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STUDY QUESTIONS
CLINICAL PATHOLOGY
2. Which of the following is the mechanism of action of the drug warfarin (Coumadin)?
a) protein C
b) factor V
c) protein S
d) thrombomodulin
4. Which of the following is a standard battery of tests used in the initial evaluation of a
patient for von Willebrand's disease?
5. To which of the following proteins does heparin bind in exerting its anticoagulant
effect?
a) antithrombin III
b) protein C
c) protein S
d) alpha-2 macroglobulin
a) endothelial cells
b) red blood cells
c) white blood cells
d) macrophages
7. Which of the following is a common complication of heparin therapy?
a) increased fibrinolysis
b) thrombocytopenia
c) decreased factor VIII activity
d) peripheral vasodilation
8. Which of the following can be used to treat an overdose of heparin associated with
bleeding?
a) a proteolytic enzyme
b) a small molecular weight lipid
c) a long chain proteoglycan
d) an immunoglobulin
a) bleeding
b) thrombosis
c) neither bleeding nor thrombosis
d) slight bleeding with major arterial thrombosis
11. Which of the following are four commonly used tests for the diagnosis of DIC?
a) rheumatoid arthritis
b) severe gram negative infection
c) ulcer of the stomach
d) allergy
a) type 1
b) type 2
c) type 3
d) acquired von Willebrand's disease
15. Which factor deficiency is the most common of the choices below?
a) factor X deficiency
b) factor VIII deficiency
c) factor V deficiency
d) factor II deficiency
a) a bleeding disorder
b) a thrombotic disorder
c) both
d) neither
17. The name of the clinical condition characterized by a blood clot in the lung is:
18. This patient has a factor VIII level of 8%. His hemophilia would be classified as?
a) severe
b) moderate
c) mild
d) asymptomatic
20. Which one of the following factor deficiencies is not associated with clinical
bleeding, even if there is no factor (0%) present?
a) factor II
b) factor V
c) factor IX
d) factor XII
21. Which of the following statements is true?
22. Which of the following deficiencies or condition is not a predisposing factor for
thrombosis?
a) protein C deficiency
b) activated protein C resistance
c) protein S deficiency
d) factor XIII deficiency
23. Which of the following parameters is the most widely accepted monitor for
coumadin therapy?
24. A woman who is a carrier for hemophilia has 4 daughters and 4 sons. Which of the
following statements is true?
25. When patients must be treated with anticoagulants for pulmonary embolism, which of the
following is the most common treatment?
26. This patient has a normal PT and an elevated PTT that completely corrects in a PTT
mixing study. This patient does not have a clinical history of thrombosis or spontaneous
abortions. What would be the next best tests to perform?
28. Which of the following is the most common congenital cause for
hypercoagulability?
a) protein C deficiency
b) protein S deficiency
c) antithrombin III deficiency
d) activated protein C resistance
29. This patient has a prolonged PTT which is 65 seconds. In the mixing study, the PTT
immediately upon mixing is 35 seconds and at 60 minutes of incubation, the PTT is 55
seconds. This is most likely to represent:
a) a lupus inhibitor
b) factor XI deficiency
c) factor VIII inhibitor
d) plasminogen activator inhibitor
31. This male patient has a factor VIII level of 30%. There is a history of mild bleeding in
the family in which both men and women have been affected. Which of the following
statements is most likely to be true?
a) the patient is more likely to have von Willebrand's disease than hemophilia
b) the patient is more likely to have hemophilia than von Willebrand's disease
c) the patient is not likely to have either hemophilia or von Willebrand's disease
d) there is an equal chance that the patient has hemophilia or von
Willebrand's disease
a) the PTT
b) the PT
c) the PT and the PTT
d) neither
33. Which one of the following factors cannot be measured by assay of plasma
coagulation factors?
a) factor IX
b) factor V
c) factor VI
d) factor II
a) factor VII
b) factor IX
c) factor II
d) factor V
35. This patient has a PTT of 30 seconds (normal) and a PT of 25 seconds (prolonged).
Which of the following deficiencies is most likely?
a) factor IX deficiency
b) factor VII deficiency
c) factor XII deficiency
d) factor II deficiency
37. For patients on heparin therapy, the minimum amount of anticoagulation as judged by the
PTT is:
38. This patient has a hypercoagulation defect and is not responsive to heparin therapy. The
most likely diagnosis is:
a) protein C deficiency
b) protein S deficiency
c) antithrombin III deficiency
d) plasminogen deficiency
39. A patient has a factor VIII level of 3%. His hemophilia is classified as:
a) severe
b) moderate
c) mild
d) asymptomatic
40. This patient has a platelet count of 250,000/mL and a normal PT and PTT. The platelet
aggregation studies are abnormal. Which of the following is true?
a) the patient has a qualitative platelet disorder but not a quantitative platelet disorder
b) the patient has a quantitative platelet disorder but not a qualitative platelet disorder
c) the patient has both a quantitative and a qualitative platelet disorder
d) the patient has no platelet disorder
a) ADP
b) epinephrine
c) saline
d) collagen
a) cryoprecipitate
b) factor VIII concentrate
c) fresh frozen plasma
d) platelet concentrates
44. In the patient treated with heparin whose PTT is greater than 150 seconds and has
significant clinical bleeding, what can the patient be given to prevent the patient from
bleeding to death?
a) protamine
b) plasma
c) vitamin K
d) streptokinase
45. What is the formula for the INR?
c) INR = PT patient
PT control
a) bone marrow
b) endothelium
c) liver
d) spleen and lymph nodes
47. Among the choices below, which factor is the earliest one involved in the initiation of
coagulation?
a) XI
b) II
c) VII
d) VIII
48. Which factor gene has a mutation that increases its level in most affected patients and
predisposes to hypercoagulability?
a) V
b) IX
c) X
d) II
a) VIII
b) IX
c) VII
d) XI
50. Which factor binds to tissue factor and activates factor IX and factor X?
a) VII
b) VIII
c) VI
d) II
51. Which of the following drugs or drug class is not a platelet function inhibitor?
a) Coumadin
b) Aspirin
c) Glycoprotein IIb-IIIa inhibitors
d) Ibuprofen (an NSAID)
52. The minimum concentration which should provide normal hemostasis (assuming normal
platelet function) in a patient undergoing surgery is:
a) 5,000/µL
b) 500,000/µL
c) 1,000/µL
d) 100,000/µL
a) factor XII
b) factor XI
c) factor X
d) factor IX
a) endothelial cells
b) red blood cells
c) white blood cells
d) macrophages
a) easy bruising
b) gum bleeding with teeth brushing
c) relatives with a similar bleeding disorder
d) epistaxis with spontaneous stoppage
57. The platelet aggregation test measures:
58. Which blood type is associated with the lowest mean levels of von Willebrand factor?
a) type AB
b) type A
c) type B
d) type O
a) ITP
b) post-transfusion purpura
c) drug-induced thrombocytopenia
d) DIC
60. What is the mean level of factor VIII among female carriers of the hemophilia A gene?
a) 30%
b) 25%
c) 50%
d) 2%
a) bleeding time
b) PT and PTT
c) platelet count
d) platelet aggregation assay
65. What is the most common site for formation of a deep venous thrombosis?
a) the lungs
b) the legs
c) the arms
d) the abdomen
66. Which of the following is a critical step in the management of the patient with heparin
induced thrombocytopenia?
a) initiate warfarin
b) discontinue heparin
c) initiate heparin
d) discontinue all anticoagulants
68. Which of the following conditions is much higher in Caucasians than those of Asian or
African descent?
a) Hyperhomocysteinemia
b) Factor V Leiden
c) Antithrombin deficiency
d) Protein C deficiency
a) Arginine
b) Lysine
c) Methionine
d) Threonine
70. The thrombotic predisposition associated with an altered homocysteine level that is:
a) increased
b) decreased
c) frequently changeing
d) low, produced by high folate intake
71. The prothrombin 20210 mutation presents an increased predisposition to:
a) gum bleeding
b) thrombosis
c) bruising
d) excess bleeding with surgery
72. Fresh frozen plasma (FFP) can be used to treat an overdose of:
a) heparin
b) aspirin
c) low molecular weight heparin
d) warfarin
a) II, V, VII, X
b) II, VII, IX, XI
c) II, VII, IX, X
d) II, VII, VIII, IX
74. For patients on heparin therapy, the most commonly used test to monitor the correct
dosage is the:
a) PT
b) Thrombin time
c) Reptilase time
d) PTT
75. A man has hemophilia, has 4 daughters and 4 sons. Which of the following statements is
true?
