NTSE Stage 2 2012 To 2018 Combined Question Paper With Solutions PDF

FIITJEE Solutions to
NTSE-II (2011)
ENGLISH ROLL NO
Code 13 - 15
BOOKLET NUMBER
NATIONAL COUNCIL OF THE EDUCATIONAL RESEARCH AND TRAINING
NATIONAL TALENT SEARCH EXAMINATION – 2011
MENTAL ABILITY TEST

(For student of Class VIII)
Time: 90 Minutes Max Marks: 100
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
Read the following instructions carefully before you answer the question.
1. Answers are to be given on a separate answer-sheet.
2. Write your eight-digit Roll Number very clearly on the test-booklet and answer-sheet as given
in your letter/ admission card.
3. Write down the Booklet Number in the appropriate box on the answer sheet.
4. There are 100 questions in this test. All are compulsory.
5. Please follow the instruction for marking the answers given on the answer sheet.
6. For questions 1 – 100, put a cross mark (X) on the number of the correct alternative on the
answer-sheet against the corresponding question number.
7. If you do not know the answer to any question, do not spend much time on it and pass on to the
next one. Time permitting, you can come back to the questions, which you have left in the first
instance and try them again.
8. Since the time allotted for this question paper is very limited you should make the best use of it
by not spending too much time on any one question.
9. Rough work can be done anywhere in the booklet but not on the answer sheet/loose paper.
10. Every correct answer will be awarded one mark.
11. Please return the Test-booklet and answer-sheet to the invigilator the test.
PLEASE TURN OVER THE PAGE AND START YOUR WORK

NTSE-ST-II-2011-MAT-SOL-1
1–4 Directions: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on it by
selecting the correct option from the given alternatives.
Five students K, L, M, N and O study in a class, of these

i) K and L study Physics and Chemistry
ii) M and L study Physics and Mathematics
iii) N and K study Biology and Chemistry
iv) O and L study Anthropology and Civics
v) O and N study Chemistry and Mathematics
1. Who among the students studies maximum number of subjects?

1. O 2. N
3. L 4. K
Sol. 3
2. Who among the students studies minimum number of subjects?

1. O 2. N
3. K 4. M
Sol. 4
3. Who among the students studies only four subjects?

1. M 2. O
3. N 4. K
Sol. 2
4. Which of the following pairs studies Chemistry and Civics?

1. K and N 2. L and M
3. L and O 4. M and N
Sol. 3
5–6 Directions: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on it by
selecting the correct option from the given alternatives.
i. S, T, U, V, W, X and Y are sitting along a wall facing North direction.
ii. U is on the immediate right of V.
iii. T is at an extreme end and has W as his neighbour.
iv. Y is between W and X.
v. V is sitting third from the other end.
5. Who is sitting on the left of X?

1. T 2. Y
3. W 4. U
Sol. 2
6. Where is S sitting?
1. Extreme East 2. Extreme West
3. In the middle 4. Second from the East end
Sol. 1
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website: www.fiitjee.com.
7–9 Directions: In the following questions some numbers are given in a sequence. Find out the
number(s) from the alternatives, which will come in place of the question mark to continue the
sequence.
7. 57, 54, 58, 55, 59, 56, 60, ?

1. 64 2. 63
3. 58 4. 57
Sol. 4
8. 27, 31, 40, 56, 81, 117, ?

1. 156 2. 165
3. 166 4. 169
Sol. 3
9. 55, 168, 57, 120, 60, 80, 62, 48, 65, 24, ?, ?
1. 69, 11 2. 67, 8
3. 8, 71 4. 6, 72
Sol. 2
10–18 Directions: In the following questions, there is a relationship between the two
numbers/letters/figures on the left of the sign ( : : ). The same relationship exists between the two
to the right of the sign ( : : ), of which one is missing. Find the missing one from the alternative.
10. 7 : 42 : : 9 : ?
1. 75 2. 65
3. 46 4. 72
Sol. 4
11. 8 : 32 : : 12 : ?
1. 52 2. 68
3. 72 4. 75
Sol. 3
12. DGOT : JKUX : : FINP : ?

1. KMTU 2. LNTS
3. LMTT 4. MNTU
Sol. 3
13. EIKR : HMPX : : GKMT : ?

1. KORY 2. JORZ
3. JNSZ 4. INQZ
Sol. 2
14. FLIP : AEIN : : IKNT : ?

1. CGLR 2. EGJR
3. DGKR 4. DHLS
Sol. 3
15. ILNT : FHIN : : KOSV : ?

1. IKMN 2. HKOQ
3. ILNR 4. HKNP
Sol. 4
16.
: :: : ?
1 2 3 4
Sol. 1
17.
Sol. 2
18.
: :: : ?
1 2 3 4
Sol. 4
19–23 Directions: Some words are given in column I. These words are written in a code language in
column II. The code equivalents of the words given in column I and column II are not necessarily
in the corresponding order. Choose the correct code for the words from the given alternatives.
Column – I Column – II
i. Kahu chala na hum kuch ja
ii. Aj tak na ek ja kam
iii. Man tak pana Saj ek ada
iv. Hum chala man kuch not ada
v. Hum na jai not kim ja
19. Which word will be code for word Aj?

1. ada 2. hum
3. kuch 4. kam
Sol. 4
20. Which word will be code for word Hum?

1. ja 2. not
3. kuch 4. ek
Sol. 2
21. Which word will be code for word pana?

1. ada 2. ek
3. saj 4. not
Sol. 3
22. Which word will be code for word Kahu?

1. hum 2. ada
3. not 4. ja
Sol. 1
23. Which word will be code for word Jai?

1. ek 2. saj
3. kim 4. ja
Sol. 3
24. If 20th September in a year is Wednesday, the number of Fridays in that month is
1. 6 2. 5
3. 4 4. 3
Sol. 2
25. If 14th February, 2011 falls on Monday then what will be the day on 14th February, 2013?
1. Friday 2. Tuesday
3. Wednesday 4. Thursday
Sol. 4
Find the odd one out from the alternatives.

26. 1. EHKN 2. KNRU
3. GJMP 4. MPSV
Sol. 2
27. 1. EY 2. DP
3. BD 4. GT
Sol. 4
28. 1. 130 2. 60
3. 24 4. 6
Sol. 1
29. 1. 11, 132 2. 9, 90
3. 8, 56 4. 6, 42
Sol. 3
30. In the following multiplication problem, find the numerical values of S, V and Z in that order
S T U V W
1 2
______________
4 W Z R S
S T 4 V W
______________
S ______________
8 R U 7 2
1. 2, 5, 9 2. 2, 9, 5
3. 5, 9, 2 4. 9, 5, 2
Sol. 1
31. Given the following addition problem, find the number M E N in digits.
M A N
+ N A M E
3 3 3 3
1. 321 2. 132
3. 123 4. 103
Sol. 4
32. Given that ACT ÷ AT = 11, find out which of the following does not stand for CAT to fulfill the
above equation
1. 2 4 6 2. 6 1 5
3. 6 2 4 4. 8 3 5
Sol. 1
33. Given the following subtraction problem, find out which of the following numbers does not stand
for CART.
C A R
− A R T
2 2 2
1. 6 4 2 0 2. 7 5 3 1
3. 8 4 2 0 4. 9 7 5 3
Sol. 3
34. Take the two given statements to be true and decide which one of the inferences can be definitely
drawn from these statements.
Statements:
All the students passed examination.
Some of the students are girls
Select the correct alternatives.
1. Some of the boys passed the examination.
2. All the girls students failed in the examination.
3. None of the boys passed the examination.
4. No girls student failed in the examination.
Sol. 4
35−36. Take the given statements as true and decide which of the conclusions logically follow from the
two statements.
35. Statements:
In a sports club all the members are not players but all of them are rich.
Mr. ‘P’ is a member of the sports club.
Conclusions:
I. Mr. ‘P’ plays the sport.
II. Mr. ‘P’ is rich.
1. Only I follows 2. Only II follows
3. Both I and II follow 4. Neither I nor II follows.
Sol. 2
36. Statements:
Engineers marry only teachers.
Rashmi is a teacher
Conclusions:
I. Rashmi is married to an Engineer
II. Rashmi is not married to an Engineer
1. Only I follows 2. Only II follows
3. Both I and II follow 4. Neither I nor II follows.
Sol. 4
37−41 Directions: These questions are based on following information.

Rajesh, Sudhir and Mohan play football, hockey and cricket. Rajesh, Rakesh and Mohan play
Hockey, Cricket and Basket Ball. Rajesh, Sudhir, Naresh and Mohan play football and cricket.
37. Which two boys play all the games?

1. Rajesh and Sudhir 2. Rajesh and Rakesh
3. Sudhir and Mohan 4. Rajesh and Mohan
Sol. 4
38. Which game is played by all the boys?

1. Basket Ball 2. Cricket
3. Football 4. Hockey
Sol. 2
39. Who does not play football?

1. Rakesh 2. Sudhir
3. Naresh 4. Mohan
Sol. 1
40. Which two games are not played by Naresh?

1. Cricket and Football 2. Cricket and Hockey
3. Hockey and Basketball 4. Football and Basketball
Sol. 3
41. Who do not play Basketball?

1. Rajesh and Mohan 2. Suchir and Naresh
3. Rakesh and Rajesh 4. Mohan and Rakesh
Sol. 2
42. If ‘−’ means ‘multiplied by’, ‘×’ means ‘plus’, ‘+’ means ‘divided by’ and ‘÷’ means ‘minus’, then 14
− 10 × 4 ÷ 16 + 8 = ?
1. 142 2. 134
3. 6 4. 5
Sol. 1
43. If ‘+’ means ‘multiplied by’, ‘−’ means ‘divided by’, ‘×’ means ‘plus’ and ‘÷’ means ‘minus’, then (18
+ 10 × 20) − 8 ÷ 6 = ?
1. 92 2. 35
3. 26 4. 19
Sol. 4
44. If ‘+’ means ‘divided by’, ‘−’ means ‘multiplied’, ‘×’ means ‘plus’ and ‘÷’ means ‘minus’, then (280 +
10 × 20) − 8 ÷ 6 = ?
1. 378 2. 258
3. 70 4. 64
Sol. 1
45. Shalini is standing at the South-East cornet of a rectangular filed. She starts crossing the field
diagonally. After waling half the distance, she turns right, walks some distance and turns left.
Which direction is Shalini facing now?
1. South-East 2. South-West
3. North-East 4. North-West
Sol. 4
46. One morning after sunrise, Seema was standing facing a pole. The shadow of the pole fell
exactly to her right. Which direction was she facing?
1. North 2. South
3. West 4. East
Sol. 2
47. Rahul travels 10 km to the North. He turns to the right and walks 5 km. Then again he turns to his
right and moves 10 km forward. How many km away from starting point is he?
1. 26 km 2. 19 km
3. 13 km 4. 5 km
Sol. 4
48. Ram starts from a point P, drives 2 km towards North. He turns to his left and drives 3 km and
after taking another turn to his left he drives 2 km, and finishes at point Q. After the first turns in
which direction Ram will be driving?
1. West 2. North
3. East 4. South
Sol. 1
49−52 Directions: In each of the following, a question is followed by two statements marked I and II.
Decide which of the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Choose your answer from
the given alternative.
49. Statements:
I. Vinod is 6 feet tall
II. Vinod is standing 2 feet away from Pramod.
1. Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the problem.
2. Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the problem.
3. Statement I and II both are needed.
4. Statement I and II both are not sufficient.
Sol. 1
50. Rohit took a test that had 60 questions numbered from 1 to 60. How many questions did he
answer correctly in the second half of the test?
Statements:
I. The number of questions he answered correctly in the second half of test was 7 less than the
number of the test
II. He answered 5/6 of the odd numbered questions correctly and 4/5 of the even numbered
correctly.
Sol. 3
51. Train A leaves town X for town Y and travels at a constant speed. At the same time train B leaves
town X and also travels at a constant speed. Town Z is between X and Y. Towns X, Z and Y lie
on a straight line. Which train has greater speed?
Statements:
I. Train B arrives at town Z before train A.
II. Town Z is closer to X than Y.
3. Statements I and II both are needed.
4. Statements I and II both are not sufficient
Sol. 3
52. Who is the father of M?

Statements:
I. P and Q are brothers.
II. Q’s wife is the sister of M’s wife
Sol. 4
53. Six persons P, Q, R, S, T and U are sitting in two rows, three in each as per following information.
T is not at the end of any row.
S is second to the left of U.
R the neighbour of T is sitting diagonally opposite to S.
Q is the neighbour of U
Which of the following are sitting diagonally opposite to each other.
1. P and R 2. S and P
3. P and U` 4. None of these
Sol. 3
54. In a queue, Ramesh is the 7th from the back. Suresh is standing 6th from the front and only
Shyam is standing in between the tow. Find the minimum number of boys standing in the queue?
1. 8 2. 10
3. 12 4. 14
Sol. 2
55. In a queue of 10 persons, A is standing on 7th from front and B is standing 6th from back.3
persons entered the queue disrupting the positions of A and B. Find the pair of numbers
indicating minimum possible disruption in their position from the front?
1. 6, 10 2. 6, 9
3. 7, 10 4. 7, 9
Sol. 4
Directions: (Q. 56 to 58) In the following questions the cells of a square are filled with numbers with one
number missing in a cell Find from the alternatives the number, which will replace the question
mark in the cell.
56.
1. 3 2. 4
3. 5 4. 13
Sol. 4
57.
1. 41 2. 36
3. 32 4. 12
Sol. 2
58.
1. 80 2. 88
3. 800 4. 808
Sol. 3
59−63 Directions: A, B, C, D, E and F are members of a family. Amongst them there are lawyer, doctor,
teacher, salesman, engineer and an accountant. There are two married couples in the family. ‘D’
who is a salesman is married to the lady teacher. Doctor is married to the lawyer. ‘F’ who is an
accountant is son of ‘B’ and also brother of ‘E’. ‘C’ who is lawyer is daughter–in–law of ‘A’. ‘E’ is
an unmarried engineer. ‘A’ is grand mother of ‘F’.
59. What is the profession of B?

1. Salesman 2. Doctor
3. Lawyer 4. Teacher
Sol. 2
60. What is the profession of A?

1. Teacher 2. Doctor
3. Lawyer 4. Engineer
Sol. 1
61. What is the relation of B with D?

1. Brother 2. Grandson
3. Son 4. Father
Sol. 3
62. What is the relation of D with F?

1. Husband 2. Brother
3. Father 4. Grandfather
Sol. 4
63. Which of the following is a married couple?

1. C and D 2. A and B
3. B and C 4. D and B
Sol. 3
64−66 Directions: The following questions are based on the given matrix. The value of each letter is the
product of its row and column number e.g. the value of ‘Z’ is 3 × 4 = 12.
0 1 2 3 4
0 B O J C P
1 E N H I D
2 G R A M V
3 F S T L Z
4 W X Y U K
Answer the following questions.
64. Find the letters which make the least total among the alternatives.
1. DKA 2. FHY
3. ODX 4. VTM
Sol. 3
65. What is the total of GREAT?

1. 8 2. 10
3. 12 4. 14
Sol. 3
66. Find the letters which make the highest total among the alternatives.
1. PLOT 2. PLAN
3. PLAY 4. PLUS
Sol. 4
67−70 Directions: In the following questions, the figure is folded to form a box. Choose from among the
alternatives the box or boxes that can be formed by folding the figure.
67.
1. Only IV 2. Both II and III

3. Only III 4. Both I and IV
Sol. 2
68.
1. Both II and IV 2. Both I and II

3. IV only 4. II only
Sol. 3
69.
1. II, III and IV 2. III and IV only

3. II and III only 4. I and IV only
Sol. 2
70.
1. Only I 2. Both II and III

3. Only IV 4. All I, II III and IV
Sol. 4
71−75 Directions: A pyramid of letters is given below. Study the pyramid and select the correct
alternative to fill in the missing term.
71. HNPRQ, GIMQL, ZFJLK, ?, PVBDC

1. QLKDC 2. WAEKD
3. WPVBD 4. IFAVQ
Sol. 2
72. FHSIE, ISTRJ, RTCUQ, UCDBV, ?

1. JLKDC 2. LPVBD
3. BDKEA 4. BDCTS
Sol. 3
73. YGIM, LOXY, ZFJL, ?

1. CUQK 2. JQVA
3. PWZG 4. KPWZ
Sol. 4
74. GYXOW, ZXOLP, FZWPV, ?

1. AWPKQ 2. PVQJE
3. KQUCT 4. EBURI
Sol. 1
75. AMONB, YGIHZ, ?

1. LPVBD 2. OSUTP
3. OSUTP 4. LPVQJ
Sol. 3
76−78 Directions: The capital letters in each of the following words are coded as figures on the right
side. Find out the codes for letters and answer the questions that follow.
76. Which is the code for ‘STOLEN’?
Sol. 4
77. Which is the code of ‘LOWER’?
Sol. 2
78. Which is the code for ‘DRESSING”?
Sol. 1
79−80 Directions: The cells in diagram I and sectors in diagram II contain two letters each from A to Z.
The first letters in each cell is coded by the cell shape whereas the second letter is represented
by cell shape along with a dot in it.
For example
79. Identify the response which represents CHAIR.
Sol. 2
80. Identify the response which represents MONKEY.
Sol. 4
81−82 Directions: Find the correct alternative which is the mirror image of the figure given in each
question.
81.
Sol. 2
82.
Sol. 3
83−85 Directions: Study the pattern of figures given to find out the relationship among them. Choose the
missing figure from the given alternatives.
83.
Sol. 3
84.
Sol. 2
85.
Sol. 2
86. Rakesh starts from A and walks towards East to B. He turns south and walks to C. Then he turns
north-west and walks to D. Finally he turns south-west and comes to E. Which of the answer
figures shows the exact path he traced?
Sol. 3
87. Pankaj starts from A and walks north-east to B. He turns west and walks to C. Then turns south
and walks to D. He then turns east and walks to E. Finally he turns south-west and walks to F.
Which of the answer figures exactly shows the path Pankaj traced?
Sol. 4
88−90 Directions: The figure in the question items has dot/dots that fulfil some conditions. Find out a
figure from the alternatives where if dot/dots are placed they will fulgil the same conditions.
88.
Sol. 4
89.
Sol. 1
90.
Sol. 2
91. In the following how many times is rectangle preceded by a circle but followed by a triangle?
1. 1 2. 2
3. 3 4. 4
Sol. 1
92. Which figure has been used most of the times?
Sol. 1
93−95 Directions: In each of the following questions a design/pattern is given. One small segment is
missing form the design. Select the alternative which will complete the design when placed in the
missing area.
93.
Sol. 3
94.
Sol. 2
95.
Sol. 3
96−97 Directions: A dice is thrown 3 times and its 3 positions are given. Select the alternative which
provides correct answer to the question asked.
96. Which number is opposite 4?

1. 1 2. 3
3. 5 4. 6
Sol. 3
97. Which number is opposite 1?

1. 2 2. 3
3. 4 4. 6
Sol. 4
Directions: (Q. 98 to 100) Four positions of the same dice have been shown. Select the alternative
which provides correct answer to the question asked.
98. Which number would be opposite to 3?

1. 1 2. 4
3. 5 4. 6
Sol. 1

1. 2 2. 3
3. 4 4. 6
Sol. 4

1. 2 2. 3
3. 5 4. 6
Sol. 1
FIITJEE Solutions to
NTSE-II (2011)
ENGLISH - ROLL NO
Code 13 - 15
BOOKLET NUMBER
NATIONAL COUNCIL OF THE EDUCATIONAL RESEARCH AND TRAINING
NATIONAL TALENT SEARCH EXAMINATION – 2011

SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST
(For student of Class VIII)
Time: 90 Minutes Max Marks: 100
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
Read the following instructions carefully before you answer the question.
1. Answer are to be given on a SEPARATE ANSWER-SHEET.
2. Write your eight-digit Roll Number very clearly on the test-booklet and answer-sheet as given
in your letter/admission card.
3. Write down the Booklet Number in the appropriate box on the answer-sheet.
4. There are 100 questions in this test. All are compulsory. The question numbers 1 to 40 belong to
Scineces, 41 to 60 pertain to Mathematics and 61 to 100 are on Social Science subjects.
5. Please follow the instructions given on the answer-sheet for marking the answers.
6. For questions 1-100, put a cross mark (X) on the number of the correct alternative on the
answer-sheet against the corresponding question number.
7. If you do no know the answer to any question, do not waste time on it and pass on to the next one.
Time permitting, you can come back to the questions, which you have left in the first instance and
attempt them.
8. Since the time allotted for this question paper is very limited you should make the best use of it
by not spending too much time on any one question.
9. Rough work can be done anywhere in the booklet but not on the answer-sheet/loose paper.
11. Please return the Test-booklet and Answer-sheet to the invigilator after the test.
PLEASE TURN OVER THE PAGE AND START YOUR WORK
NTSE-ST-II-2011-SAT-SOL-2
1. A few gram seeds were placed in each of the three pots A, B and C containing soil. The soil in
Pot A is mixed with some green twigs and leaves. The soil in pot B is mixed with old cow dung
while soil of pot C is mixed with urea. Pots are watered regularly. Which of the following will be
observed after 10 days?
1. Lot of growth in A
2. Not much growth in B
3. Lot of growth in B but very little growth in C
4. Very little growth in A but lot of growth in B and C
Sol. 4
Very little growth in A but lot of growth in B and C because B and C have good amount of
nutrients in their soil in the form of humus and fertilizers.
2. Barely is ground to powder. The powder is mixed with water and some yeast. The mixture is kept
in a closed and moist container. Which of the following will be produced?
1. Sodium bicarbonate 2. Alcohol only
3. Carbon dioxide only 4. Alcohol and carbon dioxide
Sol. 4
The mixture show fermentation reaction and the end products of fermentation are ethyl alcohol
and carbon dioxide.
C6H12O6 → 2C2H5 OH + 2CO2
3. Which is the main function of RBC?

1. To fight diseases in the body
2. To carry oxygen to different parts of the body
3. To increase levels of WBC
4. To arrest bleeding
Sol. 2
RBC has haemoglobin. It is a protein that carries oxygen to different parts of the body.
4. Find the odd one out of the following:

1. Cotton 2. Silk
3. Wool 4. Hair
Sol. 1
Cotton is a plant product.
5. Which of the following rotation of crops will reduce dependence on the use of chemical fertilizers?
1. Rice and Chilli 2. Wheat and Potato
3. Potato and Rice 4. Gram and Rice
Sol. 4
6. From the following statements

A. Carbon dioxide taken in through stomata is used in photosynthesis.
B. Oxygen taken in through stomata is used in respiration.
C. Water vapour taken in through stomata is used in transpiration.
Select the correct alternative.
1. A and B 2. A and C
3. B and C 4. A, B and C
Sol. 1
7. From the following drawing of flowers identify the flower which will self pollinate?
Sol. 4
8. Which of the following is a source of instant energy?

1. Salt 2. Glucose
3. Water 4. Starch
Sol. 2
9. The biological treatment of waste water makes use of

1. Aerobic bacteria and fungi
2. Anaerobic bacteria and algae
3. Aerobic and Anaerobic bacteria
4. Anaerobic bacteria and eucalyptus leaves
Sol. 3
The biological treatment of waste water makes use of Aerobic and Anaerobic bacteria at
secondary treatment level.
10. A similarity among black buck, gharial, rhinoceros and marsh crocodile is that they are
1. animals with thick chitinous skin
2. oviparous
3. endangered species
4. found in the forests of North-East India
Sol. 3
Black buck, gharial, rhinoceros and marsh crocodile all these are listed under endangered
species.
11. The nasal openings in human beings are comparable to

1. gills of fish
2. blood vessels in an earthworm
3. spiracles of the cockroach
4. root hairs of plants
Sol. 3
Spiracles are air channels present in arthropods and comparatively similar structure to human
trachea.
12. Rani had an uneven plot of land in which water was scarce. What system could she adopt for
irrigation?
1. Canal 2. Sprinkler
3. Drip 4. Hand pump
Sol. 2
For irrigation of an uneven plot of land sprinkler system is the best.
13. Ram was going through a forest and found many similar plants. What amongst the given below
could be reason for the observed phenomenon. The plants are
a. of many genera.
b. of only one species.
c. capable of interbreeding.
d. capable of crossbreeding.
Select the correct alternative from the following
1. a and b 2. b and c
3. c and d 4. a and d
Sol. 2
Most of the plant of the forest may be related to the same species or produced by the
hybridization.
14. Match each item in Column I with appropriate one/s in Column II.
Column I Column II
A Edward Jenner I heredity
B Chromosomes II budding
C Hydra III protein biosyntehsis
IV smallpox vaccine
V cell membrane
VI binary fission
VII antibiotics
1. A-VII, B-I, C-II 2. A-IV, B-I, C-II
3. A-VII, B-V, C-VI 4. A-IV, B-II, C-VI
Sol. 2
Edward Jenner is related to small pox vaccine. Chromosomes are related to heredity. Mode of
reproduction in hydra is budding.
15. Which of the following has the same monomer unit?

1. Nylon and cellulose 2. Polyester and nylon
3. Rayon and nylon 4. Cellulose and rayon
Sol. 4
Both are natural polymers of plant origin.
16. Which of the following will be suitable for coating dress materials of fire-men?
1. Nylon 2. Polyester
3. Melamine 4. Acrylic
Sol. 3
Because it can withstand high temperature.
17. A highly reactive element X is stored under water. It readily reacts with oxygen of air to give a
compound Y which dissolves in water. The aqueous solution of Y changes blue litmus solution to
red. The element X
1. Sodium
2. Sulphur
3. Phosphorous
4. Potassium
Sol. 3
Sodium and potassium form bases which turns red litmus blue
Sulphur is not very reactive.

So, phosphorous reacts with oxygen to form phosphorous pentoxide.
P4 + 5O2 → P4 O10
P4 O10 + 6H2O → 4H3PO4
(Phosphoric acid)
H3PO4 changes blue litmus red.
18. Two elements A and B on burning in air give corresponding oxides. Oxides of both A and B are
soluble in water. The aqueous solution of oxide of A is alkaline and reacts with aqueous solution
of oxide of B to give another compound. Identify A and B
1. A and B both are metals 2. A and B are non-metals
3. A is metal and B is non-metal 4. A is non-metal and B is metal
Sol. 3
A is metal because the oxide of metal dissolves in H2O to form alkali. It is reacting with aqueous
solution of oxide B, this it is an acid because alkali−alkali reaction is not possible.
19. Match List I (fraction of petroleum) with List II (main use) and select the correct answer for the
given alternatives.
List I (fraction of petroleum) List II (main uses)
A Kerosene I Metalling of roads
B Diesel II Jet aircraft fuel
C Paraffin Wax III Generation of electricity
D Bitumen IV Lubircants
1. A I, B II, C III, D IV
2. A I, B III, C IV, D II
3. A II, B III, C IV, D I
4. A IV, B II, C III, D I
Sol. 3
20. Coal is a fossil fuel and it cannot be prepared in a laboratory or industry because the formation of
coal
a. is a very slow process.
b. needs very low pressure and low temperature.
c. needs very high pressure and high temperature.
d. causes air pollution.
1. a and b 2. b and d
3. c and a 4. d and c
Sol. 3
21. The necessary conditions for combustion process of occur are

a. availability of air/oxygen.
b. availability of air/oxygen and fuel.
c. temperature of fuel below ignition temperature
d. temperature of fuel above ignition temperature
1. a and b 2. b and d
3. c and a 4. d and a
Sol. 2
Fuel, oxygen or air and a temperature more than ignition temperature of the fuel is required for
combustion.
22. The gaseous fuels

a. burn without producing smoke. b. has low calorific value.
c. are easy to ignite. d. have high calorific value.
1. a and b 2. b and c
3. c and d 4. d and b
Sol. 3
23. Which of the following air pollutants reduces the oxygen-carrying capacity of blood?
1. Carbon dioxide 2. Carbon monoxide
3. Sulphur dioxide 4. Nitrous oxide
Sol. 2
CO has higher affinity to haemoglobin which is almost 200% more when compared to oxygen.
24. Which of the following are responsible for causing acid-rain?

1. Oxides of sulphur and carbon dioxide
2. Oxides of nitrogen and carbon monoxide
3. Hydrogen sulphide and carbon dioxide
4. Oxides of sulphur and nitrogen
Sol. 4
Because oxides of sulphur and nitrogen when reacts with water form sulphuric and nitric acids
respectively which are strong.
25. On washing with soap, a turmeric stain on the cloth turns to red because
a. soap solution is alkaline.
b. soap solution is acidic.
c. turmeric contains a natural indicator.
d turmeric contains litmus.
1. a and c 2. b and d
3. c and b 4. a and d
Sol. 1
26. Which of the following are used as an antacid to reduce acidity in stomach?
1. Sodium carbonate and magnesium hydroxide
2. Magnesium hydroxide and sodium hydroxide
3. Sodium bicarbonate and calcium hydroxide
4. Sodium bicarbonate and magnesium hydroxide
Sol. 4
Acidity of stomach has to be neutralized by a base, without affecting the cells of the body. So,
sodium bicarbonate and magnesium hydroxide are helpful for that.
NaHCO3 + HCl → NaCl + H2O + CO2 ↑

(Neutralized)
Mg ( OH)2 + 2HCl → MgCl2 + 2H2 O
27. Which of the following is a chemical change?

1. Melting of ice
2. Burning of magnesium in air
3. Dissolution of sugar in water
4. Blowing of wind
Sol. 2
2Mg + O2 → 2MgO
is a chemical irreversible change, a new product is formed.
28. By blowing between two balloons hanging close to each other you observe that they come closer.
A similar phenomenon is seen in
1. the lifting of an aeroplane.
2. kite flying
3. the lifting of balloon filled with
4. take off of rocket
Sol. 1
Due to pressure difference
29. A stone tied to a string is whirled in a circle. As it is revolving, the string suddenly breaks. The
stone then
1. flies off radially outwards.
2. flies off radially inwards
3. flies off tangentially.
4. moves in a circle of larger radius
Sol. 3
Flies off tangentially
30. A person moves a certain distance in a certain time. If 1/3 of the distance is covered in 2/3 of the
time with speed V1, and the rest of the 2/3 distance in 1/3 of the time speed V2 , then V1 / V2 is
1. 1/2
2. 1/4
3. 4/9
4. 2/9
Sol. 2
Let total distance is x
2t 1
t1 = t2 =
3 3
x 2x
distance is distance is
3 3
speed v1 speed v 2
x×3 2x × 3
V1 = V2 =
3 × 2t 3×t
x
V1 1
= 2t =
V2 2x 4
t
31. In an experiment, it was observed that when the length of a wire in an electrical circuit is doubled,
everything else remaining same, the current becomes half. On the other hand, if the thickness
(diameter) of the wire is doubled, the current becomes 4 times. Two wires W1 and W2 of the
same metal have the same current passing through them. The thickness of wire W2 is twice that
of W1, then the length of the wire W2 is
1. sixteen times that of W1 2. four times that of wire W1
3. two times that of wire W1 4. same as that of wire W1
Sol. 3
Both wire have the same current it means resistance of both wire is same.
R1 = R 2
A1 A A A
ρ =ρ 2 ⇒ 1 = 2
A1 A2 A1 A 2
given d2 = 2d1
Hence, A 2 = 4A 1
32. In the electric circuit shown above
1. all the bulbs will glow. 2. only bulbs 4, 5 and 6 will glow
3. only bulbs 3 will glow 4. none of the bulbs will glow
Sol. 4
Circuit is open so none of the bulbs will glow
33. A printed page is seen through a glass slab place on it. The printed words appear raised. This is
due to
1. refraction at the upper surface of the slab
2. refraction at the lower surface of the slab
3. partial reflection at the upper surface of the slab
4. partial reflection at the lower surface of the slab
Sol. 1
Refraction at the upper surface of the slab
34. Two mirrors are placed at right angles to each other as shown in the figure. Total number of
images of an object O placed between them, that are seen are
1. two
2. three
3. four
4. six
Sol. 2
θ = 90°
360 360
n= = = 4(even)
θ 90
Number of images = n – 1
=4–1
=3
35. Certain observations and certain causes are listed in columns I and II respectively in the following
table:
Table
Column I Column II
I Going up an inclined plane is more A Magnetic force

tiring than walking on a horizontal
plane
II It is difficult to inflate balloon beyond a B Pressure

certain point
III Waling on a sandy beach is more tiring C Gravitational Force

than waling on a road
IV A compass needle always points in the D Friction

north-south direction

1. I-A, II-B, III-C, IV-D
2. I-C, II-B, III-D, IV-A
3. I-B, II-C, III-D, IV-A
4. I-C, II-D, III-B, IV-A
Sol. 2
1 – C, II – B, III – D, IV – A
36. Of the following statements choose the correct combination.
(a) Grease is used to reduce friction in bicycle chain
(b) Ball bearings are used to reduce friction in a fan
(c) Oil can be used to increase friction in a car engine.
(d) Talc can be used to reduce friction when an object is sliding on a surface.
1. a, b, d 2. a, c, d
3. b, c, d 4. a, b, c
Sol. 1
a, b, d
37. If one puts ones ears to the steel rail, the sound of a coming train can be heard even when the
train cannot be seen. One can conclude from this observation that
a. Sound travels faster in steel than in air.
b. Amplitude of sound in the rail is much larger than in air.
c. Sound can travel larger distances in solids than in air.
d. Quality of sound in rail is better than in air.
The reasonable conclusions are
1. a and c 2. a and b
3. b and c 4. b and c
Sol. 1
a, & c
38. Decibel (dB) is a unit of loudness of sound. It is defined in a manner such that when amplitude of
sound is multiplied by a factor of 10 , the decibel level increase by 10 units. Loud music of 70
dB is being played at a function. To reduce the loudness to a level of 30 dB, the amplitude of the
instrument playing music has to be reduced by a factor of
1. 10
2. 10 10
3. 100
4. 100 100
Sol. 3
39. Given that there is a relationship between the orbital radius of a planet and its period of revolution
and that the periods of revolution of Mercury, Earth, Jupiter and Neptune are nearly 0.24, 1, 11.8
and 165 years. It follows that the period of revolution of
a. Venus is less than 0.24 years
b. Mars is less than 12 years
c. Uranus is more than 165 years
d. Uranus is less than 165 years but more than 12 years.
Of these the correct statements are:

1. a and c
2. d only
3. c only
4. b and d
Sol. 4
b&d
40. Lunar eclipse occurs when earth comes in between sun and the moon. Solar eclipse occurs when
moon comes in between sun and earth. This suggests that
1. both eclipses occurs on a new moon day.
2. solar eclipse occurs on a new moon day and lunar eclipse on a full moon day.
3. lunar eclipse occurs on a new moon day and solar eclipse on a full moon day.
4. both eclipses occur on a full moon day
Sol. 2
41. Which is the greatest number amongst 21/2, 31/3, 81/8 and 91/9?
1. 91/9 2. 81/8
1/2
3. 3 4. 21/2
Sol. 3.
LCM of 2, 3, 8, 9 = 72
1 36 1
2 2 = 2 72 = ( 236 ) 72
1 24 1
3 3 = 3 72 = ( 324 ) 72
1 9 1
8 8 = 8 72 = ( 89 ) 72
1 8 1
9 9 = 9 72 = ( 98 ) 72
42. If the product of two numbers is 21 and their difference is 4, then the ratio of the sum of their
cubes to the difference of their cubes is
1. 185 : 165 2. 165 : 158
3. 185 : 158 4. 158 : 145
Sol. 3.
x – y = 4, xy = 21
x3 – y3 = (x – y) [x2 + y2 + xy – 2xy + 2xy]
= (x – y)[(x – y)2 + 3xy]
= 4(16 + 63)
= 4 × 79
= 316
x – y = 4 ⇒ x2 + y2 – 2xy = 16
⇒ (x + y)2 – 2xy – 2xy = 16
⇒ x + y = 16 + 4 × 21
x + y = 10
∴ x3 + y3 = (x + y)[x2 + y2 – xy]
= 10(58 – 21) = 10 × 37 = 370
Ratio = 370 : 316 = 185 : 158
43. In a quadrilateral ABCD, if AB || CD, ∠D = 2, ∠B, AD = b and CD = a, then the side AB is of

length
a
1. + 2b 2. a + 2b
2
3. 2a – b 4. a + b
Sol. 4.
D a C
2x
x
b b
2x x
A a b B
44. Two candles have different lengths and thickness. The shorter lasts 11 hours and the longer 7
hours when both are lit simultaneously. If after 3 hours of their being lit together at the same time,
both have the same length, then the ratio of their original lengths is
1. 5 : 8 2. 11 : 14
3. 10 : 13 4. 7 : 11
Sol. 4.
1
lα
T
l1 7
2
=
l 11
45. A lady reaches her office 20 minutes late by traveling at a speed of 20 km/h and reaches 15
minutes early by traveling at 30 km/h. By how much time will she be early or late if she travels at
25 km/h ?
1. 1 minute early
2. 5 minute early
3. 1 minute late
4. 5 minute late
Sol. 1.
Speed1 = 20 km/h , Speed2 = 30 km/h
d
S=
t
d d
∴ 20 = , 30 =
20 15
t+ t−
30 60
20 15
d = 20 t + , d = 30 t –
3 2
20 15
⇒ 20 t + = 30 t –
3 2
−45 − 40 −85
⇒ – 10 t = =
6 6
85 17
⇒t= = × 60 = 85 min
6 × 10 12
17 20 170 20 85 20 105
∴ d = 20 × + = + = + = = 35 km
12 3 6 3 3 3 3
35 7
⇒ term taken = = × 60 = 84 min.
25 5
46. Three circles each of radius r units are drawn

inside an equilateral triangle of side a units, such A
that each circle touches the other two and two
sides of the triangle as shown in the figure, (P, Q
and R are the centres of the three circles). Then
relation between r and a is P
1. a = 2 ( 3 + 1) r
R
2. a = ( 3 + 1) r Q 90°
3. a = ( 3 + 2 ) r
B C
4. a = 2 ( 3 + 2 ) r
Sol. 1.
∠A = ∠B = ∠C = 60°
MN = QR = 2r in quadrilateral BTQM A
∠B + ∠BMQ + ∠MQT + ∠QTB = 360
60 + 90 + 90 + ∠QTB = 360°
⇒ ∠QTB = 120 P a
a
∆BTQ ≅ ∆ BQM r r
⇒ ∠TQB = ∠MQB = 60° T r
BM x Q R
in ∆BQM tan 60° = = r r
QM r 60° r r 90°
x B x m 2r N C
√3 = ⇒ x = r√ 3 a
r
similarly CN = r√3
BC = M + MN + CN = a
2x + 2r = a
⇒ 2(x + r) = a
⇒ 2(r√3 + r) = a ⇒ a = 2r(√3 + 1)
47. Unit’s digit in the number (12357)655 is

1. 1 2. 3
3. 7 4. 9
Sol. 2.
(12357)
unit digit of (12357)655
= unit digit of (7655) = 74 × 163 + 3 = 74 × 143 × 73 = unit digit is (1 × 3) = unit digit is 3.
48. If a cube has surface area S and volume V, then the volume of the cube of surface area 2S is
1. 2 V 2. 2V
3. 2 2 V 4. 4V
Sol. 3.
2
S = 6a
⇒ The length of each edge is a.
2
Now, S = 12a
2
= 6 × 2a
= 6 ( 2 a)
2
∴ length of each edge = 6 ( 2 a )

2
( 2 a ) = 2√2a3 = 2√2 V.
3
Volume =
49. ∆ABC is a triangle with AB = AC and BC = 9 cm. If the height from A to BC is 6 cm, then the
height from C to AB, in cm, is
1. 6.0 2. 7.2
3. 7.5 4. 8.0
Sol. 2.
A
1
ar ( ∆ABC ) = × 9 × 6 cm2 = 27 cm2
2
2 D
9 81 144 + 81 15
AB = 62 +   = 36 + cm = = cm 6cm
2 4 4 2
1
ar ( ∆ABC ) = × AB × CD B 9/2 cm 9/2 cm C
2
1 15
27 = × × CD
2 2
50. How many pairs of natural numbers are there so that difference of their squares is 60 ?
1. 4 2. 3
3. 2 4. 1
Sol. 3.
Let numbers be x and y then x2 – y2 = 60
(x – y)(x + y) = 60
5 × 12 = 60
2 × 30 = 60
4 × 15 = 60
1 × 60 = 60
3 × 20 = 60
6 × 10 = 60
Here, pairs “2 and 30” and “6 and 10” satisfying the given condition.
51. The sum of any three distinct natural numbers arranged in ascending order is 200 such that the
second number is a perfect cube. How many possible values are there for this number?
1. 4 2. 3
3. 2 4. 1
Sol. 2.
Second number can be 23, 33, 43 = 8, 27, 64.
52. If the digits of a three digit number are reserved, then the number so obtained is less than the
original number by 297. If the sum of the digits of the number is 8 and its hundred’s digit has the
largest possible value, then the ten’s digit of the number is
1. 3 2. 2
3. 1 4. 0
Sol. 3.
Suppose the number is x + 10y + 100z
Now, on reversing the new number = z + 10y + 100x
ATO,
x + 10y + 100z – z – 10y – 100x = 297
⇒z=x+3
Also, x + y + z = 8
So, possible cases are 512, 431 but hundred possible value is 5 (maximum)
So, tens digit is 1.
53. If the sum of all the angles of a polygon except one angle is 2220°, then the number of sides of
the polygon is
1. 12 2. 13
3. 14 4. 15
Sol. 4.
(x – 2) × 180° = Sum of angles of polygon with sides x
i.e. Sum of angles should be a multiple of 180°
∴ 2220 = 180° × 12 + 60°
⇒ 2220° + 120° = 2340°
2340°
⇒ (x – 2) =
180°
x – 2 = 13°
⇒ x = 15
54. ABCD is a quadrilateral whose diagonals intersect each other at the point O such that OA = OB =
OD. If ∠OAB = 30°, then the measures of ∠ODA is
1. 30°
2. 45°
3. 60°
4. 90°
Sol. 3.
A B
30° 30°
60°
60°
O
60°
D C
55. A shopkeeper purchased 300 pens and sold one out of four pens at no loss or profit. He sold the
remaining pens at a profit of 20%. What is his overall profit or loss percent on the whole
transaction?
1. 15% profit 2. 15% loss
3. 12% profit 4. 12% loss
Sol. 1.
300
Pens sold at no loss or no profit = = 75
4
Pens sold at 20% profit = 225
Let CP of one pen = Rs 1
CP of 225 pens = Rs 225
 100 + 20  120
SP of 225 pens =   × 225 = × 225 = Rs 270 .
 100  100
Total CP = Rs 300
Total SP = 270 + 75 = Rs 345
45
Profit % = × 100 = 15.
300
56. The value of the expression 34 − 24 2 × ( 4 + 3 2 ) is

1. –2 2. 2
3. 3 4. 4
Sol. 2.
34 − 24 2 × ( 4 + 3 2 )
2
= 34 − 24 2 (4 + 3 2)
2
= ( 34 − 24 2 )(16 + 18 + 24 2 )
= ( 34 − 24 2 )( 34 + 24 2 )
( 34 )2 ( 24 2 )
2
=
= 1156 − 1152 = 4 =2
57. If aabb is a four digit number and also a perfect square then the value of a + b is
1. 12 2. 11
3. 10 4. 9
Sol. 2.
Given number is aabb = 1000a + 100a + 10b + b
= 1100a + 11b
= 11(100 a + b)
For ‘aabb’ to be a perfect square,
100a + b should be of the type
11 × k2 where k is natural number
2
∴The possible values of 11 × k can be:
aabb are 121 × 16
121 × 25
121 × 36
121 × 49 neglected
121 × 64
So, 7744 is the given four digit number and 7 + 4 = 11.
58. For the data 1, 2, 2, 3, 3, 3, 4, 4, 4, 4, …., 9, 9, the product of mean and mode equals
1. 9 2. 45
3. 57 4. 285
Sol. 3.
1 + 22 + 32 + 42 + ... + 92
Mean =
(1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + 5 + 6 + 7 + 8 + 9 )
9 ( 9 + 1)(18 + 1)
6 3 × 5 × 19 19
= = =
( 9 + 1) 9×5 3
9×
2
Mode = 9
19
∴ × = 57
3
59. AD is a diameter of a circle. Two more circles pass through A and intersect AD in B and C
respectively, such that AB and AC are diameters of these circles and AD > AC > AB. If the
circumference of the middle circle is average of the circumference of the other two, then given AB
= 4 units and CD = 2 units, what is the area, in sq. units of the largest circle?
1. 128π 2. 64π
3. 48π 4. 16π
Sol. 4.
C1 + C3
C2 =
2
C1 = 2π × 2 = 4π C1 C2 C3
AC = 4 + x
A D
4 2 P B x C2
r and + x
2 4
(4 + x)
C2 = 2 π = π(4 + x)
2
(6 + x)
C3 = 2 π = (6 + x)π
2
4π + ( 6 + x ) π
= π(4 + x)
2
10 + x = 8 + 2x
x=2
Rad. of 1 carper = 4
= π42 = 16π.
60. If the sum of three consecutive odd numbers is a perfect square between 200 and 400, then the
root of this sum is
1. 15 2. 16
3. 18 4. 19
Sol. 1.
200 < x – 1(x + 2) + (x + 4) < 400
200 < (3x + 6) < 400
200 < 3(x + 2) < 400
Respect squares lying between 200 and 400 225, 256, 289, 324, 362, 225 is the multiple of 3.
∴ 225 = 15.
61. Which process did the English East India Company follow just after acquiring the Diwani rights in
Bengal from the Mughal emperor?
a. Mobilize the revenue resources.
b. Redefine the land rights of the people.
c. Produce the cash crops it required.
d. Annexed the territory.
1. a and c only
2. a and b only
3. a, b and c only
4. All of the above
Sol. 3
These were the changes made by the British.
62. Which of the following is correct?

1. Patola is a cotton cloth with gold thread.
2. Chintz is a printed fine cloth with design.
3. Jamdani is a silk cloth with gold thread and embroidery.
4. Bandanna is a fine cloth with decorative motifs on it.
Sol. 2
Rest all are wrong statements.
63. Match the columns “Name” with “Work” and select the correct alternatives.
Name Work
A James Mill I Founded the Asiatic Society of Bengal
B William Carey II Criticized the Oreintalists
C William Jones III Surveyed the progress of education in vernacular schools
D William Adam IV Established the Serampore Mission
1. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
2. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
3. A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
4. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
Sol. 1
The agencies were formed by the respective people.
64. Which of the following statements regarding the Act of 1858 is incorrect?
1. The English East India Company continued to enjoy trading monopolies in India.
2. A Secretary of State for India was appointed with an India Council to advise.
3. The British Crown became the direct ruler of India.
4. The Governor-General was given the title of the Viceroy.
Sol. 1
The trading monopolies of the English East India were abolished.
65. Why was the Delhi Durbar organized in 1877 with pomp and show?
1. The Viceroy wanted to display the wealth and prosperity of India.
2. The British wanted to threaten the people by displaying their army strength.
3. The British wanted to replace the Mughal emperor from the minds of the people as their
rulers.
4. The Viceroy wanted to appease Queen Victoria.
Sol. 3
Mughal emperor continued to hold important position for the people of India.
66. Arrange the following social reform organization chronologically on the basis of their foundation.
a. Arya Samaj b. Prartjama Samaj
c. Veda Samaj d. Sree Narayan Dharma Pariplana Yogam
1. a, d, c, b 2. a, b, c, d
3. d, c, b, a 4. c, b. a. d
Sol. 4
That is the order in which the agencies were founded.
67. Why did the cotton factories in India grow during the World War I?
1. Masses refused to wear foreign clothes because of Swadeshi appeal.
2. Textile imports from Britain declined because the demand of military supplies from Indian
factories increased.
3. The Government in England lowered the import duties on Indian cotton textiles.
4. The Indian cotton industries started producing cotton clothes at competitive prices.
Sol. 2
Since many soldiers were recruited in the Indian army, their uniforms and other material for these
soldiers was to be sent to India hence the cotton import to India hence the cotton import declined
from Britain.
68. Assertion
(A): William Jones and Colebrooke went about discovering the ancient texts of India.
Reason
(R): Because they were orientalists.
1. A is not correct but R is correct.
2. A is correct but R is not correct.
3. A is correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
4. Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Sol. 3
William Jones and Colebrook were influenced by the ancient culture of India.
69. The non-Brahmin movement was launched by E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker mainly to

1. create self respect in the minds of Dravidians
2. oust the Brahmins from Tamilnadu
3. humiliate the Brahmins
4. acquire political power.
Sol. 1
Periyar was convinced that untouchables had to fight for their rithts.
70. Find out the incorrect statement.

1. The European artists brought with them new styles and new conventions of painting.
2. The European artists brought with them the idea of realism.
3. The European used oil painting which produced images that looked real.
4. The European artists learnt the technique of oil painting from the Indian artists.
Sol. 4
Europeans were the first ones to use oil colours in paintings.
71. Which Five Year Plan gave the maximum thrust on the industrial growth?
1. First Five Year Plan 2. Second Five Year Plan
3. Third Five Year Plan 4. Fourth Five Year Plan
Sol. 2
In 1956 the second five year plant was formulated.
72. Match the following list of subjects which come under the purview of the distribution of powers
and select the correct alternative.
List Subjects
A Central List I Railways
B State List II Health
C Concurrent List III Foreign affairs
D Residuary List IV Water disputes
1. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV 2. A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
3. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I 4. A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
Sol. 2
Residuary list comes under the central list.
73. Which of the following statements are correct about the Planning Commission?
a. It is a constitutional body created by the Parliament Commission.
b. It acts as an advisory body to the Union Government.
c. The Finance Minister is the ex-officio chairman of this body.
d. Its basic function is to formulate priorities for the Five Year Plan for integrated economic and
social development
1. a and c only 2. b and d only
3. a, c and d only 4. d only
Sol. 2
74. What does the ‘mixed economy’ in India mean?

1. Companies of foreign countries can play an equal role in development of India’s economy.
2. Special privileges are given to foreign companies by the government for investment in India.
3. Private companies of India are allowed to invest in public sector.
4. Private sectors play a complementary role along with the public sector.
Sol. 4
Mixed economy was adopted was adopted after the independence.
75. Non-alignment movement which was the basis of Nehru’s foreign policy meant that
1. India would remain neutral in world politics.
2. India would not participate in any way, not even as mediator, to end conflicts between USA
and the Soviet Union.
3. India would not participate in power rivalries and ideological conflicts between the USA and
the Soviet Union.
4. India, along with other like minded Asian and African countries, would create an equally
strong Third Front in world politics in opposition to both the USA and the Soviet Union.
Sol. 1
The soul of the NAM was not to be aligned with any of the super powers.
76. Which of the following best describes “jet streams”?

1. Wind system with seas and reversal of direction.
2. Wind blowing from sub tropical high pressure belts towards the tropical low pressure belts.
3. Narrow meandering bands of winds which blow in mid latitude near the tropopause and
encircle the globe.
4. Winds blowing from the tropical high pressure belts towards the equatorial low pressure belts.
Sol. 3
77. Intense damage was caused in Ladakh in 2010 due to which natural calamity?
1. Mud flow 2. Landslide
3. Earthquake 4. Drought
Sol. 1
Excess rain caused mud flow.
78. Which of the following comes under the category of ‘footloose industry’?
1. Iron and Steel 2. Cotton textile
3. Information technology 4. Petro-chemical
Sol. 3
Footloose industries are those which don’t require any infrastructure.
79. Consider the following population pyramids and associated policy implications shown in column I
and II. Which of these options show the most appropriate match?
Column I : Shape of the population Column II: Policy Implications
pyramids
A Broad base, tapering top X Hub of outsourcing of labour intensive
jobs
B Narrow base, broad middle, tapering Y Easy immigration laws to meet needs
top to elderly care.
C Narrow base, narrow middle broad top Z Focus on reducing birth rates
Sol. 2
80. “Wheat requires moderate temperature and rainfall during growing season and bright sunshine at
the time of harvest.” Which other crop requires the same geographic conditions?
1. Rice 2. Maize
3. Mustard 4. Jute
Sol. 2
Wheat and Maize require similar conditions.
81. Which of the following graphs represent the likely load content of a near its delta?
Sol. 3
In the delta stage river leaves behind all the boulders, most of the gravel and only carries the silt
and clay.
82. Given below are some factors influencing the location of certain industries
a. Skilled labour
b. Low transporation cost
c. Clean and dustfree environment
d. Availability of raw material
e. Government policy
Which among these have more strongly influenced location of IT industry in India?
1. a, b and c 2. b, c and d
3. c, d and e 4. a, c and e
Sol. 4
These are the basic requirements for IT industries.
83. Consider the following industrial regions of India.

a. Hooghly Industrial region
b. Gurgaon-Delhi-Meerut industrial region
c. Ahmedabad-Baroda industrial region
d. Mumbai-Pune industrial region
e. Bangalore-Tamilnadu industrial region
f. Chotanagpur industrial region
g. Vishakhapatnam-Guntur industrial region
Which of these lies outside peninsular India?
1. a, b, d and f
2. b, c, d and f
3. b, d, f and g
4. a, b, c and f
Sol. 4
These industrial regions are situated out of the peninsular India.
84. The following list of towns where steel plants are located in India.
A. Bhilai
B. Jamshedpur
C. Durgapur
D. Bhadravati
E. Rourkela
F. Bokaro
G. Salem
H. Vijay Nagar
Which of the following sequence is located within South India?
1. C, D and F
2. A, D and H
3. D, G and H
4. E, G and H
Sol. 3
85. Column I shows the types of natural vegetation while column II shows the climate type.
Column I Column II
A Evergreen I Arid
Forests
B Deciduous II Semi-humid
C Grasslands III Humid
D Thorny bushes IV Semi arid
Sol. 2
86. Assertion (A): The tropical rainforests are mostly evergreen.

Reason (R): The regions of tropical rainforests get abundant rainfall and have low temperature
through the region.
1. Both A and R are true and R explains A.
2. Both A and R are true but R does not explain A.
3. A is true but R is false.
4. A is false but R is true
Sol. 3
Tropical rainforests have high temperature.
87. Consider the following statements.

A. In India, cropland occupies 57% of total area.
B. Pastures account for 56% area in Australia
C. About 2/3rd area in Japan is under forests
What should be understood from the above statements?
1. India has an efficient land use system while most of the land in Australia and Japan is
rendered waste.
2. India has subsistence agricultural economy, animal husbandry is the main stay of economy in
Australia and forestry is main activity in Japan.
3. Most of the cultivation; in Australia cultivation of crops is confined to small proportion and
most of the land is used for grazing. Japan has conserved its forest resources.
4. India has a faulty land used system, Australia has extensive land use and Japan has small
cultivable land.
Sol. 2
The explanation is supported by the statements.
88. Consider the following statements:

A. It the Tundra region, animals have thick fur the thick skin.
B. Most of the animals in grasslands are herbivores.
C. In tropical rainy forests, many animals live on trees.
Which of the following best explains these statements?
1. Dependence of animals on natural vegetation.
2. Exploitation of wildlife and natural vegetation.
3. Relationship between density of vegetation and wildlife.
4. Adaptation of natural environment
Sol. 4
All the statements show adoptive characters of animals related to their environment.
89. Study the figure below showing the components of water cycle represented by P, Q, R, S, T.
Which of the following can be harnessed to conserve rain water?

1. Q, S 2. P, Q
3. P, S 4. S, T
Sol. 2
Only run off part of the precipitated water can be harnessed to conserve rain water.
90. Mulching is associated with use of

1. material to maintain soil moisture
2. soil to build barrier.
3. trenches to collect water.
4. pilled up rocks to slow down the flow of water.
Sol. 1
Mulching is a process where straw is used to keep the land moist.
91. High Court in the following cities were established at one time or the other. Identify the sequence
in which they appeared.
a. Allahabad
b. Bombay (Now Mumbai)
c. Delhi
d. Nainital
1. a, c, d, b 2. c, d, a, b
3. b, a, c, d 4. d, b, a, c
Sol. 3
The other options are invalid.
92. Fundamental Law of the land is called

1. State 2. Constitution
3. Parliament Act 4. Ordinance
Sol. 2
The other options are invalid.
93. India is a
a. Socialist
b. Secular
c. Sovereign
d. Democratic Republic
Identify the correct sequence as maintained in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution
1. c, a, b, d 2. b, c, a, d
3. c, a, d, b 4. a, b, c, d
Sol. 1
This is the order in which these worlds appear in the preamble.
94. Right to the enjoyment of pollution free water as interpreted by the Supreme Court in Supreme
Court in Subhas Kumar Vs. State of Bihar (1991) falls under
1. Right to Equality 2. Right to Liberty
3. Right against Exploitation 4. Right to Life and Personal liberty
Sol. 4
95. Freedom of media is guaranteed under

1. Liberal system 2. Rule by the proletariat
3. Benevolent ruler 4. Religious ruler
Sol. 1
Liberal system allows the freedoms to express.
96. Economic presence of the government in social realm is found under

1. Fundamental Rights
2. Fundamental Duties
3. Directive Principles of State Policy
4. Policy for determining citizenship
Sol. 3
97. Assertion
(A): The people in between the producers and the final consumers are traders.
Reason
(R): The people who finally sell the commodities to the consumers are retailers.
1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
2. Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
3. A is true but R is false
4. A is false but R is true
Sol. 2
98. The Principle of ‘checks and balances’ is related to

1. Rule of law
2. Fundamental law
3. Fundamental Duties
4. Separation of Powers
Sol. 4
The separation of powers helps in keeping check over the centre.
99. Which one of the following is not an elected member of the House?
1. Speaker of the Lok Sabha
2. Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha
3. Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
4. Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
Sol. 3
Chairman of the Rajya Sabha is the Vice president of India.
100. India has

1. basic democracy
2. controlled democracy
3. guided democracy
4. liberal democracy
Sol. 4
Indian democracy gives complete freedom of expression and other fundamental rights.
NTSE STAGE II 2011-12
SAT PAPER
Solution
1. (1)
In anaerobic respiration in muscles lactic acid is produced which causes muscle cromps.
2. (3)
Column-I Column-II
(I) Red eyed frog (D) Sticky Pad
(II) Toucan (C) Long large beak
(III) Big cats (B) Thick skin and sensitive hearing
(IV) Polar bear (A) Thick skin and strong sense of
smell
3. (4)
Decrease in sea level is not a reason for shortage of usable water.
4. (1)
Asexual reproduction in ginger, potato and onion takes place through stems and underground stem of
Ginger is known as rhizome, potato-tuber, Onion-bulb. In bryophyllum. adventitious buds are present on
leaves reproduce asexually.
5. (2)
In Waste Water Treatment Plant air is pumped into water to support the growth of aerobic bacteria. These
bacteria consume waste.
6. (2)
In human blood circulation deoxygenated blood from body enters into heart through veins. From heart it
goes to lungs for oxygenation through pulmonary artery. From lungs it comes to heart through Pulmonary
vein and from heart it goes to body again.
7. (4)
Clay particles are heavy as they hold more water and space between sand particles is more.
8. (4)
Column-I Column-II
(I) Winnowing (C) Separation of grain & chaff
(II) Threshing (D) Separation of seeds & chaff
(III) Drip system (A) Irrigation
(IV) Weeds (B) Hoe
9. (1)
Larva/Caterpillar when enter the next stage of its life history called pupa. During this, it swings its head
from side to side in the form of the figure of eight. During this movement of the head the caterpillars secrets
fibres made of protein which harden to form silk fibres.
10. (3)
Red data books provide the information on endangered animals and plants.
11. (2)
Due to presence of same genes two sisters looked exactly same.
FIITJEE 1
12. (4)
Baker’s yeast is added to aquarium because It provides minerals and metals and absorbs heavy metals
present in water and purifies it.
13. (1)
Column-I Column-II
(I) Lohi (D) Good quality wool Hosiery
(II) Nali (C) Carpet wool
(III) Patanwadi (A) Hosiery
(IV) Marwari (B) Coarse wool
14. (3)
In frogs change from tadpole to adult is controlled by thyroxin. Thyroxin production requires the presence
of iodine in water.
15. (3)
Polycot = Polyster + cotton
16. (1)
Malamine — Flame resistant
Nylon — Appears silk like
Teflon — non sticking cookwares
Cotton — Easily biodegradable
17. (2)
P4 + O2  P2O5
P2O5 + H2O  H3PO4 (phosphoric acid)
6NaOH + P2O5  2Na3PO4 + 3H2O
18. (2)
Iron – Deposition of reddish brown layer on exposure to moist air
Copper — Formation of green layer on exposure to moist air
Potassium — Can be cut easily with a knife
Mercury — Liquid at room temperature
19. (1)
Naphtalene obtained from coaltar
20. (1)
Natural gas have main constituent CH4.
It use to raw material for manufacturing of fertilizer
It also use for the generation of electricity.
21. (4)
head of match stick = antimony trisulphide (Sb2S3)+ potassium chlorate (KClO3)
22. (4)
candle flame 1. outermost zone 2. middle zone 3. innermost zone ( decreasing order of tempeature)
23. (2)
1. due to greeen house effect radiation trap on earth atmosphere
2. due to green house effect earth temperature rise which known as global warming.
24. (2)
sting- formic acid (HCOOH)
calamine – zinc carbonate (ZnCO3)
FIITJEE 2
25. (4)
fertilizer are acidic in nature (ammonim nitrate ) so. soil become acidic when they use for a long time
period
Slaked lime also use for treatment of acidic soil.
26. (1)
physical change
1. hammering of red hot iron and make flat sheet
2. formation of ice by cooling water
3. vaporisation of sea water.
27. (3)
chemical change :
1. burning of candle wax
2. passing of CO2 gas through lime water.
28. (2)
The friction between the tyres of automobile and the road determines maximum acceleration of automobile
and its minimum stopping distance. Driving a car on a wet road is difficult because water decreases the
friction between the tyres and the road.
29. (1)
(i) Plane mirror always forms virtual image of the same size of a real object
(ii) Concave mirror forms virtual and enlarged image of a real object placed very near to it, so it is used
by dentists to examine teeth.
(iii) Convex mirror always forms virtual image of smaller size of a real object.
(iv) Concave lens always form virtual image of smaller size of a real object and it is thinner in the middle.
(v) Convex lens forms virtual and enlarged image of a real object placed near to it, so it is used as
reading glass.
30. (3)
This can be understood by looking at the following figure.
30°
30°
60°
60° 60°
90° 30° 30°
31. (2)
Atmospheric pressure in the centre of a tropical cyclone is very low because of rising warm air.
32. (2)
In the given situation if two copper plates are moved further apart from each other then smaller amount of
copper will be deposited on the plate connected to negative electrode as ions takes more time to deposit
because of large distance.
33. (1)
Under the similar conditions an electromagnet having more number of turn of the wire wrapped will have
greater strength.
FIITJEE 3
34. (2)
Magnetic field lines around a current carrying straight conductor are concentric circles (as shown in
figure 1) so iron filings settle as circles (as shown in figure 2) in the situation given.
Figure 1 Figure 2
35. (3)
How to locate pole star
Look straight in the direction of the stars situated at the far end of the ladle in Ursa Major (stars 1 and 2).
The star of medium brightness in the direction of the above stars is the pole star (as shown in figure) The
stars 1 and 2 in ursa major which point in the direction of the pole star are called pointer stars.
Ursa minor
7
Polaris or Pole star
6
Ursa major 1
3 Pointer stars
Figure : Relative positions of Ursa Major and Ursa Minor
36. (1)
As we know
C0 F  32

100  0 212  32
25  0 F  32
 
100  0 180
 F = 77 °F
37. (1)
When there is lightning and you are in jungle, go under a canopy of small trees and bushes. If you are out
in the open, crouch on your feet, do not stand up or lie on the ground.
FIITJEE 4
38. (1)
Slope of distance time graph gives speed and in the given situation slope of distance time graph is
constant so speed must be constant.
39. (1)
As we know
Totaldistance covered
Average speed =
time taken
15  5 10 5
Average speed (t = 4 to t = 20 min) =   km / min
20  4 16 8
40. (3)
thrust
We know pressure = so, cuboid will exert maximum pressure when it is kept in such a way that its
area
contact area is minimum.
41. (2)
Pen  Rs. 5 Pencils  Rs.1
Pen : Pencils = 2 : 3
Pen = 2x, Pencil = 3x
Total cost of Pen  10 x and Pencils 3x
112 110
10x   3x   725
100 120
1120 x + 330 x = 725 × 100
1450 x = 725 × 100
x = 50
42. (3)
Let initial Tax = Rs. 100
after decreased by 15% new tax = Rs. 85
110
Consumption increased by 10% then new revenue = 85   Rs.93.50
100
Then percent decrease in revenue = 6.5%
43. (4)
31001  71002 131003
cyclicity of 3 and 7 are 4
i.e. 31 × 72× 33
 3×9×7
 9
44. (3)
6 x 7
i.e. number lie between 36 and 49.
i.e. cube roots of a number lie between 3 and 4.
45. (2)
Sum of interior angle = (n – 2) × 180°
(n  2)  180
One angle of regular polygon =
n
(n  2)  180
i.e. = 165°
n
180° n – 360° = 165° n
180° n – 165° n = 360°
FIITJEE 5
15° n = 360°
n = 24
46. (2)
1
x
y
k
x=
y
xy = k
i.e. x1y1 = x2y2
Let x1 = 100, y1 = 100
x2 = 120, y2 = ?
Now 100 × 100 = 120 × y2
100  100 40 1
y2 =  83  83
120 120 3
2
i.e. y decreases by 16 %
3
47. (1)
A d
=
B d  20
B d
=
C d  10
A d
=
C d  28
A d d
= 
C d  20 d  10
d d d
= 
d  28 d  20 d  10
(d – 20) (d – 10) = d(d – 28)
d2 – 30d + 200 = d2 – 28d
200 = 2d
d = 100
48. (3)
248 – 1 = (224  1)(224  1)
= (224  1)(212  1)(212  1)
= (224  1)(212  1)(26  1)(26  1)
= (224  1)(212  1)(26  1)(23  1)(23  1)
= (224  1)(212  1)(26  1)(9)(7)
i.e. x have two factors between 5 and 10.
49. (4)
abcd and dcba are four digit number.
here abcd = 1000a + 100b + 10c + d
dcba = 1000d + 100c + 10b + a
i.e. sum = 1001a + 110b + 110c + 1001d
= 1001(a + d) + 110(b + c)
= 1001 × 7 + 110 × 7
= 7(1001 + 110) = 7 × 1111 = 7777
i.e. number is divisible by 7, 11, 101
but not divisible by 111.
50. (4)
Let Total number of herd = x
FIITJEE 6
x
are grazing in the fied
2
3x
  are playing
42
1 x 
i.e.    9 are drinking water
42
i.e. x = 9 × 8 = 72
i.e. no. of deer which are grazing field = 36
and no. deer which are playing = 27
difference = 9
i.e. multiple of 9
51. (2)
Let x+y = 180°
x is smaller angle
x = 4 (90° – x)
x = 360° – 4x
5x = 360°
x = 72°
Thus y = 180° – 72° = 108°
Now difference = 108° – 72° = 36°
52. (3)
A:B:C:D=3:7:6:4
3x + 7x + 6x + 4x= 360°
20x = 360°
x = 18°
A = 54°, B = 126°, C = 108°, D = 72°
i.e. ABCD is a trapezium.
53. (4)
Angle 2x + 4x + 9x = 180°
15 x = 180°  x = 12°
i.e. 24°, 48°, 108°
extorior angle one, 156°, 132°, 72°
different between smallest  132° – 72° = 60°
54. (4) A
 ABD   ACD
CAD = BAD = 30° 30° 30°
1 125°
ADB = ADC = (360  110) = 125° 125°
2 D
ABD = 180° – 155° = 25° 110°
B C
55. (2) A
2
AD = 9y
2 2 2
in ABD 16 = x + y + 2xy + 9 – y
2 8
7 = x + 2xy ...(1) 4
2 2 3
in ADC 64 = (x – y) + (9 – y )
55 = x2 – 2xy ...(2)
y
(1) + (2) 62 = 2x2
x2 = 31 B x M D x–y C
x = 31 x+y
BC = 2x  2 31cm
FIITJEE 7
56. (3)
C = 2r
A = r2
C' = x.C = x 2r
A' = 2A = 2r2
Since area doubles then radius should be 2 times
i.e. r' = 2 r
Hence C' = 2 (2r)
So, x = 2
57. (3)
1
 (2r)  r
2
2r 2
  r2
2
58. (1)
360
x  30
12
59. (3)
Rhombus
60. (3)
21, 39, 39, 45, 54, 54, 56, 56, 56, 77, 84, 84
Mode = 56
54  56
Median =  55
2
Range = 84 – 21 = 63
56  55  63 174
 Mean =   58
3 3
61 (4)
Sol. Dhangadeva built Kandariya Mahadeva temple, Rajarajadeva built Rajarajeshvara temple devoting Lord
Shiva, Rajendra I built the city of Gangaikondacholapuram to commomerate victory over Ganga valley and
Babur followed Chahar Bagh strategy for gardens.
62 (3)
Sol Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
63 (1)
Sol. Alvars saints of South India were followers of Lord Vishnu. Nayanars were worshippers of Lord Shiva.
FIITJEE 8
64 (1)
Sol. During Mughal period Bakhshi was responsible for paying salaries to soldiers. Faujdar was army general.
Sadr-ur-Sudar was responsible to take care of religious behaviour of people. Kotwal look after the law and
order of city.
65 (3)
Sol. Only B option is correct.
(A) British victories in India served as rich material for history painters in Britain
(C) Portrait of Nawab Muhammad Ali Khan of Arcot, was painted by George Willison in 1775.
(D) Johann Zoffany, was born in Germany.
66 (2)
Sol. Kathak word evolved from the word “Katha” (Story tillers), Kathak later developed by Bhakti Saint. Nawab
Wajid Ali Shah of Awadh patronaged Kathak and later by Mughals.
67 (4)
Sol. Kanchipuram was the capital of Pallava nearly 1400 years ago. Later Masulipatnam emerged as an
important town during Narsimhavarman. Hampi was the capital of Vijayanagara kingdom during Sultanate
period. Bombay emerged as an important town during colonial period.
68 (4)
Sol. Garh was divided into Chaurasi, into Barhots and later into smallest unit known as Village.
69 (2)
Sol. Raziya was the only women Sultan during Sultanate period.
70 (4)
Sol. James Mill divided Indian history into Hindu, Muslim and British.
71. (4)
Sol. Option A, B, C are correct. Residents were appointed by Britishers in respect to “Subsidiary Alliance” to
look into daily affairs of administration.
72 (3)
Sol. Tagore felt that childhood ought to be a time of self-learning, outside the regid and restricting discipline of
the schooling system set up by the British. Tagore wanted to combine elements of modern western
civilisation with what he saw as the best within Indian tradition.
73 (2)
Sol. (A) Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangh – 1920
(B) All India Muslim League – 1906
(C) Indian Association – 1870
(D) Indian National Congress - 1885
74 (4)
Sol. During Shah Jahan’s time Delhi was famous for Dargahs, Khanqahs and Idgahs. Open squares, winding
lanes quit Cul-de-sacs and water channels. Due to this Mir Taqi Mir said the above statement.
75 (3)
Sol. Both A and R are true and R in the correct explanation of A.
76 (2)
Sol. Energy decreases by 90%
77. (3)
Ionosphere is electrically charged by ions hence radio waves are reflected back.
78. (4)
Westerlies are stronger in Southern hemisphere due to clear water bodies. Winds moves very fast in
absence of hurdles. Northern hemisphere is occupied by landmasses.
FIITJEE 9
79. (4)
Diagram represent spring tides.
80. (4)
National parks are correctly matched with their respective region.
81. (1)
Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation of ‘A’
82. (2)
Lorraine area in France is significant for coal fields.
83. (1)
Indianapolis lies in the United States of America.
84. (4)
Figure ‘A’ show high birth rate and high death rate which is a characteristics of least developed economy.
Figure ‘B’ show high birth rate and high life expectancy rate, a sign developing economy. Figure ‘C’ shows
low birth rate and very high life expectancy rate, a sign of developing economy
85. (2)
8 tonnes of coal + 4 tonnes of iron ore + 1 tonne of lime stone = 1 tonne of steel.
86. (4)
(1) Shifting cultivation = Rengmas
(2) Pastoralism = Kirghiz
(3) Hunter and food Gatherers = Pygmies
(4) Hunters – Eskimos
87. (3)
Region Grasslands
1. Argentina Pampas
2. North America Prarie
3. South Africa Velds
4. Central Asia Steppes
5. Australia Velds
88. (3)
Llanos, Selvas, Gran chacos, Pampas.
89. (4)
Concept is evaporation i.e. upward movement.
Condensation in upper troposphere and later precipitation i.e. downward movement.
90. (4)
Both the currents i.e. D and B are coming from polar areas.
91. (3)
In a Republic the head of the state is elected by people.
92. (4)
Article 356 allows Governor, to have President rule in the State. If the State Government is not performing
to maintain law and order.
93. (3)
It comes in advisory jurisdiction of Supreme Court but President is not under obligation to accept the
advise.
94. (4)
The boundaries of States can be altered by the Indian Parliament.
95. (3)
INC was defeated for the first time in 1977.
FIITJEE 10
96. (2)
In capitalist society private entrepreneurs has a prominent place.
97. (3)
Indian and U.S. Constitution.
98. (4)
Lok-Sabha Secretariat function under Speaker.
99. (2)
“International Women Day” is celebrated on 8th March.
100. (3)
Correct sequence is Dr. Rajendra Prasad, Dr. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan, Dr. Zakir Hussain and
Dr. V.V. Giri.
* * * * *
FIITJEE 11
NTSE STAGE II-2014
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
ANSWERS
1. 4 2. 4 3. 3 4. 1
5. 2 6. 2 7. 1 8. 1
9. 4 10. 3 11. 1 12. 4
13. 2 14. 1 15. 3 16. 1
17. 2 18. 3 19. 1 20. 4
21. 4 22. 1 23. 3 24. 1
25. 4 26. 2 27. 3 28. 2
29. 2 30. 1 31. 3 32. 2
33. 1 34. 3 35. 4 36. 2
37. 1 38. 3 39. 4 40. 4
41. 2 42. 2 43. 3 44. 4
45. 3 46. 1 47. 3 48. 1
49. 3 50. 4
NTSE – II-2014
MENTAL ABILITY TEST
(FOR STUDENTS OF CLASS – X)
1. Select the correct number that is missing in the number series given below:
214, 265, 367, ?, 724
(1) 520 (2) 501
(3) 525 (4) 571
1. 1
2. Select the correct alphabet number that is missing in the alphabet number series given
below:
NAJ31, BEF28, RAM31, ?, YAM31
(1) RPA31 (2) PRA30
(3) RPA30 (4) PAR31
2. 3
3. P + Q mean P is the father of Q; P – Q means P is the wife of Q; P x Q means P is the

