200 – 4,800) 80
= Rs. 2,400 = 25% Ans.
 R. Arith. | 39
∴
7. (C) Original total money received 13. (D) Let the C.P. of the watch = Rs. 100
= 100 × 100 ∴ S.P. of the watch = 100 – 5
= Rs. 10,000 = Rs. 95
⇒ New total money received If Rs. 95 is S.P. then C.P. = Rs. 100
= Price × Sale 100 × 190
= (100 – 25) × (100 + 20) ∴ Rs. 190 is S.P. then C.P. =
95
= 75 × 120 = Rs. 9,000 = Rs. 200 Ans.
⇒ Decrease = 10,000 – 9,000 ∴ 1
= Rs. 1,000 14. (C) S.P. of one needle = Rs.
40
(1‚000) ⇒ Loss = 25%
⇒ % Derecase = × 100%
10‚000 100 1
= 10% (Decrease) Ans. ∴ C.P. of one needle = ×
(100 – 25) 40
8. (A) 1
9. (A) Let the C.P. of the article be Rs. x = Rs.
30
∴ Actual loss = Rs. (x – 19) (100 + 20) 1
5×x New S.P. for 20% profit = ×
and Profit at 5% = 100 30
100
6 1
∴ 5x = ×
= x – 19 5 30
100
1
⇒ 5x = 100x – 1,900 = Rs.
25
⇒ 100x – 5x = 1,900 ∴ Number of needles to be sold
⇒ 95x = 1,900
= 25 needles per rupee Ans.
1‚900
∴ x = = Rs. 20 15. (A) Let the C.P. of 20 articles be Rs. 100
95
100
Now S.P. to get 5% profit ∴ The C.P. of 1 article be Rs. = Rs. 5
105 × 20 20
= and S.P. of 30 articles = Rs. 100
100
= Rs. 21 Ans. 100
∴ S.P. of 1 article =
10. (B) 30
11. (B) Let the price of heater before increase be = Rs. 3·33
Rs. 100 and number of heaters sold be 100. ∴ Loss = 5·00 – 3·33
∴ Money received = 100 × 100 = Rs. 1·67
= Rs. 10,000 ∴ Loss on Rs. 5 = Rs. 1·67
Now, New price of heater = (100 + 20) 1·67 × 100
= Rs. 120 ∴ Loss on Rs. 100 =
5
and No. of heaters sold = (100 – 20) 1
= 80 = 33 % Ans.
3
∴ Money received afterwards
Chapter-10
= Rs. (120 × 80)
= Rs. 9,600 1. (E) If 12 men finish a work in = 20 days
∴ Percentage decrease ∴ 15 men will finish a work in
(10‚000 – 9‚600) 20 × 12
= × 100% =
15
10‚000
= 4% Ans. = 16 days Ans.
12. (C) 2. (A)
40 | R. Arith.

3. (D) Part of the tank filled in 1 min. by first 1

∴ Work of 4 days of Deepak = ×4
1 12
pipe =
40 1
=
Part of the tank emptied in 1 min. by second 3
1 1 2
pipe = ∴ The remaining work = 1 – =
60 3 3
∴ Part filled in 1 min. when both pipes are ∴ 2
Both together do in 5 days = work
1 1 1 3
opened = – = ∴ Both together do in 1 day
40 60 120
∴ Full tank can be filled in 120 minutes. 2 2
= =
Ans. 3 × 5 15
∴ ∴ Work of 1 day of Prakash
4. (C) Work of 4 men = Work of 6 women
2 1 1
∴ Work of (4 men + 12 women) = –
15 12 20
=
= Work of (6 + 12) women ∴ Prakash will complete the remaining
= Work of 18 women 2 20
∴ (2/3) work alone in = ×
6 women can do some work in = 12 days 3 1
∴ 18 women can do the same work in 1
= 13 days Ans.
6 × 12 3
= = 4 days Ans. ∴
18 11. (A) Part of the tank filled in 1 minute,
5. (D) when all 3 pipes are opened
∴ 1 1 1
6. (B) 15 men build a wall in 10 days = + –
30 20 15
(working = 8 hours a day)
2+3–4 1
∴ 8 men build a wall in 10 days working =
60
=
60
part
8 × 15 ∴ Full tank will be filled in
=
8 = 60 minute Ans.
= 15 hours Ans.
7. (D) Chapter-11
∴ 1 1. (D) Time taken by the train to pass a pole
8. (A) Work of Ramesh for 1 day = part
20 = 12 seconds
⇒ Work of (Ramesh + Suresh) for 5 days and distance covered by the train to pass a
= 5× ( )1
+
20 25
1 pole
∴ Speed of the train
= 250 m

250
= 5× ( )5+4
100
=
12
m/s

9 250 × 60 × 60
= km/hr
=
20
part 12 × 1‚000
⇒ Remaining work after 5 days = 75 km/hr. Ans.
9 11 2. (D)
= 1– = part ∴
20 20 3. (D) Speed of the train
∴ Ramesh alone can finish the remaining = 60 metres/minute
11 1 = 60 m/60 sec
work in = ÷ = 11 days Ans. = 1 m/sec
20 20
9. (C) Distance 100m
∴ Required Time = =
1 Speed 1m/sec
10. (E) Work in 1 day of Deepak = = 100 seconds Ans.
12
 R. Arith. | 41

4. (C) 1·4 1·4 16

Again, – =
5. (B) Speed of the train y x 60
(220 + 280)m x–y 4
= ⇒ = …(ii)
20 sec xy 21
= 25m/sec On solving eqns. (i) and (ii) we get,
25 × 60 × 60 x = 7 and y = 3. Ans.
= km/hour 10. (B) Speed of the train = 72 km/hr
1‚000
5
= 90 km/hour Ans. = 72 × m/sec
18
6. (C) Speed of the train before reduction
= 20 m/sec
60 × 60
= ∴ Length of the train = 20 × 9
45
= 180 metres Ans.
= 80 km/hr.
11. (D)
Speed after reduction = 80 – 5
= 75 km/hr. Chapter-12
∴ Time taken to cover the same distance at 1. (C)
60 4
75 km/hr. = hrs. = hrs. 200 × 5 × 5
75 5 2. (D) S.I. =
= 48 min. Ans. 100 × 2
∴ = Rs. 25. Ans.
7. (E) Relative speed of the train
3. (D) 4. (B)
= (75 – 10)km/hr 5. (D) Suppose Ram invests Rs. x at 4%
5
= 65 × m/sec ⇒ Ram invests Rs. (8,000 – x) at 5%
18 x×4×1
∴ Interest on Rs. x =
5 100
∴ Length of the train = 65 × × 6 metres
18 x
= Rs.
325 25
= m
3 and interest on Rs. (8,000 – x)
= 108·33 metres. (8‚000 – x) × 5 × 1
=
Ans. 100
8. (A) Let the speed of the goods train = x 8‚000 – x
km/hr. = Rs.
20
Relative speed of the passenger train ∴ x 8‚000 – x
+ = 350
= (80 – x) km/hr. 25 20
∴
(80 – x) × 4 = x × 6 ∴ x = Rs. 5,000
⇒ 320 – 4x = 6x Hence he invest Rs. 5,000 at 4% and
320 Rs. 3,000 at 5%
∴ x = = 32 km/hr. Ans. ∴ Ratio = 5 : 3 Ans.
10
9. (C) Let the speed of A be x km./hr. and that of 6. (E)
B be y km/hr. P×T×R
7. (B) S.I. =
∴ 1·4 1·4 100
: = 3:7
x y P × 10 × 4
⇒ 4,000 =
y 3 100
⇒ =
x 7 ∴ P = Rs. 10,000 Ans.
⇒ 3x – 7y = 0 …(i) 8. (D)
42 | R. Arith.

∴ 150 × 8 × T 800 × 9 × 3 ∴ P = 1·50 × 100

9. (A) =
100 100 × 2 = Rs. 150 Ans.
⇒ (3 × 4)T = 108 15. (B) Rate of interest half yearly
108
∴ T = = 9 years Ans. 1
= × 10 = 5%
12 2
10. (B) Let the rate of interest be R% per annum
Suppose time is n years
and required sum be Rs. P.
∴ R×4 = 2n half yearly
540 = 450 1 + ( 100) ∴
(
1,852·20 = 1,600 1 +
5 2n
)
R 540 6 100
⇒ 1+ = = 2n
25 450 5
= ( )
1‚852·20 21
⇒
⇒ R = 25 ( ) 6
5
–1 1‚600 20
2n
= ( )
18‚522 21
1 ⇒
= 25 × = 5% 16‚000 20
5 2n
= ( )
9‚261 21
∴ 5×5 ⇒
637·50 = P × 1 + ( 100) 8‚000
3
20
2n

= P×
5
4
⇒ (20) = (2120)
21

4 ⇒ 2n = 3
∴ P = × 637·50 3
5 ∴ n =
= Rs. 510 Ans. 2
11. (D) 1
n = 1 years. Ans.
12. (A) Since interest is compounded half yearly 2
4
3
∴ Rate = % half yearly and
2
16. (A) Reqd. Amount = 10,000 (1 + 100
10
)
Time = 2 years = 4 × half year 4
= 10,000 ( )
11
∴ Required Interest 10
4 14‚641
= 1,000 [( 1+ ) ]
3
2 × 100
–1 = 10,000 ×
10‚000
4 = Rs. 14,641 Ans.
= 1,000 [(
200)
– 1]
203
17. (E)
= 1,000[(1·015)4 – 1] 18. (D) Let the sum be Rs. P and the rate of
= 1,000 [1·06136 – 1] interest is R% per annum.
1,000 × (0·06136) R 3
=
= Rs. 61·36 Ans. (
8,820 = P 1 +
100 ) …(1)

R 4
13. (B)
14. (A) Let the principal sum be Rs. P. Then (
9,261 = P 1 +
100 ) …(2)
∴ Divide (2) by (1)
Difference between C.I. and S.I. for 2
R 2
years = P ( )
100
⇒ 1+( )
R
100
=
9‚261
8‚820
10 2
⇒ 1·50 = P ( )
100 ⇒
R
100
=
9‚261
8‚820
–1
1 2
= P ( )
10
=
(9‚261 – 8‚820)
8‚820
 R. Arith. | 43

441 1 Hence, salary of Raju

= =
8‚820 20 = 2,400 – 1,800
100 = Rs. 600 Ans.
∴ R = = 5% Ans. ∴
20 7. (C) Average age of 3 persons = 45 years
19. (A) 20. (C) ⇒ Total age of 3 persons
Chapter-13 = 3 × 45 = 135 years
Let the ages of three persons are 2x, 3x and 4x
1. (D) Average age of 30 boys = 10 years
years respectively.
∴ Total age of 30 boys = 10 × 30 ∴
2x + 3x + 4x = 135
= 300 years
135
Q Average age of (30 boys + 1 teacher) ∴ x = = 15
9
= (10 + 1) = 11 years Required difference = 4x – 2x
∴ Total age of (30 boys + 1 teacher) = 2x = 2 × 15
= 11 × 31 = 30 years Ans.
= 341 years 8. (A) Q Total runs scored by cricket eleven
∴ Teachers’ age = 341 – 300
= 50 × 11 = 550
= 41 years Ans. ⇒ Total runs scored by team, excluding the
2. (A) captain = (50 + 5) × (11 – 1)
3. (C) Time taken by motorist to go from A to B = 55 × 10 = 550
60 ∴ Runs scored by the captain
= = 3 hours
20 = 550 – 550
and time taken by motorist to go from B to A = 0 (zero) Ans.
60 9. (C) 10. (B)
= = 2 hours
30 11. (C) Average of 3 numbers = 12
∴ Total time taken = 3 + 2 = 5 hours ∴ Total of 3 numbers = 3 × 12 = 36
and Total distance covered But the greatest number = 16
= 60 + 60 = 120 km. ∴ The smallest number = 8
∴ Average speed =
120 ∴ The remaining number = 36 – 16 – 8
5 = 12 Ans.
= 24 km/hr. Ans.
4. (C) B. (C) Chapter-14
1. (A) Let the length of the field be x metres
6. (A) Average salary of (Raju, Sashi and 3x
∴ Breadth of the field be = m.
Mahesh) = Rs. 800 4
∴ Total salary of (Raju, Sashi and Mahesh) ∴ 3x
Area = x ×
= 800 × 3 4
= Rs. 2,400 3x2
∴ ⇒ 1,200 =
Average salary of (Sashi, Promod and 4
Mahesh) = Rs. 900 ∴ x = 40 m Ans.
2. (C) 3. (C)
∴ Total salary of (Sashi, Pramod and
Mahesh) = 900 × 3 4. (C) Let the radius of the circle be R.
If the radius is diminished by 10%, then
= Rs. 2,700 (100 – 10)
∴ Total salary of (Sashi and Mahesh) radius = ×R
100
= 2,700 – 900 9
= Rs. 1,800 = R
10
44 | R. Arith.
2 10. (A) Let the length and breadth of a rectangular
Q Diminished Area = πR2 – π (109 R) piece of land are 3x and 2x metres respec-
tively.
∴
= πR (1 –
100)
81
2 Perimeter of land × Rs. 12·50
= Rs. 2,000
= πR ( )
19
2 ⇒ 2 (3x + 2x) × 12·50 = 2,000
100
2‚000
∴ % of area diminished x =
10 × 12·5
= 16

=
πR2 (100
19
) × 100% ∴ Reqd. difference = Length – Breadth
= 3x – 2x = x
πR2
= 16 metres Ans.
= 19% Ans.
11. (C) Let the length of rectangle = l metre,
5. (A) Let the man can eat x chapatties of 42
3
inches diameter then Breadth = l.
4
42 2
∴ Area = x × π × ( ) 2
∴ 3
l × l = 192 m2
4
and the area of 98 chapatties of 6 inches 4
6 2 ⇒ l 2 = × 192 = 256 = (16)2
diameter ()
= 98 × π ×
2 ∴
3
l = 16 m
∴ 42 2 6 2
x×π× ( ) 2
= 98 × π() 2
∴ Perimeter of rectangle
= 2 (l + b)
∴ x = 2 Ans. = 2 × (16 + 12) = 56 m Ans.
6. (C) 12. (E)
7. (B) Let the length, breadth and height of a
rectangular room are l, b and h respectively. Chapter-15
∴ Area of four walls = 2 × h × (l + b) 1. (B)
and Area of four walls of New room 2. (B) Let the length of the base be x inches
∴
= 2 × 2h × (2l + 2b) x. x. 8 = 32
= 4 × [2 × h × (l + b)] ∴ x = 2 inches Ans.
∴
Cost of white washing of [2h × (l + b) ] 3. (E) All the faces of a 4 inch cube have been
= Rs. 25 painted as shown in the figure below :
∴ Cost of white washing of 4 × [2h × (l + b)]
= 4 × 25
= Rs. 100 Ans.
8. (D)
9. (C) Let the length and breadth of the rectangle
be x and y metres respectively
∴
x – y = 23 …(1)
and 2 (x + y) = 206
⇒ (x + y) = 103 …(2)
On solving eqns. (1) and (2) we get
x = 63 and y = 40 ∴
∴ Area of the rectangle = 63 × 40 Every face of the cube has only 4 cubes
= 2520 sq. m in the centre, that have been painted on
Ans. one of their face only.
 R. Arith. | 45

∴ Reqd. number of cubes 10. (D) Let the length of one side of square base
= 4 × 6 faces = 24 Ans. be l metres. Then
∴
4. (C) 5. (E) 6. (B) 30 × l2 = 4 × 120 cu. mtrs.
7. (D) Volume of the packet of 100 notes 4 × 120
⇒ l2 = = (4)2
1 30
= 5×2×
2 ∴ l = 4 metres Ans.
= 5 cu inches 11. (B) Reqd. number of bricks
and volume of the box 3‚200 × 300 × 40
=
= 10 × 6 × 2 25 × 15 × 8
= 120 cu inches = 128 × 20 × 5 = 12,800 Ans.
∴ No. of packets that can be placed in the 12. (A)
120 13. (D) Vol. of the piece of the metal
box =
5 = 48 × 36 × 15 cu. cm.
= 24 and area of the base of the tank
∴ Reqd. money can be placed in the box = 72 × 60 sq. cm.
= 1,000 × 24 ∴ Increase in water level
= Rs. 24,000 Ans. 48 × 36 × 15
=
8. (C) Let one side of the cubical tank be l 72 × 60
metres. As per question, = 6 cm Ans.
∴ 375 14. (A) Let the breadth of the wall be x metres
5 × l2 = = 300 m2
1·25 ∴ Its height = 5x m
⇒ l 2 = 60 m2 and its length = 8 × 5x m
∴
Volume of the wall
∴ l = 2√ ⎯⎯15 m
= 8 × 5x × 5x × x
∴ Volume of the cubic tank
⇒ 18,225 = 200x 3
= l 3 = (2⎯
√⎯15)3 ∴ x = 4·5 metre Ans.
= 8 × 15⎯
√⎯15 15. (C) Area of the field = 50 × 40 = 2,000 m2
Volume of the soil dug out = 20 × 10 × 4
= 120⎯
√⎯15 m3 Ans. = 800 m3
9. (A) Let the level of water rise by 2 metre in and Area of the remaining part of the field
time t. Then, = 2,000 – (20 × 10)
∴
Speed of water flow = 20 kmph = 1,800 m2
5 800 m3
= 20 × m/sec. ∴ Height of the soil =
18 1‚800 m 2
50 4
= m/sec = m Ans.
9 9
50
⇒ 1·5 × 1·25 × × t = 200 × 150 × 2 Chapter-16
9
93·75
⇒ × t = 60,000 1. (A) Total production of all the 5 states in
9 2008 = 8·9 + 16·2 + 16·8 + 7·4 + 23·2
60‚000 × 9 = 72·5 lakh tonnes
∴ t =
93·75 1 1
= 5760 seconds and of total production = × 72·5
8 8
= 96 minutes = 9·06
= 1 hour 36 minutes Ans. 8·9 is quite close to 9·06 Ans.
46 | R. Arith.

2. (C) 20. (D) Production of potatoes in 2005-06

3. (A) Rise in production in 2009 over that in = 400 tonnes
2006 for the state A = 11·6 – 9·0 = 2·6 lakh and production of potatoes in 2000-01
tonnes. = 210 tonnes
This is the highest in all states. Ans. ∴ Production of potatoes 2005-06 is of that
4. (E) Percentage increase for the state E in 2010 in 2000-01
over that in 2009 400
= = 1·9 times Ans.
(23·9 – 22·2) × 100 210
= % = 7·65%
22·2 21. (B) Average production
This is the highest in all years. Ans. (68·9 + 63·0 + 58·6 + 67·8 + 59·1 + 73·9
5. (C) 6. (B) 7. (B) 8. (E) 9. (C) + 66·5 + 77·7 + 78·1 + 63·3 + 77·4)
=
10. (A) Popularity of variety A increased for the 11
first two years and then decreased. 754·3
= = 68·6
11. (D) 11
12. (B) Percentage of net profit in 2007 of total Highest production = 78·1
38·9 × 100 Reqd. Difference = 78·1 – 68·6
turnover in 2009 = %
485·9 = 9·5 Ans.
= 8% Ans. 22. (E) Production in 1971 is 68·9 which is very
13. (C) Percent increase in gross profit in 2009 as close to that of the average production 68·6.
compared to 2008 23. (C) Production in 1975 is 59·1 and that of
(203·3 – 160·5) × 100 1976 is 73·9. Hence in this period 1975-76,
= %
160·5 the increase is maximum. Ans.
42·8 × 100 24. (D) Max. Production = 78·1
= % = 26·667%
160·5 and Min. Production = 58·6
which is the largest in all the years. Ans. ∴ Reqd. difference = 78·1 – 58·6
14. (B) Percentage of the total turnover in 2008 of = 19·5 Ans.
the total turnover in 2005
25. (A) Decrease in production from 1979 to
439·7 × 100
= % = 125% Ans. 1980 = 78·1 – 63·3 = 14·8
351·6
This is the highest decrease in all the years.
15. (E) Difference between the total turnover and Ans.
the gross profit in 2005
= 351·6 – 155·5 = 196·1 Chapter-17
This is the least difference in all the years. 1. (A) Let present age of Smitha be x years and
Ans. present age of Smitha’s mother be y years
16. (A) 17. (D) Q (y – 10) = 4 (x – 10)
18. (B) Total yield of potatoes from 2000-01 to
2006-07 ⇒ 4x – y = 30 …(i)
= (210 + 220 + 222 + 245 + 315 and (y + 10) = 2 (x + 10)
+ 400 + 445) ⇒ 2x – y = – 10 …(ii)
= 2,057 Solving eqns. (i) and (ii) we get,
∴ Average yield of potatoes from 2000-01 x = 20 and y = 50
to 2006-07
Hence present age of Smitha = 20 years. Ans.
2‚057
= = 293·86 tonnes. Ans. 2. (D)
7
19. (C) During 2006-07 rice, maize and pulses 6, 15, 24, 33, 42, 51, ?
showed decrease in production. But only rice
+9 +9 +9 +9 +9 +9
is given in alternative answers. Hence rice is
the correct answer. ∴ ? = 51 + 9 = 60 Ans.
 R. Arith. | 47

3. (B) 4. (D) 4 3 1 4+3 1

(e) + – == –
5. (A) Distance covered by the wheel in 1254 7 7 4 7 4
revolutions = 2 km. + 5 hm. + 8 m 1 3
= 1 – = = 0·75
= 2000 m + 500 m + 8 m 4 4
= 2508 m Hence option (D) is the Least. Ans.
∴Distance covered in 1 revolution by the 10. (A)
2508 4 5 9 18 34 ? = 59
wheel = =2m
1254
+ (1)2 + (2)2 + (3)2 + (4)2 + (5)2
∴ Circumference of wheel = 2 m Ans.
∴ ∴ ? = 34 + (5)2 = 59 Ans.
6. (C) n (H ∪ M) = 50 – 12 = 38
11. (D)
⇒ n (H ∩ M) = n (H) + n (M) – n (H ∪ M)
2 5 12 27 58 ? = 121
U = 50
M H ×2+1 ×2+2 ×2+3 ×2+4 ×2+5
13 + 3 + 22 ∴ ? = 58 × 2 + 5 = 121 Ans.
12. (B) Let the present age of Ambica = x years
12 and present age of Chanda = y years. Then,
∴
∴ n (H ∩ M) = 25 + 16 – 38 (x – 5) = 7 × (y – 5)
= 41 – 38 = 3 Ans. ⇒ 7y – x = 35 – 5 = 30 …(1)
7. (D) (5°) (8') = 5 × 60' + 8' = 308' Ans. and y = ·x
1
…(2)
8. (D) (a) = 0·49 4
49 Substitute the value of y in eqn. (1), we get :
(b) = 3·5 × 0·2 × × 0·7 7
100 x – x = 30
= 0·7 × 0·343 = 0·2401 4
0·98 – (0·7) 2 4 × 30
(c) = 98% of ⇒ x =
0·98% of 100 3
= 40 years Ans.
= (100
98
) of 0·98
0·98
– 0·49
× 100
13. (D) The given number series is an A.P.
a = 4 and
100
d = common difference = 11 – 4 = 7.
98 0·49 0·98 ∴
= × = = 0·49 2097 = 4 + (n – 1) · 7 = 7n – 3
100 0·98 2
2‚097 + 3
(d) =
2402
= 0·7 ⇒ n =
3430 7
(e) = None of these 2‚100
= = 300
7
Hence option (D) is the greatest. Ans. Hence 2,097 is the 300th term of the given
9. (D) (a) = 1 series.
30 14. (D) Required sum
(b) = 30% of 3·3 = × 3·3
100 = 311 + 312 + 313 + 314 + …… + 323
9·9 + 324
= = 0·99
10 = 310 × 14 + [1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + …… +
21 13 + 14]
(c) = = 1·05
20 14 × 15
= 4340 + = 4340 + 105
1 2 2
(d) = × (13 ~ 11) = = 0·667
3 3 = 4445 Ans.
48 | R. Arith.

36
Short-cut Method— ∴ x =
6
14
Reqd. Sum = (311 + 324) = 6 years
2
= 7 × 635 = 4445 Ans. Ans.
∴
∴ 19. (D) 676 = (26) 2
15. (A) Present age of father = 38 years
961 = (31) 2
38
⇒ Present age of son = = 19 years and 1296 = (36) 2
2
∴ ∴ 1025 ≠ square of any natural number.
[ 38 – x = x]
Ans.
∴ Son’s age 5 years back = 19 – 5 ∴
20. (E) 7, 18, 29, 40, …… is an A.P. series
= 14 years Ans. ∴
[ 18 – 7 = 29 – 18]
16. (D) Reqd. distance
Here, a = 7
= √⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
(Length)2 + (Breadth)2 and d = 18 – 7 = 11
= √⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯2
(40) + (30) 2 ∴ T n = a + (n – 1)d
= 7 + (n – 1)11
= √⎯⎯⎯⎯(50) 2 = 50 metres Ans.
= 11n – 4
17. (B) Let the prices of a bullock and a cow are
⎡ + 4 = 2099⎤
Rs. x and Rs. y respectively.
∴ ⎢ 2095 ⎥
Then, 9x + 7y = 6x + 13y ⇒ ⎢ 2094 + 4 = 2098⎥
⎢ 2197 + 4 = 2201⎥
⎢ ⎥
= Rs. 30,000 ⎣ 2107 + 4 = 2111⎦
⇒ (9 – 6)x = (13 – 7)y
Since 2099, 2098, 2201 and 2111 are not
∴ x = 2y exactly divisible by 11. Hence none of these
7
∴ 9x + 7y = 9x + x numbers belong to the given series.
2
Ans.
= Rs. 30,000
25 21. (B) Suppose Suresh is x years younger than
⇒ x = 30,000 Rajesh
2
30‚000 × 2 ∴ Suresh will be x years older than Nitin
∴ Price of a bullock = ∴ age of Suresh + x = age of Rajesh
25
= Rs. 2,400 Ans. and age of Suresh – x = age of Nitin
∴
18. (B) Let the present age of son = x years 2 × age of Suresh = sum of the age of
∴ Present age of mother = 5x years (Rajesh and Nitin)
∴
Then, (x + 4) + (5x + 4) = 44 ⇒ 2 × age of Suresh = 48 years
⇒ 6x = 44 – 8 ∴ Age of Suresh = 24 years. Ans.
= 36 22. (B)

⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
Mechanical Engineering
1 THERMODYNAMICS

01. For isothermal expansion of a perfect gas, the (B) Temperature

ΔP (C) Energy
value of is equal to—
P (D) Number of moles
ΔV ΔV 07. A Carnot engine works between a hot reser-
(A) – γ1/2 (B) –
V V voir at temperature T 1 and a cold reservoir at
ΔV temperature T2. To increase the efficiency—
(C) γ (D) None of these
V (A) T1 and T 2 both should be increased
PV (B) T1 and T 2 both should be decreased
02. The gas law = constant is true for—
T (C) T1 should be decreased and T 2 increased
(A) Isothermal changes only
(D) T1 should be increased and T2 decreased
(B) Adiabatic changes only
(C) Both isothermal and adiabatic changes 08. Which of the following is an intensive pro-
(D) Neither isothermal nor adiabatic changes perty of a thermodynamic system ?
(A) Volume (B) Temperature
03. Air in a cylinder is suddenly compressed by a
piston with the passage of time— (C) Mass (D) Energy
(A) The pressure decreases 09. Which of the following is the extensive
(B) The pressure increases property of a thermodynamic system ?
(C) The pressure may remain constant (A) Pressure (B) Volume
(D) The pressure may increase or decrease (C) Temperature (D) Density
depending upon the nature of gas 10. The temperature at which the volume of a gas
04. The work done in an adiabatic change on a becomes zero is called—
particular gas depends upon only— (A) Absolute scale temperature
(A) Change in value (B) Absolute zero temperature
(B) Change in pressure (C) Absolute temperature
(C) Change in temperature (D) None of the above
(D) None of the above
11. The unit of energy in SI system is—
05. The work done in an isothermal expansion of (A) Joule (J) (B) Joule metre (Jm)
a gas depends upon—
(C) Watt (W) (D) Joule/metre (J/m)
(A) Temperature
(B) Expansion ratio only 12. One watt is equal to—
(C) Both temperature and expansion ratio (A) 1 Nm (B) 1 N/min
(D) Neither temperature nor expansion ratio (C) 10 N/S (D) 1000 Nm/S
06. The first law of thermodynamics is concerned 13. One joule (J) is equal to—
with the conservation of— (A) 1 Nm (B) K Nm
(A) Number of molecules (C) 10 Nm/S (D) 10 K Nm/S
 Mechanical | 3

14. The heating and expanding of a gas is 22. For any reversible process, the change in
called— entropy of the system and surrounding is—
(A) Thermodynamic system (A) Zero (B) Unity
(B) Thermodynamic cycle (C) Negative (D) Positive
(C) Thermodynamic process 23. Kelvin-Planck's law deals with—
(D) Thermodynamic law (A) Conservation of energy
15. Which of the following statement is correct ? (B) Conservation of heat
(A) The slope of vaporisation curve is always (C) Conservation of mass
negative (D) Conservation of heat into work
(B) The slope of vaporisation curve is always
24. The property of a working substance which
positive
increases or decreases as the heat is supplied
(C) The slope of sublimation curve is or removed in a reversible manner is known
negative for all pure substances as—
(D) The slope of fusion curve is positive for (A) Enthalpy
all pure substances
(B) Internal energy
16. The specific volume of water when heated at (C) Entropy
0°C— (D) External energy
(A) First increases and then decreases
25. The entropy may be expressed as a function
(B) First decreases and then increases
of—
(C) Increases steadily
(A) Pressure and Temperature
(D) Decreases steadily
(B) Temperature and Volume
17. Internal energy of a perfect gas depends on— (C) Heat and work
(A) Temperature, specific heat and pressure (D) All of the above
(B) Temperature, specific heat and enthalpy
26. The change of entropy, when heat is absorbed
(C) Temperature, specific heat and entropy by the gas is—
(D) Temperature only (A) Positive
18. In reversible polytropic process— (B) Negative
(A) True heat transfer occurs (C) Positive and negative
(B) The entropy remains constant (D) None of the above
(C) The enthalpy remains constant 27. Gibb’s function is expressed as—
(D) The internal energy remains constant (A) (u + PV – TS)
19. An isentropic process is always— (B) (u + PV + Tds)
(C) (u + PdV – Tds)
(A) Irreversible and adiabatic
(D) (u + PV – SdT)
(B) Reversible and isothermal
(C) Frictionless 28. Availability function is expressed as—
(D) Reversible and adiabatic (A) a = (u + P0V – T0S)
(B) a = (u + P0 dV – T0ds)
20. Second law of thermodynamics defines—
(C) a = (du + P0 dV – T0ds)
(A) Heat (B) Work
(D) a = (u + P0 V + T0 S)
(C) Enthalpy (D) Entropy
29. For each mole of oxygen, number of moles of
21. For any reversible adiabatic process, the nitrogen required for complete combustion of
change in entropy is— carbon are—
(A) Zero (B) Minimum (A) 20/21 (B) 2/21
(C) Maximum (D) Infinite (C) 77/21 (D) 79/21
4 | Mechanical

30. The most important solid fuel is— 39. Gases have could have an infinite, number of
(A) Wood (B) Charcoal specific heats but only …… specific heats are
(C) Coal (D) All of the above defined.
(A) One (B) Two
31. A chemical fuel is a substance which releases
……… on combustion. (C) Three (D) Four
(A) Chemical energy 40. Alcohol is a liquid fuel obtained from—
(B) Heat energy (A) Vegetable matter (B) Crude oil
(C) Sound energy (C) Coal (D) None of these
(D) Magnetic energy 41. Which one of the following processes or
32. The smallest particle which can take part in a systems does not involve heat ?
chemical change is called ? (A) Steady processes
(A) Atom (B) Molecules (B) Isothermal processes
(C) Electron (D) Compound (C) Adiabatic processes
33. The relative humidity during cooling and (D) Thermal processes
dehumidification of moist air— 42. For storing a gas which one of the following
(A) Increases types of compression will be ideal ?
(B) Decreases (A) Constant volume
(C) Can increase or decrease (B) Polytropic
(D) Remains constant (C) Adiabatic
(D) Isothermal
34. The relative humidity, during sensible heat-
ing— 43. Which one of the following gases obeys
(A) Can increase or decrease kinetic theory perfectly ?
(B) Increase (A) Perfect gas
(B) Pure gas
(C) Decrease
(C) Monoatomic gas
(D) Remains constant
(D) Diatomic gas
35. An air washer can work as a— 44. …… is not a property of the system.
(A) Filter only (A) Pressure (B) Temperature
(B) Humidifier only (C) Heat (D) Specific volume
(C) Dehumidifier only 45. Exhaust gases from an engine possess which
(D) All of the above of the following enrgies ?
36. Rankine cycle efficiency of a good steam (A) Chemical energy
power plant may be in the range of— (B) Potential energy
(A) 15 to 20% (B) 35 to 45% (C) Solar energy
(C) 70 to 80% (D) 90 to 95% (D) Kinetic energy
37. In case of hyperbolic expansion of a gas, the 46. Diffusion is—
heat supplied is …… the work done. (A) Mixing of unlike fluids
(A) Equal to (B) More than (B) Mixing of two portions of fluid
(C) Less than (D) None of these (C) Mixing of a gas in two containers at
38. The reversible engines are— different pressure
(A) Least efficient (D) Mixing of two portions of a fluid at
(B) Most efficient different temperature
(C) Having same efficiency as reversible 47. First law of thermodynamics gives relation-
engines ship between which of the following ?
(D) None of the above (A) Heat and internal energy
 Mechanical | 5

(B) Heat and work 56. …… is the unit of entropy.

(C) Heat, work and properties of the system (A) J/kg (B) J/kg K
(D) None of the above (C) J/K (D) J/kgs
48. The temperature in a process in which work is 57. The thermodynamics primarily deals in
done by expanding a gas under adiabatic change of state from—
condition will— (A) Electrical energy to useful work done
(A) Decrease (B) Wind power to useful work
(B) Increase
(C) Heat to work
(C) First decrease then increase
(D) Remain unaltered (D) None of the above

49. Theoretically, a petrol engine operates on 58. In engineering thermodynamics the approach
…… cycle. towards matter is—
(A) Constant entropy (A) Macroscopic
(B) Constant pressure (B) Microscopic
(C) Constant volume (C) Macroscopic and microscopic
(D) Constant temperature (D) None of above
50. …… cycle has the maximum efficiency. 59. A system is a specific space surrounded by a
(A) Brayton (B) Carnot boundary. A thermodynamics analysis is
(C) Rankine (D) Stirling concerned with—
(A) Enery transfer only
51. Carnot cycle is a …… cycle.
(B) Mass transfer only
(A) Quasi-static (B) Semi-reversible
M (C) Energy and mass transfer only
(C) Reversible (D) Irreversible
(D) None of the above
52. …… is an irreversible cycle.
60. In a closed system—
(A) Stirling cycle (B) Ericsson cycle
(A) Energy transfers from surrounding to
(C) Carnot cycle (D) None of the above system
53. To which of the following are Maxwell’s (B) Energy transfers from system to
thermodynamics relations applicable ? surrounding
(A) Thermodynamic processes (C) Energy transfers from system to
(B) Mechanical System in equilibrium surrounding and vice versa
(C) Chemical System in equilibrium (D) Energy as well as mass cross the
(D) Reversible process boundaries
54. A frictionless heat engine can be 100 per cent 61. Which one of the property geven below is an
efficient if its exhaust temperature is— intensive property of the system ?
(A) 0°C (A) Volume (B) Temperature
(B) 0°K (C) Kinetic energy (D) Potential energy
(C) Equal to internal temperature 62. Which one of the property given below is an
(D) None of the above extensive property of the system ?
55. Water contained in a beaker can be made to (A) Pressure
boil by passing steam through it— (B) Temperature
(A) At a pressure below the atmospheric (C) Potential energy
pressure (D) Viscosity
(B) At atmospheric process 63. Internal energy of a perfect gas is a function
(C) At a pressure greater than atmospheric of—
pressure (A) Temperature only
(D) Any of the above (B) Temperature and pressure
6 | Mechanical

(C) Pressure only 72. The absolute temperature on centigrade scale

(D) Volume only at which volume of gas becomes zero is—
(A) – 460°C (B) – 273°C
64. The mechanical equivalent of heat 'J' is equal
to— (C) + 80°C (D) + 100°C
(A) 4·1868 kg/K.cal. 73. Molar volume is equal to—
(B) 41·8 KJ/K.cal. (A) 22·41 m3 at N.T.P.
(C) 4·1868 KJ/K.cal (B) 2·241 m3 at N.T.P.
(D) None of the above (C) 29·27 m3 at N.T.P.
65. According to first law of thermodynamics— (D) 1·03 m3 at N.T.P.
(A) ∫dW = J∫ dQ (B) ∫dW < J∫ dQ 74. General energy equation for steam boiler is
given by—
(C) ∫dW > J∫ dQ (D) None of the above (A) Q = H2 – H1
66. Centrifugal pump is an example of— (B) Q = H1 + H2
(A) Isolated system (C) Q = H2 – H1 + Work done
(B) Closed system (D) Q = H2 – H1 + Kinetic energy
(C) Steady flow system Where Q = Heat supplied
(D) None of the above and H2 – H1 is change in enthalpy
67. Flow energy is due to— 75. According to law of conservation of energy—
(A) Transfer of mass across the boundaries (A) dQ = dW (B) dQ = dU
of the system (C) dQ = dW – dU (D) dQ = dW + dU
(B) Change of temperature
76. Enthalpy (H) is equal to—
(C) Height above the earth surface
PV PV
(D) None of the above (A) U + (B) U –
J J
68. Bomb calorimeter is an example of— R
(A) Open system (C) U + =1 (D) V + JPV
JPV
(B) Closed system 77. In a throttling process the—
(C) Steady flow system (A) Volume remains constant
(D) Isolated system (B) Pressure remains constant
69. Liquids have— (C) Temperature remains constant
(A) Two distinct values of specific heat (D) All the three remains constant
(B) Only one value of specific heat 78. Work done will be zero in case of—
(C) Different values of specific heat at same (A) Isothermal process
temperature (B) Adiabatic process
(D) No specific heat (C) Free expansion
(D) None of the above
70. For any gas —
79. Constant volume process is also known as—
(A) C p = Cv (B) C p < Cv
(A) Isotropic process
(C) C p > Cv (D) None of these (B) Hyperbolic process
71. Which is correct ? (C) Isometric process
(A) C p – C v = R × J (D) Polytropic process
(B) C p – C v = R/J 80. When a gas is heated according to the P × V =
Constant the expansion is called—
(C) C p – C v = J / R (A) Hyperbolic (B) Polytropic
(D) C p – C v = R – J (C) Free expansion (D) None of these
 Mechanical | 7

81. If H 1 and H2 are initial and final enthalpy of a 91. Coke is prepared from—
given fluid, then in throttling process— (A) Peat (B) Wood
(A) H1 > H2 (B) H1 < H2 (C) Bituminous (D) Producer gas
(C) H1 = H2 (D) None of these 92. Which fuel in the present form the percentage
82. A refrigeration system works on— of carbon is maximum ?
(A) Second law of thermodynamics (A) Wood (B) Coke
(B) First law of thermodynamics (C) Lignite (D) Coal
(C) Zeroth law of thermodynamics 93. The solid fuel having the highest calorific
(D) None of the above value is—
83. Which of the following cycle has the highest (A) Wood (B) Lignite
efficiency ? (C) Coke (D) Anthracite
(A) Otto cycle (B) Carnot cycle 94. For complete combustion of 1 kg of carbon
(C) Stirling cycle (D) Joule cycle require—
84. Gas turbine works on— (A) 8 kg of oxygen
(A) Constant volume cycle (B) 8/3 kg of oxygen
(B) Otto cycle (C) 3/8 kg of oxygen
(C) Ericsson cycle (D) None of the above
(D) Joule cycle 95. 100 kg of air contains—
85. Thermal power plant works on— (A) 21 kg of oxygen
(A) Rankine cycle (B) 35 kg of oxygen
(B) Otto cycle (C) 23 kg of oxygen
(C) Joule cycle (D) 73 kg of oxygen
(D) Constant pressure cycle Answers
86. Petrol engine works on— 1. (B) 2. (C) 3. (A) 4. (C) 5. (C)
(A) Constant pressure cycle
(B) Constant volume cycle 6. (C) 7. (D) 8. (B) 9. (B) 10. (B)
(C) Joule cycle 11. (A) 12. (A) 13. (A) 14. (B) 15. (A)
(D) Rankine cycle 16. (B) 17. (D) 18. (A) 19. (D) 20. (D)
87. Constant volume cycle is also known as— 21. (A) 22. (A) 23. (D) 24. (C) 25. (A)
(A) Otto cycle (B) Rankine cycle 26. (A) 27. (A) 28. (A) 29. (D) 30. (C)
(C) Joule cycle (D) Atkinson cycle 31. (B) 32. (A) 33. (C) 34. (B) 35. (D)
88. Joule cycle is also known as— 36. (B) 37. (A) 38. (B) 39. (B) 40. (A)
(A) Bell Coleman cycle 41. (C) 42. (D) 43. (A) 44. (C) 45. (D)
(B) Otto cycle 46. (A) 47. (C) 48. (A) 49. (C) 50. (B)
(C) Carnot cycle
51. (C) 52. (D) 53. (C) 54. (B) 55. (C)
(D) Brayton cycle
56. (B) 57. (C) 58. (A) 59. (C) 60. (C)
89. Reverse Joule cycle is also known as—
61. (B) 62. (C) 63. (A) 64. (C) 65. (A)
(A) Ericsson cycle
(B) Atkinson cycle 66. (C) 67. (A) 68. (B) 69. (B) 70. (C)
(C) Bell Coleman cycle 71. (B) 72. (B) 73. (A) 74. (A) 75. (D)
(D) Otto cycle 76. (A) 77. (C) 78. (C) 79. (C) 80. (A)
90. Which one is natural solid fuel ? 81. (C) 82. (A) 83. (B) 84. (C) 85. (A)
(A) Charcoal (B) Coke 86. (B) 87. (A) 88. (A) 89. (D) 90. (C)
(C) Peat (D) None of these 91. (C) 92. (B) 93. (D) 94. (B) 95. (C)
2 NUCLEAR POWER PLANT

01. Electron was discovered by— (C) Becquerel

(A) Faraday (B) Rutherford (D) Hahn and Strassmann
(C) Thomson (D) Kongen 11. Sun releases enormous amount of energy by
02. The ratio of specific charge of an electron to the process known as—
that of an α-particle is— (A) Fusion (B) Fission
(A) 1 : 4 (B) 1 : 2 (C) Combustion (D) Impulsion
(C) 4 : 1 (D) 2 : 1 12. Which of the following helps in knowing
03. When an electron moves in a transverse about the stability of nucleus ?
magnetic field, its path becomes— (A) Binding energy
(A) Straight line (B) Circular (B) Binding energy per nucleon
(C) Parabola (D) Elliptical (C) Both
04. The size of an electron is of the order of— (D) None of these
(A) Fermi (B) Angstrom 13. The commercial sources of energy are—
(C) Micron (D) Nanometer (A) Solar, wind, biomass
05. Cathode rays consists of a beam of— (B) Fossil fuels, hydropower and nuclear
(A) Proton (B) Positive ions energy
(C) Electron (D) None of these (C) Wood, animal wastes and agriculture
wastes
06. The radius of the nucleus is of the order of— (D) None of the above
(A) 10-15 m (B) 10-18 m
14. Non-commercial sources of energy are—
(C) 10-14 m (D) 10-16 m
(A) Wood, animal wastes and agricultural
07. The ratio of the size of an atom to that of wastes
nucleus is equal to— (B) Solar, wind, biomass
(A) 10– 4 (B) 10– 5 (C) Fossil fuels, hydropower and nuclear
(C) 10 – 3 (D) 108 power
08. The nucleus of an atom consists of— (D) None of the above
(A) Protons 15. The primary sources of energy are—
(B) Protons and electrons (A) Coal, oil and uranium
(C) Protons and neutrons (B) Hydrogen, oxygen and water
(D) None of the above (C) Wind, biomass and geothermal
09. The binding energy of hydrogen atom is— (D) None of the above
(A) 1 eV (B) Infinite 16. The secondary sources of energy are—
(C) –13·6 eV (D) Zero (A) Solar, wind and water
10. Nuclear fission was discovered by— (B) Coal, oil and uranium
(A) Rutherford (C) Both
(B) Curie (D) None of the above
 Mechanical | 9