49. a
1. c 50. a
2. b 51. a
3. b 52. d
4. b 53. d
5. a 54. b
6. a 55. a
7. b 56. c
8. b 57. b
9. d 58. d
10. a 59. d
11. a 60. c
12. b 61. d
13. a 62. a
14. a 63. a
15. b 64. d
16. b 65. b
17. b 66. b
18. c 67. b
19. b 68. b
20. d 69. c
21. c 70. a
22. d 71. b
23. c 72. d
24. b 73. c
25. a 74. d
26. a 75. c
27. c
28. d
29. c
30. c
31. a
32. a
33. c
34. d
35. b
36. d
37. c
38. c
39. b
40. a
41. c
42. d
43. b
44. a
45. b
46. c
47. c
48. d
Microbiology I and II Multiple Choice Questions
(a) There are too few organisms in the urine culture to represent significant bacteruria;
the patient does not have a UTI.
(b) Taking the findings together, there is adequate evidence of a UTI.
(c) The findings are inconclusive. Another urine culture should be sent.
(d) The findings are inconclusive. Another urine dipstick should be sent.
(a) Actinomyces
(b) Streptomyces
(c) Nocardia
(d) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
12. A lung biopsy shows an invasive fungal pneumonia. Morphologically, the organism has
relatively narrow, regularly septated, hyaline hyphae, with acute angle branching.
Although you suspect Aspergillus, which of the following cannot be ruled out?
(a) Mucor
(b) Coccidioides immitis
(c) Pseudallescheria boydii/Scedosporium apiospermum
(d) Rhizopus
13. Which of the following dimorphic fungi produces a diffusible red pigment when grown
on standard culture media?
14. A 9 year old child visits her primary care physician with signs and symptoms of pertussis
(whooping cough). The patient’s cough began 20 days prior to this visit. The child’s
mother is fairly certain that the patient was properly vaccinated. In order to confirm the
diagnosis, the clinician should:
15. When a mycobacterium is described as a scotochromogen, this means that colonies of the
organism on solid media are:
17. All of the following are characteristics of rapid growing mycobacteria except:
(a) Amoeba
(b) Flagellate
(c) Ciliate
(d) Sporozoan
19. A 20 year old pregnant female is screened for HIV using the ELISA method. The ELISA
is positive, so a Western blot is run for confirmation. The Western blot is negative. The
correct interpretation of these findings is:
(a) The Western blot result is a false negative. The patient is infected with HIV.
(b) The ELISA result is a false positive. The patient is not infected with HIV.
(c) The results are indeterminant. The ELISA should be repeated after a few months.
(d) The results are indeterminant. The Western blot should be repeated after a few months.
20. An 18 year old male presents to his primary care physician with a sore throat, a fever of
100.5 F, and enlarged submandibular lymph nodes. The clinician realizes that acute EBV
infection is in the differential diagnosis, and orders a heterophile antibody test. The test
is negative. The correct interpretation of these findings is:
(a) The patient does not have acute EBV.
(b) The patient does have acute EBV.
(c) The negative test cannot rule out acute EBV infection. The heterophile antibody test
should be repeated after a few weeks.
(d) The negative test cannot rule out acute EBV infection. There is no point in repeating
the heterophile antibody test, because if it is negative the first time, it will always be
negative.
21. A 65 year old female is recovering from a lung transplant in the hospital. She has a 2-
week old central line. She develops a fever, and blood cultures are sent. Three of four
blood culture bottles are positive for Candida glabrata. The intern taking care of her
suggests treating her with fluconazole. The attending physician should:
(a) Agree with the intern and treat with fluconazole. Fluconazole is nearly always active
against Candida glabrata.
(b) Disagree with the intern and treat with another antifungal agent (e.g. Amphotericin
B). A significant proportion of Candida glabrata isolates from blood are fluconazole
resistant.
(c) Disagree with the intern and treat with another antifungal agent (e.g. Amphotericin
B). Candida glabrata is always resistant to fluconazole.
(d) Disagree with the intern. Fluconazole is never used to treat Candidemia.
22. A 54 year old male has a history of a mitral valve replacement 18 months prior to
admission. He presented to the emergency room with fever and chills, 2 days after he
saw his dentist for a root canal. He says he did not take prophylactic antibiotics prior to
the procedure, but did take them the next day. Blood culture are drawn, and 2/4 bottles
are positive for gram positive cocci in chains. The blood cultures are subcultured to
sheep blood agar with an optochin disk. Growth on the plate shows which alpha-
hemolytic colonies that are resistant to optochin. A catalase test is negative. The bile
esculin test is positive, but the PYR test is negative, and the isolate cannot grow in the
presence of 6.5% NaCl. The correct identification of this organism is:
(a) Streptococcus pyogenes
(b) Streptococcus pneumoniae
(c) Viridans streptococcus
(d) Streptococcus bovis
Answers: for Microbiology I & II – John Branda, MD
1. E
2. A
3. B
4. A
5. D
6. A
7. B
8. D
9. B
10. D
11. C
12. C
13. B
14. A
15. B
16. C
17. C
18. B
19. D
20. C.
21. B
22. D
ASCP Review Course
Review Questions: Blood Banking and Transfusion Medicine
The answers to these questions may be found in the handout and in a key at the end of this
section.
2. Group A donor red blood cells may be safely transfused to a patient with no
unexpected alloantibodies who is group AB because:
a. A 53 year old woman who was taking Soriatane for psoriasis until 22
montha ago.
b. A 45 year old man taking Propecia for male pattern baldness.
c. A 46 year old woman who took Tegison for psoriasis about 8 years ago.
d. A 23 year old man who was taking Accutane for acne until 3 weeks ago.
e. A 67 year old man who was taking Proscar for benign prostatic
hypertrophy but stopped the drug 5 weeks ago.
a. Unused units may be used for other patients if the autologous donor has
met all of the eligibility requirements.
b. The donation must be made 96 hours before the day of surgery.
c. The donor must meet the routine requirements for allogeneic donation.
d. A 7 day interval between donations is required.
e. A donor with a hemoglobin level of 11 g/dl is eligible.
9. Which storage period and anticoagulant/preservative system are incorrectly
paired?
a. ACD: 21 days.
b. CPD: 21 days.
c. CPDA: 35 days.
d. CP2D: 35 days
e. AS: 42 days.
10. The reason for removing glycerol from frozen-thawed RBCs by extensive
washing is:
11. A mating between which two ABO phenotypes could produce children with any
of the common four blood types (A, B, O and AB)?
a. AB and AB
b. AB and O.
c. AB and A.
d. AB and B
e. A and B.
12. Which of the following viral test is not required of each unit of donated blood
according to the AABB Standards?
a. HBsAg.
b. Anti-HBs.
c. Anti-HCV.
d. Anti-HIV-1/2.
e. Anti-HTLV-I/II.
Sample D C c E e
patient's red cells + - + + +
a. Ror"
b. R1r
c. R1R2
d. R2r
15.Which of the following phenotypes or are more common in Blacks than in
Whites?
a. Dce (R°).
b. Js(a+b+).
c. Fy(a-b-).
d. Le(a-b-).
e. All of the above.
16. A 32 year old Rh(D) negative woman (G2P1) presents for routine antenatal care.
She delivered a healthy baby boy who was Rh(D) positive a year ago. During that
pregancy, she received 1 dose of Rh immune globulin at 28 weeks of gestation
and the day after the baby was delivered. A rosette test done at the time of
delivery was negative. Her antibody screen now demonstrates anti-D + anti-C.