brother of Q. Which of the following means A is the maternal uncle of D?
(1) A x B – C + D (2) D x C – B x A
(3) A x C + B – D (4) A – C x B + D
3. 1
4. Select from the alternative two signs which need to be interchanged to make the following
equation correct 36 ÷ 12 x 6 + 9 – 6 = 38
(1) – and x (2) ÷ and x
(3) – and + (4) ÷ and +
4. 4
5. According to a certain code, ‘=’ means ‘>’, ‘–’ means ‘+', ‘+’ means ‘–’. If a, b and c are
positive integers and a = b = c, then which of the following are true?
(1) b = a+ c (2) ac = b2
(3) a – c = 2b (4) ab = c2
5. 1
6. Find the correct group of letters in place of ‘?’ in the following series.
FNHLJ, WOUQS, BNEKH, ?, DTHPL
(1) NBKEH (2) NVPTR
(3) NFLHJ (4) NDRZV
6. 1
Directions (Q 7 – 8): Each of the following questions contains three figures in which numbers are
written according to a pattern. Find the missing number for each question from among the
alternatives.
(1) 13 (2) 14
(3) 12 (4) 18
7. 1
FIITJEE Ltd., North West Delhi Centre, 31-32-33, Central Market, West Avenue Road, Punjabi Bagh (West), New Delhi - 110026, Ph: 011-45634000
8. (1) 14 (2) 16
(3) 15 (4) 11
8. 3
9. Two faces of a cube are given below. Which number will be opposite 3?
(1) 1 (2) 5
(3) 4 (4) 2
9. 1
Directions (Q 10 – 11): Each of the following questions has a problem followed by a few numbered
statements. Decide which of the statements are sufficient for answering the problem and choose
your answer form the alternative
10. A, B and C together can complete a work in ‘x’ days. How many days would B alone take to
complete the work?
Statements:
I. C can complete the work in half the number of days taken by A
II. B can complete the work in half the number of days taken by A and C together
III. A and C taken together can complete the work in ‘z’ days
(1) Both I and II are required (2) I alone is sufficient
(3) II and III taken together are sufficient (4) Either II or III is sufficient
10. 4
11. A boat travels in a stream from A to B and then from B to A. What is the speed of the boat in
still water?
Statements:
I. The sped of the boat in still water is 2km/h more than the speed of the current
II. The speed of the current is 1 km/h more than the speed of the boat
III. Boat covers the distance of y kilometres between A and B downstream and upstream in x
hours
(1) All of I, II and III are required
(2) Both II and III are required
(3) I and III taken together are sufficient
(4) Either I and II together or II and III together are sufficient
11. 3
12. How many triangles are there in the following figure?
(1) 20 (2) 18
(3) 22 (4) 17
12. 1
13. There are two statements given below as premises, which support the conclusion suggested
in the answer options. You may select the conclusion that makes the whole argument valid:
Statements:
I. No film actors are cricketers
II. Some cricketers are poets
(1) Therefore, some poets are film actors (2) Therefore, some poets are not film actors
(3) Therefore, all poets are film actors (4) Therefore, all film actors are poets
13. 2
14. Find the missing (?) in the following series:

2, 6, 30, 260, ?
(1) 470 (2) 510
(3) 630 (4) 3130
14. 4
15. One term in the following number series is wrong. Find the wrong term
2, 6, 18, 82, 650
(1) 2 (2) 18
(3) 82 (4) 650
15. 3
16. If RIR is coded as IRI then MUM is coded as

(1) NFN (2) UMU
(3) UNU (4) MFM
16. 2
17. If FAST is coded as 798 and LAST is coded as 906 then BUSY is coded as
(1) 1759 (2) 1431
(3) 952 (4) 948
17. 2
18. Six students A, B, C, D E and F are in a class. A and B are from Town and C, D, E and F are
from village. D and F are studious while others are casual. A, C, D are girls and B, E, F are
boys. Who is the studious girl from village?
(1) C (2) D
(3) E (4) F
18. 2
19. Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below it:
A. Gopal is short then Ashok but taller than Kunal
B. Navin is shorter than Kunal
C. Jayesh is taller than Navin
D. Ashok is taller than Jayesh
Who among them is the tallest?
(1) Gopal (2) Ashok
(3) Kunal (4) Navin
19. 2
20. Five persons are standing in a line. One of two persons at the extreme ends is a professor
and the other is businessman. An advocate is standing to the right of a student. An author is
to the left of the businessman. The student is standing between the professor and the
advocate. Counting form the left, the advocate is at which place?
(1) 1st (2) 2nd
rd
(3) 3 (4) 5th
20. 3
Directions (Q 21 – 24): A code language has been used to write the words in capital letters English
in Column I as Greek letters in Column II. Greek letters in Column II do not appear in the same
order as letters in Column I. Decode the language and choose the correct code for the word given in
each question from amongst the alternatives provided.
Column I Column II
CLEAR 
VIEW 
TURN 
BUTTER 
OILY 
WRITE 
VOWEL 
21. LIVER
(1)  (2) 
(3)  (4) 
21. 2
22. TROUBLE
(1)  (2) 
(3)  (4) 
22. 4
23. BROWN
(1)  (2) 
(3)  (4) 
23. 3
24. CYCLE
(1)  (2) 
(3)  (4) 
24. 1
Directions (Q 25 – 28): P, Q, R, S, T, V and W are seven members of a family. Each of them has a
different profession – Lawyer, Chartered Accountant (CA), Engineer, Teacher, Doctor, Architect and
Pharmacist. There are three female members. No lady is either Pharmacist or CA. Each of them
has a different monthly income. The Chartered Accountant earns the most. S, the engineer, earns
less than V, the doctor. R, the teacher earns more than P and less than S. W’s wife earns the least.
T is an unmarried lady lawyer and she earns less than P and more than only Q. The pharmacist’s
income is not the lowest.
25. Which of the following pairs of professional represents the professions of husband and wife?
(1) Pharmacist, Architect (2) Chartered Accountant, Architect
(3) Engineer, Pharmacist (4) Chartered Accountant, Engineer
25. 2
26. Which of the following statements is false?

(1) The Architect earns more than the Lawyer
(2) The Teacher earns less than the Engineer
(3) The Doctor earns more than the Engineer
(4) The Pharmacist earns more than the Lawyer
26. 1
27. What is P’s profession?

(1) Pharmacist (2) Lawyer
(3) Teacher (4) None of the above
27. 1
28. Which of the following represents the three female members of the family?
(1) PTQ (2) TRQ
(3) VTQ (4) Data inadequate
28. 4
29. Which of the following Venn Diagram correctly represents Ocean, Indian Ocean, Pacific
Ocean and Mariana Trench?
29. 3
30. If RAJASTHAN – 9R17J8L19H13 is a coded language, then what is the encrypted from of
the MANIPUR in the same language?
(1) 14R13H11G9 (2) 13M14W11B9
(3) 13R14J11F9 (4) 14M13V11J9
30. 4
31. What is the next number in the series 7, 23, 55, 109, …
(1) 199 (2) 189
(3) 191 (4) 209
31. 3
32. Find the missing number in the second figure on the basis of numbers arranged in the first
figure.
(1) 30 (2) 58
(3) 160 (4) 32
32. 2
Directions (Q 33 – 37): In the Venn Diagram given below, sample data of a small town having total
population of 500, the square represents persons from urban areas, the triangle represents women,
the circle represents persons who are working and the rectangle represents the person how are
educated. Number given are number of persons.
33. If urban population is 350 find out the non educated non working urban females?
(1) 13 (2) 10
(3) 9 (4) 20
33. 1
34. Find out the urban males who are educated but not working.
(1) 110 (2) 40
(3) 30 (4) 7
34. 2
35. If rural population is 150, how many non working rural males who are not educated?
(1) 5 (2) 1
(3) 6 (4) 3
35. 4
36. Find out total non – working females but educated

(1) 80 (2) 79
(3) 51 (4) 19
36. 2
37. Find out the total rural male population

(1) 111 (2) 187
(3) 180 (4) 114
37. 1
38. Crime : Police : : Flood : ?

(1) Dam (2) River
(3) Rain (4) Reservoir
38. 1
39. When the given sheet of paper (X) is folded to make a cube, choose the cube that may be
formed
(1) 1 only (2) 1, 2 and 3 only

(3) 2 and 3 only (4) 1, 2, 3 and 4
39. 4
40. In the following diagram, there are four inter locked figure of a circle, a square, a triangle and
a rectangle representing number of students passing in English, Maths, Science and Hindi,
respectively. Different regions of the diagrams are also lettered from A through Q.
Now consider the following statements:
Statements:
I. There is no letter that represents a student who passed in all the four subjects
II. There are only two letters that represents a student who passed on three subject only.
Which of the above statements is / are correct?
(1) I only (2) II only
(3) Both I and II (4) Neither I and II
40. 4
41. What is ‘X’ in the following table.
7 2 19 3 5
6 4 X 3 5
8 5 24 7 4
(1) 16 (2) 17
(3) 18 (4) 21
41. 3
42. Consider the question and two statements that follow:

What is the total cost of one pen, and one pencil and I note book?
Statements:
I. The total cost of 5 pen, 6 pencils and 7 note books is Rs 178
II. The total cost of 6 pens, 4 pencils and 2 note books, is Rs 124
Which one of the following is correct?
(1) Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question
(2) Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question
(3) Statement I and II together are sufficient to answer the question
(4) Both statements are not sufficient to answer the question
42. 4
43. Which one of the following differs the rest?

(1) MGDLFC (2) JQVIPU
(3) ZUBXTA (4) DYSCXR
43. 3
44. Which one of the following fits inside the bracket?

714 ( ) 65 IF 953 (RVXYS)28
(1) UWZSR (2) UWZRS
(3) TZWVU (4) TZWUV
44. 4
45. If ‘X’ was born on December 6, 1983 and ‘Y’ on February 4, 1984, then when will ‘Y’ be half
in age as compared to ‘X’?
(1) April 4, 1984 (2) April 5, 1984
(3) April 6, 1984 (4) April 8, 1984
45. 1
46. Famine : Hunger : : War : ____

(1) Enmity (2) Insecurity
(3) Destruction (4) Infanctry
46. 3
47. Five persons P, Q, R, S and T are sitting in a row. Q is in between P and T. To find who
among them is in the middle, which of the following information given in the following
statement is/are sufficient?
Statements:
I. P is left of Q and right of S
II. R is at the right end
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(1) I only (2) II only
(3) Either I or II (4) Both I and II
47. 4
48. Certain blank spaces are left in the following series. Which is the group of letters given
below, if put in the blank spades in sequence, will complete the series?
a_ ab _ a _ ba _ ab _ _ ab _
(1) bbaabb (2) babaaaa
(3) abaaaba (4) aaaaaaa
48. 4
49. If the letters of the word ‘BLUE’ are arranged according to dictionary, what is the position of
the word ‘UBLE’?
(1) 19 (2) 20
(3) 21 (4) 22
49. 2
50. All except one does not belong to the same group. Which is that?
50. 4
NTSE – II-2014
SCHOLASTIC ABILITY TEST
(FOR STUDENTS OF CLASS – X)
1. Which one of the following statements is NOT true about evolution?

(1) Evolution leads to generation of diverse forms of life
(2) Time dating and fossil studies help in understanding of evolution
(3) Evolution is not always progressive series of changes that occur in organism
(4) Human beings have not evolved from chimpanzees.
1. 4
Sol. Human beings are evolved from chimpanzees as per organic evolution.
2. Which one of the following is known as energy currency of cell?

(1) Adenosine diphosphate (2) Adenosine triphosphate
(3) Pyruvate (4) Glucose
2. 2
Sol. Adenosine Tri phosphate is known as energy currency of cell because of Adenine and
phosphate.
3. An analysis of soil sample revealed 0.1 mg of a pesticide and 1 mg of the same pesticide
was found in grains. However in the adipose tissue of birds the concentration was 2 mg.
The reason for this is the phenomenon known as
(1) Bio-absorption (2) Bio-translocation
(3) Bio-magnification (4) Bio-multiplication
3. 3
Sol. Concentration of Nutrients increases in each level of food chain causes Biomagnification.
4. Diseases that spreads by vector such as mosquitoes are

(1) Encephalitis and Malaria (2) Syphilis and AIDS
(3) Tuberculosis and sleeping sickness (4) Kala-azar and SARS
4. 1
Sol. Vectors of encephalitis is culex mosquito and Malaria is female Anapheles.
5. Which one of the following is correct route for passage of sperms?

(1) Testes  scrotum  vasdeferens  urethra penis
(2) Scrotum  testes  urethra  vasdeferens  penis
(3) Testes  vasdeferens  urethra  seminal vesicles
(4) Testes  vasdeferens  urethra  penis
5. 4
Sol. Correct route of movement of sperms in male reproductive tract is testes  Vas deferens 
urethra  penis.
6. Suggest which among the following is NOT a function attributed to endoplasmic reticulum
(1) Detoxification of poisons and drugs
(2) Digestion/egestion of foreign materials outside the cell
(3) Manufacture of fat and lipid molecules
(4) Biogenesis of membranes
6. 2
Sol. Digestion / egestion of foreign materials outside the cell is done by digestive bag
(Lysosome)
7. In nitrogen cycle, atmospheric nitrogen is fixed by bacteria and converted into ammonia.
Ammonia is further converted into other forms of nitrogen. At the end of the cycle it returns
to the atmosphere by the process of :
(1) Ammonification (2) Nitrification
(3) Denitrification (4) Assimilation
7. 3
Sol. Change of nitrates and nitrites in the form of nitrogen is known as denitirification done by
pseudomonas bacteria.
8. Cell organelles that are involved in the waste disposal system of the cell are :
(1) Golgi apparatus (2) Lysosomes
(3) Chromosomes (4) Ribosomes
8. 2
Sol. Lysosomes are also known as cellular sacvanger or cellular housekeeper.
9. Sequence of events which occur in a reflex action are

(1) Receptor  motor neuron  CNS  sensory neuron  effector muscle
(2) Effector muscle  CNS  sensory nerve  sensory organ
(3) CNS  sensory neuron  motor neuron  effector muscle
(4) Receptor organ  sensory neuron  CNS  motor neuron  effector muscle
9. 4
Sol. Path of reflex arc is Receptor  sensory neuron  CNS  motor Neuron  effector muscles.
10. Movement of food in digestive tract is due to

(1) concentration gradient (2) secretions
(3) peristalsis (4) villi
10. 3
Sol. Movement of food in digestive tract takes place by the contraction and relaxation of muscles
that is known as peristalsis or peristaltic movement.
11. A pea plant with round green (RRyy) pea seed is crossed another pea plant with wrinkled
yellow (rrYY) seeds. What would be the nature of seed in the first generation (F 1
generation)?
(1) Round green (2) Wrinkled green
(3) Wrinkled yellow (4) Round yellow
11. 4
Sol. Law of Dominance given by Mendal.
12. Some organisms are sensitive to different levels of air pollution and are used as pollution-
indicators. Suggest which among the following fits into the category.
(1) Fungi (2) Fresh water algae
(3) Bacteria (4) Lichens
12. 4
Sol. Lichens are indicator of air pollution.
13. A group of laboratory mice having tails are bred together and their progeny studied. The
progeny had tails. However, scientist surgically removed the tails of the progeny and again
bred them for four successive generations. What do you think would be the nature of the
new progeny?
(1) All mice born will have tails
(2) All mice born will have no tails
(3) The ratio of tail less to tailed mice will be 1 : 3
(4) The ratio of tail less to tailed mice will be 1 : 4
13. 1
Sol. It is because inheritens of acquired characters does not takes place in very short period of
time.
14. Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

(1) Tendons are tissues with great strength and flexibility
(2) Bones are connected to each other by tendons
(3) Cartilage smoothens bone surface at joints
(4) Tendons connect muscles to bones
14. 2
Sol. Bones are connected to each other by ligaments.
15. Which of the following are the correct examples of matter?

(1) Glass bottle, water and noise (2) Air, wood and vaccum
(3) Silver foil, hot air and chalk (4) Sand, oxygen and light flash
15. 3
Sol. All three are material object
16. Two identical beakers labeled as (X) and (Y) contain 100 cm3 of water each at 20oC. To the
water in the beaker(X) 100 g of water at 0oC was added and stirred to mix thoroughly. To the
beaker(Y) 100 g of ice at 0oC was added and stirred till it melted into water. The water in the
beaker(Y) will be
(1) hotter than water in beaker X (B) colder than water in beaker X
(3) heavier than water in beaker X (D) lighter than water in beaker X
16. 2
Sol. Due to absorption of latent heat of fusion, beaker Y has water colder than water in X
17. At 283 K a saturated solution of solid X can be prepared by dissolving 21.0 g of it in 100 g of
water. The maximum amount of X which can be dissolved in 100 g of water at 313 K is 62.0
g. An attempt is made to dissolved 50.0 g of X in 100 g of water at 313 K
(A) All the 50.0 g of X will dissolve at 313 K
(B) At 313 K 29.0 g of X will remain undissolved
(C) Solubility of X decrease with increase of temperature
(D) On cooling the solution of X from 313 K to 283 K more than 21.0 g of X will crystallize out
Which of the above statements are correct?
(1) A and B (2) A and D
(3) B and C (4) A, C and D
17. 2
Sol. On decreasing temperature solubility of solid decreases, so excess solute will crystallilze.
18. Two elements A and B contain 13 and 8 proton respectively. If the number of neutrons in
them happen to be 14 and 8 respectively, the formula unit mass for the compound between
A and B unit would be
(1) 43 (2) 75
(3) 102 (4) 112
18. 3
Sol. P n P n
A 13 14 B 8 8
27 16
A = Al B=O
Al2O3 = 27 + 27 + 48 = 102
19. The reaction of burning carbon in oxygen is represented by the equation

C  s   O 2  g   CO2  g   Heat  Light
When 9.0 g of solid carbon is burnt in 16.0 g of oxygen gas, 22.0 g of carbon dioxide is
produced. The mass of carbon dioxide gas formed on burning of 3.0 g of carbon in 32.0 g of
oxygen would be (Note: Atomic mass of C = 12.0 u, O = 16.0 u)
(1) 6.60 g (2) 7.33 g
(3) 8.25 g (4) 11.00 g
19. 4
Sol. C  O2   CO 2
12 g 32 g  44 g
9 g 16 g  229
3 g 32 g 
44
For 3 g carbon =  3  11g
12
20. An atom of an element(X) has its K, L and M shells filled with some electrons. It reacts with
sodium metal to form a compound NaX. The number of electrons in the M shell of the
atom(X) will be
(1) Eight (2) Seven
(3) Two (4) One
20. 2
Sol. NaX
X has valency = 1
Na+X–
X has seven valence electrons
21. Oxygen gas reacts with hydrogen to produce water. The reaction is represented by the
equation
O2  g  H2  g 
 H2O  g
The above reaction is an example of
(a) Oxidation of hydrogen (b) Reduction of oxygen
(c) Reduction of hydrogen (d) Redox reaction
(1) a, b and c (2) b, c and d
(3) a, c, and d (4) a, b and d
21. 4
Sol. Reduction
0 0 1 2
O2  H 2  H 2 O
Oxidation
22. Match the items of column – I with the items of column – II

Column – I Column – II
(a) NH4OH  CH3 COOH 
 CH3COONH4  H2O (i) Thermal decomposition
(b) 2 AgBr 
 2 Ag  Br2 (ii) Thermit reaction
(c) ZnCO3 
 ZnO  CO2 (iii) Photochemical reaction
(d) 2 Al  Fe 2O3 
 2Fe  Al2O3 (iv) Neutralization reaction
(1) (d)ii (c)iv (b)i (a)iii (2) (c)i (a)ii (d)iii (b)iv
(3) (b)ii (d)i (a)iii (c)iv (4) (a)iv (b)iii (c)i (d)ii
22. 4
Sol. (a) NH4OH  CH3 COOH   CH3COONH4  H2O - Neutralization reaction
(b) 2 AgBr 
 2 Ag  Br2 - Photochemical reaction
(c) ZnCO3 
 ZnO  CO2 - Thermal decomposition
(d) 2 Al  Fe2O3 
 2Fe  Al2O3 - Thermit reaction
23. Which of the following represents the correct order of the acidic strength for equimolar
aqueous solution of HCl, H2SO4, NH4OH and NaOH
(1) HCl < NH4OH < NaOH < H2SO4 (2) NH4OH < NaOH < H2SO4 < HCl
(3) HCl < H2SO4 < NH4OH < NaOH (4) NaOH < NH4OH < HCl < H2SO4
23. 4
Sol. NaOH < NH4OH < HCl < H2SO4
pH = 11 pH = 10 pH = 3 pH = 2.73
24. Metals like sodium, potassium, calcium and magnesium are extracted by electrolysis of their
chlorides in molten state. These metals are not extracted by reducing of their oxides with
carbon because
(a) reduction with carbon is very expensive
(b) carbon readily makes alloy with these metals
(c) carbon has less affinity for oxygen than these metals
(d) carbon is weaker reducing agent than these metals
(1) a and b (2) b and c
(3) c and d (4) d and a
24. 3
Sol. Carbon has less affinity for oxygen than these metals & carbon is weaker reducing agent
than these metals
25. A hydrocarbon has a molecular formula as C6H12. It does not react with hydrogen to give
C6H14 nor does it react with chlorine to give C6H12Cl2. The hydrocarbon C6H12 is
(a) A saturated hydrocarbon
(b) An unsaturated hydrocarbon
(c) An open chain hydrocarbon
(d) a cyclo-alkane
(1) a and b (2) c and d
(3) d and b (4) a and d
25. 4
Sol. C6H12
H H
H
C H
H C C
H
H C H
C H
H H
H
Is a saturated cyclo alkane which does not react with H2 of Cl2
26. An organic compound is a clear liquid having a molecular formula C4H8O. It has an open
chain structure. Without any carbon-carbon double bond. The compound can be
(a) an alcohol (b) an ester
(c) an aldehyde (d) a ketone
(1) a and b (2) c and d
(3) b and d (4) d and a
26. 2
Sol. O
 CH3  CH2  CH2  C  H Bu tanol 

C4H8O 
O
CH3CCH2CH3
2 – Butanone
27. An element with atomic number 17 is placed in the group 17 of the long form periodic table.
Element with atomic number 9 is placed above and with atomic number 35 is placed below
it. Element with atomic number 16 is placed left and with atomic number 18 is placed right to
it. Which of the following statements are correct?
(a) Valency of the element with atomic number 18 is zero
(b) Elements with same valency will have atomic number 16, 17 and 18
(c) Valency of elements with atomic number 9, 17 and 35 is one
(d) Element with atomic number 17 is more electronegative than element with atomic
numbers 16 and 35
(1) a, b and c (2) a, c and d
(3) b, c and d (4) a, b and d
27. 2
Sol 17A= Chlorine

9B = Fluorine Valency = 1
35C = Bromine
16D = Sulphur
18E = Argon  Valency zero
Chlorine is more electronegative than sulphur & bromine
28. A car is moving with a constant speed of 70 km/h. Which of the following statements
is correct?
(1) The acceleration of the car is definitely zero.
(2) The car has an acceleration only if it is moving along a curved path.
(3) The car may have an acceleration even if it is moving along a straight path.
(4) The car may not have an acceleration even if it is moving along a curved path.
28. 2
Sol. In curved path centripetal acceleration act.
29. A box of mass 20 kg is pushed along a rough floor with a velocity 2 m/s and then let go.
The box moves 5 m on the floor before coming to rest. What must be the frictional force
acting on the box?
(1) 4 N (2) 2 N
(3) 20 N (4) 8 N
29. 4
Sol. By work energy theorem
1
mv 2  fd
2
30. Two objects, one 4 times as massive as the other, are approaching each other under their
mutual gravitational attraction. When the separation between the objects is 100 km, the
acceleration of the lighter object is 1 m/s2. When the separation between them is 25 km, the
acceleration of the heavier object is
(1) 1 m/s2 (2) 2 m/s2
2
(3) 8 m/s (4) 4 m/s2
30. 4
GM1M2
Sol. Gravitational force F =
R2
G  m  4m 
2
 m  a1      i 
100 
G  m  4m 
2
  4m  a2     ii 
 25 
31. A spring balance measures the weight of an object in air to be 0.1 N. It shows a reading of
0.08 N when the object is completely immersed in water. If the value of acceleration due to
gravity is 10 m/s2, the volume of the object is
(1) 20 cm3 (2) 80 cm3
3
(3) 200 cm (4) 2 cm3
31. 4
Sol. The Buoyant force = 0.02 = vdg
0.02 = V(103) × (10)
V = 2 cm3
32. A force of 10 N is applied on an object of mass 1 kg of 2s, which was initially at rest. What is
the work done on the object by the force?
(1) 200 J (2) 20 J
(3) 16 J (4) 180 J
32. 1
Sol. a = 10 m/sec2
1
S = ut + at 2
2
1
S = 0 + (10)  (4)  S = 20
2
W = (20) × (10) = 200.
33. Stethoscope of doctors for finding quality, strength and frequency of human heart beat is
based on the principle of
(1) SONAR (2) Reverberation
(3) Multiple reflection (4) Echo
33. 3
Sol. Stethoscope of doctors for finding quality, strength and frequency of human heart beat is
based on the principle of multiple reflection.
34. A ray of light is incident in medium 1 on a surface that separates medium 1 from medium 2.
Let 1 and 2 represent the velocity of light in medium 1 and medium 2 respectively. Also let
n12 and n21 represent the refractive index of medium 1 with respect to medium 2 and
refractive index of medium 2 with respect to medium 1, respectively. If i and r denote the
angle of incidence and angle of refraction, then
sin i  sin i 
(1)  n21  1 (2)  n21  2
sin r 2 sin r 1
sin i  sin i 
(3)  n12  1 (4)  n12  2
sin r 2 sin r 1
34. 1
Sol. By Snell’s law.
n1Sin(i) = n2Sin(r)
35. A convex lens has a focal length of 0.5 m. It has to be combined with a second lens, so that
the combination has a power of 1.5 dioptre. Which of the following could be the second
lens?
(1) A concave lens of focal length 2 m (2) Another convex lens of focal length 0.5 m.
(3) A concave lens of focal length 0.5 m. (4) A convex lens of focal length 2 m.
35. 1
1 1 1 1 1
Sol.   ; 1.5 = 
F F1 F2 0.5 F2
36. Which of the following statements is correct?

(1) A person with myopia can see nearby objects clearly.
(2) A person with hypermetropia can see nearby objects clearly.
(3) A person with myopia can see distant objects clearly.
(4) A person with hypermetropia cannot see distant objects clearly.
36. 1
Sol. By definition of myopia.
37. Consider two conducing plates A and B, between which the potential difference is 5 V, plate
A being at a higher potential. A proton and an electron are released at plates A and B
respectively. The two particles then move towards the opposite plates – the proton to plate B
and the electron to plate A. Which one will have a larger velocity when they reach their
respective destination plates?
(1) Both will have the same velocity.
(2) The electron will have the larger velocity.
(3) The proton will have the larger velocity.
(4) None will be able to reach the destination point.
37. 2
Sol. The electron has less mass as compared to proton. Hence, gain larger velocity.
Work = (Charge) (Potential difference)
1
(qe) (5V) = me Ve2      I
2
1
(qp) (5V) = mp Vp2      II
2
(qe = qp), (me < mp)
38. Which one of the following statements best describes the nature of the field lines due to a
bar magnet?
(1) Field lines start form the north pole and end on the south pole. Any number of field lines
can pass through a point.
(2) Field lines start from the north pole and end on the south pole. Only one field line passes
through a point.
(3) Field lines are continuous lines passing inside and outside the magnet. Only one field
line passes through a point.
(4) Field lines are continuous lines passing inside and outside he magnet. Any number of
field lines can pass through a point.
38. 3
Sol. The properties of magnetic lines of forces.
39. Which of the following statements is correct?