17. In India largest thermal power station is (B) Its technology is simple
located at— (C) Abundance of thorium deposits are
(A) Kota (B) Sarni available in India
(C) Chandrapur (D) Neyveli (D) None of the above
18. The percentage of O 2 by weight in atmo- 27. Rankine cycle is a—
spheric air is— (A) Reversible cycle
(A) 18% (B) 23% (B) Irreversible cycle
(C) 77% (D) 79% z (C) Constant volume cycle
19. The percentage of O2 by volume in atmo- (D) None of the above
spheric air is— 28. A steam power station requires space—
(A) 21% (B) 23% (A) Equal to diesel power station
(C) 77% (D) 79% (B) More than diesel power station
20. The proper indication of incomplete combus- (C) Both
tion is— (D) None of the above
(A) High CO content in fuel gases at exit 29. Economiser is used to heat—
(B) High CO2 content in fuel gases at exit (A) Air (B) Feed water
(C) High temperature of fuel gases (C) Fuel gases (D) All above
(D) The smoking exhaust from chimney
30. The modern steam turbines are—
21. The main source of production of biogas is— (A) Impulse turbines
(A) Human waste (B) Reaction turbines
(B) Wet cow dung (C) Impulse-reaction turbines
(C) Wet livestock waste (D) None of the above
(D) All the above
31. The draught-which a chimney produces is
22. India's first nuclear power plant was installed called—
at— (A) Induced draught
(A) Tarapur (B) Kota (B) Natural draught
(C) Kalpakkam (D) None of the above (C) Forced draught
23. In fuel cell, the …… energy is converted into (D) Balanced draught
electrical energy. 32. The draught produced by steel chimney as
(A) Mechanical (B) Chemical compared to that produced by brick chimney
(C) Heat (D) Sound for the same height is—
24. Solar thermal power generation can be (A) Less
achieved by— (B) More
(A) Using focussing collector or heliostales (C) Same
(B) Using flat plate collectors (D) May be more or less
(C) Using a solar pond 33. Thermal efficiency of a gas turbine plant as
(D) Anyone of the above system compared to diesel engine plant is—
25. The energy radiated by sun on a bright sunny (A) Higher (B) Lower
day is approximately— (C) Same (D) None of the above
(A) 700 W/m2 (B) 800 W/m2 34. Mechanical efficiency of a gas turbine as
(C) 1 KW/m2 (D) 2 KW/m2 compared to internal combustion recipro-
26. Thorium Breeder Reactors are most suitable cating engine is—
for India because— (A) Higher (B) Lower
(A) These develop more power (C) Same (D) None of the above
10 | Mechanical

35. For a gas turbine the pressure ratio may be in 45. Critical mass of fuel is the amount required to
the range— make the multiplication factor …… unity.
(A) 2 to 3 (B) 3 to 5 (A) Equal to (B) Less than
(C) 16 to 18 (D) 18 to 22 (C) More than (D) None of the above
36. A closed cycle gas turbine works on— 46. The nuclear energy is measured in—
(A) Carnot cycle (B) Rankine cycle (A) MeV (B) MW
(C) Joule cycle (D) Atkinson cycle (C) Curie (D) None of the above
37. Thermal efficiency of closed cycle gas turbine 47. Fission chain reaction is possible when—
plant increases by— (A) Fission produces the same number of
(A) Reheating (B) Intercooling neutrons which are absorbed
(C) Regenerator (D) All of the above (B) Fission produces more neutrons than are
absorbed
38. The average thermal efficiency of a modern
nuclear power plant is about— (C) Fission produces less neutrons than are
(A) 30% (B) 40% absorbed
(D) None of the above
(C) 60% (D) 80%
48. In nuclear chain fission reaction, each neutron
39. Reflector of a nuclear reactor are made up
which causes fission produces—
of—
(A) No new neutron
(A) Boron (B) Cast iron
(B) One new neutron
(C) Beryllium (D) Steel
(C) More than one new neutron
40. The function of a moderator in a nuclear (D) None of the above
reactor is—
(A) To slow down the fast moving electrons 49. …… is the most commonly used moderator.
(B) To speed up the slow moving electrons (A) Graphite (B) Sodium
(C) To start the chain reaction (C) Deuterium (D) Any of the above
(D) None of the above 50. Which of the following are fertile materials ?
41. When a nuclear reactor is operating at (A) U238 and Th 239 (B) U238 and Th 232
constant power the multiplication factor is— (C) U233 and Pu239 (D) U238 and Pu239
(A) Less than unity
51. In a nuclear reactor the function of a reflector
(B) Greater than unity is to—
(C) Equal to unity (A) Reduce the speed of the neutrons
(D) None of the above (B) Stop the chain reaction
42. The conversion ratio of a breeder reactor is— (C) Reflect the escaping neutrons back into
(A) Equal to unity (B) More than unity the core
(C) Less than unity (D) None of the above (D) All the above
43. In the nuclear fission reactions …… isotope 52. In a Gas Cooled Reactor (GCR) …… are
of uranium is used. used as moderator and coolant respectively.
(A) U235 (B) U234 (A) Heavy water and CO2
(C) U 238 (D) None of the above (B) Graphite and air
44. Tarapur nuclear power plant has— (C) Graphite and CO2
(A) Pressurised water reactors (D) None of the above
(B) Boiling water reactors 53. A CANDU reactor uses—
(C) CANDU type reactors (A) Only fertile material
(D) None of the above (B) Highly enriched uranium (85% U235)
 Mechanical | 11

(C) Natural uranium as fuel and heavy water (C) Direct as well as diffuse radiation
as moderator and coolant (D) None of the above
(D) None of the above
62. Sun tracking is needed in the case of ……
54. Fission of U235 releases …… energy. collector.
(A) 200 MeV (B) 238 MeV (A) Flate plate
(C) 431 MeV (D) None of the above (B) Cylindrical parabolic and paraboloid
55. Fast breeder reactors are best suited for India (C) Both of them
because— (D) None of the above
(A) Of large thorium deposits 63. The nucleus of an atom consists of—
(B) Of large uranium deposits (A) Protons and electrons
(C) Of large plutonium deposits (B) Protons and neutrons
(D) None of the above (C) Neutrons and electrons
56. India's first nuclear power plant was started (D) None of the above
at— 64. Each protons carries a single unit—
(A) Narora (U.P.) (A) Positive charge (B) Negative charge
(B) Tarapur (Mumbai) (C) Neutral charge (D) Unpredictable
(C) Kota (Rajasthan)
65. Each neutron carries a single unit—
(D) Kalpakkam (Chennai)
(A) Negative charge (B) Positive charge
57. The function of a solar collector is to (C) Neutral charge (D) None of the above
convert—
(A) Solar energy into electricity 66. Each electron carries a single unit—
(B) Solar energy into radiation (A) Negative charge (B) Positive charge
(C) Solar energy into thermal energy (C) Neutral charge (D) None of the above
(D) None of the above 67. If A = mass number, Z = atomic number then
number of neutrons in the nucleus are equal
58. Most of the solar radiation received on earth
to—
surface lies within the range of—
(A) A + Z (B) A – Z
(A) 0·2 to 0·4 microns
(C) A × Z (D) A / Z
(B) 0·38 to 0·78 microns
(C) 0 to 0·38 microns 68. The method of identifying the element is—
(D) None of the above (A) ZXA (B) XAZ
(C) AXZ (D) XA/Z
59. Flat plate collector absorbs—
(A) Direct radiation only 69. The lithium element is represented as 3 Li7 .
(B) Diffuse radiation only The sum of protons and electrons is equal
(C) Direct and diffuse both to—
(D) None of the above (A) 10 (B) 3
(C) 7 (D) 4
60. Temperature attained by a flat-plate collector
is of the— 70. If carbon is represented as 6 C 12 , then the
(A) Order of above 90°C number of electrons are equal to—
(B) Range of 100°C to 150°C (A) 6 (B) 12
(C) Above 15°C (C) 18 (D) 2
(D) None of the above 71. If Beryllium is represented as 5 Be9 then the
61. A Pyranometer is used for measurement of— number of neutrons are equal to—
(A) Direct radiation only (A) 9 (B) 5
(B) Diffuse radiation only (C) 14 (D) 4
12 | Mechanical

72. The compound nucleus has— 82. The readily fissionable material is—
(A) Kinetic energy (A) Uranium-234 (B) Uranium-235
(B) Binding energy of bombarding particles (C) Uranium-238 (D) All the above
(C) Both K.E. and B.E. of bombarding 83. The material used for reactor vessel is—
particles (A) Cast iron (B) Stainless steel
(D) None of the above (C) Mild steel (D) Copper
73. Isotopes of the element has— 84. The coolant used in a nuclear power plant
(A) Same number of neutrons is—
(B) Different number of neutrons (A) Heavy water (B) Freon
(C) Same atomic weight (C) Carbon dioxide (D) Sulphur dioxide
(D) None of the above
85. In sodium graphite reactor the coolant used
74. The radiation emitted are of— is—
(A) Two type (B) Three type (A) Water (B) Graphite
(C) Four type (D) None of the above (C) Heavy water (D) Liquid-sodium
75. Which one of the following is most harmful 86. The term PWR stands for—
for the human body ? (A) Power Water Reactor
(A) Alpha particles (B) Pressurized Water Reactor
(B) Beta particles (C) Power Welding Rod
(C) Gamma particles (D) Power Work Reaction
(D) None of the above
87. The gas which is used as a coolant in a
76. Pick up the correct equation in which alpha nuclear power plant is—
particles are emitted— (A) Freon (B) Ammonia
(A) 92U238 → 2 He 4 + 90Th234 (C) Helium (D) Chlorine
(B) 92U238 → 2 H4 + 92Th238 88. Select the moderator used in a nuclear power
(C) 92U238 → 4 H2 + 90Th234 plant—
(D) 92U238 → 2 H4 + 94Th142 (A) Uranium (B) Plutonium
(C) Hydrogen (D) Oxygen
77. The division of heavy nucleus into smaller
ones is called— 89. In a sodium graphite reactor, the moderator
(A) Fusion (B) Fission used is—
(C) Vaporization (D) None of the above (A) Heavy water (B) Light water
(C) Graphite (D) None of the above
78. Combining of light nuclei to form a single
heavy nucleus is called— 90. Which one of the followings have a better
(A) Fusion (B) Fission heat transfer property ?
(C) Solidification (D) Atomization (A) Light water (B) Heavy water
(C) Sodium (D) Dowtherm
79. Natural uranium is principally a mixture of—
(A) Two isotopes (B) Three isotopes 91. The material used for shielding a core is—
(C) Four isotopes (D) None of the above (A) Concrete
80. The uranium isotope of atomic weight 233 (B) Thick galvanized sheets
(U 233 ) can be produced from— (C) Copper sheets
(A) U235 (B) Pu 239 (D) Aluminium sheets
(C) Th232 (D) None of the above 92. Concrete shield for acceptable level of radia-
81. Which one is fertile material ? tion should be minimum—
(A) U– 235 (B) U– 239 (A) 5 metre thick (B) 2 metre thick
(C) U – 233 (D) U– 238 (C) 1 metre thick (D) 1/2 metre thick
 Mechanical | 13

93. The scarm control rods are used to— 99. In a heterogeneous reactor metallic uranium
(A) Control the chain reaction in the reactor rods are used with—
(B) Prevent radiation from the reactor (A) Aluminium (B) Zirconium
(C) Stainless steel (D) All the above
(C) Both
(D) None of the above 100. In boiling water reactor steam is generated—
(A) In the reactor vessel
94. The moderator used in fast breeding reactor
(B) In the boiler
is—
(C) In the heat exchanger
(A) Graphite
(D) None of the above
(B) Liquid sodium
(C) Heavy water Answers
(D) None of the above 1. (C) 2. (B) 3. (B) 4. (A) 5. (C)
95. The fuel used in a pressurized water reactor 6. (C) 7. (A) 8. (C) 9. (C) 10. (D)
is— 11. (A) 12. (B) 13. (B) 14. (A) 15. (A)
(A) Enriched uranium 16. (A) 17. (C) 18. (B) 19. (A) 20. (A)
(B) Radium 21. (D) 22. (A) 23. (B) 24. (D) 25. (C)
(C) Thorium 26. (C) 27. (A) 28. (B) 29. (B) 30. (C)
(D) Lead 31. (B) 32. (B) 33. (B) 34. (A) 35. (B)
96. The pressurized water uses light water reactor 36. (C) 37. (D) 38. (A) 39. (C) 40. (A)
as— 41. (C) 42. (B) 43. (A) 44. (B) 45. (C)
(A) Coolant (B) Moderator 46. (A) 47. (B) 48. (C) 49. (A) 50. (B)
(C) Both (D) None of the above 51. (C) 52. (C) 53. (C) 54. (A) 55. (A)
97. In a homogeneous reactor the fuel used is— 56. (B) 57. (C) 58. (A) 59. (C) 60. (A)
61. (C) 62. (B) 63. (B) 64. (A) 65. (C)
(A) Uranium
66. (A) 67. (B) 68. (C) 69. (C) 70. (A)
(B) Lead
71. (D) 72. (C) 73. (B) 74. (B) 75. (C)
(C) Thorium
76. (A) 77. (B) 78. (A) 79. (B) 80. (C)
(D) Uranyl sulphate in heavy water
81. (D) 82. (B) 83. (B) 84. (A) 85. (D)
98. Which of the element is natural radioactive ? 86. (B) 87. (C) 88. (C) 89. (C) 90. (C)
(A) Radium (B) Thorium 91. (A) 92. (A) 93. (A) 94. (D) 95. (A)
(C) Uranium (D) All the above 96. (C) 97. (D) 98. (D) 99. (D) 100. (A)
3 APPLIED MECHANICS

01. Which of the following is a scalar ? 08. Stress is—

(A) Force (A) Vector (B) Scalar
(B) Electromotive force (C) Tensor (D) None of the above
(C) Torque 09. Tensor of rank zero is called—
(D) None of the above (A) Scalar (B) Vector
02. Which of the following is a scalar ? (C) Numeral (D) None of the above
(A) Linear momentum 10. Geometrical method of addition of two
(B) Electric current vectors is called—
(C) Weight (A) Triangle method
(D) None of the above (B) Parallelogram method
03. Which of the following is not a polar vector ? (C) Both
(A) Force (D) None of the above
(B) Angular velocity → → → →
11. If a · a = a2 , then a × a will be—
(C) Weight
(A) Zero (B) √
⎯ 2a
(D) None of the above
(C) a2 sin θ (D) None of the above
04. Which of the following is a Psuedo vector ?
12. A jet engine works on the principle of
(A) Force
conservation of—
(B) Gravitational field intensity
(A) Mass
(C) Torque
(B) Energy
(D) None of the above
(C) Linear momentum
05. Which of the following is a vector ? (D) Angular momentum
(A) Gravitational potential
13. A uniformly accelerating body experiences
(B) Potential difference force—
(C) Time (A) In opposite direction
(D) None of the above (B) In the same direction of motion
06. Which of the following are vector quantities ? (C) ⊥ r to the direction of motion
(A) Number of students in class (D) None of the above
(B) Velocity of a thrown base ball 14. Newton’s first law of motion provides the
(C) Mass of car concept of—
(D) None of the above (A) Energy (B) Work
07. Pressure of an ideal gas is a— (C) Inertia (D) None of the above
(A) Scalar 15. If the bucket is lowered with acceleration of
(B) Vector 1·8 m/s2 the reaction at the bottom will be—
(C) Neither scalar nor vector (A) 160 N (B) 360 N
(D) Numerals (C) 170 N (D) None of the above
 Mechanical | 15

16. Which of the following concept is indepen- 24. When milk is churned at high speed cream
dent of acceleration due to gravity ? collects—
(A) Surface tension (A) Near the axis
(B) Viscosity (B) Away from the axis
(C) Archimede’s principle (C) At the bottom of the vessel
(D) Both A and B (D) None of the above
17. A hole is drilled through the earth along a 25. In above problem the cream separates due
diameter and a stone is dropped into it. When to—
the stone is at the centre of earth it has only— (A) Centripetal force
(A) Mass (B) Weight (B) Centrifugal force
(C) Acceleration (D) None of the above (C) Gravitational force
18. The law of conservation of linear momentum (D) None of the above
can be derived from— 26. A bottle filled with soda water is grasped by
(A) Newton’s first law the neck and swing priskly in a vertical circle.
(B) Newton’s second law The bubbles will collect near the—
(C) Newton’s third law (A) Neck (B) Bottom
(D) None of the above (C) In the middle (D) None of the above
27. The angular speed of minute hand of watch
19. A soda water bottle falls under gravity. The
is—
gas bubble will—
π π
(A) Move upward (A) rad/sec (B) rad/sec
1800 60
(B) Move downward π
(C) Remain stationary (C) rad/sec (D) None of the above
3600
(D) None of the above
28. In an amusing device Rotor, the weight of the
20. A spring balance is pulled at its both ends person is supported by—
with a force of 10 kg weight. The reading of (A) Centripetal force
the balance will be— (B) Centrifugal force
(A) 10 kg wt (B) Zero (C) Frictional force
(C) 20 kg wt (D) None of the above (D) None of the above
21. A body moves through a distance of 8 metres 29. When a cyclist moves on a curved path he—
under the action of a force of 10 Newton. The (A) Remains vertical
gain in kinetic energy is— (B) Bends inward
(A) 80 J (B) 40 J (C) Bends outward
(C) 120 J (D) None of the above (D) Becomes horizontal
22. If a body moves on a circular path with 30. A piece of stone is thrown with velocity v at
uniform speed, the acceleration of the body— an angle of 60° with the horizontal. The
velocity at the highest point is—
(A) Remains constant
v
(B) Changes (A) (B) v
2
(C) Acts away from the centre
(C) 2v (D) None of the above
(D) Is zero
31. The ratio of K.E. at the highest point to the
23. Which of the following is a Psuedo force ? initial K.E. in above problem is—
(A) Electromagnetic force 1 1
(B) Cohesive force (A) (B)
2 4
(C) Centripetal force 1
(D) Centrifugal force (C) (D) None of the above
3
16 | Mechanical

32. A man can throw a ball upto a maximum 40. In an inelastic collision the quantity that
height of x metres. The maximum distance he remains conserved is—
can throw the ball on the horizontal plane is— (A) Linear momentum
(A) 2x metres (B) x metres (B) Kinetic energy
(C) 3x metres (D) None of the above (C) Density
33. A man can throw a ball up to a maximum (D) None of the above
distance x metres on a horizontal plane. The 41. Two bodies of the same mass and speed
maximum height upto which he can throw the travelling in opposite direction collide and
ball is— stick together. The velocity of compound
x body is—
(A) metres (B) x metres
2 (A) ∞ (B) Zero
(C) 2x metres (D) None of the above (C) 2v (D) None of the above
34. The maximum horizontal range of projectile 42. In a perfectly elastic collision—
is 4 km. If the projectile is thrown at an angle
(A) Linear momentum and K.E. both are
of 15° to the horizontal, its range will be—
conserved
(A) 2 km (B) 1 km
(B) Only momentum is conserved
1
(C) km (D) None of the above (C) Only K.E. is conserved
2
(D) None of the above
35. Laws of limiting friction were first of all
discovered by— 43. For perfectly inelastic collision—
(A) Leonardo da Vinci (A) e = 0 (B) e = 1
(B) Newton (C) e < 1 (D) None of the above
(C) Laplace 44. For inelastic collision—
(D) None of the above (A) e = 0 (B) e < 1
36. The static frictional force between two objects (C) e = 1 (D) None of the above
at rest w.r.t. one another is always— 45. For super elastic collision—
(A) Less than maximum value (A) e > 1 (B) e = 1
(B) Smaller than maximum value (C) e < 1 (D) None of the above
(C) Equal to maximum value 46. When the physical and chemical nature of the
(D) None of the above bodies is changed by the collision, the event
37. A person runs over ground. The nature of is known as—
friction between his shoes and the ground (A) Reaction (B) Diffraction
is— (C) Polarization (D) None of the above
(A) Static (B) Kinetic 47. When two bodies come together and interact
(C) Rolling (D) None of the above strongly for a short time, the event is known
38. If the normal force is doubled, the coefficient as—
of friction is— (A) Collision (B) Reaction
(A) Not changed (B) Halved (C) Regelation (D) None of the above
(C) Doubled (D) Triple 48. If there is no change in momentum of a body
39. The limiting friction between two bodies in then impulse of a force is—
contact is independent of— (A) Zero (B) Infinite
(A) Nature of the surface in contact (C) Constant (D) None of the above
(B) The area of surface in contact 49. For perfectly elastic collision—
(C) Normal reaction between the surface (A) e = 1 (B) e < 1
(D) None of the above (C) e = 0 (D) None of the above
 Mechanical | 17

50. In explosive collision— 59. Which one of the following has the property
(A) K.E. increases (B) K.E. decreases of ductibility ?
(C) K.E. constant (D) None of the above (A) Gold (B) Glass
(C) Air (D) Water
51. Collision in two dimension is also known
as— 60. Which one of the following has the property
(A) Oblique collision of maleability ?
(B) Straight collision (A) Copper (B) Glass
(C) Head on collision (C) Oxygen (D) NaCl
(D) None of the above 61. Which of the following is brittle ?
52. The stress required to cause actual fracture of (A) NaCl (B) Rubber
a material is called the— (C) Copper (D) Steel
(A) Tangential stress 62. A perfectly rigid body has value of Young’s
(B) Normal stress modulus—
(C) Ultimate strength (A) Zero (B) 1
(D) None of the above (C) Infinite (D) None of the above
53. The shear modulus has a significance— 63. Modulus of rigidity of glass is—
(A) For solid material (A) Zero (B) Infinite
(B) For liquids only (C) 1 (D) None of the above
(C) For gases only 64. Poisson’s ratio of real bodies is always—
(D) None of the above (A) Zero (B) Negative
54. Compressibility of air is— (C) Positive (D) None of the above
(A) Greater than that of water 65. In a pure bending the nature of strain produce
(B) Less than water is—
(C) Equal to water (A) Volume (B) Tensile
(D) None of the above (C) Shear (D) None of the above
55. Which one of the following is more elastic ? 66. In S.H.M. the amplitude of a vibrating
(A) Rubber (B) Steel particle is determined by—
(C) Aluminium (D) Glass (A) Frequency (B) Velocity
56. The P.E. per unit volume of stretched wire (C) Energy (D) Wavelength
is— 67. In S.H.M. acceleration in particle doing
1 Stress S.H.M. is given by f = – ω 2 y. Here ω is
(A) Stress × Strain (B)
2 Strain known as—
(C) Stress ∝ Strain (D) None of the above (A) Angular velocity
57. The change in the shape of a regular body is (B) Pulsatance
due to— (C) Angular speed
(A) Longitudinal strain (D) None of the above
(B) Shearing strain 3T
(C) Volume strain 68. At velocity of particle doing S.H.M.
4
(D) None of the above (T being period of motion) is—
58. The ratio of the adiabatic elasticity to the (A) Minimum
isothermal elasticity is— (B) Maximum
(A) C p /Cv (B) C v – C p (C) Infinite
(C) C p – C v (D) None of the above (D) None of the above
18 | Mechanical

69. In S.H.M. if maximum velocity and maximum 78. The motion in which time period (T) is
acceleration of a particle is equal, the period independent of amplitude is called—
of oscillation is— (A) Isochronous
(A) 3·14 sec. (B) 6·28 sec (B) Rotatory
π (C) Relative
(C) sec (D) None of the above
2 (D) None of the above
T
70. At the acceleration of particle in SHM 79. A man jumps 2 metre on the surface of earth.
4 How high he will jump on a planet whose
(T being period) is— radius is 64 km and mean density same as that
a of the earth ?
(A) – ω2 a (B) ω2
2 (A) 200 metre (B) 400 metre
(C) 0 (D) None of the above (C) 1 metre (D) None of the above
71. In S.H.M.— 80. A satellite is moving in a circular orbit around
(A) Phase and epoch both varies the earth. It moves with—
(B) Phase is constant and epoch remains (A) Constant speed
constant (B) Constant acceleration
(C) Epoch varies and phase remain constant (C) No force acting on it
(D) None of the above (D) None of the above
72. The phase difference between force and velo- 81. The period of a satellite in a circular orbit
city in S.H.M. is— around a planet is independent of—
π
(A) 0 (B) (A) The mass of the planet
2
(B) The radius of the planet
(C) π (D) None of the above
(C) The mass of the satellite
73. The phase difference between force and dis-
placement is— (D) All these parameters
π 82. Weightlessness in a space is due to—
(A) 0 (B)
2 (A) Inertia
(C) π (D) None of the above (B) Zero gravity
74. Energy in S.H.M. is directly proportional to— (C) Zero acceleration
(A) Square of amplitude (D) Centre of gravity
(B) Amplitude 83. The Torque exerted by sun’s gravitational
(C) Cube of amplitude force on a planet moving around it is—
(D) None of the above (A) Zero (B) Infinite
75. P.E. curve in S.H.M. is— (C) 2 R (D) None of the above
(A) Straight line (B) Parabola 1
(C) Ellipse (D) Circle 84. The height at which g will be th of its value
4
76. Energy of an oscillation is proportional to — at the earth surface is—
(A) Mass (B) (Frequency)2 R
(A) h = R (B) h =
(C) (Amplitude) 2 (D) All the above 2
(C) h = 2R (D) None of the above
77. The value of T (time period) will increase
if— 85. A closed bottle filled with water at 0°C is
(A) The inertia factor increases taken to the suface of moon. If the bottle is
(B) The elasticity factor decreases opened, the water will—
(C) Both (A) and (B) (A) Cool down (B) Boil
(D) None of the above (C) No change (D) None of the above
 Mechanical | 19

86. T1 is the time period of geostationary satellite 94. A liquid which wets a solid surface has angle
and T2 is the time period of rotation of the of contact—
earth around its own axis. Then— (A) Acute angle (B) Obtuse angle
(A) T1 > T2 (B) T1 = T2 (C) Straight angle (D) None of the above
(C) T1 < T2 (D) T1 = 2T2 95. Addition of detergent to liquid—
87. A body of mass m is taken from the surface of (A) Lowers the S.T. (B) Increase the S.T.
the earth (radius R) to the height equal to R. (C) No effect (D) None of the above
The change in P.E.— 96. Cohesion is maximum in—
mgR (A) Solids (B) Liquids
(A) (B) mgR (C) Gases (D) Same in all states
2
1 97. If water is electrified its surface tension—
(C) (D) None of the above
4 mgR (A) Increases (B) Decreases
88. The time period of a satellite in a circular orbit (C) Unchanged (D) None of the above
of radius R is T. The time period of an other 98. If inorganic salt is mixed in water, its surface
satellite moving in a orbit of radius 4R is— tension—
(A) 4T (B) 8T (A) Decreases (B) Increases
(C) 2T (D) None of the above (C) Unchanged (D) None of the above
89. The tail of a comet is away from the sun due 99. If organic salt is mixed in water its S.T.—
to— (A) Increases (B) Decreases
(A) Radiation pressure of the sun (C) Unchanged (D) None of the above
(B) Perihelion of the sun 100. The Molecular range is of the order of—
(C) Nuclear fusion (A) 10– 8 m (B) 10– 9 m
–
(C) 10 cm 7 (D) None of the above
(D) None of the above
90. The force responsible for surface tension is— Answers
(A) Gravitational force
1. (B) 2. (B) 3. (B) 4. (C) 5. (D)
(B) Nuclear force
6. (B) 7. (A) 8. (C) 9. (A) 10. (A)
(C) Vander waal force
11. (A) 12. (C) 13. (B) 14. (C) 15. (A)
(D) None of the above
16. (D) 17. (A) 18. (C) 19. (C) 20. (A)
91. Water falls in capillary tube instead of rising 21. (A) 22. (A) 23. (D) 24. (A) 25. (A)
in capillary tube of which of the following 26. (A) 27. (D) 28. (C) 29. (B) 30. (A)
material ?
31. (A) 32. (A) 33. (A) 34. (A) 35. (A)
(A) Glass (B) Copper
36. (A) 37. (A) 38. (A) 39. (B) 40. (A)
(C) Silver (D) Parafin wax
41. (B) 42. (A) 43. (A) 44. (B) 45. (A)
92. The angle of contact for glass / mercury is— 46. (A) 47. (A) 48. (A) 49. (A) 50. (A)
(A) 90° 51. (A) 52. (A) 53. (A) 54. (A) 55. (B)
(B) Less than 90° 56. (A) 57. (B) 58. (A) 59. (A) 60. (A)
(C) Greater than 90° 61. (A) 62. (C) 63. (A) 64. (B) 65. (B)
(D) Zero 66. (C) 67. (B) 68. (A) 69. (B) 70. (C)
93. A liquid which does not wet solid surface has 71. (D) 72. (B) 73. (C) 74. (A) 75. (B)
angle of contact— 76. (D) 77. (A) 78. (A) 79. (A) 80. (A)
(A) Obtuse angle 81. (C) 82. (C) 83. (A) 84. (A) 85. (B)
(B) Acute angle 86. (B) 87. (A) 88. (B) 89. (A) 90. (C)
(C) Straight angle 91. (D) 92. (C) 93. (A) 94. (A) 95. (A)
(D) None of the above 96. (B) 97. (B) 98. (B) 99. (B) 100. (B)
4 STRENGTH OF MATERIALS

01. The combined effect of external forces acting 09. If l and δl are the length and change in length
on a body is called— resp. the strain is equal to—
(A) Stress (B) Strain δl l
(A) (B)
(C) Load (D) None of the above l δl
02. …… load is one which is considered to act at (C) l × δl (D) None of the above
a point. 10. The maximum stress in a ring under tension
(A) Triangular occurs—
(B) Uniformly distributed (A) Along the line of action of load
(C) Point (B) Perpendicular to the line of action of
(D) None of the above load
03. The internal resistance which the body offers (C) At 45° with the line of action of load
to meet with the load or external force is (D) None of the above
called— 11. Which of the following statement is correct
(A) Stress (B) Strain with reference to the curved beam theory ?
(C) Pressure (D) None the above (A) Shear stress is zero
04. The unit of stress in S.I. unit is— (B) Hoop stress is zero
(A) MN/m 2 (B) KN/mm2 (C) Radial stress is zero
(C) N/mm 2 (D) All the above (D) Rending stress is zero
05. …… represents the resistance developed by a 12. The nature of stress at the inside surface of a
unit area of cross-section. crane hook is—
(A) Unit stress (A) Shear (B) Tensile
(B) Total stress (C) Compressive (D) None of the above
(C) Either the above 13. For a crane hook the most suitable section
(D) None of the above is—
06. Total stress is expressed in— (A) Triangular (B) Trapezoidal
(A) N (B) KN (C) Circular (D) Rectangular
(C) MN (D) All the above 14. The neutral axis in curved beams—
07. Simple stress is often called— (A) Lies at the top of the beam
(A) Direct stress (B) Transverse stress (B) Lies at the bottom of the beam
(C) Total stress (D) None of the above (C) Coincides with the geometric axis
(D) Does not coincide
08. The deformation per unit length called—
(A) Strain 15. In curved beams the distribution of bending
(B) Tensile stress stress is—
(C) Compressive stress (A) Linear (B) Parabolic
(D) Shear stress (C) Uniform (D) Hyperbolic
 Mechanical | 21

16. A thin flat ring is rotating at a speed v. The 25. …… riveting is used in structional units.
circumferential stress induced is given by— (A) Chain (B) Zig-zag
(A) ρv2 (B) ρv2 (C) Diamond (D) None of the above
1 1
(C) ρv2 (D) ρv3 26. The distance between the centre lines of two
2 2 rows of rivets is called—
17. Maximum principal stress theory was postu- (A) Pitch (B) Back pitch
lated by— (C) Gauge distance (D) None of the above
(A) St. Venant (B) Rankine
27. The diameter of the cold rivet measured
(C) Mohr (D) Tresca before driving is referred as—
18. Maximum shear stress theory was postulated (A) Nominal diameter
by— (B) Gross diameter
(A) St. Venant (B) Mohr (C) Either of the above
(C) Rankine (D) Tresca (D) None of the above
19. Which of the following theories is suitable for 28. In a thin shell circumferential stress (σ c) is
ductile material ? given by—
(A) Maximum principal stress theory Pd Pd
(B) Maximum principal strain theory (A) σc = (B) σc =
2tnl 2 tnc
(C) Maximum shear stress theory Pd Pd 2
(D) None of the above (C) σc = (D) σc =
tnl tnc
20. …… theory is suitable for brittle material. 29. Longitudinal stresses act …… to the longi-
(A) Maximum strain energy tudinal axis of the shell.
(B) Maximum shear stress theory (A) Parallel
(C) Maximum principal stress theory (B) Perpendicular
(D) Distortion energy theory (C) Either of the above
21. Efficiency of the welded joint is …… than (D) None of the above
that of the riveted joint. 30. Thin cylinder are frequently required to
(A) Less (B) More operate under pressures up to—
(C) Both (D) None of the above (A) 5 MN/m2 (B) 15 MN/m2
(C) 30 MN/m 2 (D) 250 MN/m2
22. As compared to a riveted joint a welded joint
has …… strength. 31. Which of the following is usually considered
(A) Lesser as thin cylinder ?
(B) Greater (A) Boilers (B) Tanks
(C) Either of the above (C) Steam pipes (D) All the above
(D) None of the above
32. A shell with wall thickness small compared to
23. …… is a process of joining two pieces of
metal by fusion.
(A) Riveting
internal diameter ( d
t )
≥ 20 is called—

(A) Thin shell

(B) Welding
(C) Either of the above (B) Thick shell
(D) None of the above (C) Either of the above
(D) None of the above
24. The diameter of the rivet (d) and thickness of
the plate (t) follow the relation— 33. Vessels used for storing fluid under pressure
are called—
(A) d = 3 √
⎯t (B) d = 4 √
⎯t (A) Cylinders (B) Spheres
(C) d = 5 √
⎯t (D) d = 6 √
⎯t (C) Shells (D) None of the above
22 | Mechanical

34. Chemical vessels are made of which of the 42. The strength of the beam mainly depends on—
following materials ? (A) Bending moment
(A) Non-ferrous materials (B) C. g., of the section
(B) Sheet metal (C) Section modulus
(C) Cast iron (D) Its weight
(D) Special material 43. A continuous beam is one which has—
35. Pressure vessels are made of— (A) Less than two supports
(A) Cast iron (B) Two supports only
(B) Sheet steel (C) More than two supports
(C) Non-ferrous materials (D) None of the above
(D) Any of the above 44. In which of the following beam the supports
36. Where are the steel bars in a concrete beam are not situated at the ends ?
embedded ? (A) Cantilever beam
(A) In the centre (B) Simply supported beam
(B) Near top section (C) Over hanging beam
(C) Near bottom section (D) None of the above
(D) Uniformaly 45. A cantilever is a beam whose—
37. Stress in a beam and the section modulus— (A) One end is fixed and other free
(A) Have curvilinear relation (B) Both ends are fixed
(B) Are inversely proportional (C) Both ends are free
(C) Are directly proportionaly (D) None of the above
(D) Have unpredictable relationship 46. The moment of inertia of a rectangle about its
38. When a beam is loaded the horizontal or XX-axis is given by—
longitudinal shear should be accounted for bd3 db3
materials like— (A) (B)
12 12
(A) Concrete (B) Wood d3 b bd3
(C) Cast iron (D) Lead (C) (D)
6 6
39. Neutral plane of a beam— 47. The moment of inertia of a semicircle about
(A) Passes through the c.g. its XX-axis is—
(B) Lies at bottom most fibre (A) 0·22 r3 (B) 0·11 r4
(C) Is one whose length remains unchanged (C) 0·14 r4 (D) 0·2 r4
during the deformation 48. The moment of inertia of a quadrant about its
(D) None of the above XX-axis is given by—
40. When a rectangular beam is loaded trans- (A) 0·055 r4 (B) 0·04 r4
versely, the maximum compressive stress (C) 0·06 r 4 (D) r4
develops on—
49. The moment of inertia about a principal axis
(A) Neutral axis (B) Top fibre is called—
(C) Bottom fibre (D) Middle fibre (A) Mass moment of inertia
41. In case of a circular section the section (B) Second moment of inertia
modulus is given on— (C) Principal moment of inertia
πd 2 πd 3 (D) Any of the above
(A) (B)
16 16 50. The impact strength of a material is an index
πd 3 πd 4 of its—
(C) (D)
32 64 (A) Resistance to corrosion
 Mechanical | 23

(B) Hardness (C) Become one-fourth

(C) Toughness (D) Remain unafected
(D) None of the above 60. The material having same elastic properties in
51. When mild steel is subjected to tensile all directions are called …… material.
loading, its fracture will conform to …........ (A) Elastic (B) Isotropic
shape. (C) Ideal (D) Uniform
(A) Granular (B) Cup and cone
61. …… strain is the deformation of the bar per
(C) Star (D) None of the above unit length in the direction of the force.
52. The limiting load beyond which the material (A) Volumetric (B) Shear
does not behave elastically is known as— (C) Lateral (D) Linear
(A) Upper yield point
62. The temperature strain in a bar is .................
(B) Maximum stress point proportional to the change in temperature.
(C) Proportional limit (A) Directly (B) Indirectly
(D) Elastic limit (C) (A) or (B) (D) None of the above
53. In which of the following terms stiffness is 63. Poisson’s ratio for aluminium is—
expressed ?
(A) 0·13 (B) 0·23
(A) Impact strength
(C) 0·33 (D) 0·43
(B) Modulus of elasticity
(C) Hardness number 64. The ratio of lateral strain to linear strain is
known as—
(D) Mass density
(A) Modulus of elasticity
54. During tensile test, what does percentage (B) Modulus of rigidity
elongation indicate ?
(C) Poisson’s ratio
(A) Malleability (B) Fatigue strength
(D) Elastic limit
(C) Ductility (D) Creep
65. To measure …….... strain rosetters are used.
55. The value of Poisson's ratio depends upon—
(A) Linear (B) Shear
(A) Cross section
(C) Volumetric (D) None of the above
(B) Magnitude of load
(C) Material of test specimen 66. When two equal and opposite forces applied
to a body, tend to elongate it, the body is said
(D) None of the above to be in—
56. …… has the highest value of Poisson's ratio. (A) Compression (B) Tension
(A) Concrete (B) Wood (C) Shear (D) Unpredictable
(C) Steel (D) Rubber 67. The strain produced due to shear force is
57. If a part is constrained to move and heated it known as—
will develop …… stress. (A) Tensile strain (B) Compressive strain
(A) Shear (B) Tensile (C) Shear strain (D) Volumetric strain
(C) Principal (D) Compressive
68. Working stress is always—
58. The impact strength of a material is an index (A) Less than ultimate stress
of its—
(B) More than ultimate stress
(A) Hardness (B) Tensile strength
(C) Toughness (D) None of the above (C) Equal to ultimate stress
(D) None of the above
59. If the radius of a wire stretched by a load is
doubled, then its Young's modulus will be— 69. A measure of the strength economy of a
(A) Halved material is the ratio between—
(B) Doubled (A) Working strength and density
24 | Mechanical

(B) Ultimate strength and density (C) Reaction normal to the direction of
(C) Ultimate strength and safety motion
(D) None of the above (D) None of the above
70. The thermal stress in a bar is directly propor- 78. In S.I. system the unit of torque is—
tional to— (A) Kg.m (B) Kg/cm2
(A) Its cross sectional area (C) Newton metre (D) Dynes
(B) Its volume 79. The type of stresses set up in a rotating shaft
(C) The change in temperature due to torsion are—
(D) None of the above (A) Shear (B) Compressive
71. The stress produced by a suddenly applied (C) Bending (D) All the above
load as compared to that produced by the same 80. The intensity of shear stress in a shaft
load when applied gradually is— subjected to torsion is maximum at—
(A) Double (B) Equal (A) Its axis (B) Its out layer
(C) Half (D) Four times (C) Any layer (D) None of the above
72. The value of Poisson’s ratio depends on the— 81. The most economical section of the shaft
(A) Size of meterial subjected to torsion is—
(B) Type of material (A) Square section (B) Elliptical section
(C) Magnitude of load (C) Solid circular (D) Hollow circular
(D) Nature of load 82. The critical load of column is defined as the
73. The principal stress are— load at which columns is in—
(A) Parallel to the principal planes (A) Stable equilibrium
(B) Normal to the principal planes (B) Neutral equilibrium
(C) Inclined to the principal planes (C) Unstable equilibrium
(D) None of the above (D) None of the above
74. The point in a beam where the shear force is 83. When a long column is subjected to a load
zero, the value of bending moment at that more than critical, the column becomes—
point is— (A) Unstable (B) Stable
(A) Maximum (B) Zero (C) Neutral (D) None of the above
(C) Minimum (D) Infinite 84. The ratio of length of strut and least radius of
75. The point of contraflexure occurs in— gyration is known as—
(A) Simply supported beams (A) Poisson’s ratio (B) Slenderness ratio
(B) Over hanging beam (C) Factor of safety (D) None of the above
(C) Cantilevers 85. The buckling load in case of struts is given by
(D) All the above the relation—
π2 E I 4 π2 E I
76. In case of over hanging beam the point of (A) 2 (B)
lc lc2
contraflexure—
2π EI2 π EI
2
(A) Always lies within the supports (C) (D)
lc2 4lc2
(B) Always lies in the overhanging portion
(C) Both 86. The method of reducing the hoop stresses in
cylinders is—
(D) None of the above (A) To make its ends flat
77. A roller support has— (B) To shrink one cylinder over the other
(A) Reaction in two directions (C) Both
(B) Inclined reaction (D) None of the above
 Mechanical | 25