She has no history of transfusion. Antigen testing of the patient, her husband, and
her one year old reveals:
________________ Typing Antisera____________
_________Anti-D___Anti-C___Anti-E___Anti-c___Anti-e___
Patient - - - + +
Father + - - + +
Infant + - - + +
a. Group A, Rh negative.
b. Group O, Rh positive.
c. Group A, weak D.
d. Group A, Rh positive.
e. Group O, Rh negative.
O O O O 2+ O 4+ 4+
20. A 45 year old man was the victim of an industrial accident three years ago at
which time he received 47 units of RBCs. When he was admitted though the
emergency room, he was found to be A, Rh (D) negative with a negative antibody
screen. During his 4 week hospitalization, however, he developed the following
alloantibodies: anti-D, -C, -E, -K, -S, and -Jkb. In the past few years, he has
donated 3 units of autologous blood which have been stored frozen. He is now
admitted with a lower GI bleed and the clinicians have ordered RBC transfusions.
However, in the time it took to deglycerolize his autologous units, the patient has
been stabilized and his hemoglobin level seems to be holding steady around 9.7
g/dL. A medical director of the blood bank, what should you do?
21. With respect warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia, all of the following are
generally true except:
a. hypothermia
b. increased P50
c. hypokalemia
d. thrombocytopenia
23. The patient is group A, Lea, non-secretor. Which one of the following is true?
a. A A, Lea
b. A, Lea none
c. A, Lea A, Lea
d. A, Lea Lea
24. The McLeod phenotype is associated with all of the following except:
a. Glycophorin A.
b. Glycophorin B.
c. Glycophorin C.
d. Glycophorin D.
e. None of the above.
26. A blood donor of which ethnic background is most likely to lack the U antigen?
a. Native American.
b. European.
c. Asian.
d. African.
e. Pacific Islander.
27. Compared to one unit of fresh frozen plasma, one unit of cryoprecipitate has:
28. Which characteristic of cold red cell autoantibodies is the most predictive of
hemolysis?
a. titre
b. thermal amplitude
c. specificity
d. clonality
29. "Naturally" occurring antibodies are found to which one of the following groups of
carbohydrate blood group antigens?
30. For the purpose of drawing samples for pretransfusion testing, which of the
following forms of patient identification would not be adequate?
a. A sample labeled at the patient’s bedside with the patient’s full name and
hospital number.
b. A sample labeled at the patient’s bedside with the date, patient’s full
name, and the phlebotomist’s initials.
c. A sample labeled at the nursing station with the patient’s full name,
hospital number, date and initials of the phlebotomist.
d. A sample labeled in the hallway outside the patient’s room with the
patient’s full name, hospital number, the date, and initials of the
phlebotomist.
e. A sample labeled at the patient’s bedside with the patient’s full name and
the hospital number and the date.
a. headache
b. renal failure
c. urticaria
d. agranulocytosis
e. all of the above
33. A 43-year-old female patient with multiple admissions for upper GI bleeding and
associated with longstanding alcohol abuse presents to the emergency room
vomiting large volumes of bright red blood. She has a heart rate of 110 bpm and
a systolic blood pressure of 58 mm Hg. Which one of the following blood is the
least appropriate in this situation?
34. Your patient develops urticaria and mild dyspnea while receiving the second of
two units of fresh frozen plasma. You should do all of the following except:
36. Your patient with AML has been receiving platelet transfusions for chemotherapy
induced thrombocytopenia. The morning platelet count has been 3,000 to
5,000/µL for the past four days despite receiving 6 to 12 units of platelet
concentrates a day. You should:
37. The P system differs from all of the other carbohydrate blood group systems in one
of the following characteristics:
38. All of the following are complications of transfusion in sickle cell disease except:
a. Iron overload.
b. Formation of rare antibodies.
c. Formation of autoantibodies.
d. Formation of multiple antibodies.
e. Delayed hemolytic transfusion reactions
39. The most common cause of transfusion-associated mortality reported to the FDA
is:
a. Transfusion-associated HCV infection.
b. Posttransfusion purpura (PTP).
c. Transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI).
d. Intravascular hemolytic transfusion reaction due to ABO incompatibility.
e. Transfusion-associated graft-vs-host disease (TA-GVHD).
40. Graft-vs-host disease is mediated principally by which cell type?
a. B cells.
b. T cells.
c. Monocytes.
d. NK cells.
e. Progenitor cells.
41. A patient undergoing plasmapheresis for acute myesthenic crisis develops nausea
and tingling lips. The blood pressure is stable. The patient’s symptoms would
probably be relieved by:
42. The first line of transfusion/infusion therapy in the rapidly bleeding patient should
be:
43. A1 and A2 red blood cells differ in the which of the following properties?
a. quantity of A antigen
b. agglutination by Dolichos biflorus lectin
c. presence of unique A antigens on A1 cells
d. all of the above
44. The first step in dealing with a suspected hemolytic transfusion reaction should
be:
a. send a properly labelled specimen to the blood bank
b. evaluate the patient
c. stop the transfusion
d. administer crystalloid
45. Which statements about the weak D phenotype is true?
46. On the red blood cell, the AB antigens are found predominantly as part of which
structures?
a. glycolipids
b. actin * spectrin * 4.1 complex
c. glycoproteins
d. glycophorin A
47. Mothers of infants with ABO-HDN are more likely to be of which blood group?
a. A
b. B
c. AB
d. O
e. Equally likely among ABO groups
48. A 33-year-old Rh(D) negative woman (G2P1) is seen for a routine antenatal visit
at 17 weeks into her second pregnancy and is found to have an anti-D titer of 16.
The most appropriate recommendation is to:
49. A 68-year-old, O Rh(D) negative man is found to have anti-D in his serum on his
pre-operative work-up for repair of an abdominal aortic aneurysm. Post-
operatively, he is receives 6 units of platelet concentrates, 4 of which are Rh(D)
positive and 2 of which Rh(D) negative. Your recommendation to the surgeon
should be:
O a. anti-A
A b. anti-A, anti-B, anti-A,B
B c. anti-A1
AB d. anti-B
e. anti-O
f. none
51. Pathologic cold autoantibodies usually have specificity for which of the following
antigens?
a. P and I/i
b. Le and I/i
c. Se and I/i
d. P and Le
52. Which of the following is the safest transfusion of packed red blood cells?
Assume that the recipients do not have any unexpected red cell alloantibodies.
Donor Recipient
a. O Rh+ O Rh-
b. A Rh- AB Rh+
c. A Rh- O Rh-
d. AB Rh- O Rh+
56. Which factor(s) contributing to hemolytic disease of the newborn are removed
during exchange transfusion?
a. Antigen.
b. Antibody
c. Antigen and antibody.
d. Antigen and bilirubin.
e. Antigen, antibody, and bilirubin.
57. Intravascular hemolytic transfusion reactions are most commonly due to
antibodies directed against antigens in which of the following blood group
systems?
a. ABO.
b. Duffy.
c. Kell.
d. Kidd
e. Rh.
58. A 4-year-old boy with ALL has received chemotherapy and has a hematocrit of
20%. He is transfused with a 150-mL aliquot of RBCs without complications.
The following day, 20 minutes after the transfusion of a second 150 mL aliquot of
RBCs is initiated, he began to cough and complain of difficulty breathing. The
nurse discovered that his temperature had gone up by 2C but his other vital signs
remained stable. His respiratory status continued to decline and he was intubated.
The most likely reason for his apparent reaction to transfusion is:
a. Factor VIII:C
b. Factor V
c. Factor XIII
d. Factor IX:C
e. von Willebrand Factor
a. HIV
b. HCV
c. Yersinia enterocolitica.
d. Coagulase negative Staphylococci.
e. HBV
a. HAV.
b. HBV.
c. HCV.
d. HDV.
e. HEV.
63. Which of the following components can transmit CMV the most effectively?
a. FFP.
b. Cryoprecipitated AHF.
c. Platelets Pheresis, Leukocytes Reduced.
d. RBCs.
e. Frozen deglycerolized red cells.