(1) AC generator generates a higher voltage.
(2) DC generator generates a higher voltage.
(3) AC generator has a permanent magnet whereas a DC generator has an electromagnet.
(4) There is a split-ring commutator in a DC generator but not in an AC generator.
39. 4
Sol. The construction of AC and DC generator.
40. A star produces its energy through the process of

(1) nuclear fusion.
(2) chemical reaction.
(3) nuclear fission.
(4) gravitational attraction between different parts of the star.
40. 1
Sol. A star produces its energy through the process of nuclear fusion.
2  1  tan    1  cot  
41. If  is an acute angle such that tan   , then evaluate  sin   cos    sec   cos ec 
3   
1 4
(1)  (2)
5 13
1 4
(3) (4)
5 13
41. 1
 1  tan    1  cot   1
Sol.  sin   cos    sec   cos ec    5
  
1 3 4
42. The value of the expression   after simplification is
11  2 30 7  2 10 84 3
(1) 30 (2) 2 10
(3) 1 (4) 0
42. 4
Sol. 11  2 30  6  5, 7  2 10  5  2 and
84 3  6 2
1 3 4
Simiplifying we get  
11  2 30 7  2 10 84 3
 6 5
3  5 2   4 6 2  =0
3 4
43. The minimum value of the polynomial p  x   3x 2  5x  2 is

1 1
(1)  (2)
6 6
1 1
(3) (4) 
12 12
43. 4
2
4  3  2   5  1
Sol. Min. of P  x   
4  3 12
2
44. For the equation x  x  6  0
(1) there are for roots (2) the sum of the roots is –1
(3) the product of the roots is –4 (4) the product of the roots is –6
44. 3
2
Sol. x  x  6  0   x  3  x  2   0
 x  2
45. In ABC, D is a point on BC such that 3BD = BC. If each side of the triangle is 12 cm, then
AD equals
(1) 4 5 cm (2) 4 6 cm
(3) 4 7 cm (4) 4 11 cm
45. 3
Sol. Draw AM  BC then AM  6 3 and DM = 2
 AD  112
46. In ABC, XY is parallel to AC and divides

the triangle into the two parts of equal area. B
AX
Then the equals
AB
2 1
(1)
2
x y
2 2
(2)
2
2 2
(3)
2
A C
2 1
(4)
2
46. 2
BX2 1 BX 1 AX 2  2
Sol.     
AB2 2 AB 2 AB 2
47. P is a point in the interior of an equilateral triangle with side a units. If p1,p2 and p3 are the
distances of P from the three sides of the triangle, then p1  p 2  p 3
2a
(1) equals units
3
a 3
(2) equals units
2
(3) is more than a units
(4) cannot be determined unless the location of P is specified
47. 2
3a
Sol. P1  P2  P3  height of Equilateral  
2
48. In how many ways can a given square be cut into two congruent trapeziums?
(1) Exactly 4 (2) Exactly 8
(3) Exactly 12 (4) More than 12
48. 4
Sol. Whenever line dividing the square passes through its
centre it divides square into two trapezium. As there
are infinitely such lines. There will be infinitely many
possibility
49. In how many ways can you partition 6 into ordered summands? (For example, 3 can be
partitioned in 3 ways as : 1 + 2, 2 + 1, 1 + 1 + 1)
(1) 27 (2) 29
(3) 31 (4) 33
49. 3
Sol. Total number of partitions = 5 C1  5 C2  5 C3  5 C4  1  31
50. The number of integers n (< 20) for which n2  3n  3 is a perfect square is
(1) 0 (2) 1
(3) 2 (4) 3
50. 3
Sol. Let n2  3n  3  k 2  n2  3n  3  k 2  0
2
 
For k to be an integer  3   4 3  k 2 is a perfect square.
2 2
Let 9  12  4x  p   2k  p  2k  p   3
 k  1 hence n2  3n  2  0  n  1, 2
51. For positive x and y, the LCM is 225 and HCF is 15. There
(1) is exactly one such pair (2) are exactly two such pairs
(3) are exactly three such pairs (4) are exactly four such pairs
51. 2
Sol. Let numbers are 15x and 15y
Then 15xy  225  xy  15 either x  15, y  1 Or x  1, y  15
Hence  x, y   1,15  or (15, 1)
52. In the figure, a semi – circle with centre
O is drawn on AB. The ratio of the
larger shaded area to the smaller P
shaded area is
4  2 3
(1)
2  2 3
4  3 3
(2)
3  3 3
4  3 3
(3) 120o 60
o
2  3 3
A B
3  2 3
(4)
2  2 3
52. 3
120o 2 1 2 3
r  r
Sol. Ratio  360o
o
2 2  4  3 3
60 1 3 2  3 3
o
r 2  r 2
360 2 2
53. In ABC, angle B is obtuse. The smallest circle which covers the triangle is the
(1) Circumcircle (2) Circle with AB as diameter
(3) Circle with BC as diameter (4) Circle with AC as diameter
53. 1
Sol. Circumcircle
54. Which of the numbers can be expressed as the sum of squares of two positive integers, as
well three positive integers?
(1) 75 (2) 192
(3) 250 (4) 100
54. 3
Sol. x 2  y 2  z 2  m 2  n2
152  42  32  152  52
55. If P is a point inside the scalene triangle ABC such that APB, BPC and CPA have the
same area, then P must be
(1) In centre of ABC (2) Circum centre of ABC
(3) Centroid of ABC (4) Ortho centre of ABC
55. 3
Sol. Centroid divides a  into three equal areas
56. If the line segments joining the midpoints of the consecutive side of a quadrilateral ABCD
form a rectangle then ABCD must be
(1) Rhombus (2) Square
(3) Kite (4) All of the above
56. 1
Sol. Rhombus
57. C1 and C2 are two circles in a plane. If N is the total number of common tangents, then which
of the following is wrong?
(1) N = 2 when C1 and C2 intersect but do not touch
(2) N = 4 when C1 and C2 are disjoint
(3) When C1 and C2 touch then N must be 3
(4) N can never be more than 4
57. 3
Sol. If circles touch internally then no of common tangent in 1
58. The sides of a triangle are of lengths 20, 21 and 29 units. The sum of the lengths of altitudes
will be
1609
(1) units (2) 49 units
29
1609
(3) units (4) 70 units
21
58. 1
420 1609
Sol. Sum of altitudes  20  21   units
29 29
59. If a, b, c be the 4th, 7th and 10th term of an AP respectively, then the sum of the roots of the
equation ax 2  2bx  c  0
b
(1) is 
a
2b
(2) is 
a
ca
(3) is
a
(4) cannot be determined unless some more information is given about the AP
59. 3
2b c  a
Sol. 2b  c  a , sum of roots =  
a a
60. PQRS is the smallest square whose vertices are on the respective sides of the square
ABCD. The ratio of the areas of PQRS to ABCD is
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 2
(3) 1 : 3 (4) 2 : 3
60. 1
2
 a 
Ar PQRS  2  1
Sol.  
Ar ABCD a2 2
61. Consider the following events related to the French Revolution and identify the correct
chronological response from the options given thereafter:
(a) Convocation of Estates General (b) Storming of the Bastille
(c) Peasant revolts in the countryside (d) Third Estate forms National Assembly
(1) a, c, d, b (2) d, b, c, a
(3) a, d, b, c (4) b, a, c, d
61. 3
62. Consider the following statements and identify the correct response from the options given
thereafter:
(a) The colonies in the Caribbean were important suppliers of tobacco, indigo, sugar and
coffee.
(b) The slave trade began in the 15th century.
(c) French port cities like Bordeaux and Nantes owed their economic prosperity to the
flourishing slave trade.
(d) Slavery was finally abolished in the French colonies in 1848.
(1) a, c, d (2) a, b, d
(3) b, c, d (4) b, c, a
62. 1
63. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct response from the options given thereafter:
List – I List – II
I. Liberals a. Government to be based on the majority of
country’s population
II. Radicals b. The past has to be respected and change has to
be brought about through a slow process
III. Conservatives c. Property to be controlled by society as a whole
IV. Socialists d. Men of property mainly should have the right to
vote
(1) I-c, II-b, III-a, IV-d (2) I-b, II-d, III-a, IV-c
(3) I-a, II-b, III-c, IV-d (4) I-d, II-a, III-b, IV-c
63 4
thereafter:
Statement I: Nazism became a mass movement after the Great Depression.
Statement II: After 1929, banks collapsed and businesses shut down, workers lost their jobs
and the middle classes were threatened with destitution.
(1) Statement I is false and Statement II is true
(2) Statement I is true and Statement II is false
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true and Statement II is the correct explanation of
Statement I
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true but Statement II is not the correct explanation
of Statement I
64. 3
thereafter:
Statement I: According to the Criminal Tribes Act of 1871, nomadic pastoralists were forced
to live only in notified village settlements.
Statement II: Colonial state wanted to transform all grazing lands into cultivated farms.
Statement I
of Statement I
65. 3
66. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct response from the options given thereafter:
a. The British government established monopoly in opium 1.
1780 s
trade in Bengal
b. The British government exported 50,000 chests of opium 2.
1820 s
from Bengal annually.
c. Opium production in British occupied territories declined 3.
1870
rapidly.
d. Village headmen started paying peasants for producing 4.
1773
opium in advance.
(1) a-2, b-3, c-4, d-1 (2) a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1
(3) a-3, b-2, c-1, d-4 (4) a-1, b-2, c-4, d-3
66. 2
thereafter:
(a) Cricket, in Victorian England, was an all season leisure game for aristocrats.
(b) The captain of the team was traditionally a batsman in Victorian England as amateurs
played only as batsmen.
(c) Len Hutton was the first professional Yorkshire batsman to lead the English test team.
(d) There was a clear social hierarchy between the batsmen and the bowlers in Victorian
England.
(1) a, b and c (2) a, b and d
(3) a, c and d (4) b, c and d
67. 4
68. Consider the following statements and identify the correct response from the option given
thereafter:
Statement I: Campaign for dress reforms by women started with the development of the
suffrage movement.
Statement II: Dress reform emphasized differences between men and women and
established the status of women as obedient and dutiful.
Statement I
of Statement I
68. 2
thereafter:
Statement I : Schools became an important place for political and cultural battles in Vietnam
under the French rule
Statement II : Teachers did not blindly follow the curriculum but sometimes modified the text
and criticized what was stated.
Statement I
of Statement I
69. 3
thereafter:
Statement I : In 1921, as the Non-cooperation movement spread, houses of talukdars were
looted and merchants were attacked.
Statement II : Mahatma Gandhi had declared that tax was not to be paid and land was to be
redistributed amongst the poor.
Statement I
of Statement I
70. 4
thereafter:
Statement I : In Victorian Britain, the upper classes – the aristocrats and the bourgeoisie –
preferred things produced by machine.
Statement II : Machine goods were mass produced and were easily available.
Statement I
of Statement I
71. 1
thereafter:
Statement I : In the 19th century, London was a colossal city.
Statement II : London had many large factories.
Statement I
of Statement I
72. 2
73. Consider the statement given below and select the correct explanation from the responses
given thereafter:
People of depressed classes found it difficult to find housing in Bombay during the late
nineteenth century.
(1) Bombay had a mere 9.5 square yards average space per person.
(2) Wages of depressed classes were usually less than that of others.
(3) Most people of depressed classes were kept out of chawls.
(4) People belonging to the depressed classes had fixed space allotted per family.
73. 3
74. Consider the statement given below and select the correct explanation from the responses
given thereafter:
In 1878 the Vernacular Press Act was passed.
(1) Englishmen criticized the printed matter objectionable to the Government.
(2) After the Revolt of 1857 the British wanted to clamp down the Indian press.
(3) British rule needed to be celebrated by journals and papers.
(4) Nationalist newspapers grew in numbers and needed to be controlled.
74. 2
75. By the 18th century, which of the following commodities were produced on large plantations
in America by slave labour and exported to other countries.
(1) Grains such as wheat and barley
(2) Tropical fruits such as bananas and oranges
(3) Animal products such as wool and beef
(4) Cash crops such as sugar and cotton
75. 1
76. May stems are succulent, my leaves are mostly thick

In which category of the following vegetation type I am largely found?
(1) Tropical deciduous forest (2) Montane forest
(3) Tropical thorn forest and scrubs (4) Mangrove forest
76. 1
77. The following diagram shows the general land use category in India. Identify the shaded
category.
(1) Net sown area (2) Forest
(3) Current Fallow (4) Barren and waste land
77. 2
78. Assertion (A) : Since 1981, growth rate of population in India has started declining gradually
Reason (R) : Birth rate is declining Select the correct option from the given alternatives.
(1) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are false.
(3) A is false and R is true
(4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
78. 4
79. Which of the following diagram shows the approximate relief of India around, 20°N latitude
from Daman to Bhubaneswar?
1 2
3 4
79. 1
80. Identify the right pair from the following :

A. Enhore 1. Nuclear
B. Rawat Bhata 2. Thermal
C. Kopili 3. Hydro electric
D. Nagarcoil 4. Wind
(1) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1 (2) A-1, B-3, C-3, D-1
(3) A-2, B-3, C-2, D-4 (4) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
80. 3
81. The peninsular part of India experiences peak summers earlier than northern India
(1) Due to apparent northward movement of the sun, the global heat belts shift northwards.
(2) Cold waves from central Asia sweeps through the northern plains during that time.
(3) There is less rainfall in the peninsular India during that time.
(4) Clouds do not form in those months.
81. 1
82. National Highway-7 is the longest national highway in India, which traverses between
Varanasi and Kanya Kumari. Identify the places on route from North to South.
(1) Nagpur – Jabalpur – Bangalore – Hyderabad – Madurai
(2) Jabalpur – Nagpur – Hyderabad – Bangalore – Madurai
(3) Jabalpur – Nagpur – Bangalore – Hyderabad – Madurai
(4) Nagpur – Jabalpur – Hyderabad – Bangalore – Madurai
82. 2
83. The process of manufacturing of cotton garment is depicted in the following flow diagram.
Identify the correct sequence.
1 2 3 4
a. Dyeing and finishing b. Fiber production
c. Garment manufacture d. Weaving
(1) 1b, 2a, 3c, 4d (2) 1b, 2d, 3c, 4a
(3) 1b, 2d, 3a, 4c (4) 1b, 2a, 3d, 4c
83. 3
84. Match the fresh water lakes on the map of India (I, II, III, IV) with their respective names.
A. Bhimtal B. Loktak
C. Barapani D. Dal lake
(1) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV (2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(3) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV (4) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
84. 3
85. A major line of latitude that passes through Mizoram also passes through which one of the
following state______.
(1) Nagaland (2) Odisha
(3) Bihar (4) Jharkhand
85. 4
86. Observe the following graph of a particular place. It is situated at an altitude of 224 meters
above Mean Sea Level and at latitude 26°18′N
Identify the type of natural vegetation most likely to be found in this place
(1) Montane forest (2) Mangrove forest
(3) Tropical thorn forest (4) Tropical evergreen forest
86. 1
87. Identify the state from given names which has all the following characteristics
A. Its annual rainfall is 200400 cm
B. Most of the area is covered under with alluvial soil
C. Rice is the predominant crop of this state
(1) Punjab (2) Assam
(3) Odhisha (4) Tamil Nadu
87. 2
88. With the help of given map identify the dates of advancing Monsoon in India.
(1) I  1 June; II  10 June; III  15 July (2) I  1 June; II  10 June; III  1 July
(3) I  15 June; II  15 July; III  15 August (4) I  15 July; II  10 June; III  1June
88. 1
89. Match the places with altitude

Column  I Column  II
(Altitude in meters above Mean Sea Level) (Place)
I 1461 A. Nagpur
II 6 B. Shillong
III 224 C. Jodhpur
IV 312 D. Kolkata
(1) ID, IIA, IIIC, IVB (2) IC, IIA, IIIB, IVD
(3) IB, IID, IIIC, IVA (4) IB, IIA, IIIC, IVD
89. 3
90. What was the local time in Tokyo situated at 139°45 East longitude, when the President of
India was hosting the Indian National Flag in the presence of Japanese Prime Minister at 10
a.m. in New Delhi? The viewer in Japan ‘were watching live telecast of this event.
(1) 6.11 a.m. (2) 1.49 a.m.
(3) 2.49 a.m. (4) 1.49 p.m.
90. 4
91. The following statements are about democracy in the contemporary world.
A. Democracy expanded throughout the 20th century
B. Democracy did not spread evenly throughout the world
C. All the member states of the International Monetary Fund (IMF) are democracies
D. All the permanent members of the United Nations Security Council are democracies
(1) A and B (2) A, B and C
(3) A B and D (4) B, C and D
91. 1
92. Match the following

A. Abraham Lincoln (i) How long shall we continue to deny
equality in our social and economic
life? If we continue to deny it for long,
we will do so only by putting our
political democracy in peril.
B. Mahatma Gandhi (ii) Democracy is ‘govern-ment of the
people, by the people and for the
people’.
C. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (iii) The service of India means the service
of the millions who suffer. It means the
ending of poverty and ignorance and
disease and inequality of opportunity.
D. Jawaharlal Nehru (iv) I shall work for an India in which … all
communities shall live in perfect
harmony. There can be no room in
such an India for the curse of
untouchability.
(1) AII, BI, CIV, DIII (2) AII, BIV, CI, DIII
(3) AI, BIII, CIV, DII (4) AI, BII, CIII, DIV
92. 2
93. Parliament of India consists of

(1) Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha
(2) President, Raya Sabha and Lok Sabha
(3) Election Commision, Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha
(4) President, Election Commission, Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha
93. 2
94. Which of the following is not a feature of a democratic form of government?

(1) Majority rule (2) Rights of minorities
(3) Universal adult franchise (4) Majoritarianism
94. 4
95. Which of the following institutions have reserved seats for women?
A. Lok Sabha B. Rajya Sabha
C. Legislative Assemblies D. Municipalities
E. Panchayats
(1) A, C, D, E (2) B, C, D, E
(3) D and E (4) E only
95. 3
96. The following are major changes that occurred in agriculture in the post-Independent India.
A. Use of high yielding variety (HYV) seeds
B. Introduction of Genetically modified (GM) corps
C. Application of chemical fertilizers and pesticides
D. Organic farming
Which of the above signifies Green Revolution of late 1960s and 1970s?
(1) A and B (2) B and C
(3) A and C (4) B and D
96. 3
97. Information relating to which of the following aspects are used to determine the human
development in a country?
(1) Health, education and poverty (2) Inequality, health and education
(3) Health, education and income (4) Women’s health, education and income
97. 3
98. A father in a farm produces 100 kg of paddy in one acre of land, during every season. One
year, his son joined him in farming. Which of the following definitely indicates discussed
unemployment?
(1) Output remains at 100 kilograms (2) Output increased to 150 kilograms
(3) Output increased to 200 kilograms (4) Output increased to 250 kilograms
98. 1
99. How membership in a Self Help Group helps a poor rural woman?
(1) Facilitates her how to help herself in daily work
(2) To work together in factories and get regular employment
(3) To overcome the problem of lack of collateral as borrowing is based on the group
(4) To get free money from the government
99. 3
100. Though consumers in India has the right to information about the product he/she purchases,
which of the following aspects of a product, the producer need not inform the consumer?
(1) Date of production (2) Date of expiry
(3) Address of the producer (4) The production process
100. 4
NTSE STAGE – II (2015)
Answers Keys
MAT
1. 3 2. 2 3. 4 4. 3
5. 2 6. 2 7. 4 8. 4
9. 1 10. 3 11. 2 12. 3
13. 3 14. 3 15. 1 16. 1
17. 1 18. 3 19. 1 20. 2
21. 3 22. 2 23. 1 24. 3
25. 4 26. 2 27. 2 28. 4
29. 3 30. 2 31. 2 32. 2
33. 2 34. 2 35. 3 36. 2
37. 4 38. 2 39. 3 40. 4
41. 4 42. 3 43. 3 44. 2
45. 3 46. 2 47. 4 48. 3
49. 2 50. 1
English
1. 2 2. 4 3. 3 4. 4
5. 3 6. 4 7. 3 8. 4
9. 1 10. 1 11. 2 12. 1
13. 4 14. 4 15. 4 16. 3
17. 4 18. 1 19. 1 20. 3
21. 1 22. 3 23. 1 24. 4
25. 2 26. 4 27. 2 28. 4
29. 3 30. 1 31. 4 32. 1
33. 1 34. 3 35. 3 36. 2
37. 4 38. 1 39. 2 40. 3
41. 1 42. 2 43. 3 44. 3
45. 2 46. 3 47. 2 48. 3
49. 2 50. 2
FIITJEE Ltd., N-W Centre, 31, 32, 33, Central Market, West Avenue Road, Punjabi Bagh, New Delhi - 26, Ph: 011-45634000
NTSE STAGE – II (2015)
Answers Keys
SAT
1. 3 2. 1 3. 2 4. 4
5. 2 6. 2 7. 1 8. 4
9. 3 10. 1 11. 3 12. 1
13. 4 14. 2 15. 4 16. 4
17. 4 18. 1 19. 3 20. 2
21. 4 22. 2 23. Both 1 and 2
24. 2 25. 3 26. 1 27. 3
28. 2 29. 3 30. 4 31. 3
32. 4 33. 2 34. 4 35. 2
36. Option 1 will be correct if rating of each bulb is 46.46 V
Option 2 will be correct if rating of each bulb is 12 V
37. 2 38. 2 39. 2 40. 3
41. 2 42. 1 43. 1 44. 4
45. 2 46. 3 47. 4 48. 4
49. 4 50. 2 51. 3 52. 3
53. 1 54. 3 55. 4 56. 4
57. 3 58. 2 59. 1 60. 2
61. 1 62. 4 63. 4 64. 1
65. 1 66. 4 67. 1 68. 1
69. 2 70. 3 71. 3 72. 4
73. 4 74. 3 75. 2 76. 4
77. 2 78. 2 79. 1 80. 3
81. 1 82. 4 83. 3 84. 1
85. 2 86. 1 87. 4 88. 2
89. 1 90. 2 91. 3 92. 3
93. 4 94. 3 95. 4 96. 4
97. 3 98. 3 99. 2 100. 2
FIITJEE Ltd., N-W Centre, 31, 32, 33, Central Market, West Avenue Road, Punjabi Bagh, New Delhi - 26, Ph: 011-45634000
NTSE STAGE II
CODE: 13 – 15
MAT
ANSWER KEYS
1. 3 2. 3 3. 2 4. 3
5. 2 6. 1 7. 4 8. 3
9. 2 10. 1 11. 2 12. 4
13. 3 14. 3 15. 1 16. 2
17. 3 18. 1 19. 4 20. 2
21. 2 22. 4 23. 2 24. 3
25. 2 26. 3 27. 1 28. 3
29. 2 30. 2 31. None* 32. 4
33. 2 34. 3 35. 1 36. None#
37. 4 38. 4 39. 3 40. 1
41. 2 42. 3 43. 4 44. 1
45. 4 46. 3 47. 3 48. 3
49. 2 50. 3
*31. None
Required answer must be
Hence, none of the options is correct.
#36. None
9+14, 23+28, 51+56, 107+112, 219+224, 443
106
Here, 107 has to be there in the place of 106.
Note: In the question it was given 643 but it must be 443.
NTSE STAGE II
CODE: 13 – 15
SAT
ANSWER KEYS
1. 3 2. 2 3. 1 4. 3
5. 4 6. 4 7 2 8. 3
9. 3 10 1 11. 4 12. 2
13. 2 14. 4 15. 2 16. 4
17. 2 18. 2 19. 3 20. 2
21. 1 22. 2 23. 4 24. 3
25. 4 26. 4 27. 3 28. 2
29. 3 30. 4 31. 1 32. 3
33. 3 34. 1 35. 2 36. 1
37. 4 38. 3 39. 3 40. 1
41. 1 42. 4 43. 1 44. 4
45. 4 46. 2 47. 2 48. 1
49. 3 50. 1 51. 3 52. 4
53. 4 54. 2 55. 4 56. 2
57. 3 58. 4 59. 4 60. 4
61. * 62. 3 63. 4 64. 1
65. 1 66. 3 67. 2 68. 1
69. 4 70. 3 71. 4 72. 1
73. 3 74. 3 75. 1 76. 2
77. 3 78. 3 79. 3 80. 4
81. 4 82. 4 83. 1 84. 3
85. 2 86. 3 87. 4 88. 2
89. 4 90. 2 91. 4 92. 3
93. 1 94. 1 95. 2 96. 3
97. 3 98. 2 99. 2 100. 3
61* No option is correct.
NTSE STAGE II
LANGUAGE
ANSWER KEYS
1. 3 2. 2 3. 2 4. 4
5. 3 6. 4 7. 4 8. 2
9. 4 10. 2 11. 2 12. 1
13. 2 14. 1 15. 4 16. 3
17. 3 18. 3 19. 4 20. 1
21. 2 22. 4 23. 1 24. 3
25. 1 26. 3 27. 4 28. 3
29. 2 30. 2 31. 3 32. 2
33. 4 34. 4 35. 1 36. 2
37. 3 38. 4 39. 4 40. 1
41. 3 42. 4 43. 1 44. 1
45. 4 46. 4 47. 3 48. 2
49. 3 50. 1
NTSE STAGE II
CODE: 13 – 15
MAT
1. Complete the series:
D3Y104, G9U91, J27Q78, M81M65
(1) P243I39 (2) Q243I52
(3) P243I52 (4) Q162J39
2. Which of the following can replace the question mark?
0.8 0.512
0.04 ?
(1) 0.0064 (2) 0.0016
(3) 0.000064 (4) 0.000016
Directions (Questions 3 – 5): There are eight people A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H sitting around a
circular table facing centre. B is sitting second to the left of G who is sitting third to the right of F.
Only E is sitting between A and C. C is sitting third to the left of B. Only one person is sitting
between E and H.
3. Which of the following is correct?

(1) D is sitting third to the left of H (2) F is sitting third to the left of G
(3) C is sitting third to the left of D (4) H is sitting second to the right of C
4. Based on the given information, which of the following is the correct position?
(1) A and C are sitting next to each other (2) F and G are sitting next to each other
(3) H and F are sitting next to each other (4) D is sitting next to H
5. Which of the following is the correct order of sitting of persons right of A?

(1) E C H D G B F (2) E C H F B D G
(3) E B H D C F G (4) C H B E D G F
6. Amita is standing at Point A facing north direction. She walks for 5 kilometers in the north
east direction. Then she turns at an angle of 90o at her right and once again travels the
same distance. She reaches at Point B. Now she takes a turn at 90o to her left and walks for
3 kilometers and once again takes right turn at 90o and travels 3 kilometers and reaches at
Point C. What is the direction of Point B and C respectively with respect to Point A?
(1) East, East (2) East, North east
(3) North east, East (4) North east, North east
7. In the question given below, there are three statements followed by three conclusions
numbers I, II and III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to
be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions, and then decide which
of the given conclusions (s) logically follows from the given statements disregarding
commonly known facts.
Statements: All teachers are professors.
No professor is male.
Some males are designers.
Conclusions: I. No designer is professor.
II. Some designers are professors.
III. No male is teacher.
(1) Only III follows (2) Both I and II follows
(3) Either I or II follows (4) Either I and III follows; or II and III follows
8. In the following question, there are four figures A, B, C and D called problem figures. A and
B are related in the same way as C and D are related. Which figure out of four given options
will come in place of figure C?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
9. In the following figures, square represents professors, circle represents males, triangle
represents cricketers and rectangle represents trainers.
On the basis of information given in the above diagram, which of the following is correct?
(1) C represents male professors who are cricketers too
(2) I represents male trainers who play cricket
(3) B represents male professors who are trainers
(4) F represents male trainers who are not cricketers
Directions (Questions 10 – 12) : Five periods of Hindi, English, Science, Mathematics and
Sanskrit are to be taken by five different teachers A, B, C, D and E in five different periods 1, 2, 3, 4
and 5. Each teacher will teach only one subject and takes only one period.
Science is not the 3rd period. 5th period is taken by D who does not teach Hindi or Sanskrit. A takes
3rd period. The one who teacher Sanskrit takes 4th period. There are two periods after and two
periods before Mathematics period. Hindi period is between Science and Mathematics period. B
teaches Science. E takes period just before D’s period.
After reading the above information, answer the following questions.
10. Who teaches Hindi and in which period?

(1) C teaches Hindi in 2nd period (2) E teaches Hindi in 1st period
(3) C teaches Hindi in 4th period (4) Data is inadequate
11. Which of the following is the correct sequence of subject period teacher?
(1) Mathematics – 3 – D (2) Sanskrit – 4 – E
(3) Mathematics – 2 – A (4) Hindi – 2 – E
12. The subject taught by teachers A, B, C, D and E respectively are
(1) Mathematics, Science, Hindi, Sanskrit, English
(2) Mathematics, Science, English, Hindi, Sanskrit
(3) Mathematics, Hindi, English, Sanskrit, Science
(4) Mathematics, Science, Hindi, English, Sanskrit
13. A couboid is painted in 6 colours, i.e., red, green, blue, yellow, orange and black, one colour
on each side. Three position are shown below:
What is the colour of the side having question mark?

(1) Red (2) Yellow
(3) Green (4) Blue
14. If x stands for +,  stands for –, + stands for  and – stands for x, then what is the value of
following expression?
 33 x 11  9 x 28 + 4 – 5
(1) 16 (2) 8
(3) 4 (4) 2
15. If REASON is coded as PGYUMP, then DIRECT will be coded as?

(1) BKPGAV (2) FKTGEV
(3) FGTCER (4) BGPCAR
16. Read the information carefully and answer the following question.
A family has husband, wife and three children A, B and C. The present age of husband is 5
years more than the wife’s present age. Wife’s present age is twice the present age of A.
The present age of A is 12 years more than the present age of B. B’s present age is
1
1 times the present age of C. If C is 12 years old at present. What is the present age of
2
husband’s friend Ram who is 15 years younger than husband (him)?
(1) 30 years (2) 50 years
Directions (Questions 17 -18): Pritam, Zeba, Joy and Anu were assigned duties in the English
language alphabetical order of their names. Only one of them is assigned a duty on a day. This
assignment is repeated in the same sequence. Working week starts from Monday and ends on
Friday. Answer the following:
17. Who worked for least number of days and for how many days if the duties assigned for 3
weeks?
(1) Anu, 3 days (2) Anu, 4 days
(3) Zeba, 3 days (4) Zeba, 4 days
18. Who were assigned duties on Wednesday in 1st, 2nd and 3rd weeks respectively?
(1) Pritam, Zeba, Anu (2) Pritam, Anu, Zeba
(3) Pritam, Joy, Anu (4) Joy, Zeba, Anu
19. In a showroom, 60 percent discount is given to everybody on all the articles. The successive
discount of 40 percent is offered to female students. If printed price of an article of Rs 1000/-
is bought by a female student, how much she will have to pay for that article?
(1) Inconclusive (2) Zero
(3) Rs 160/- (4) Rs 240/-
20. From among the four alternatives given below, which number replaces the question mark?
(1) 11 (2) 14
(3) 16 (4) 17
21. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation among men, fathers and
teachers?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
22. Guitar : Music : : Book : ?

(1) Pages (2) Writer
(3) Publisher (4) Knowledge
23. Reena, Rita and Zoha are three friends. Reena is the eldest followed by Rita and Zoha.
Reena is 2 years elder to Rita and 5 years elder to Zoha. The sum of the present age of
Reena and Zoha is 3 times the age of Rita 5 years ago. What is the current age of Rita?
Directions (Questions 24 – 26): Lata was cutting a cuboid shaped cake at her birthday party which
has 12 inches length, 8 inches breadth and 2 inches height.
Two faces measuring 8 inches x 2 inches are coated with chocolate cream.
Two faces measuring 12 inches x 2 inches are coated with vanilla cream.
Two faces measuring 12 inches x 8 inches are coated with butter scotch cream.
The cake is cut into 24 cubes of size, 2 inches each side.
24. How many cake pieces are there which have only two types of coatings of cream (any two
out of chocolate, vanilla and butter scotch)?
(1) 4 (2) 8
(3) 12 (4) 16
25. How many cake pieces will have only one type of coating of cream?
(1) 4 (2) 8
(3) 12 (4) 20
26. Kasim, Rajni, Pema and Gurpreet loved the chocolate cream and they decided to take all
pieces with chocolate coating for them. How many cake pieces will be available for others?
(1) 8 (2) 12
(3) 16 (4) 20
27. During her morning walk in the park, Tanya saw Monica coming from the opposite direction.
They greeted each other and had a face to face chatting. If Monica’s shadow was to the right
of Tanya, then which direction was Monica facing?
(1) North (2) East
(3) West (4) South
28. Given below is a question and two statements I and II. You have to decide whether the data
provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both statements
carefully and give the answer.
Question: A, B, C, D and E are sitting in a row, not in that order. A is sitting next to E. Is E
sitting between A and C?
Statements:
I. B and D are sitting at the two ends of the row.
II. C is not sitting next to A.
(1) I alone is sufficient (2) II alone is sufficient
(3) Both I and II together (4) Both I and II together are not sufficient
29. A person needs to find the fastest two horses from 16 horses. Only a race of 4 horses can
be conducted at a time. What is the minimum number of races to be conducted to determine
the fastest two? Assume that horses will not get tired at all, and time cannot be measured.
(1) 6 (2) 7
(3) 8 (4) 15
30. Which letter replaces the question mark?

bcegk?qs
(1) i (2) m
(3) n (4) o
31. From among the four alternatives given below, which figure replaces the question mark?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
32. How many points will be on the face opposite to the face which contains 2 points?
(1) 1 (2) 5
(3) 4 (4) 6
33. Identify the missing number in the following sequence.
2, 10, 30, 68, ___, 222
(1) 120 (2) 130
(3) 134 (4) 150
34. A + B means A is the daughter of B, A x B means A is the son of B and A – B means A is the
wife of B. If T – S x B – M, which of the following is NOT true?
(1) M is the husband of B (2) B is the mother of S
(3) S is the daughter of B (4) T is the wife of S
35. In the question below, there are three statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II,
III and IV. You have to consider every given statement as true, even if it does not conform to
the well known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the conclusions can
be logically derived from the given statements.
Statements: All frogs are snakes.
Some snakes are birds.
All birds are apples.
Conclusions: I. Some apples are frogs.
II. No apple is frog.
III. Some snakes are apples.
IV. All birds are snakes.
(1) Either I or II; and III follows (2) III and IV follows
(3) Either I or II follows (4) Either I or II; and either III or IV follows
36. In the following sequence, one number is wrong. Find the wrong number.
9, 23, 51, 106, 219, 643
(1) 23 (2) 51
(3) 106 (4) 219
37. Which option shows the correct water image of the characters given below?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
38. Ronald is elder to Veena while Amilia and Shree are elder to Parul who lies between Ronald
and Amilia. If Amilia is elder to Veena, then which one of the following statements is
necessarily true?
(1) Ronald is elder to Amilia (2) Amilia is elder to Shree
(3) Parul is elder to Shree (4) Parul is elder to Veena
39. In the following question, a matrix of certain numbers is given. These numbers follow a
certain trend, either row wise or column wise. Find the trend and choose the missing number
from the given alternatives.
(1) 20 (2) 43
(3) 89 (4) 96
40. The figure given below is the unfolded position of a cubical dice. Select the option figure
which is same as the figure, when it is folded
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
41. A wall clock is placed in a room. It chimes 8 times at 8 o’ clock. A person ‘X’ present outside
the room listens the 8 beats of chimes in 8 seconds. Assume that each chime of the wall
clock takes equal time. To listen 11 chimes at 11 o’ clock how much time will be required by
person ‘X’
(1) 11 seconds (2) 11.43 seconds
(3) 12 seconds (4) 12.43 seconds
42. A geometrical design has been drawn below. Find out the total number of quadrilaterals.
(1) 8 (2) 10
(3) 11 (4) 12
Directions (Questions 43 – 45): Study the following information and answer the questions given
below it.
Six boys Prems, Kamal, Ramesh, Shyam, Tarun and Umesh go to University Sports Center and
play a different game of football, cricket, tennis, kabaddi, squash and volleyball.
A. Tarun is taller than Prem and Shyam.
B. The tallest among them plays kabaddi.
C. The shortest one plays volleyball.
D. Kamal and Shyam neither play volleyball nor kabaddi.
E. Ramesh plays volleyball.
F. If all six boys stand in order of their height then Tarun is in between Kamal and Prem; and Tarun
plays football.
43. Who among them plays kabaddi?

(1) Kamal (2) Ramesh
(3) Shyam (4) Umesh
44. Who will be at fourth place if they are arranged in the descending order of their heights?
(1) Prem (2) Kamal
(3) Tarun (4) Shyam
45. Who plays tennis?

(1) Kamal (2) Prem
(3) Tarun (4) Information insufficient
46. What comes next in the following sequence of codes?