87. The loop stresses are acting across the— 96. In a welded butt joint the throat thickness as
(A) Circumferential section compared to the plates thickness is—
(B) Longitudinal section (A) Equal (B) Less
(C) Radial section (C) More (D) None of the above
(D) None of the above 97. The property of material to withstand defor-
88. The thickness of cylindrical shell is designed mation without fracture is known as—
on the basis of— (A) Plasticity (B) Toughness
(A) Diameter of the shell (C) Brittleness (D) Ductility
(B) Length of the shell 98. The property of material which allows it to
(C) Loop stress deform without fracture is known as—
(D) None (A) Brittleness (B) Toughness
89. Thick cylinders are used to resist the pressure (C) Elasticity (D) Plasticity
above— 99. The shape of specimen in a compression test
(A) 100 Kg/cm2 (B) 1000 Kg/cm2 is—
(C) 2500 Kg/cm 2 (D) None of the above (A) Cubical (B) Cylindrical
90. The strength of welded joint is equal to— (C) Spherical (D) Conical
(A) 0·5 af. (B) 0·9 af. 100. The behaviour of metals under the action of
(C) 0·7 af. (D) 0·0007 af. cyclic stresses is termed as—
(A) Creep (B) Fatigue
91. The shearing strength of a rivet in double
shear as compared to rivet in single shear is— (C) Endurance (D) None of the above
(A) 1·5 times (B) 1·8 times Answers
(C) Double (D) 1·2 times
1. (C) 2. (C) 3. (A) 4. (D) 5. (A)
92. The diameter of a hole drilled in a plate as 6. (D) 7. (A) 8. (A) 9. (A) 10. (A)
compared to shank diameter of a rivet is— 11. (C) 12. (B) 13. (B) 14. (C) 15. (D)
(A) Less (B) More
16. (B) 17. (B) 18. (D) 19. (C) 20. (C)
(C) Equal (D) None of the above 21. (B) 22. (B) 23. (B) 24. (D) 25. (C)
93. A rivet joint may fail due to— 26. (B) 27. (A) 28. (A) 29. (A) 30. (C)
(A) Tearing of the plate 31. (D) 32. (A) 33. (C) 34. (D) 35. (D)
(B) Shearing of rivets 36. (C) 37. (B) 38. (B) 39. (C) 40. (B)
(C) Crushing of rivets 41. (C) 42. (C) 43. (C) 44. (C) 45. (A)
(D) Any one of the above 46. (A) 47. (B) 48. (A) 49. (C) 50. (C)
94. The efficiency of a single riveted lap joint 51. (B) 52. (D) 53. (B) 54. (C) 55. (C)
is— 56. (D) 57. (D) 58. (C) 59. (D) 60. (A)
(A) 30% (B) 40% 61. (D) 62. (A) 63. (C) 64. (C) 65. (A)
(C) 55% (D) 80% 66. (B) 67. (C) 68. (A) 69. (C) 70. (C)
95. In a welded lap joint the throat thickness is 71. (A) 72. (B) 73. (B) 74. (A) 75. (B)
equal to— 76. (A) 77. (C) 78. (C) 79. (A) 80. (B)
(A) 0·4 × Size of the weld 81. (D) 82. (B) 83. (A) 84. (B) 85. (A)
(B) 0·5 × Size of the weld 86. (B) 87. (B) 88. (C) 89. (C) 90. (C)
(C) 0·7 × Size of the weld 91. (B) 92. (B) 93. (D) 94. (C) 95. (C)
(D) None of the above 96. (A) 97. (B) 98. (D) 99. (B) 100. (B)
5 FLUID MECHANICS

01. The branch of engineering science, which 08. Fluids which do not follow the linear
deals with water at rest or in motion is relationship between shear stress and rate of
called— deformation are termed as …… fluids.
(A) Hydraulics (A) Newtonian (B) Non-Newtonian
(B) Fluid mechanics (C) Dialent (D) Ideal
(C) Applied mechanics 09. The printer’s ink is an example of—
(D) Kinematics (A) Newtonian fluid
02. A solid can resist which of the following (B) Non-Newtonian fluid
stresses ? (C) Thyxotropic substance
(A) Tensile (B) Compressive (D) Elastic solid
(C) Shear (D) All the above 10. The viscosity of liquids …… with increase in
03. …… possesses no definite volume and is temperature.
compressible. (A) Decreases
(A) Solid (B) Liquid (B) Increases
(C) Gas (D) Vapour (C) Both
04. A real practical fluid possesses which of the (D) None of the above
following ? 11. Surface tension is caused by the force of ……
(A) Viscosity (B) Surface tension at the free surface.
(C) Density (D) All the above (A) Cohesion (B) Adhesion
05. The ratio of the specific weight of the liquid (C) Both (D) None of the above
to the specific weight of a standard fluid is 12. Which of the following is an example of
known as— phenomenon of surface tension ?
(A) Specific volume (B) Weight density
(A) Rain drops
(C) Specific gravity (D) Viscosity
(B) Rise of sap in a tree
06. The property of a fluid which determines its (C) Break up of liquid jets
resistance to shearing stresses is called— (D) All the above
(A) Viscosity
(B) Surface tension 13. Surface tension is expressed in—
(C) Compressibility (A) N/m (B) N/m2
(D) None of the above (C) N2/m (D) N/m3
07. Newton's law viscosity is given by the 14. Pressure inside a water droplet is given by the
relation— relation—
du 4σ 3σ
(A) τ = μ2 ⎯ μ du
(B) τ = √ (A) P =
d
(B) P =
d
dy dy
du du 8σ 16σ
(C) τ = μ (D) τ = μ3/2 (C) P = (D) P =
dy dy d d
 Mechanical | 27

15. …… is a phenomenon by which a liquid rises (C) Parallel to the surface

into a thin glass tube above or below its (D) None of the above
general level.
24. Poise is a unit of—
(A) Surface tension (B) Capillarity
(A) Surface tension (B) Viscosity
(C) Cohesion (D) Adhesion (C) Specific weight (D) Pressure
16. The capillary rise of water in the glass tube is 25. The intensity of pressure at a depth h is equal
given by— to—
2σ 3σ (A) Specific weight × Depth
(A) h = (B) h =
wd wd (B) Specific volume × Depth
4σ 6σ (C) Density × Depth
(C) h = (D) h =
wd wd (D) Force × Depth
17. The force per unit area is called— 26. The resultant pressure (P) of the liquid on a
(A) Pressure (B) Strain immersed surface will act at—
(C) Surface tension (D) None of the above (A) A point of centre of gravity
18. The pressure of a liquid on a surface will (B) The lower edge of the surface
always act …… to the surface. (C) The upper edge of the surface
(A) Parallel (B) Normal (D) None of the above
(C) 45° (D) 60° 27. The depth of centre of pressure (h) is given by
19. The pressure …… as the depth of the liquid relation—
increases. – I
(A) h = I0 Ax (B) h = 0
(A) Increases –
Ax
(B) Decreases
(C) Remains unchanged I –x IA
(C) h = 0 (D) h = 0
(D) None A –x

20. The intensity of pressure in a liquid due its 28. The pressure of fluid can be measured by a—
depth will vary …… with depth. (A) Barometer (B) Manometer
(A) Directly (B) Indirectly (C) Piezometer tube (D) All the above
(C) Both (D) None of the above 29. The point of application of buoyant force is
21. The height of the free surface above any point known as—
is known as— (A) Centre of pressure
(A) Static head (B) Centre of buoyancy
(B) Intensity of pressure (C) Centre of gravity
(C) Both (D) None of the above
(D) None of the above 30. The body is said to be floating when—
22. The term fluid is applied to substances (A) W > F b (B) W = F b
which— (C) W < F b (D) None of these
(A) Offer no resistance to change of shape Where W = Weight of the body
(B) Offer resistance to change of shape F b = Buoyant force
(C) Offer least resistance to compression
(D) None of the above 31. According to principle of floatation the weight
of liquid displaced as compared to the weight
23. The pressure of a fluid on a surface act— of the body is—
(A) Normal to the surface (A) More (B) Less
(B) Normal to the sphere (C) Same (D) None of the above
28 | Mechanical

32. The stability of a floating body depends 42. The loss of head due to sudden contraction is
upon— equal to—
(A) Its volume v2 v2
(A) 0·75 (B) 0·75
(B) Its weight 2g 4g
(C) Its metacentric height v2 v2
(C) 1·5 (D) 0·25
(D) The specific weight of fluid g 2g
33. The metacentric height of sailing ships is— 43. The length of mouthpiece as compared to
(A) 0·45 m to 1·25 m diameter is—
(B) 1·5 m to 3·5 m (A) 5 to 6 times (B) 6 to 8 times
(C) 0·25 m to 0·35 m (C) 2 to 3 times (D) 1 to 1·5 times
(D) 5 m to 7·5 m 44. At vena contract a the diameter of jet is—
34. The metacentric height of battle ships is— (A) Maximum (B) Minimum
(A) 0·3 m to 0·8 m (B) 1·0 m to 1·5 m (C) Average (D) Unpredictable
(C) 2·5 m to 3·5 m (D) 5·0 m to 6·0 m 45. The reciprocal of Euler’s number is known
as—
35. A manometer is used to measure—
(A) Mach’s number
(A) Velocity of flow in channel
(B) Newton’s number
(B) Atmospheric pressure
(C) Pressure in pipes (C) Weber’s number
(D) None of the above (D) Froude’s number
36. A differential manometer is used to measure– 46. The Reynolds number for laminar flow in
(A) Difference of pressure at two sections of circular pipes is less than—
a pipe (A) 5000 (B) 3000
(B) Atmospheric pressure (C) 2000 (D) 8000
(C) Absolute pressure 47. The frictional resistance independent of—
(D) Velocity of fluid in pipes (A) Velocity of flow
37. A small hole in the side or base of a tank is (B) Temperature of fluid
termed as—
(C) Pressure of flow
(A) Notch (B) Orifice
(D) Area of surface in contact
(C) Mouthpiece (D) Downed orifice
48. The frictional resistance in case of turbulent
38. A venturimeter is used to measure discharge
flow is independent of—
through—
(A) A pipe (B) An open channel (A) Area of surface in contact
(C) A weir (D) Notch (B) Density of fluid
(C) Temperature of fluid
39. The diameter of throat of a venturimeter as
compared to inlet diameter is generally— (D) Pressure of flow
(A) Half (B) One fourth 49. The head lost due to turbulence flow as
(C) Double (D) One eigth compared to head lost in laminar flow is—
40. In order to avoid separation in venturimeter (A) 100 times (B) 200 times
the angle of divergence is kept— (C) 320 times (D) 480 times
(A) 10° to 15° (B) 15° to 20° 50. According to Nikuradse’s the boundary be-
(C) 5° to 7° (D) 7° to 10° haves as hydrodynamically smooth when—
41. The discharge through a pipe can be measured k k
(A) > 10 (B) > 0·25
with— δ δ
(A) A venturimeter (B) An orificameter k k
(C) < 0·25 (D) < 8
(C) A flow nozzle (D) All the above δ δ
 Mechanical | 29

51. The value of critical velocity is governed by 61. The total drag on a plate held normal to the
the— flow is equal to—
(A) Inertia force (A) Pressure drag (B) Viscous drag
(B) Viscous force Viscous drag
(C) (D) None of the above
(C) Ratio of inertia force and viscous force Pressure drag
(D) None of the above 62. The coefficient of drag and lift are functions
52. The lower critical Reynolds number is appro- of—
ximately equal to— (A) Frouds number
(A) 100 (B) 200 (B) Reynolds number
(C) 1000 (D) 2000 (C) Weber number
53. The head loss due to turbulence flow as (D) Euler number
compared to laminar flow is— 63. The line joining the leading and training of
(A) Less (B) More the airfoil is known—
(C) Equal (D) Unpredictable (A) Profile centre line
54. The kinematic viscosity 'ε' is given by the (B) Chord line
relation— (C) Camber line
η (D) Curvature line
(A) ε = (B) ε = ηρ
ρ 64. The aspect ratio of a wing is expressed as—
ρ l2
(C) ε = (D) ε = ρ + η l
η (A)
A
(B)
A
55. The motion of whirlpool in a river is— l l2
(A) Rectilinear (B) Radial (C) 2 (D) 2
A A
(C) Forced vortex (D) Free vortex l = Span, A = Area
56. In a stream line flow the component of 65. The coefficient of lift at stall point is—
viscosity at right angle to the streamline is—
(A) Maximum (B) Minimum
(A) Maximum (B) Minimum
(C) Zero (D) Average
(C) Zero (D) Unpredictable
66. The maximum velocity of an airplane in
57. If the flow parameters change with time it is steady level flight will occur at an angle of
known as— attack of—
(A) Uniform flow (B) Unsteady flow (A) 20·5° (B) 18·5°
(C) Steady flow (D) None of the above (C) 22·5° (D) 26·5°
58. The coefficient of friction in term of Reynolds 67. The weir with thick crest is known as—
number is equal to— (A) Drowned weir
16 32 (B) Broad crested weir
(A) (B)
Re Re (C) Suppressed weir
8 10 (D) Cippoletti weir
(C) (D)
Re Re 68. The cross section of cippoletti weir is—
59. If a thin plate is held parallel to a fluid stream, (A) Rectangular (B) Triangular
the pressure drag on it is— (C) Trapezoidal (D) None of the above
(A) Maximum (B) Minimum 69. The critical depth of a channel is expressed
(C) Zero (D) None of the above as—
60. If a thin plate is held normal to the flow, the V V2
viscous drag on it is— (A) hc = (B) hc =
g g
(A) Maximum (B) Minimum V2
(C) hc = (D) None of the above
(C) Zero (D) None of the above 2g
30 | Mechanical

70. The critical depth of a channel is equal to— 78. The intensifier can raise the pressure of water
1 2 upto—
(A) E min (B) E min
2 3 (A) 100 kg/cm2 (B) 560 kg/cm2
(C) 950 kg/cm 2 (D) 1600 kg/cm2
3 1
(C) E min (D) E min
2 4 79. The pressure of water in a pelton wheel is—
71. The velocity for which the specific energy is (A) Less than atmosphere
minimum is known as— (B) More than atmosphere
(A) Maximum velocity (C) Equal to atmosphere
(B) Minimum velocity (D) None of the above
(C) Critical velocity 80. Which one is an impulse turbine ?
(D) Average velocity (A) Kaplan turbine (B) Francis turbine
72. The condition for a tranquil flow in a channel (C) Pelton wheel (D) Fourneyron
is—
81. Pelton wheel is a—
v2 v2
(A) h > (B) h = (A) Tangential flow turbine
g g
2 (B) Radial flow turbine
v
(C) h < (D) None of the above (C) Axial flow turbine
g
(D) None of the above
73. Hydraulic jump is a phenomenon occurring
in— 82. Which one of the following is an axial flow
(A) A pipe turbine ?
(B) A closed channel (A) Pelton wheel (B) Francis turbine
(C) An open channel (C) Kaplan turbine (D) None of the above
(D) None of the above 83. The type of turbine recommended for a head
of 10 metre is—
74. The wave produced due to surface tension in
a shallow channel is known as— (A) Francis turbine (B) Kaplan
(A) Gravity wave (C) Pelton wheel (D) None
(B) Capillary wave 84. A Girard turbine is—
(C) Elastic wave (A) An axial flow reaction turbine
(D) None of the above (B) An axial flow impulse turbine
75. In case of depressed nappe the pressure of air (C) An inward flow reaction turbine
below the nappa is— (D) None of the above
(A) Less than atmospheric 85. In case of reaction turbine—
(B) More than atmospheric (A) P 1 = P2 (B) P 1 > P2
(C) Equal to atmospheric (C) P 1 < P2 (D) None of the above
(D) None of the above
86. The Banki turbine is generally employed for a
76. When there is no air left blow the nappe, it is head upto—
known as— (A) 100 m (B) 500 m
(A) Free nappe (B) Depressed nappe (C) 20 m (D) 600 m
(C) Adhering nappe (D) All the above
87. In a reciprocating pump the accelerating head
77. The hydraulic accumulator is fitted— is maximum at the—
(A) In between the pump and machine (A) Beginning of stroke
(B) Before the pump (B) End of stroke
(C) After the machine (C) Mid of stroke
(D) Can not fitted anywhere (D) None of the above
 Mechanical | 31

88. A single impeller pump deliver the discharge 97. The hydraulic mean depth for a rectangular
against a maximum head of— section is—
(A) 10 m (B) 100 m bd bd
(A) (B)
(C) 200 m (D) 500 m 2d + b d+b
89. The no. of blades in a kaplan turbines are— 2bd bd
(C) (D)
d+b 2(d + b)
(A) 4 – 6 (B) 10 – 12
(C) 20 – 24 (D) 25 – 30 b = Width, d = Depth
98. The hydraulic mean depth for a pipe running
90. The unit speed of a turbine is equal to—
full of water is equal to—
N
(A) (B) N⎯ √H d d
⎯H
√ (A)
2
(B)
4

(C)
⎯H
√ (D)
2N (C) 2d (D) 2πd
N ⎯H
√ Where d = diameter
99. The thickness of the boundary layer at the
91. The unit power of a turbine is equal to—
leading edge of the body is—
P P
(A) 5/2 (B) 1/2 (A) Maximum (B) Minimum
H H
(C) Average (D) None of the above
P P
(C) 3/2 (D) 2/5 + 1/2 100. The flow within the boundary layer is—
H H
92. The head of water required for pelton wheel (A) Only laminar
is— (B) Only turbulent
(A) Low (B) Medium (C) Either laminar or turbulent
(C) High (D) None of the above (D) None of the above
93. The overall efficiency of pelton wheel is Answers
about—
1. (A) 2. (D) 3. (C) 4. (D) 5. (C)
(A) 55% (B) 65%
6. (A) 7. (C) 8. (B) 9. (C) 10. (A)
(C) 85% (D) 99%
11. (A) 12. (D) 13. (A) 14. (A) 15. (B)
94. The function of a hydraulic turbine is to 16. (C) 17. (A) 18. (B) 19. (A) 20. (A)
convert water energy into—
21. (A) 22. (A) 23. (A) 24. (B) 25. (A)
(A) Heat energy
26. (D) 27. (B) 28. (D) 29. (B) 30. (C)
(B) Electrical energy
31. (C) 32. (C) 33. (A) 34. (B) 35. (C)
(C) Machanical energy
36. (A) 37. (B) 38. (A) 39. (A) 40. (C)
(D) Atomic energy
41. (D) 42. (A) 43. (C) 44. (B) 45. (B)
95. The suction pressure in a reciprocating pump, 46. (C) 47. (C) 48. (D) 49. (C) 50. (C)
to avoid separation must not exceed— 51. (C) 52. (D) 53. (B) 54. (A) 55. (D)
(A) 2·6 m of water 56. (C) 57. (B) 58. (A) 59. (C) 60. (C)
(B) 7·7 m of water 61. (A) 62. (B) 63. (B) 64. (B) 65. (A)
(C) 10 m of water 66. (A) 67. (B) 68. (C) 69. (B) 70. (B)
(D) 3 m of water 71. (C) 72. (B) 73. (C) 74. (B) 75. (A)
96. A pitot tube is used to measure— 76. (C) 77. (A) 78. (D) 79. (C) 80. (C)
(A) Discharge through a pipe 81. (A) 82. (C) 83. (B) 84. (A) 85. (B)
(B) Velocity of flow 86. (C) 87. (C) 88. (B) 89. (A) 90. (A)
(C) Specific gravity 91. (C) 92. (C) 93. (C) 94. (C) 95. (B)
(D) Viscosity 96. (B) 97. (A) 98. (B) 99. (B) 100. (C)
6 INTERNAL COMBUSTION ENGINE

01. The following is an S.I. engine— 09. Fuel injector is used in—
(A) Diesel engine (B) Petrol engine (A) S.I. engine (B) Gas engine
(C) Gas engine (D) None of the above (C) C.I. engine (D) None of the above
02. The following is C.I. engine— 10. Very high speed engines are generally—
(A) Diesel engine (A) Gas engines (B) S.I. engines
(B) Petrol engine (C) C.I. engines (D) Steam engines
(C) Gas engine 11. In S.I. engine, to develop high voltage for
(D) None of the above spark plug—
03. In a four stroke cycle petrol engine, during (A) Battery is installed
suction stroke— (B) Distributor is installed
(A) Only air is sucked in (C) Carburettor is installed
(B) Only petrol is sucked in (D) Ignition coil is installed
(C) Mixture of petrol and air is sucked in 12. In S.I. engine, to obtain required firing
(D) None of the above order—
04. In a four stroke cycle diesel engine, during (A) Battery is installed
suction stroke— (B) Distributor is installed
(A) Only air is sucked in (C) Carburettor is installed
(B) Only fuel is sucked in (D) Ignition coil is installed
(C) Mixture of fuel and air is sucked in 13. For petrol engine, the method of governing
(D) None of the above employed is—
05. Compression ratio of petrol engines is in the (A) Quantity governing
range of— (B) Quality governing
(A) 2 to 3 (B) 7 to 10 (C) Hit and miss governing
(C) 16 to 20 (D) 80 to 90 (D) None of the above
06. Compression ratio of diesel engines may have 14. For diesel engine, the method of governing
the range— employed is—
(A) 8 to 10 (B) 10 to 15 (A) Quantity governing
(C) 16 to 20 (D) 80 to 90 (B) Quality governing
(C) Hit and miss governing
07. The thermal efficiency of good I.C. engine at (D) None of the above
the rated load is in the range of—
(A) 80 to 90% (B) 60 to 70% 15. Voltage developed to strike spark in the spark
plug is in the range —
(C) 30 to 35% (D) 10 to 20%
(A) 6 to 12 volts
08. Carburettor is used for— (B) 1000 to 2000 volts
(A) S.I. engine (B) Gas engine (C) 20000 to 25000 volts
(C) C.I. engine (D) None of the above (D) None of the above
 Mechanical | 33

16. In a 4-cylinder petrol engine the standard 25. In a petrol engine the delay period is of the
firing order is— order of—
(A) 1-2-3-4 (B) 1-4-3-2 (A) 0·001 S (B) 0·002 S
(C) 1-3-2-4 (D) 1-3-4-2 (C) 0·015 S (D) 0·06 S
17. The torque developed by the engine is 26. …… is not the effect of detonation—
maximum— (A) Loud and pulsating noise
(A) At minimum speed of engine (B) High local stresses
(B) At maximum speed of engine (C) High operating temperature
(C) At maximum volumetric efficiency speed (D) Loss in efficiency and power output
of engine
27. The ignition quality of a petrol engine fuel is
(D) At maximum power speed of engine
expressed as—
18. Iso octane content in a fuel for S.I. engine— (A) Octane number (B) Cetane number
(A) Retards auto-ignition (C) API gravity (D) SAE rating
(B) Accelerates auto-ignition
28. The capacity of most of the mopads in India
(C) Does not affect auto-ignition is—
(D) None of the above (A) 50 cc (B) 150 cc
19. Normal heptance content in a fuel for S.I. (C) 200 cc (D) 250 cc
engine—
29. …… is used for the insulating body of a spark
(A) Retards auto-ignition plug.
(B) Accelerates auto-ignition (A) Dolomite (B) Alumina
(C) Does not affect auto-ignition (C) Glass (D) Silica
(D) None of the above
30. The compression ratio in diesel engine is
20. The knocking in S.I. engine increases with— …… in comparison to expansion ratio—
(A) Increase in inlet air temperature (A) Less (B) More
(B) Increase in compression ratio (C) Same (D) Variable
(C) Increase in cooling water temperature 31. In an automobile the magneto is basically—
(D) All the above (A) d.c. generator (B) a.c. generator
21. Petrol commercially available in India for (C) Transformer (D) Capacitor
Indian passanger cars has octane number in
32. Scavenging is usually done to increase—
the range—
(A) Power output
(A) 40 to 50 (B) 60 to 70
(B) Fuel consumption
(C) 80 to 85 (D) 95 to 100 (C) Thermal efficiency
22. Cetane number of the fuel used commercially (D) Speed
for diesel engine in India is in the range— 33. For a petrol engine for vehicles the air fuel
(A) 80 to 90 (B) 60 to 80 ratio for maximum power generation is of the
(C) 60 to 70 (D) 40 to 45 order of—
23. The injection presence in diesel engine is of (A) 8 : 1 (B) 12 : 1
the order of— (C) 18 : 1 (D) 20 : 1
(A) 30–40 bar (B) 100–150 bar 34. In loop scavenging the top of the piston is—
(C) 170–220 bar (D) 400–600 bar (A) Convex shaped (B) Depressed
24. The ignition temperature of diesel fuel is (C) Slanted (D) Contoured
about— 35. The part load efficiency of a carburettor is—
(A) 200°C (B) 400°C (A) Constant (B) Maximum
(C) 550°C (D) 700°C (C) Optimum (D) Poor
34 | Mechanical

36. …… can work on very lean mixture. 46. Maximum torque is generated by an engine
(A) C.I. engine (B) S.I. engine when—
(C) 2-stroke engine (D) 4-stroke engine (A) It runs at lowest speed
(B) It develops maximum power
37. Thermal efficiency of I.C. engine on weak
mixture is— (C) It consumes maximum fuel
(A) Lower (B) Higher (D) None of the above
(C) Unaffected (D) Unpredictable 47. With an increase of the number of cylinders
in a multicylinder engine the power to weight
38. Cetane number is the measure of—
ratio—
(A) Viscosity of fuel
(A) Decreases
(B) Ignition quality
(B) Increases
(C) Calorific value of fuel
(C) Remains unaffected
(D) None of the above
(D) None of the above
39. In a S.I. engine an ignition coil performs
48. Lean air-fuel mixture is required for—
which of the following functions—
(A) Idling (B) Acceleration
(A) Regulates battery voltage
(C) Starting (D) Cruising
(B) Avoids sparking
(C) Controls spark 49. …… is not a part of petrol engine.
(D) Supplies high voltage to the spark plug (A) Air filter
(B) Induction coil
40. The octane rating of the commercially (C) Valve mechanism
available petrol in India is—
(D) Fuel injector
(A) 15–35 (B) 45–55
(C) 60–70 (D) 85–90 50. …… of heat supplied in the form of fuel in a
4-stroke engine is carried away by exhaust
41. …… lubrication technique is used for gases.
lubrication of the cylinder of a scooter engine. (A) 3–7% (B) 8–12%
(A) Petrol (B) Splash (C) 20–35% (D) 45–55%
(C) Gravity feed (D) Forced feed
51. Petrol engines are adjusted to give minimum
42. In 4-stroke engine the camshaft rotates at brake specific fuel consumption at—
…… the crank shaft speed.
(A) No load
(A) Half (B) Three-fourth
(B) 20–30% of full load
(C) Equal (D) Double
(C) About 70%of full load
43. The minimum number of rings in a piston—
(D) Near full load
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) 6 52. Crank shafts are generally—
44. …… process is not associated with diesel (A) Die cast
cycle. (B) Sand cast
(A) Constant pressure (C) Forged
(B) Constant volume (D) Turned from bar stock
(C) Adiabatic 53. …… has maximum resistance to detonation.
(D) Isothermal
(A) Alcohol (B) Benzene
45. Hunting occurs due to which of the following ? (C) Toulene (D) Iso-octane
(A) Faulty governor
(B) Poor-control by the governor 54. In isochronous governors the speed drop is—
(C) Over-control by the governor (A) Zero (B) 5%
(D) Bad engine design (C) 30% (D) 50%
 Mechanical | 35

55. The top ring nearest to the piston crown is 64. The piston of an I.C. engine completes two
known as— strokes in—
(A) Compression ring (A) 180° of crank rotation
(B) Oil ring (B) 360° of crank rotation
(C) Scrapper ring (C) 540° of crank rotation
(D) Groove ring (D) 720° of crank rotation
56. A diesel engine as compared to petrol engine 65. Displacement volume or swept volume is the
is— volume displaced by the piston in—
(A) Less efficient (A) 2-strokes (B) 4-strokes
(B) More efficient 1
(C) 1-stroke (D) -stroke
(C) Equal efficient 2
(D) None of the above 66. If the engine is running at 1600 r.p.m. the
57. The level of oil in engine cylinder should be speed of cam shaft will be—
checked when the engine is— (A) 400 r.p.m. (B) 800 r.p.m.
(A) Running (B) Not running (C) 1600 r.p.m. (D) None of the above
(C) During starting (D) During cranking 67. Spark ignition engine works on—
58. Endurance for I.C. engine is conducted for— (A) Carnot cycle
(A) 200 hours (B) 300 hours (B) Rankine cycle
(C) 400 hours (D) 500 hours (C) Constant pressure cycle
59. Movement of air inside engine cylinder does (D) Constant volume cycle
not help in— 68. C.I. engine works on—
(A) Reducing noise (A) Bell Coleman cycle
(B) Mixing of fuel with air (B) Carnot cycle
(C) Distribution of fuel (C) Constant pressure cycle
(D) Reducing after burning (D) Otto cycle
60. An engine indicator is used to determines— 69. The term 'Bore' in I.C. engine is used for—
(A) Temperature (A) Inside diameter of cylinder
(B) m.e.p. and I.P. (B) Diameter of piston
(C) Speed (C) Diameter of piston ring
(D) Volume of cylinder (D) None of the above
61. The camshaft of a 4-stroke I.C. engine run- 70. Which of the following is related to S.I.
ning at 2000 r.p.m. will run at— engine only ?
(A) 2000 r.p.m. (B) 1500 r.p.m. (A) Ignition coil (B) Flywheel
(C) 1000 r.p.m. (D) 500 r.p.m. (C) Intel valve (D) Piston
62. In a cycle the spark lasts for— 71. In S.I. engine the method of governing used
(A) 0·001 s (B) 0·01 s is—
(C) 0·1 s (D) 1 s (A) Quantitative governing
63. By which of the following is the air pressure (B) Hit and miss governing
produced in the crankcase method of (C) Qualitative governing
scavenging ? (D) None of the above
(A) Natural aspiration 72. The injection pressure in diesel engine is
(B) Movement of engine piston between—
(C) Supercharger (A) 0 — 10 kg/cm2
(D) None of the above (B) 10 — 50 kg/cm2
36 | Mechanical

(C) 100 — 150 kg/cm2 83. The meterial used for the cylinder block is—
(D) None of the above (A) Stainless steel (B) Grey cast iron
73. Which one is not related to I.C. engine ? (C) Copper (D) Bronze
(A) Gas turbine 84. Connecting rod is made of—
(B) 4-stroke C.I. engine (A) Cast iron
(C) Steam turbine (B) Aluminium alloy
(D) None of the above (C) Copper alloy
74. Which is related to C.I. engine only ? (D) Medium carbon steel
(A) Carburettor (B) Spark plug 85. Piston rings are made of—
(C) Atomiser (D) Distributor (A) Babi H (B) Bronze
75. In a law speed S.I. engine the inlet valve (C) Cast iron (D) None of the above
closes— 86. Which is related to C.I. engine ?
(A) 40° after B.D.C. (A) Carburettor (B) Spark plug
(B) 30° before B.D.C. (C) Injector (D) Distributor
(C) 10° after B.D.C.
87. The material of the exhaust valve is—
(D) 10° before B.D.C. (A) Aluminium alloy
76. In a high speed S.I. engine, the exhaust valve (B) Cast iron
starts to open— (C) Silicon chrome steal
(A) 10° after B.D.C. (B) 15° before B.D.C. (D) None of the above
(C) 55° after B.D.C. (D) 45° before B.D.C.
88. The flywheel is located on the—
77. The minimum number of compression rings (A) Rocker arm shaft
provided on a piston are—
(B) Crank shaft
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) Cam shaft
(C) 1 (D) 3 (D) All the above
78. In four stroke four cylinder C.I. engine the 89. The face angle of the poppet tupe valve is
number of spark plugs used are— generally—
(A) Four (B) Eight (A) 15° (B) 20°
(C) One (D) Zero (C) 45° (D) 75°
79. In a four cylinder gasoline engine of a fiat car 90. The electrode of a spark plug is made of—
the number of carburettors fitted are— (A) Copper-alloy
(A) One (B) Two (B) Alluminium alloy
(C) Three (D) Four m (C) Nickel cromium alloy
80. The main bearings of the engine supports— (D) White metal
(A) Crank shaft (B) Cam shaft 91. The I.H.P. of an individual cylinder of a
(C) Both (D) None of the above multi-cylinder engine can be determined by—
(A) An indicater
81. In a six cylinder C.I. engine the number of (B) A morse tast
spark plugs required are— (C) A rope brake dynamometer
(A) 6 (B) 1 (D) None of the above
(C) 12 (D) 0
92. An engine indicator is used to find out—
82. Which of the following is related to S.I. (A) b.h.p.
engine ? (B) f.h.p.
(A) Atomiser (B) D-slide valve (C) Piston speed
(C) Magneto (D) Fusible plug (D) Mean effective pressure
 Mechanical | 37

93. The octane value of normal haptane is— 99. The chemically correct air fuel ratio for a
(A) 0 (B) 10 gasoline engine is—
(C) 100 (D) 76 (A) 5 : 1 (B) 10 : 1
(C) 15·12 : 1 (D) 20 : 1
94. The capacity of the battery is given in term
of— 100. The octane value of iso-octane is—
(A) Ampere-hour (A) 0 (B) 76
(B) Voltage (C) 100 (D) 97
(C) Weight of battery
Answers
(D) Volume of electrolite
1. (B) 2. (A) 3. (C) 4. (A) 5. (B)
95. The battery generally used in a coil ignition
system is of— 6. (C) 7. (C) 8. (A) 9. (C) 10. (B)
(A) 1·5 volts (B) 3 volts 11. (B) 12. (B) 13. (A) 14. (B) 15. (C)
(C) 12 volts (D) 24 volts 16. (D) 17. (C) 18. (A) 19. (B) 20. (D)
21. (C) 22. (D) 23. (B) 24. (B) 25. (B)
96. The temperature after ignition in I.C. engine
26. (D) 27. (A) 28. (A) 29. (B) 30. (B)
is in the range of—
31. (A) 32. (A) 33. (B) 34. (D) 35. (D)
(A) 100° C to 150°C
36. (A) 37. (B) 38. (B) 39. (D) 40. (D)
(B) 150° C to 250°C
41. (A) 42. (A) 43. (A) 44. (D) 45. (C)
(C) 250° C to 500°C
46. (A) 47. (A) 48. (D) 49. (D) 50. (C)
(D) 2000° C to 2500°C 51. (D) 52. (C) 53. (D) 54. (A) 55. (A)
97. The lubricant used in I.C. engine are— 56. (B) 57. (B) 58. (D) 59. (A) 60. (B)
(A) Vegitable oils (B) Animal oils 61. (A) 62. (C) 63. (B) 64. (B) 65. (C)
(C) Graphite (D) Mineral oils 66. (B) 67. (D) 68. (B) 69. (A) 70. (A)
98. Viscosity meter is the instrument used for 71. (A) 72. (C) 73. (C) 74. (C) 75. (C)
finding out the fluids— 76. (C) 77. (C) 78. (D) 79. (A) 80. (A)
(A) Flash point 81. (D) 82. (C) 83. (B) 84. (D) 85. (C)
(B) Viscosity 86. (C) 87. (C) 88. (B) 89. (C) 90. (C)
(C) Fire point 91. (B) 92. (D) 93. (A) 94. (A) 95. (C)
(D) None of the above 96. (D) 97. (D) 98. (B) 99. (C) 100. (C)
 STEAM BOILERS, COMPRESSORS,
7 ENGINES, NOZZLES, TURBINES, GAS
TURBINES AND JET ENGINES
01. During the reversible adiabatic process, the 08. Clapeyron's equation used for evaluating—
entropy of steam— (A) Specific volume at any temperature and
(A) Remains constant pressure
(B) Increases (B) Dryners fraction of steam
(C) Decrease (C) Entropy of superheated steam
(D) None of the above (D) Total heat of saturated
02. With the increase in pressure the latent heat of 09. A device used for generating steam for power
vapourization— generation is known as—
(A) Decreases (A) Turbine (B) Steam engine
(B) Increases (C) Re-boiler (D) None of these
(C) Remains constant
10. In a boiler if the furnace region is completely
(D) None
surrounded by water it is known as—
03. 1 Kg. of wet steam contains 0·15 Kg of water (A) Externally fired boiler
particles. Its dryners fraction is— (B) Internally fired boiler
(A) 15% (B) 100% (C) Water tube boiler
(C) 85% (D) None of these (D) None of these
04. The throttling process on a mollier diagram is 11. Central station steam generators are used
represented by a— for—
(A) Horizontal line (B) Vertical line (A) Electric power generator
(C) Point (D) Curve (B) Process heating in industries
(C) Residential heating
05. For a given law P × Vn = Constant the value
of n is given by the relation— (D) Locomotives
(A) 1·135 + 0·1x (B) 1·035 + 0·1x 12. The maximum pressure in a miniature boiler
(C) 1.035 – 0.1x (D) 1·135 – 0·1x is—
(A) 1 Kg/cm2 (B) 10 Kg/cm2
06. Which equation is true for the total heat of 2
(C) 25 Kg/cm (D) 6·9 Kg/cm2
dry steam ?
(A) h /w +x L 13. The concentration of soluble salts and solid is
reduced to the desired level by—
(B) h /w + L
(A) Priming
(C) h /w + L + Cp
(B) Blow-down
(D) x L + Cp (Tsup – Tsat)
(C) Gravity separation
07. The critical temperature of steam is— (D) None of these
(A) 225·65 kg/cm2 (B) 252·65 kg/cm2 14. The fusible plug is situated—
(C) 347·15 kg/cm2 (D) 374·15 kg/cm2 (A) Near the manhole
 Mechanical | 39

(B) Just below the water level 23. If the steel boiler is properly installed and
(C) At the crown of the furnance looked after its average life will be—
(D) At the base of the boiler (A) 5 years (B) 20 years
(C) 50 years (D) 75 years
15. Steam used in high pressure turbines must not
contain impurities— 24. To produce one unit of electricity the appro-
(A) More than 10 P.P.M. ximate amount of coal burnt is—
(B) More than 0·3 P.P.M. (A) 0·5 Kg (B) 1·6 Kg
(C) More than 250 P.P.M. (C) 5 Kg (D) 10 Kg
(D) More than 500 P.P.M. 25. In a babcock and wilcox boiler the tubes are
16. In induced draft the fan is used— inclined at—
(A) Before the furnance (A) 0° (B) 90°
(B) At the base of the chimney (C) 15° (D) 45°
(C) At the top of the chimney 26. Economiser is used for—
(D) In the manhole (A) Superheating the steam
17. The amount of K.cal. required to heat 1 kg. of (B) Pre-heating of the feed water
water at 100°C to dry saturated steam at (C) Pre-heating the air
100°C is— (D) Condensing the exhaust steam of the
(A) 539 K.cal. (B) 100 K.cal. engine
(C) 53·9 K.cal. (D) None of these 27. The Horse Power (H.P.) of boiler indicate—
18. In term of equal evaporation on boiler HP is (A) The maximum pressure at which steam
equal to— can be generated
(A) 1·5563 Kg (B) 15·563 Kg (B) The rate of generator of steam
(C) 34·5 Kg (D) 11 Kg (C) The capacity of the shell
19. Smokeless or compact boiler is a— (D) None of these
(A) Three pass boiler 28. The function of fusible plug is—
(B) Two pass boiler (A) To drain off the water of the shell
(C) Single pass boiler (B) To prevent damage of boiler against
(D) None of these over-heating
20. In a super critical boiler the pressure range (C) To blow off excess of steam
is— (D) None of these
(A) 50 to 100 kg/cm2
(B) 100 to 150 kg/cm2 29. In lancashire boiler the number of flue tubes
are—
(C) 150 to 200 kg/cm2
(D) 225 to 250 kg/cm2 (A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) 5
21. Lancashire boiler is a—
(A) Single pass boiler 30. The function of superheater is to—
(B) Two pass boiler (A) Pre-heat the feed water
(C) Three pass boiler (B) Pre-heat the air
(D) Four pass boiler (C) Increase the temperature of steam above
22. A boiler known as a small steam jenny is used saturation temperature
for— (D) Increase the rate of combustion of fuel
(A) Power generator 31. The maximum working pressure of fire tube
(B) Heating purpose boiler is limited to—
(C) Spray painting (A) 1·5 kg/cm2 (B) 5 kg/cm2
(D) None of these (C) 20 kg/cm 2 (D) 100 kg/cm2
40 | Mechanical

32. In a steam engine can be a horizontal, vertical 41. In Rankine cycle expansion of steam assumed
or inclined. This classification is according to to be—
the— (A) Adiabatic (B) Polytropic
(A) Expansion of steam (C) Hyperbolic (D) Isothermal
(B) Position of cylender 42. The expansion of steam in hypothetical
(C) Field of application indicated diagram is assumed to be—
(D) Speed of the engine (A) Isothermal (B) Polytropic
33. A steam engine having a speed of 275 R.P.M. (C) Hyperbolic (D) Adiabatic
is termed as a— 43. The thermal efficiency of a steam engine is
(A) High speed engine about—
(B) Low speed engine (A) 10% (B) 25%
(C) Medium speed engine (C) 50% (D) 80%
(D) None of these 44. When the steam is carried from boiler to the
engine, the pressure of steam—
34. In case of a condensing steam engine the
exhaust from the steam engine is directly sent (A) Will increase
to the— (B) Will decrease
(A) Atmosphere (B) Condenser (C) Will remain same
(D) None of these
(C) Hot well (D) Economiser
45. The ratio of thermal efficiency to the standard
35. In a double acting steam engine the number of
efficiency is defined as—
working strokes per revolution are—
(A) Overall efficiency
(A) 1 (B) 2
(B) Standard efficiency
(C) 3 (D) 4
(C) Relative efficiency
36. The efficiency of the Rankine cycle is given (D) Specific steam consumption
by the relation—
46. In a throttle governing the steam consumption
H1 – H2 H1 + H 2 per hour is directly proportional—
(A) (B)
H1 – Hw2 H1 – Hw2 (A) B.H.P. of the engine
H1 + H 2 H1 – H2 (B) I.H.P. of the engine
(C) (D)
H1 + Hw 2 H1 + Hw 2 (C) F.H.P. of the engine
37. Steam engine works on— (D) None of these
(A) Constant volume cycle 47. The function of the governor in steam engine
(B) Constant pressure cycle is to—
(C) Rankine cycle (A) Reverse its direction
(B) Control the speed
(D) Joule's cycle
(C) Absorb the excess energy produced dur-
38. Diagram factor is always— ing a cycle
(A) More than one (B) Less than one (D) Stop the engine
(C) Equal to one (D) None of these 48. The thermal efficiency of steam engine is—
39. The approximate value of diagram factor is— (A) More than steam turbine
(A) 0·2 (B) 0·5 (B) Less than steam turbine
(C) 0·7 (D) 1·2 (C) Equal to steam turbine
40. Willian's law is expressed mathematically as— (D) Unpredictable
(A) w = a + B.H.P. + b 49. In uniflow steam engine the type of valve
(B) w = a × I.H.P. + b used for controlling the steam is—
(C) w = a × F.H.b (A) D.Slide valve (B) Drop valve
(D) w = a × I.H.P. – b (C) Corliss valve (D) None of these
 Mechanical | 41

50. In receiver type compound steam engine, the (C) Clearance control
cranks of the two cylinder are placed— (D) All the above
(A) 90° to each other
58. The efficiency of vane type air compressor as
(B) 180° to each other compared to roots air compressor for the
(C) 360° to each other same pressure ratio is—
(D) 45° to each other (A) More (B) Less
51. In woolf type compound steam engine, the (C) Same (D) None of these
phase angle between two cranks is— 59. In centrifugal air compressor the pressure
(A) 90° (B) 45° developed depends on—
(C) 180° (D) 120° (A) Impeller tip velocity
52. The work input to air compressor is minimum (B) Inlet-temperature
if the compression law followed is— (C) Compression index
(A) PV1·35 = C (D) All the above
(B) Isothermal PV = C 60. In air compresser installations where are
(C) Isentropic PVγ = C seperators generally used ?
(D) None of these (A) Before intercooler
53. For reciprocating air compressor the law of (B) After intercooler
compression desired is isothermal and that (C) Between aftercooler and receiver
may be possible by— (D) None of these
(A) Very low speed 61. With an increase in compression ratio the
(B) Very high speed volumetric efficiency of air compressor—
(C) Any speed as speed does not affect the (A) Decreases
compression law (B) Increases
(D) None of these (C) Remains unchanged
54. Work input to the air compressor with 'n' as (D) Unpredictable
index of compression—
62. Why is intercooling in multistage compressor
(A) Increases with increase in the value of ‘n’ done ?
(B) Decreases with increase in the value of ‘n’ (A) To minimise the work of compression
(C) Remains same whatever the value of ‘n’
(B) To cool the air at delivery
(D) None of these
(C) To cool the air during compression
55. With increase in clearance volume, the ideal (D) None of these
work of compressing 1kg of air—
(A) Increases (B) Decreases 63. Why is an after cooler used ?
(C) Remains same (D) None of these (A) To remove impurities from air
(B) To reduce the volume of air
56. Mechanical efficiency of reciprocating air co-
mpressor is expressed as— (C) To cool the air
B.P. I.P. (D) None of these
(A) (B)
I.P. B.P. 64. …… type compressors are used for gas
F.P. F.P. turbines.
(C) (D) (A) Sliding vane (B) Centrifugal
B.P. I.P.
57. In reciprocating air compressor the method of (C) Axial flow (D) All of the above
controlling the quantity of air delivered is 65. Centrifugal blowers can supply …… volumes
done by— of air at …… pressures.
(A) Throttle control (A) Large, low (B) Large, high
(B) Blow-off control (C) Small, high (D) Small, low
42 | Mechanical