66. T-cell depletion of allogeneic HPCs is associated with all of the following except:
67. A 24-year-old woman, type B Rh(D) positive, undergoes a peripheral blood stem
cell transplant. The donor is type O Rh(D) negative. This is an example of a:
a. Major ABO mismatch.
b. Minor ABO mismatch.
c. Major-minor ABO mismatch.
d. None of the above
68. The test which is least important for matching a kidney donor with a recipient is:
a. ABO typing.
b. Rh typing.
c. HLA typing.
d. Mixed lymphocyte culture (MLC) testing.
e. Lymphocytotoxicity testing.
69. A family has been typed for HLA because one of the children needs an HPC
transplant. The typing results are as follows:
a. B1
b. B8
c. B12
d. B18
e. B35
70. The antigen system in humans which is the most highly polymorphic is:
a. ABO.
b. MNSs.
c. Rh.
d. HLA.
e. HTLA.
a. Plasma.
b. Platelets.
c. Lymphocytes.
d. Red cells.
e. Granulocytes.
72. Fresh frozen plasma is indicated for the replacement fluid for which of the
following diseases?
a. 8.2
b. 7.2
c. 6.2
d. 5.2
e. 4.2
a. 90%
b. 70%
c. 50%
d. 30%
e. 25%
75. The use of CMV ‘reduced’risk” cellular blood components is recommended for
all of the following patients except:
Brecher, Mark E., ed. Technical Manual. 15th ed. Bethesda, MD: American
Association of Blood Banks, 2005. A good, readable, basic text. This text and
Standards listed below can be ordered from the AABB on-line (www.aabb.org).
Standards for blood banks and transfusion services. 23nd ed. Bethesda, MD,
American Association of Blood Banks, 2004. A basic reference.
Simon TL, Dzik WH, Snyder E, Stowell CP, Strauss RG, eds. Principles of
Transfusion Medicine. 3nd edition. Philadelphia, PA: Lippincott, Williams and
Wilkins, 2002. A more in-depth text with a stronger focus on medical, as
opposed to technical, aspects of transfusion medicine (www.lww.com).
Questions for Molecular Diagnostics and Genetics Talk
1. Which of the following syndromes carries the greatest risk for uterine
(endometrial) cancer?
a. Cystic fibrosis
b. Li-Fraumeni syndrome
c. Hereditary breast/ovarian cancer syndrome
d. Familial adenomatous polyposis
e. Hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer
2. Which of the following syndromes is most closely associated with elevated levels
of hemoglobin A2?
a. Canavan disease
b. Tay-Sachs disease
c. Alpha-thalassemia
d. Beta-thalassemia
e. Sickle cell anemia
III-1 III-2 III-3 III-4 III-5 III-6 III-7 III-8 III-9 III-10 III-11
a. aa
b. Aa
c. AA
d. (a) or (b)
e. (b) or (c)
a. aa
b. Aa
c. AA
d. (a) or (b)
e. (b) or (c)
6. A male is affected with a mild autosomal dominant trait. What is the risk that his
first daughter will be affected with the same trait?
a. 100%
b. 75%
c. 50%
d. 25%
e. 0%
7. From question 6, this same male has three affected daughters and three affected
sons. What is the risk that his fourth son will be affected with the same trait?
a. 100%
b. 75%
c. 50%
d. 25%
e. 0%
a. Interphase
b. Prophase
c. Metaphase
d. Anaphase
e. Telophase
9. Which of the following karyotypes is an example of a human aneuploidy?
a. 46, XY
b. 69, XXX
c. 23, X
d. 68, XY
e. 69, XXY
10. A pregnant woman comes to your office and reports the following family history.
Based on this pedigree, what is the most likely pattern of inheritance of the
condition in her family? (The arrow points to the patient. The diamond represents
the patient’s fetus, sex unknown.)
a. Autosomal dominant
b. Autosomal recessive
c. X-linked recessive
d. Mitochondrial
e. Multifactorial
11. Based on the above pedigree, what is the risk that the proband’s fetus is affected?
a. 100%
b. 67%
c. 50%
d. 25%
e. 0%
12. Based on the pedigree from question 10, amniocentesis is performed to determine
the sex of the proband’s fetus. The karyotype is reported as 46, XX. What is the
risk that her fetus will be affected?
a. 100%
b. 67%
c. 50%
d. 25%
e. 0%
13. Based on the pedigree from question 10, amniocentesis is performed to determine
the sex of the proband’s fetus. The karyotype is reported as 46, XY. What is the
risk that her fetus will be affected?
a. 100%
b. 67%
c. 50%
d. 25%
e. 0%
14. Which of the following techniques is most frequently used in the amplification of
RNA?
a. FISH
b. LCR
c. PCR
d. TMA
e. RT-PCR
a. VNTRs
b. L1 family
c. Satellite DNA
d. Alu family
e. Trinucleotide repeats
Answers: for Molecular Diagnostics and Genetics Talk – John Branda, MD
3. All of the following are typical for hairy cell leukemia, except:
A. Cytopenias and splenic involvement
B. Ribosome-lamellar complexes and TRAP positivity
C. Prominent nucleoli and lymph node involvement
D. Blood lakes and mast cells
E. Expression of CD103 and CD11c
8. A patient with an artificial heart valve presents with anemia, elevated LDH, and
elevated unconjugated bilirubin. On a peripheral blood smear which would you expect to
find?
A. Microspherocytes
B. Sickle cells
C. Schistocytes
D. Macro-ovalocytes
E. Rouleaux
9. Which is false?
A. The serum EPO should be elevated in chronic lung disease.
B. The serum EPO should be elevated in hemolytic anemia.
C. The serum EPO should be elevated in polycythemia vera.
D. The serum EPO should be elevated in cerebellar hemagioblastoma.
E. The serum EPO should be elevated in high oxygen-affinity hemolgobins.
10. All of the following are consistent with a chronic hemolytic disorder, except:
A. Increased LDH
B. Decreased bilirubin
C. Decreased haptoglobin
D. Increased reticulocytes
E. Gallstones
12. Expected hematologic findings in the Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome include all of
the following, except:
A. Thrombocytopenia
B. Neutrophilia
C. Increased hematocrit
D. Increased lymphoblasts
E. Toxic granulation
13. The immunophenotype that characterizes acute promyelocytic leukemia (APML)
includes:
A. CD34 positive
B. CD13 negative
C. Tdt positive
D. HLA-DR negative
E. CD235 positive
15. Which of the following typically involves the marrow in the form of paratrabecular
lymphoid aggregates?
A. Burkitt’s leukemia
B. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
C. Mantle cell lymphoma
D. Follicular lymphoma
E. Splenic lymphoma with villous lymphocytes
18. All of the following are associated with a milder clinical course than typical sickle
cell (SS) disease, except:
A. S-α thalassemia
B. S-β thalassemia
C. S-C (SC disease)
D. S-HFPH (S-hereditary persistence of fetal hemoglobin
E. S-A (sickle cell trait)
19. All of the following are associated with Heinz bodies, except:
A. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency
B. Hemoglobin Hasharon
C. Sulfhemoglobinemia
D. Hemoglobin H disease
E. Pyruvate kinase deficiency
23. When this is seen on flow cytometry, all of the following are true, except:
A. The differential diagnosis includes chronic lymphocytic leukemia
B. The differential diagnosis includes mantle cell lymphoma
C. The differential diagnosis includes marginal zone lymphoma
D. CD23 expression will be important in this differential
E. FMC-7 expression will be important in this differential
1. C
2. D
3. C
4. E
5. E
6. A
7. B
8. C
9. C
10. B
11. B
12. E
13. D
14. A
15. D
16. B
17. E
18. B
19. E
20. B
21. D
22. A
23. C
24. C
25. B
ASCP Immunology Review Course Study Questions 1-100
A) Anti-mitochondrial antibodies
B) Increased IgM levels
C) Anti-smooth muscle antibodies
D) Female predominance
5) All of the following are examples of type III hypersensitivity reactions EXCEPT:
A) SLE
B) Serum sickness
C) Arthus reactions
D) Contact dermatitis
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7) Hyperimmunoglobulin M syndrome is characterized by which ONE of the following:
A) Female predominance
B) Autosomal recessive inheritance
C) Markedly decreased levels of CD19 positive B cells
D) Deficiency in CD40 ligand (CD154) on T cells
A) Hypocalcemia
B) Lack of a thymus
C) Autosomal dominant inheritance
D) Failure of development of 3rd and 4th pharyngeal pouches
A) Decreased C4
B) Decreased Factor B
C) Decreased functional C1 esterase inhibitor
D) Decreased CH50
A) C1
B) C2
C) C4
D) C9
11) All of the following are features of MGUS (monoclonal gammopathy of unknown
significance) EXCEPT:
A) Monoclonal IgG
B) Polyclonal IgG and polyclonal IgM
C) Monoclonal IgM and polyclonal IgG
D) Monoclonal IgA
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B) Often have high-level rheumatoid factor activity
C) Also known as "mixed cryoglobulinemia"
D) Strong association with Waldenström's macroglobulinemia
14) All of the following are associated with Sjogren's syndrome EXCEPT:
A) Antibodies verus SS-A (Ro) and SS-B (La) are commonly seen
B) Positive ANA in 100%
C) Female predominance
D) Dry mouth and dry eyes
15) Which of the following sets of lab results are most associated with Mixed Connective
Tissue Disease?