1218199, 1006480, 814963, 643648, ____
(1) 366478 (2) 1442560
(3) 492535 (4) 253634
47. What value replaces the question mark?
(1) 18 (2) 24
(3) 36 (4) 45
48. A coding language writes English words in the coded form as
The code dos not appear in the same order of the letters in the English words. On this basis,
which of the following will be the code of the word TRAY?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
49. A work is expected to be completed by 20 workers in 25 days. The work is started by 10

workers. Then, after every 5 days, 5 more workers join the work. In how many days the work
be completed?
(1) 20 (2) 25
(3) 30 (4) 35
50. Find the maximum length of a rod with negligible thickness which can be fitted into a cubical
box of 1 meter length of each side.
(1) 2 (2) 2.25
(3) 3 (4) 2
NTSE STAGE II
CODE: 13 – 15
MAT
HINTS & SOLUTIONS
1. 3
Sol. – 13 – 13 – 13 – 13
D 3Y 104 G 9 U 91 J 27 Q 78 M 8I M 65 P 243 I 52
+3 +3 +3 +3
–4 –4 –4 –4
2. 3
Sol. 0.8  (0.8)3 = 0.512
0.04  (0.04)3 = 0.000064
3. 2
Sol. E
C A
H G
F D
B
F is sitting third to the left of G.
4. 3
Sol. E
C A
H G
F D
B
H and F are sitting next to each other.
5. 2
Sol. E
C A
H G
F D
B
ECHFBDG are sitting to the right of A in the same order.
6. 1
Sol.
5 5
3
3
A B C
Clearly, B, C are to the east of A.
7. 4
Sol. P
M
T
P – Professors
D T – Teachers
(or) M – Male
P D – Designers
M
T
Here, from conclusions we can verify that either I or II and III are the possible conclusions,
which is nothing but either I and III follows, or II and III follows.
8. 3
Sol. By observation.
9. 2
Sol. From options we can verify that I represents male trainers who play cricket.
10. 1
Sol. Hindi – C – 2
English – D – 5
Science – B – 1
Maths – A – 3
Sanskrit – E – 4
C teachers Hindi in 2nd period.
11. 2
English – D – 5
Science – B – 1
Maths – A – 3
Sanskrit – 4 – E is the correct sequence.
12. 4
English – D – 5
Science – B – 1
Maths – A – 3
Mathematics, Science, Hindi, English, Sanskrit is the correct order.
13. 3
14. 3
Sol. After interchanging symbols the expression will be:
– 33 + 11 – 9 + 28  4 x 5 = 4
15. 1
Sol. R E A S O N
-2 +2 -2 +2 -2 +2
P G Y U M P
Similarly, DIRECT is coded as BKPGAV.
16. 2
Sol. Given, Age of C = 12
So, age of Husband = 65
Hence, Age of Ram = 50
17. 3
Sol. Anu Joy Pritam Zeba
Mon (1) Tues (1) Wed (1) Thurs (1)
Fri (1) Mon (2) Tues (2) Wed (2)
Thurs(2) Fri (2) Mon (3) Tues(3)
Wed (3) Thurs(3) Fri(3)
Least number of days = Zeba, 3 days.
18. 1
Sol. Anu Joy Pritam Zeba
Mon (1) Tues (1) Wed (1) Thurs (1)
Fri (1) Mon (2) Tues (2) Wed (2)
Thurs(2) Fri (2) Mon (3) Tues(3)
Wed (3) Thurs(3) Fri(3)
Pritam, Zeba and Anu is the required order.
19. 4
Sol. Required price = (0.6) (0.4) (1000) = Rs 240.
20. 2
Sol.  4  5   2  5  13
 6  4  7  2  15
Similarly,  8  3   4  6   14
21. 2
Sol. Men
Teachers
Teachers
Father
22. 4
Sol. From Guitar comes music as knowledge comes from book.
23. 2
Sol. Given, Reena = (2 + Rita) = (5 + Zoha)
Reena + Zoha = 3 (Rita – 5)
After solving we get  Rita = 14.
24. 3
Sol. Butter scotch + Vanila = 8 cubes
Chocolate + Butter scotch = 4 cubes
Hence, total 12 cubes are there.
25. 2
Sol. 8 cubes are there with only butter scotch on them.
26. 3
Sol. Cube with chocolate coating = 8
Required, answer = 24 – 8 = 16
27. 1
Sol. From the question, it was clear that Monica’s shadow was to the right of Tanya. Hence,
Tanya was facing south. So Monica was facing north.
28. 3
Sol. By using 2 given statements we get the sequence as:
B/D, A/C, E, A/C, B/D
So, E is sitting between A and C.
29. 2
Sol. From each race, we are selecting 2  eliminating 2.
We need to eliminate 14. Hence, 7 races are required.
30. 2
Sol. b c e g k m q s
2 3 5 7 11 13 17 19
31. None
Sol.. Required answer must be
Hence, none of the options is correct.
32. 4
Sol. From the given dices we can observe that:
3 is opposite to 4.
2 is opposite to 6.
5 is opposite to 1
Hence, option 4.
33. 2
Sol. 2 10 30 68 130 222
     
13+1 23+2 33+3 43+4 53+5 63+6
34. 3
Sol. We have,
T is the wife of S
S is the son of B
B is the wife of M
Hence, option ‘3’ is the answer.
35. 1
Sol. S A
B
S – Snakes
F – Frogs
(oo) B – Birds
A – Apples
S A
B
So, either I or II follows and III follows.
36. None
Sol. 9+14, 23+28, 51+56, 107+112, 219+224, 443
106
Here, 107 has to be there in the place of 106.
Note: In the question it was given 643 but it must be 443.
37. 4
Sol. By observation
38. 4
Sol. Shree, Amilia > Parul > Ronald > Veena
Hence, Option 4.
39. 3
Sol. 12  52  72  75
9 2  7 2  8 2  194
Similarly, 82  32  42  89
40. 1
41. 2
Sol. Let ‘x’ seconds be the gap between two consecutive chimes.
So, 7x = 8
 x = 8/7 seconds.
Required answer, 10x = 80/7 = 11.43 seconds
42. 3
Sol. ABCD, ABDF, ABDH, ABDE
AFED, FAGD, FACD, AHDG
EDGA, EDCA, CDHA
Hence, option 3.
43. 4
Sol. Umesh > Kamal > Tarun > Prem > Shyam > Ramesh
Football – Tarun
Cricket – Data not sufficient
Tennis – Insufficient data
Kabaddi – Umesh
Squash – Insufficient data
Volleyball – Ramesh
Umesh plays kabaddi.
44. 1
Football – Tarun
Kabaddi – Umesh
Prem is in the fourth place.
45. 4
Football – Tarun
Kabaddi – Umesh
Clear, option 4.
46. 3
Sol. 1218199 1006480 814963 643648 492535
    
11292 (11x9) 10282(10x8) 9272(9x7) 8262(8x6) 7252(7x5)
47. 3
Sol. The pattern followed is:
x
x2 + x3
6x 5x
48. 3
Sol. T–
R–
A-
Y-
Hence, option 3.
49. 2
Sol.  20 25  10 5  15 5   20 5   25 5  30 5
Total days = 25
50. 3
Sol. G F
C
D
A B
The maximum length of the rod = AF
We have, AF2  AE2  EF2
 2  1  3
2 2
AF 
NTSE STAGE II
CODE: 13 – 15
SAT
HINTS & SOLUTIONS
1. 3
Sol. Aerobic respiration takes place in mitochondria.
2. 2
Sol. Cow has a special additional part in their stomach to digest cellulose present in the food.
3. 1
Sol. In touch me not plant leaflets are closed after contact due to change in Turgon pressure.
4. 3
Sol. Pancreas is known as ‘mixocrine or dual gland’.
5. 4
Sol. Placenta provide nutrition to the foetus during pregnancy in human beings.
6. 4
Sol. Endocrine glands pour their secretions directly in the blood.
7 2
Sol. Cell of meristematic tissues are actively dividing having dense cytoplasm, thin cell wall and
no vacuoles or minute vacuole.
8. 3
Sol. The 4 characteristics present in chordates are
– Notocord
– Pharyngeal gill slits or pouches
– Dorsal tubular nerve cord
– Post anal Tail
9. 3
Sol. In symbiotic relationship between a bacterium and a root of leguminous plants the bacteria
provide NH4 to plant and the root provides carbon.
10. 1
Sol. Biological magnification is the Accumulation of chemicals from lower trophic level to higher
trophic level.
11. 4
Sol. Ex – situ conservation–
Strategies include botanical gardens, zoos, conservation stands, gene, pollen, seed,
seedling, tissue culture and DNA banks.
12. 2
Sol. Temperature increases due to the entrapment of infra red radiations.
13. 2
Sol. A. small pox caused by virus
B. cholera caused by bacteria.
C. the carrier organism of malaria is female anopheles mosquito
D. deficiency of iron leads to anaemia.
14. 4
Sol. The phenotype ratio of dihybrid cross is 9:3:3:1
240  1
  15
16
This shows wrinkled and green is the recessive character.
15. 2
Sol. Number of neutrons in one molecule of water(H2O) = 8
Number of neutrons in five moles of water = 8  5  6.022  1023
= 240.88  1023
= 2.4088  1025
 2.409  1025
16. 4
Sol. Sodium is highly reactive, so it will form precipitation of Cu(OH)2.
Iron is more reactive than copper
So, it displaces copper from aqueous solution of copper sulphate
Fe  CuSO4  FeSO4  Cu
17. 2
Sol. A is suspension as particles are visible to naked eye and settle down.
C is solution as beam of light is invisible in it
B and D are colloids as particles are invisible and beam of light visible.
18. 2
Sol. Alpha particles penetrate through thin aluminium foil and scattering cannot be observed.
19. 3
Sol. Magnesium ribbon is rubbed with sand paper to remove magnesium oxide layer.
20. 2
Sol. Formation of CaO from CaCO3, Na2CO3 from NaHCO3 and Hg from HgO are undergoing
thermal decomposition.
Al from Al2O3 is electrolytic decomposition
21. 1
Sol. X is amphoteric in nature and electropositive
22. 2
Sol. Z is sodium chloride, which does not conduct electricity in its pure solid state.
23. 4
Sol. Covalent bonds in NH4 and ionic bond between NH4 and Cl–
24. 3
Sol. Sulphur cannot be used as reducing agent
25. 4
Sol. Number of oxygen atoms = 9.033  1023
9.033  1023
Number of moles of oxygen atoms =  1.5
6.022  1023
Mass of 1.5 mole oxygen atoms = 1.5  16 = 24
2H2  O2  2H2O
Number of moles of hydrogen atoms = 1.5  2 = 3
26. 4
Sol. C13H26O2, C2H4O2 and C9H18O2 are in the forms of CnH2n+1 COOH and C7H12O2 is not in this
form.
27. 3
Sol. Soap foam appears white as it reflects light of all wavelengths
28. 2
(n  4.8  1018 )  1.6  1019
Sol.  1.12
1
 n = 2.2 × 1018
29. 3
Sol. A solenoid of finite length carrying current produces magnetic field like bar magnet.
30. 4
30
Sol. i  3A ; V – VA = 10 × 1 = 10
10
i1 = 1A (upper branch) V – VB = 2 × 10 = 20
i2 = 2A (lower branch) VA – VB = 10 V
31. 1
Sol. Magnetic force does not affect the magnitude of velocity. Because magnetic force always act
perpendicular to velocity.
32. 3
Sol. Force due to electric field changes magnitude of velocity and hence momentum.
33. 3
Sol.  = (i1 – r1) + (i2 – r2)
60° = (i – 30°) + (e – 30°) (since r1 = r2 = 30°) i
60° 60°
e
 i + e = 120° 30° 30°
2i = 120° (since, i = e)

i = e = 60°
60° 60°
34. 1
Sol. SPEAR should be thrown at actual object which is below the image.
LASER will follow refraction of light hence it will bend. So it should be sent towards virtual
image.
35. 2
Sol. Sin =  sin (90° – )
tan  =  = 3
 
 = 60°, r = 90° –  = 30° 90°
90°–  = r
36. 1
1 1 1
Sol.  
v u f
 v = –300 ; u = 
1 1 1
  
f 300 
 f = –300
2nd case
1 1 1
   d = 60 cm
300 50 d
37. 4
Sol. From conservation of energy
1 1
mv 2  mgh  mv12
2 2
v1 is the speed before hitting ground.
38. 3
h h A
Sol. A  g  A   2g  mg …(i)
2 4 m
h/2 
Ah1 × 2h = mg …(ii)
h/4
2
From (i) and (ii)

h h
A  g  A  2g  Ah1  2g h1
2 4
h
 h1  2
2
39. 3
Sol. Fnet = 0
MV3
P1  P2  P3  0
MV2
 V3  V12  V22
MV1
40. 1
Sol. F × x1 = KE
F × x2 = KE
 x1 = x2
41. 1
Sol. N  13Q1  3
N  21Q2  11
Number lies between 500 and 600. So the only number is 536
 Remainder by 19 = 4
42. 4
Sol. 0.34  0.34  0.68787.........  0.687
43. 1
P  x   k  x  1
2
Sol.
P  2   k  1  2
2
k 2
P  2   2  2  1
2
= 18
44. 4
Sol. xy2
kx  y  3
5 3  2k
x ,y
1 k 1 k
 1  k  0 and 3  2k  0
3
k  1 and k 
2
45. 4
a10  2a8
Sol.
2a9
10  10  28  28

29  29

 

 8  2  2  8  2  2 
2    
9 9
8  6   8  6 


2 9  9 


6   9 9

2  9
 9

=3
46. 2
Sol. S1  S2  .............  S r
n2
 n 1  2  .......  r   1  3  5  ..................   2r  1
2 

n
2
1  3  5  ....... 2r  1
r. r  1 n2r 2 nr 2
 .n  
2 2 2
nr 1  nr 

2
47. 2
h
Sol. tan60   h  3b
b
h b  20
tan30  h
b  20 3
h
b  20
So, 3b 
3
3b  b  20 o
60
b  10 m
o
30
20 m b
48. 1
Sol. cos ec x  sin x  a
1  sin2 x  asin x
cos2 x  asin x
Again, sec x  cos x  b
1  cos2 x  bcos x
sin2 x  bcos x
2
 sin2 x 
   a sin x
 b 
So, sin3 x  ab 2
cos3 x  a2b
sin2 x  cos2 x  1
2 2
 ab2   
3
 a 2b 3
1
49. 3
Sol. When rope = 12 m, area 
1
4
 122  
1
When rope = 23 m, area   232
4
 
1
 Increase in area   232  122
4
 
1 22
 . .35.11
4 7
= 302. 5 m2
50. 1
Sol. Area of triangular field  924m2
 Area of circular field  1848 m2
 Radius of circular field  14 3 m
51. 3
Sol. r1 :r2  1: 2
   120O (comparing sector
circumference)
r1 
3
2
 r2 
3
5
h12  r12
4 
h2  8r22
2
l l
2
v1 r . h1
  1
2
v 2 r .h2
2
r14 .h12 360 – 


r2 4 .h22
32 1
 
5 64
1

10
 1: 10
52. 4
1
Sol. Size of biggest cube  m
3
1
Weight of cube   90 =
27
1
 3 kg
3
53. 4
Sol. POT  PTO (angles opposite to equal
T
sides)
RSO  ROS (angles opposite to equal
sides)
POT  ROS (Vertically opposite angles) R
PTO  RSO P O
PT RS (Converse of alternate angle
theorem)
S
54. 2
Sol. ADC  135o A
BAD  ABC  135o

 option (2) is the valid answer.
45o 30o
B D C
55. 4
Sol. PM  2 R1r (direct common tangent)
PQ  2 R1.R2
MQ  2 r.R2
MP  MQ  PQ
2 R1r  2 rR2  2 R1.R2
1 1 1
 
R2 R1 r
56. 2
Sol. Let BP = x cm = BQ A
Then, CP = 5 – x cm = CR
AQ = AR (tangents from a point to a 4
6
circle are equal)
4  x  6  5  x  B P C
x  3.5
Q R
 AQ  7.5
57. 3
Sol. Let the centre be (x, y)
 x  6   y  6   x  3   y  7
2 2 2 2
 12y  12x  72  14y  6x  58

 2y  6x  14  0
 3x  y  7 (1)
Again
 x  6   y  6   x  3   y  3
2 2 2 2
12y  12x  72  6x  6y  18
6x  18y  54
x  3y  9 (2)
 x  3, y  2
58. 4
Sol. Using section formula
3  8 5
x 
7 7
12  6 18
y 
7 7
x  2y  k
5 36
k  
7 7
41

7
59. 4
Sol. Let the three numbers be x, 5, y (arranged in ascending order)
5xy
10  x 
3
30  3x  5  x  y
2x  y  25 (1)
5xy
Again, y  15 
3
3y  45  5  x  y
x  2y  50 (2)
Solving, we get x = 0 and y = 25
0  25  625
 Mean of squares 
3
650 2
  216
3 3
60. 4
Sol. Favourable case = 212
Total cases = 216
53
 Probability 
54
NTSE STAGE II
CODE: 13 – 15
SAT
1. Suppose a mutant of a photosynthetic alga has dysfunctional initochondria. It would affect its
ability to perform
(1) glycolysis (2) anaerobic respiration
(3) aerobic respiration (4) photosynthesis
2. Cow has a special stomach as compared to that of a lion in order to

(1) absorb food in better manner
(2) digest cellulose present in the food.
(3) assimilate food in a better way
(4) absorb large amount of water.
3. When touched, the leaflets of Touch-me-not plant are closed. Closing of leaflets starts from
the point of contact to the leaflets away. The leaflets are closed due to
(1) change in turgor pressure (2) specialized proteins
(3) growth hormone retardation (4) capillary; action
4. Pancreas is composed of
(1) Only exocrine cells. (2) Only endocrine cells.
(3) Both endocrine and exocrine cells. (4) Nephrons
5. The human embryo gets nutrition from the mother blood with the help of a special organ
called
(1) Zygote (2) Ovary
(3) Oviduct (4) Placenta
6. Hormones produced in one part of the organism reach the distantly located target via
(1) muscles (2) bone
(3) cartilage (4) blood
7. Which of the following are characteristic features of cells of meristematic tissue?

(1) Actively dividing cells with dense cytoplasm, thick cell wall and prominent nuclei.
(2) Actively dividing cells with dense cytoplasm, thin cell wall and no vacuoles.
(3) Actively dividing cells with little cytoplasm, thin cell wall and prominent nuclei.
(4) Actively dividing cells with thin cytoplasm, thin cell wall and no vacuoles.
8. Which one of the following animals is different from others in not having the paired gill
pouches?
(1) Whale (2) Water snake
(3) Star fish (4) Sea horse
9. In the symbiotic relationship between a bacterium and a root of legume the

(1) bacteria provide N2 and the plant roots provide carbon.
(2) roots provide NH4 and bacteria provide carbon.
(3) bacteria provide NH4 and the roots provide carbon.
(4) bacteria provide N2 and the roots provide NH4.
10. Which of the following is a result of biological magnification?

(1) Top level predators may be most harmed by toxic chemicals in environment.
(2) Increase in carbon dioxide.
(3) The green-house effect will be most significant at the poles.
(4) Energy is lost at each tropic level of a food chain.
11. Which one of the following signifies ex situ conservation?
(1) National parks and Biosphere reveres.
(2) Wild animals in their natural habitats.
(3) Inhabitants of natural ecosystems.
(4) Conservation methods practiced in Zoo and Botanical garden.
12. What is the main reason for increase in temperature in a glass house?
(1) Sunlight is completely absorbed by plants in the glass house.
(2) Radiation fails to escape from the glass house completely.
(3) Plants do not utilize sunlight in a glass house.’
(4) Plants produce heat inside the glass house.
13. Match the items in column I with those in column II, and select the correct choice.
Column I Column II
(A) Small pox (I) Bacteria
(B) Cholera (II) Virus
(C) Malaria (III) Deficiency of minerals
(D) Anaemia (IV) Female mosquito
(1) A–IV, B–II, C–III, D–I (2) A–II, B–I, C–IV, D–III
(3) A–IV, B–III, C–II, D–I (4) A–III, B–IV, C–I, D–II
14. In the experiment conducted by Mendel, RRyy (round, green) and rrYY (wrinkled, yellow)
seeds of pea plant were used. In the F2 generation 240 progeny were produced, out of which
15 progeny had specific characteristics. What were the characteristics?
(1) Round and green (2) Round and yellow
(3) Wrinkle and yellow (4) Wrinkle and green
15. Total number of neutrons in five moles of water molecule is

(1) 3.011 × 1024 (2) 2.409 × 1025
25
(3) 3.111 × 10 (4) 2.711 × 1025
16. The metal used to recover copper from an aqueous solution of copper sulphate is
(1) Na (2) Ag
(3) Hg (4) Fe
17. Four substances were thoroughly mixed with water separately to obtain mixtures A, B, C and
D. Some of their properties are given below:
(I) Path of a beam of light passing through it was visible in A, B and D but invisible in C.
(II) On leaving undisturbed, the particles of the substance settle down in A but not in B, C
and D.
(III) The solute particles are visible to naked eye in a but invisible in B, C and D.
Which of the following is correct about A, B, C and D?
(1) A, B and D are colloids, C is a solution.
(2) A is a suspension, B and D are colloids, C is a solution.
(3) A is a colloid. B, C and D are solutions.
(4) A is a suspension. B, C and D are colloids.
18. Assertion (A): Aluminium foil cannot be used n -particle scattering experiment.
Reason (R): Aluminium is highly malleable metal.
(1) Both A and R are correct. R is the correct reason for A.
(2) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct reason for A.
(3) A is correct and R is incorrect.
(4) A is incorrect and R is correct.
19. Magnesium ribbon is rubbed with sand paper before making it to burn. The reason of
rubbing the ribbon is to
(1) remove moisture condensed over the surface of ribbon.
(2) generate heat due to exothermic reaction.
(3) remove magnesium oxide formed over the surface of magnesium.
(4) mix silicon from and paper (silicon dioxide with magnesium for lowering ignition
temperature of the ribbon.
20. The reaction that differs from the rest of the reactions given is
(1) formation of calcium oxide from limestone.
(2) formation of aluminium from aluminium oxide.
(3) formation of sodium carbonate fro sodium hydrogen carbonate.
(4) formation of mercury from mercuric oxide.
21. An element X reacts with dilute H2SO4 as well as with NaOH to produce salt and H2(g).
Hence, It may be concluded that:
(I) X is an electropositive element.
(II) oxide of X is basic in nature.
(III) oxide of X is acidic in nature.
(IV) X is an electronegative element.
(1) I, II, IIII (2) IV, I, III
(3) III, IV, I (4) II, III, IV
22. An element X has electronic configuration 2, 8, 1 and another element Y has electronic
configuration 2, 8, 7. They form a compound Z. The property that is not exhibited by Z is
(1) It has high melting point
(2) It is a good conductor of electricity in its pure solid state.
(3) It breaks into pieces when beaten with hammer.
(4) It is soluble in water
23. the compound containing both ionic and covalent bond is

(1) AlBr3 (2) CaO
(3) MgCl2 (4) NH4Cl
24. The element that cannot be used as a reducing agent is

(1) carbon (2) aluminium
(3) sulphur (4) sodium
25. Somebody wanted to calculate the number of moles of oxygen atoms comprising of
9.033 × 1023 number of its atoms. The person further thought to calculate its mass and to
find the number of moles of hydrogen atoms required to combine completely with this
amount of oxygen to form water. The number of moles of oxygen atoms, their mass
(in grams) and the number of moles of hydrogen atoms are
(1) 1.5, 3 and 24 respectively (2) 15, 18 and 3 respectively
(C) 0.15, 27. 3 respectively. (4) 1.5, 24 and 3 respectively
26. The molecular formula of carboxylic acid that differs from the rest is
(1) C13H26O2 (2) C2H4O2
(3) C9H18O2 (4) C7H12O2
27. Foam of soap always appears white as

(1) it contains large hydrogen chains.
(2) it absorbs red portion of the visible light.
(3) it reflects light of all wavelengths.
(4) it has one hydrophobic end, which is insoluble in water.
28. In a neon gas discharge tube, every second 4.8 × 1018 Ne+ ions move towards the
right through a cross-section of the tube, while ‘n’ electrons move to the left in the same time.
If the current in the tube is 1.12 amperes towards the right, ‘n’ is equal to (given
e = 1.6 × 10–19 coulomb)
(1) 1.8 × 1018 (2) 2.2 × 1018
19
(3) 2.4 × 10 (4) 2.8 × 1019
29. Four situations are given below

(I) An infinitely long wire carrying current
(II) A rectangular loop carrying current
(III) A solenoid of finite length carrying current.
(IV)A circular loop carrying current.
In which of the above cases will the magnetic field produced be like that of a bar magnet?
(1) I (2) I and III
(3) Only III (4) Only IV
30. In the circuit diagram shown below, VA and VB are the potentials at points A and B
respectively. Then, VA – VB is
(1) –10 V (2) –20 V

(3) 0 V (4) 10 V
31. Assertion (A): Motion of a charged particle under the action of a magnetic field alone is
always with constant speed.
Reason (R): The magnetic force does not have any component either along or opposite to
the direction of motion of the charged particle.
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the
assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the
assertion.
(3) Assertion is a true statement, but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements.
32. When a charged particle passes through an electric field, which among the following
properties change?
(I) mass (II) charge
(III) velocity (IV) momentum
(1) II & III (2) only III
(3) III & IV (4) I, III & IV
33. A ray of light in air is incident on an equilateral glass prism at an angle i to the normal. After
refraction, the light travelled parallel to the base of prism and emerged in air at an angle c to
the normal. If the angle between the incident and the emergent rays is 60°, then the
refractive index of glass with respect to air is
(1) 1.33 (2) 1.5
(3) 1.73 (4) 1.66
34. You are standing on the shore of a lake. You spot a fish swimming below the lake surface.
You want to kill the fish first by throwing a spear and next, by pointing a high-power laser
torch. How should you aim the spear and torch, respectively, from the options given below?
(I) above the apparent position of the fish
(II) below the apparent position of the fish
(III) directly at the apparent position of the fish
(1) SPEAR : II ; LASER : III (2) SPEAR : I ; LASER : II
(3) SPEAR : II ; LASER : II (4) SPEAR : III ; LASER : III
35. A beam of light coming from a rarer medium is partially reflected from the surface of a
denser medium and partially refracted into the denser medium. If the reflected and the
refracted rays are perpendicular to each other and the ratio of the refractive indices of
denser and rarer medium is 3, the angle of refraction will be
(1) 60° (2) 30°
(3) 45° (4) 41.5°
36. A person can see clearly only the objects situated in the range of 50 cm to 300 cm. He went
to an Optometrist who prescribed him a lens of certain power to increase the maximum
distance of his vision to infinity, i.e. it corrected the near – sightedness. However, upon using
the prescribed lens the person discovered that the near point of his vision has shifted from
50 cm to a distance “d”. What is the value of d?
(1) 60 cm (2) 100 cm
(3) 40 cm (4) 500 cm
37. A ball of mass m is thrown from a height h with a speed v. For what initial direction of the ball
will its speed on hitting the ground be maximum?
(1) horizontally
(2) vertically downwards
(3) at an angle of 45o from the vertical in the downward direction
(4) speed does not depend on the direction in which the ball is thrown
38. A beaker is filled with two non – mixing liquids. The lower liquid has density twice that of the
upper one. A cylinder of height h floats with one – fourth of its height submerged in the lower
liquid and half of its height submerged in the upper liquid. Another beaker is filled with the
denser of the two liquids alone. If the same cylinder is kept in the second beaker, the height
of the submerged position would be.
3h
(1) h (2)
4
h h
(3) (4)
2 4
39. A spring – loaded toy sits at rest on horizontal frictionless surface. When the spring releases,
the toy breaks into three equal – mass pieces A, B and C, which slide along the surface.
Piece A moves off in the negative x – direction, while piece B moves off in the negative y
direction. Which of the three pieces is moving the fastest?
(1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) They move with identical speeds
40. A truck and a car of masses m1 and m2 respectively are moving with equal kinetic energies.
Equal stopping forces are applied and they come to a halt after traveling further distances
x1 and x2 respectively. Then
x m
(1) x1  x 2 (2) 1  1
x 2 m2
x1 m1 x1 m2
(3)  (4) 
x2 m2 x2 m1
41. On dividing a natural number by 13, the remainder is 3 and on dividing the same number by
21, the remainder is 11. If the number lies between 500 and 600, then the remainder on
dividing the number by 19 is
(1) 4 (2) 6
(3) 9 (4) 13
42. Expressing 0.34  0.34 as a single decimal, we get

(1) 0.6788 (2) 0.689
(3) 0.6878 (4) 0.687
43. If the value of a quadratic polynomial p(x) is 0 only at x = –1 and p (–2) = 2, then the value of
p (2) is
(1) 18 (2) 9
(3) 6 (4) 3
44. The graphs of the equations x  y  2 and kx  y  3 , where k is a constant, intersect at the
point (x, y) in the first quadrant, if and only if k is
(1) equal to –1 (2) greater than –1
3 3
(3) less than (4) lying between –1 and
2 2
45. If  and  are the roots of the quadratic equation x 2  6x  2  0 and if an  n  n , then
a  2a8
the value of 10 is
2a9
(1) 6.0 (2) 5.2
(3) 5.0 (4) 3.0
46. If S1,S2 ,S3 .............,Sr are the sums of first n terms of r arithmetic progressions whose first
terms are 1, 2, 3,…….and whose common differences are 1, 3, 5,………. respectively, then
the value of S1  S2  S3  ...........  Sr is
 nr  1 nr  1  nr  1 nr
(1) (2)
2 2
(3)
 nr  1 nr (4)
n  nr  1
2 2
47. A person walks towards a tower. Initially when he starts, angle of elevation of the top of the
tower is 30o . On traveling 20 metres towards the tower, the angle changes to 60o . How
much more has he to travel to reach the tower?
(1) 10 3 metres (2) 10 metres
10
(3) 20 metres (4) metres
3
48. If cos ecx  sin x  a and sec x  cos x  b, then
2 2 2 2
   ab 
(1) a2b 3 2 3
1 
(2) ab2   a b 
3 2 2 3
1
2 2 2 2
(3) a  b  1 (4) b  a  1
49. A calf is tied with a rope of length 12 m at a corner of a rectangular field of dimensions 35m x
25m. If the length of the rope is increased to 23 m, then the additional grassy area in which
22
the calf can graze is: (Take   )
7
(1) 280.0 m2 (2) 300.0 m2
2
(3) 302.5 m (4) 312.5 m2
50. If Anish is moving along the boundary of a triangular field of sides 35 m, 53 m and 66 m and
you are moving along the boundary of a circular field whose area is double the area of the
22
triangular field, then the radius of the circular field is: (Take   )
7
(1) 14 3 m (2) 3 14 m
(3) 28 3 m (4) 7 3 m
51. A circular metallic sheet is divided into two parts in such a way that each part can be folded
in to a cone. If the ratio of their curved surface areas is 1 : 2, then the ratio of their volumes
is
(1) 1 : 8 (2) 1: 6
(3) 1: 10 (4) 2 : 3
52. A solid metallic block of volume one cubic metre is melted and recast into the form of a
rectangular bar of length 9 metres having a square base. If the weight of the block is 90 kg
and a biggest cube is cut off from the bar, then the weight of the cube is
1 2
(1) 6 kg (2) 5 kg
3 3
2 1
(3) 4 kg (4) 3 kg
3 3
53. Two circles with centres P and R touch each other externally at O. A line passing through O
cuts the circles at T and S respectively. Then,
(1) PT and RS are of equal length
(2) PT and RS are perpendicular to each other.
(3) PT and RS are intersecting
(4) PT and RS are parallel
54. If in a triangle ABC, D is the mid point of side BC, ADB  45o and ACD  30o , then
BAD and ABC are respectively equal to
(1) 15o ,105o (2) 30 o ,105o
(3) 30o ,100o (4) 60o ,100o
55. Three circles with radii R1. R2 and r touch
each other externally as shown in the
adjoining figure. If PQ is their common
tangent and R1  R 2 , then which of the
following relations is correct?
(1) R1  R2  r
(2) R1  R2  2r
1 1 1
(3)  
R1 R 2 r
1 1 1
(4)  
R1 R2 r
56. ABC is a triangle in which AB = 4 cm, BC = 5 cm, and AC = 6 cm. A circle is drawn to touch
side BC at P, side AB extended at Q and side AC extended at R. Then, AQ equals.
(1) 7.0 cm (2) 7.5 cm
(3) 6.5 cm (4) 15.0 cm
57. The centre of the circle passing through the points (6, –6), (3, –7) and (3, 3) is
(1) (3, 2) (2) (–3, –2)
(3) (3, –2) (4) (–3, 2)
58. If the line segment joining (2, 3) and (–1, 2) is divided internally in the ratio 3 : 4 by the graph
of the equation x  2y  k, the value of k is
5 31
(1) (2)
7 7
36 41
(3) (4)
7 7
59. The mean of three positive numbers is 10 more than the smallest of the numbers and 15
less than the largest of the three. If the median of the three numbers is 5, then the mean of
squares of the numbers is
2 2
(1) 108 (2) 116
3 3
1 2
(3) 208 (4) 216
3 3
650 2
  216
3 3
60. Three dice are thrown simultaneously. The probability of getting a total of at least 5 of the
numbers appearing on their tops is
5 7
(1) (2)
54 54
49 53
(3) (4)
54 54
A Livre I. A tax levied by the Church
B Manor II. An estate of Lord’s lands and
his mansions
C Tithe III. Tax to be paid directly to the
State
D Taille IV Unit of currency
(1) A – III, B – II, C – IV, D – I (2) A – II, B – IV, C – I, D – III
(3) A – IV, B – II, C – III, D – I (4) A – IV, B – I, C – II, D – III
62. Assertion (A) : After the 1905 revolution in Russia, Duma or the first elected consultative
Parliament came into existence.
Reason (R) : The power of Tsar was curbed by it
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true and R is false
63. Arrange in correct chronological order

I. Dawes Plan
II. Crashing of the Wall Street Exchange
III. Birth of Weimar Republic
IV. Creation of Gestapo (Secret State Police)
(1) I, II, III, IV (2) III, II, I, IV
(3) IV, II, III, I (4) III, I, II, IV
64. Assertion (A) : Cricket as a game has a long and strong rural connection.
Reason (R) : The time limit of a match and vagueness about the size of Cricket ground is a
result of the rhythms of village life.
65. Assertion (A) : In the 17th and 18 Century merchants from the towns in Europe started
financing peasants and artisans in the country side for production for them.
Reason (R) : In the urban centres powerful crafts and trade guilds with monopoly rights
restricted the entry of new people into the trade.
66. Assertion (A) : Colonial Forest Act changed the lives of villagers across the country
Reason (R) : Now the villagers could comfortably make use of the forest resources for
everyday needs.
67. Arrange the following events of nineteenth century Europe in ascending order.
I. Unification of Germany
II. Beginning of Greek struggle for independence
III. Unification of Italy
IV. Vienna Peace Settlement
(1) III, I, II, IV (2) IV, II, III, I
(3) I, III, IV, II (4) IV, II, I, III
68. Arrange the following events in descending order with regard to Nationalist Movement in
Indo – China
I. Creation of Indo – China union
II. Formation of Communist Party in Vietnam
III. Paris Peace Treaty
IV. Declaration of independence by Ho Chi Minh
(1) III, IV, II, I (2) III, IV, I, II
(3) I, II, III, IV (4) I, II, IV, III
69. Find out the correct statements with regard to Rowlatt Act.
I. The Rowlatt Act was passed in 1919
II. The act was passed by Imperial Legislative Council
III. The act allowed detention of Political prisoners without trial for three years
IV. Protests against the Act led to Jallianwalla Bagh massacre in April 1920.
(1) Only II and III are correct (2) Only I and III are correct
(3) Only III and IV are correct (4) Only I and II are correct
70. Assertion (A) : Population growth from the late eighteenth century increased the demand for
food grains in Britain.
Reason (R) : ‘Corn Laws’ introduced by the government helped in reducing the food prices.