66. …… is an non-positive displacement com- 76. …… is used to drive a rotary compressor.

pressor. (A) Engine (B) Electric motor
(A) Reciprocating compressor (C) Air motor (D) Either A or B
(B) Roots blower
(C) Axial flow compressor 77. …… is a positive displacement compressor.
(D) Vane blower (A) Axial flow compressor
(B) Centrifugal flow compressor
67. The performance of reciprocating compressor
is compared on the basis of …… efficiency. (C) Roots blower
(A) Volumetric (B) Mechanical (D) None of these
(C) Over all (D) Isothermal 78. Which of the following compressors is mostly
68. Minimum work is required to compress the used for supercharging I.C. engines ?
air when compression is— (A) Reciprocating compressor
(A) Polytropic (B) Adiabatic (B) Axial flow compressor
(C) Isothermal (D) Any of the above (C) Roots blower
69. Which of the following is the most-efficient (D) Radial flow compressor
method of compressing air ? 79. Reciprocating compressors are employed to
(A) Adiabatically (B) Isothermally compress air upto a pressure of …… bar.
(C) Isentropically (D) Polytropically (A) 20 (B) 40
70. For which of the following Euler's equation is (C) 80 (D) More than 100
applicable—
(A) Axial compressor 80. In a centrifugal compressor what is the usual
(B) Centrifugal compressor value of power input factor ?
(C) Pumps (A) 1·0 (B) 1·04
(D) All of the above (C) 1·2 (D) 1·3
71. The ratio of indicated power to shaft power is 81. …… is the ratio of isentropic work to Euler
known as …… efficiency. work, in a rotary bladed compressor.
(A) Adiabatic (B) Mechanical (A) Degree of reaction
(C) Isothermal (D) Volumetric (B) Slip factor
72. In a compressor the clearance volume should (C) Work factor
be— (D) Pressure co-efficient
(A) As small as possible
(B) As large as possible 82. In air compressor may be controlled by ……
(C) About 25% of swept volume control.
(D) About 80% of swept volume (A) Clearance (B) Blow-off
(C) Throttle (D) Any of the above
73. Rotary compressor is suited for …… quantity
of air at …… pressure. 83. With the decrease in the valve of index n the
(A) Large, low (B) Small, low volumetric efficiency—
(C) Same, high (D) Large, high (A) Decreases
74. At high altitude a compressor will draw— (B) Increases
(A) Less power (B) More power (C) Remains unaffected
(C) Same power (D) None of these (D) None of these
75. The volumetric efficiency of compressor 84. A closed cycle gas turbine works on ………
…… with …… in compression ratio. cycle.
(A) Decreases, increases (A) Rankine (B) Joule
(B) Increases, increases (C) Atkinson (D) Brayton
(C) Decreases, decreases 85. In gas turbine high air fuel ratio—
(D) Increases, decreases (A) Reduces exhaust temperature
 Mechanical | 43

(B) Increases power output 95. Campair to aircraft, the air velocity in a
(C) Improves thermal efficiency rocket is—
(D) None of the above (A) Zero (B) Less
(C) Same (D) More
86. A closed cycle gas turbine consists of a—
(A) Cooling chamber 96. Compared to turbo jet, a turbo propeller gas
…… as the additional feature.
(B) Heating chamber
(A) Diffuser (B) Intercooler
(C) Compressor (C) Propeller (D) None of these
(D) All of the above
97. At a speed of about …… the maximum
87. For a gas turbine the air-fuel ratio is generally propulsion efficiency of a turbo jet is attained.
kept closer to— (A) 400 Km/h (B) 1000 Km/h
(A) 10 : 1 (B) 25 : 1 (C) 1500 Km/h (D) 2400 Km/h
(C) 45 : 1 (D) 60 : 1 98. The overall efficiency of a rocket is maxi-
88. …… limits the maximum temperature in a mum when aircraft velocity compared to jet
gas turbine cycle. velocity is—
(A) Turbine blade material (A) Half (B) Two-third
(B) Efficiency of combustion (C) One-fourth (D) Double
(C) Quality of fuel 99. …… type of gas turbine is employed in
(D) None of these aircraft units.
(A) Open (B) Closed
89. …… is used as a fuel in gas turbine. (C) Semi-closed (D) None of these
(A) Liquid benzene (B) Powdered coal
100. In practice, propulsion efficiency of the
(C) Producer gas (D) Any of the above following order is obtained—
90. The ideal constant pressure gas turbine works (A) 20% (B) 40%
on …… cycle. (C) 60% (D) 75%
(A) Brayton (B) Joule
Answers
(C) Both (D) None of these
1. (A) 2. (A) 3. (C) 4. (B) 5. (B)
91. In gas turbine's the pressure ratio is the ratio 6. (B) 7. (A) 8. (A) 9. (D) 10. (B)
of— 11. (A) 12. (D) 13. (B) 14. (C) 15. (B)
(A) Exhaust pressure to inlet pressure 16. (B) 17. (A) 18. (B) 19. (A) 20. (D)
(B) Pressure across turbines 21. (C) 22. (C) 23. (B) 24. (B) 25. (C)
(C) Highest pressure to exhaust pressure 26. (B) 27. (B) 28. (B) 29. (A) 30. (C)
(D) None of these 31. (C) 32. (B) 33. (A) 34. (B) 35. (B)
36. (A) 37. (C) 38. (B) 39. (C) 40. (B)
92. …… is suitable for space travel. 41. (C) 42. (C) 43. (B) 44. (B) 45. (C)
(A) Turbo propeller (B) Turbo jet 46. (B) 47. (B) 48. (B) 49. (D) 50. (A)
(C) Rocket (D) All of the above 51. (C) 52. (B) 53. (A) 54. (A) 55. (C)
56. (B) 57. (D) 58. (A) 59. (D) 60. (C)
93. Which of the following properties is most im-
61. (A) 62. (C) 63. (C) 64. (C) 65. (A)
portant for material used for gas turbine blad ?
66. (C) 67. (D) 68. (B) 69. (B) 70. (D)
(A) Bulk modulus (B) Fatigue 71. (B) 72. (A) 73. (A) 74. (A) 75. (D)
(C) Toughness (D) Creep 76. (D) 77. (C) 78. (D) 79. (D) 80. (B)
94. In a gas turbine the compression ratio is of the 81. (D) 82. (D) 83. (A) 84. (B) 85. (A)
order of— 86. (D) 87. (D) 88. (A) 89. (D) 90. (A)
(A) 2 : 1 (B) 4 : 1 91. (C) 92. (C) 93. (D) 94. (C) 95. (A)
(C) 8 : 1 (D) 13 : 1 96. (C) 97. (D) 98. (A) 99. (A) 100. (C)
 8 HEAT TRANSFER, REFRIGERATION AND
AIR-CONDITIONING
01. The thermal conductivity is expressed as— 09. Due to which of the following reasons cork is
(A) W/mk (B) W/m2 k a good insulator ?
(C) W/hmk (D) W/h2m2 k (A) It is porous
02. The overall coefficient of heat transfer is used (B) Its density is low
in the problems of— (C) It can be powdered
(A) Radiation (D) All of the above
(B) Conduction 10. …… is expected to have highest thermal
(C) Convection conductivity.
(D) Conduction and convection (A) Water (B) Melting ice
03. Thermal conductivity of non-metallic amor- (C) Solid ice (D) Steam
phous solid …… with decrease in tempera- 11. The temperature variation with time, in the
ture. lumped parameter model is—
(A) Decreases (A) Exponential (B) Sinusoidal
(B) Increases (C) Cubic (D) Linear
(C) Remains constant 12. …… number is relevant, is transient heat
(D) Unpredictable condition.
04. Heat transfer takes place as per …… law of (A) Reynolds (B) Fourier
thermodynamics. (C) Grashoff (D) Prandtl
(A) Zeroth (B) First 13. …… number is generally associated with
(C) Second (D) None of these natural convection heat transfer.
05. Heat closely related with— (A) Prandtl (B) Weaker
(A) Energy (B) Entropy (C) Nusselt (D) Grashoff
(C) Enthalpy (D) Temperature 14. …… is not the assumption in Fourier's
equation of heat conduction.
06. …… has least value of conductivity. (A) Constant temperature difference
(A) Rubber (B) Air (B) Uniform area of cross-section
(C) Water (D) Glass (C) Steady heat flow
07. …… has maximum value of thermal (D) Homogeneous substance
conductivity. 15. A substance above critical temperature exists
(A) Lead (B) Copper as—
(C) Steel (D) Aluminium (A) Liquid (B) Solid
08. In which of the following cases. molecular (C) Gas (D) Wet vapour
transmission of heat is smallest ? 16. Shape of an ideal thermometer should be—
(A) Solids (B) Alloys (A) Cubical (B) Rectangular
(C) Gases (D) liquids (C) Spherical (D) Cylindrical
 Mechanical | 45

17. Planck's law of radiation is application to 28. For gases prandtl number is—
…… radiation. (A) Near unity
(A) Monochromatic (B) Thermal (B) Between 5 to 50
(C) Temperature (D) None of the above (C) Between 60 to 100
18. The monochromatic emissivity of a white (D) Between 150 to 300
body at all wavelenths and temperatures is 29. In …… ablation heat transfer method is used.
equal to—
(A) Nuclear war heat
(A) Zero (B) 0·1 to 0·4
(B) Satellites
(C) 0·6 (D) 1
(C) Rockets
19. A …… body reflects entire radiation incident (D) None of these
it.
30. …… number can be used for convective heat
(A) Trasparent (B) Black
transfer.
(C) Gray (D) White
(A) Mach (B) Froude
20. …… method is used to find the thermal (C) Nusselt (D) None of these
conductivity of rubber.
31. The ratio of thermal conductivity to that of
(A) Searle's
water is nearly.
(B) Lee's disc
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) Cylindrical shell
(C) 4 (D) 6
(D) Laby and Hercus
32. In air preheater for boiler, heat is least
21. …… rays have least wavelength. transferred by—
(A) Infrared (B) Ultraviolet (A) Radiation (B) Conduction
(C) Radio (D) Cosmic (C) Convection (D) Both
22. Dropwise condensation occurs on a …… 33. In which of the following cases non-isotropic
surface. conductivity is exhibited ?
(A) Oily (B) Smooth (A) Lead (B) Wood
(C) Glazed (D) Coated (C) Copper (D) Brass
23. Least value of prandtl number can be 34. …… is suitable for low temperature applica-
expected in case of— tions.
(A) Water (B) Liquid metals (A) Fused alumina bricks
(C) Salt solution (D) Sugar soluble (B) Asbestos paper
24. Agitated film evaporator is suitable for (C) Cork
concentrating …… liquids. (D) Diatomacious earth
(A) Viscous (B) Low temperature 35. A dimensionless number which is the ratio of
(C) Corrosive (D) Liquid level kinematic viscosity to thermal diffusivity is
25. The intensity of solar radiation on earth is known as …… number.
…… KW/m2 . (A) Grashoff (B) Prandtl
(A) 1 (B) 3 (C) Mach (D) Nusselt
(C) 6 (D) 8 36. Fog is formed due to—
26. In …… flow maximum heat transfer rate can (A) Humidity
be expected. (B) Low pressure
(A) Laminar (B) Turbulent (C) Temperature fall of atmosphere
(C) Counter current (D) None of these (D) All of the above
27. The emissivity of a grey body is— 37. Which of the following is a very good
(A) 0·5 (B) 1 insulator ?
(C) Less than 1 (D) More than 1 (A) Saw dust
46 | Mechanical

(B) A hard wood board (B) 1 + (C.O.P.)ref

(C) An asbestos sheet (C) (C.O.P.) ref – 1
(D) A porcelain sheet
1
38. Thermal conductivity of liquids can be deter- (D)
(C.O.P.) ref
mined by—
(A) Searlis method 48. Air-refrigerator works on …… cycle.
(B) Guarded plate method (A) Rankine
(C) Laby and Hercas method (B) Bell-coleman
(D) None of the above (C) Reversed Carnot cycle
39. …… is likely to have highest thermal con- (D) Both (B) and (C)
ductivity. 49. Bell-coleman cycle is a reversed …… cycle.
(A) Boiling water (B) Steam (A) Rankine (B) Otto
(C) Solid ice (D) Rain water (C) Joule (D) Carnot
40. …… body transmits all the radiations falling 50. The refrigerating capacity of 165 domestic
on it. refrigerator is approximately equal to—
(A) Transparent (B) Grey (A) 0·1 tonne (B) 1·15 tonnes
(C) Black (D) White (C) 5 tonnes (D) 8 tonnes
41. A radiation shield should have— 51. The Bell-coleman refrigeration cycle uses
(A) High emissivity …… as the working fluid.
(B) Low reflectivity (A) Air (B) CO2
(C) High reflectivity (C) H2 (D) None of these
(D) None of these
52. Air-refrigeration cycle is used in—
42. …… are generally diathermanous. (A) Domestic refrigerators
(A) Gases (B) Liquids (B) Gas liquification
(C) Solids (D) All the above
(C) Commercial refrigerators
43. The reflectance of a black body is— (D) All of the above
(A) Zero (B) Less than 1·0
(C) 1·0 (D) Infinity 53. …… cycle uses air as the refrigerant.
(A) Stirling (B) Ericsson
44. Grashoff number has significant role in heat
transfer by— (C) Bell-coleman (D) Carnot
(A) Conduction 54. In a refrigeration cycle the heat is rejected by
(B) Radiation refrigerant at—
(C) Natural convection (A) Condenser (B) Evaporator
(D) Forced convection (C) Compressor (D) Expansion value
45. Temperature of steam around 550°C can be 55. In a refrigeration cycle the flow of refrigerant
measured by— is controlled by—
(A) Thermopile (B) Thermocouple (A) Compressor
(C) Thermometer (D) Radiation (B) Evaporator
46. Rating of a domestic refrigerator is of the (C) Expansion value
order of— (D) Condenser
(A) 0·1 to 0·3 tonne (B) 2 tonnes 56. Which part of the vapour compression
(C) 5 tonnes (D) 10 tonnes refrigeration cycle, produces the refrigeration
47. The C.O.P. of a heat pump for the same effect ?
operating temperature limits, equals— (A) Compressor (B) Condenser
(A) (C.O.P.) ref (C) Evaporator (D) None of these
 Mechanical | 47

57. In the vapour compression refrigeration cycle, 65. Which refrigerant is used in a vapour absorp-
the refrigerant is generally in the form of tion refrigerator ?
fairly wet vapour at entry to— (A) Freon (B) Sulpher dioxide
(A) Compressor (C) Water (D) Acqua-ammonia
(B) Condenser 66. In a vapour compression system the tempera-
(C) Expansion valve ture of ammonia after compression is in the
(D) Evaporator range—
58. In a refrigeration cycle, the supurheating …… (A) 15 to 25°C (B) 25 to 50°C
C.O.P. (C) 50 to 70°C (D) 70 to 110°C
(A) Decreases (B) Does not change 67. Freon group of refrigerants are—
(C) Increses (D) None of these (A) Toxic
59. In a refrigeration cycle oil separator is ins- (B) Inflammable
talled between— (C) Nontoxic and inflammable
(A) Condenser and expansion valve (D) Nontoxic and non-inflammable
(B) Compressor and condenser 68. Short horizontal lines on pressure-enthalpy
(C) Condenser and evaporator chart show constant …… lines.
(D) None of these (A) Extropy (B) Pressure
60. In a small refregerator a capillary tube is used (C) Temperature (D) Total heat
to serve the purpose of— 69. …… has the minimum freezing point.
(A) Evoportor (B) Thermostate (A) Freon-22 (B) Freon-12
(C) Condenser (D) Expansion valve (C) Corbon-dioxide (D) Ammonia
61. A device designed to remove moisture from a 70. A refrigerant with highest critical pressure
refrigerant is called— is—
(A) Dehumidifier (A) Carbon-dioxide (B) Ammonia
(B) Solenoid (C) Freon-11 (D) Freon-22
(C) Expansion valve
71. …… is the refrigerant widely used in domes-
(D) Drier
tic refrigerators.
62. …… is usually the constiliest item in a (A) Carbon dioxide (B) Air
refrigeration system. (C) Freon-12 (D) Ammonia
(A) Compressor
(B) Condenser 72. …… is the refrigerant commonly used in co-
(C) Expansion valve mmercial ice plants.
(D) Evaporator (A) Carbon dioxide (B) Air
(C) Ammonia (D) Freon-12
63. The vapour pressure of refrigerant should be
…… atmospheric pressure. 73. The refrigerant used in steam jet refrigeration
(A) Lower than is—
(B) Equal to (A) Brine (B) Water
(C) Higher than (C) Ammonia (D) Freon-12
(D) None of these 74. Which of the following refrigerants has the
64. At the back of domestic refrigerator, the bank lowest boiling points ?
of tubes are— (A) Freon-12 (B) Carbon dioxide
(A) Evaporator tubes (C) Ammonia (D) Sulpher dioxide
(B) Condenser tubes 75. The brine is an aqeous solution of …… in
(C) Refrigerant cooling tubes water.
(D) Capillary tubes (A) Magnesium sulphate
48 | Mechanical

(B) Sodium chloride (C) Remains constant

(C) Calcium carbonate (D) None of these
(D) None of these 85. During sensible cooling, wet bulb tem-
76. The C.O.P. of a domestic refrigerator in com- perature—
parison to domestic air-conditioner will be— (A) Decreases
(A) Less (B) Same (B) Increases
(C) More (D) None (C) Remains constant
77. An electrolux refrigerator works on …… (D) None of these
system. 86. An air washer can work as a—
(A) Vortex tube (A) Filter only
(B) Absorption refrigeration (B) Humidifier only
(C) Vapour compression M (C) Dehumidifier only
(D) None of these (D) All of the above
78. In vapour absorption system lithium bromide 87. The relative humidity during sensible heat-
is used as— ing—
(A) Lubricant (B) Cooling substance (A) Can increase or decrease
(C) Absorbent (D) Refrigerant (B) Increases
79. …… is the least used refrigerant these days. (C) Decreases
(A) Freon-12 (B) Sulpher dioxide (D) Remains constant
(C) Carbon dioxide (D) Ammonia 88. The vapour pressure, during sensible heating
80. The refrigerant 717 is— of moist air—
(A) Sulpher dioxide (A) Increases
(B) Ammonia (B) Decreases
(C) Methyl chloride (C) Remains constant
(D) None of these (D) None of these
81. In …… brine is always used as a secondary 89. The relative humidity, during heating and
refrigerant. humidification—
(A) Milk chilling plant (A) Increases
(B) Ice plant (B) Decreases
(C) Cold storage (C) May increase or decrease
(D) None of these (D) Remains constant
82. ……....... is not a desirable property of good 90. The relative humidity during cooling and
insulating material. dehumidification of moist air—
(A) Low initial cost (A) Increases
(B) Light weight (B) Decreases
(C) Odourless (C) Can increase or decrease
(D) High heat conductivity (D) Remains constant
83. In an unsaturated air the state of a vapour is— 91. The wet bulb temperature is measure of ……
(A) Wet (B) Superheated humidity.
(C) Saturated (D) Unsaturated (A) Relative (B) Absolute
84. During sensible heating of moist air, (C) Specific (D) None of these
enthalpy— 92. The dry bulb temperature during heating and
(A) Increases dehumidification—
(B) Decreases (A) Decreases
 Mechanical | 49

(B) Increases (C) Increases

(C) Remains constant (D) Unpredictable
(D) None of these 99. The wet bulb temperature during sensible
93. The dehumidification process, on the cooling process—
psychrometric chart is shown by— (A) Decreases (B) Remains same
(A) Curved line (B) Vertical line (C) Increases (D) Unpredictable
(C) Horizontal line (D) Inclined line 100. …… is a functional or decorative covering
94. As warms air cools, its relative humidity— for an outlet or intake.
(A) Decreases (A) Register (B) Grille
(B) Increases (C) Diffuser (D) None of these
(C) Remains unchanged
(D) Unpredictable Answers
95. During dehumidification process of removing 1. (A) 2. (D) 3. (A) 4. (C) 5. (D)
moisture dry bulb temperature— 6. (B) 7. (B) 8. (D) 9. (C) 10. (C)
(A) Decreases 11. (A) 12. (B) 13. (D) 14. (B) 15. (C)
(B) Increases 16. (C) 17. (A) 18. (A) 19. (D) 20. (B)
(C) Remains constant 21. (D) 22. (A) 23. (C) 24. (A) 25. (A)
(D) Unpredictable 26. (B) 27. (C) 28. (A) 29. (B) 30. (C)
96. The wet bulb temperature, at 100 per cent 31. (C) 32. (A) 33. (B) 34. (D) 35. (A)
relative humidity is …… dew point. 36. (C) 37. (A) 38. (B) 39. (C) 40. (A)
(A) Less than (B) Same as 41. (C) 42. (A) 43. (A) 44. (C) 45. (B)
(C) More than (D) None of these 46. (A) 47. (B) 48. (D) 49. (C) 50. (A)
51. (A) 52. (B) 53. (C) 54. (A) 55. (C)
97. In spray humidification process, the dry bulb
temperature— 56. (C) 57. (D) 58. (A) 59. (B) 60. (D)
(A) Decreases 61. (D) 62. (A) 63. (C) 64. (B) 65. (D)
(B) Remains same 66. (D) 67. (D) 68. (B) 69. (A) 70. (B)
(C) Increases 71. (C) 72. (C) 73. (B) 74. (B) 75. (B)
(D) None of these 76. (A) 77. (B) 78. (C) 79. (C) 80. (B)
81. (B) 82. (D) 83. (B) 84. (A) 85. (A)
98. The wet bulb temperature during evaporative
cooling process— 86. (D) 87. (C) 88. (C) 89. (A) 90. (C)
(A) Decreases 91. (B) 92. (B) 93. (B) 94. (B) 95. (C)
(B) Remains constant 96. (B) 97. (A) 98. (B) 99. (A) 100. (B)
 9 THEORY OF MACHINES AND MACHINE
DESIGN
01. The velocity ratio of the belt drive due to slip 09. In a scott russel mechanism for straight line,
of the belt— there are …… movable links.
(A) Increases (A) Two (B) Three
(B) Decreases (C) Four (D) Six
(C) Remains unchanged 10. …… governor is dead weight governor.
(D) Unpredictable (A) Watt (B) Pickering
02. The …… Follower is extensively used in air (C) Hartnell (D) Porter
craft engine.
11. …… gears are used in a differential of an
(A) Flat faced (B) Roller automobile.
(C) Knife edge (D) Spherical faced (A) Double helical (B) Mitre
03. When a body is subjected to trsnsverse vibra- (C) Straight level (D) None of these
tions …… stress is induced in the body.
12. Auto mobile steering gear is an example of
(A) Compressive (B) Tensile …… pair.
(C) Shear (D) Any of the above (A) Rotary (B) Turning
04. Which of the following brakes is used in (C) Lower (D) Sliding
motor cars ?
13. What will be the locus of a point on a thread
(A) Band brake unwound from a cylinder ?
(B) Internal expanding brake (A) Involute (B) Helix
(C) Shoe brake (C) Straight line (D) Circle
(D) Any of the above
14. …… mechanism produces mathematically an
05. …… gear train is used to connect minute exact straight line motion.
hand to hour hand, in a clock mechanism. (A) Ackermann (B) Peaucellier's
(A) Simple (B) Reversed (C) Watt (D) None of these
(C) Epicyclic (D) Compound
15. In case of cam, the maximum value of the
06. A point on a link connecting double slider pressure angle is kept as—
crank chain traces a …… path. (A) 15° (B) 20°
(A) Straight line (B) Elliptical
(C) 30° (D) 45°
(C) Hyperbolic (D) Parabolic
16. Hartnell governor could be classified as
07. …… drive is not a positive drive.
…… type governor.
(A) V-belt (B) Rope
(A) Dead weight (B) Pendulum
(C) Flat-belt (D) All of the above
(C) Centrifugal (D) None of these
08. Throw of a cam can be defined as the maxi-
mum distance of the follower from …… 17. In order to obtain resistance against wear, best
circle. profile is—
(A) Pitch (B) Base (A) 14° involute stub
(C) Prime (D) None of these (B) 14° full depth involute
 Mechanical | 51

1° 27. In a reciprocating engine mechanism the

(C) 14 full depth involute number of links and instaltaneous centres
2
(D) 20° rack are—
(A) 3, 3 (B) 4, 5
18. In a continuous system, the number of degree
of freedom would be— (C) 4, 6 (D) 5, 5
(A) One (B) Two 28. How many links are in peaucellier mecha-
(C) Three (D) Four nism ?
(A) Two (B) Four
19. In sugar crushing machinery which of the
(C) Eight (D) Six
following types of tooth are provided on the
gears used ? 29. The lead screw of a lathe with nut forms a
(A) Cycloidal (B) Involute …… pair.
(C) Paraboloid (D) Hyperboloid (A) Turning (B) Screw
(C) Rolling (D) Sliding
20. For a vibrating system, if the damping factor
is unity, then the system is …… damped. 30. For inelastic bodies, the co-efficient of
(A) Under (B) Over restitution is—
(C) Critically (D) Zero (A) One (B) Greater than one
(C) Zero (D) None of these
21. The governor speed …… when the sleeve of
a porter governor moves upwards. 31. The pair is said to be a …… pair when the
(A) Decreases (B) Increases elements of the pair are kept in contact by the
action of external forces.
(C) Constant (D) None of these
(A) Self closed (B) Force closed
22. The frictional torque transmitted by a disc or (C) Lower (D) Higher
plate clutch is same as that of …… bearing.
32. A quaternary joint, in a kinematic chain, is
(A) Conical pivot equivalent to—
(B) Flat pivot (A) One binary joint
(C) Trapezoidal pivot (B) Two binary joint
(D) Flat collar (C) Three binary joint
23. …… governor is used to drive a gramophone. (D) None of these
(A) Pickering (B) Hartnell 33. A kinematic chain is known as a machanism
(C) Watt (D) Porter when …… of the links is fixed.
24. …… is a transmission dynamometer— (A) None (B) One
(A) Hydraulic dynamometer (C) Two (D) All
(B) Prony brake dynamometer 34. A kinamatic chain is known as a mechanism
(C) Rope brake dynamometer when …… of the links is fixed.
(D) None of the above (A) None (B) One
25. Which of the following is used as a lubricant (C) Two (D) all
in a rope brake dynamometer ? 35. A completely constrained motion can be
(A) Water transmitted with …… links with pin joints.
(B) Oil (A) Two (B) Four
(C) Grease (C) Five (D) Six
(D) No lubricant is used
36. Which of the following is an example of
26. The size of cam depend on …… circle. spherical pair ?
(A) Prime (B) Outer (A) Ball and socket joint
(C) Base (D) Pitch (B) Bolts and nut
52 | Mechanical

(C) Ball bearing and roller bearing 47. …… gear train is used in the gear box of an
(D) None of these automobile.
37. A universal joint is an example of …… pair. (A) Inverted (B) Epicyclic
(A) Sliding (B) Lower (C) Simple (D) Compound
(C) Higher (D) None of these 48. …… follower is generally used in automobile
engines.
38. What is the unit of mass moment of inertia is
S.I. units ? (A) Roller
(A) Kg-m (B) Kg-m2 (B) Flat faced
(C) m4 (D) Nm/Kg (C) Knife edge
(D) Spherical faced
39. The energy possessed by a body for doing
work, by virtue of its position is called 49. …… circle is an imaginary circle which by
…… energy. pure rolling action gives the same motion as
(A) Chemical (B) Electrical the actual gear.
(C) Potential (D) Kinetic (A) Clearance (B) Dedendum
(C) Addendum (D) Pitch
40. What is the contact ratio for gears ?
(A) Less than one 50. How many links does a pantograph mecha-
nism contain ?
(B) Zero
(A) Two (B) Four
(C) Greater than one
(C) Nine (D) Ten
(D) None of these
51. V-belts are usually used for …… driver.
41. When the number of degrees of freedom(n) is
equal to …… the mechanism forms a (A) Short
structure. (B) Long
(A) –1 (B) 1 (C) Both short and long
(C) 2 (D) 0 (D) None of these
42. The quality of a governor is judged by its— 52. In the coupling rod mechanism of a loco-
(A) Power (B) Sensitivity motive each of the four pairs is a …… pair.
(C) Stability (D) All of the above (A) Screw (B) Turning
(C) Spherical (D) Sliding
43. A …… does not require a flywheel.
(A) Gas turbine (B) Steam engine 53. The balls in a ball bearing are made of
…… steel.
(C) Power press (D) None of these
(A) Tungston (B) High carbon
44. A rock is a gear of— (C) Vanadium (D) Nickel-chrome
(A) Infinite module (B) Infinite diameter
(C) Infinite pitch (D) None of the above 54. Transmission losses, in a car, will be mini-
mum in …… gear.
45. Helical gears are subjected to …… stresses.
(A) First (B) Second
(A) Bending
(C) Third (D) Direct
(B) Torsional shear
(C) Transverse shear 55. What is the maximum value of pressure angle
(D) Hoop of cam ?
46. Which of the following gears should be (A) 8° (B) 20°
recommended for a speed reduction of 50 : 1. (C) 30° (D) 90°
(A) Spur 56. If the number of links in a mechanism is 6,
(B) Differential the number of pairs would be—
(C) Worm and worm wheel (A) 5 (B) 2
(D) Bevel (C) 1 (D) 4
 Mechanical | 53

57. Mid-point of the floating link of elliptical 68. How many crank are there in a single row six
trammel traces. cylinder engine ?
(A) A straight line (B) A circle (A) One (B) Two
(C) A parabola (D) An ellipse (C) Three (D) Four
58. A hook's joint is used to connect two …… 69. Motor cycle shock absorbers are generally
shafts. designed for …… dauping.
(A) Parallel (A) Resonant (B) Light
(B) Intersecting (C) Critical (D) Partial
(C) Non-parallel intersecting 70. A vibrating beam has …… degrees of
(D) None of these freedam.
59. Type writer constitutes— (A) One (B) Two
(A) An inversion (B) A mechanism (C) Three (D) Four
(C) A machine (D) None of these 71. …… is used to enlarge or reduce the size of a
60. The co-efficient of friction in a well greased drawing.
ball bearing may be— (A) Clinometer (B) Pantograph
(A) 0·1 to 0·25 (B) 0·25 to 0·30 (C) Clinograph (D) Oscillograph
(C) 0·3 to 0·35 (D) None of these 72. A kinematic chain requires at least …… links
61. …… coupling is not a flexible coupling. and …… turnning pairs.
(A) Oldham's (B) Muff (A) 2, 3 (B) 3, 4
(C) Universal (D) Bushed PM (C) 4, 4 (D) 5, 4
62. In case of gears, the contact ratio or engage- 73. Which of the following motions is imparted
ment factor should be— by a cam ?
(A) 1·1 (B) 1·3 to 1·5 (A) Reciprocating (B) Oscillating
(C) 1·6 to 1·8 (D) 1·9 to 2·1 (C) Rotating (D) All of the above
63. In aero-engines the cylinders are arranged 74. For boiler plate riveting …… head is usually
along …… lines. used.
(A) Parallel (B) Radial (A) Conical (B) Pan
(C) Perpendicular (D) Any of the above (C) Snap (D) Counter sunk
64. The vibrations at node of shaft are— 75. For motor car cranks shafts …… steel is
widely used.
(A) Zero (B) Minimum
(A) Silicon (B) High speed
(C) Maximum (D) Unpredictable
(C) Chrome (D) Nickel
65. For ship, which of the following effects is
more dangerous ? 76. In a sleeve and cotter joint, the length of
cotter is taken as—
(A) Steering (B) Pitching
(A) 2 d (B) 3 d
(C) Rolling (D) Waving
(C) 4 d (D) 4·5 d
66. How many degree of freedom are there in a
vibrating beam ? 77. …… is a permanent fastening.
(A) Zero (B) One (A) Screw (B) Rivet
(C) Two (D) Three (C) Bolt (D) Key
67. The frequency of damped oscillations as com- 78. A hot short metal is brittle—
pared to frequency of undamped vibrations, (A) When hot
with viscous damping is— (B) When cold
(A) More (B) Less (C) Under all conditions
(C) Same (D) Zero (D) None of the above
54 | Mechanical

79. In cyclic loading, stress concentration is more 89. Residual stresses are present in …… shafts.
serious in— (A) Cast (B) Forged
(A) Brittle materials (C) Cold rolled (D) None of these
(B) Ductile materials 90. The piston rod, in a steam engine, is usually
(C) Both (A) and (B) connected to the cross head by …… joint.
(D) None of these (A) Cotter (B) Kunckle
80. What is the value of Wahl's factor for spring (C) Universal (D) None of these
index of 4 ? 91. Rankine's theory is used for …… materials.
(A) 1·2 (B) 1·4 (A) Plastic (B) Ductile
(C) 1·45 (D) 1·8 (C) Elastic (D) Brittle
81. Which type of key is used for mounting 92. If one of the rode of a turnbuckle has left
shifting gears in gear boxes ? hand threads, then the other rod will have
(A) Saddle key (B) Flat key …… threads.
(C) Square key (D) Splines (A) Left hand (B) Multiple
82. …… type of gear profile is free from (C) Right hand (D) Pointed
interference. 93. For a mirror polished material the surface
(A) Cycloidal (B) Hypocycloidal finish factor is—
(C) Epicycloidal (D) Involute (A) 0·35 (B) 0·55
83. While designing shaft and hub assembly (C) 0·75 (D) 1
…… is taken as the weakest component. 94. Guest's theory is used for …… materials.
(A) Key (B) Shaft (A) Ductile (B) Plastic
(C) Hub (D) None of these (C) Elastic (D) Brittle
95. A screw is specified by its …… diameter.
84. The rolling contact bearings are known as
…… bearings. (A) Minor (B) Major
(A) Sleeve (B) Plastic (C) Pitch (D) None of these
(C) Antifriction (D) None of these Answers
85. The diameter of the rivet hole is usually 1. (B) 2. (B) 3. (B) 4. (B) 5. (B)
…… the nominal diameter of the rivet.
6. (B) 7. (D) 8. (C) 9. (B) 10. (D)
(A) Equal to (B) Less than 11. (C) 12. (C) 13. (A) 14. (B) 15. (C)
(C) More than (D) None of these 16. (C) 17. (C) 18. (A) 19. (A) 20. (C)
86. The thickness of gib in a gib and cotter joint 21. (B) 22. (D) 23. (A) 24. (D) 25. (D)
is …… thickness of cotter. 26. (C) 27. (C) 28. (C) 29. (B) 30. (C)
(A) Equal to 31. (B) 32. (C) 33. (B) 34. (B) 35. (B)
(B) Less than 36. (A) 37. (B) 38. (B) 39. (C) 40. (C)
(C) More than 41. (D) 42. (A) 43. (A) 44. (B) 45. (D)
(D) None of these 46. (C) 47. (D) 48. (D) 49. (D) 50. (B)
51. (A) 52. (B) 53. (D) 54. (D) 55. (C)
87. The bearings of medium series have capacity 56. (A) 57. (D) 58. (C) 59. (B) 60. (A)
…… over the light series.
61. (B) 62. (B) 63. (B) 64. (A) 65. (B)
(A) 5 to 10% (B) 15 to 20%
66. (C) 67. (B) 68. (A) 69. (C) 70. (B)
(C) 30 to 40% (D) 45 to 55% 71. (B) 72. (C) 73. (A) 74. (C) 75. (C)
88. …… is the factor of safety for steel and for 76. (C) 77. (B) 78. (A) 79. (B) 80. (B)
steady load. 81. (D) 82. (A) 83. (A) 84. (C) 85. (C)
(A) 3 (B) 4 86. (A) 87. (C) 88. (B) 89. (C) 90. (A)
(C) 5 (D) 6 91. (D) 92. (C) 93. (D) 94. (A) 95. (B)
10 ENGINEERING MATERIALS

01. Babbit metal is …… base alloy. 10. Dies, drills and taps contain …… carbon.
(A) Tin (B) Copper (A) Below 0·4% (B) Below 0·8%
(C) Lead (D) Tungston (C) Above 1% (D) Above 2·5%
02. …… does not certain tin as an alloying 11. …… can be easily drawn into wire.
element. (A) Cast iron (B) Zinc
(A) Babbit metal (B) White metal (C) Tin (D) Copper
(C) Solder (D) All of the above
12. …… structure is obtained by austempering
03. In 18-4-1 HSS (high speed steel) the percen- process of heat treatment.
tage of chromium is— (A) Sorbite (B) Bainite
(A) 1% (B) 4% (C) Martensite (D) Troostite
(C) 18% (D) 20%
13. …… is better suited for lighter duty bearings.
04. …… is present in high percentage in magnet (A) Phosphor bronze
steel. (B) Plastics
(A) Aluminium (B) Tungsten (C) White metal
(C) Zinc (D) Copper (D) Monel metal
05. Hardness of cementite is of the order of …… 14. Corrundum contains more than 95%.
BHN.
(A) MgO (B) SiO 2
(A) 200 (B) 500
(C) Al2 O3 (D) Steel
(C) 1400 (D) 1100
15. What is the percentage of carbon present in
06. With which of the following polymerisation
cold rolled steel sheets ?
is associated ?
(A) 0·02% (B) 0·1%
(A) Copper
(C) 0·25% (D) 0·35%
(B) Zinc
(C) Thermoplastic plastics 16. …… is the binding material in cemented
(D) None of these carbides.
(A) Nickel (B) Cobalt
07. Under microscope, ferrite appears—
(C) Carbon (D) Vanadium
(A) White (B) Light
(C) Dark (D) None of these 17. Preheating is essential in welding—
(A) High speed steel
08. The pH value of neutral solution is— (B) Cast iron
(A) Equal to 7 (B) Less than 7 (C) All non-ferrous materials
(C) Greater than 7 (D) None of these (D) None of these
09. Foundry crucible is made of— 18. …… is not the neutral refractory material.
(A) Graphite (B) Lead (A) Ghraphite (B) Kaynite
(C) Cast iron (D) Mild steel (C) Chromite (D) Dolomite
56 | Mechanical

19. Pipes of bicycle frames are made of …... (B) Diamond

steel. (C) Organic polymers
(A) Cast (B) Hot rolled (D) Neoprene
(C) Carbon chrome (D) Dead mild 30. Ceramic cutting tools are made of—
20. …… Cast iron has the maximum tensile (A) Tungsten carbide
strength. (B) Silicon oxide
(A) White (B) Grey (C) Mixture of oxides of aluminium
(C) Nodular (D) Pig (D) None of these
21. As percentage of carbon increases in steel its 31. For the production of …… L.D. converter is
…… decreases. used.
(A) Corrosion resistance (A) Steel (B) Polythene
(B) Ultimate strength (C) Graphite (D) Cast iron
(C) Hardness
32. Ball bearings are generally made of—
(D) Ductility
(A) Carbon steel
22. The melting point is the lowest for— (B) Carbon chrome steel
(A) Low carbon steel (C) Stainless steel
(B) High carbon steel (D) Grey cast iron
(C) Cast iron
33. …… is the essential grasdient of any hardened
(D) Wrought iron steel.
23. …… structure has maximum hardness. (A) Carbon (B) Pearlite
(A) Troostile (B) Pearlite (C) Austenite (D) Martensite
(C) Martensite (D) Sorbite 34. Out of the following which is the amorphous
24. Austenite is a solid solution of carbon in …… material ?
iron. (A) Lead (B) Brass
(A) Alpha (B) Beta (C) Glass (D) Silver
(C) Gamma (D) Delta
35. …… structure in obtained if steel is quenched
25. …… process needs no quenching. in water.
(A) Case hardening (A) Sorbite (B) Pearlite
(B) Flame hardening (C) Troostite (D) Martensite
(C) Induction hardening
36. In metals the size of course grains is greater
(D) Nitriding than—
26. …… are usually made of mild steel. (A) 0·5 mm (B) 0·05 mm
(A) Fish plates (B) Angle irons (C) 0·005 mm (D) 0·0005 mm
(C) Die blocks (D) Shear blades
37. …… has high tendency to get work hardened.
27. …… is commonly used for making house- (A) Lead (B) Aluminium
hold utensils.
(A) Duralumin (B) Hindalium (C) Brass (D) Silver
(C) γ - alloy (D) Magnalium 38. …… structure can be studied by naked eye.
(A) Atomic (B) Grain
28. …… has reast co-efficient of expension.
(A) Manganin (B) Invar (C) Micro (D) Macro
(C) Constantan (D) Duralumin 39. Alloys of magnesium are—
29. …… will exhibit viscoelastic behavior. (A) Easy to machine (B) Magnetic
(A) Steel (C) Light (D) Prone to corrosion
 Mechanical | 57

40. High speed steel belongs to the category of 51. …… has maximum malleability.
…… steel. (A) Aluminium (B) Copper
(A) Alloy (B) Stainless (C) Lead (D) Wrought iron
(C) Low carbon (D) High carbon 52. Nickel is …… material.
41. In blast furnace …… is used as fuel. (A) Dielectric (B) Ferro-electric
(A) Producer gas (B) Coal (C) Ferro-magnetic (D) Dia-magnetic
(C) Coke (D) Diesel 53. What is the product of cupola called ?
42. …… is the hardest known material. (A) Wrought iron (B) Cast iron
(A) Cemented carbide (C) Mild steel (D) Pig iron
(B) Ceramic 54. With which of the following age-hardening is
(C) Diamond related ?
(D) Alloy steel (A) Cast -iron (B) Gun metal
(C) Duralumin (D) German silver
43. Babbit metal is a …… alloy.
55. Which of the following hardening processes
(A) Zinc base (B) Lead base is not generally used for steels ?
(C) Tin base (D) None of these (A) Nitriding (B) Cyaniding
44. …… is used for bearing liner. (C) Age hardening (D) None of these
(A) Brass (B) Bronze 56. Steel can be hardened quickly by …… pro-
(C) Gun metal (D) Babbit metal cess.
45. Under microscope pearlite appears as (A) Carburising
(B) Cyaniding
(A) White (B) Light
(C) Induction harduening
(C) Dark (D) Finger print
(D) None of these
46. …… test is a non-destructive test. 57. …… surface hardening process gives maxi-
(A) Impact (B) Charpy mum hardness to the surface.
(C) Radiography (D) Tensile (A) Pack hardening
47. By which of the following heat treatment (B) Nitriding
processes, a small selected portion of the job (C) Cyaniding
can be hardened ? (D) Induction hardening
(A) Nitriding 58. The chisel used for cutting steel sheets is
(B) Cyaniding usually—
(C) Pack hardening (A) Annealed
(D) Flame and induction hardening (B) Normalised
48. …… is obtained by isothermal hardening (C) Hardened
operation. (D) Hardened and tempered
(A) Cementite
59. The corrosion resistance property of stainless
(B) Sorbite steels is due to the presence of—
(C) Acicular troostite
(A) Manganese (B) Chromium
(D) Bainite
(C) Cobalt (D) Silicon
49. …… is the most important element which
controls the physical properties of steel. 60. The chisels are generally made of …… steel.
(A) Carbon (B) Chromium (A) High carbon (B) Mild
(C) Vanadium (D) Tungsten (C) Medium carbon (D) Dead mild
50. What is the range of Moh's scale ? 61. Slip gauges are generally made of—
(A) 1 to 4 (B) 1 to 10 (A) Alloy steel (B) Cast iron
(C) 1 to 14 (D) 1 to 16 (C) Bronze (D) None of these
58 | Mechanical