16) Given the following set of lab results which diagnosis is most likely?
A) Anti-mitochondrial antibodies
B) Anti-smooth muscle antibody
C) Anti-LKM-1 (Liver-kidney-microsomal) antibodies
D) Anti- Ku
18) Patient is a 60-year-old male with a history of recurrent mouth sores and flaccid skin
blisters. A biopsy of peri-lesional mucosa will likely show:
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A) IgG and C3 in a “honeycomb pattern”
B) IgA deposition at the dermal papillae
C) No immune deposits
D) IgG and C3 in a linear band at the dermal-epidermal junction
A) SLE
B) IgG myeloma
C) Autoimmune hepatitis
D) HCV
20) Light chain deposition disease (LCDD) can be differentiated from amyloidosis by:
21) In immunoglobulin heavy chain diseases the light chains are not found in association
with the heavy chains since:
A) The light chains have failed to rearrange productively in the developing B cells
B) The light chains are deleted
C) The light chains are mutated
D) Internal deletions are present in the monoclonal heavy chains
22) Regarding Bence Jones proteins (BJP) which of the following is true:
A) IgA
B) IgG
C) IgM
D) IgD
24) The protein involved in the most common form of secondary amyloidosis is:
A) Prealbumin
B) Lambda light chain
C) Kappa light chain
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D) Serum amyloid A
25) The diagnostic criteria for Allergic Bronchopulmonary Aspergillosis include all of
the following EXCEPT:
A) History of asthma
B) Elevated IgE
C) Serum precipitating antibodies to Aspergillis
D) Skin test reactivity to Aspergillis
26) The following statements regarding Hypersensitivity Pneumonitis (HP) are true
EXCEPT:
27) Contraindications to skin prick testing include all of the following EXCEPT:
28) The type of anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibody (ANCA) that may be found in
association with ulcerative colitis is which of the following:
A) cANCA
B) pANCA
C) Atypical pANCA
D) None of the above
29) Which of these diseases is not commonly associated with anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic
antibody (ANCA) positivity?
A) Wegener’s Granulomatosis
B) Polyarteritis Nodosa
C) Microscopic Polyangiitis
D) Churg-Strauss
30) When tested for the ANCA in the indirect immunofluorescence assay, a patient’s
serum stains the cytoplasm of ethanol-fixed human neutrophils. What is the most likely
antigen?
A) Cathepsin G
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B) Proteinase 3
C) Myeloperoxidase
D) Elastase
31) Rheumatoid factor is commonly elevated in all of the following diseases EXCEPT:
A) Sjogren’s syndrome
B) Rheumatoid arthritis
C) SLE
D) Celiac disease
32) Which of the following assays is most specific for rheumatoid arthritis?
A) Rheumatoid factor
B) Anti-Citrullated Cyclic Peptide
C) C-reactive protein
D) Anti-Scl-70
33) A patient presents with proximal muscle weakness, a scaly rash on the extensor
surfaces of her fingers, and the following labs:
ANA positive at 1:1280 on HEp-2 cells, speckled pattern
Anti-Jo-1 positive
Muscle biopsy shows perivascular, perifascicular infiltrates
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Polymyositis
B) Dermatomyositis
C) Inclusion body myositis
D) SLE-related myositis
A) Lymphoma
B) Renal failure
C) Pulmonary hypertension
D) Dry eyes
35) Autoantibodies commonly seen in scleroderma include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) Anti-Scl-70
B) Anti-centromere
C) Anti-RNA polymerase I
D) Anti-Smith
36) When tested for the ANCA in the indirect immunofluorescence assay, a patient’s
serum stains ethanol-fixed human neutrophils in a perinuclear distribution. When the
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serum is tested on formalin-fixed neutrophils, staining is seen in a cytoplasmic
distribution. The patient’s antibody is the most likely directed against which antigen?
A) Myeloperoxidase
B) Elastase
C) Proteinase 3
D) None of the above
37) What is the antibody most highly associated with neonatal Lupus?
A) Anti-dsDNA
B) Anti-Smith
C) Anti-Ro
D) Anti-Scl-70
38) Infections with all of the following organisms are associated with T cell deficiency
EXCEPT:
A) Neisseria
B) Candida
C) Listeria monocytogenes
D) Pneumocystis
39) What syndrome is associated with defects in the Fas-dependant apoptotic cell death
pathway?
40) All of the following are true about X-linked agammaglobulinemia EXCEPT:
41) In acute phase reactions the following are typically observed on serum protein
electrophoresis EXCEPT:
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42) The allelic phenotype in alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency that is at highest risk for
emphysema is:
A) PiMM
B) PiSS
C) PiSZ
D) PiZZ
43) A patient with Waldenstrom’s has a serum viscosity of 3.5 (nl 1.4-1.8). What
symptoms would this patient most likely have that are attributable to the increased
viscosity?
A) Stroke
B) Diplopia
C) Epistaxis
D) No symptoms
47) A newborn presents with a history of delayed separation of the umbilical cord,
leukocytosis and numerous abscesses. What diagnosis is suggested by these findings?
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D) Chronic granulomatous disease
49) These autoantibodies are most highly associated with Mixed Connective Tissue
disease:
A) Anti-U1-RNP
B) Anti-U3-RNP (fibrillarin)
C) Anti-RNA polymerase I
D) Anti-Ro
50) The autoantibody that may be used to follow the activity of nephritis in SLE patients
is:
A) Anti-Smith
B) Anti-dsDNA
C) Anti-histone
D) Anti-Ro
51) The test with the highest negative predictive value for SLE:
A) Anti-Smith
B) Anti-dsDNA
C) ANA by indirect immunofluorescence on HEp-2 cells
D) Anti-Ro
A) Caused by mutations within the MHC class II genes (DR, DP, DQ)
B) Presents in first year of life with recurrent diarrhea and infections
C) Lack of CD4+ T cells
D) Lack of MHC class II on B cells
Page 9 of 18
54) All of the following are characteristic of common variable immunodeficiency
EXCEPT:
56) The majority of patients with plasmacytomas have all of the following EXCEPT:
57) Plasma cell leukemia can be differentiated from multiple myeloma (MM) by which
ONE of the following:
A) Lupus nephritis
B) Goodpasture's syndrome
C) Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis
D) Cryoglobulinemia
Page 10 of 18
60) Total hemolytic complement levels are decreased in all of the following EXCEPT:
A) Hereditary angioedema
B) Type I glomerulonephritis
C) Acute phase reactions
D) Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
A) Positive
B) Negative
63) In serum protein electrophoresis the pattern seen in cirrhosis is which of the
following:
64) All of the following are true regarding celiac disease EXCEPT:
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D) Involves scratching the skin with the allergen of interest
66) All of the following are true regarding selective IgA deficiency EXCEPT:
68) Laboratory testing supportive of a diagnosis of multiple sclerosis include all the
following EXCEPT:
69) All of the following are true regarding Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome EXCEPT:
70) Patient has a history of recurrent attacks of abdominal pain (diagnosed as peritonitis,
culture negative) and fever since age 6. During attacks the CRP is noted to be elevated.