A Galley I. Old name of Tokyo
B Edo II. Contained six sheet of text and wood cut
illustrations
C Vellum III. Metal Frame in which types are laid and
the text composed
D Diamond Sutra IV A parchment made from skin of animals
(1) A – III, B – I, C – II, D – IV (2) A – I, B – III, C – II, D – IV
(3) A – I, B – III, C – IV, D – II (4) A – III, B – I, C – IV, D – II
72. Given below are statements regarding the course of development of Socialism in Europe.
Arrange them in chronological sequence.
I. Socialists took over the government in Russia through the October Revolution.
II. Socialists and trade unionists formed a labour party in Britain and Socialist party in
France
III. The Russian Social Democratic Worker’s Party was founded by Socialists who
respected Marx’ s ideas.
IV. Socialists could not succeed in forming a government in Europe and governments
continued to be run by conservatives, liberals and radicals.
V. Second International was formed to coordinate the efforts of socialists throughout
Europe.
(1) V, III, II, IV, I (2) I, II, III, IV, V
(3) V, II, III, I, IV (4) IV, V, III, I, II
73. Hitler’s ideology related to the geopolitical concept of Lebensraum, or living space implied
(1) there was no equality between people but only a racial hierarchy
(2) only those species survived on earth that could adapt themselves to changing climatic
conditions
(3) new territories had to be acquired for settlement to increase the area of the mother
country
(4) an exclusive racial community of pure Germans to be created by physically eliminating all
those who were seen as undesirable.
74. During the mid-eighteenth century

Assertion(A): Indian spinners and weavers left without work and important centers of textile
declined.
Reason(R): large number of people began boycotting British cloth and started adopting
khadi
75. Assertion(A): Mahatma Gandhi called off the Civil Disobedience Movement and entered
into a pact with Irwin in 1931.
Reason(R): Industrial workers in Sholapur attacked structure that symbolized British rule
76. Assertion(A): The latitudinal extent influences the duration of day and night, as one moves
from south to north of India..
Reason(R): From Gujarat to Arunachal Pradesh there is a time lag of two hours
77. Assertion(A): Kharif crops are grown with the onset of monsoon in different parts of India
and harvested in September-October.
Reason(R): Availability of precipitation due to western temperate cyclones helps in growing
of these crops
78. Arrange the shaded states shown on the map of India in descending order of population
density and select the right code
(1) II, I, IV, III (2) I, II, III, IV

(3) I, II, IV, III (4) I, IV, II, III
79. Which one of the following figure is showing the correct direction of movement of the South
America plate?
(1) (3)
(3) (4)
80. Based on the data(elevation and latitude) provided below which of the following tourist
centers is most probably indicated?
Elevation: 3500 meters
Latitude: 34o N
(A) Shillong (B) Mussoorie
(C) Kodaikanal (D) Leh
81. Keeping in mind the location of the following sanctuaries/national parks of India, arrange
them from south to north:
I. Periyar, II. Dachigam, III. Sarsika IV. Kanha
(1) I, IV, II, III (2) III, I, IV, II
(3) IV, I, III, II (4) I, IV, III, II
82. Match List – I(Revolution) with List – II(Area) and select the correct answer using the codes
given below:
(Revolution) (Area)
A. Blue I. Dairy development
B. Green II. Fisheries development
C. White III. Food production
D. Yellow IV. Silk production
(1) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I (2) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(3) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III (4) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
83. Assertion(A): The availability of water resources varies over space and time in India.
Reason(R): Water availability is governed by variations in seasonal and annual precipitation
although water scarcity is aggravated by over-exploitation and unequal access to water
among different social groups.
84. Match List – I (Type of resources) with List – II (Basis of classification) and select the codes
given below:
(Type of resources) (Basis of classification)
A. Biotic and abiotic I. Status of development
B. Renewable and non-renewable II. Origin
C. Individual, community, national and III. Ownership
international
D. Potential developed, stock and IV. Exhaustibility
reserves
(1) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV (2) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(3) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I (4) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
85. Which one of the following is the correct order of rivers from north to south?
(1) Ravi, Chenab, Jhelum, Indus (2) Indus, Jhelum, Chenab, Ravi
(3) Jhelum, Indus, Ravi, Chenab (4) Chenab, Ravi, Indust, Jhelum
86. Match List – I (National highways of India) with List – II (Description) and select the codes
given below:
(National highways of India) (Description)
A. National Highway Number – 1 I. Covers most of Rajasthan
B. National Highway Number – 15 II. Known as Sher Shah Suri Marg
C. National Highway Number – 7 III. Connects Delhi and Mumbai
D. National Highway Number – 8 IV. Is the longest national highway
(1) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II (2) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
(3) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III (4) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
87. Which of the following statement is NOT true to the context of Mawsynram?
(1) It is considered as the wettest place on earth
(2) It possesses cave with stalagmites and stalacities
(3) It is located very close to Cherrapunji
(4) It is located very close to the Myanmar border
88. Which one of the following facts about the shaded state shown below is incorrect?
(1) Terrace cultivation is widespread in the hill areas

(2) The state is a major producer of uranium
(3) Population density is well below the national average
(4) More than 80 percent of the area has forest as the land cover
89. The tropic of cancer passes through which of the following plateau?
(1) Only Malwa (2) Only Chotanagpur
(3) Only Meghalaya (4) Both Malwa and Chotanagpur
90. Assertion(A): The Coriolis force is responsible for deflecting winds towards the right in the
northern hemisphere and towards the left in the southern hemisphere.
Reason(R): The pressure and wind system of any area depend on the latitude and altitude
of the palce.
91. Which of the following arguments against prescribing educational qualification for elected
representatives are true?
I. Educational qualification will deprive illiterate citizens of the right to contest elections.
II. Relevant qualification for being elected representatives is not education but ability to
address people’s problems
III. Educated elected representatives keep distance from the common people
IV. It is easier for the educated elected representatives to use power for personal gains
V. It should be left to the voters to decide how much importance is to be given to
educational qualification of a candidate.
(1) I, II and IV only (2) I, III and V only
(3) I, IV and V only (4) I, II and V only
92. Which of the following terms were inserted in the preamble to the Indian Constitution by the
42nd Amendment Act, 1976?
I. Integrity II. Secular
III. Socialist IV. Unity
(1) I, III and IV (2) II and III
(3) I, II and III (4) I, II and IV
93. Which of the following international institutions has a more democratic way of decision-
making on matters of global importance?
(1) General Assembly of the United Nations (2) International Monetary Fund
(3) Security Council of the United Nations (4) World Bank
94. Which of the following factors have contributed to changes in the caste system?
I. Economic development II. Language
III. Education IV. Elections
V. Region
(1) I, III and IV (2) II, IV and V
(3) II, III and IV (4) I, III and V
95. Match List – I with List – II and select the answer using the codes given below:
A. Supervises the overall functioning of all I. The Supreme Court
the political institutions in the country
B. Distributes and redistributes work to the II. The President
ministers
C. Minister may have different views but III. The Prime Minister
have to own up every decision
D. Determines the constitutionality of any IV. The Cabinet
contentious action
(1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I (2) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(3) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I (4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
96. Calculate the female literacy rate from the given data
Gender Total persons Literate persons
Males 1200 1050
Females 580 340
Total 1780 1390
(1) 32.5 (2) 19.1
(3) 58.6 (4) 28.3
97. Which of these activities contributes to India’s national income?

I. Cooking at home
II. A teacher teaching his children at home
III. A doctor prescribing medicines in a clinic
IV. Cooking in a restaurant
(1) I and II (2) II and III
(3) III and IV (4) I and IV
98. In an imaginary economy the monetary value of contributions of primary sector, public sector,
secondary sector and service sector are Rs 100, Rs 25, Rs 28 and Rs 77 respectively. The
gross domestic product of the economy is
(1) Rs 100 (2) Rs 205
(3) Rs 153 (4) Rs 230
99. Four families in a village, which has only a ration shop, have access to food grains as shown
in the table. Identify the families that lack food security
(1) A and B (2) B and C

(3) C and D (4) D and A
100. Robinson Crusoe goes to sea with a net for fishing. Classify the factors of production and
choose the appropriate option given below.
(1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I (2) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II (4) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
NTSE STAGE II (2016-17)
LANGUAGE (ENGLISH)
Held on: May 14, 2017
Directions (1 – 5): Read the following passage and answer the questions based on it. Choose the
most appropriate answer.
It is taken for granted by the advocates of oriental learning that no native of this country can possibly
attain more than a mere smattering of English. They do not attempt to prove this. But they
perpetually insinuate it. They designate the education which their opponents recommend as a mere
spelling-book education. They assume it as undeniable that the question is between a profound
knowledge if Indian and Arabic literature ad science on the one side, and superficial knowledge of
the rudiments of English on the other. This is not merely an assumption, but an assumption contrary
to all reason and experience. We know that foreigners of all nations do learn our language
sufficiently to have access to all the most abstruse knowledge which it contains sufficiently to relish
even the more delicate graces of our most idiomatic writers. There are, in this very tow, natives who
are quite competent to discuss political or scientific questions with fluency and precision in the
English language. I have heard the very question on which I am now writing discussed by native
gentlemen with a liberality and an intelligence which would do credit to any member of he
Committee of Public Instruction. Indeed it is unusual to find, even in the literary circles of the
Continent, any foreigner who can express herself/himself in English with so much facility and
correctness as we find in many Indians. Nobody, I suppose, will contend that English is so difficult to
an Indian as Greek to an Englishman. Yet an intelligent English youth, in a much smaller number of
years than our unfortunate pupils pass at the Sanskrit College, becomes able to read, to enjoy, and
even to initate not unhappily the compositions of the best Greek authors. Less than half the time
which enables and English youth to read Herodotus and Sophocles ought to enable an Indian to
read Hume and Milton.
1. The writer feels that the advocates of oriental learning are

(A) cautiously open to the idea of English education
(B) aware of the tyranny of English education
(C) irrational in their views about English education
(D) aware of the politics of English education
2. Which of the following ideas does the writer have a problem with?
(A) Some natives are proficient in discussing complex topics
(B) Knowledge of English is pitched against that of Indian and Arabic literature
(C) Foreigners can read and enjoy some of the difficult English writings
(D) Learning English for an Indian can be easier than learning Greek for an Englishman.
3. The foreigner discussed in the passage is

(A) an Arab (B) a Greek
(C) an Indian (D) an Englishman
4. Which of the following sentences best captures the main argument of the writer?
(A) Many Indians are capable of using English like any Englishman
(B) Learning English is as difficult as learning any other foreign language
(C) The importance of English education needs to be recognized by the supporters of
oriental learning
(D) An Indian can learn English in half the time taken by an Englishman to learn Greek
5. According to the author, it is easier for

(A) Indians to have a profound knowledge of Arabic literature and science than learn English
(B) Indians to learn Sanskrit than for Englishman to appreciate Greek literature
(C) foreigners to learn Indian language than for Indians to learn foreign languages
FIITJEE House, 29-A, Kalu Sarai, Sarvapriya Vihar (Near Hauz Khas Bus Terminal), New Delhi-110016.
Phone No: 011-49283471/73/74/75
(D) Indians to appreciate English literature than for Englishmen to appreciate Greek
literature
Directions (6 – 10): Everyday new careers and professional opportunities emerge. No matter how
much each career option excites you, will have to prioritize and choose the best option for yourself.
Your personality, interests, abilities, aspirations, strengths and weaknesses will help you to decide
the most viable option for you. The following exercises are important for career planning, and
following these will ensure that you are on the right track.
Self-assessment: The entire process of career planning should be ideally done in conjunction with
your career counselor, so that you have professional help at every step. A trained career counselor
can help you identify a variety of professions in which you can excel. Remember to keep your list of
possible professions long, so that your confidence in yourself does not wane.
When I took my test, the long list of professions included being a florist, teacher, counselor, doctor
and sales executive. The very idea that I have an aptitude for several professions – and not just to
be a doctor – was very comforting. I thought to myself, “When patients get tired of me I can always
be a salesman!” Do not let anyone ever tell you that you are good for nothing. Each one of use has
several talents, and it is important to first identify them, and then work hard to develop them.
Self-analysis: Another important aspect of self-assessment is self-analysis or soul searching. We

are the best judge of our abilities, strengths and weaknesses. If you concentrate and decide to be
honest with yourself, self-analysis can help you understand your career options better.
Need for planning: If you ask adults around you whether they actually became what they had
wanted to become when they were young, chances are that very few of them actually became what
they had aspired towards in childhood. This may not essentially be a reflection of their failure – but
an indication of change. Circumstances change, ideas change, and so do people. By the time you
grow up, you may end up working in professions that neither you nor your parents know about today.
Of course some of you may get to work in traditional professions and move along a well-planned
path. Whatever the consequence of your planning, the truth about making a plan is that it may not
work. But in the words of Henry C. Link, if “you do make a plan, the chances of getting what you
want significantly increase.”
But one thing is quite certain: only those of you who work hard at your studies, acquire new skills as
you move along in life, involve yourself in cultural/sports activities and attempt to plan your life will
be successful.
6. Career planning is an activity that requires

(A) analyzing one’s personality, interests, abilities, aspirations, strengths and weaknesses
(B) working hard at your studies, acquiring new skills as you move along in life and involving
yourself in culture/sports activities
(C) following three important steps in consultation with one’s career counselor, and making a
plan that may work.
(D) understanding and being aware of the fact that whatever the consequences of one’s
planning the truth about asking a plan is that it may not work
7. This passage may be summarized as

(A) ‘In career planning, it is important to involve oneself in cultural/sports activities as much
as working hard or acquiring new skills.’
(B) ‘Before making a career choice, one should learn to prioritize career options and use
one’s personality, interests, abilities, aspirations, strengths and weaknesses to plan and
decide the most viable option.‘
(C) ‘In choosing a career, it is important not to allow anyone to tell us that we are good for
nothing, because our personality, interests, abilities, aspirations, strengths and
weaknesses will help us decide the most viable career options for ourselves.’
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(D) ‘A good career choice results when you follow traditional professions and move along a
well-planned path.’
8. Self—analysis is considered an important part of self-assessment because

(A) soul searching helps us to judge our abilities, honestly and helps us understand our
career options better.
(B) we are the best judge of our abilities, strengths and weaknesses and self-analysis will
enable others to analyze our abilities accurately.
(C) by the time we grow up, we may end up working in professions that neither we nor our
parents know about today.
(D) each one of us has career options, and it is important to first identify them, and then work
hard to attain them.
9. A trained career counselor can help us

(A) do self-analysis, so that we are honest with ourselves.
(B) decide whether to be a florist, teacher, counselor, doctor or sales executive, so that we
can be a salesman if we cannot be a doctor.
(C) identify our talents, because each one of us has several talents, and it is important to first
identify them, and then work hard to develop them.
(D) identify different professions that will help us use our abilities, because a trained
professional can help us prioritize an choose the option that is most viable for us.
10. An important point highlighted in the passage is that

(A) only a trained counselor can help you make the right career choice
(B) it is our abilities, strengths and weaknesses that help us succeed in our career.
(C) there is not much use of making a plan – very few people get their plans fulfilled.
(D) many people do not get to pursue the career of their choice because circumstances,
ideas and people change.
Directions (11 – 15): If the fact of the fire did not immediately penetrate my consciousness, the
heat of the blast did and soon propelled me from my seat. All around me, there was a confusion of
upended tables, overturned chairs, bodies pitched toward the door of the dining room, and the
sounds of broken glass and crockery. Fortunately, the windows toward open by an enterprising
diner. I remember that I rolled sideways through one of these window frames and fell onto the snow
and was immediately aware that I should move aside to allow others to land as I had – and it was in
that moment that my altruism was finally triggered.
I rose to my feet and began to assist those who had sustained cuts and bruises and broken bones,
or who had been mildly crushed in the chaos. The blaze lit up the escaped diners with a light greater
than any other that could be produced in the night, so that I was able to see clearly the dazed
expressions of those near to me. Many people were coughing and some were crying, and all looked
as though they had been struck by a blow to the head. A few men attempted heroes and tried to go
back into the hotel to save those who remained behind, and I think one student did actually rescue
an elderly woman who had succumbed to paralysis beside the buffet table; but generally there was
no thought of reentering the burning building once one had escaped. Indeed, so great was the heat
that we in the crowd had to move father and farther across the street until we all stood in the college
quadrangle, surrounded by bare oaks and elms and stately sycamores.
11. The passage describes

(A) the heat and smoke that was generated by the sudden fire.
(B) the effect of the blast on unsuspecting hotel guests
(C) the loss of crockery, glass and bodies in the accident
(D) the layout of the college quadrangle, surrounded by bare oaks ad elms and sycamores
Phone No: 011-49283471/73/74/75
12. The dazed expression on people’s faces was caused by
(A) the blow to their heads
(B) the heat generated by the blast
(C) the suddenness and extent of damage caused by the impact of the blast
(D) the impact of broken glass and crockery being hurled around in the confusion
13. The words in the passage that suggest there was a blast include
(A) fire, heat, confusion, overturned and chaos
(B) blazed, dazed, heroic, succumbed and paralysis
(C) broken glass, cuts, bruises and sycamores
(D) rescue, quadrangle, altruism, triggered and heat
14. ‘The blaze lit up the escaped diners with a light greater than any other that could be
produced in the night’ can be paraphrased as
(A) ‘The fire set all the escaped diners ablaze.’
(B) ‘The light that set the escaped diners on fire was from a divine night fire.’
(C) ‘The night sky was lit by such brightness that one could see the blaze clearly.’
(D) ‘The fire burned in such a way that the writer could see the escaped diners clearly.’
15. The word altruism here means

(A) ‘the act of rolling across a window.’
(B) ‘a sudden movement triggered by a blast.’
(C) ‘selfless concern for the well being of others.’
(D) ‘the dazed feeling generated by an accident.’
Directions (16 – 17): The following five sentences come from a paragraph. The first and the last
sentences are given. Choose the right order in which the three sentences (PQR) should appear to
complete the paragraph.
16. S1- A man who possesses a strong will and firm determination finds all difficulties solved.
S2-
S3-
S4-
S5- It is therefore, the man who labuors hard with a strong resolution and an unshaken will,
who achieves success and makes his fortune.
P. Such a man goes on working hard and even if he fails he is never downcast.
Q. In turn failures make him all the more determined and resolute and he persists in his task
till he attains the desired success.
R. To him there are a thousand ways open to steer clear of all dangers and difficulties.
Choose from the options given below:
(A) RPQ (B) PRQ
(C) QRP (D) PQR
17. S1– Film theory is an academic discipline that aims to explore the essence of cinema and
provides conceptual frameworks for understanding a film’s relationship to reality, other arts,
individual viewers, and society at large.
S2–
S3–
S4–
S5– Film review, on the other hand, is the way in which critics assess a film’s overall quality
and determine whether or not they think the film is work recommending to viewers.
P Film theory incorporates various aspects of filmmaking, including analysis and review.
Q One way of analyzing films is by the shot-by-shot analysis, though that is typically used
only for small clips or scenes.
R Film analysis is the process of analyzing a film in terms of mise-en-scene,
cinematography, sound and editing.
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Choose from the options given below:
(1) PQR (2) QRP
(3) PRQ (4) RQP
Directions (18-19): The following questions have the second sentence missing. Choose the
appropriate sentence from the given options to complete it
18. A. A few months ago I went to Princeton University to see what the young people who are
going to be running our country in a few decades are like.
B. ______________________________________________________________________
C. I went to sleep in my hotel room around midnight, and when I awoke, my mailbox was
full of replies – sent at 1:15 a.m., 2:59 a.m., 3:23 a.m.
1. One senior told me that she went to bed around two and woke up each morning at
seven; she could afford that much rest because she had learned to supplement her full
day of work by studying in her sleep.
2. As she was falling asleep she would recite a math problem or a paper topic to herself;
she would then sometimes dream about it, and when she woke up, the problem might be
solved.
3. Faculty members gave me the names of a few dozen articulate students, and I sent them
e-mails, inviting them out to lunch or dinner in small groups.
4. Young people say up late replying to their emails and indulging in social networking.
19. A. We are usually inclined to look upon bad temper as a very harmless weakness.
B. ______________________________________________________________________
C. And yet all religious texts condemn it as one of the most destructive elements in human
nature.
(A) This shows that we lack judgement
(B) Often work pressure creates bad temper
(C) Bad temper harms human relationship
(D) We speak of it as mere infirmity of nature, perhaps a family failing
Directions (20-29): Fill in the blank with the most appropriate option from the given alternatives.
20. We are trying to _______ correct information and dispel wrong information that is being
circulated.
(A) raise (B) foster
(C) cultivate (D) disseminate
21. When we decided to move, my mother wanted a place with a _______ outside every window
to keep potted plants.
(A) balcony (B) ledge
(C) curtain (D) stained glass
22. While Dinesh can never acquire a choir boyish innocence, he has _______ and seems to
know that an entire nation’s sporting image stands on the team’s sportsmanship.
(A) mellowed (B) discarded
(C) plummeted (D) flipped
23. The construction of identity (for both men and women) is _______ by culture, nationality,
class and historical differences.
(A) inferred (B) interlocked
(C) influenced (D) instigated
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24. While we believe that BMI is a standard in measuring the fat in our body, there is a growing
_______ among scientists that it may not be the best tool to do so.
(A) concord (B) consensus
(C) congruous (D) confluence
25. Under the new rule, the civic body can take _______ action against the violators by imposing
a fine.
(A) punitive (B) vindictive
(C) pejorative (D) diminutive
26. The SC has cautioned HCs against reversing the acquittal of an accused by the trial court
unless the judgement was _______ wrong.
(A) ostensibly (B) tangibly
(C) palpably (D) allegedly
27. From the rim of the excavation site, the archaeologist was unable to surmise exactly what
the _______ chamber might hold.
(A) terra firm (B) subterranean
(C) ground level (D) beneath
28. The heat was becoming unbearable as the temperature was rising. _______, the rains had
been delayed.
(A) However (B) Therefore
(C) Moreover (D) Nonetheless
29. Miles Davis, the jazz player, _______ supremely expressive, didn’t have the range or
technique to play convincingly in the bebop style.
(A) moreover (B) though
(C) nevertheless (D) on the one hand
Directions (30 – 35): Select the meaning of the underlined phrases/idioms.
30. It’s easy for you to splurge when you have your mom’s credit card, but remember after the
feast comes the reckoning.
(A) Trust is easy to break (B) Truth can’t be hidden forever
(C) Every action has a consequence (D) Don’t take your parents for granted
31. The distance between the towns is only 30 kms as the crow flies.
(A) when measured in a straight line
(B) when measured in a random manner
(C) when measured between the two highest points
(D) when the curves of the road are included in the measurement
32. I didn’t want to go to the exhibition but Leena twisted my arm.

(A) forced me (B) teased me
(C) fought with me (D) discouraged me
33. In this age of super specialization, industrial engineers are in demand because they are the
only ones who can see the big picture.
(A) realistic view of something (B) complete view of something
(C) narrow view of something (D) accurate view of something
34. What is the matter with him? He is falling foul of his friends.
(A) betraying (B) quarrelling with
(C) losing touch with (D) being badly hurt by
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35. She gave me a cold shoulder when I went to see her.
(A) abused me (B) insulted me
(C) ignored me (D) scolded me
Directions (36 – 43): In the following passage there are some numbered blanks. Fill in the blanks
by selecting the most appropriate word for each blank from the given options.
Carnatic vocalist, playback singer and composer Mangalampalli Balamurali Krishna, who burst into
the music world as a child (36) _______, passed away on 22 November 2016. The (37) _______ of
Balamurali Krishna include a musical (38) _______ which showed up as his ability to (39) _______
and reproduce music heard just once, his ability to (40) _______ more than one musical instrument,
his ability to compose from the age of 15 and finally, his (41) _______ voice manifested as his ability
to utter clearly, pronounce faithfully and accent correctly the lyrical phrases along with the (42)
_______ of the underlying musical (43) _______ and microtones.
36. (A) spectacle (B) prodigy

(C) paragon (D) demigod
37. (A) talents (B) potentials

(C) capacities (D) advantages
38. (A) perception (B) smartness

(C) denseness (D) acumen
39. (A) recite (B) retain

(C) realize (D) repeat
40. (A) handle (B) work

(C) create (D) manoeuvre
41. (A) abled (B) gifted

(C) stunned (D) staggered
42. (A) signs (B) slots

(C) tokens (D) nuances
43. (A) notes (B) marks

(C) records (D) remarks
Directions (44 – 47): Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks from the given
alternatives.
44. Worries _______ all kinds of illness, from high blood pressure to stomachache.
(A) believe to have caused (B) are believed to be caused
(C) are believed to cause (D) believed to be caused
45. I _______ all the books on the reading list before I attended the lecture.
(A) had read (B) have read
(C) would have read (D) would read
46. Bala Chandra _______ school before. The desire to become a famous movelist led him to
attend the adult literacy classes.
(A) never attends (B) was never attentive
(C) had never attended (D) will be attending
47. I set the alarm for 6.30 in the morning _______ I wouldn’t miss the train.
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(A) in case (B) unless
(C) until (D) so that
Directions (48 – 50): Select the word which means the opposite of the underlined word.
48. The activities of the cine club will conclude early next year owing to the volume of work that
has kept its members occupied.
(A) continue (B) commence
(C) comprehend (D) conduct
49. The town is unique in its appearance.

(A) picturesque (B) singular
(C) drab (D) typical
50. Mr. Prakash was candid at a history TV promotional in Mumbai recently.

(A) fickle (B) forthright
(C) unapologetic (D) guarded
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CODE: 13 – 15
MAT
1. Some translated words in an artificial Language (in which the word order is not necessarily
same) are given below
mie pie sie good person sing
pie sie rie sing good lyrics
tie rie sie love good lyrics
What is the translation for ‘person love lyrics’?
(1) pie tie rie (2) tie rie sie
(3) rie mie tie (4) sie mie pie
2. In the given sequence, some letters are missing. Which of the given options can fill the
blanks in the correct order from left to right?
ab _ ab _ aaa _ bbaaa _ bbbb
(1) abab (2) abba
(3) aabb (4) baba
3. Identify the number in the position of ‘?’
(1) 24 (2) 28
(3) 32 (4) 36
4. Find the missing number
(1) 184 (2) 210

(3) 241 (4) 425
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5. If A, B, C, D are distinct decimal digits, then which of the following option is correct?
(1) A = 3, B = 7, C = 5, D = 9 (2) A = 2, B = 3, C = 6, D = 5
(3) A = 3, B = 8, C = 6, D = 5 (4) A = 2, B = 3, C = 5, D = 7
6. Observe the following figures representing a balance
Which of the following figures represents the correct balance?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
7. Choose appropriate option from given alternatives such that the relationship defined by ‘:’ is
preserved.\
PNLJ : LIFC and VTRP: ___
(1) ROLI (2) SOLH
(3) RPOM (4) DMEN
8. A coin is in a fixed position. Another identical coin is rolled around the edge of the first one.
How many complete revolutions will be made by the revolving coin before it reaches its
starting position?
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4
9. If South East becomes North; and North East becomes West; then West becomes
(1) North East (2) South East
(3) North West (4) South West
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10. A cube is 6cm in length, breadth and height. It is painted red on two opposite faces, black on
the other two opposite faces and green on the left over faces. It is then cut into 216 cubes of
side 1cm. How many small cubes have no face painted?
(1) 16 (2) 8
(3) 64 (4) 24
11. Find the odd one out of the following terms:

EF22, JK42, GH24, VW90, IJ38
(1) EF22 (2) GH24
(3) IJ38 (4) VW90
12. Choose the conclusions which logically follow from the given statements:
Statement:
All the pens are papers.
All the papers are boats.
Some birds are boats.
Conclusions:
A. Some boats are pens.
B. Some birds are papers.
C. None of the pens are birds
(1) Only A and B (2) Only A

(3) Only C (4) Only A and C
13. How many quadrilaterals are there in the given figure?
(1) 10 (2) 11
(3) 12 (4) 13
14. Which of the following alternatives will fit in place of ‘M’?

255, 3610, 4915, M, 8125
(1) 5100 (2) 5420
(3) 6420 (4) 6422

L6, O8, R11, M, X25, A42, D75
(1) U15 (2) U16
(3) W14 (4) U14
(1) 6 (2) 5
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(3) 4 (4) 3
17. If ‘’ means ‘x’, ‘’ means ‘’, ‘’ means ‘+’ and ‘’ means ‘–’, then evaluate the following
expression using standard operator precedence.
56 (68) 4 1
(1) 52 (2) 24
(3) 15 (4) 43
18. With what operators, should the symbol @ and < be replaced so that the following
expression is valid
100 – 81  27 @ 3 < 6 = 115
(1) + and – (2) x and 
(3) + and x (4)  and –
19. x is an integer such that it leaves a remainder of 2 when divided by 3, leaves a remainder of
3 when divided by 5, and leaves a remainder of 5 when divided by 7. What could be a
possible value of x from among the following options?
(1) 53 (2) 68
(3) 74 (4) 83
20. In how many ways can you distribute 10 identical balls into two non identical boxes so that
none are empty?
(1) 2 (2) 8
(3) 9 (4) 10
21. One line forms two regions in a plane. Similarly, two lines in a plane can from a maximum of
four regions. These are shown in the figures below:
What is the maximum number of regions that can be formed by 4 lines in a plane? Lines
need not be concurrent.
(1) 7 (2) 8
(3) 10 (4) 11
22. You need to take n arbitary points on or inside a square of side 2cm such that there will
always be a pair of points at a distance of not more than 2 cm. What is the minimum value
of n?
(1) 2 (2) 4
(3) 5 (4) 8
23. The following facts are known about an unknown number X:

I. The sum of digits of X is 15
II. The unit’s digit of X is 6.
Then which of the following statements is certainly true about X?
(1) X is divisible by 3 but not by 6 (2) X is divisible by 6 but not by 9

(3) X is not divisible by 6 but divisible by 9 (4) X is divisible by both 6 and 9
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24. The average age of A, B and C is 43 years. Which of the following statements are required
to find the eldest among them?
Statement:
I. Age of C is 65 years.
II. Age of A is 25 years.
(1) I is sufficient (2) Both I and II are required

(3) I and II together are not sufficient (4) II is sufficient
Directions (Questions 25 – 26): A class is to be taught five subjects – Hindi, Physics, Chemistry,
Biology and Mathematics by five different teachers – A, B, C, D and E in five periods (1 to 5). A
teacher can teach in only one of the periods. The following details are available about the teaching.
 A teaches mathematics which is not taught in the first period.

 Physics is taught by D in an even numbered period.
 Chemistry is taught in an odd period, and it precedes mathematics period.
 E teaches in the first period.
 C teaches Chemistry but not in the first or the last period.
 Hindi is taught in the last period,
25. Which of the following statements is necessarily true?

(1) Third period is of Hindi taught by B
(2) Second period is of Physics taught by C
(3) Fourth period is of Mathematics taught by A
(4) Fifth period is of Biology taught by D
26. Which subject is taught by B?

(1) Physics (2) Chemistry
(3) Biology (4) Hindi
27. A solid metallic cylinder or radius 12cm and height 175cm is melted and moulded into
another solid cylinder of height 63cm. What is the radius of the new cylinder?
(1) 14 (2) 4
(3) 20 (4) 5 
28. Choose the option which shows the correct mirror image of the characters given below.
DIVERT6475ALE
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Directions Questions 29 – 30): There are 150 students in a class. 20 students play both hockey
and kabaddi. The same numbers of students play only football. 35 students play both hockey and
football but not kabaddi. 25 play both football and kabaddi but not hockey. The number of students
who play only hockey is the same as the number of students who do not play any of the three
mentioned games and the number of students who play only hockey is half of the number of
students who play only football.
29. How many students play only kabaddi?

(1) 10 (2) 20
(3) 30 (4) 40
30. How many students play only hockey?

(1) 10 (2) 15
(3) 20 (4) 25
31. What will be the number in the blank box?
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(1) 98 (2) 128
(3) 189 (4) 194
32. What is the total number of circles in the figure given below?
(1) 13 (2) 14
(3) 15 (4) 16
33. A bucket contains milk mixed with water, of which 3 parts are water and 5 parts are milk. A
part of the mixture is removed from the bucket and is replaced by water. What portion of the
mixture should have been removed so that the new mix contains milk and water in equal
proportion?
(1) 1/3 (2) 1/4
(3) 1/5 (4) 1/6
34. You need to colour the circles in such a way that no two circles connected by a line get the
same colour. What is the minimum number of distinct colours needed to colour all the circles
in the figures?
(1) 4 (2) 5
(3) 6 (4) 7
35. From the each box you can move only to the immediate right box or the immediate top box.
You cannot move into or through a shaded box. How many ways are there to move from the
box marked S to the box marked D?
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(1) 8 (2) 10
(3) 12 (4) 14
36. Which number will come in the place of ‘M’?
(1) 21 (2) 32
(3) 40 (4) 63
37. The square of the length of a rod AB is 72 cm2. If we place the rod in the corner of a room,
so that the end A is always on the edge between the two walls of the corner and the end B is
always on the floor, what is the maximum possible area of the triangle formed by the rod, the
edge between the walls and the floor?
(1) 6 cm2 (2) 12 cm2
2
(3) 18 cm (4) 24 cm2
38. What is the missing term (?) in the following series?