62. Gold is …… material. 72. Which of the following properties pertain to

(A) Ferro-electric (B) Ferro-magnetic cast iron ?
(C) Dia-magnetic (D) Para-magnetic (A) Resistance (B) Ductility
(C) Wear resistance (D) Toughness
63. Monel metal is an alloy of—
(A) Cu and Cr (B) Ni and Cu 73. To which of the following is the proof stress
(C) Ni and Cr (D) Cu, Ni and Cr related ?
(A) Elongation (B) Necking
64. …… has excellant resistance to acids.
(C) Yielding (D) Fracture
(A) Permalloy (B) Constantan
(C) Hastelloy (D) Monel metal 74. …… affect the fatigue strength least.
(A) Stress concentration
65. …… is not a ceramic material.
(B) Magnitude of mean stress
(A) Glass (B) Bakelite
(C) Temperature
(C) Clay (D) Aluminium oxide
(D) Frequency
66. …… material show direction dependent
75. Babbit metal is alloy of—
properties.
(A) Orthotropic (B) Isotropic (A) Cu and Zn (B) Sn and Cu
(C) Anisotropic (D) None of these (C) Sn, Cu and Sb (D) Sn, Cu, Sb and Pb

67. …… is a copper free alloy. Answers

(A) German silver (B) Muntz-metal
1. (A) 2. (B) 3. (C) 4. (B) 5. (C)
(C) White metal (D) Gun metal
6. (C) 7. (B) 8. (A) 9. (A) 10. (C)
68. Heating elements are generally made of— 11. (D) 12. (B) 13. (A) 14. (C) 15. (B)
(A) Invar (B) Perminvar 16. (B) 17. (B) 18. (D) 19. (C) 20. (C)
(C) White metal (D) Nichrome 21. (D) 22. (C) 23. (C) 24. (C) 25. (D)
69. …… is not a constituent of alnico steel. 26. (B) 27. (D) 28. (B) 29. (D) 30. (C)
(A) Cobalt (B) Copper 31. (A) 32. (B) 33. (D) 34. (C) 35. (D)
(C) Nickel (D) None of the above 36. (B) 37. (C) 38. (D) 39. (C) 40. (A)
70. …… steel is widely used for rails of a railway 41. (C) 42. (C) 43. (C) 44. (D) 45. (D)
track. 46. (C) 47. (D) 48. (C) 49. (A) 50. (B)
(A) Mild (B) High carbon 51. (C) 52. (C) 53. (B) 54. (C) 55. (C)
(C) Silicon (D) Nickel 56. (C) 57. (B) 58. (D) 59. (B) 60. (A)
71. …… iron is the magnetic allotrope of iron. 61. (A) 62. (C) 63. (B) 64. (C) 65. (B)
(A) α (B) β 66. (C) 67. (C) 68. (D) 69. (B) 70. (B)
(C) γ (D) δ 71. (A) 72. (C) 73. (A) 74. (D) 75. (D)
 PRODUCTION ENGINEERING
11 INDUSTRIAL ENGINEERING AND
MANAGEMENT
01. …… activities are the activities for which 09. …… itroduced therbligs.
total float is equal to zero. (A) Blanket (B) Gilbreath
(A) Dummy (B) Subcritical (C) Cooper (D) Adam
(C) Critical (D) Supercritical
10. In …… production acceptance sampling is
02. …… layout provides greater flexibility. widely used.
(A) Product (B) Process (A) Job (B) Batch
(C) Fixed position (D) Group
(C) Mass (D) All of the above
03. In a shop heavy jobs are lifted by means of—
11. In …… industry routing is essential.
(A) Fork lift (B) Conveyors
(A) Job order
(C) Hoists (D) Overhead crane
(B) Assembly
04. …… is a group incentive plan. (C) Mass production
(A) Stanlon plan (B) Bedaux plan (D) Process
(C) Rowan plan (D) None of the above
12. PERT has …… time estimate.
05. …… chart is not associated with work study. (A) One (B) Two
(A) Gnatt (C) Three (D) Four
(B) SINO
(C) Multiple activity 13. In which of the following cases, bar charts are
suitable ?
(D) None of these
(A) Large projects
06. One TMV (Time Measurement Unit) equals—
(B) Major works
(A) 0·0002 minute
(C) Minor works
(B) 0·0006 minute
(D) All of the above
(C) 0·0004 minute
(D) 0·0008 minute 14. Queing theory is associated with which of the
following ?
07. Large inventories are permitted in case of
…… items. (A) Production time
(A) Only C (B) Only B (B) Waiting time
(C) A and B (D) B and C (C) Scales
(D) Inspection time
08. …… plan is a bonus plan in which allowance
is determined in terms of time for each unit of 15. Which class of elements in ABC analysis are
output instead of money. generally large in number ?
(A) Rowan (B) Bedaux (A) A (B) B
(C) Group (D) Hour-for-hour (C) C (D) Unpredictable
60 | Mechanical

16. In which of the following are the specifi- (B) Availability

cations of work operations and their sequence (C) System effectiveness
described ?
(D) Maintainability
(A) Route card
24. …… is the internal during which of the
(B) Work order
system is not in an acceptable operation
(C) Job order condition.
(D) Operation chart (A) Maintainability
17. …… is the basic tool in work measurment. (B) Man-hours
(A) SIMO chart (B) Process chart (C) Administrative time
(C) Bar chart (D) Stop watch (D) Down time
18. For which of the following stop watch is not 25. …… is the probability that a failed system is
needed ? restored to operable condition in a specified
(A) R-chart down time.
(B) Micromotion study (A) System effectiveness
(C) SIMO chart (B) Maintainability
(D) None of these (C) Availability
(D) Man-hours
19. With which of the following is slack or slack
time associated ? 26. OC curves are used for the selection lots by—
(A) An event (A) Attributes
(B) An activity (B) Variables
(C) Both (A) and (B) (C) Variables and attributes
(D) None of the above (D) Random
20. The slack on various events at critical path on 27. In sampling plans, N indicates—
a PERT/CPM chart—
(A) Acceptance number
(A) Decreases continuously
(B) Rejection number
(B) Increases continuously
(C) Sample size
(C) Remains constant
(D) Lot size
(D) Unpredictable
28. X-rays are used in—
21. Availability is a function of—
(A) Ultrasonic testing
(A) System effectiveness
(B) Thermal methods
(B) Maintainability
(C) Magnetic testing
(C) Reliability
(D) Radiography
(D) Both (B) and (C)
29. Air gauge is a …… comparator.
22. System cost includes the total amount for—
(A) Electrical
(A) Service life support
(B) Electronics
(B) Development
(C) Pneumatic
(C) Production
(D) Mechanical
(D) All of the above
30. Size bar is used for measuring.
23. …… is a measure of the net worth, of value
of a system to the uses. (A) Height (B) Angle
(A) Performance capability (C) Length (D) Area
 Mechanical | 61

31. The concept of prevention and control comes (B) Taylor plan
under— (C) Halsey premium plan
(A) Managerial (D) Emerson efficiency plan
(B) Engineering
39. A worker, in the halsey system of wage
(C) Planning incentive plan, is—
(D) Statistical (A) Induced to do work
32. Material handling is more in case of …… (B) Ensured the minimum wages
inspection. (C) Paid as per efficiency
(A) Patrol (B) First piece (D) Never a loser
(C) Floor (D) Centralised
40. Who are rewarded more in the halsey 50-50
33. The basic objective of quality control in any plan ?
organisation is— (A) Past average workers
(A) To build up customer good will (B) Past poor workers
(B) To ensure control (C) Past good workers
(C) To achieve optimum cost (D) All of the above
(D) All of the above
41. In time study the basic unit of time measure-
34. In CPM the performance of a specific task is ment is—
known as— (A) 0·01 minute
(A) Activity (B) Event (B) 0·001 minute
(C) Contract (D) Dummy (C) 0·01 hour
35. Which of the following is not an important (D) 0·001 hour
parameter of purchasing ?
42. The chart which is prepared in advance and
(A) Right source shows sequence of parts to be processed is
(B) Right price known as …… chart.
(C) Right sale (A) Man machine (B) Curve
(D) Right quantity (C) Project layout (D) Load
36. Which of the following is not the advantage 43. …… developed the idea of functional organi-
of planning ? sation.
(A) Planning targets (A) Gantt
(B) Removing disorders (B) F.W. Taylor
(C) Fixing priorities (C) Frank Gilberth
(D) Relaxation priorities (D) None of these
37. The total cost in break even analysis consists 44. Which of the following is the basic tool of
of— work study ?
(A) Variable cost (A) Stop watch
(B) Fixed cost (B) Planning chart
(C) Fixed cost + variable cost (C) Process chart
(D) Fixed cost + overhead cost + profits (D) Graph paper
38. …… ensures a part of the saving to the 45. …… is the large scale production carried out
worker and rest to the employer. on special purpose machines.
(A) Piece rate system (A) Mass production
62 | Mechanical

(B) Batch production 53. Management and administration means the

(C) Continuous production same thing. This opinion was given by—
(D) Intermillent production (A) Henry Fayol (B) F.W. Taylor
(C) Halsey (D) Spriegal
46. Micromotion study involves ….. fundamental
hand motions. 54. Bar charts are suitable for—
(A) 12 (B) 16 (A) Large projects
(C) 20 (D) 24 (B) Major projects
47. Therblig in micromotion study, is described (C) Minor projects
by— (D) None of the above
(A) An event 55. Queuing theory is associated with—
(B) Colours only (A) Inventory (B) Waiting time
(C) Standard symbol and colour (C) Sales (D) Production
(D) Symbols.
56. …… plan is not wage incentive plan.
48. In work study, what does symbol imply ? (A) Halsey (B) Rowan
(A) Operation (C) Emerson (D) Taylor
(B) Transport 57. Which of the following is the main dis-
(C) Permanent storage advantage of line organisation ?
(D) None of these (A) Rigid structure
49. Human resource planning includes— (B) Delays in communication
(A) Raw material resources (C) Top level executives have to do exce-
ssive work
(B) Recruitment and selection
(D) All of the above
(C) Sales of the firm
(D) None of these 58. …… is used to find percent idle time for men
or machines.
50. …… authored the principles of “scientific (A) Work study
management”.
(B) Time study
(A) Elton Mays
(C) Method study
(B) Henry Fayol
(D) Work sampling
(C) F.W. Taylor
59. What does capital expenditure mean ?
(D) M.P. Follet
(A) Expenditure on property
51. Queuing theory is used for—
(B) Recurring expenditure
(A) Job shop scheduling
(C) Expenditure on procurement of fixed
(B) Inventory control assests
(C) Traffic congestion studies (D) None of these
(D) All of the above
60. …… is the times which results in least
52. …… was the first method invented for possible direct cost of an activity.
planning projects. (A) Standard time (B) Crash time
(A) CPM (C) Normal time (D) Slow time
(B) PERT 61. With which of the following is 'Queuing
(C) Bar chart theory' associated ?
(D) Milestone chart (A) Production time
 Mechanical | 63

(B) Inspection time 69. …… Does not pertain to inventory manage-

(C) Sales ment.
(D) Waiting time (A) Effective running of store
(B) Control of stock
62. With which of the following is simplex (C) Production schedule
method the basic method ?
(D) None of the above
(A) Model analysis
(B) Linear programming 70. The 'Employees Provident Fund Act' is appli-
cable to—
(C) Operating research
(A) All major industries
(D) Value analysis
(B) All industries
63. …… plan ensures a part of the saving to the (C) The industries notified by government
worker and rest to employer.
(D) None of the above
(A) Taylor
71. ABC analysis deals with which of the
(B) Gilberth
followng ?
(C) Emerson efficiency (A) Controlling inventory costs money
(D) Halsey premium (B) Flow of material
64. In …… the lines need to be balanced. (C) Ordering schedule of job
(A) Plant layout (D) None of the above
(B) Functional layout 72. Why is 'job enrichment technique' applied ?
(C) Process layout (A) To make people happy
(D) Product layout (B) To reduce labour monotony
(C) To overcome boring and demotivating
65. …… is the appellate authority for an in-
dustrial dispute. work
(D) All of the above
(A) President
73. …… organisation is the best suited for steel
(B) Labour court
plants.
(C) Management (A) Line
(D) High court/Supreme court (B) Staff
66. A Gantt chart provides information about— (C) Line, staff, and functional
(A) Production schedule (D) None of the above
(B) Material handling 74. In an automobile industry material handling is
done by—
(C) Both
(A) Belt conveyon
(D) None of these (B) Trolley
67. During …… process inspection is carried out. (C) Overhead crane
(A) Manufacture of the boltles (D) None of the above
(B) Surface grinding 75. What for MIS stand ?
(C) Surface hardening of mild steel plate (A) Management information service
(D) Thread cutting on a lathe machine (B) Management information system
(C) Military inspection scheme
68. Where is 'bin card' used— (D) None of the above
(A) In workshop
76. In …… production emergency rush order can
(B) In assembly shop be pushed more effectively.
(C) In administrative wing (A) Automatic (B) Job
(D) In stories (C) Intermittent (D) Continuous
64 | Mechanical

Answers
1. (C) 2. (B) 3. (D) 4. (A) 5. (A) 41. (B) 42. (C) 43. (B) 44. (A) 45. (A)
6. (B) 7. (A) 8. (D) 9. (B) 10. (C) 46. (B) 47. (C) 48. (B) 49. (B) 50. (C)
11. (B) 12. (C) 13. (C) 14. (B) 15. (C) 51. (C) 52. (D) 53. (A) 54. (C) 55. (B)
16. (B) 17. (D) 18. (A) 19. (A) 20. (C) 56. (D) 57. (D) 58. (D) 59. (C) 60. (D)
21. (D) 22. (D) 23. (C) 24. (D) 25. (B) 61. (D) 62. (B) 63. (D) 64. (D) 65. (D)
26. (A) 27. (D) 28. (D) 29. (D) 30. (B) 66. (A) 67. (C) 68. (D) 69. (C) 70. (C)
31. (D) 32. (D) 33. (D) 34. (A) 35. (C) 71. (A) 72. (D) 73. (C) 74. (C) 75. (B)
36. (D) 37. (C) 38. (C) 39. (B) 40. (B) 76. (C)
 Objective
Electrical Engineering
2 | Obj. Electrical

Model Set-1
11. The rate of movement of charge through any 10. In M.K.S. system one Horse Power is equal
conductor is known as— to—
(A) Voltage (B) Resistance (A) 746 watts (B) 735·5 watts
(C) Current (D) e.m.f. (C) 830 watts (D) 4180 watts
12. The force tending to move the electricity is 11. Three resistance of 1 ohm, 2 ohms, and 3
called— ohms respectively are connected in series
(A) Current across a battery of 6 volts in total resistance
(B) Resistance of the circuit will be—
(C) e.m.f. (A) 8 ohms (B) 6 ohms
(D) Potential difference (C) 4 ohms (D) 2 ohms
13. The ratio of voltage and current in a closed 12. Three resistances of 6 ohms each are
circuit remains— connected in parallel across 6 volts supply,
the total resistance of the circuit will be—
(A) Varies (B) Constant
(A) 18 ohms (B) 12 ohms
(C) Increases (D) Decreases
(C) 6 ohms (D) 2 ohms
14. The metre which measure current is known
as— 13. Two resistances of 4 ohms and 6 ohms are
connected in parallel across 12 volts supply,
(A) Voltmeter (B) Avometer
the total resistance of the circuit will be—
(C) Ohm-meter (D) Ammeter
(A) 10 ohms (B) 2·4 ohms
15. The metre which measure voltage is known (C) 4·2 ohms (D) 5/12 ohm
as—
14. Three resistance of values 8 ohms, 12 ohms
(A) Avometer (B) Ampere-meter
and 24 ohms are connected in parallel across
(C) Voltmeter (D) Multimeter 12 volts supply, the total resistance of the
16. The unit of force in M.K.S. system is— circuit will be—
(A) Joules (B) Newton (A) 1/4 ohm (B) 44 ohms
(C) K. gm (D) Newton-meter (C) 4 ohms (D) 24 ohms
17. The unit of work in M.K.S. system is— 15. When a high resistance is connected in
(A) Watt-sec (B) Kilo gram parallel with a low resistance, the combined
resistance is—
(C) Kilo-watt (D) Kilo watt hour
(A) Higher than the low resistance
18. The unit of electrical energy is— (B) Lower than the higher resistance
(A) Watt (B) Kilo-watt (C) Between the value of high and low
(C) Kilo-watt-hour (D) Joule resistance
19. Horse power is the unit of— (D) Less than the lower resistance
(A) Electrical energy 16. Electric battery is a device that—
(B) Work (A) Generates e.m.f. by chemical action
(C) Power (B) Converts mechanical energy into electri-
(D) Force cal energy
 Obj. Electrical | 3

(C) Converts heat energy into electrical (B) When magnetisation force is kept same
energy (C) When magnetisation force is removed
(D) Converts sound energy into electrical (D) When magnetisation force is reduced
energy
27. A permanent magnet retains its magnetism—
17. In a primary battery— (A) When the magnetisation force is removed
(A) Chemical action is reversible (B) When the magnetisation force is not
(B) Chemical action is irreversible removed
(C) No chemical take place (C) When the magnetisation force is kept
(D) Chemical action take place constant
(D) When the magnetisation force is reduced
18. Which one of the following is a primary cell ?
(A) Lead-Acid cell (B) Daniel cell 28. Poles of magnet—
(C) Alkaline cell (D) Lechlanche cell (A) Can be separated
(B) Can not be separated
19. In a secondary battery— (C) Can be use separately
(A) Chemical action is reversible (D) Can be separated by breaking it into
(B) Chemical action is irreversible pieces
(C) No chemical action takes place 29. An electromagnet can be made by—
(D) Chemical action takes place (A) Single touch method
20. Which one of the following is a secondary (B) Double touch method
cell ? (C) Divided touch method
(A) Daniel cell (B) Lead Acid cell (D) Passing current through solenoid
(C) Dry cell (D) Alkaline cell
30. The strength of electromagnet can be increa-
21. Static electricity is produced by— sed by—
(A) Chemical reaction (A) Increasing the length of conductor
(B) Friction (B) Decreasing the length of conductor
(C) Induction
(C) Increasing the number of turns
(D) Friction and induction (D) Decreasing the number of turns
22. The sure test of electrification is—
31. A current is said to be alternating when—
(A) Induction (B) Friction
(A) Magnitude of current changes with time
(C) Repulsion (D) Attraction
(B) Magnitude and direction of current
23. The space surrounding a charge body within changes with time
the influence of its charge extends is called— (C) Magnitude of current remains constant
(A) Coulombs through out the period
(B) Electric field (D) The direction of current changes with
(C) Electric intensity time
(D) Lines of force 32. A current is said to be direct current when—
24. One coulombs of electricity is equal to— (A) Direction of current changes with time
(A) 3 × 108 e.s.u. (B) 3 × 109 e.s.u. (B) Magnitude of current changes with time
(C) 4·8 × 10 e.s.u. (D) 8 × 1011 e.s.u.
–8 (C) Magnitude and direction of current
changes with time
25. One e.s.u. of potential is equal to— (D) Magnitude remains constant with time
(A) 3 × 102 volts (B) 3 × 103 volts
33. Normal frequency adopted for a.c. generation
(C) 1/3000 volts (D) 1/3 × 103 volts in our country is—
26. A temporary magnet loses its magnetism— (A) 60 HZ (B) 25 HZ
(A) When magnetisation force is not removed (C) 50 HZ (D) 30 HZ
4 | Obj. Electrical

34. The frequency of the machine depends upon— (C) I1 – I2

(A) Pair of poles (D) Vector sum of I1 and I2
(B) Angular velocity 42. The total current of the parallel circuit can be
(C) Rating of the machine determined by—
(D) Nature of supply (A) Kirchoff's Law
35. The angle between voltage and current is (B) Super imposed Theorem
called— (C) Admittance Method
(A) Power factor (B) Form factor (D) Suspectance Method
(C) Peak factor (D) Phase difference 43. The conductance (G) of a branch can be
36. The power factor of a purely resistive circuit determined by—
is— I R
(A) Zero (B) Lagging (A) (B)
R Z
(C) Leading (D) Unity Z2 R
(C) (D) 2
37. The power factor of a purely inductive circuit R Z
is— 44. The suspectance (b) of a branch can be
(A) Zero (B) Leading determined by—
(C) Lagging (D) Unity 1 X
(A) (B)
38. The power factor of a purely capacitive X Z2
circuit is— X XC
(C) 2L (D)
(A) Lagging (B) Zero Z Z2
(C) Leading (D) Unity 45. Power factor of a branch as compared to total
39. The power factor of a R-L-C circuit of which power factor will be—
XL > XC is— (A) Same (B) Different
(A) Lagging (B) Leading (C) Lower (D) None of the above
(C) Zero (D) Unity 46. In case of two phase supply the electrical
displacement of the winding is—
40. In a circuit three meters are connected as
shown in Figure the real power can be (A) 180° (B) 120°
obtained by— (C) 90° (D) 60°
47. In case of three phase supply, the electrical
displacement of the winding is—
(A) 180° (B) 120°
(C) 90° (D) 60°
48. With the increase of phase, the rating of
machine for the same out put of single phase
(A) Wattmeter reading only motor of same size—
(B) The product of Voltmeter and Ammeter (A) Increase (B) Decrease
(C) Dividing Wattmeter reading by Ammeter (C) Remains same (D) None of the above
reading
49. The efficiency of 3-phase transmission as
(D) Dividing Wattmeter reading by Volt-
compared to single phase transmission is—
meter reading
(A) Higher (B) Lower
41. I1 and I2 are the currents in two branches of (C) Same (D) None of the above
the parallel circuit. The total current will be—
50. Polyphase motors are—
(A) I1 + I2
(A) Not self-starting
(B) √
⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
I1 2 + I 2 2 (B) Selfestarting
 Obj. Electrical | 5

(C) Require auxiliary winding 61. Moving iron instruments are—

(D) Does not require auxiliary winding (A) Attraction type
51. The metre used for measuring electrical quan- (B) Repulsion type
tities are called— (C) Attraction and repulsion type
(A) Tachometer (D) Dynamometer
(B) Micrometer 62. Moving coil instruments are—
(C) Measuring instruments
(A) Permanent magnet type
(D) Spherometer
(B) Dynamometer type
52. The metre used for electrical power is called—
(C) Induction type
(A) KWh meter (B) Voltmeter
(D) Permanent magnet and dynamometer
(C) Ammeter (D) Wattmeter
type
53. The metre used for measuring potential diffe-
63. Moving iron instruments can be used on—
rence of a circuit is called—
(A) Voltmeter (B) Ammeter (A) a.c. and d.c.
(C) Energy meter (D) Ohm meter (B) a.c. only
(C) d.c. only
54. The metre used for measuring current of an
electrical circuit is called— (D) Half wave rectified a.c.
(A) Voltmeter (B) Ammeter 64. Moving Coil (M.C.) permanent magnet instru-
(C) Potential meter (D) Multimeter ments can be used on—
(A) A.C. and D.C.
55. The metre used for measuring electrical
energy of a consumer is called— (B) A.C. only
(A) Wattmeter (B) Ampere hourmeter (C) D.C. only
(C) KWh meter (D) Avometer (D) Half wave rectified A.C.

56. The essential requirement of measuring 65. The scale of moving iron (MI) instrument is—
instrument is— (A) Uniform
(A) Deflecting torque (B) Cramped
(B) Controlling torque (C) First uniform then confusted
(C) Damping torque (D) None of the above
(D) All of the above three
66. The cost of M.I. instrument as compared to
57. The deflecting torque can be produced by— M.C. instrument is—
(A) Gravity control (B) Spring control (A) High (B) Low
(C) Air friction (D) Magnetically (C) Same (D) Very high
58. The controlling torque can be produced— 67. The accuracy of M.C. instruments as com-
(A) Electrostatically pared to M.I. instruments is—
(B) Thermally (A) High
(C) By using hair spring (B) Low
(D) By fluid friction
(C) Same
59. The damping torque can be produced by— (D) Reasonable accurate
(A) Eddy currents (B) Gravity control
68. M.C. instrument is—
(C) Electrostatically (D) Thermally
(A) Robust
60. Electrostatic effect for producing deflecting
torque is used in— (B) Accurate
(A) Ammeters (B) Voltmeters (C) Consumes less power
(C) Wattmeters (D) Energymeters (D) Posses all of the above three advantages
6 | Obj. Electrical

69. The consumption of M.I. instrument as com- (C) Current coil

pared to M.C. instrument is— (D) None of the above
(A) Same (B) More
78. Which of the following type of damping is
(C) Less (D) Very small most commonly employed in the dynamo-
70. For increasing the range of an ammeter meter type wattmeter ?
connect— (A) Fluid friction
(A) A high value resistance in series with the (B) Eddy current
ammeter (C) Air friction
(B) A high value resistance in parallel with (D) Air and fluid friction both
the ammeter coil
79. A wattmeter can be used—
(C) A low value resistance in parallel with
the ammeter coil (A) Only for one rating current
(D) A low value resistance in series with the (B) For different rating current without any
ammeter coil charge
(C) Different rating current with change of
71. The metre used for measuring power of the connection without multiplier
circuit is called—
(D) With different currents with change of
(A) KWh meter (B) Wattmeter connections and multiplier
(C) Multimeter (D) Voltmeter
80. Wattmeters are available for different rating
72. The metre used for measuring electrical of—
energy is called— (A) Currents
(A) KWh meter (B) Wattmeter (B) Voltages
(C) Multimeter (D) Ammeter (C) Current and voltage both
73. Most commonly used wattmeter is— (D) Current and voltage with the use of
(A) Induction type (B) Electrostatic type multiplier
(C) Dynamometer (D) Moving iron type 81. Megger is used for measuring—
74. The dynamometer type wattmeter is used on— (A) Low resistance
(A) a.c. only (B) High resistance
(B) d.c. only (C) Medium resistance
(C) a.c. and d.c. both (D) Very low resistance
(D) Full wave rectified a.c. 82. Megger can be used of testing—
75. Which of the following advantages, the (A) Open circuit
dynamometer wattmeter has ? (B) Short circuit
(A) Uniform scale (C) Open and short circuit both
(B) Can work on a.c. and d.c. both (D) High resistance circuit only
(C) High accuracy 83. Megger is a combination of—
(D) All of the above three (A) Motor and generator
76. At low power factor the dynamometer (B) Generator and ammeter
wattmeter will cause— (C) Generator and voltmeter
(A) No error (B) Serious error (D) Generator and ohmmeter
(C) Minute error (D) None of the above
84. Speed of the megger is kept at—
77. In dynamometer type of wattmeter, which of (A) 100 r.p.m.
the coil is split up into two parts— (B) 120 r.p.m.
(A) Pressure coil (C) 140 r.p.m.
(B) Pressure coil and current coil both (D) 160 r.p.m.
 Obj. Electrical | 7

85. The megger voltage for testing 250 V insta- 93. The meter of multimeter will work on—
llation should be— (A) d.c. supply
(A) 250 V (B) 300 V (B) a.c. supply
(C) 500 V (D) 1000 V (C) a.c. and d.c. both
(D) Half wave rectified a.c.
86. The megger voltage for testing 500 V insta-
llation should be— 94. An operating voltage of a particular multi-
(A) 1000 V (B) 500 V meter is—
(C) 300 V (D) 100 V (A) 230 V, a.c. (B) 230 V, d.c.
(C) 9 V, d.c. (D) 9 V, a.c.
87. Which of the megger is better for testing
installation ? 95. Higher value of resistance can be measured
(A) Battery operated by keeping the selector switch position on—
(B) Generator operated (A) R × 1 (B) R × 10
(C) Integrated circuit operated (C) R × 100 (D) R × 1000
(D) Motor operated 96. The leads of a multimeter are connected for
a.c. voltage. If a resistance to be measured. It
88. The insulation resistance of a installation
will require—
between conductor to conductor should not be
less than— (A) Change of one lead to another Jacket
(A) 50 Mega-ohms/no. outlets (B) Change of both the leads to other Jacket
(B) 50 Mega-ohms/no. outlets (C) One lead is kept common and the other
lead is change to another Jacket
(C) 25 Mega-ohms/no. outlets
(D) No change in leads
(D) 30 Mega-ohms/no. outlets
89. As per I.E. Rules the insulation resistance bet- ANSWERS
ween conductor and Earth should not be less 1. (C) 2. (C) 3. (B) 4. (D) 5. (C)
than— 6. (B) 7. (A) 8. (C) 9. (C) 10. (B)
(A) 100 Mega-ohms/no. of outlets 11. (B) 12. (D) 13. (B) 14. (C) 15. (D)
(B) 80 Mega-ohms/no. of outlets
16. (A) 17. (B) 18. (B) 19. (A) 20. (D)
(C) 50 Mega-ohms/no. of outlets
21. (B) 22. (C) 23. (B) 24. (B) 25. (A)
(D) 30 Mega-ohms/no. of outlets
26. (C) 27. (C) 28. (B) 29. (B) 30. (A)
90. On testing and electric iron on megger, the
31. (B) 32. (D) 33. (C) 34. (A) 35. (A)
reading of the megger in infinity. This
indicates— 36. (D) 37. (A) 38. (A) 39. (A) 40. (A)
(A) Short circuit of heating element 41. (D) 42. (C) 43. (D) 44. (B) 45. (B)
(B) Short circuit of supply terminal 46. (C) 47. (B) 48. (A) 49. (A) 50. (B)
(C) Loose terminal connection 51. (C) 52. (D) 53. (A) 54. (B) 55. (C)
(D) Open circuit of the heating element 56. (D) 57. (D) 58. (C) 59. (A) 60. (B)
91. Multimeter can measure— 61. (C) 62. (D) 63. (A) 64. (B) 65. (C)
(A) Current (B) Voltage 66. (D) 67. (D) 68. (C) 69. (A) 70. (B)
(C) Resistance (D) All of the above 71. (B) 72. (A) 73. (C) 74. (C) 75. (D)
92. Multimeter can be used for measuring— 76. (B) 77. (B) 78. (C) 79. (D) 80. (D)
(A) Alternating current quantities 81. (B) 82. (C) 83. (D) 84. (D) 85. (C)
(B) D.C. quantities 86. (A) 87. (B) 88. (A) 89. (C) 90. (D)
(C) A.C. and D.C. quantities both 91. (D) 92. (C) 93. (A) 94. (C) 95. (D)
(D) Pulsating D.C. quantities 96. (C)
8 | Obj. Electrical

Model Set-2
11. In case of two phase supply the electrical 18. The copper losses in 3-phase transmission as
displacement of the winding is— compared to S/ phase transmission for the
(A) 180° (B) 120° same power is—
(C) 90° (D) 60° (A) Same (B) Higher
12. In case of three phase supply the electrical (C) Lower (D) None of the above
displacement of the winding is— 19. For the generation of 3-phase 4 wire supply
(A) 180° (B) 120° number of windings used on the armature
(C) 90° (D) 60° are—
(A) 1 (B) 3
13. With the increase of phases, the rating of
machine for the same output of single phase (C) 2 (D) 4
motor of same size— 10. The power factor of S/ phase motor as com-
(A) Increases pared to 3φ (Phase) motor is—
(B) Decreases (A) Higher (B) Lower
(C) Remains same (C) Same (D) Fluctuates
(D) None of the above 11. The meter used for measuring electrical
14. The efficiency of 3 phase transmission as quantities are called—
compared to single phase transmission is— (A) Tachometer
(A) Higher (B) Lower (B) Micrometer
(C) Same (D) None of the above (C) Measuring instruments
(D) Spherometer
15. Polyphase motors are—
12. The measure used for electrical power is
(A) Not self-starting called—
(B) Self-starting (A) KWh power (B) Voltmeter
(C) Require auxiliary winding (C) Ammeter (D) Wattmeter
(D) Does not require auxiliary winding 13. The metre used for measuring potential diffe-
16. Phase sequence of three phase supply can be rence of circuit is called—
determined by— (A) Voltmeter (B) Ammeter
(A) Ammeters (C) Energy meter (D) Ohm meter
(B) Voltmeter 14. The metre used for measuring current of an
(C) Phase sequence indicator electrical circuit is called—
(D) Frequency meter (A) Voltmeter (B) Ammeter
17. Synchronising (Parallel operation) of three (C) Potentiometer (D) Multi meter
phase alternator as compared to single phase 15. The metre used for measuring electrical
alternator is— energy of a consumer is called—
(A) Easier (A) Wattmeter
(B) Difficult (B) Ampere hour meter
(C) Same in both the cases (C) KWh meter
(D) Require same auxiliary arrangement (D) Avometer
 Obj. Electrical | 9

16. The essential requirement of measuring 24. The direction of current in the coil can be
instrument is— found out by—
(A) Deflecting torque (A) Fleming's Left Hand Rule
(B) Spring control (B) Fleming's Right Hand Rule
(C) Air friction (C) Cork Screw Rule
(D) Magnetically (D) Right Hand Thumb Rule
17. The deflecting torque can be produced by— 25. The different types of self-excited Generator
(A) Gravity control are—
(B) Spring control (A) Series Generator
(C) Air friction (B) Shunt Generator
(D) Magnetically (C) Compound Generator
18. The controlling torque can be produced by— (D) All the above three
(A) Electrostatically 26. In a separately excited Generator, field
(B) Thermality winding is excited by—
(C) By using hair spring (A) Its own current
(D) By fluid friction (B) External source of alternating current
(C) External source of direct current
19. Electrostatic effect for producing deflecting
torque is used in— (D) a.c. and d.c. both
(A) Ammeters (B) Voltmeters 27. The field of self-excited Generator is excited
(C) Wattmeters (D) Energy meters by—
(A) D.C. (B) A.C.
20. The damping torque can be produced by—
(C) Its own current (D) A.C. and D.C. both
(A) Eddy currents (B) Gravity control
(C) Electrostatically (D) Thermally 28. The Yoke of Generator is made of cast iron
because—
21. A d.c. Generator— (A) It is cheaper
(A) Generates electrical energy (B) It completes the magnetic path
(B) Converts electrical energy into mechani- (C) All of the above three
cal energy
29. Poles are made of laminated steel instead of
(C) Converts mechanical energy into electri- wood because it has—
cal energy
(A) low permanently
(D) Converts chemical energy into electrical
energy (B) High permanently
(C) Reduces the copper losses
22. The e.m.f. generated in a d.c. Generator is—
(D) Reduces the friction losses
(A) Dynamically induced e.m.f.
(B) Statically induced e.m.f. 30. Armatures are made of laminated steel instead
(C) Electrostatically induced e.m.f. of wood because it has—
(D) Magnetically induced e.m.f. (A) Low permeability
(B) High permeability
23. The D.C. Generator works on the principle
(C) More mechanical strength
of—
(D) More mechanical strength and high
(A) Faraday's Laws of electro magnetic
permeability both
induction
(B) Lenz's law 31. Motor converts—
(C) When current carrying conductor placed (A) Mechanical energy into electrical energy
in the magnetic field, an e.m.f. is (B) Electrical energy into mechanical energy
produced (C) Chemical energy into electrical energy
(D) Induction (D) Kinetic energy into mechanical energy
10 | Obj. Electrical

32. If the direction of field and direction of current 39. The motor will draw high current at the time
in the conductor is known, the direction of of starting because—
motion can be found out by— (A) E b > V (B) E b < V
(A) Fleming's right hand rule (C) E b = 0 (D) E b = V
(B) Fleming's left hand rule
40. The magnitude of Eb depends upon—
(C) Cork screw rule
(A) Eb = V – IaRΔ (B) Eb = V + IaRa
(D) Lenz's rule
(C) Eb = V – IaRa (D) Eb = Vb – IaRsh
33. In series motor, the number of turns at the
field pole is— 41. Transformer is a—
(A) More than shunt field (A) Rotating device
(B) Less than shunt field (B) Static device
(C) Less than armature (C) Electrostatic device
(D) Same as in shunt field (D) Magnetic device
34. The resistance of shunt winding is— 42. Transformer works on—
(A) More series winding (A) A.C.
(B) More than armature (B) D.C.
(C) Less than series and armature (C) A.C. and D.C. both
(D) More than series and armature (D) Pulsating D.C.
35. Motor is called cumulative compound when— 43. Transformer works on the principle of—
(A) Series field flux has an additive effect (A) Self induction
with shunt field flux (B) Mutual induction
(B) Series field flux opposes the shunt field (C) Faraday's law of electro magnetic
flux induction
(C) Polarities of series and shunt polers are (D) Self and mutual induction both
same
44. Transformer is device which transforms the
(D) It has an additive effect and the polarity voltage—
of poles are same
(A) From higher level to lower level
36. The construction of D.C. motor is— (B) From lower level to higher level
(A) Similar as of D.C. generator (C) All of the above two
(B) Different than D.C. generator (D) To the same level
(C) Similar but different in frame con- 45. If D.C. supply is given to a transformer, It
struction will—
(D) Similar in construction and similar in (A) Work
frame construction (B) Not work
37. The magnitude of the back e.m.f. depends (C) Give lower voltage than the rated voltage
upon— on secondary side
(A) Flux per pole (D) Burn the winding
(B) Speed of motor 46. Different type of transformer are—
(C) Number of parallel paths in the armature (A) Core type
(D) All of the above three (B) Shell type
38. The back e.m.f. of the motor— (C) Berry type
(A) Opposes the applied voltage (D) All of the above three
(B) Has no effect on the applied voltage 47. Rating of transformer is given in—
(C) Favorous the applied voltage (A) KVA (B) KVAR
(D) None of the above three (C) KW (D) Watts
 Obj. Electrical | 11

48. If a higher voltage is given to the primary and 56. The generator which gives d.c. supply to the
low voltage is taken from the secondary of rotor is called—
transformer, it is called— (A) Converter (B) Exciter
(A) Step up (C) Invertor (D) Rectifier
(B) Step down
57. The different type rotor of an alternator are—
(C) Current transformer
(A) Salient pole type
(D) Voltage stabilizer
(B) Cylindrical type
49. If a lower voltage is given to the primary and (C) Both salient pole and cylindrical type
higher voltage is taken from the secondary of (D) Non-salient type
a transformer, it is called—
(A) Step up 58. Salient pole type rotors are generally used
with prime moves of—
(B) Step down
(A) High speed
(C) Current transformer
(B) Low speed
(D) Stabilizer
(C) medium speed
50. If the input voltage is 100 V and output (D) Low and medium speed
voltage is 200 V, which side of the trans-
former windings will be primary— 59. Cylindrical type rotors are generally used
(A) 200 V Side with prime movers of—
(B) 100 V Side (A) High speed
(C) Winding with more turns (B) Low speed
(D) Winding with less turns (C) Medium speed
(D) Low and high speed
51. Alternator generates—
(A) D.C. 60. The frequency of e.m.f. generated depends
upon—
(B) A.C.
(A) Speed of the alternator
(C) D.C. and A.C. both
(B) Number of Polers of the alternator
(D) Pulsating D.C.
(C) Type of alternator
52. Alternator works on the principle of— (D) (A) and (B) both
(A) Mutual induction
61. In a 93 inductions motor, the current is
(B) Faraday's laws of electro magnetic
produced in the rotor conductors by—
induction
(C) Self-induction (A) Giving A.C. supply
(D) Self and mutual induction (B) Giving D.C. supply
(C) Induction effect
53. The rotor of the alternator requires—
(A) D.C. (B) A.C. (D) Pulsating D.C. supply
(C) Pulsating D.C. (D) None of the above 62. When 3φ supply is given to the stator of the
54. In a larger size of alternator, flux is kept— motor, a—
(A) Stationary (A) Revolving field is set up
(B) Rotating (B) Pulsating field is set up
(C) Flux and conductors both stationary (C) Revolving field at synchronous speed is
(D) Flux and conductors both rotating set up
(D) Revolving field at the rotor speed’s set up
55. The rotor of the alternator has—
(A) Four slip rings 63. The direction of roting (d.o.r.) of revolving
(B) Three slip rings field can be changed by interchanging—
(C) Two slip rings (A) R and Y phase only
(D) No slip ring (B) B and Y phase only
12 | Obj. Electrical
(C) R and B phase only
(D) Any two phase
64. If any two phase of the supply are inter-
changed motor will—
(A) Run in the same direction
(B) Stop running
(C) Run in the reverse direction
(D) Draw high current
65. Different type of 3φ induction motors are—
(A) Squirrel cage
(B) Slipring
(C) Communator type
(D) All of the above three
66. The rotor of 3φ induction motor rotates in the
same direction as of the direction of revolving
field because—
(A) Faraday's laws of electro magnetic
induction
(B) Lenz's law
(C) Fleming's right hand rule
(D) Fleming's left hand rule
67. The rotor of 3φ induction motor always runs
at—
(A) Synchronous speed
(B) Less than synchronous speed
(C) More than synchronous speed
(D) None of the above
68. The synchronous speed of the revolving field
depends of the revolving field depends upon—
(A) Number of poles
(B) Supply of frequency
(C) Flux
(D) (A) + (B) both
69. In a 93 squirrel cage induction. motor the—
(A) Rotor conductor are kept open
(B) Rotor conductors are circuited with end
rings
(C) Ends of the motor conductors are con-
nected to sliprings
(D) Ends of the rotor conductors are short
circuited through sliprings
70. In a 3φ sliprings induction motor, the number
of poles in the rotor winding are kept—
(A) Same as of the number of stator poles
(B) More than the number of stator poles
(C) Less than the number of stator poles
(D) Independent of the stator poles
71. A single phase motor is—
(A) Self-starting
(B) Not self-starting
(C) Self-starting with the help of auxiliary
winding
(D) Self-starting with the help of capacitor in
series
72. A split phase single induction motor—
(A) Has 2 stator winding connected in series
across the supply
(B) Has 2 windings main and starting of the
same value of resistance and reactance
connected across the supply
(C) Has the main winding of low resistance
and high resistance and high reactance
and starting winding of high resistance
and low reactance
(D) Has main winding and starting winding
both of high reactance and low resistance
73. In case of split phase induction motor—
(A) Main winding is connected through
centrifugal switch
(B) Starting winding is connected through
centrifugal switch
(C) Both the winding are connected through
centrifugal switch
(D) None of the winding is connected
through switch
74. The starting torque of a 1φ motor can be
improved by connecting a capacitor—
(A) Across the supply terminals
(B) In series with the main windings
(C) In series with the starting winding
(D) With both the windings in series
75. If the capacitor of a single phase motor is
short circuited, the motor will—
(A) Start
(B) Not start
(C) Starting with Jerks
(D) Starting and then stop

76. The starting torque of capacitor start motor
will be directly proportional to the angle
which it makes between starting current and
running current—
(A) Sin a (B) Tan a
(C) Cos a/2 (D) Cos a
77. The capacitor motor is generally run motor,
the type of capacitor used is—
(A) It has higher full load efficiency
(B) It has high starting torque
(C) It has low running torque
(D) All of the above three
78. In a capacitor start capacitor run motor, the
type of capacitor used is—
(A) Air capacitor
(B) Paper capacitor
(C) Dry type A.C. electrolytic capacitor
(D) Paper spaced oil filled type
79. The capacity of the capacitor connected in
series with the starting winding of a ceiling
fan is—
(A) 32 μF (B) 16 μF
(C) 4 μF (D) μF
80. The D.O.R. of 1φ capacitor motor can be
reserved by interchanging connection of—
(A) Main winding and starting winding
(B) Starting winding only
(C) Main winding only
(D) Any one of the starting or main winding
81. The synchronous motor runs at—
(A) Less than synchronous
(B) Synchronous speed
(C) More than synchronous
(D) None of the above
82. The construction of synchronous motor is
similar to—
(A) d.c. compound motor
(B) Slipring induction motor
(C) d.c. shunt generator
(D) Alternator
83. The synchronous motor runs on—
(A) A.C. 3-phase supply
(B) A.C. 3-phase and D.C. supply
(C) D.C. supply only
(D) A.C. 3-phase and single supply both
Obj. Electrical | 13
84. Synchronous motor always runs at—
(A) Unity power factor
(B) Lagging power factor
(C) Leading power factor
(D) Any power factor
85. If a synchronous motor is switched on to 3-
phase supply with its rotor winding short
circuited, it will—
(A) Start
(B) Not start
(C) Start and continue to run as induction
motor
(D) Start and continue to run as synchronous
motor
86. The magnitude of the e.m.f. induced in the
starter due to revolving flux will depend upon
the—
(A) Speed of the motor
(B) D.C. excitation current
(C) Load on the motor
(D) Speed and rotor flux
87. Under no load running condition the angle
between induced voltage and supply voltage
will be—
(A) 180°
(B) 90°
(C) Between 90° and 180°
(D) Zero
88. Under running condition on load, the angle
between induced voltage and supply voltage
will be—
(A) Zero
(B) 180°
(C) Between 90° and 180°
(D) Zero
89. Net stator voltage of synchronous motor is—
(A) Vector difference of E b and V
(B) Vector sum of Eb and V
(C) Arithmatic difference to Eb and V
(D) Arithmatic sum of Eb and V
90. The angle between the rotor poles and stator
poles is called—
(A) Power factor angle
(B) Synchronous angle
14 | Obj. Electrical

(C) Torque angle (C) M.S.C.P./M.H.C.P.