The patient is now 30 and has nephrotic syndrome secondary to amyloidosis. What is the
most likely diagnosis?
71) In question #70 the patient’s type of amyloid would be expected to be:
A) AL amyloid
B) AF amyloid
C) AA amyloid
Page 12 of 18
D) None of the above
A) Anti-Yo
B) Anti-myelin
C) Anti-Purkinje cell
D) Anti-Hu
73) Reticular dysgenesis can be distinguished from other forms of SCID by:
74) The patient is a 49 year old female complaining of arthralgias, dry mouth and dry
eyes. Testing reveals a strongly positive ANA (>1:5120, speckled). Assays for anti-
Smith, anti-dsDNA, anti-Ro, anti-La, anti-U1RNP, and anti-Scl-70 are all negative.
Which of the following statements is most likely to be correct?
75) All of the following are true regarding linear IgA dermatosis EXCEPT:
76) A patient with IDDM who subsequently develops Graves disease and adrenal
insufficiency should be suspected of having:
Page 13 of 18
77) A wavy band is noted on serum protein electrophoresis located between transferrin
and C3. The patient is also noted to have a decreased albumin and high-level proteinuria.
What is the protein that corresponds to the wavy band?
A) C-reactive protein
B) IgA M component
C) Lipoprotein B
D) Lipoprotein A
78) A 55-year-old male patient presents with an acutely painful right knee. Synovial
fluid analysis demonstrates an inflammatory joint fluid with a negative gram stain.
Crystal analysis shows numerous birefringent needle shaped crystals. Which ONE of
these statements is correct:
A) The etiology of the disease in this patient is most likely to be overproduction of uric
acid.
B) The knee is the joint most commonly affected in this disease
C) The crystals would be expected to show strong positive birefringence
D) The crystals in this patient would be expected to be yellow when parallel to the axis of
the red compensator on polarized microscopy
80) All of the following are true regarding alpha heavy chain disease EXCEPT:
Page 14 of 18
A) ↓Albumin
B) ↑Alpha-2-macroglobulin
C) ↓Transferrin
D) ↑Alpha-1-anti-trypsin
83) The percentage of healthy persons with a HEp-2 IIF assay positive at a 1:160 dilution
of serum is approximately:
A) <1%
B) 5%
C) 15%
D) 33%
85) All of the following are associated with Graves disease EXCEPT:
86) All of the following are true of chronic granulomatous disease (CGD) EXCEPT:
A) Patients present before age 5 with infections involving catalase positive organisms
B) CGD is due to mutations in the NADPH-oxidase enzyme
C) CGD may be associated with deficiency in Kx (McLeod phenotype)
D) CGD is X-linked so all CGD patients are males
88) All of the following statements are true of drug-induced ANA positivity EXCEPT:
Page 15 of 18
A) It is associated with procainamide, hydralazine, and izoniazid
B) Antibodies directed against histone H2A-H2B complex are found in most patients
C) Anti-Smith antibodies are found in 30% of patients
D) Lupus-like symptoms occur in only a small percentage of ANA positive patients
89) All of the following statements are true of Anti-Jo antibodies EXCEPT:
90) A patient with the Bombay phenotype (lack of H antigen on their RBCs) also has
severe mental retardation and recurrent childhood infections. What is the likely
diagnosis?
Page 16 of 18
94) A SLE-like disorder may result in patients with genetic deficiencies in all of the
following proteins EXCEPT:
A) C1
B) C2
C) C4
D) C5
96) The following diseases may be associated with secondary or reactive amyloidosis
EXCEPT:
A) Chronic infection
B) Multiple myeloma
C) Familial Mediterranean fever
D) Rheumatoid arthritis
97) A male patient first presented to medical attention at four years of age with a case of
severe infectious mononucleosis with hepatic necrosis. Following recovery from this
episode, at age 7, the patient is noted to have severe lymphopenia and
hypogammaglobulinemia. What is the likely diagnosis?
98) The most common monoclonal immunoglobulin found in multiple myeloma is:
A) IgAκ
B) IgAλ
C) IgGκ
D) IgGλ
A) Serum sickness
B) Gram negative sepsis
C) Cryoglobulinemia
D) Hereditary angioedema
Page 17 of 18
100) The albumin band is slurred anodally in a patient’s serum protein electrophoresis.
The remainder of the SPEP is within normal limits. This is commonly due to:
Answer Key:
Page 18 of 18
Chemistry Review Questions ⎯ Kent Lewandrowski, M.D. and Anand Dighe M.D., Ph.D.
1. All of the following are true of Troponin testing for myocardial infarction except:
a) Troponin typically rises after approximately 6 hours following infarction, peaks after 1-1-½
days, and may remain elevated for 7 days or more.
b) Troponin is the new “gold standard” marker for acute myocardial infarction.
c) Elevations in Troponin may reflect myocardial necrosis, but are not elevated in myocardial
ischemia without necrosis.
d) In most applications, Troponin I is favored over Troponin T as the best marker.
e) Troponin is measured by immunoassay and the results expressed in ng/mL.
a) Both BNP and NT-pro BNP are derived from pro BNP.
b) BNP is released from cardiac myocytes in response to left ventricular expansion and
pressure overload.
c) BNP may be useful in the differential diagnosis of dyspnea, in the diagnosis of congestive
heart failure, and for prognosis in acute coronary syndromes.
d) Unlike atrial natriuetic peptide, BNP inhibits naturesis and diuresis.
e) BNP levels correlate with the pulmonary artery wedge pressure.
5. A patient exhibits an elevated alkaline phosphatase, slight elevations in ALT and AST and a
normal bilirubin. The GGT is elevated. The most likely diagnosis in this patient is:
6. All of the following are criteria used in the Child-Pugh classification of hepatic status except:
a) AST.
Page 1 of 13
Chemistry Review Questions ⎯ Kent Lewandrowski, M.D. and Anand Dighe M.D., Ph.D.
b) Bilirubin.
c) Prothrombin time.
d) Albumin.
e) Ascites.
a) The N-terminal fragment of PTH contains the active portion of the hormone. The C-terminal
fragment is inactive.
b) The formula for corrected calcium is used to adjust the ionized calcium level according to the
pH of the specimen.
c) PTH increases calcium resorption and promotes phosphate excretion by the kidney.
d) Parathyroid hormone increases the plasma calcium, decreases the plasma phosphate, and
may increase the urinary calcium.
e) The role of calcitonin in adult calcium homostasis is unclear, but is probably minor.
a) Hyperparathyroidism.
b) Hypercalcemia of malignancy.
c) Thiazide diuretics.
d) Milk aklali syndrome.
e) Pseudohypoparathyroidism.
10. All of the following are true concerning acid-base homeostasis except:
a) Aldosterone promotes sodium resorption and potassium excretion and impairs renal
hydrogen ion excretion.
b) Volume depletion may result in contraction alkalosis.
c) Titratable acidity cannot be increased in states of acidosis.
d) Ammonium excretion can be augmented in patients with acidosis and is the principle
mechanism for accommodating an increased acid load.
e) Free acid excretion by the kidney is negligible.
11. All of the following are true concerning acid-base disorders except:
12. All of the following are causes of an increased anion gap metabolic acidosis except:
Page 2 of 13
Chemistry Review Questions ⎯ Kent Lewandrowski, M.D. and Anand Dighe M.D., Ph.D.
a) Renal failure.
b) Ethylene glycol ingestion.
c) Lactic acidosis.
d) Renal tubular acidosis.
e) Paraldehyde administration.
13. All of the following are true of renal tubular acidosis except:
a) Type 1 classic RTA occurs when the kidney cannot maximally acidify the urine.
b) Type 2 proximal RTA results from bicarbonate wasting.
c) Type 4 RTA is due to hyperaldosteronism.
d) In type 2 RTA, the fractional excretion of bicarbonate load is typically greater than 15%.
e) Patients with renal tubular acidosis typically exhibit a normal anion gap.