2, 6, 6, 5, 10, 4, 14, 3, 18, ?
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 19 (4) 22
39. In the question given below, there are two statements followed by two conclusions. You
have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be a variance from
commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions, and then decide which of the given
conclusions logically follows from the given statements?
Statements:
Some kings are queens.
All the queens are beautiful.
Conclusions:
I. All the kings are beautiful.
II. All the queens are kings.
(1) Only I follows (2) Only II follows
(3) Neither I nor II follows (4) Both I and II follow
40. If prime numbers are assigned to English alphabets from A to Z in order, MAT will be
(1) 31 1 67 (2) 41 1 67
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(3) 37 2 71 (4) 41 2 71
41. What number comes inside the square in place of ‘X’?
(1) 5 (2) 6
(3) 7 (4) 8
42. Find the alphabet that will replace ‘?’
(1) A (2) D
(3) O (4) N
43. In a certain language IMPHAL is coded as JLRFDI. How will MYSURU be coded in the same
language?
(1) NXUSUR (2) RUSUXN
(3) NXSUUR (4) NXTTUR
44. What time should the IV clock shows?
(1) 1:00 (2) 1:20

(3) 1:40 (4) 2:00
45. How many crosses should be there in the box marked with ‘?’.
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(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4
46. Find the missing term.

a, b, d, ___, p
(1) h (2) i
(3) j (4) k
47. A is East of B and West of C, D is South West of C, and B is South East of E. When see
from West to East, which of the following sequences are possible?
I. EBDAC
II. DEBAC
III. EBADC
IV. EDBAC
(1) I and III (2) I, III and IV

(3) I, II and III (4) all I, II, III and IV
48. A, B, C and D are to be seated in a row. C and D cannot be on adjacent seat. Also, B cannot
be at the third place. Which of the following must be false?
(1) A is at the fourth place (2) A is at the third place
(3) A is at the second place (4) A is at the first place
49. Mrs. Kirandeep, a driving instructor, has to arrange training schedule for some of her pupils.
She has 8 new pupil who wish to book either a morning or evening of a particular day. The
appointment can be given for Tuesday, Wednesday, Friday and Saturday. The instructor
instructs only one pupil in morning and one in the evening session.
 Mrs. Sabita is only available Tuesday morning but Mr Aaditya can make any time on a
Wednesday.
 Mrs Firdaus is free on Tuesday all day but Mr Naved is only free Wednesday evening.
 Mrs Seema is only available Friday morning whereas Mrs Ritu can only make Saturday
evening.
 Mrs Shalu is available all day Fridays whereas Mr. Ronald can make any time on a Saturday
Which of the following two should have morning appointments?
(1) Mr Ronald and Mrs Shalu (2) Mr Ronald and Mrs Firdaus
(3) Mr Aaditya and Mrs Firdaus (4) Mr Aaditya and Mr Ronald
50. Just before sunset Veena and Zeba were talking to each other standing face to face. If
Veena see Zeba’s shadow to be exactly towards the right of Zeba, which direction was
Veena facing?
(1) South (2) North
(3) East (4) North East
Phone No: 011-49283471/73/74/75
CODE: 13 – 15
SAT
1. Small cut pieces of soft stems are placed in growth medium with following plant hormones.
Which combination of plant hormones will show slowest growth?
(1) Auxin + Cytokinin (2) Gibberellins + Auxin
(3) Gibberellins + Cytokinin (4) Abscisic Acid + Auxin
2. Which one of the following demonstrates the characteristics of cardiac muscle cells?
(1) Involuntary and multinucleated (2) Unbranched and uninucleated
(3) Cylindrical and uninucleated (4) Unbranched and involuntary
3. From the given figure identify the part of human brain controlling most of the involuntary
actions:
(1) A & B (2) B & C

(3) C & D (4) D & A
4. An animal kept in a jar has the following features.

I. It is bilaterally symmetrical II. It has coelomic cavity
III. The body is segmented IV. It has jointed appendages
To which phylum does the animal belong to?
(1) Arthropoda (2) Annelida
(3) Platyhelminthes (4) Mollusca
5. Read the following statements and select the correct option.

Statement I: Nostoc and Bacteria are prokaryotes
Statement II. Penicillium and Spirogyra are fungi
(1) Only statement I is true (2) Only statement II is true
(3) Both statements I & II are true (4) Both statements I & II are false
6. You find a herbaceous flowering plant growing in your school garden having leaves with
parallel venation. Choose the correct additional features the given plant would be
possessing.
I. It has no secondary vascular tissues II. Its flower possesses three sepals
III. It possesses tap root IV. Its embryo has 2 cotyledons
(1) I & II (2) I & III
(3) II & IV (4) III & IV
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7. Varieties of vegetables such as cabbage, broccoli and cauliflower have been produced from
a wild cabbage species. Such process of producing new varieties of living organisms in
called
(1) natural selection (2) artificial selection
(3) speciation (4) genetic drift
8. Which of the following are pairs of analogous organs?

I. Forelimbs of horse – Wings of bat II. Wings of bat – Wings of butterfly
III. Forelimbs of horse – Wings of butterfly IV. Wings of bird – Wings of bat
(1) I & II (2) II & IV
(3) III & IV (4) II & III
9. Which of the following organisms is used as a biopesticide?

(1) Azolla (2) Anabaena
(3) Rhizobium (4) Trichoderma
10. A tall plant(TT) is crossed with a dwarf plant(tt). All F1 plants showed tall phenotype.
Which of the following correctly defines a test cross?
(1) TT(F1)  Tt(P) (2) Tt(F1)  Tt(P)
(3) tt(F1)  Tt(P) (4) Tt(F1)  tt(P)
11. Which one of the following pairs of causative agent and type of disease are correct?
I. Leishmania – Sleeping sickness II. Nematode – Elephantiasis
III. Trypanosoma – Kala azar IV. Staphylococcus – Acne
(1) I & II (2) I & III
(3) II & IV (4) III & IV
12. Pancreatic juice contains more than one enzyme. Which among the following combination is
correct?
(1) Pepsin and lipase (2) Amylase and pepsin
(3) Pepsin and trypsin (4) Trypsin and lipase
13. You discover a new species of a plant. You also discover that is produces motile sperms and
dominant generation has diploid cells. It belongs to
(1) Bryophyte (2) Angiosperm
(3) Gymnosperm (4) Pteridophyte
14. At every 20 minutes, one bacterium divide into two. How many bacteria will be produced
after two hours, if one starts with 10 bacteria?
(1) 25  10 (2) 25  105
(3) 2  10
6
(4) 26  106
15. The metal(M) forms an oxide, M2O3. The formula of its nitride will be
(1) M2N3 (2) MN
(3) M2N (4) M3N2
16. A solution is a homogeneous mixture of two or more substances. Which of the following is a
solution?
(1) Milk (2) Smoke
(3) Brass (4) Face cream
17. 1.80 g of glucose is dissolved in 36.00 g of water in a beaker. The total number of oxygen
atoms in the solution is
(1) 12.405  1023 (2) 12.405  1022
(3) 6.022  1023 (4) 6.022  1022
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35
18. Cl and 37Cl are the two isotopes of chlorine, in the ratio 3 : 1 respectively. If the isotope
ratio is reversed, the average atomic mass of chlorine will be:
(1) 35.0 u (2) 35.5 u
(3) 36.0 u (4) 36.5 u
19. The turmeric solution will turn red by an aqueous solution of

(1) potassium acetate (2) copper sulphate
(3) sodium sulphate (4) ferric chloride
20. A metal ‘M’ of moderate reactivity is present as its sulphide ‘X’. On heating in air, ‘X’ converts
into its oxide, ‘Y’ and a gas evolves. On heating ‘Y’ and ‘X’ together, the metal. ‘M’ is
produced. ‘X’ and ‘Y’ respectively are
(1) ‘X’ = cuprous sulphide, ‘Y’ = cuprous oxide
(2) ‘X’ = cupric sulphide, ‘Y’ = cupric oxide
(3) ‘X’ = sodium sulphide, ‘Y’ = sodium oxide
(4) ‘X’ = calcium sulphide, ‘Y’ = calcium oxide
21. Which one of the following statement is incorrect about graphite and diamond?
(1) Graphite is smooth and slippery
(2) Diamond is good conductor of heat
(3) Graphite is a good conductor of electricity
(4) Physical and chemical properties of graphite and diamond are different
22. The functional groups present in the following compound are
(1) alcohol, ketone and ester (2) ester and carboxylic acid
(3) carboxylic acid and ketone (4) ester and alcohol
23. A part of the modern periodic table is presented below in which the alphabets represent the
symbols of elements.
Consult the above part of the periodic table to predict which of the following is a covalent
compound.
(1) RQ2 (2) AT
(3) JQ (4) JX2
24. A compound ‘X’ reacts with a compound ‘Y’, to produce a colourless and odourless gas. The
gas turns lime water milky. When ‘X’ reacts with methanol in the presences of concentrated
H2SO4, a sweet smelling substance is produced. The molecular formula of the compound ‘X’
is
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(1) C2H4O (2) C2H4O2
(3) C2H6O (4) C2H6O2
25. The schematic diagram is given below:
Which of the following is an incorrect statement?

(1) A and E are chemically same (2) A and D are chemically same
(3) D and E are chemically same (4) C and E are chemically same
26. Which of the following is a feasible reaction?

(1) Ba  s   K 2SO4  aq 
 BaSO4  aq  2K  s 
(2) Zn  s   2 AgNO3  aq 
 Zn NO3 2  aq  2 Ag  s 
(3) Mg  s   Na2SO4  aq 
 MgSO4  aq  2Na  s 
(4) Cu  s   MgSO4  aq 
 CuSO4  aq  Mg  s 
27. Some ice pieces kept at a temperature -5oC are heated gradually to 100oC in a beaker. The
temperatures of the contents are plotted against time. The correct plot is:
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
28. The velocity-time graph of an object moving along a straight line is shown below:
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Which one of the following graphs represents the acceleration(a) – time(t) graph for the
above motion?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
29. To read a poster on a wall, a person with defective vision needs to stand at a distance of 0.4
m from the poster. A person with normal vision can read the poster from a distance of 2.0 m.
Which one of the following lens may be used to correct the defective vision?
(1) A concave lens of 0.5 D (2) A concave lens of 1.0 D
(3) A concave lens of 2.0 D (4) A convex lens of 2.0 D
30. A ball released from rest at time t = 0 hits the ground. It rebounds inelastically with a velocity
5 ms–1 and reaches the top at t = 1.5 s, what is the net displacement of the ball from its initial
position after 1.5 s?
(g = 10 ms-2)
(1) 1.25 m (2) 3.75 m

(3) 5.00 m (4) 6.25 m
31. A horizontal jet of water is made to hit a vertical wall with a negligible rebound. If the speed
of water from the jet is ‘’, the diameter of the jet is ‘d’ and the density of water is ‘’ then the
force exerted on the wall by the jet of water is
 
(1) d2 (2) d22
4 4
 2 2 
(3) d  (4) d22
8 2
32. Two blocks A and B of masses 8 kg and 2 kg respectively, lie on a horizontal frictionless
surface as shown in the figure. They are pushed by a horizontally applied force of 15 N. The
force exerted by B on A is
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(1) 1.5 N (2) 3.0 N
(3) 4.5 N (4) 6.0 N
33. A beaker half-filled with water is put on a platform balance which is then set to zero. A 800 g
mass is immersed partially in water using a spring balance as shown in the figure. If the
spring balance reads 300 g, what will be the reading on the platform balance?
(1) 200 g (2) 300 g

(3) 500 g (4) 800 g
34. An object falls a distance H in 50 s when dropped on the surface of the earth. How long
would it take for the same object to fall through the same distance on the surface of a planet
whose mass and radius are twice that of the earth? (Neglect air resistance)
(1) 35.4 s (2) 50.0 s
(3) 70.7 s (4) 100.0 s
35. A source produces sound waves under water. Waves travel through water and then into air.
Which of the following statements about the frequency(f) and the wavelength() is correct as
sound passed from water to air?
(1) f remains unchanged but  decreases (2) f remains unchanged but  increases
(3)  remains unchanged but f decreases (4)  remains unchanged but f increases
36. The diameter of a wire is reduced to one-fifth of its original value by stretching it. If its initial
resistance is R, what would be its resistance after reduction of the diameter?
R R
(1) (2)
625 25
(3) 25 R (4) 625 R
37. An object of mass ‘m’ moving along a straight line with a velocity ‘u’ collides with a heavier
mass ‘M’ and gets embedded into it. If the compound system of mass (M + M) keeps moving
in the same direction then which of the given options is true?
(1) The kinetic energies before and after collision are same
1
(2) The kinetic energy after collision is M  m u2
2
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1 m 2 u2
(3) There will be a loss of kinetic energy equal to
2 M  m 
1 Mm
(4) There will be a loss of kinetic energy equal to u2
2 M  m 
38. A vessels is filled with oil as shown in the diagram. A ray of light from point O at the bottom
of vessels is incident on the oil – air interface at point P and grazes the surface along PQ.
The refractive index of the oil is closed to –
(1) 1.41 (2) 1.50

(3) 1.63 (4) 1.73
39. A charged particle placed in an electric fields falls from rest through a distance d in time t. If
the charge on the particle is doubled, the time of fall through the same distance will be
(1) 2t (2) t
t t
(3) (4)
2 2
40. AB is a long wire carrying a current I1, and PQRS is a rectangular loop carrying current I2 (as
shown in the figure)
Which among the following statements are correct?

(1) Arm PQ will get attracted to wire AB, and the arm RS will get repelled from wire AB
(2) Arm PQ will get repelled from wire AB and arm RS attracted to wire AB.
(3) Forces on the arm PQ and RS will be unequal the opposite.
(4) Forces on the arms QR and SP will be zero
(1) Only A (2) B and C
(3) A and C (4) B and D
41. The sum of all the possible remainders which can be obtained when the cube of a natural
number is divided by 9, is
(1) 5 (2) 6
(3) 8 (4) 9
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42. When a polynomial p(x) is divided by x – 1, the remainder is 3. When p(x) is divided by x – 3,
the remainder is 5. If r(x) is the remainder when p(x) is divided by (x - 1) (x - 3), then the
value of r(-2) is
(1) -2 (2) -1
(3) 0 (4) 4
43. For what value of p, the following pair of linear equations in two variables will have infinitely
many solutions?
px + 3y – (p -3) = 0
12x +py – p = 0
(1) 6 (2) -6
(3) 0 (4) 2
44. Two quadratic equations x2 – bx + 6 = 0 and x2 – 6x + c = 0 have a common root. If the

remaining roots of the first and second equations are positive integers and are in the ratio
3:4 respectively, then the common root is
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4
45. First term of an arithmetic progression is 2. If the sum of its five terms is equal to one-fourth
of the sum of the next five terms, then the sum of its first 30 terms is
(1) 2670 (2) 2610
(3) -2520 (4) -2550
46. A circle C is drawn inside a square S so that the four sides of S are tangents to C. An
equilateral triangle T is drawn inside C with its vertices on C. If the area of S is k times the
are of T, then the value of k is
16 16
(1) (2)
3 3 3
32 32
(3) (4)
3 3 3
47. Let AP be a diameter of a circle of radius r and PT be the tangents to the circle at the point P
such that the line AT intersects the circle at B. If PT = 8 units and BT = 4 units, then r is
equal to
(1) 4 3 units (2) 4 units
4
(3) units (4) 2 3 units
3
48. If the quadratic equation x2  bx  72  0 has two distinct integer roots, then the number of all
possible values for b is
(1) 12 (2) 9
(3) 15 (4) 18
49. If the area of a square inscribed in a semi circle is 2 cm2, then the area of the square
inscribed in a full circle of the same radius is
(1) 5 cm2 (2) 10 cm2
(3) 5 2 cm2 (4) 25 cm2
50. If the discriminants of two quadratic equations are equal and the equations have a common
root 1, then the other roots
(1) are either equal or their sum is 2 (2) have to be always equal
(3) are either equal or their sum is 1 (4) have their sum equal to 1
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51. Three circular wires are attached in series such that, if one wire is rotated, other two also get
4
rotated. If the diameter of a wire is times that of immediate left wire and the left most wire
5
rotates at the speed of 32 revolutions per minute, then the number of revolutions made by
right most wire per minute will be
(1) 40 (2) 49
(3) 50 (4) 60
52. Let ABC be an equilateral triangle. If the co – ordinates of A are (1, 2) and co – ordinates of
B are (2, –1) then
(1) C cannot lie in the first quadrant (2) C cannot lie in the second quadrant
(3) C is the origin (4) C cannot lie in the third quadrant
53. Shyam wants to make a solid brick shape structure from 400 wooden cubes of unit volume
each. If the sides of the solid brick have the ratio 1 : 2 : 3, then the maximum number of
cubes, which can be used, will be
(1) 400 (2) 288
(3) 300 (4) 384
54. Positive integers from 1 to 21 are arranged in 3 groups of 7 integers each, in some particular
order. Then the highest possible mean of the median of these 3 groups is
(1) 16 (2) 12.5
(3) 11 (4) 14
55. On dividing 2272 as well as 875 by a 3 – digit number N, we get the same remainder in each
case. The sum of the digits of N is
(1) 10 (2) 11
(3) 12 (4) 13
56. A line passing through the origin makes an angle  with positive direction of x – axis such
3
that sin   . The co – ordinates of the point, which lies in the fourth quadrant at a unit
5
distance from the origin and an perpendicular to , are
3 4 4 3
(1)  ,   (2)  ,  
5 5 5 5
(3) (3, –4) (4) (4, –3)
57. The values(s) of k for which x2  5kx  k2  5 is exactly divisible by x  2 but not by x  3 is
(are)
(1) 1 (2) 5
(3) 1, 9 (4) 9
58. If cos4   sin2   m, then

1
(1) 1  m  2 (2) m 1
2
3 3 13
(3) m 1 (4) m
4 4 16
59. Cost of 2 apples, 3 bananas and one coconut is 26. Also the cost of 3 apples, 2 bananas
and two coconuts is 35. Then the cost of 12 apples, 13 bananas and 7 coconuts is
(1) 172 (2) 148
(3) 143 (4) 126
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60. ABC is a field in the form of an equilateral triangle. Two vertical poles of heights 45 m and 20
m are erected at A and B respectively. The angles of elevation of the tops of the two poles
from C are complementary to each other. There is a point D on AB such that from it, the
angles of elevation of the tops of the two poles are equal. Then AD is equal to
5 10
(1) 17 m (2) 20 m
12 13
5 10
(3) 20 m (4) 17 m
13 12
61. Arrange the developments related to European history in a chronological sequence.

I. Napoleon invaded Italy.
II. Unification of Italy.
III. Unification of Germany
IV. Vienna Settlement
(1) I, III, II and IV (2) I, II, IV and III
(3) I, IV, II and III (4) I, II, III and IV
62. Which of the following statements about Liberals in 19th century Europe are correct?
I. They favoured the Catholic Church.
II. They opposed dynastic rule with unlimited power.
III. They were democrats.
IV. They did not want any voting rights for women
(3) II and IV (4) III and IV
63. Which of the following statements are correct?

I. In the beginning Bombay was under the Portuguese control.
II. Control of Bombay passed onto the French in the 17th century.
III. The Marathas replaced the French in Bombay
IV. Bombay became the capital of the Presidency in early 19th century
(1) I, II and IV (2) I and IV
(3) I, II and III (4) II, III and IV

I. The Chinese introduced printing
II. The Buddhist missionaries introduced printing in Japan
III. The Chinese developed printing to facilitate their expanding trade.
IV. Printing reached Europe through Italy.
(3) II, III and IV (4) I and IV
Direction (Questions 65 – 72): Read the statements and select the correct answer from the
options given below.
1. Statement 1 is true, Statement II is false.

2. Statement 1 is false, Statement II is true
3. Both Statement are true, and Statement II provides explanation to Statement I
4. Both Statements are true, but Statement II does not provide explanation of Statement I
65. Statement I : During the years of the Great Depression the economic crisis was worse in
Germany
Statement II : The President of the Weimar Republic had the power of impose emergency
66. Statement I : The Forest Act of 1878 categorized some forests as ‘reserved forests’.
Statement II : They were considered the best forests for people’s use.
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67. Statement I : Shifting cultivation was widely prevalent in different parts of India in the 19th
century.
Statement II : More and more people took to shifting cultivation when forest laws were
enacted.
68. Statement I : Cricket emerged as a colonial game.

Statement II : Cricket was started in England.
69. Statement I : Mahatma Gandhi wished everyone had clothes to wear.

Statement II : He wanted everyone to wear the single loin cloth as he did.
70. Statement I : The Spanish conquest of America was not a conventional military conquest.
Statement II : One of the most powerful weapon was the spread of smallpox.
71. Statement I : The silk routes led to trade and cultural links between distant parts of the world.
Statement II: Early Christian missionaries travelled to Asia through this route.
72. Statement I : The French used forced labour in Indo – China for building canals.
Statement II : Vietnam became a major exporter of rice in the world .
73. Match List I (Layers of Atmosphere) and List II (Characteristics) and select the correct
answer using the code given below
List I List II
(Layers of Atmosphere) (Characteristics)
A. Ionosphere I. Contains Ozone
B. Stratosphere II. Reflects radio Waves
C. Exosphere III. Fall in Temperature
D. Troposphere IV. Extremely low air density
(1) A – II, B – III, C – IV, D – I (2) A – II, B – I, C – IV, D – III
(3) A – II, B – III, C – I, D – IV (4) A – III, B – I, C – IV, D – II

I. Rann of Kachchh is formed by the recession of the sea
II. Kuchaman, Sambhar and Didwana are salt water lakes
III. The land to the east of Aravallis is known as Bagar
IV. The fertile flood plains formed by small streams in Rajasthan are known as Rohi
(1) I, II and IV (2) I, III and IV
(3) II, III and IV (4) I, II, III and IV
75. Observe the graph given below:
Identify the state with population growth rate marked by ‘X’

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(1) Goa (2) Kerala
(3) Sikkim (4) Nagaland
76. River Alaknanda forms confluences (Prayags) in Uttarkhand. Match the codes given in
Figure with Table (Prayags) and select the correct answer using the code given below.
Figure Table (Prayags)
I. Karn Prayag
II. Rudra Prayag
III. Nand Prayag
IV. Vishnu Prayag
(1) A – II, B – I, C – III, D – IV (2) A – II, B – III, C – I, D – IV

(3) A – III, B – II, C – I, D – IV (4) A – III, B – I, C – II, D – IV
77. Match List I (Original Rocks) with List II (Metramorphic Rock) and select the correct answer
using the code given below:
List I List II
(Original Rock) (Metamorphic Rock)
A. Granite I. Diamond
B. Coal II. Marble
C. Limestone III. Slate
D. Shale IV. Gneiss
(1) A – III, B – IV, C – II, D – I (2) A – III, B – II, C – IV, D – I
(3) A – IV, B – II, C – I, D – III (4) A – IV, B – I, C – II, D – III
78. Observe the given map.
Which one of the following statement is NOT true about the shaded state indicated on the
map?
1. Society predominantly follows right of female ultimogeniture
2. The state is an example of areas with karst topography
3. The state is a major producer of potatoes in India
4. Some parts of the state receive extremely high rainfall.
79. Match List I (Mineral Oil Refineries with List II (States) and select the correct answer using
the codes given below:
List I List II
(Mineral Oil Refineries) (States)
A. Numaligarh I. Punjab
B. Bathinda II. Andhra Pradesh
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C. Tatipaka III. Madhya Pradesh
D. Bina IV. Assam
(1) A – IV, B – II, C – III, D – I (2) A – IV, B – I, C – II, D – III
(3) A – II, B – I, C – IV, D – III (4) A – IV, B – III, C – II, D – I
80. ‘Slash and Burn Agriculture’ is known by specific name in different states of India. Match the
shaded states marked in the given map with codes given in the Table (Different name of
Slash and Burn Agriculture) and select the correct answer using the code given below.
(1) A–III, B–IV, C–II, D–I (2) A–III, B–II, C–IV, D–I
(3) A–I, B–IV, C–II, D–III (4) A–I, B–II, C–IV, D–III
81. Match List I (Industries) with List II (Important Centers) and select the correct answer using
the codes given below.
List I List II
(Industries) (Important Centers)
A. Cotton textile I. Ludhiana
B. Hosiery II. Rishra
C. Jute III Coimbatore
D Silk textile IV. Mysuru
(1) A–I, B–III, C–IV, D–II (2) A–IV, B–I, C–II, D–III
(3) A–III, B–II, C–I, D–IV (4) A–III, B–I, C–II, D–IV
82. Which one of the following island is closest to the equator?

(1) Minicoy (2) Car Nicobar
(3) Little Nicobar (4) Great Nicobar
83. Which of the following characteristics are true about plantation agriculture?
I. Generally plantation agriculture is considered as an example of subsistence farming.
II. Generally single crop is grown on a large area in plantation agriculture.
III. It has an interface of agriculture and industry.
IV. It uses capital intensive inputs.
(I) I and IV (2) III and IV
(3) I. II and III (4) II, III, and IV
84. Match List-I (Vegetation zones) with List-II (Mean Annual Temperature Range) and select
the correct answer using the code given below.
List I List II
(Vegetation Zones) (Mean Annual Temperature Range)
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A. Alpine I. Above 24°C
B. Temperate II. 17°C to 24°
C. Tropical III Below 7°C
D Sub-tropical IV. 7°C to 17°C
(1) A–III, B–I, C–II, D–IV (2) A–III, B–I, C–IV, D–II
(3) A–III, B–IV, C–I, D–II (4) A–I, B–II, C–III, D–IV
85. ‘In a democracy, the will of the people is supreme.’ Which of the following statement
concerning democracy in India best reflects this?
(1) The President appoints the Prime Minister who is the leader of the political party
possessing a majority in the Lok Sabha
(2) An assembly of elected representatives exercises political authority on behalf of the
people.
(3) In case of a difference between the two Houses of Parliament, the final decision is taken
in a joint session of the two Houses.
(4) The permanent executive has more powers than the political executive.
86. Which of the following statements about the Panchayati Raj Institutions after the
Constitutional Amendment in 1992 are false?
I. Seats are reserved for the Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and Other Backward
Classes in the elected bodies of the Panchayati Raj Institutions .
II. Elections to the Panchayati Raj Institutions are supervised by the Election Commission
of India
III. Elections to the Panchayati Raj Institutions are held regularly after every five years.
IV. Half of the seats in all the States are reserved for women.
(1) I and III (2) I and II
(3) III and IV (4) II and IV
87. Match List I (Political Systems) with List II (Nations) and select the answer using the codes
given below.
List I List II
(Political Systems) (Nations)
A. Federal, Presidential, Republic I. India
B. Federal, Parliamentary, Republic II. United Kingdom
C. Unitary, Parliamentary, Monarchy III Germany
D Presidential cum Parliamentary Republic IV. United States of America
V. France
(1) A–IV, B–I, C–II, D–V (2) A–IV, B–I, C–II, D–III
(3) A–V, B–IV, C–II, D–III (4) A–V, B–II, C–III, D–IV
88. Which of the following statements about the federal system in India are true?
I. The Constitution of India provides for a three-fold distribution of legislative powers
between the Union and the State Governments.
II. Both the Union and the State Governments can legislate on residuary subjects.
III. The Parliament cannot on its own change the power-sharing arrangement between the
Union and the State Governments.
IV. The High Courts have no role in resolving disputes about the division of powers between
the Union and the State Governments.
(I) I and III (2) II, III and IV
(3) I. III and IV (4) I, II and IV
89. Which of the following group of States/Union Territories have only one Lok Sabha
constituency?
(1) Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim, Lakshadweep
(2) Goa, Meghalaya, Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(3) Chandigarh, Sikkim, Mizoram
Phone No: 011-49283471/73/74/75
(4) Manipur, Dadra and Nagar Haveli, Puducherry
90. Which of the following statements best reflects the ‘socialist’ feature of the Preamble to the
Constitution of India?
(1) There are no unreasonable restrictions on how the citizens express their thoughts.
(2) The traditional social inequalities have to be abolished.
(3) Government should regulate the ownership of land and industry to reduce socio-
economic inequalities.
(4) No one should treat a fellow citizen as inferior.
91. Which of the following statements about the Indian judiciary is true?
(1) India has an integrated judiciary.
(2) The judiciary in India is subordinate to the Executive.
(3) The Supreme Court is more powerful than parliament.
(4) The Chief Justice of India is appointed by the Prime Minister.
92. Which of the following Fundamental Rights includes the right to Education?
(1) Right to Equality (2) Right to Freedom
(3) Cultural and Educational Rights (4) Right to Constitutional Remedies
93. Which of the Following is NOT an indicator of economic development?

(1) Increased per capita income
(2) Decreased infant mortality
(3) Increased life expectancy at birth
(4) Decreased women participation in job market.
94. The poverty line in Dinanagar is set at 100 per capita per day. Five Hundred people live in
Dinanagar of whom 50 earn 30 per capita per day and another 25 earn 80 per capita per
day each. Everybody else earn more than 100 per day per capita. What is the minimum
amount that the government of Dinanagar will have to spend to completely eradicate
poverty?
(1) 3000 (2) 3500
(3) 4000 (4) 4500
95. The local telephone company sells me a landline connection only if I purchase a handset
from them as well. Which of the following rights does this practice violate under the
Consumer Protection Act 1986?
(1) Right to represent (2) Right to information
(3) Right to choose (4) Right to seek redressal
96. Match List-I (Type of Unemployment) with List-II (Characteristics) and select the correct
answer using the codes given below:
List I List II
(Type of Unemployment) (Characteristics)
A. Seasonal I. Occurs during boom or recession in
the economy
B. Frictional II. An absence of demand for a certain
type of workers
C. Disguised III Occurs when moving from one job to
another
D. Structural IV. Actual contribution by the additional
labour is nil
E. Cyclical V. Job opportunities during certain
months in the year
(1) A–V, B–III, C–IV, D–II, E-I (2) A–IV, B–V, C–III, D–I, E-II
(3) A–I, B–II, C–III, D–IV, E-V (4) A–V, B–IV, C–III, D–II, E-I
Phone No: 011-49283471/73/74/75
97. Suppose Indian Farmers sell wheat at 50 per kg and the international price of wheat is
40 per kg. What is the minimum rate of import duty Government of India must impose on
imported wheat so that it does not adversely affect Indian farmers in the domestic market?
(1) 10% (2) 20%
(3) 25% (4) 30%
98. The wage rate of a worker in a country is 300 per day. Which of these person(s) would you
consider unemployed?
A. Ramu is willing to work at 300 a day, but cannot find work.
B. Suresh is willing to work only at 400 a day or more, and cannot find work.
C. Shanti stays at home because she has young children to look after.
(1) Ramu (2) Suresh
(3) Ramu and Suresh (4) Ramu and Shanti
99. Which of the following can be used as collateral in Indian banks to borrow money?
(1) Bank Passbook (2) Credit Card
(3) Own House (4) Passport
100. The total agricultural land in a village is 1200 hectares. This is distributed among
320 families who form four groups in the following pattern. It is assumed that the land is
distributed equally within each group. Identify the group of small farmers.
Group Number of Families Total amount of land
owned and operated
by
each group (in
hectares)
A 100 300
B 180 300
C 30 300
D 10 300
(1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) D
Phone No: 011-49283471/73/74/75
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(2016- 17 )
02/2016-17
MENTAL ABILITY TEST
1. If x + y + z = 0, then value of
 x  y  y  z  z  x 
 11 is
xyz
(1) x + 11 (2) y + 11
(3) z + 11 (4) 10
2.  
If sin A  cos A  2 sin 900  A then value of  
2  1 tan A will be
(1) 1 (2) 0
(3) 2 (4) 2
3. If the point (K, 2) is equidistant from the point (5, –2) and (1, –2) then value of K 2  7 will be
(1) 10 (2) 9
(3) 12 (4) 16
4. if each side of a cube is increased by 40%, then how much percent its total surface area will
be increased.
(1) 76 (2) 80
(3) 96 (4) 85
5. If sum of squares of zeros of a quadratic polynomial g  y   y 2  6y  p is 10. What will be the

value of p.
(1) 13 (2) 12
(3) 11 (4) 10
6. A train cross a pole in 12 seconds. If the speed of the train is 54 km/hr then length of train
will be
(1) 648 meter (2) 150 meter
(3) 180 meter (4) 100 meter
7. If the sum of the digits of a two digit number is 9 and the difference between the number and
that formed by reversing the digits is 45 then number is
(1) 81 (2) 72
(3) 45 (4) 54
8. How many numbers between 10 and 90 are divisible by 8 completely

(1) 12 (2) 10
(3) 11 (4) 8
1
9. Is 3  x  Value of x will be
1
1
1
5
3
(1) 14/19 (2) 17/19

(3) 15/19 (4) 41/19
10. Simplify  
2
x  1 x  1 2x  2 
x 1 x 1 x2  1
2
4x 8x 2
(1) 4 (2)
x 1 x4  1
4x 2  2
(3) 1 (4)
x4  1
11. Vinod has some cows and some hens in his shed. The total number of legs is 92 and total
number of heads is 29. Then the number of hens in his shed is
(1) 14 (2) 12
(3) 17 (4) 21
12. Parth can row 16km downstream and 8km upstream in 6 hours. He can row 6km upstream
and 24 km downstream in 6 hours. Find the speed of Parth in still water
(1) 5km/hr (2) 3km/hr
(3) 6km/hr (4) 8km/hr
 75 5 32 
13. Value of  log  2log  log  is
 16 9 243 
(1) log 3 (2) 2 log 2
(3) log 5 (4) log 2
14. Find the angle between the two hands of a clock at 15 minutes past 4 O’ clock (Minute hand
and hour hand)
(1) 35.5o (2) 30o
o
(3) 37.5 (4) 32.5o+
15. If 3 5  125  17.88 then what will be the value of 80  6 5

(1) 22.35 (2) 21.66
(3) 20.12 (4) 20.46
16. The traffic signals at four road crossing change every 30 second, 1 minute, 45 seconds and
75 seconds respectively. If they change simultaneously at 9 AM, at what time will they
change simultaneously again.
(1) 9:12 AM (2) 9.15 AM
(3) 9.20 AM (4) 9.30 AM
17. If A:B = 2:3, B:C = 2:4, and C:D = 2:5 then A:D is equal to
(1) 2:15 (2) 2:5
(3) 1:5 (4) 3:5
18. In the adjoining figure, ABCD is a square of 7cm side length.

BD is an arc of a circle of radius AB, what is the area of the
shaded region?
(1) 28cm2 (2) 35cm2

(3) 21cm2 (4) 14cm2
19. Width of a room is half of its height and height of room is 3/2 times of its length. If cost of
flooring carpet on floor at the rate of Rs 4/m2 is Rs 432, then what will be height of room?
(1) 18 m (2) 20 m
(3) 12 m (4) 15 m
20. Which number in the following will completely divide 315  316  317
(1) 11 (2) 14
(3) 13 (4) 17
21. What will be the difference between simple interest and compound interest on sum of Rs
6000 in 2 years at the rate of interest of 5% p.a.
(1) Rs 15 (2) Rs 20
(3) Rs 30 (4) Rs 10
3 3
22. Value of  3.5    2.5  is
(1) 25.27 (2) 29.25
(3) 27.25 (4) 25.29
23. If 13  x 10  8  5 , then what is the value of x?

(1) –2 (2) –5
(3) –6 (4) –4
24. In the adjoining figure, ABC, is circumscribing a circle. Then

the length of BC is
(1) 10 cm (2) 7 cm
(3) 9 cm (4) 8 cm
25. The selling price of 5 articles is the same as the cost price of 3 article. The gain or loss
percent is
(1) 25% gain (2) 25% gain
(3) 40% loss (4) 33.33% loss
26. If the first half of the English alphabet is reversed and so is the 2nd half, then which letter is
7th to the right of the 12th letter from the left side?
(1) S (2) U
(3) R (4) T
27. If in a certain code language ‘THREAT’ is written as ‘RHTTAE’ then how will ‘PEARLY’ be
written in that code?
(1) YLRAEP (2) YLRPAE
(3) AEPYLR (4) AEPRYL
28. What comes in place of question mark ‘?’