(D) Angle of retardation (D) M.H.S.C.P./M.H.C.P.
91. The velocity of light is— 99. The efficiency of lamp is measured in—
(A) 3 × 108 m/sec (B) 3 × 108 cm/sec (A) Lux/watt
(C) 3 × 109 m/sec (D) 30 × 108 m/sec (B) Lumns/watt
92. The wave length is generally measured in— (C) Candle power watt
(A) Armstrong (B) Angstrom (D) Foot candle power/watt
(C) Steradians (D) Meters/sec 100. Number of steradians in sphere of radius ‘r’
93. The human eye is more sensitive to light will be—
which has a wave length of— (A) π steradians (B) 4π steradians
(A) 3900 A° (B) 7800 A° (C) 2π steradians (D) 6π steradians
(C) 5500 A° (D) 3000 A°
ANSWERS
94. The solid angle is measured in—
1. (C) 2. (B) 3. (A) 4. (A) 5. (B)
(A) Radians (B) Steradians
6. (C) 7. (A) 8. (C) 9. (B) 10. (B)
(C) Degrees (D) Polar radian
11. (C) 12. (D) 13. (A) 14. (B) 15. (C)
95. Visible light has a wave length between— 16. (D) 17. (B) 18. (C) 19. (B) 20. (A)
(A) 3900 A° to 7800 A° 21. (C) 22. (A) 23. (A) 24. (B) 25. (D)
(B) 7800 A° to 9800 A° 26. (C) 27. (C) 28. (D) 29. (B) 30. (D)
(C) 9800 A° to 11000 A° 31. (B) 32. (B) 33. (C) 34. (D) 35. (D)
(D) 11000 A° to 13800 A° 36. (C) 37. (D) 38. (A) 39. (C) 40. (C)
96. One foot angular is equal to— 41. (B) 42. (A) 43. (D) 44. (C) 45. (D)
(A) 0·0923 lux (B) 5·7608 lux 46. (D) 47. (A) 48. (B) 49. (A) 50. (B)
(C) 10·7608 lux (D) 15·7608 lux 51. (B) 52. (A) 53. (D) 54. (D) 55. (D)
97. In M.K.S. system, the unit of illumination 56. (D) 57. (A) 58. (B) 59. (A) 60. (B)
is— 61. (C) 62. (C) 63. (D) 64. (C) 65. (D)
(A) Foot candle power 66. (B) 67. (B) 68. (D) 69. (B) 70. (A)
(B) Lux 71. (C) 72. (C) 73. (B) 74. (C) 75. (B)
(C) Lumns 76. (A) 77. (D) 78. (D) 79. (D) 80. (D)
(D) Candle power 81. (B) 82. (D) 83. (B) 84. (D) 85. (C)
98. Reduction factor is the ratio of— 86. (B) 87. (D) 88. (D) 89. (A) 90. (C)
(A) M.H.S.C.P./M.S.C.H. 91. (A) 92. (B) 93. (C) 94. (B) 95. (A)
(B) M.S.C.P./M.H.C.S.P. 96. (C) 97. (B) 98. (C) 99. (B) 100. (B)
 Obj. Electrical | 15

Model Set-3
11. The efficiency of an incandescent lamp is— 19. Choke is used in series with the sodium
(A) 30 lumens/watt (B) 12 lumens/watt vapour lamp for—
(C) 20 lumens/watt (D) 40 lumens/watt (A) Reducing the voltage
12. The sodium vapour lamp gives full brilli- (B) Stepping up the voltage
ancy— (C) Stabilising the discharge
(A) Immediately (D) Improving the power factor
(B) After 3 to 5 minutes 10. The sodium vapour lamp installed in street
(C) After 10 to 15 minutes lighting in our country operate on—
(D) After 30 minutes (A) 440 V, 3φ supply
(B) 400 V, 1φ supply
13. The efficiency of sodium vapour lamp is—
(A) 100 lumens/watt (B) 80 lumens/watt (C) 230 V, 1φ supply
(C) 40 lumens/watt (D) 20 lumens/watt (D) 110 V, 1φ supply
11. Efficiency of gas filled lamp as compared to
14. After interruption of supply, the sodium
vacuum lamp is—
discharge lamp will start—
(A) Same (B) Double
(A) Immediately
(C) Three times (D) Four times
(B) After 3 to 5 minutes
(C) After 10 to 15 minutes 12. A good illumination will be, when the light
(D) After 15 to 20 minutes is—
(A) More
15. The average life of sodium vapour lamp is—
(B) Dim
(A) 3000 hours
(C) Uniform and adequate
(B) 4000 hours
(C) 5000 hours (D) Diffused
(D) 10,000 hours 13. The illumination level required for a living
room is—
16. Sodium vapour lamp can be operated in—
(A) Any position (A) 200 lux (B) 50 to 60 lux
(B) A horizontal position (C) 6 to 10 lux (D) 100 lux
(C) Vertical position 14. The uniform distribution of light depends
(D) An inclined position upon—
(A) Space height ratio
17. Mercury vapour lamp can be operated in— (B) Type of the lamps used
(A) Any position (C) Type of reflectors used
(B) Horizontal position (D) Mounting height of the source
(C) Vertical position 15. The illumination in a room depends upon—
(D) An inclined position (A) Colour of the walls
18. The average life of mercury vapour lamp is— (B) Colour of the ceiling
(A) 500 hours (B) 1000 hours (C) Colour of walls and ceiling both
(C) 2000 hours (D) 3000 hours (D) Type of reflector used
16 | Obj. Electrical
16. Shadows can be avoided—
(A) By using small luminaries
(B) By using globes
(C) By using indirect lighting system
(D) All of the above
17. For designing the lighting scheme, which
factor should be taken into account—
(A) Area to be illuminated
(B) Depreciation factor
(C) Utilisation factor
(D) All of the above
18. Which method is generally employed for
lighting calculations ?
(A) Watts/sq. metre method
(B) Lumens or light flux method
(C) Point to point method
(D) Square law method
19. Shadows are caused by—
(A) Mounting lamps at low level
(B) Mounting lamps at high level
(C) Using lamps of low wattage
(D) Using more number of lamps
20. Shadows give—
(A) Relief to human eye
(B) Fatigue to human eye
(C) Soothing effect to human eye
(D) Pleasing effect to human eye
21. In a resistance heating furnace, heat is gene-
rated by—
(A) Passing current through charge or by
passing current through a high resistive
element
(B) Passing current through the charge only
(C) Passing current through a highly resistive
element
(D) Having an arc between two electrodes
22. Electric heating is considered better as com-
pared to ordinary core furnace—
(A) It is more efficient
(B) It gives uniform heating
(C) Easy to control temperature
(D) All of the above
23. The efficiency of the electric furnace lies
between—
(A) 75 to 100% (B) 65 to 75%
(C) 50 to 65% (D) 40 to 50%
24. Electric furnace requires—
(A) More maintenance
(B) Less maintenance
(C) No maintenance
(D) Sophisticate maintenance
25. Types of electric resistance furnaces are—
(A) Direct resistance heating furnace
(B) Indirect resistance heating furnace
(C) Direct and indirect resistance heating
furnace
(D) Induction heating furnace
26. In a direct resistance heating furnace the
electrodes are kept—
(A) In contact with the charge
(B) Placed at a small distance from the
charge
(C) Immersed in the charge
(D) Placed at a great distance from the charge
27. The direct resistance heating furnace works
with—
(A) A.C., 1φ supply (B) D.C. supply
(C) 3φ supply (D) All of the above
28. In a 3φ direct resistance heating furnace,
number of electrodes required will be—
(A) 4 (B) 3
(C) 2 (D) 1
29. In a direct resistance heating furnace, a high
resistance material is sprinkled over the sur-
face for—
(A) Avoiding short circuit
(B) Having better continuity
(C) Passing more current
(D) Controlling current
30. In an indirect resistance heating furnace, heat
is generated—
(A) By passing current through the charge
(B) By maintaining arc between charge and
electrode
(C) By placing high resistance heating
element below and above the charge
(D) None of the above
 Obj. Electrical | 17

31. In an induction heating, heat is generated by— (C) Medium frequency

(A) Passing current through the charge (D) Supply frequency
(B) The currents induced in the material 39. Coreless furnace requires—
itself (A) Rollers for stirring the molten metal
(C) Maintaining an arc between charge and (B) External jerks to the outer frame for
electrode stirring the molten metal
(D) Using heating element (C) No external force for stirring the molten
32. The different type of induction furnaces are— metal
(A) Core type (D) None of the above
(B) Coreless type 40. Eddy currents produced in the coreless fur-
(C) Core and coreless type both nace are proportional to—
(D) Direct core type (A) Supply voltage
33. In a core type furnace, the secondary winding (B) Flux density square
has— (C) Frequency square
(A) More number of turns (D) Both (B) and (C)
(B) Less number of turns 41. In an electric arc heating heat is produced
(C) No turns by—
(D) All of the above (A) Striking the electrode with the charge
34. Because of high leakage reactance, the (B) Producing an arc due to ionisation of air
induction furnace works on— gap at high voltage
(A) Leading power factor (C) Passing current through the charge
(B) Lagging power factor (D) Producing an arc due to ionisation of air
(C) Unity power factor gap at low voltage
(D) Lagging and leading both 42. Different type of arc furnace are—
35. In an induction furnace, electromagnetic (A) Direct arc furnace
forces produces— (B) Submerged arc furnace
(A) Great turbulence of molten metal (C) Indirect arc furnace
(B) Less turbulence of molten metal (D) All the above three
(C) No turbulence of molten metal 43. Most common size of direct arc furnaces are—
(D) All of the above (A) 30 to 50 ton (B) 20 to 30 ton
36. For minimising the leakage reactance and (C) 10 to 20 ton (D) 5 to 10 ton
turbulence effect, the furnace must operate— 44. Direct arc furnace can work on—
(A) At high frequency (A) 1φ, a.c. supply
(B) At supply frequency (B) 3φ, a.c. supply
(C) At low frequency (C) 1φ and 3φ a.c. supply both
(D) None of the above (D) d.c. supply only
37. In a coreless induction furnace— 45. For measuring temperature of electric fur-
(A) Laminated steel cores are used naces, the instrument used is—
(B) Solid iron is used as a core (A) Thermometer (B) Pyrometer
(C) No iron core is used (C) Lactometer (D) Fachometer
(D) Both (A) and (B) can be used
46. Which type of electrodes used in electric arc
38. Coreless induction furnaces are operated on— furnace ?
(A) Low frequency (A) Copper (B) Alluminium
(B) High frequency (C) Carbon (D) Iron
18 | Obj. Electrical

47. The heating chamber in an arc furnace is 54. The voltage required for resistance welding
designed spherical to— is—
(A) Reduce refractory lining (A) Very high (B) Medium
(B) Produce uniform heating (C) Low (D) Extra high
(C) Increase efficiency 55. Resistance welding can be used for—
(D) Reduce power consumption (A) Repairing of heavy jobs
(B) Repairing of light jobs
48. The reactors are used in electrical circuit of
arc furnace is to— (C) Repairing of heavy and light jobs both
(A) Limit the starting current (D) None of the above
(B) Control the temperature 56. For welding of sheets which type of welding
is recommended—
(C) Reduce input power
(A) Butt-welding (B) Seam welding
(D) Improve power factor
(C) Spot-welding (D) Projection welding
49. In a electric arc furnace, stirring in the molten
57. For welding lamp filaments with supporting
metal is caused due to—
wires, which welding machine is required—
(A) High voltage (A) Butt-welding (B) Seam welding
(B) Electro magnetic forces caused by flow (C) Spot-welding (D) Flash welding
of current through the charge
58. The spot welding machine can be used for
(C) Low frequency
welding sheets of thickness—
(D) Eddy current (A) 25 mm to 1·27 mm
50. Direct arc furnace is mostly employed (B) 2·5 mm to 12·7 mm
because— (C) 0·25 mm to 1·27 mm
(A) It gives uniform heating (D) 0·025 mm to 0·127 mm
(B) High temperature can be obtained
59. Types of welding used for attaching nuts and
(C) Both (A) and (B) bolts with the sheets is—
(D) They are cheap (A) Projection welding
51. In a resistance welding, the welding of two (B) Flash welding
pieces is possible— (C) Spot welding
(A) With application of external pressure (D) Butt welding
(B) Without application of external pressure 60. In seam welding, the speed of wheels is
(C) With and without application of external generally kept—
pressure (A) 20 metres/min
(D) None of the above (B) 10 metres/min
52. External pressure is required for— (C) 5 to 10 metres/min
(D) 2 to 10 metres/min
(A) Arc welding
(B) Spot welding 61. In an arc welding, arc is produced between
electrode and the job by passing current
(C) Hydrogen welding through an air gap at—
(D) Atomic arc welding (A) Low voltage (B) Medium voltage
53. Which supply is required for resistance (C) High voltage (D) Extra high voltage
welding ? 62. In an arc welding, filler material is—
(A) 3φ, a.c. supply (A) Essential
(B) 1φ, a.c. supply (B) Not essential
(C) 3φ and 1φ a.c. supply (C) Sometimes essential
(D) d.c. supply (D) Not at all required
 Obj. Electrical | 19

63. Different types of arc welding are—
(A) Carbon arc welding
(B) Metallic arc welding
(C) Carbon and metallic arc welding both
(D) Indirect arc welding
64. In a carbon arc welding, the electrode is
keep—
(A) Positive potential
(B) Negative potential
(C) Positive or negative potential
(D) None of the above
65. In a carbon arc welding, the supply used is—
(A) a.c. 1φ supply
(B) d.c. supply
(C) a.c., d.c. supply both
(D) 3φ, a.c. supply
66. For welding non-ferrous metals by carbon arc
welding flux is used for—
(A) Raising temperature
(B) Melting at low temperature
(C) Preventing oxidation
(D) Removing impurities in metal
67. In carbon arc welding, the electrodes is kept
at negative potential for—
(A) Preventing the carbon particles to go to
the weld
(B) Making the weld brittle
(C) Marking the weld soft
(D) Maintaining arc
68. In metallic arc welding, the supply voltage
may be—
(A) d.c. supply
(B) a.c., 1φ supply
(C) a.c. and d.c. supply both
(D) 3φ, a.c. supply
69. In metallic arc welding, the electrode used
will be—
(A) Bare electrodes
(B) Coated electrodes
(C) Copper electrode
(D) None of the above
70. The advantage of using coated electrode in
metallic arc welding is that—
(A) It prevents the weld for oxidation
(B) It helps in maintaining arc
(C) It prevents the weld from sudden cooling
(D) All of the above
71. Electroplating works on the principle of—
(A) Faraday's laws of electro magnetic
induction
(B) Faraday's laws of electrolysis
(C) Law of conservation of energy
(D) Law of conservation of chemical energy
72. The electrode at positive potential is called—
(A) Cathode (B) Anode
(C) Electrode (D) Positive terminal
73. The electrode at negative potential is called—
(A) Cathode (B) Anode
(C) Electrode (D) Negative terminal
74. The amount of metal deposited on cathode
depends upon—
(A) Current
(B) Time
(C) Electric chemical equivalent
(D) All of the above
75. The supply required for electroplating is—
(A) 1φ, a.c.
(B) d.c.
(C) 3φ, a.c.
(D) 1φ, a.c. and d.c. both
76. Chemical equivalent weight is the ratio of—
(A) Valency/atomic weight
(B) Velency/electro chemical equivalent
weight
(C) Atomic weight/valency
(D) Electro chemical equivalent weight/
velency
77. Current efficiency is the ratio of—
(A) Actual quantity of substance liberated/
theoretical quantity
(B) Theoretical quantity/actual quantity of
substance liberated
(C) Actual quantity liberated/actual energy
required
(D) Actual energy required/actual quantity
liberated
78. Energy efficiency is the ratio of—
(A) Actual energy required/theoretical energy
required
20 | Obj. Electrical

(B) Theoretical energy required/actual energy (C) Deposit of oxide

required (D) All of the above
(C) Theoretical energy required/theoretical 86. For removing oxide and scale from the
quantity of substance liberated surface of the job, the job is given—
(D) Theoretical quantity of substance libera- (A) Alkaline bath (B) Acidic bath
ted/theoretical energy required (C) Pickling bath (D) All of the above
79. Electroplating protects— 87. For removing dirt and grease from the surface
(A) Direct at the surface of metal of the job, the job is given—
(B) Corrosion at the surface of metal (A) Alkaline bath (B) Acidic bath
(C) Oxidation at the surface of metal (C) Pickling bath (D) All of the above
(D) All of the above
88. For electroplating, the electrolyte is prepared
80. Electroplating is used for— from—
(A) Replacing worn out material (A) Salt of the metal to be deposited
(B) Giving shining appearance to the surface (B) Different salt of metal to be deposited
(C) Giving reflecting property to reflector (C) Two or three salts of the same category
(D) All of the above of metal to be deposited
(D) Both (B) and (C)
81. Before starting electroplating which operation
is necessary— 89. The speed of the buffing machine used for
(A) Cleaning (B) Polishing electroplating should—
(C) Buffing (D) All of the above (A) Low (B) Medium
(C) High (D) None of the above
82. Which operation is necessary for electro-
plating a job ?
ANSWERS
(A) Cleaning
(B) Deposition of metal 1. (B) 2. (C) 3. (C) 4. (B) 5. (A)
(C) Polishing and buffing 6. (B) 7. (C) 8. (D) 9. (C) 10. (C)
(D) All of the above 11. (B) 12. (C) 13. (B) 14. (A) 15. (C)
16. (D) 17. (D) 18. (B) 19. (A) 20. (B)
83. Cleaning of a job is essential because—
21. (A) 22. (D) 23. (A) 24. (B) 25. (C)
(A) It gives bright appearance 26. (B) 27. (D) 28. (B) 29. (B) 30. (C)
(B) The deposit of metal will adhere to the 31. (B) 32. (C) 33. (C) 34. (B) 35. (A)
base metal firmly
36. (C) 37. (C) 38. (B) 39. (A) 40. (D)
(C) Giving reflecting property
41. (B) 42. (D) 43. (D) 44. (C) 45. (B)
(D) It gives shiny look
46. (C) 47. (A) 48. (B) 49. (B) 50. (C)
84. Cleaning operation protects the job from— 51. (C) 52. (B) 53. (B) 54. (C) 55. (D)
(A) Corrosion 56. (B) 57. (C) 58. (C) 59. (A) 60. (D)
(B) Oxidation 61. (C) 62. (A) 63. (C) 64. (B) 65. (B)
(C) Pecling off the metal deposit 66. (C) 67. (A) 68. (C) 69. (B) 70. (D)
(D) All of the above 71. (B) 72. (B) 73. (A) 74. (D) 75. (B)
85. The most common contaminants are— 76. (C) 77. (A) 78. (B) 79. (B) 80. (D)
(A) Grease sticking to the surface 81. (A) 82. (D) 83. (B) 84. (C) 85. (D)
(B) Dirt 86. (B) 87. (A) 88. (A) 89. (C)
 Obj. Electrical | 21

Model Set-4
11. The domestic refrigerator works on the princi- 18. In the modern domestic refrigerator, the
ple of— expansion value is replaced by—
(A) Vapour absorption refrigeration system (A) Suction pipe (B) Capillary tube
(B) Vapour compression refrigeration system (C) Discharge pipe (D) Accumulator
(C) Thero electric refrigeration system 19. The condenser of domestic refrigerator is
(D) liquid gas refrigeration system fitted—
12. The refrigerant used in the domestic refrigera- (A) Below the evaporator
tor is— (B) On the back of the refrigerator
(A) Amonia (B) Freon (C) Near the compressor
(C) Fluorine (D) Methyl chloride (D) On the top of the refrigerator
13. The refrigerant used for domestic refrigerator 10. The liquid refrigerant which enters the evapo-
must be— rator is at—
(A) Non-corrosive (A) Low pressure
(B) Non-toxic and odour less (B) Low temperature
(C) Of high working pressure (C) Low pressure and temperature both
(D) All of the above (D) High pressure and temperature both
14. The refrigeration is used for— 11. Motor gets hot on running because of—
(A) Comfort (A) Poor relay contacts
(B) Food preservation (B) Low voltage
(C) Cold storage and ice factories (C) Open circuit in starting winding
(D) All of the above (D) Thermostat contact open
15. The compressor of the refrigerator— 12. Motor runs slow because of—
(A) Bearing worn-out
(A) Sucks the refrigeration from the evapo-
rator (B) Insulation failure
(B) Deliver the compressed refrigerant to the (C) Motor over loaded
condenser (D) Defective thermostat
(C) Both (A) and (B) 13. Motor keeps on running but cooling is in-
(D) Regulates the quantity of refrigerant sufficient—
(A) Wrong setting of thermostat
16. The function of the expansion valve as— (B) Defective thermostat
(A) To control the pressure (C) Less refrigerant gas
(B) To control the temperature (D) No refrigerant gas in the system
(C) To regulate the flow of refrigerant 14. Motor gives humming noise and does not
(D) All of the above start due to—
17. The coldest part in the domestic refrigerator (A) Defect in motor
is— (B) Defective relay contacts
(A) Condenser (B) Evaporator (C) Low voltage
(C) Receiver (D) Compressor (D) Any one of the three
22 | Obj. Electrical

15. Too much frosting around the freezer is due 23. Which of the following properties, the air-
to— conditioner has ?
(A) Defective door seal (A) It can control the humidity of air
(B) Frequent opening of door (B) It can maintain proper temperature
(C) Storing of hot food stuff (C) It can keep down concentration carbon-
(D) Low voltage dioxide and smoke with low limits
16. Normal cooling in freezer, but not in all the (D) All of the above
portion is due to— 24. Working cycles of air conditioner is measured
(A) Defective door gasket in—
(B) Frequent opening of door (A) Domestic refrigerator
(C) Both (A) and (B) (B) Water cooler
(D) Less refrigerant in the system (C) Both (A) and (B)
17. The compressor gives noisy operation due (D) None of the above
to— 25. The capacity of airconditioner is measured
(A) No refrigerant in the system in—
(B) Loose mounting volts (A) Litres (B) Cu. metres
(C) Choking in the suction pipe (C) Cu. cm (D) Tons
(D) Defective door seal 26. In an airconditioner, the condenser fan and
18. Motor goes on running, even the temperature blower fan are driven—
is very low inside the refrigerator is due to— (A) By same motor (B) By different motor
(A) High voltage (C) By same shaft (D) None of the above
(B) Low voltage 27. The refrigerant used in the airconditioner is—
(C) Defective thermostat
(A) Ammonia (B) Freon
(D) Defective relay
(C) Carbon dioxide (D) Methyl chloride
19. Motor gets hot on running due to—
28. The different types of airconditioner are—
(A) Worn-out bearing
(A) Central type
(B) Low voltage
(B) Unitary type
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(C) Central and unitary type both
(D) Defective relay
(D) None of the above
20. Bulb of the refrigerator does not work due
to— 29. The centrifugal blower fitted in an air condi-
tioner sucks air—
(A) Defective thermostat
(A) From the room which is to be cooled
(B) Defective door switch
(B) From the atmosphere
(C) Low voltage
(C) From the inner body of the cooler
(D) Defective gasket
(D) Given by the fan near the condenser
21. The artificial atmosphere of particular requi-
rements can be obtained from— 30. What is the percentage of fresh air mixed with
(A) Ceiling fan (B) Desert cooler air sucked by the centrifugal blower for
recirculation of air ?
(C) Airconditioner (D) Exhaust fan
(A) 10% (B) 25%
22. The airconditioner gives— (C) 50% (D) 75%
(A) Cool air
(B) Hot air 31. The capacity of water cooler is measured in—
(C) Cold and hot air both (A) Tons (B) Litres
(D) Damped air (C) Cu. m. (D) Cu. ft.
 Obj. Electrical | 23

32. The different type of water cooler are— (C) Less φ refrigerant
(A) Instantaneous type (D) None of these
(B) Storage type 41. Domestic electrical installation have—
(C) Bottle type (A) 1φ load (B) 2φ load
(D) All of the above (C) 3φ load (D) All of the above
33. Instantaneous type water cooler is used 42. In a lighting sub-circuit the maximum current
where— allowed is—
(A) Water supply available round the clock (A) 15A (B) 10A
(B) Water supply available frequent intervals (C) 10A (D) 5A
(C) Both (A) and (B)
43. In a power sub-circuit the maximum current
(D) By having a separate storage tank allowed is—
34. In a storage type water cooler, the evaporate (A) 30A (B) 15A
coil is kept— (C) 10A (D) 5A
(A) In the storage tank
44. Maximum number of points in a lighting sub-
(B) Around the storage circuit allowed by I.E. rules is—
(C) Below the storage tank (A) 14 (B) 12
(D) By having a separate storage tank (C) 10 (D) 8
35. The storage type water cooler has— 45. Maximum number of points in a power sub-
(A) Centrifugal blower pump circuit allowed by I.E. rules is—
(B) Blower pump (A) 8 (B) 6
(C) Exhaustfan (C) 4 (D) 2
(D) None of the above 46. The size of wire used for lighting sub-circuit
36. The cost of storage water cooler as compared is—
to instantaneous water cooler of the same (A) 1/2 mm.2 (B) 1/2 mm.2
capacity is— (C) 1/1·5 mm.2 (D) 1/12 mm.2
(A) Same (B) High 47. The size of wire used for power sub-circuit in
(C) Lower (D) Very low copper conductor is—
(A) 3/22 S.W.G.
37. The fan motor used for heat transfer from the
condenser coil is of— (B) 7/22 S.W.G.
(A) Double speed (B) Single speed (C) 3/20 S.W.G.
(D) 7/20 S.W.G.
(C) Three speed (D) Four speed
48. The size of wire used for power sub-circuit—
38. The refrigerant used in a water cooler—
(A) 1/5 mm.2 (B) 1/2·5 mm.2
(A) Carbon dioxide (B) Methyl chloride 2
(C) 1/2 mm. (D) 1/1·5 mm.2
(C) Freon (D) Ammonia
49. Most commonly type of wiring used in
39. Time taken for cooling water in a storage type domestic installation is—
water cooler as compared to instantaneous (A) Cleat wiring
type water cooler is—
(B) P.V.C. batter wiring
(A) Less (B) More (C) Concealed conduit wiring
(C) Same (D) Nearly same (D) Both (B) and (C)
40. Motor of the water cooler starts at short inter- 50. The lighting load generally sanctioned for a
vals, otherwise cooling is good because of— residential house is—
(A) Less quantity of water in the tank (A) 0·25 KW (B) 0·5 KW
(B) More quantity of water in the tank (C) 1·0 KW (D) 1·5 KW
24 | Obj. Electrical

51. The metre which measure resistance is known 61. One kilo watt hour is equal to—
as— (A) 4180 Kilo cal. (B) 820 K. cal.
(A) Ammeter (B) Multimeter (C) 860 K. cal. (D) 4200 K. cal.
(C) Voltmeter (D) Ohm-meter
62. In M.K.S. system one kilo watt is equal to—
52. The unit of measuring resistance is— (A) 1·36 H.P. (B) 1·34 H.P.
(A) Ohm (B) Volt (C) 1·5 H.P. (D) 1·66 H.P.
(C) Ampere (D) Millivolt 63. One Board of Trade unit is equal to—
53. For long transmission lines, voltage is mea- (A) 36 × 106 Joules
sured in— (B) 36 × 105 Joules
(A) Volts (B) Micro-volts (C) 3·6 × 105 Joules
(C) Kilo-volts (D) Milli-volts (D) 36 × 107 Joules
54. With the increase in length of conductor, the 64. One kilo calories is equal to—
value of resistance—
(A) 4200 Joules (B) 4180 Joules
(A) Decreases (B) Increases
(C) 4·18 Joules (D) 4·18 × 102 Joules
(C) Remains same (D) Becomes zero
65. A current of 5 Amp. flows through a con-
55. With the increase in cross sectional area of ductor against a potential difference of 200
the conductor, the value of resistance— volts. The power dissipated will be—
(A) Increases (B) Remains same (A) 1000 watts (B) 1·.1 kilo-watts
(C) Decreases (D) Becomes zero (C) 2000 watts (D) 100 watts
56. Specific resistance of a conductor depends 66. A 100 volts is applied to a circuit of resistance
upon— of 10 ohms, the power dissipated by the resis-
(A) Composition of the conductor tance will be—
(B) Length of conductor (A) 100 watts (B) 500 watts
(C) Area of cross-section of the conductor (C) 1000 watts (D) 1500 watts
(D) Resistance of the conductor 67. Power taken by a resistance of 20 ohms with
57. With the increases in temperature, the resis- a flow of 10 amp. current is—
tance of copper— (A) 1 KW (B) 1·5 KW
(A) Decreases (B) Increases (C) 2·5 KW (D) 2 KW
(C) Become zero (D) Remains constant 68. Energy consumed by a heater of rating 1000
58. With the increase of temperature, the resis- watts by operating it for a period of 2 hours
tance of carbon— will be—
(A) Increases (A) 1 unit (B) 2 units
(B) Become zero (C) 2·5 units (D) 4 units
(C) Remains constant 69. Energy consumed by an electric iron of rating
(D) Decreases 1000 watts as compared to 750 watts will be—
(A) More (B) Less
59. Which of the following insulator is most
effected by heat ? (C) Half (D) Same
(A) P.V.C. (B) Mica 70. Between 200 watts 860 watts lamp of the
(C) Paper (D) Leatheriod same voltage rating, the resistance of 200
watts lamp will be—
60. With the increase of temperature, the insula- (A) Higher
ting power of insulator— (B) Same
(A) Loses (B) Gains (C) Varies with the nature of supply
(C) Remains same (D) Lower
 Obj. Electrical | 25

71. Two lamps of rating 60 w, 100 v and 100 w, (B) With two parallel pairs in series
100 v are connected in series across 200 volts (C) All in parallel
supply. The current drawn by both the lamps
(D) One pair with other two in series
will be—
(A) Different 76. Two heaters of rating 1KW, 250 v are
(B) Same connected in series across 250 volts supply,
(C) High current by 100 w lamp the power taken by the heaters will be—
(D) High current by 60 w lamp (A) 1 KW (B) 1/w KW
(C) 1/2 KW (D) 1 KW
72. Two lamps of rating 100 w, 250 v and 60 w,
250 v are available. The resistance of the 77. The combined resistance of the circuit shown
lamp will be— in Fig. will be—
(A) Same for both the lamps
(B) Resistance of 100 w will be more than
60 w
(C) Resistance of 100 w will be less than
100 w
(D) Less than the sum of their resistance
73. Fair circuits of identical values of resistance (A) 10 ohms (B) 18 ohms
are connected as shown in figure. Which (C) 4 ohms (D) 12 ohms
circuit will draw the least current ?
78. The combined resistance of the circuit shown
(A) in Fig. will be—

(B)

(C)

(D) (A) 36·2/12 ohms (B) 12 ohms

(C) 12 ohms (D) 5 ohms
79. The combined resistance of the circuit shown
74. Three resistance of values 0 ohms, 12 ohms in Fig.—
and 24 ohms are connected in parallel across
100 volts supply. The value of potential
difference across each resistance will be—
(A) Same
(B) Different
(C) Less than 100 volts
(D) More than 100 volts
75. Four heaters of rating 1 KW 250 v each
available. How you will connect them for
maximum heat— (A) 16 ohms (B) 1/7 ohms
(A) All in series (C) 7 ohms (D) 7/12 ohms
26 | Obj. Electrical

80. A 100 w, 100 v lamps is to be operated on 90. The watt-hour efficiency is always—
250 v supply, the value of additional resis- (A) More than hour efficiency
tance to be connected in series will be—
(B) Equal to ampere hour efficiency
(A) 250 ohms (B) 100 ohms
(C) Less than ampere-hour efficiency
(C) 150 ohms (D) 50 ohms
91. The electrolyte used in Edision cell is—
81. Which cell is known as strong cell ? (A) Sulphuric Acid
(A) Primary cell (B) Dry cell (B) Potassium Hydroxide
(C) Lechlanche cell (D) Secondary cell (C) Nickle Hydrate
82. Active elements in Lead-Acid battery is— (D) Nitric Acid
(A) Sulphuric Acid 92. Internal resistance per cell of Lead Acid cell
(B) Caustic Potash is always—
(C) Magnese Dioxide (A) Less than Edison cell
(D) Nitric Acid (B) More than Edison cell
(C) Equal to Edison cell
83. Electrolyte used in Lead Acid battery is—
(A) Sulphuric Acid 93. Average e.m.f. per cell of lead Acid cell is—
(B) Caustic Potash (A) 1·2 v (B) 1·08 v
(C) Magnese Dioxide (C) 1·5 v (D) 2·2 v
(D) Nitric Acid 94. During charging of a battery Specific gravity
of electrolyte—
84. Specific gravity of a battery is expressed in—
(A) Decreases (B) Increases
(A) Ampere hour (B) Ampere-volt
(C) Does not change
(C) Percentage (D) Volts
85. The capacity of a battery is expressed in— ANSWERS
(A) Ampere-hour (B) Ampere-volts 1. (B) 2. (B) 3. (D) 4. (D) 5. (C)
(C) Percentage (D) Volts 6. (D) 7. (B) 8. (B) 9. (B) 10. (C)
86. Capacity of battery depends upon— 11. (B) 12. (C) 13. (C) 14. (D) 15. (C)
(A) Rate of discharge 16. (C) 17. (B) 18. (C) 19. (C) 20. (B)
(B) It is dependent 21. (C) 22. (C) 23. (D) 24. (C) 25. (D)
(C) Ampere hour 26. (B) 27. (B) 28. (C) 29. (C) 30. (B)
(D) Temperature 31. (B) 32. (D) 33. (A) 34. (B) 35. (D)
36. (B) 37. (B) 38. (C) 39. (B) 40. (C)
87. The e.m.f. of a dry cell is—
41. (A) 42. (D) 43. (B) 44. (C) 45. (D)
(A) 1·08 volts (B) 2·0 volts
46. (C) 47. (B) 48. (B) 49. (D) 50. (A)
(C) 1·2 volts (D) 1·5 volts
51. (D) 52. (A) 53. (C) 54. (B) 55. (C)
88. Active elements of Alkaline battery are— 56. (A) 57. (B) 58. (D) 59. (A) 60. (A)
(A) Lead peroxide and sponge lead 61. (C) 62. (A) 63. (B) 64. (B) 65. (A)
(B) Nickle-hydrate and iron oxide 66. (C) 67. (D) 68. (B) 69. (A) 70. (D)
(C) Magnese-dioxide and carbon 71. (B) 72. (C) 73. (D) 74. (A) 75. (C)
89. During discharge of a battery— 76. (C) 77. (A) 78. (D) 79. (C) 80. (C)
(A) The voltage of cell decreases 81. (D) 82. (B) 83. (A) 84. (B) 85. (A)
(B) The voltage of cell increases 86. (A) 87. (D) 88. (B) 89. (A) 90. (C)
(C) Voltage does not charge 91. (B) 92. (A) 93. (D) 94. (B)
 Obj. Electrical | 27

Model Set-5
11. One coulombs is equal to— 18. Paper condenser is a type of—
(A) 6 × 102 electrons (A) Variable condenser
(B) 6 × 1010 electrons (B) Electrolytic condenser
(C) 6 × 105 electrons (C) Fixed condenser
(D) 6 × 108 electrons (D) None of the above
12. The force between two charges of 2 19. Mica or coramic condenser is a type of—
coulomb's each. If placed at a distance of 2 (A) Fixed condenser
metres apart in air will be— (B) Variable condenser
(A) 9 × 1012 newton (B) 9 × 1015 newton (C) Electrolytic condenser
(C) 9 × 109 newton (D) 9 × 106 newton (D) None of the above
13. The force between two charge 4 and 8 10. With the rise of temperature, dielectric
coulomb's which are placed at a distance of strength of material—
2√
⎯ 2 metres will be when K = 2— (A) Increases (B) Remains constant
(A) 18 × 109 newton (C) Decreases (D) Become zero
(B) 9 × 109 newton 11. The strength of electromagnt can be increased
(C) 18 × 1012 newton by—
(D) 9 × 102 newton (A) Reducing number of turns
14. An air condenser with capacitance 0·001 μF (B) Increasing the magnitude of current
is connected to a d.c. voltage of 200 volts. (C) Decreasing the magnitude of current
The energy stored in the condenser will be— (D) Increasing the length of conductor
(A) 10 μ Joules (B) 20 μ Joules
12. The direction of magnetic field set up in a
(C) 20 Joules (D) 20 μ H Joules current carrying conductor can be found out
15. A condenser is connected across 200 V by—
supply for 0·5 second, the current is kept (A) Fleming’s right hand rule
steady at 0·2 amp., the charged on condenser (B) Fleming’s left hand rule
will be—
(C) Cork screw rule
(A) 0·01 coulombs (B) 0·001 coulombs
(D) Thumb rule
(C) 0·1 coulombs (D) 1 coulombs
13. The direction of magnetic field can be deter-
16. A condenser of 10 μ F is connected to a d.c. mined by—
source of 23V through a resistance of mega
ohms. The time of the current which is to be (A) End rule (B) Right hand rule
kept steady will be— (C) Left hand rule (D) Thumb rule
(A) 10 Sec. (B) 100 Sec. 14. The polarity of the pole can be found out by—
(C) 50 Sec. (D) 1 Sec. (A) End rule
17. One μ F (micro farad) is equal to— (B) Fleming's right hand rule
(A) 106 Farad (B) 10–6 Farad (C) Fleming's left hand rule
12
(C) 10 Farad (D) 10–2 Farad (D) Cork screw rule
28 | Obj. Electrical

15. It the current flows in an anticlock wise direc- 25. The equation of an e.m.f. is given by e = 10⎯
√⎯24
tion, then the polarity of the nearer pole will sin ωt its amplitude is—
be—
(A) South pole (B) No polarity (A) √
⎯⎯24 (B) 10⎯
√⎯24
(C) North pole (D) Both the polarities (C) 101/2√
⎯⎯24 (D) 101/2241/2
16. If the current flows in clockwise direction 26. The four equations of e.m.f. are given by—
then the polarity of the nearer pole will be— (i) e1 = 10 sin ωt
(A) South pole (B) No polarity (ii) e2 = 20 sin (ωt + π/6)
(C) North pole (D) Both the polarities (iii) e3 = 50 sin (ωt + π/3) and
17. A current carrying conductor placed in the (iv) e4 = 100 sin (ωt + π/3)
magnetic fields as show, the force experienced
on the conductors acts— Which will have the max. value ?
(A) Equation (i) (B) Equation (ii)
S ⊕ N (C) Equation (iii) (D) Equation (iv)
(A) Upward (B) Down ward 27. The equation of an alternating current is
(C) To the left (D) To the right i = 42·42 sin 628t
the effective value will be—
18. The unit of magnetic flux is—
(A) Amp. turn (B) Weber (A) 27 amp (B) 30 amp
(C) 2·7 amp (D) 3 amp
(C) Coulombs (D) Newton
19. The unit of m.m.f. is— 28. The equation of an alternating current is
i = 42·42 sin 50 πt
(A) Volts (B) Ergs
(C) Amp. turns (D) Coulombs the average value will be—
(A) 30 amp. (B) 42·42 amp.
20. The unit of Reluctance is—
(A) Weber (B) Amp. turn (At) (C) 27 amp. (D) 2·7 amp.
(C) Maxwell (D) At per waber 29. An alternating current has the following
values for half cycle current in amp 0, 2, 3, 5,
21. The max value of the cycle is known, the 8, 5, 3, 2, 0. Its average value will be—
r.m.s. value can be found at—
(A) 5·5 amp. (B) 85 amp.
(A) 0·707 instantaneous value
(B) 0·606 instantaneous value (C) 46 amp. (D) 4·6 amp.
(C) 0·707 Emax. value 30. The r.m.s. value of a sinusoidal supply whose
(D) 0·707 Eav value peak value is 100 volts is—
22. A sinusoidal current is represented by i = 70 (A) 100/V2 (B) 100 V2
sin 314t, its frequency will be— (C) 50/V2 (D) 50 V2
(A) 25 Hz (B) 50 Hz 31. Which of the following statement is correct
(C) 60 Hz (D) 30 Hz for a d.c. circuit ?
23. A 2 pole alternator runs at 3000 r.m.p., it will (A) W = VI
generate frequency— (B) W = VI sin φ
(A) 50 Hz (B) 100 Hz
(C) KW = kVA cos φ
(C) 1500 Hz (D) 3000 Hz
(D) KW = kVA sin φ
24. An a.c. generator generates an e.m.f. at 50 c/s
when runs at 1500 r.p.m., the generator will 32. With the reduction of frequency, the inductive
have— reactance of the circuit will—
(A) 2 Poles (B) 8 Poles (A) Decreases (B) Increases
(C) 4 Poles (D) 6 Poles (C) Remains same (D) None of the above
 Obj. Electrical | 29