14. A patient exhibits a PCO2 of 52 and a PH of 7.35. Using the AHA Rule 1 for interpretation of
acid base disorders, this patient’s condition is classified as:
a) Jaffe methods are preferred because enzymatic methods suffer from a number of causes of
interference.
b) Causes of an elevated creatinine include increased production, pre-renal azotemia, renal
disease, and post renal obstruction.
c) The creatinine clearance can be estimated using the plasma creatinine alone in combination
with the patient’s age, weight, and sex.
d) Small amounts of creatinine are secreted by the renal tubular epithelium and as a
consequence the creatinine clearance is usually higher than the true GFR.
a) Hyperuricemia due to excessive urate production includes both congenital and acquired
causes.
b) Lesch-Nyhan syndrome results from phosphoribosyl synthetase deficiency.
c) In patients with hyperuricemia due to excessive urate production, the urine 24 hour urate is
typically greater than 800 mg/ 24 hours.
d) In patients with decreased renal urate excretion, the 24 hour urine urate is usually less than
600 mg per 24 hours.
e) The routine initial evaluation of hyperuricemia should include assessment of renal function,
serum lipids, estimation of the creatinine clearance, and serum and 24 hour urine urate
measurements.
17. All of the following statements concerning acute azotemia are true except:
Page 3 of 13
Chemistry Review Questions ⎯ Kent Lewandrowski, M.D. and Anand Dighe M.D., Ph.D.
18. All of the following statements concerning renal function testing and renal disease are true
except:
a) Microscopic hematuria is defined as greater than 3-5 red blood cells per high power field.
b) Explanations for a false positive dipstick for blood in the urine include hemoglobinuria and
myoglobinuria.
c) Up to 20% of patients evaluated for hematuria are ultimately defined as “idiopathic
hematuria”.
d) Tubular proteinuria typically consists of albumin and immunoglobulins.
e) The finding of red cell casts and dysmorphic red cells in the urine indicates nephritic
syndrome.
a) The extracellular fluid volume virtually always correlates with the effective circulating volume.
b) The plasma sodium and osmolality are regulated principally by control of water balance.
c) The regulation of volume is controlled principally by regulation of sodium balance.
d) Aldosterone acts on the renal collecting tubules to promote sodium and water resorption with
potassium and hydrogen ion excretion.
e) Antidiuretic hormone acts on the renal collecting tubules to promote renal water resorption
resulting in a concentrated urine.
Page 4 of 13
Chemistry Review Questions ⎯ Kent Lewandrowski, M.D. and Anand Dighe M.D., Ph.D.
23. All of the following concerning thyroid function testing are true except:
a) The most common causes of hyperthyroidism include Grave’s disease, toxic multinodular
goiter, and toxic adenoma.
b) In patients with hyperthyroidism, the TSH is usually increased.
c) The most common cause of hypothyroidism is Hashimoto’s thyroiditis.
d) In most cases of hypothyroidism, the T3 resin uptake is low.
e) Typical features of euthyroid sick syndrome include low total thyroid hormone levels, an
increased reverse T3, an increased T3 resin uptake, and either normal or slightly abnormal
free hormones and TSH.
25. All of the following are true concerning Cushing’s Syndrome except:
a) The five hour oral glucose tolerance test is useful for the diagnosis of reactive hypoglycemia.
b) The diagnosis of diabetes mellitus type 1 may include demonstration of a fasting plasma
glucose greater than or equal to 125 mg/deciliter on more than one occasion.
c) Measurement of urine microalbumin is useful to detect early treatable renal disease in
patients with diabetes mellitus.
d) Criteria for hypoglycemia (Whipple’s triad) include presence of typical symptoms,
documented hypoglycemia and relief of symptoms by glucose administration.
e) In patients with insulinoma and a normal serum insulin level, the insulin to glucose ratio may
be abnormal reflecting inappropriate hyperinsulinism.
Page 5 of 13
Chemistry Review Questions ⎯ Kent Lewandrowski, M.D. and Anand Dighe M.D., Ph.D.
a) Common methods for measurement of the total protein include dye binding and biuret
methods.
b) Hyperalbuminemia almost always reflects dehydration.
c) Negative acute phase reactants include albumin and fibrinogen.
d) The most common methods for albumin measurement are based on dye binding.
e) Immunochemical methods for albumin measurements are rarely utilized.
29. Concerning Alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency, the following statements are true except:
a) The most common laboratory methods for measurement of catecholamines are based on
colorimetric assays.
b) The clonodine suppression test is useful to evaluate patients with borderline catecholamine
levels.
c) Urine metanephrines and more recently plasma metanephrines are the best screening tests
for pheochromocytoma.
d) In patients with neuroblastoma, the urine VMA and/or HVA are elevated in most cases.
e) Platelet serotonin levels and 5-HIAA are most useful to evaluate patients for carcinoid
syndrome.
33. TRUE or FALSE. A patient exhibits a total cholesterol of 180, an LDL cholesterol of 90, and
an HDL cholesterol of 65. Collectively, this reflects a favorable lipid profile using current
classification systems.
34) All of the following are true regarding the volume of distribution for a drug EXCEPT:
Page 6 of 13
Chemistry Review Questions ⎯ Kent Lewandrowski, M.D. and Anand Dighe M.D., Ph.D.
a) Phenytoin
b) Valproic acid
c) Lidocaine
d) Carbamazepine
36) All of the following factors may improve HPLC resolution EXCEPT:
a) The stationary phase (column) is more polar than the mobile phase
b) Reversed phase HPLC can only give qualitative results
c) Drugs that are the most polar will elute last
d) Drug metabolites generally elute prior to the parent drug
38) All of the following are true of ethylene glycol toxicity EXCEPT:
39) In urine toxicology which ONE of the following compounds is most suggestive of heroin use?
a) Morphine 6-0-glucuronide
b) Morphine
c) 6-mono-acetyl morphine
d) Morphine 3-0-glucuronide
40) All of the following analytes may be increased by prolonged standing during phlebotomy
EXCEPT:
a) Platelets
b) Cholesterol
c) Calcium
d) Sodium
41) All of the following analytes show high levels of intraindividual (biologic) variation EXCEPT:
a) AST
b) Albumin
c) Creatine kinase
d) Cortisol
42) All of the following are pre-analytic causes of a high serum potassium level EXCEPT:
a) Thrombocytopenia
b) Long tourniquet application times
c) Excessive fist clenching during phlebotomy
d) Traumatic draw
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Chemistry Review Questions ⎯ Kent Lewandrowski, M.D. and Anand Dighe M.D., Ph.D.
43) Drawing of an additive potassium EDTA tube prior to a non-additive tube may result in all of
the following EXCEPT:
44) Excessive exposure to light is known to decrease all of the following analytes EXCEPT:
a) Vitamin A
b) Vitamin D
c) Vitamin E
d) Bilirubin
45) Exercise prior to phlebotomy may lead to increases in all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Uric acid
b) AST
c) Potassium
d) Creatine kinase
a) 6 days
b) 12 days
c) 18 days
d) 6 weeks
a) C3
b) Transferrin
c) Alpha-1 anti-trypsin
d) Alpha-2 macroglobulin
48) All of the following are true of patients with macroamylasemia EXCEPT?
50) Which of the following conditions is associated with elevation of S-type (salivary) amylase:
a) Renal failure
b) Pancreatic pseudocysts
c) Ectopic pregnancy
d) Macroamylasemia
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Chemistry Review Questions ⎯ Kent Lewandrowski, M.D. and Anand Dighe M.D., Ph.D.