33. With the increase of frequency the capacitive 42. Three branches are connected in parallel
reactance of the circuit— across a supply voltage V which quantity will
(A) Decreases (B) Increases be same ?
(C) Remains same (D) None of the above (A) Current in each branch
(B) Power factor of each branch
34. If the frequency of the pure inductive circuit
is half, the current of the circuit will be— (C) Phase difference of each branch
(A) Same (B) Doubled (D) Voltage across each branch
(C) Halved (D) Four times 43. Two inductances L1 and L 2 are connected in
parallel across V volts, the total power factor
35. The reactance offered by a capacitor to an will be—
alternating current of frequency is reduced to (A) Higher
100 c/s is 10 ohms. If frequency is reduced to
50 c/s the reactance becomes— (B) Same
(A) 5 ohms (B) 10 ohms (C) Lower
(C) 15 ohms (D) 20 ohms (D) None of the above

36. Q-factor of a circuit is given by— 44. Two capacitors C1 and C2 are connected in
parallel across V volts, the total power factor
(A) Ratio of R/Z (B) Ratio of Z/R will be—
(C) Ratio of XL/Z (D) Ratio of XC/Z (A) Higher (B) Lower
37. The input to an a.c. circuit is 10 KVA at 0·6 (C) Zero (D) None of the above
power factor lagging, the power drawn by the 45. A circuit consists of a resistance of 30 ohms
circuit in KW will be— is connected in parallel with a coil of
(A) 6 (B) 12 inductive reactance of 40 ohms across 120 V,
(C) 8 (D) 16 50 Hz supply. The total current of the circuit
will be—
38. The apparent power drawn by an a.c. circuit is
(A) 5 A (B) 4 A
20 KVA and reactive power is 12 KVA. The
real power in the circuit in KW will be— (C) 3 A (D) 7 A
(A) 20 (B) 12 46. A resistor of 10 ohms and inductive reactance
(C) 16 (D) None of the above of 8 ohms and capacitive reactance of 15
ohms are connected in parallel across 120 V,
39. A R-L circuit has 6 ohms resistance and 8 50 Hz supply. The total current of the circuit
ohms inductive reactance. Its Impedance will will be—
be—
(A) 35 A (B) 13·89 A
(A) 8 ohms (B) 10 ohms
(C) 18·56 A (D) 19 A
(C) 8 ohms (D) 816 ohms
47. An inductive coil is connected in a parallel
40. A R-L-C circuit has a resistance of 6 ohms across a non-inductive resistor of 30 φ ohms.
inductive reactance of 8 ohms and capacitive This combination is connected across single
reactance of 16 ohms. The impedance of the phase 50 Hz supply. The total current taken
circuit will be— from the mains is 10 amp. when the current in
(A) 10 ohms (B) 16 ohms the non-inductive resistance of 6 amp. the
(C) 8 ohms (D) 6 ohms current in the inductive coil will be—
41. In a parallel circuit, the whole of the current (A) 10 A (B) 4 A
will go in phase when— (C) 8 A (D) 16 A
(A) I × C = I sin φ 48. In a parallel resonant circuit at resonant
(B) I × C = I cos φ frequency, the line current in—
(C) I × L = I × C (A) Max. (B) Zero
(D) I × L = I cos φ (C) Min. (D) None of the above
30 | Obj. Electrical

49. In a parallel resonant circuit at resonant fre- (C) Being the spring light in weight, there is
quency, the impedance of the circuit will be— no increases in weight of the moving
(A) Very low system
(B) Very high (D) That rise of temperature does not effect
(C) Zero the controlling torque
(D) There will be minor change 58. The advantage of gravity control method is
that it is—
50. In a parallel resonant circuit frequency, the θ
factor will be— (A) Costly
(B) Not very simple method

⎯
√ ⎯
√
1 1 1 L (C) Effect by temperature
(A) (B)
R C R C
(D) Not subject to fatigue
2π f L CR
(C) (D) 59. The disadvantage of gravity control method is
R L
that, it is—
51. Thermal effect is used for producing deflect- (A) Kept in vertical position
ing torque in—
(B) Light in weight
(A) Watt meter (B) Energy meter
(C) Graduated uniformly
(C) Ammeter (D) Multimeter (D) Costly
52. Electordynamic effect is used for the 60. For controlling the vibration of the disc of
operation of— A.C. energymeter, damping torque is pro-
(A) Wattmeter (B) Voltmeter duced by—
(C) Ammeter (D) All of the above (A) Eddy currents
53. Chemical effect is used for the operation of— (B) Chemical effect
(A) Wattmeter (C) Electrostatic effect
(B) Ammeter (D) Magnetic effect
(C) Ampere hour meter 61. For increasing the range of voltmeter
(D) kwh meter connect a—
54. The spring controlled meter is— (A) High value resistance in series with volt-
(A) Not portable meter
(B) Portable (B) Low value resistance in series with volt-
(C) Should be mounted in a definite position meter
(D) None of the above (C) High value resistance in parallel with
55. In spring controlling instruments, controlling voltmeter
torque— (D) Low value resistance in parallel with
(A) Can be adjusted only voltmeter
(B) Can not be adjusted only 62. A galvanometer can be used for measuring
(C) Remains same current and voltage of a circuit by—
(D) Varies with the load (A) Shunt only
56. For controlling torque, spring controlling (B) Connecting high value of resistance in
method is— series only
(A) Generally used (B) Rarely used (C) Shunt for measuring current and high
(C) Always used (D) Never used resistance series for voltage
57. The advantages of spring control instruments (D) Without shunt and series resistance
is— 63. The cost of ammeter as compared to volt-
(A) It is subject to fatigue meter is—
(B) The controlling torque can be adjusted (A) Same (B) Higher
easily (C) Lower (D) Very high
 Obj. Electrical | 31

64. Two voltmeter of same range one MI type (B) Both the limbs of laminated core with
and other M.C. type are connected in parallel different turns
for measuring a.c. supply voltage, if the (C) Both the limbs of the laminated core
reading of M.I. type is 300. The reading of with same number of turns
M.C. type will be— (D) The centre of the limb on the laminated
(A) Higher than MI type core
(B) Lower than MI type
72. The pressure coil of a single phase Energy-
(C) Same meter is wound on—
(D) Zero (A) One limb of the laminated core
65. How will you identify wheather the meter 28 (B) Both the limbs of the laminated core
MI type of M.C. type from— with different turns
(A) The type of scale (C) Both the limbs of the laminated core
(B) The marking of terminals with same number of turns
(C) The symbol given on the meterplate (D) The centre of the limb on the laminated
(D) All of the above one
66. The most commonly used type of single 73. The pressure coil consists of—
phase energymeter is— (A) More number of turns of fine wire
(A) Dynamometer type (B) Less number of turns of fine wire
(B) Electrostatic type (C) Less number of turns of thick wire
(C) Induction type (D) More number of turns of thick wire
(D) Moving coil type 74. The current in the pressure coil is pro-
67. The energymeter used for measuring energy portional to—
of a d.c. circuit is— (A) Load current
(A) Amphere hour type (B) Line current
(B) Induction type (C) Supply voltage
(C) Electrostatic type (D) Supply voltage and line current both
(D) Dynamometer type
75. The current in the pressure coil will lag
68. The meter constant of energymeter is given behind the voltage by 90° because high—
by— (A) Inductance
(A) rev./KW (B) rev/KWh
(B) Resistance
(C) rev/watt (D) rev/KWh
(C) Resistance
69. The essential requirements of a single phase (D) Resistance and low inductance
meter are—
(A) Recording mechanism 76. For testing the earth fault of an Electric kettle,
(B) Operating mechanism the megger reads zero, this indicates—
(C) Moving mechanism (A) Open circuit
(D) All of the above (B) Live terminal touching with the body
70. The series magnet of single phase Energy- (C) Neutral terminal touching with the body
meter consists of coil of— (D) Any one of the terminals touching with
(A) Thin wire of few turns body
(B) Thick wire of few turns 77. A man holds both the terminals of a 500 V
(C) Thick wire of more turns megger, but still safe due to—
(D) Thin wire of more turns (A) High voltage
71. The current coil of single phase energymeter (B) Very low current
is wound on— (C) High resistance of the body
(A) One limb of the laminated core (D) Low resistance of the body
32 | Obj. Electrical

78. The reading of the megger is 30 mega-ohms 86. The megger voltage for testing 500 V
while testing the insulation resistance of the installation should be—
wire. The wire can be— (A) 1000 V (B) 500 V
(A) Suitable for installation (C) 300 V (D) 100 V
(B) Not suitable for installation
87. Which of the megger is better for testing
(C) Semi suitable for the installation installation ?
79. While testing an odd installation the main (A) Battery operated
switch of the supply will be kept—
(B) Generator operated
(A) OFF position
(B) ON position (C) Integrated circuit operated
(C) ON position and switches of the circuit (D) Motor operated
in OFF position 88. The insulation resistance of a installation
(D) OFF position and switches of the circuit between conductor to conductor should not be
in ON position less than—
80. If the megger terminals are connected to 230 (A) 50 mega-ohms/no. of outlets
V supply, megger will— (B) 60 mega-ohms/no. of outlets
(A) Work (B) Not work (C) 25 mega-ohms/no. of outlets
(C) Burn (D) Parially damaged (D) 30 mega-ohms/no. of outlets
81. Megger is used for measuring—
(A) Low resistance ANSWERS
(B) High resistance 1. (D) 2. (C) 3. (A) 4. (B) 5. (C)
(C) Medium resistance 6. (A) 7. (B) 8. (C) 9. (A) 10. (C)
(D) Very low resistance
11. (B) 12. (C) 13. (B) 14. (A) 15. (C)
82. Megger can be used for testing— 16. (A) 17. (B) 18. (B) 19. (C) 20. (D)
(A) Open circuit
21. (C) 22. (B) 23. (A) 24. (C) 25. (B)
(B) Short circuit
(C) Open and short circuit 26. (D) 27. (B) 28. (C) 29. (D) 30. (B)
(D) High resistance circuit only 31. (A) 32. (A) 33. (A) 34. (B) 35. (D)
83. Megger is a combination of— 36. (B) 37. (A) 38. (C) 39. (B) 40. (A)
(A) Motor and generator 41. (A) 42. (D) 43. (B) 44. (C) 45. (A)
(B) Generator and ammeter 46. (B) 47. (C) 48. (C) 49. (A) 50. (B)
(C) Generator and voltmeter 51. (C) 52. (D) 53. (C) 54. (B) 55. (B)
(D) Generator and ohmmeter 56. (A) 57. (C) 58. (C) 59. (A) 60. (B)
84. Speed of the megger is kept at— 61. (A) 62. (C) 63. (C) 64. (D) 65. (D)
(A) 100 r.p.m. (B) 120 r.p.m.
66. (C) 67. (A) 68. (B) 69. (D) 70. (B)
(C) 140 r.p.m. (D) 160 r.p.m.
71. (C) 72. (D) 73. (A) 74. (C) 75. (A)
85. The megger voltage for testing 250 V installa-
tion should be— 76. (A) 77. (B) 78. (C) 79. (A) 80. (C)
(A) 250 V (B) 300 V 81. (B) 82. (C) 83. (D) 84. (D) 85. (C)
(C) 500 V (D) 1000 V 86. (A) 87. (B) 88. (A)

⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
 Objective
Electronic Engineering
 Model Set-1
1. For a FM broadcast station, the maximum (C) Both (A) and (B)
deviation produced by audio modulation is 45 (D) None of the above
KHz. The percentage modulation is—
9.As oscillator using a capacitive voltage
(A) 100 (B) 50 divider to provide feed back is—
(C) 70 (D) 60 (A) Armstrong (B) Hartley
2. Which of the following is not a base band (C) Colpitts (D) None of these
signal for modulation ? 10. Which of the following step will help in
(A) RF carrier frequency stabilization of an oscillator ?
(B) Binary codet pulses (A) Use of tuned circuit
(C) Video signal (B) Controlling the gain
(D) None of the above (C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
3. A balanced modulator circuit uses—
(A) Two identical triodes 11. The oscillator with the best frequency stability
and accuracy is—
(B) Two identical diodes
(A) Tickler feed back oscillator
(C) Both (A) and (B) (B) Crystal controlled oscillator
(D) None of the above (C) Colpitts oscillators
4. In SSB generation the filter used is— (D) None of the above
(A) LG (B) RC 12. When positive feed back amplifiers are used
(C) Mechanical (D) None of these as oscillators, the condition AB = 1 is known
5. Which system is free from noise ? as—
(A) AM (A) Positive criterion of oscillation
(B) FM (B) Barkhasen criterion of oscillation
(C) Both (A) and (B) (C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these (D) None of the above
6. At which of the following stage the noise is 13. Which of the following oscillator can be
most likely to affect the signal ? expected to give highest affector ?
(A) Channel (B) Transmitter (A) Wein bridge oscillator
(C) Destination (D) None of these (B) Crystal controlled oscillator
(C) Both (A) and (B)
7. RF feed back oscillators are usually tuned by (D) None of the above
varying the—
(A) Lorc 14. Blocking oscillators are used as—
(A) High impedance switches and frequency
(B) Load impedance
dividers
(C) Both (A) and (B) (B) Abrupt pulse generator
(D) None of the above (C) Both (A) and (B)
8. Under which of the following condition an (D) None of the above
oscillator can stop oscillating ? 15. A monostable multivibrator can be used to
(A) Reduction in transistor gain generate—
(B) Increase in transistor gain (A) Sweep
4 | Electronic Engg.

(B) Sinusoidal 24. The fine tuning control in television receiver

(C) Both (A) and (B) is—
(D) None of the above (A) A potentiometer
16. Which of the following device has character- (B) A variable capacitor
istic close to that of an ideal voltage source ? (C) Both (A) and (B)
(A) Vacuum diode (D) None of the above
(B) Zener diode 25. The demodulation of sound signals in a TV
(C) Both (A) and (B) receiver is accomplished by—
(D) None of the above (A) Envelope detector
17. A UJT is not used as— (B) Discriminator
(A) Timing device (C) Both (A) and (B)
(B) Transistor amplifier (D) None of the above
(C) Switching device 26. A number of different colours can be formed
(D) None of the above by the combinations of colours in—
(A) Two colours (B) Three colours
18. A triac is like a—
(C) Five colours (D) Seven colours
(A) Bidi rectional SCR
(B) NPN transistor 27. Colour TV camera is essentially a combina-
tion of …… basic cameras.
(C) PNP transistor
(A) Five (B) Two
(D) None of these
(C) Four (D) Three
19. In which of the following reserve voltage is
used ? 28. The light is converted into video signals
corresponding to the red, blue and green com-
(A) LED (B) Zener diode
ponents of the …… picture.
(C) Vacuum diode (D) None of these
(A) White (B) Black
20. If the effective value of half wave rectified (C) Red (D) Original colour
sine wave is 20. The average value of the
wave will be— 29. The black and white or monochrome portion
of the total colour signal is equivalent in all
(A) 13·5 (B) 12·5
respects to present …… signals.
(C) 12·7 (D) 13·55
(A) Black and white
21. Which of the following conducts during (B) Red and blue
flyback ? (C) Yellow and green
(A) Silicon diode damper (D) Red and yellow
(B) Output stage
30. A total colour signal consist of—
(C) High voltage rectifier
(A) One component
(D) None of the above (B) Two component
22. A live programme is transmitted from loca- (C) Five component
tion to TV station through— (D) Three component
(A) Cables (B) Wireless 31. The sub-carrier frequency is approximately—
(C) Antennas (D) None of these (A) 2·75 mc/s (B) 325 mc/s
23. The output of the vertical amplifier applied to (C) 3·58 mc/s (D) None of these
the yoke in a TV receiver consists of— Directions—In the following Questions 32 to
(A) A saw tooth voltage 39 the video characteristics are concerned.
(B) A saw tooth current 32. Number oflines per picture—
(C) Both (A) and (B) (A) 400 (B) 300
(D) None of the above (C) 500 (D) 625
 Electronic Engg. | 5

33. Field frequency is— (C) Both (A) and (B)

(A) 50 fields/sec (B) 30 fields/sec (D) None of the above
(C) 75 fields/sec (D) None of these 45. In radio receiver’s tube EM 84 is used as—
34. Picture frequency is— (A) Audio amplifier
(A) 35 pictures/sec (B) 25 pictures/sec (B) Magic eye
(C) 15 pictures/sec (D) 75 pictures/sec (C) Both (A) and (B)
35. Aspect ratio is— (D) None of these
(A) 5/2 (B) 2/3 46. The first step of radio transmitter is to convert
(C) 4/3 (D) 5/9 audible sound waves into—
36. Scanning sequence field is— (A) Electrical waves
(A) Right to left (B) Left to right (B) Magnetic waves
(C) Top to bottom (D) None of these (C) Electrical impulses by microphone
(D) Both (A) and (B)
37. Scanning sequence (line) is—
(A) Left to right (B) Right to left 47. In Question 46 the impulses are then ampli-
(C) Top to bottom (D) None of these fied by—
(A) Amplifier
38. Nominal video bank width is— (B) Audio amplifier
(A) 3 mc/s (B) 5 mc/s (C) Both (A) and (B)
(C) 7 mc/s (D) 11 mc/s (D) None of these
39. Nominal radio frequency bandwidth of R. F. 48. Reference to Question 47 the carrier wave
characteristic is— 550 KC is generated by—
(A) 5 mc/s (B) 9 mc/s (A) r.f. oscillator (B) Oscillator
(C) 7 mc/s (D) 6 mc/s (C) Modulator (D) Both (A) and (B)
49. Ref. to above Question 48 the output of
40. If R. F. characteristic, sound carrier relative to modulator is applied to a—
vision carrier is— (A) Antenna
(A) + 4·5 mc/s (B) + 3·5 mc/s (B) Transmitting antenna
(C) + 5·5 mc/s (D) + 8·9 mc/s (C) Oscillator
41. Which stage contains the primary of the first (D) Both (A) and (C)
IF transformer ?
(A) Oscillator 50. Refer to Question 49 audio signal is then
(B) Detector amplified so as to operate the—
(C) Both (A) and (B) (A) Sound (B) Wave
(D) None of the above (C) Loudspeaker (D) None of these
51. The proper frequency is chosen by means
42. If the image frequency is 2110 KHz, the of—
frequency hf station must be— (A) Sound
(A) 1350 KHz (B) 1500 KHz (B) Tuner
(C) 1700 KHz (D) None of these (C) Both (A) and (B)
43. The frequency of which the reactances of the (D) None of these
two arms in a crystal gate are equal to— 52. The reception of radio signals is to abstract
(A) Zero energy intercept from to radio-wave passing
(B) Maximum attenuation frequency the—
(C) Both (A) and (B) (A) Point (B) Any point
(D) None of the above (C) Receiving point (D) None of these
44. The output of a diode detector does not 53. When antenna conductor cuts the electro-
contain— magnetic flux of the wave voltage is—
(A) Output signal (A) Increased (B) Induced
(B) Modulating signal (C) Constant (D) None of these
6 | Electronic Engg.

54. The induced voltage develops a current in the (B) Frequency modulation
conductor having its time variations exactly (C) Both (A) and (B)
same as— (D) None of the above
(A) Antenna
64. Modulation methods are used to tranmit the
(B) Modulator
intelligence at—
(C) Radiating antenna
(A) Signal
(D) None of the above
(B) Frequencies
55. In the reception of radio signals. The second (C) Radio frequencies
step is to select the …… (D) None of these
(A) Signal (B) Wanted signal
65. The magnitude and frequency are determined
(C) Frequency (D) None of these
by the character of—
56. Refer to Question 55 the ability is called— (A) Frequency (B) Modulation
(A) Tuning (B) Sound (C) Amplitude (D) None of these
(C) Selectivity (D) Both (A) and (B)
66. Some characteristic of the wave is varied
57. Refer to above Question 56 the third step is to according to information to be—
recover the original modulating signal from (A) Stored (B) Transmitted
the— (C) Given (D) None of these
(A) Wave (B) Modulated wave
67. The carrier is able to convey the intelligence
(C) Frequency (D) Both (A) and (C)
through the transmission system is called a—
58. In Question 57 the process is called— (A) Carrier wave
(A) Detection (B) Point (B) Modulated carrier wave
(C) Ability (D) Both (A) and (C) (C) Train
59. In the case of amplitude modulation a simple (D) None of the above
rectification of …… serves the purpose.
(A) Wave (B) Modulated wave 68. The modulated carrier wave in the trans-
mission of radio is sent out into space by—
(C) Magnetic wave (D) None of the above
(A) Modulator (B) Audio sound
60. In radio transmission and receiver at the
(C) Antenna (D) Both (A) and (B)
receiver, a voltage is induced in the—
(A) Modulator 69. The side band frequencies can be considered
(B) Antenna as a result of varying the—
(C) Both (A) and (B) (A) Frequency (B) Wave
(D) None of these (C) Resultant wave (D) None of these
61. One way of modulation in ratio communica- 70. The received modulated wave being weak is
tion is— amplified by—
(A) Modulation (A) Amplifier (B) Signal
(B) Frequency modulation (C) R. F. amplifier (D) None of these
(C) Amplitude modulation 71. RF circuits help us to—
(D) None of the above (A) Select the wanted frequency
62. Another way of modulation the amplitude for (B) Low frequency only
the carrier is kept essentially— (C) High frequency only
(A) Variable (B) Constant (D) None of the above
(C) Zero (D) None of these 72. RF circuits can also help us to—
63. In frequency modulation is termed as— (A) Reject the interference such as the image
(A) Amplitude modulation frequency
 Electronic Engg. | 7

(B) Reduce the noise figure of the receiver (A) The gain factor
(C) Both (A) and (B) (B) The system eigen values
(D) None of the above (C) The gain; margin
73. The possible sources of noise may be— (D) None of the above
(A) External noise 83. A type 1 system under steady state will have
(B) Noise generated in the receive circuits position error when there is—
(C) Both (A) and (B) (A) Ramp input
(D) None of the above (B) Output ramp
(C) Both (A) and (B)
74. For separating channels in FDM receivers—
(D) None of these
(A) Integrations are used
(B) Band pass filters are used 84. A servomechanism with unit step input can
(C) Both (A) and (B) be categorized as—
(D) None of the above (A) Type 0 system (B) Type 1 system
(C) Type 3 system (D) Type 4 system
75. The standard IF value for FM receivers is—
(A) 550 KHz (B) 455 KHz 85. System stability implies that small changes
(C) 660 KHz (D) 720 KHz in the system input do not results in large
changes—
76. Three point tracking is achieved with— (A) In input (B) In system output
(A) Padder capacitor (C) In output (D) Both (A) and (C)
(B) Variable selectivity
86. The system will be underlamped system when
(C) Both (A) and (B)
the gain of critically dumped system is—
(D) None of the above (A) Increased (B) Decreased
77. A transistor is basically an amplifying device (C) Constant (D) None of these
for—
87. The type one (1) system can have a constant
(A) Voltage (B) Current output velocity at steady state only when—
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these (A) There is fluctuating state error
78. In super heterodyne receiver, which stage (B) There is a variable steady state error
produces IF signals ? (C) There is a constant steady state error
(A) G and condense (B) Mixer (D) None of the above
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these
88. Which of the following system generally
79. An IF amplifier in a super heterodyne operate under type 1 system with step
receiver meets with which of the following velocity input ?
requirements of the set— (A) Fire control serves
(A) Sensitivity (B) Bandwidth (B) Tracking radar
(C) Gain (D) None of these (C) Both (A) and (B)
80. Which stage contains the secondary of the last (D) None of the above
IF transformer ? 89. In the second order system with transfer
(A) Detector function 1/s2, the phase shift will be—
(B) Mixer (A) – 180° (B) + 180°
(C) Both (A) and (B)
π π
(D) None of these (C) (D) –
2 2
81. Manipulated variable is the— 90. Which method is generally used for determin-
(A) Reference input (B) Primary feedback ing the stability and transient response of the
(C) (A) minus (B) (D) None of the above system ?
82. Which one of the following must negative (A) Root locus analysis
real parts for a stable system ? (B) Bode plot
8 | Electronic Engg.

(C) Root locus 98. In case some modulating device is used for
(D) Both (A) and (B) modulating the control system the system is
called—
91. If the gain of the system is increased, then—
(A) A.C. control system
(A) Roots move from the poles
(B) D.C. control system
(B) Roots move towards origin
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(C) It does not affect the position of the roots
(D) None of the above
(D) None of the above
99. In the electrical system the cause of none-
92. When feedback is negative the first derivative linerity is due to—
output control will—
(A) Inductor
(A) Increase the damping of the system
(B) Inductance
(B) Decrease the velocity lag error
(C) Saturation of magnetic core
(C) Decrease the damping of the system
(D) None of the above
(D) None of the above
100. In which system the position errors a rises at
93. In Laplace transform and Fourier integral— steady state when input is constant accelera-
(A) Only time domain is related tion ?
(B) Frequency is related (A) Type two system
(C) Both (A) and (B) are related (B) Type zero system
(D) None of the above (C) Type three system
94. By increasing the system gain K, the roots of (D) Type four system
the system will—
(A) Move to higher frequencies ANSWERS
(B) Move to lower frequencies 1. (B) 2. (C) 3. (B) 4. (A) 5. (D)
(C) Move to very low frequencies 6. (C) 7. (B) 8. (D) 9. (B) 10. (A)
(D) Both (B) and (C) 11. (A) 12. (C) 13. (D) 14. (B) 15. (A)
95. By adjusting the second derivative input 16. (B) 17. (A) 18. (C) 19. (A) 20. (B)
signal it will adjust— 21. (C) 22. (B) 23. (A) 24. (B) 25. (A)
(A) Time constant 26. (A) 27. (B) 28. (C) 29. (A) 30. (A)
(B) Supress oscillations 31. (C) 32. (A) 33. (B) 34. (A) 35. (C)
(C) Both (A) and (B) 36. (B) 37. (D) 38. (B) 39. (B) 40. (A)
(D) None of the above 41. (C) 42. (B) 43. (B) 44. (A) 45. (A)
96. In a damped system what percentage over- 46. (B) 47. (D) 48. (C) 49. (A) 50. (A)
shoot can be regarded as reasonably good 51. (B) 52. (C) 53. (B) 54. (D) 55. (A)
performance— 56. (A) 57. (A) 58. (C) 59. (C) 60. (A)
(A) 40 to 60% (B) 30 to 50% 61. (B) 62. (C) 63. (A) 64. (A) 65. (C)
(C) 45 to 75% (D) 60 to 95% 66. (A) 67. (B) 68. (A) 69. (A) 70. (D)
71. (B) 72. (B) 73. (A) 74. (A) 75. (A)
97. The output of the feedback control system
must be function of— 76. (B) 77. (C) 78. (A) 79. (B) 80. (D)
81. (A) 82. (D) 83. (C) 84. (A) 85. (B)
(A) Reference
86. (B) 87. (A) 88. (A) 89. (B) 90. (A)
(B) Output
91. (C) 92. (B) 93. (B) 94. (A) 95. (C)
(C) Both (A) and (B)
96. (A) 97. (B) 98. (B) 99. (A) 100. (A)
(D) None of these ●●
 Model Set-2
1. In case of the probability of the message to (A) For de-emphasising high frequency com-
reach successfully is 1 in 16, then the infor- ponent
mation will be at least of length— (B) Prior to modulation
(A) 4 bits (B) 3 bits (C) Both (A) and (B)
(C) 7 bith (D) 13 bits (D) None of the above
2. Which of the following filter is generally used 9. In case of low level amplitude modulation
in SSB generation ? system, the amplifiers following the modu-
(A) LC filter (B) Crystal filter lated state must be—
(C) Active filter (D) Mechanical filter (A) Non-linear device
3. Modulation is used to— (B) Class C amplifiers
(A) Allow the use of practicable antennas (C) Linear device
(B) Reduce the bandwidth used (D) Both (A) and (B)
(C) Both (A) and (B) 10. SHF could be used for—
(D) None of the above (A) Satellite communication
4. Which of the following section plays signifi- (B) FM radio broad casts
cant role for sensitivity and selectivity ? (C) Both (A) and (B)
(A) IF (B) Mixer (D) None of the above
(C) Detector (D) None of these 11. In an AM signal, the peak carrier amplitude is
5. Audio frequency range lies between— double the unmodulated level. The percentage
modulation would be—
(A) 30 MHz and 250 MHz
(A) 200 (B) 100
(B) 20 Mz and 20 MHz
(C) 50 (D) 75
(C) 50 MHz and 500 MHz
12. The frequency toleracy for the RF carrier in
(D) 35 Mz and 45 MHz
the standard AM radio broad cast band is—
6. If a signal band limited to f.m is sampled at a (A) + 20 Hz (B) + 35 Hz
rate less than 2 f.m the reconstructed signal (C) + 75 Hz (D) + 150 Hz
will be—
13. In which of the following frequency bands are
(A) Distorted
the standard AM radio broad cast stations ?
(B) Smaller in amplitude (A) HF (B) MF
(C) Both (A) and (B) (C) UHF (D) None of these
(D) None of the above
14. To prevent overloading in the last IF ampli-
7. A frequency multiplier state should operates fier in a receiver. One should use—
as— (A) Squench
(A) Class AB (B) Class C (B) Variable sensitivity
(C) Class B (D) Class A (C) Both (A) and (B)
8. De-emphasis circuit is used— (D) None of the above
10 | Electronic Engg.

15. ACW transmitter radiators— 24. Radars can be used under—

(A) Unmodulated RF carrier (A) Bad weather conditions
(B) Modulated carrier (B) Good weather conditions
(C) Both (A) and (B) (C) All weather conditions
(D) None of the above (D) None of the above
16. RF power amplifiers of the unmodulated 25. When installed in ships or high flying aero-
carrier signal usually operate as— planes, radars can be used under all weather
conditions to find the positions of mountains
(A) Class C (B) Class B
and—
(C) Class AB (D) None of these (A) Iceberg in the sea
17. Which one of the following can not be used to (B) Shore lines
remove the unwanted side band in SSB ? (C) Lakes etc
(A) Filters (D) (A), (B) and (C)
(B) Phase shift devices 26. Different radar systems are designed for
(C) Balanced modulator various purposes i.e.—
(D) None of the above (A) Homeland safety
18. In an SSB transmitter, one is most likely to (B) Victory over the enemy
find— (C) Both (A) and (B)
(A) Class BRF amplifier (D) None of the above
(B) Tuned modulator 27. Chain Home System was first designed in—
(C) Both (A) and (B) (A) 1935 (B) 1942
(D) None of the above (C) 1925 (D) 1927
19. Which of the following communication 28. Chain Home Low System was first intro-
system is digital ? duced in—
(A) 1952 (B) 1959
(A) PAM (B) PCM
(C) 1964 (D) 1972
(C) FM (D) None of these 29. Chain Home System was designed for the
20. In which of the following amplifier, even location and detection of—
harmonics are eliminated ? (A) Enemy
(A) Push pull (B) Class A (B) Approaching aircrafts bombers
(C) Class B (D) None of these (C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
21. In foul weather, radar is used with Ground 30. In chain Home System, the system for
Control of Approach (GCA) to guide air transmission consists of an arry having fixed
crafts— horizontal aerials and reflectors suspended
(A) To a safe landing from—
(B) In any direction (A) 110 metre masts (B) 80 metre masts
(C) To fly in the sky (C) 45 metre masts (D) 120 metre masts
(D) None of the above
31. In chain Home Low System, the largest
22. Air crafts controlradar monitors are insta- ranges were more than—
lled— (A) 100 km (B) 85 km
(A) In vicinity of airports (C) 65 km (D) 75 km
(B) Enroute between air terminals
32. In chain Home Low System, the aerial
(C) Both (A) and (B)
system, mounted on turn table, was given a
(D) None of the above rotatory motion about a vertical axis at a low
23. The performanceof radar is unaffectedby— rate of six revolutions per—
(A) Darkness (B) Fog (A) Second (B) Minute
(C) Rain (D) (A), (B) and (C) (C) Hour (D) Day
 Electronic Engg. | 11

33. In chain Home Low System, beam width of (C) Both (A) and (B)
…… was employed— (D) None of the above
(A) 13° to 15° (B) 17°C to 21° 41. A transmission line with minimum loss of
(C) 18° to 25° (D) 12° to 15° energy is applied between …… to avoids the
34. In chain Home Low System, same aerial was disturbance.
used for— (A) Transmitter
(A) Transmission (B) Antenna
(B) Reception (C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these 42. The purpose of transmission line is to trans-
mit signal from—
35. The chain Home Low System is effective (A) Generator to load
within the range of …… from the target.
(B) Load to generator
(A) 5 km (B) 7 km (C) Both (A) and (B)
(C) 10 km (D) 15 km (D) None of the above
36. The major difference of Ground Control 43. The most usual form of transmission lines
Interpretation with chain Low System is that (are)—
this system involves an indicator called— (A) Parallel wires
(A) Plane position (B) Coaxial cable
(B) Plane position indicator (C) Both (A) and (B)
(C) Position (D) None of these
(D) Both (A) and (B) 44. The length of transmission line is usually—
37. Chain Home Low System is …… for night (A) Very short (B) Great enough
fighters. (C) Great only (D) Short only
(A) Efficient (B) Not efficient 45. The transmission line consists of—
(C) Suitable for day (D) None of these (A) Resistance (B) Inductance
38. In Ground Control Interpretation was used in (C) Capacitance (D) All of these
this system to bring the night fighters in right 46. The termination of the line affects the—
direction before the …… range is reached. (A) Power
(A) 7 km (B) 9 km (B) Power transmission
(C) 5 km (D) 18 km (C) Currents
39. In Ground Control Interpretation, echo from (D) None of the above
the target intensity the spot on the cathode ray 47. The propagation constant of a line per unit
tube screen at a distance and in the direction length is defined as the natural log of the
from the centre of screen which corresponds vector ratio of the steady state current enter-
to the— ing and—
(A) Target (A) Leaving the structure
(B) Angular resolution (B) Backing current
(C) Both (A) and (B) (C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above (D) None of the above
40. In Ground Control Interpretation, when the 48. The ratio of reflected voltage to the incident
radar equipment is rotated, echoes from the voltage is termed as—
reflection region of the target produce bright (A) Coefficient
spots on the screen at— (B) Reflection coefficient
(A) Same angles (C) Both (A) and (B)
(B) Different angles (D) None of the above
12 | Electronic Engg.

49. The characteristic impedance is the input 58. It is possible to match a transmission line by
impedance offered by a line of— the application of a—
(A) Infinite length (A) Stub line (B) Parallel line
(B) Finitelength (C) Series line (D) None of these
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these 59. A short-circuited stub line is preferred as
compared to—
50. The propagation of constant is a—
(A) Real quantity (A) Circuited line
(B) Complex quantity (B) Closed circuited line
(C) Both (A) and (B) (C) Open circuited line
(D) None of the above (D) None of the above
51. For no distortion attenuation constant should 60. For measuring frequency of a microwave
be— oscillator, which system is used ?
(A) Dependent
(A) Anywire system
(B) Independent
(C) Dependent frequency (B) Lecher wire system
(D) Independent frequency (C) Both (A) and (B)
52. For no distortion phase constant b should vary (D) None of the above
linearity— —
(A) With current (B) With frequency 61. In OR laws, A + A is equal to—
(C) With voltage (D) None of these (A) One (B) Zero
53. The conditions for no distortion are ideal ones (C) Two (D) None of these
and—
(A) Can be achieved 62. The logical element may appear—
(B) Never can be achieved (A) In a few orders (B) In any order
(C) Need not be achieved practice (C) Without order (D) None of these
(D) None of these
54. The value and the nature of the load largely 63. A code is a simply a system of—
affects the basic function of— (A) Numbers
(A) A line (B) Symbols
(B) Transmission line (C) Both (A) and (B)
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these
(D) None of the above
55. In the discussion of the termination of a 64. There are …… systems of arithmetics.
transmission line, we analyse— (A) Two (B) Three
(A) Any line (C) Four (D) Five
(B) A purely lossless line
(C) A purely less line 65. Decimal number system contains …… unique
(D) None of the above symbols.
56. From load end to stub connected points the (A) 5 (B) 8
line is— (C) 9 (D) 10
(A) Non-resonant 66. Decimal number system is frequently used
(B) Resonant one number system in—
(C) Both (A) and (B) (A) Our academic life
(D) None of these (B) Out daily life
57. From stub connected point to input end the (C) Out old life
line is—
(D) None of these
(A) Resonant
(B) Non-resonant 67. In decimal number system, its base is to be—
(C) Both (A) and (B) (A) One (B) Five
(D) None of these (C) Ten (D) Nine
 Electronic Engg. | 13

68. In decimal number system, to indicates digits (C) Both (A) and (B)
greater than 9. The diggits are arranged by (D) None of these
…… on the left of decimal point.
79. Binary arithmetic or logic function are best
(A) Rows (B) Columns
carried out on numbers which involve—
(C) Line (D) None of these
(A) Zero’s
69. Binary 1010 in decimal system is equivalent (B) One’s
to—
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(A) 25 (B) 27
(C) 21 (D) 32 (D) None of these
70. Decimal 15 in binary system can be written 80. To convert binary to decimal the process is—
as— (A) Very hard (B) Easy
(A) 11 (B) 11111 (C) Not easy (D) Impossible
(C) 1111 (D) 1000 81. To convert decimal to binary, the number is
71. The high voltage level of a digital signal in successively divided by—
positive logic is— (A) Three (B) Two
(A) Zero (B) One (C) Ten (D) Four
(C) Two (D) None of these
82. The process of addition using binary number
72. Number system can be used in— is basically identical to that using—
(A) Any system (A) Any number (B) Whole numbers
(B) Electronics (C) Prime numbers (D) Decimal notation
(C) Digital electronics 83. Two’s complement arithmetic is used to
(D) None of these represent—
73. The binary number system uses only— (A) Any number
(A) One digit (B) Two digits (B) Positive number
(C) Four digits (D) None of these (C) Negative number
74. The digits used in binary system are/is— (D) None of the above
(A) Zero
(B) One 84. A group of bits having a significance is a—
(C) Both (A) and (B) (A) Bit
(D) None of these (B) Bite
75. The base in binary system is— (C) Both (A) and (B)
(A) One (B) Two (D) None of these
(C) Nine (D) Ten
85. Bite is sometimes referred to as—
76. In binary system, the positions to the left or (A) Number (B) Group
right of the binary points carry weights
(C) Prime number (D) Character
increasing or decreasing in powers of—
(A) One (B) Ten 86. A group of one or more characters used by a
(C) Five (D) Two compliter as a unit is called a—
(A) Bite (B) Bit
77. In a binary operation only …… digits are
possible. (C) Word (D) Sentence
(A) Three (B) Two 87. The decimal equivalent of hexadecimal num-
(C) Four (D) Five ber E 5 is—
78. In logic, a statement is characterised with (A) 229 (B) 325
as— (C) 220 (D) 115
(A) True 88. The minary number 101101 is equal to octal
(B) False number—
14 | Electronic Engg.

(A) 45 (B) 35 (A) OR gate (B) NOT gate

(C) 55 (D) 75 (C) AND gate (D) NOR gate
89. In converting decimal to binary 20010 is equal 97. An OR gate has inputs A, B and output as C.
to— IF A is true OR B is true, then C will be—
(A) 110011002 (B) 110010002 (A) False
(C) 100010102 (D) 011011002 (B) True
90. In converting decimal to binary 43 10 is equal (C) Both (A) and (B)
to— (D) None of these
(A) 1010112 (B) 1101012 98. The operator 0 is represented by the symbol +
(C) 1110112 (D) 1000112 and the operation may be written as—
A OR B = A + B = C
91. Which logic gate is similar to the function of
two parallel switches ? What is the name of this operation ?
(A) OR (B) NOR (A) AND operation (B) OR operation
(C) NOT operation (D) None of these
(C) AND (D) None of these
92. A combinating of AND function and NOT 99. In an OR gate in which output is true (C = 1)
function gives— when both inputs are true (A = 1 and B = 1)
then it is called—
(A) NOR gate (B) NAND gate
(A) AND gate
(C) OR gate (D) None of these
(B) OR gate
93. The maximum propagation value in case of (C) Inclusive OR gate
7400 NAND gate is— (D) None of the above
(A) 20 milli-seconds
100. The complement of (A + BC + AB) will be—
(B) Less than 20 pico-seconds
– – – – ––
(C) Greater than 20 pico-second (A) A + B (C) (B) B + AC
(D) None of the above – – –
(C) A B C (D) None of these
94. What is the name of symbol of the following
figure ? ANSWERS
1. (B) 2. (C) 3. (B) 4. (A) 5. (B)
6. (A) 7. (C) 8. (A) 9. (A) 10. (B)
11. (B) 12. (A) 13. (C) 14. (C) 15. (B)
16. (C) 17. (C) 18. (B) 19. (B) 20. (C)
(A) OR gate (B) AND gate 21. (C) 22. (B) 23. (A) 24. (B) 25. (C)
(C) NOT gate (D) NAND gate 26. (A) 27. (B) 28. (A) 29. (B) 30. (A)
31. (B) 32. (A) 33. (C) 34. (D) 35. (A)
95. What is the name of symbol of the following 36. (B) 37. (A) 38. (A) 39. (B) 40. (B)
figure ? 41. (B) 42. (C) 43. (C) 44. (B) 45. (B)
46. (A) 47. (A) 48. (C) 49. (A) 50. (B)
51. (C) 52. (B) 53. (A) 54. (B) 55. (C)
56. (A) 57. (C) 58. (B) 59. (A) 60. (D)
61. (B) 62. (A) 63. (B) 64. (C) 65. (C)
66. (B) 67. (D) 68. (A) 69. (B) 70. (C)
71. (C) 72. (B) 73. (C) 74. (A) 75. (C)
(A) NAND gate (B) AND gate
(C) NOT gate (D) OR gate 76. (B) 77. (B) 78. (A) 79. (B) 80. (A)
96. What is the name of symbol in the following 81. (B) 82. (A) 83. (C) 84. (A) 85. (C)
figure ? 86. (A) 87. (A) 88. (B) 89. (A) 90. (B)
91. (B) 92. (A) 93. (B) 94. (B) 95. (C)
96. (B) 97. (A) 98. (C) 99. (B) 100. (A)
●●
 Model Set-3
1. Scientific applications of radars can be uses (A) Radio-astronomy etc.
as— (B) Medicine
(A) A tool (C) Earth sciences
(B) A measuring tool (D) Both (A) and (B)
(C) An important tool 9. Radar is used by military for—
(D) Both (B) and (C) (A) Surveillance (B) Safety
2. Radar has vastly increased our knowledge of (C) Weapons (D) None of these
meteorology, aurora meteors and other object 10. Radar is used by military for the control of—
of the— (A) War (B) Weapons
(A) Sciences (B) World (C) Solar system (D) None of these
(C) Solar system (D) None of these 11. Surveillance radars detect and locate hostile
3. Radar can be used to guide— targets for the purpose of—
(A) Vehicle (A) Military action
(B) Space vehicles (B) Proper military action
(C) The science (C) War
(D) None of the above
(D) None of these
12. Distance Early Warning (DEW) radar/radars
4. Radar can be used to guide—
is/are used to detect the—
(A) Satellites
(A) Aircrafts
(B) Space research
(B) Enemies
(C) Solar system
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these (D) None of these
5. Radar can be used for the exploration of—
13. The Ballastic Missile Early Warning Systems
(A) Solar system radar is used to detect and track of—
(B) Interplanetary space (A) Missiles
(C) Both (A) and (B) (B) Ballastic missiles
(D) None of the above (C) International ballastic missiles
6.The techniques developed for radar have (D) Both (A) and (B)
paved the way of more advanced research 14. Airborne Interception Radars can be used to
in— guide a fighter aircraft to—
(A) Microwave (B) Solar system
(A) Its target (B) Bombing radars
(C) Science (D) Both (B) and (C)
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these
7.The techniques developed for radar have
15. One the sea …… is used.
paved the way of more advanced research
in— (A) Missile
(A) Solar system (B) Science (B) Radar
(C) Spectroscopy (D) None of these (C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
8.The techniques developed for radar have
paved the way of more advanced research 16. Radar is used by ships, large and small for
in— navigation especially in—
16 | Electronic Engg.