52) The isoform of the cytochrome p450 system responsible for the increased sensitivity of
patients to Warfarin is:
a) CYP3A4
b) CYP2D6
c) CYP2C9
d) CYP2E1
53) The isoform of the cytochrome p450 system responsible for over 50% of phase I
biotransformation reactions is:
a) CYP3A4
b) CYP2D6
c) CYP2C9
d) CYP2E1
54) The following are all causes of elevated ammonia levels EXCEPT:
55) The principle governing spectrophotometry (Beer’s law) is expressed by which ONE of the
following equations, where
A = absorbance
a = molecular absorptivity
b = cuvet path length
C = analyte concentration
a) A = a*b*C
b) A = (a*c)/b
c) A = (a*b)/C
d) A = (b*c)/a
56) All of the following are causes of an elevated alkaline phosphatase EXCEPT?
a) Pregnancy
b) Paget’s disease
c) Primary biliary cirrhosis
d) Hypoparathyroidism
57) The following are true of urine immunoassays for cannabinoids EXCEPT:
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Chemistry Review Questions ⎯ Kent Lewandrowski, M.D. and Anand Dighe M.D., Ph.D.
d) Chronic cannabinoid use may markedly increase the detection period in the urine
58) All of the following are true of urine drugs of abuse immunoassays EXCEPT:
59) Ion selective electrodes measure electrolytes in a reaction that is defined by:
a) Beer’s law
b) The Nernst equation
c) Graham’s law
d) The Rydberg equation
60) All of the following analytes may be measured by atomic absorption spectroscopy EXCEPT:
a) Lead
b) Aluminum
c) Selenium
d) Lithium
61) All of the following analytes may be measured by atomic emission (flame photometry)
EXCEPT:
a) Lithium
b) Sodium
c) Potassium
d) Zinc
62) Numerous enzymatic assays (e.g. cholesterol) in the laboratory result in the formation of
hydrogen peroxide. Why is this a useful reaction product?
a) Hydrogen peroxide can cause enzymatic color change of a chromagen, which can then be
measured
b) Hydrogen peroxide has a unique absorbance spectrum
c) Hydrogen peroxide can be readily converted to water
d) Hydrogen peroxide forms superoxide anions that can then be readily detected
64) Which ONE of the following compounds absorbs strongly at 340 nm:
a) NAD+
b) NADH
c) Bilirubin
d) Hemoglobin
65) All of the following statements about spectrophotometry are true EXCEPT:
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Chemistry Review Questions ⎯ Kent Lewandrowski, M.D. and Anand Dighe M.D., Ph.D.
66) Which ONE of the following is NOT an international system (SI) unit?
a) Mole
b) Candela
c) Gram
d) Meter
68) In spectrophotometry, the relationship between the percent transmittance and absorption is
expressed by which ONE of the following equations:
69) All of the following are true of homogeneous and heterogeneous enzyme immunoassays
EXCEPT:
70) An increase in the concentration of the binding protein for a drug generally results in:
71) Assuming 100% bioavailability, the formula for the peak blood concentration of a drug for a
drug is which ONE of the following:
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Chemistry Review Questions ⎯ Kent Lewandrowski, M.D. and Anand Dighe M.D., Ph.D.
d) It is the technique of choice for the measurement of proteins in the micromolar range
a) Size
b) Polarity
c) Volatility
d) Ionic charge
74) A child presents in the emergency room with a history of organophosphate insecticide
poisoning. All of the following are true regarding toxicology testing for organophosphate
poisoning EXCEPT:
75) In thin layer chromatography plate shown below, what is the retention factor (Rf) of compound
X?
Compound X =0.60
Origin
a) 0.6
b) 0.6/0.9 = 0.67
c) (0.9-0.6)/0.9 = 0.33
d) 0.9-0.6 = 0.30
Answer Key:
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Chemistry Review Questions ⎯ Kent Lewandrowski, M.D. and Anand Dighe M.D., Ph.D.
Page 13 of 13
Management Section
2. Which of the following expenses maintain production, but are not directly associated with the
product?
a. Direct cost
b. Indirect cost
c. Variable cost
d. Fixed cost
e. Capital cost
6. According to McGregor:
a. Esteem, ego, and status are the highest human needs
b. Managers can motivate employees by using satisfiers such as responsibility, acheivement
and advancement.
c. Company X managers assume employees naturally strive for excellence
d. Company Y managers assume employees naturally strive for excellence
e. Company X managers rely on union leadership to run the operation
10. Medicare will reimburse laboratory services from a fee schedule for:
a. Outpatient lab tests
b. Inpatient lab tests
c. Outpatient and inpatient lab tests
d. All tests, but only in certain states
e. All tests sent to a reference laboratory
2. B
3. E
4. B
5. B
6. D
7. C
8. E
9. C
10. A
11. A
12. D
13. C
14. B
15. C
16. D
17. C
18. D
ASCP RESIDENTS’ REVIEW COURSE 2006
PATHOLOGY INFORMATICS
Walter H. Henricks, M.D.
REVIEW QUESTIONS
1. Regarding bytes in computer systems, all of the following statements are true except:
A. A byte consists of a string of eight bits
B. A byte is the data unit typically used to represent characters such as letters
C. Computer storage is typically measured in multiples of bytes
D. The abbreviation for byte is “B”
E. A byte has a value of 1 or 0 in the binary number system
2. Which of the sequences below correctly ranks the data capacity of data storage
devices from lowest to highest?
A. floppy disk drive < CD-RW < 30 GB hard disk drive < DVD
B. floppy disk drive < CD-RW < DVD < 30GB hard disk drive
C. floppy disk drive < DVD < CD-RW < 30 GB hard disk drive
D. CD-RW < floppy disk drive < DVD < 30 GB hard disk drive
E. floppy disk drive < 30 GB hard disk drive < CD-RW < DVD
3. Which of the following statements best characterizes what happens to data in RAM
and in hard disk storage when electrical power to the computer system is interrupted or
the system crashes?
A. All data in RAM and on disk are transferred to the CPU for temporary
holding.d
B. Data in RAM are retained, and data on disk are lost
C. Data in RAM are lost, and data on disk are retained
D. Data in RAM and data on disk are both retained
E. Data in RAM and data on disk are both lost
9. In a relational database:
A. data tables are related by shared common data fields
B. redundant records are typically found in a given table
C. the first record in a table is known as the primary key
D. each table is a single record
E. different tables often have a majority of data fields in common
10. All of the following might be found in an LIS dictionary except:
A. reference ranges for test results
B. test name mnemonic/synonym
C. results of individual patients’ tests
D. physician names
E. special stain types
12. HL7:
A. is implemented in relatively few interfaces between information systems in
healthcare
B. specifies the rules and syntax for electronic exchange of healthcare data
C. is most often implemented in interfaces between automated analyzers and an
LIS
D. used only in laboratories
E. eliminates the need for interface engines
13. A formal agreement under which a client may obtain software source code in the
event of vendor insolvency is known as a(an):
A. request for proposal
B. application service provider agreement
C. escrow agreement
D. service level agreement
E. gentleman’s agreement
14. According to law, anatomic pathology reports, or exact duplicates, must be retained
for at least:
A. 1 year
B. 2 years
C. 5 years
D. 10 years
E. 20 years
15. Select from the following statements the one that best characterizes the use and
disclosure of protected health information (PHI) under HIPAA:
A. Searches of the LIS results database for quality assurance purposes are not a
permitted use of PHI.
B. A reference laboratory must get consent from its clients’ patients to see the
PHI of such patients when performing consultative pathology work on behalf
of the patient’s treating physician.
C. A laboratory’s LIS software vendor must sign an agreement stipulating that
the vendor will protect PHI to which the vendor has access at the client site
during the course of providing services.
D. An Institutional Review Board (IRB) may not grant an exception to the
requirement for patient’s authorization to use his/her PHI for a research
project.
E. Under no circumstances is a laboratory permitted to transmit test results using
fax machines
16. The used digital image file format used for display of digital photographs, such as
photomicrographs, on websites is:
A. GIF
B. JPEG
C. TIFF
D. Bitmap
E. PICT
PATHOLOGY INFORMATICS
Walter H. Henricks, M.D.
Answers:
1. E
2. B
3. C
4. B
5. E
6. E
7. D
8. B
9. A
10. C
11. D
12. B
13. C
14. D
15. C
16. B
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