(A) Bad weather (A) Current (B) An e.m.f.

(B) With poor visibility (C) Voltage (D) None of these
(C) Both (A) and (B) 25. Coaxial line is best suited at—
(D) None of the above (A) Low frequencies
17. Radars are used in— (B) Any frequency
(A) Detection (C) High frequency
(B) Tracking of weather (D) Constant frequency
(C) Both (A) and (B) 26. In coaxial lines can be used at 3000 mc/s
(D) None of the above and—
18. Commercial aircrafts are equipped with (A) All frequencies
altimeters to determine their height— (B) All lower frequencies
(A) Below the ground (C) All higher frequencies
(B) Above the ground (D) None of the above
(C) Both (A) and (B) 27. Losses due to induction and radiation in
(D) None of the above coaxial line are reduced to—
19. Commercial aircrafts are equipped with (A) Minimum (B) Maximum
altimeters to determine weather avoidance (C) Constant (D) None of these
radar to navigate around— 28. Losses due to induction and radiation in
(A) Storms coaxial line are reduced to—
(B) Dangerous storms (A) Minimum (B) Maximum
(C) Both (A) and (B) (C) Constant (D) None of these
29. A coaxial line is unbalanced to—
(D) None of the above
(A) Outer effects (B) Ground
20. Chief civilian application of radar has been (C) Air (D) Water
for navigation— 30. The flexible cables are not preferred at—
(A) Marine (A) 3000 mc/s (B) 2000 mc/s
(B) Air (C) 1000 mc/s (D) 4000 mc/s
(C) Both (A) and (B) 31. Two avoids energy losses in dielectric
(D) None of these medium at high frequencies, rigid coaxial line
21. In the condition of low distortion, we com- with air as …… are employed.
pletely neglect— (A) Steel braid (B) Dielectric
(A) C (capacitance) (C) Any material (D) None of these
(B) V (potential difference) 32. Parallel wire line is usually of—
(C) R (the resistance per unit length of the (A) Two types (B) Three types
line) (C) Five types (D) Sevel types
(D) None of the above 33. A two wire line in vertical configuration is—
22. Parameters of the line are modified by the (A) Balanced structure
presence of— (B) Typical structure
(A) Currents (C) Unbalanced structure
(B) High frequency currents (D) None of the above
34. Parallel wire lines are used at frequencies of
(C) High currents the order—
(D) Both (A) and (C) (A) 200 mc/s (B) 150 mc/s
23. The nominal depth of penetration for copper (C) 300 mc/s (D) 100 mc/s
conductor is about 86 × 10–4 metres at— 35. The characteristic impedance of parallel wire
(A) 60 c/s (B) 45 c/s lines ranges from—
(C) 30 c/s (D) 80 c/s (A) 100 ohms to 300 ohms
24. When an alternating current flows in a con- (B) 200 ohms to 500 ohms
ductor, the alternating magnetic flux within (C) 300 ohms to 700 ohms
the conductor induces ? (D) None of the above
 Electronic Engg. | 17

36. When radio frequency current flows in the 44. On a Baudot system, the operator sets up
wires, a magnetic field is …… about them. combination for a certain character with the
(A) Undeveloped (B) Developed help of—
(C) Constant (D) None of these (A) Three keys (B) Five keys
37. In order that maximum of energy received by (C) Seven keys (D) None of these
the line be transferred to the load, it is essen- 45. Baudot system is, however, a—
tial to obtain the condition under which losses (A) Point system
and distortion on the line be— (B) Point to point system
(A) Minimum (B) Maximum (C) Both (A) and (B)
(C) Constant (D) None of these (D) None of the above
38. Transmission line is a device to transmit radio 46. One advantage of Baudot system is that
frequencies power from one place to— multiplex working on—
(A) Another (B) Origin (A) Time division basis
(C) Infinity (D) None of these (B) Hours
39. A device with minimum energy losses used (C) Days
for the transference of r.f. energy to some (D) Months
radiator is called a–
47. Machines utilizing the start-stop principle are
(A) Line
knows as—
(B) Transmission line
(A) Teleprinters (B) Baudot system
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(C) Signal (D) None of these
(D) None of the above
48. Teleprinters have certain advantages over—
40. The intelligence in the form of radio freque-
ncy power is available at the— (A) Type machines
(A) Transmitter (B) Ordinary type system
(B) Transmitter output (C) Baudot system
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above
(D) None of the above 49. Tape transmission is also possible in—
(A) Baudot system
41. Teleprinter is a electromechanical device by
means of which message can be sent and (B) Ordinary type machine
received on a piece of paper in typical forms (C) Both (A) and (B)
as in a/an— (D) None of the above
(A) Type-writer machine 50. In teleprinter the operator is not required to
(B) Ordinary type writer machine remember—
(C) Both (A) and (B) (A) Unit (B) The codes
(D) None of the above (C) Board (D) None of these
42. The teleprinter keyboard resembles that of 51. The mechanical devices in different models of
an— teleprinters manufactured by different firms
(A) Typewriter are—
(B) Electronic type writer (A) The same
(C) Ordinary type writer (B) Not the same
(D) None of the above (C) Not necessarily the same
(D) None of the above
43. The essential components of teleprinter are—
(A) 2 (B) 3 52. To increase the traffic handling capacity o f
the telegraph system advances were made
(C) 4 (D) 5 in—
18 | Electronic Engg.

(A) Three directions (B) Two directions (C) Both (A) and (B)
(C) Four directions (D) Five directions (D) None of these
53. There is no basic difference in the working of 62. Refer to Question 61, when they are in the
Baudot system and— form of AM signals when they are sent
(A) Teleprinter (B) Telephone over—
(C) Key (D) None of these (A) Lines (B) Radio
54. The study of Baudot system is helpful in (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these
understanding the work of— 63. Refer to Question 61, they are in the form of
(A) Telephones FM signals when they are sent over—
(B) Teleprinters (A) Lines (B) Radio
(C) Traffic engineering (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these
(D) Both (B) and (C) 64. In picture telegraphy, both the transmitter and
55. Voice frequency telegraph systems are the receiver are generally capable of being
example of— used—
(A) Multiplex (A) AM operation
(B) Division multiplex (B) FM operation
(C) Frequency division multiplex (C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above (D) None of these
56. In frequency divisions multiplex, each channel 65. If special high-definition pictures are to be
is assigned a carriering frequency which is sent, scanning is to be done of—
modulated by— (A) A very few lines per mm
(A) Channel signals (B) All lines per mm
(B) Signals (C) More lines per mm
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above
(D) None of these 66. If special high definition pictures are to be
57. Baudot system uses 5-unit— sent, scanning generally is used—
(A) Code (A) More lines per mm
(B) CCITT code (B) 4 lines per mm
(C) CCITT code No. 1 (C) Few lines per mm
(D) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above
58. Baudot distributor is a most important part 67. The main advantages of facsimile over ordi-
of Baudot system and each Baudot station is nary picture telegraphy systems are—
provided with its own— (A) 2 (B) 4
(A) Codes (C) 7 (D) 3
(B) Distributors 68. Sketch or drawing or even-message written
(C) Both (A) and (B) language not known and which cannot be
(D) None of these coded in ordinary telegraphy can be sent by—
59. Baudot Governor is used with weight (A) Steam (B) Printing
driven— (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these
(A) Distributors (B) Ring 69. Trained operators are required for—
(C) Segment (D) None of these (A) Facsimile telegraphy
60. Phonic wheel of Baudot system is made of— (B) Ordinary telegraphy system
(A) Copper (B) Iron
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(C) Steel (D) Soft iron
(D) None of the above
61. Picture telegraphy is now-a-days used not
only over lines but also over— 70. Which of the following is a semi conductor—
(A) Hydrogen (B) Oxygen
(A) Signals
(C) Ge (D) None of these
(B) Radio
 Electronic Engg. | 19

71. For facsimile communication, bandwidth is (A) Mother art (B) Art
required of— (C) Picture (D) None of these
(A) 4000 Hz (B) 3000 Hz
81. Machine language is different—
(C) 2000 Hz (D) 7000 Hz
(A) For some computer
72. For ordinary telegraphy, bandwidth is suffi-
(B) For each kind of computer c.p.u.
cient of—
(A) 150 Hz only (B) 120 Hz only (C) Both (A) and (B)
(C) 75 Hz only (D) 50 Hz only (D) None of the above
73. Facsimile is one of the original— 82. A programmer with write instruction in
(A) Arts machine language can specify an …… but
(B) Engineering arts with the numerical 1.
(C) Electrical engineering arts (A) On (B) Off
(D) Both (B) and (C) (C) Into (D) None of these
74. Facsimile was invented in— 83. Every operation that the comuter is capable of
(A) 1842 (B) 1889 performing is indicated a specific—
(C) 1924 (D) 1902 (A) Code (B) Language
75. Facsimile was invented by— (C) Lunary code (D) None of these
(A) Laplace 84. The assembly programmer must use the
(B) Newton proper code for—
(C) Alaxander Bain (A) Each operation
(D) None of these (B) Each high level language
76. The word facsimile means a/an— (C) All arithmetic operations
(A) Reproduction (D) All language
(B) Exat reproduction 85. Machine language is also called—
(C) Photocopy (A) Language
(D) None of these (B) Machine
77. Picture telegraphy means sending pictures (C) Binary representation
to— (D) None of the above
(A) One place to another place 86. An ‘on’ bit indicates the presence of an—
(B) Distant places (A) Electric current (B) Off
(C) Nearer places (C) Address (D) None of these
(D) None of the above
78. Many characteristic of signalling appeared 87. Programming language can be divided into
first in— categories—
(A) Facsimile (A) Four broad (B) Three
(B) Ordinary telegraphy (C) Five (D) Six
(C) Both (A) and (B) 88. The operating system contains—
(D) None of the above (A) Same programs repeatitively
79. There are number of technical completion and (B) Several types of programs
problems in sending a picture impression to— (C) A few programs
(A) Nearer places (D) None of the above
(B) Distant places 89. Utility programs perform—
(C) One place to another places
(A) Specialized and useful functions
(D) None of the above
(B) All functions
80. In its long development facsimile has served (C) A few functions
as a—
(D) None of the above
20 | Electronic Engg.

90. The supervisor program is the major compo- 98. The supervisor schedules the order of input
nent of the— and—
(A) System (B) Operating system (A) Other operations
(C) All system (D) Languge (B) A few operations
91. When the computer is first turn on the super- (C) Output operations
visor program is the …… to be used. (D) None of the above
(A) Last program 99. When the computers were first developed
(B) First program machine language was the only way they
(C) Middle program could be—
(D) None of the above (A) Used
92. A job is a unit of work to be processed by (B) Programmed
the— (C) Both (A) and (B)
(A) CPU (B) ALU (D) None of these
(C) TD (D) Memory 100. Assembly language is also referred as—
93. A computer can only execute instructions that (A) Low-level language
are in— (B) High-level language
(A) Secondary memory (C) Both (A) and (B)
(B) Machine language (D) None of the above
(C) Pascal
ANSWERS
(D) None of the above
94. English-like programs such as those written in 1. (A) 2. (D) 3. (B) 4. (A) 5. (B)
pascal must use for their execution, a— 6. (A) 7. (B) 8. (A) 9. (C) 10. (A)
(A) Language program 11. (B) 12. (A) 13. (B) 14. (B) 15. (A)
(B) Language translation program 16. (A) 17. (C) 18. (A) 19. (B) 20. (A)
(C) Both (A) and (B) 21. (A) 22. (C) 23. (D) 24. (C) 25. (D)
(D) None of the above 26. (C) 27. (A) 28. (B) 29. (B) 30. (A)
95. Language translation program translates the 31. (A) 32. (B) 33. (D) 34. (C) 35. (A)
English-like program into— 36. (B) 37. (B) 38. (C) 39. (C) 40. (B)
(A) Other language 41. (C) 42. (A) 43. (C) 44. (B) 45. (D)
(B) Other program 46. (B) 47. (A) 48. (B) 49. (A) 50. (B)
(C) Machine language
51. (D) 52. (B) 53. (C) 54. (B) 55. (B)
(D) None of the above
56. (B) 57. (B) 58. (A) 59. (C) 60. (B)
96. There are …… types of language translation
programs. 61. (A) 62. (B) 63. (B) 64. (C) 65. (D)
(A) Four (B) Two 66. (B) 67. (C) 68. (B) 69. (C) 70. (C)
(C) Three (D) Five 71. (B) 72. (C) 73. (B) 74. (C) 75. (B)
97. A utility program can translate date from a 76. (D) 77. (B) 78. (C) 79. (C) 80. (B)
format to— 81. (B) 82. (D) 83. (C) 84. (B) 85. (D)
(A) Another format 86. (C) 87. (A) 88. (C) 89. (B) 90. (A)
(B) Any machine language 91. (A) 92. (B) 93. (B) 94. (B) 95. (C)
(C) Output operations 96. (A) 97. (B) 98. (B) 99. (C) 100. (B)
(D) None of the above ●●
 Model Set-4
1. The term digital refers to any process that is –
accomplished using— 10. In NOT laws 1 is equal to—
(A) Zero (B) One
(A) Any unit (B) Discrete units
(C) Two (D) Three
(C) Any number (D) None of these
=
2. Discrete units mean— 11. In NOT laws A is equal to—
(A) The fingers –
(A) A (B) A
(B) Toes etc. =
(C) Both (A) and (B) (C) A (D) None of these
(D) None of these –
12. In NOT laws, if A = 0, then A is equal to—
3. Each of discrete units can be used as a unit or (A) Zero (B) Two
group of units to express— (C) One (D) Three
(A) A few numbers (B) Rational number –
(C) A number (D) Both (A) and (B) 13. In NOT laws, if A = 1, then A is equal to—
(A) One (B) Two
4. Analog numbers are represented as—
(C) Three (D) Zero
(A) Directly measurable quantities
(B) Quatities 14. In AND laws, A.O is equal to—
(C) Unmeasurable quantities (A) One (B) Zero
(D) None of the above (C) Two (D) Three
15. In AND laws A.1 is equal to—
5. Analog numbers are—
–
(A) Volts (B) Relations (A) A (B) A
(C) Distances (D) All of the above =
(C) A (D) None of these
6. For communication purpose the following
methods are used— 16. In AND laws A.A. is equal to—
(A) Digital –
(A) A (B) A
(B) Analog =
(C) Both (A) and (B) (C) A (D) None of these
(D) None of these –
17. In AND laws A. A is equal to—
7. In digital method, an analog …… is sampled. (A) Zero (B) One
(A) Number (C) Two (D) Three
(B) Wave form 18. In OR laws, A + 0 is equal to—
(C) Both (A) and (B) –
(D) None of these (A) A (B) Zero
8. A binary digit is— (C) A (D) None of these
(A) 1 (B) 2 19. In OR laws, A + 1 is equal to—
(C) 0 (D) Both (A) and (B) (A) One (B) Two
(C) Zero (D) Three
9. In laws of complementation (NOT laws) 0 is
equal to— 20. In OR laws, A + A is equal to—
(A) Zero (B) One (A) 2A (B) A
–
(C) Two (D) Three (C) A (D) Zero
22 | Electronic Engg.

21. In T.V. system— (A) All colours other than green, blue and red
(A) Picture and sound are F.M. (B) Green, blue and red
(B) Picture and sound are A.M. (C) White and blue
(C) Picture is A.M. and sound is F.M. (D) None of the above
(D) None of the above 30. Equalizing pulses in TV are sent during—
22. The linearity of a TV receiver can be cheked (A) Vertical blanking
by— (B) Horizontal blanking
(A) Multimeter (C) Both (A) and (B)
(B) Vector gram (D) None of the above
(C) Both (A) and (B)
31. Which channel has the highest frequency
(D) None of these range ?
23. A colour camera is— (A) Channel 7
(A) A combination of three or four mono- (B) Channel 5
chrome cameras with optical accessories (C) All channels have same frequency range
(B) Vidicon camera (D) None of the above
(C) Both (A) and (B) 32. In a TV receiver which stage is not necessary
(D) None of the above for producing horizontal output ?
24. The signal sent by the TV transmitter to (A) Horizontal AFC
ensure correct scanning i n the receiver are (B) Damper
called— (C) Both (A) and (B)
(A) Chrome (B) Sync (D) None of the above
(C) Video (D) None of these
33. The method of modulation of sound in TV
25. In TV if three is no brightness but sound is
system in India is—
normal the trouble could be in—
(A) Horizontal oscillator (A) Amplitude modulation
(B) Vertical oscillator (B) Frequency modulation
(C) Both (A) and (B) (C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above (D) None of the above
26. A primary colour differs from its complemen- 34. The number of frames per second in TV
tary by a phase angle of— system in India is—
π
(A) 180° (B) (A) 25 (B) 80
3
π π (C) 20 (D) 75
(C) (D)
4 6 35. The sound in video composite signal of TV
27. The three primary colours are— is—
(A) Red, orange and blue (A) FSK (B) AM
(B) Red, blue and green (C) FM (D) None of these
(C) Red, Yellow and blue 36. For 51 cm size TV the voltage required for
(D) None of the above picture tube of the order of—
28. Which of the following signal is not trans- (A) 13 KV (B) 15 KV
mitted in colour TV ? (C) 17 KV (D) 25 KV
(A) Q (B) J 37. The gain of a simple half-wave dipole over an
(C) R (D) None of these isotropic radiator is of the order of—
29. Which of the following are secondary (A) 7 dB (B) 5 dB
colours— (C) 3 dB (D) 2 dB
 Electronic Engg. | 23

38. In TV receivers, the electron beam is deflec- (C) Both (A) and (B)
ted by— (D) None of the above
(A) Electromagnetic technique 47. Nepar is—
(B) Electrostatic technique (A) Equal to decibel
(C) Both (A) and (B) (B) Smaller than decibel
(D) None of the above (C) Both (A) and (B)
39. TV broadcasting system in India is as per (D) None of the above
CCIR— 48. During heterodyne process in a receiver the
(A) System α (B) System B modulation of the signal—
(C) System A (D) System I (A) Increases
40. The illumination on screen when there is no (B) Decreases
broadcast or telecast is known as— (C) Remains constant
(A) Raster (D) Both (A) and (B)
(B) Contrast 49. In troposcatter which of the following antenna
(C) Both (A) and (B) is preferred—
(D) None of the above (A) Parabolic antenna
41. Diversity reception system is used to mini- (B) Lens antenna
mize the troubles due to— (C) Both (A) and (B)
(A) Synchronous fading (D) None of the above
(B) General fading only 50. Channel capacity is equal to—
(C) Both (A) and (B) (A) Amount of information per second
(D) None of the above (B) Noise rate
42. In ground wave propagation the absorption of (C) Band width of demand
waves— (D) None of the above
(A) Decreases with frequency 51. Which of the following noise is of great
(B) Increases with frequency importance at high frequencies ?
(C) Both (A) and (B) (A) Flicker noise
(D) None of the above (B) Transit-time noise
43. Which of the following crystal filter is used (C) Short noise
only at the higher frequencies ? (D) None of the above
52. Virtual height of an ionospheric layer is ……
(A) Half lattice (B) Ladder
the heat height.
(C) Crystal (D) None of these (A) Less than (B) Equal to
44. In communication receivers the fidelity is (C) More than (D) None of these
provided by— 53. In a radio receiver the noise is generally
(A) Audio stage increased by—
(B) Mixer stage (A) Power supply (B) Mixer
(C) Both (A) and (B) (C) Local oscillator (D) None of these
(D) None of these 54. The input of the mixer stage is—
45. In a radio receiver padders are provided— (A) RF signals only
(A) To improve tracking (B) Local oscillator signals only
(B) To p improve sensibility (C) Signals only
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above 55. When power ratios are expressed in d Bm, the
46. The ionosphere consists of— reference power is—
(A) Positive charge layer (A) 1 mW (B) 3 mW
(B) Negative charge layer (C) 2 mW (D) 5 mW
24 | Electronic Engg.

56. The effect of transit-time noise is significant (C) Necessarily unstable

in— (D) None of the above
(A) HF (B) LF 66. The damping factor of a system is unity. The
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these system is—
57. Three-point tracking is achieved by— (A) Under damped
(B) Unstable
(A) The padder capacitor
(C) Critically damped
(B) Variable selectivity (D) Both (B) and (C)
(C) Both (A) and (B) 67. The servo systems with step acceleration
(D) None of the above input is a—
58. The value of a resistor creating thermal noise (A) Type 3 system (B) Type 2 system
is doubled. The noise power generated will (C) Type 0 system (D) None of these
be— 68. A system is critically damped. Now if the
(A) Halved (B) Doubled gain of the system is increased the system will
(C) Unchanged (D) None of these have as—
(A) Under damped
59. The disadvantage of tuned radio frequency (B) Oscillatory
receiver is— (C) Critically damped
(A) Bandwidth variation (D) None of the above
(B) Instability 69. The system steady state error can be mini-
(C) Both (A) and (B) mized by—
(D) None of the above (A) Increasing system gain constant A
60. A beat frequency between 1500 KHz and (B) Decreasing damped frequency
1955 KHz is— (C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
(A) 455 KHz (B) 350 KHz
70. An amplitne can give the characteristic as—
(C) 665 KHz (D) 750 KHz
(A) Constant power
61. Open loop system is generally— (B) Constant current
(A) Complicated (B) Easier to build (C) Constant voltage
(C) Hard to build (D) None of these (D) Both (B) and (C)
62. Closed loop system is generally— 71. With feedback one of the following increa-
(A) Complicated ses—
(B) Costly (A) Gain
(C) Both (A) and (B) (B) System stability
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
(D) None of these
63. When analogy between liquid level and elec- 72. With feedback one of the following reduces—
trical system is drawn, voltage is considered (A) System stability
as analogous to— (B) System gain
(A) Head (B) Liquid flow (C) Both (A) and (B)
(C) Liquid flow rate (D) Both (B) and (C) (D) None of these
64. Under electrical system and pneumatic system 73. A system in which the control action is
analogy, current is considered analogous to— dependent upon the output is known as—
(A) Air flow rate (A) Closed loop system
(B) Velocity (B) Open loop system
(C) Both (B) and (C) (C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Air flow (D) None of the above
65. If a zero appears in the first column of the 74. If any coefficient of the characteristic equa-
Routh table, the system is— tion of a system is zero, the system is—
(A) Stable (A) Unstable
(B) Unstable (B) Stable
 Electronic Engg. | 25

(C) Both (A) and (B) (C) Vertically

(D) None of these (D) At an angle of 45°
75. Transfer function can obtained from— 84. Long distance short wave radio broadcasting
(A) Signal flow graph uses—
(B) Analogous table (A) Inospheric wave
(C) Both (A) and (B) (B) Direct wave
(D) None of the above (C) Both (A) and (B)
76. Which signal will become zero when the feed- (D) None of the above
back signal and reference signs are equal ?
85. Which of the following is a non-resonant
(A) Input signal
antenna ?
(B) Actuating signal
(A) The folded dipole
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above (B) The end fire array
(C) The broad side array
77. A signal other than the reference input that
tends to affect the value of controlled variable (D) Both (B) and (C)
is known as— 86. The ground waves disappear as one moves
(A) Command (B) Reference input away from the transmitter because of—
(C) Disturbance (D) Both (A) and (B) (A) Loss of line of sight condition
78. In an open loop system the control action— (B) Titling
(A) Is independent of the output (C) Both (A) and (B)
(B) Depends on size of the system (D) None of the above
(C) Depends on the input signal 87. Broad casting antennas are generally—
(D) None of the above (A) Vertical type
79. Which system is most sensitive to the pres- (B) Horizontal type
ence of non-linearities ? (C) Both (A) and (B)
(A) Closed loop system (D) None of these
(B) Open loop system 88. A loop antenna is commonly used for—
(C) Both (A) and (B) (A) Direction finding
(D) None of the above (B) Satellite communication
80. Which system has tendency to oscillate— (C) Radar
(A) Closed loop system (D) Both (B) and (C)
(B) Open loop system 89. The absorption of radio waves by the atmo-
(C) Both (A) and (B) sphere depends on—
(D) None of the above (A) The polarization of the atmosphere
81. For satellite of VHF, helical antenna is often (B) Frequency of the waves
used because of— (C) Both (A) and (B)
(A) Faraday effect (B) Laplace effect (D) None of the above
(C) Super reaction (D) None of these 90. A helical antenna is used for satellite tracking
82. Scatter transmission is used at frequencies— because of its—
(A) VLF (B) UHF only (A) Manoeuvrability
(C) VHF only (D) Both (A) and (B) (B) Broad width
83. In order to receive a vertically polarized (C) Good FBR
wave, the conductor of the dipole should be (D) None of these
mounted— 91. The night effect is most prominent in—
(A) At an angle of 60° (A) Vertical antenna
(B) Horizontally (B) Adcock antenna
26 | Electronic Engg.

(C) Loop antenna (B) Flat ribbon type transmission line

(D) Both (A) and (B) (C) Both (A) and (B)
92. The power gain of a half-wave dipole with (D) None of the above
respect to an isotropic radiator is— 99. Which antenna does not depend on frequency
(A) 6 dB (B) 215 dB ?
(C) 725 dB (D) 10·12 dB (A) Log periodic antenna
93. The null of a loop antenna occurs with— (B) Yagi antenna
(A) A signal off the ends (C) Both (A) and (B)
(B) A broadside signal (D) None of the above
(C) Both (A) and (B) 100. The gain of a half dipole is—
(D) None of the above (A) 1·641 (B) 1·252
94. Which of the following can make the antenna (C) 3·25 (D) 7·95
electrically longer—
ANSWERS
(A) Vertical polarisation
(B) Horizontal polarisation 1. (D) 2. (A) 3. (A) 4. (C) 5. (B)
(C) Both (A) and (B) 6. (A) 7. (A) 8. (A) 9. (C) 10. (A)
(D) None of the above 11. (B) 12. (B) 13. (B) 14. (A) 15. (A)
16. (B) 17. (B) 18. (A) 19. (A) 20. (C)
95. Anomalous propagation is due to—
21. (C) 22. (A) 23. (B) 24. (A) 25. (B)
(A) Troposcatter
26. (B) 27. (D) 28. (D) 29. (A) 30. (B)
(B) Super refractive duct
31. (C) 32. (D) 33. (A) 34. (B) 35. (C)
(C) Meteorological factors
36. (C) 37. (A) 38. (B) 39. (C) 40. (C)
(D) None of the above
41. (D) 42. (D) 43. (B) 44. (A) 45. (A)
96. The gain of a current element is— 46. (C) 47. (B) 48. (A) 49. (B) 50. (C)
(A) 176 dB (B) 252 dB 51. (B) 52. (C) 53. (B) 54. (C) 55. (B)
(C) 358 dB (D) 725 dB
56. (C) 57. (B) 58. (A) 59. (B) 60. (B)
97. Which of the following will increase the 61. (C) 62. (B) 63. (B) 64. (C) 65. (B)
antenna radiation efficiency ? 66. (B) 67. (A) 68. (C) 69. (B) 70. (C)
(A) Providing insulation on conductor 71. (A) 72. (C) 73. (C) 74. (B) 75. (B)
(B) Top loading of antenna 76. (A) 77. (B) 78. (B) 79. (D) 80. (A)
(C) Both (A) and (B) 81. (C) 82. (B) 83. (A) 84. (B) 85. (B)
(D) None of the above 86. (A) 87. (C) 88. (C) 89. (A) 90. (C)
98. A folded dipole antenna is conveniently 91. (A) 92. (A) 93. (C) 94. (A) 95. (C)
connected to— 96. (B) 97. (C) 98. (A) 99. (C) 100. (A)
(A) Two wire line ●●
 Model Set-5
1. The length of the following given antenna is (C) Selective fading
termed as— (D) Both (A) and (B)
(A) Monopole 9. Television broadcast generally uses—
(B) Hertz (A) Direct wave
(C) Both (A) and (B) (B) Inospheric wave
(D) None of these (C) Ground wave
2. An antenna is— (D) None of the above
(A) Capacitive 10. The velocity of the wave as it passes from air
(B) Inductive into ionosphere—
(C) Both (A) and (B) (A) Decreases
(D) None of these (B) Increases
3. Which of the following antenna gives circular (C) Remains constant
polarization ? (D) Both (A) and (B)
(A) Helical 11. The power gain of a half wave dipole with
(B) Dipole respect to an isotropic radiator is—
(C) Both (A) and (B) (A) 7·15 dB (B) 3·75 dB
(D) None of these (C) 7·25 dB (D) 9·25 dB
4. For aeroplane and navigation preferred frequ- 12. A parabolic antenna is commonly used at—
ency band is— (A) 5,000 MHz (B) 4,000 MHz
(A) EHF (B) VLF (C) 7,000 MHz (D) 8,500 MHz
(C) UHF (D) None of these
13. The plot of power density of the field as a
5. The frequency range for satellite communica- function of dependent coordinates in a partic-
tion is— ular coordinate system is termed as …… of
(A) 3,000 to 30,000 MHz the radiating element.
(B) 2,000 to 25,000 MHz (A) Pattern
(C) 45,000 to 65,000 MHz (B) Radiation pattern
(D) 75,000 to 1,25,000 MHz (C) Element
6. D-layer extends approximately from— (D) Both (A) and (C)
(A) 95 to 150 km (B) 50 to 90 km 14. A power pattern is proportional to the square
(C) 110 to 250 km (D) 135 to 270 km of the—
7. Which of the following is multibank HF (A) Field pattern
receiving antenna ? (B) Field strength
(A) The folded dipole (C) Field strength pattern
(B) Log periodic (D) Both (B) and (C)
(C) Square loop 15. In waveguides, they are quite simple in con-
(D) None of these struction and cartain—
8. Which type of fading causes serious distortion (A) Inner conductor
of modulated signal ? (B) No inner conductor
(A) Polarization fading (C) Both (A) and (B)
(B) Absorption fading (D) None of the above
28 | Electronic Engg.

16. Waveguides are normally filled with air due (C) Transmitter to antenna
to which dielectric loss is not of any— (D) None of the above
(A) Use 25. Large guides would be required for the trans-
(B) Importance mission of radio frequency power at—
(C) Practical importance (A) Lower wavelengths
(D) None of the above (B) Longer wavelengths
17. Over all attenuation of a waveguide is— (C) Constant wavelengths
(A) High (B) Low (D) None of the above
(C) Constant (D) Both (B) and (C)
26. Assembly language is easier for people to
18. The peak power capacity is greater than that understand than—
of—
(A) Other languages
(A) Power pattern (B) Attenuation
(B) Machine language
(C) Coaxial line (D) Both (B) and (C)
(C) A few languages
19. The maximum peak power that can be trans-
(D) None of the above
1
mitted by a 1 by in waveguide is— 27. Assembly language instructions will execute
2
(A) 2 MW (B) 1 MW faster than those written in—
(C) 2 MW (D) 5 MW (A) Different language
20. Waveguides use is restricted to— (B) A few languages
(A) Any frequency (C) High level languages
(B) Constant frequency (D) None of the above
(C) Higher frequency 28. High level language is simpler to write a
(D) None of the above program than in—
21. Installation of waveguides is much more (A) Other languages
difficult that for other types of— (B) Machine language
(A) Transmission line (C) A few languages
(B) Lines (D) None of the above
(C) Both (A) and (B) 29. High-level languages are strongly oriently
(D) None of the above toward the programmer rather than towards
22. Waveguides can also be used as— the—
(A) Fixed (A) Computer
(B) Tunable resonators (B) Other languages
(C) Both (A) and (B) (C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above (D) None of these
23. When an excited waveguide is closed by a 30. A person who does not know a particular high
perfectly conducting sheet at some point, a level can never determine the general purpose
standing wave pattern will set up along the— of the—
(A) Computer
(A) Axis of propagation
(B) Program statements
(B) Perpendicular axis of propagation (C) Both (A) and (B)
(C) Normal of axis of propagation (D) None of the above
(D) Both (A) and (B) 31. COBOL is a—
24. Waveguides in radar, deliver r.f. power (A) Language program
from— (B) Machine program
(A) Antenna (C) High-level program
(B) Antenna to transmitter (D) None of the above
 Electronic Engg. | 29

32. Pascal is a fairly new— 41. Hardware consists of the actual—

(A) Natural language (A) Main memory
(B) Programming language (B) Control unit
(C) Both (A) and (B) (C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above (D) None of these
33. Pascal was designed by— 42. Programs and data that are entered into a
(A) Niklaus Wirth (B) Blaise Pascal computer to the processed are called—
(C) Corrado Bohm (D) Guiscppe Jacopini (A) Output
34. The Pascal language was named after— (B) Input
(A) Corrado Bohm (C) Both (A) and (B)
(B) Blaise Pascal (D) None of these
(C) Guiseppe Jacopini 43. The communication between the CPU and
(D) Niklaus Wirth external modules takes place via the—
35. The Pascal language was specifically devel- (A) Data
oped to teach good— (B) Address only
(A) Language (C) Both (A) and (B)
(B) Programming (D) None of these
(C) Structured programming 44. Disk and tape drives are commonly used—
(D) None of the above (A) Hard copy
36. An important feature of Pascal is in general (B) Soft copy
purpose— (C) Secondary storage devices
(A) Language (D) None of the above
(B) Programming learning language 45. Mini computer manufactured today are more
(C) Both (A) and (B) powerful than—
(D) None of the above (A) Main frames (B) Super computers
37. In Pascal, identifiers are used to name the (C) Micro computer (D) None of these
parts of a— 46. Some programs direct the computer in its own
(A) Program internal operations. These are called—
(B) Language (A) System programs
(C) Both (A) and (B) (B) Software
(D) None of these (C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Application programs
38. A valid Pascal identifier is any string of
characters that begins with a letter (a-z) and 47. Which of the following computer is currently
contains (a-z) or digits— the smallest and least costly computer ?
(A) Supercomputer
(A) (0 – 10) (B) (0 – 9)
(B) Microcomputer
(C) (0 – 11) (D) (0 – 12) (C) Both (A) and (B)
39. The primary storage unit also referred to as— (D) None of the above
(A) Internal storage 48. A computer is device for automatically carry-
(B) Main memory primary memory ing out a/an—
(C) Both (A) and (B) (A) Program instructions
(D) None of the above (B) Information
40. A given computer system can have— (C) Instructions
(A) Many different input devices (D) None of the above
(B) Only one input device 49. One of the more modern programming lan-
(C) Two input devices guage is called—
(D) None of the above (A) Higher language
30 | Electronic Engg.

(B) Assembly language (A) Three stations

(C) Pascal (B) Two stations
(D) None of the above (C) Two equipments
50. The Arithmetic and logic operations are the (D) Two transmission lines
only types of instructions than the— 59. Distortion measured on a channel or equip-
(A) ALU is able to execute ment when the source of test signals is free
(B) CPU is able to execute from—
(C) Hardware is able to execute (A) Distortion (B) Error
(D) None of the above (C) Noise (D) None of these
51. The key board of Baudot system has got five 60. …… distinct source of distortion have been
keys placed side by side which are generally recognised—
operated by— (A) Four (B) Five
(A) Four fingers (B) Two fingers (C) Three (D) Six
(C) Five fingers (D) Three fingers 61. Fortuitous Distortion arises from any—
52. Baudot receiver prints the character received (A) Random influence
on a— (B) Transmitter
(A) Sheet paper (C) Both (A) and (B)
(B) Paper type (D) None of these
(C) Both (A) and (B) 62. Bias distortion is the consistent lengthening
(D) None of these of mark elements which is known as—
53. Telegraph signals are formed by making (A) Bias
changes in the electrical condition of— (B) Making bias
(A) A system (B) A circuit (C) Both (A) and (B)
(C) The lines (D) None of these (D) None of these
54. The basic requirement for the telegraph 63. The conception of fortuitous distortion is
signals to be transmitted is known as— closely related to the probability of occur-
(A) Telegraph modulation rence of extreme values of—
(B) Distortion (A) Displacement (B) Time
(C) Both (A) and (B) (C) Interval (D) None of these
(D) None of the above 64. The combination of characteristic and bias
distortion is often referred to as—
55. Distortion measurements are commonly mad
(A) Fortuition distortion
using some form of—
(B) System distortion
(A) Instrument
(C) Transmitter
(B) Stroboscopic instrument (D) None of the above
(C) Both (A) and (B) 65. Measurement of characteristic distortion is
(D) None of the above not associated with—
56. The degree of distortion is expressed as the (A) Any factor
percentage of the— (B) Transmission channel
(A) Interval (B) Unit interval (C) Probability factor
(D) None of the above
(C) Time (D) Both (A) and (B)
Directions—The following data is given for
57. Distortion measurements can be made sepa- each Questions 66 to 69. In a quadruple Baudot
rately on— system the distributor is divided into 24 equal
(A) Transmitters (B) D.C. lines segments—
(C) VF channels (D) All of these 66. Calculate the speed of working ?
58. Distortion measurements can be made sepa- (A) 70 bands (B) 75 bands
rately over a complete connection between— (C) 65 bands (D) 85 bands
 Electronic Engg. | 31

67. Time taken to transmitt one character is given (A) Body (B) Copy
by— (C) Original (D) None of these
(A) 5/72 sec (B) 3/25 sec 79. Resistance scanning is used for direct record-
(C) 1/2 sec (D) 7/11 sec ing of—
68. What is the instantaneous speed of each (A) Documentary book
channel ? (B) Work
(A) 125 wpm (B) 135 wpm (C) Copy
(C) 144 wpm (D) 165 wpm (D) None of the above
69. What is the actual speed of each channel ? 80. In cylindrical scanning, the photograph to be
(A) 30 wpm (B) 25 wpm scanned is wrapped around a—
(C) 15 wpm (D) 35 wpm (A) Dram
70. In the brush is rotating with a speed of 180 (B) Whole area
rpm, then the upperlimit for time of transmis- (C) Both (A) and (B)
sion in the above data of Question 66 to 69 of (D) None of the above
the satisfactory operation of the system is— 81. The scanning can be achieved by a method as
(A) 1·289 ms (B) 1·752 ms a continuous spirial like—
(C) 1·389 ms (D) 1·565 ms (A) A close spring
71. In fasimile telegraphy, the reproduced picture (B) Fine picture machine screw
should represent correctly the original picture (C) Both (A) and (B)
without— (D) None of the above
(A) Signals 82. Normally the optical scanning photograph
(B) Considerable ordinary telegraphy through—
(C) Considerable distortions (A) Two convex lenses
(D) None of the above (B) Two concave lenses
72. To get the first requirement, the process of (C) Two mirrors
scanning is— (D) None of the above
(A) Not employed 83. In India, the international telex service at
(B) Employed present works on—
(C) Both (A) and (B) (A) ARQ
(D) None of these (B) TOR
73. In scanning, the whole picture is divided (C) Both (A) and (B)
into— (D) None of the above
(A) Squares (B) Triangles 84. The teleprinter is similar in use as 99—
(C) Small squares (D) None of these (A) Type writer
74. Refer to Question 73, the square is— (B) Electrical typewriter
(A) White (C) Both (A) and (B)
(B) Black (D) None of these
(C) Either (A) nor (B) 85. International telex system is now extended
(D) None of these over—
75. Refer to Question 74, those black and white (A) 100 countries (B) 170 countries
areas are the elemental areas of— (C) 250 countries (D) The world
(A) The process (B) Picture 86. The teleprinter used in telex system is
(C) Scanning (D) None of these equipped with a—
76. The methods of scanning are— (A) Paper tape punch
(A) Three (B) Four
(B) Tape transmitter
(C) Two (D) Five
77. In optical scanning, a light spot is projected (C) Both (A) and (B)
by— (D) None of the above
(A) Electricity (B) A lamp 87. Refer to question 86. The tape transmission
(C) A candle (D) None of these allows the maximum transmission speed of—
78. In optical scanning the system exposes the (A) Teleprinter
picture of the— (B) The system
32 | Electronic Engg.

(C) Both (A) and (B) (C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these (D) None of these
88. Refer to Question 87, the speed of teleprinter 97. Refer to Question 96, the number of these
is about— district level office may vary as—
(A) To words/hour (A) Per city (B) Per country
(B) To words/minutes (C) Per location (D) None of these
(C) To words/seconds 98. Refer to Question 97, further to extend the
(D) None of the above service, these level offices are joined to—
89. In the telex exchange there are selector swit- (A) Other offices
ches namely the— (B) Sub ditric level offices
(A) Uniselector (C) Other cities
(B) The group selector (D) None of the above
(C) The final selector 99. Telex is an abbreviation of the system known
(D) A, B and C as—
90. In telex system, every subscriber station is (A) Telegraphy
provided with a unisector switch having— (B) Teleprinter
(A) 25 outlets (B) 22 outlets (C) Both (A) and (B)
(C) 32 outlets (D) 45 outlets (D) None of these
91. The telex system has the advantage that it 100. The telex system works on the lines o f a
provides a very simple means of sending— single channel—
(A) Untapped communication (A) System
(B) Self recorded form (B) Voice frequency channel system
(C) Both (A) and (B) (C) Of telegraphy system
(D) None of the above (D) None of these
92. Automatic telex can be connected to any line
in the exchange— ANSWERS
(A) Of any number 1. (B) 2. (B) 3. (A) 4. (C) 5. (A)
(B) Numbering scheme 6. (B) 7. (B) 8. (C) 9. (C) 10. (B)
(C) Without numbering scheme 11. (A) 12. (A) 13. (B) 14. (C) 15. (B)
(D) None of the above 16. (C) 17. (B) 18. (C) 19. (B) 20. (C)
93. Automatic telex design employs step by— 21. (A) 22. (C) 23. (A) 24. (C) 25. (B)
(A) Davis (B) Strowager 26. (B) 27. (C) 28. (B) 29. (A) 30. (B)
(C) Morse (D) None of these
31. (C) 32. (B) 33. (A) 34. (B) 35. (C)
94. In a telex network. There are several offices
which are big centres known as— 36. (B) 37. (A) 38. (B) 39. (C) 40. (A)
(A) Junction boxes 41. (C) 42. (B) 43. (C) 44. (C) 45. (A)
(B) Boxes 46. (A) 47. (B) 48. (A) 49. (C) 50. (B)
(C) Both (A) and (B) 51. (C) 52. (B) 53. (B) 54. (A) 55. (B)
(D) None of these 56. (B) 57. (D) 58. (B) 59. (A) 60. (C)
95. Refer to Question 94 from these junctions, 61. (A) 62. (B) 63. (A) 64. (B) 65. (C)
line goes to other big cities but not bigger 66. (B) 67. (A) 68. (C) 69. (A) 70. (B)
than— 71. (C) 72. (B) 73. (C) 74. (C) 75. (B)
(A) The network (B) Exchange 76. (A) 77. (B) 78. (B) 79. (A) 80. (C)
(C) The junction (D) None of these 81. (C) 82. (A) 83. (C) 84. (A) 85. (B)
96. Refer to Question 94 and 95, these subjec- 86. (C) 87. (A) 88. (B) 89. (D) 90. (A)
tions be of— 91. (C) 92. (B) 93. (B) 94. (A) 95. (C)
(A) Any level 96. (B) 97. (C) 98. (B) 99. (B) 100. (B)
(B) District level ●●