4, 6, 16, 62, 308, ?
(1) 990 (2) 1721
(3) 698 (4) 1846
29. In a group of five persons Kamal is the tallest while Leela is the shortest. Rashi is shorter
than Kamal but taller than Vinita and Priti. Priti is second shortest person in the group. Who
is the third tallest?
(1) Vinita (2) Rashi
(3) Priti (4) Leela
30. Which is the following diagram best depicts the relationship between Males, Husbands and
Doctors?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Instructions: (for Questions 31 – 33)

In the venn diagram given below, the square represents women, the triangle represents persons
who are in Govt Service, the circle represents educated persons and the rectangle represents
persons working in private sector. Each section of the diagram is numbered. Study the diagram and
answer the following questions.
Women
Educated
Persons
1
Persons in Govt.
13
Service
2
7 4
3
5 6 9
10 12
8
11
Persons in
Private Sector
31. Which number represents educated women, who are in Govt. job?
(1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 4 (4) 6
32. Which number represents the uneducated women, who have Govt. Jobs as well as jobs in
private sector?
(1) 6 (2) 4
(3) 12 (4) 9
33. Which number represent educated men having private jobs as well as govt. jobs?
(1) 7 (2) 8
(3) 6 (4) 10
34. Which is the smallest number?

(1) 7  7  7  7 (2)  7  7  7   7  7
(3) 7  7  7  7  7 (4) 7   7  7  7  7 
35. In the given figure, how many triangles are there?
(1) 26 (2) 16
(3) 18 (4) 19
36. Choose the correct mirror image of the given figure form the alternatives.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
T X
37. : 2 :: : ?
J H
(1) 3/7 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4
38.
(1) 140 (2) 220

(3) 500 (4) 320
Instructions (Questions 39 – 41)

Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
M, P, J, B, R, T and F are sitting around a circle facing the centre. B is the third to the left of J who is
second to the left of M. P is third to the left of B and second to the right of R. T is not an immediate
neighbour of M.
39. Who is fourth to the right of M?

(1) B (2) T
(3) J (4) M
40. Who is second to the left of T?

(1) F (2) M
(3) P (4) J
41. What is F’s position with respect to R?

(A) Third to the left
(B) Fourth to the right
(C) Third to the right
(1) Only A (2) Only B
(3) Only C (4) Both A and B
42. A man is facing north west. If he turns 90o in the clockwise direction and then 135o in the
anticlockwise direction. Which direction is he facing now?
(1) East (2) West
(3) North (4) South
43. If in a certain language ‘how can you go’ is written as ‘je de ke pe’, ‘you come here’ is written
as ‘ne ke se’ and ‘come and go’ as ‘re pe se’, then how will ‘here’ be written in the langauge?
(1) je (2) pe
(3) me (4) ke
44. 4 5 6
2 3 7
1 8 3
21 98 ?
(1) 85 (2) 94
(3) 49 (4) 104
45. A’s mother is sister of ‘B’ and daughter of ‘C’. ‘D’ is the daughter of B and sister of E. How is
‘C’ related to E?
(1) Sister (2) Mother
(3) Father (4) Grand mother or Grand father
46. In a certain code

P stands for +
Q stands for –
R stands for x
S stands for 
Then number corresponding to
6R8S1R3Q5P7Q4P2 is
(1) 144 (2) 148
(3) 146 (4) 116
47. If the first and third digits of each number are inter changed and one is added to the second
digit of each number, then which of the following pairs of numbers, will have highest total of
their numerical value?
(1) 946 and 728 (2) 728 and 574
(3) 669 and 946 (4) 669 and 629
48. Looking into a mirror, the clock shows 9:30 as the time. The actual time is
(1) 2:30 (2) 3:30
(3) 4:30 (4) 6:30
49. The sheet of paper shown in the figure is folded to form a box. Choose the correct
alternative, which will truly represent the position of alphabets A to F shown in the following
figure?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
50. Select the figure from amongst the four alternatives which when placed in the blank space,
would complete the pattern?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
NTSE STAGE – I
(2016- 17 )
LANGUAGE TEST (02 – B)
Direction: Choose the word that is opposite in meaning to the given words in question Nos. 51 – 56
51. Collision
(1) Compassion (2) Agreement
(3) Perfection (4) Conflict
52. Grudge
(1) hatred (2) modest
(3) eternal (4) affection
53. Insolvent
(1) irrational (2) alluring
(3) affluent (4) defaulter
54. Scanty
(1) Lavish (2) skillful
(3) dirty (4) Insufficient
55. Destitute
(1) Impoverished (2) Lacking
(3) rich (4) needy
56. Vanity
(1) pride (2) modesty
(3) arrogance (4) variety
Direction: in question Nos. 57 – 62, out of four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses
the meaning of the given word.
57. Emphatic
(1) hesitant (2) extinct
(3) gigantic (4) definite
58. Compatible
(1) liable (2) viable
(3) eligible (4) consistent
59. Pandemonium
(1) a kind of harmonium (2) repercussion
(3) chaos (4) symposium
60. Judicious
(1) prudent (2) ardent
(3) furious (4) curious
61. Inquisitive
(1) beautiful (2) curious
(3) impulsive (4) modest
62. Spurious
(1) serious (2) original
(3) anxious (4) fake
Direction: in question Nos. 63 – 68, Choose the alternative which expresses the meaning of the
given idioms/phrases.
63. Once in a blue moon

(1) every month (2) always
(3) rarely (4) after mid night
64. Keep body and soul together

(1) to be free from disease (2) to maintain life
(3) to have fun in life (4) to live in a joint family
65. Sweat of the brow

(1) sweating from heat to foot (2) sweat runs down the brow
(3) hard labour (4) sweat on the forehead
66. A snake in the grass

(1) green coloured snake (2) snake hiding in grass
(3) snake lying eggs in grass (4) a secret foe
67. Come under the hammer

(1) to be sold by an auctioneer (2) to join
(3) to beat with hammer (4) to break
68. Slip of the tongue

(1) to talk nonsense (2) to stammer
(3) an error of speech (4) to abuse
Direction: in question Nos. 69 – 74, sentences are given with blank to be filled with appropriate word
out of four alternatives given:
69. I am sorry I cannot comply ___________ your wishes

(1) with (2) by
(3) at (4) for
70. I am vexed _________ his silence

(1) about (2) for
(3) by (4) at
71. He fell a victim _________ his own avarice.

(1) by (2) to
(3) of (4) with
72. We should abide________ the laws of our country.

(1) with (2) in
(3) by (4) to
73. You will have to answer__________ your misdeed.

(1) for (2) with
(3) of (4) to
74. Parents should not be blind_________ the fault of their children.

(1) for (2) in
(3) to (4) with
Direction: Choose the correct alternatives of the verbs given in brackets from question nos. 75 – 80.
75. The baby _________(cry) since morning.

(1) has crying (2) is crying
(3) cried (4) has been crying
76. When I reached home, my sister__________(cook) the food.

(1) has been cooking (2) was cooking
(3) is cooking (4) had cooked
77. The farmers_____________(plough) their fields before the rainy season sets in
(1) have ploughed (2) had ploughed
(3) will have ploughed (4) ploughed
78. I _________(not refuse) him anything till yesterday.

(1) had not refused (2) did not refuse
(3) have not refused (4) not refused
79. They________(wait) for the train for two hours when I reached the station.
(1) were waiting (2) had been waiting
(3) have been waiting (4) are waiting
80. She_______(not write) to me since she went abroad.

(1) did not write (2) had not written
(3) will not have written (4) has not written
Direction: in question Nos. 81 – 85, read the passage and choose the correct answer from the given
options
Sariska National Park is a wildlife sanctuary, located at a distance of 107 km from Jaipur. The park
possesses historical monuments and temples, which defect the legacy of the maharajas of Alwar.
The park is bigger than Ranthambore but has a similar topography. Though this sanctuary does not
have many tigers yet many wild animals dwell on the grounds of this park. Apart from other
carnivores and herbivores, you can also trace Rhesus monkeys, which can usually be seen playing
tricks upon one another around the Tad Vriksh(palm tree). The park also shelters many different
species of birds including Bush Quails, Sand Grouses, Tree Pies, Golden Backed Woodpeckers etc.
Animal lovers would definitely love this place as it will offer them some of the best scenes to
remember. The best place to spot wildlife is at the waterholes where animals come to satisfy their
thirst. You can trace hundreds of birds at the Kalighati waterhole and Nilgai can be spotted at
Salupka waterhole.
81. In the Sariska National Park, there are __________

(1) only herbivores (2) only carnivores
(3) both carnivores and herbivores (4) no carnivores or herbivores
82. The Sariska National Park is not far from

(1) Jodhpur (2) Raipur
(3) Mewar (4) Jaipur
83. The park possesses

(1) ramparts and monuments (2) monuments and temples
(3) temples and ramparts (4) monuments and forts
84. Animals come to satisfy their thirst at a

(1) borehole (2) deepwell
(3) waterhole (4) borewell
85. The Sand Grouse is a species of

(1) birds (2) plants
(3) animals (4) trees
86. One who looks at the dark side of life?
(1) optimist (2) pacifist
(3) pessimist (4) sadist
87. One who has a long experience of any occupation?

(1) Stoic (2) Novice
(3) Veteran (4) Mesologist
88. To become strong again after illness

(1) recuperate (2) toxify
(3) recrimination (4) exhaust
89. Official in-charge of a museum/art gallery

(1) artist (2) excavator
(3) caretaker (4) curator
90. Rise in prices

(1) inflammation (2) inflation
(3) infiltration (4) inflection
Direction: in question Nos. 91 – 85, choose the alternative with correct spellings.
91.
(1) Catastrophe (2) Catastrophi
(3) Catastrofy (4) Catestrophy
92.
(1) Redical (2) Radical
(3) Radicle (4) Redicle
93.
(1) Gyneacology (2) Gyniecology
(3) Gynaecology (4) Ginicology
94.
(1) Spontaneous (2) Spantaneous
(3) Spuntaneous (4) Sponteneous
95.
(1) Benevolence (2) Benivolence
(3) Benevolance (4) Benevolence
Direction: in question Nos. 96 – 100, find the correct passive construction.
96. The enemy has captured the city.

(1) The enemy has captured the city (2) The city has been captured by the enemy
(3) The city captured by the enemy (4) The city was been captured by the enemy
97. I kept him waiting

(1) He kept me waiting (2) I was kept waiting by him
(3) He was kept waiting by me (4) he has been kept waiting by me
98. Who composed this piece of composition

(1) By whom was this piece of composition composed?
(2) Who is being composed this piece of composition?
(3) By whom has this piece of composition been composed ?
(4) By whom this piece of composition was written?
99. Bring me a pen

(1) Please bring me a pen (2) Let a pen brought to me
(3) Let a pen be brought to me (4) Let a pen to bring to me
100. Have you repaired the road?

(1) Have the road repaired by you? (2) Has the road been repaired by you?
(3) Has the road repaired by you? (4) Was the road repaired by you?
NTSE STAGE – I
(2016- 17 )
101. The distance travelled by a body falling freely from rest in 2nd, 3rd and 5th second of its
motion are in the ratio
(1) 7 : 5 : 3 (2) 3 : 5 : 7
(3) 5 : 3 : 7 (4) 5 : 7 : 3
102. Two extremes ends of a moving train (engine and guard coach) pass a pole with speeds U
and V respectively with a constant acceleration. The speed with which the middle point of
the train will pass the same pole is
U V V 2  U2
(1) (2)
2 2
UV U2  V 2
(3) (4)
2 2
103. An athlete completes one round of circular track of radius r in 30s with uniform speed. The
ratio of distance to the displacement traveled by the athlete at the end of 45s is
2
(1) 2r (2) r
3
3
(3)  (4) 2
2
104. Five resistances of same value ‘x’ are joined in an

electric circuit as shown in figure. The equivalent
resistance between ends P and Q is 3 . The value
of x
1
(1) 
5
5
(2) 
4
21
(3) 
4
7
(4) 
4
105. A bomb of mass 9 kg initially at rest explodes into two pieces of masses 3 kg and 6 kg. If the
kinetic energy of 3 kg mass is 216J, then the velocity of 6kg mass will be
(1) 4 m/s (2) 3 m/s
(3) 2 m/s (4) 6 m/s
106. A glass rod is rubbed with silk, is found positively charged. This is because
(1) Electrons are transferred from glass rod to silk.
(2) Electrons are transferred from silk to glass rod.
(3) Protons are transferred from glass rod to silk
(4) Protons are transferred from silk to glass rod
107. A ship rises up as it enters the sea from a river because

(1) Sea water is harder than river water
(2) Density of sea water is lesser than river water
(3) Large quantity of sea water pushes ship up
(4) Density of sea water is greater than river water
108. Which are of the following represents the correct graph between L and T2 in simple
pendulum?
109. Which are of the following correctly depicts reflection. When two mirrors are inclined at an
angle of 50o ?
110. Acceleration time graph of a body is shown below:
Which of the following velocity time graph of the same body
111. A man of 80 kg mass stands on a weighting machine in a lift which is moving upwards with a
uniform speed of 5m/s. The reading of the weighing machine will be. (Take g = 10 m/s2)
(1) zero (2) 400N
(3) 800N (4) 1200N
112. An electric bulb marked 40W – 220V is connected with an electric supply of 110v. Its electric
power is
(1) 100W (2) 40W
(3) 20W (4) 10W
113. An overhead power transmission line carries a current from east to east directs as then
magnetic field at a point 1. 5 cm north of the line is in
(1) North direction (2) South direction
(3) Vertically upward (4) Vertically downward
114. Total internal reflection is not possible when ray of light travels from
(1) glass to water (2) glass to air
(3) water to air (4) water to glass
115. How many grams of oxygen gas is essentially required for complete combustion of 3 moles
of butane gas?
(1) 624 g (2) 312 g
(3) 128 g (4) 64 g
O O
116. IUPAC name of H - C - C - H

(1) Oxoethanal (2) Glyoxal
(3) Ethanedial (4) Ethanedione
117. What is the mass of pure ethanoic acid required to neutralize 280 mL of 0.5 molar pure lime
water completely?
(1) 60.4 g (2) 30.2 g
(3) 16.8 g (4) 8.4 g
118. A metal sulphate has the formula MSO4. The phosphate of the same metal will have the
formula
(1) M3 PO 4 3 (2) M2PO4
(3) M PO 4 2 (4) M3 PO 4 2
119. The mass of sodium chloride formed when 5.3 g of sodium carbonate is dissolve in 250ml of
1
molar HCI solution will be
2
(1) 5.85 g (2) 7.32 g
(3) 11.7 g (4) 58.5 g
120. A gas mixture contains 50% helium and 50% methane by volume at S.T.P. What is the
percentage by mass of the methane in the mixture?
(1) 20% (2) 40%
(3) 60% (4) 80%
121. The German silver, an alloy, has the composition

(1) Cu + Sn + Zn (2) Cu + Zn + Ni
(3) Cu + Ag + Zn (4) Ag + Hg + Sn
122. Out of the following, which is the incorrect statement?

(1) Adsorption is always an exothermic process
(2) The soap solution is not a colloidal solution below its CMC.
(3) ‘Argyrol” used in eye – lotion is a colloidal solution
(4) Gold number is the number of moles of gold formed in anode mud during copper refining.
123. A mixture of non – reacting gasses contains hydrogen and oxygen gases in the mass ratio of
1 : 4 respectively. What will be the molar ratio of the above two gases in the mixture?
(1) 16 : 1 (2) 1 : 4
(3) 4 : 1 (4) 1 : 6
124. An element ‘X’ has the same number of electrons in the first and the fourth shell as well as in
the second and the third shell. What is the formula and nature of its oxide?
(1) XO, Neutral (2) XO2, Acidic
(3) XO2, Amphoteric (4) XO, Basic
125. Which of the following is not used as a food preservative?

(1) Alitame (2) BHA
(3) BHT (4) Na2SO3
126. Match the column – I with column – II.

Column-I Column-II
(a) 0.5 mole SO2 gas (P) 10 moles of proton
(b) 1 mole H2O (Q) 11.2 L at S.T.P
(c) 96g of O2 gas (R) 2 moles
(d) 88g of CO2 gas (S) 6 moles of atoms
(1) (a) – (R), (b) – (P), (c) – (Q), (d) – (S) (2) (d) – (P), (c) – (Q), (b) – (R), (a) – (S)
(3) (a) – (P), (b) – (Q), (c) – (S), (d) – (R) (4) (a) – (Q), (b) – (P), (c) – (S), (d) – (R)
127. Choose the incorrect statement:

(1) lodine – value is a parameter to denote the degree of unsaturation of fatty acids.
(2) Cholesterol is not present in plant fats
(3) Rancidity is a reduction process of oily food materials.
(4) Tocopherol is an antioxidant.
128. Iodine present in iodised salt in our diet is essential for

(1) Synthesis of insulin (2) Synthesis of thyroxine
(3) Synthesis of adrenalin (4) Synthesis of growth hormone
129. Which of the following is not controlled by medulla in hind brain?

(1) Blood pressure (2) Salivation
(3) Body Posture (4) Vomitting
130. The breakdown of glucose to pyruvate takes place in

(1) Mitochondria (2) Nucleus
(3) Lungs (4) cytoplasm
131. The oxygen rich blood from lungs comes to the heart in
(1) Left atrium (2) Right atrium
(3) Right ventricle (4) Left ventricle
132. Growth of pollen tube in the style towards the ovule in plants is an example of
(1) Geotropism (2) Hydrotropism
(3) Phototropism (4) Chemotropism
133. The common passage of urine and sperm in human male is

(1) Seminal vesicle (2) Ureter
(3) Vas deferens (4) Urethra
134. Out of the following, which enzyme is active in acidic medium

(1) Pepsin (2) Trypsin
(3) Lipase (4) Amylase
135. Bowman capsule is found in
(1) Small intestine (2) Kidneys
(3) Heart (4) Brain
136. “Khadins” are used in Rajasthan to

(1) Check soil erosion (2) Recharge ground water
(3) Promote soil erosion (4) Trap wild animals
137. Which of these is ‘not’ a reflex action?

(1) Salivation on smell of food
(2) Secretion of sweat
(3) Blinking of eye in strong light
(4) Withdrawal of hand on touching hot object.
138. A food chain comprising of a snake, grass, frog and insect, the secondary consumer is
(1) Insect (2) Snake
(3) Frog (4) Grass
139. Identify the inherited trait from the following:

(1) Colour of seed of garden pea
(2) Developed musculature of a wrestler
(3) Singing ability of a person.
(4) Darkening of skin due to exposure to sunlight
140. Which of the following disease cannot be sexually transmitted.

(1) Cholera (2) HIV / AIDS
(3) Syphilis (4) Gonorrhoea
141. The simplified form of the expression given below is

y 4  x 4 y3

x(x  y) x
y 2  xy  x 2
(1) 1 (2) 0
(3) –1 (4) 2
4xy a  2x a  2y
142. If a  , the value of  in most simplified form is
xy a  2x a  2y
(1) 0 (2) 1
(3) –1 (4) 2
x 2  bx m  1
143. If  , has roots which are numerically equal but of opposite signs, the value of
ax  c m  1
m must be
(1) (a – b) / (a + b) (2) (a + b) / (a – b)
1
(3) c (4)
c
144. In the set of equations zx = y2x, 2z = 2.4x ; x + y + z = 16, the integral roots in the order
x, y, z = 16,
(1) 3, 4, 9 (2) 9, –5, 12
(3) 12, –5, 9 (4) 4, 3, 9
145. ABC is an quilateral triangle, we have BD = EG = DF
= DE = EC, then the ratio of the area of the shaded
portion to area of ABC is
4 7
(1) (2)
11 9
5 6
(3) (4)
12 7
tan A tan B  tan A cot B sin2 B

146. If A + B = 90° then  is equal to
sin A sec B cos2 A
(1) Cot2A (2) Cot2B
(3) –tan2A (4) –Cot2A
147. The value of the following expression is

 1   1   1   1 
     ......   
 2

 
2
 
 2 1   4 1   6 1 
 
2
  
2
 (20  1) 
is
10 13
(1) (2)
21 27
15 8
(3) (4)
22 33
2
x  cos2 y
148. If 2sin x + cos y = 1, 16sin  4, then values of sin x and cos y respectively are
1 1 1 1
(1)  , (2) , 
2 2 2 3
1 1
(3) 1, –1 (4) ,
2 2
149. ABCD is a square of area of 4 square units which is divided

into 4 non overlapping triangles as shown in figure, then
sum of perimeters of the triangles so formed is

(1) 8 2  2  (2) 8 1  2  
(3) 4 1  2  (4) 4  2  2 
150. In the diagram ABCD is a rectangle with AE = EF = FB, the

ratio of the areas of triangle CEF and that of rectangle
ABCD is
(1) 1 : 6 (2) 1 : 8
(3) 1 : 9 (4) 1 : 10
151. If we divide a two digit number by the sum of its digits we get 4 as quotient and 3 as
remainder. Now if we divide that two digit number by the product of its digits, we get 3 as
quotient and 5 as remainder the two digit number is
(1) Even (2) Odd prime
(3) Odd composite (4) Odd
152. The average weight (in kg) of all the students in a class equals the number of students in
the class. The increase in the average weight when a teacher to 21 kg is included equals
the decrease in average weight when a student of 19 kg is included. The strength of the
class is
(1) 15 (2) 10
(3) 20 (4) 17
153. Four positive integers sum to 125. If the first of these numbers is increased by 4, the second
is decreased by 4. the third is multiplied by 4 and the fourth is divided by 4 we find four equal
numbers then four original integers are
(1) 16, 24, 5, 80 (2) 8, 22, 38, 57
(3) 7, 19, 46, 53 (4) 12, 28, 40, 45
154. The total number of squares on a chessboard is

(1) 206 (2) 205
(3) 204 (4) 202
155. In the figure, the area of square ABCD is 4 cm2 and E is mid
point of AB; F, G, H and K are the mid points of DE, CF, DG
and CH respectively. The area of KDC is:
1 1
(1) cm2 (2) cm2
4 8
1 1
(3) cm2 (4) cm2
16 32
156. If x% of y is equal to 1% of z, y% of z is equal to 1% of x and z% of x is equal to 1% of y,

then the value of xy + yz + zx is
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4
157. The volume and whole surface area of a cylindrical solid of radius ‘r’ units are v and s
v
respectively. If the height of cylinder is 1 unit then is equal to
s
1 1  1 1 
(1)  1   (2)  1  
2  r  1 2 r  1
1  1 1  1
(3)  1   (4) 1  
2 r 2 r
158. If the height of right circular cylinder is increased by 10% while the radius of base is
decreased by 10% then curved surface area of cylinder
(1) Remains same (2) Decreases by 1%
(3) Increases by 1% (4) Increases by 0.1%
159. In the figure D  90o AB = 16 cm, BC = 12 cm and CA =

6 cm, then CD is:
13 17
(1) cm (2) cm
6 6
19 18
(3) cm (4) cm
6 5
160. If x, y, z are real numbers such that x  1  y  2  z  3  0 then the values of x, y, z are
respectively
(1) 1, 2, 3 (2) 0, 0, 0
(3) 2, 3, 1 (4) 2, 4, 1
161. Napoleonic code is known as

(1) Civil code of 1802 (2) Civil code of 1803
(3) Civil code of 1804 (4) Civil code of 1805
162. When was Victor Emmanuel II proclaimed king of united Italy?

(1) 1860 (2) 1861
(3) 1863 (4) 1871
163. Satyagrah of Gandhiji against oppressive planation system was started from which place?
(1) Dandi (2) Surat
(3) Ahmedabad (4) Champaran
164. Who set up the first Indian Jute mill in Calcutta in 1917?
(1) Seth Hukum Chand (2) G.D. Birla
(3) Dwaraka Nath Tagore (4) J.N. Tata
165. Where was khilafat committee formed in March 1919?

(1) Lucknow (2) Bombay
(3) Lahore (4) Ajmer
166. Who wrote about the injustice of the caste system in his book ‘Gulamgiri”?
(1) B.R. Ambedkar (2) Periyar
(3) Amrit Lal Thakkar (4) Jyotiba Phule
167. The Act was made by Britishers to censor the India press was
(1) Rowlatt Act (2) Regulating Act
(3) Vernacular Act (4) Pitt Act
168 Who was the king of France during French Revolution?

(1) Louis XIV (2) Louis XV
(3) Louis XVI (4) Louis XVII
169. Which of the following book is not written by Premchand?

(1) Rangbhoomi (2) Indulekha
(3) Sevasadan (4) Godan
170. Who was propaganda minister of Hitler?

(1) Goebbels (2) Raasputin
(3) Stalin (4) Helmuth
171. Which of the following country is not included in Indo-China?

(1) Laos (2) Vietnam
(3) Cambodia (4) Japan
172. How much percent of iron ore is found in magnetite?

(1) 70% (2) 65%
(3) 60% (4) 75%
173. Which coal has highest quantity?

(1) Peat (2) Lignite
(3) Bituminous (4) Anthracite
174. During which period was the greatest damage inflicted upon Indian forest?
(1) Colonial period (2) Mughal period
(3) Maratha period (4) Gupt period
175. A chemical compound called ‘texol’ extracted from the Himalyan yew is used to cure which
disease?
(1) Tuberculosis (2) Cancer
(3) Asthma (4) Fever
176. In which year was the ‘Project Tiger’ launched?

(1) 1974 (2) 1970
(3) 1972 (4) 1973
177. Which crop is kharif crop in North and Rabi in south India?
(1) Rice (2) Sugar cane
(3) Sesame (4) Cotton
178. In which industry limestone is used as a raw material?

(1) Cotton textiles (2) Iron and steel
(3) Cement industry (4) Jute industry
179. Which one of the following is the type of plate boundary of the Indian plate along the
Himalayan Mountain?
(1) Ocean-continent convergence (2) Divergent-boundary
(3) Transform boundary (4) Continent-continent boundary
180. Which of the following island groups lies to South East India?
(1) Andaman and Nicobar Islands (2) Lakshadweep
(3) Maldives (4) Sri Lanka
181. Which of the following is the main form of degradation in the irrigated areas?
(1) Gully erosion (2) Wind erosion
(3) Siltation of land (4) Salinisation of soils
182. River Narmada originates from which of the following hills

(1) Amarkantak (2) Satpura
(3) Vindyachal (4) Mahabaleshwar
183. Which one of the following is not a good argument in favour of democracy?
(1) People feel free and equal in democracy
(2) Democracy resolves conflict in a better way than other
(3) Democratic government is more accountable to the people
(4) Democratic counties are more prosperous than others
184. Who prepared the constitution of India in 1928?

(1) B.R. Ambedkar (2) Rajendra Prasad
(3) Jawahar Lal Nehru (4) Moti Lal Nehru
185. Who appoints the chief election commissioner of India?

(1) The Prime Minister (2) People of India
(3) President of India (4) Chief justice of India
186. Main recommendations of Mandal commission was

(1) reservation of Schedule caste
(2) reservation of schedule tribe
(3) reservation for socially and educationally backward
(4) reservation for minorities
187. In America Legislature is called
(1) Upper house (2) Congress
(3) Lower house (4) Cabinet
188. Which one of the following state was born out of cultural, ethnicity and geography?
(1) Kerala (2) Nagaland
(3) Mizoram (4) Assam
189. In modern democracy power sharing arrangements can take in following way
(1) Among different organs of government (2) Among government at different level
(3) Among different social groups (4) All of them
190. Which one of the following subject is of union list?

(1) Police (2) Trade
(3) Foreign Affairs (4) Commerce
191. “Religion can never be separated from politics” said by

(1) Sardar Patel (2) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(3) Mahatma Gandhi (4) Indira Gandhi
192. Who interprets the constitution of India?

(1) Lok Sabha (2) Rajya Sabha
(3) Both (Lok Sabha & Rajya Sabha) (4) The Supreme Court of India
193. Which one of the following is not a function of political party?

(1) To fill the political offices (2) Contest the election
(3) To pass the Budget (4) Do not shape the Public Opinion
194. What is the time period of government budge in India?

(1) From 1st January to 31st December (2) From 1st March to 30th April
st st
(3) From 1 April to 31 March (4) From 1st April to 31 December
195. After which five year plant there were three annual plans.
(1) First five year plan (2) Third five year plan
(3) Fourth five year plan (4) Fifth five year plan
196. How many days of guaranteed work is provided by National Rural Employment Guarantee
Act.
(1) 200 days (2) 100 days
(3) 300 days (4) 500 days
197. Which one of the following agency issues one rupee currency note in India?
(1) Reserve Bank of India (2) Ministry of Finance
(3) Commerce Ministry (4) Commercial Banks
198. Selling of part of public sector enterprises is called

(1) Globalization (2) Privatization
(3) Disinvestment (4) Liberalization
199. Blue revolution is associated with which activity

(1) Indigo cultivation (2) Fisheries
(3) Poultry farming (4) Availability of drinking water
200. Which one of these is not a feature of money?

(1) Medium of exchange (2) Source of Income
(3) Store of value (4) Unit of account
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DATE : 13/05/2018 BOOKLET CODE
13-15
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Answers & Solutions Max. Marks : 100
for
NTSE (Stage-II)-2018
MENTAL ABILITY TEST (MAT)
(For Students of Class X)
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES :
Read the following instructions carefully before you open the Test booklet.
1. Please follow the instructions given on the OMR sheet for marking the answers.
2. Write your eight-digit Roll Number as allotted to you in the admission card very clearly on the test-
booklet and darken the appropriate circles on the OMR sheet as per instructions given.
3. Write down and darken Test Booklet Number in the appropriate circles on the OMR sheet as per
instructions given.
4. There are 100 questions in this test. All are compulsory.
5. Since the time allotted for this question paper is very limited you should make the best use of it by
not spending too much time on any one question.
6. Rough work can be done anywhere in the Test booklet but not on the OMR sheet/loose paper.
7. Each correct answer will be awarded one mark.
8. THERE WILL BE NO NEGATIVE MARKING.
1
NTSE (Stage-II) - 2018 (Mental Ability Test)
1. Which figure completes the statement? Answer ( 1 )
S o l . Arrow is moving in anticlockwise direction
is to while circle is moving clockwise and square
is shifting towards right.
4. Danish starts walking straight towards East.
is to ? After walking 75 m, he turns to the left and
walks 25 m straight. Again he turns to the left,
walks a distance of 40 m straight, again he
turns to the left and walks a distance of 25 m.
(1) (2)
How far is he from the starting point?
(1) 30 m
(3) (4) (2) 35 m
Answer ( 1 ) (3) 40 m
S o l . Figure folded towards the centre. (4) 50 m
2. Fact 1 : Ravneet said, “Mehar and I both Answer ( 2 )

have goats.” Sol.
Fact 2 : Mehar said, “I don't have a goat.” 40 m
Fact 3 : Ravneet always tells the truth, but
Mehar sometimes lies.
If the three statements are facts, which of the
25 m 25 m
following statements must also be facts?
I. Mehar has a goat. 35 m
II. Ravneet has a goat. 75 m
III. Mehar is lying. 5. In the question given below, there are four
statements which are to be taken as truth
(1) II only (2) I and II only even if they do not seem to be so. There are
(3) I, II and III (4) II and III only conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. Decide
which of these logically follow from the given
Answer ( 3 )
statements.
S o l . Because Ravneet always tells truth.
All students who like English also like
3. Look at the patterns in the squares and Mathematics. Some students like Hindi. All
understand their relationship to one another students who like Hindi do not like
so as to fill in the square with missing Mathematics. Students who like Mathematics
symbols. also like English.
I. Students who like Hindi also like English.
II. Students who like Mathematics also like
Hindi.
III. Students who like Mathematics do not like
Hindi.
IV. Students who like English do not like Hindi.
? (1) I and II (2) I and III
(3) I and IV (4) III and IV
(1) (2) Answer ( 4 )

Sol. E, M H
(3) (4)
2
6. The number in the place of '?' should be Direction (10-11) : Study the following diagram.
2 3 4 A B
15 x
3 22 2 4 40 2 5 ? 3 y
5
4 5 6 10 11
(1) 42
25
(2) 58
(3) 59 C
(4) 68 A: Representing people who read newspaper A
Answer ( 4 ) B: Representing people who read newspaper B
S o l . = 52 + 42 + 32 + 62 – (5 + 4 + 3 + 6) C: Representing people who read newspaper C
= 68 Based on the above information answer the
question 10-11.
Direction (7-9) : Answer these questions by using
the following diagram. 10. If the number of people in B is 10 more than
A, what is the total number of people in only
D 1
B (i.e., in B but not in A or C)?
12 2 C
(1) 14 (2) 24
3
(3) 30 (4) 36
4 5 8 9
B
Answer ( 2 )
7 10 11
S o l . A = B – 10
A
 Only B (without A and C) = 24
11. If sum of the number of people in only B and
Each square stands for different class.
the number of people common in both A and
A. Represents Indians B is 63 and the number of people in B is twice
the number of people in A, then the values of
B. Represents Students
x and y are respectively
C. Represents Talented individuals
(1) 15, 4 (2) 48, 5
D. Represents Players
(3) 51, 7 (4) 51, 8
7. How many Indian non-player students who are
talented? Answer ( 3 )
(1) 5 (2) 7 S o l . x + y + 5 = 63
(3) 10 (4) 12  x + y = 58 ...(i)
Answer ( 3 ) x + y + 16 = 2(y + 30)

8. How many talented Indians are players?  x – y = 44 ...(ii)
(1) 13 (2) 17 From (i) and (ii), we get
(3) 19 (4) 22 x = 51, y = 7
Answer ( 2 ) 12. In the question given below, some argument/
9. How many talented Indians are there, who arguments is/are logical and others are not.
are students? Identify the logical argument/arguments.
(1) 13 (2) 15 I. Eating lots of vegetables and fruits

increases immunity. I eat lots of
(3) 17 (4) 19
vegetables and fruits, so my immunity is
Answer ( 4 ) high.
3
II. Eating lots of vegetables and fruits 14. Find out the water image of
increases immunity. I do not eat AVPU7436
vegetables and fruits, so my immunity is
low. (1)
(2)
III. Eating lots of vegetables and fruits
increases immunity. My immunity is low, (3)
which means I don’t eat fruits and (4)
vegetables.
Answer ( 1 )
(1) Only I
Sol.
(2) I and II
(3) I and III

15. A man goes on trek from the bottom to the top
(4) II and III of a mountain. He starts at 6 am of 15th
Answer ( 2 ) October, 2017 from the bottom and reaches
the top at 6 pm of the same day. On 16th
S o l . Statement I and II are correct. October, 2017 he starts from the top at 6 am
and goes back following exactly the same
13. Consider the following figures:
route and reaches the bottom at 6 pm. Based
on the above situation, the following
possibilities are to be analysed.
I. It is not possible to find a point on the
route which he will cross at the same time
each day.
II. It is possible to find a point on the route
which he will cross at the same time each
day provided only if he travels on each
day with equal uniform speed.
III. It is always possible to find a point on the
route which he will cross at the same time
each day irrespective of his speed of
travel.
(1) Only I is true.
Which of the following alternatives should
replace the question mark? (2) Only II is true.
(3) Only III is true.
(4) Both I and II are true.
Answer ( 2 )
(1) (2)
S o l . If he will go with uniform speed, then he will
cross at the same time each day.
Therefore, statement II is correct.
16. At noon and at midnight the long and short
hands of a clock are together. Between noon
(3) (4) and midnight, how many times the long hand
overtakes the short hand?
(1) 9 (2) 10
Answer ( 4 )
(3) 11 (4) 12
S o l . In each column, total number of trees and Answer ( 3 )
apples is 4 and 5 respectively.
S o l . 11 times the long hand overtakes the short
Therefore, option (4) satisfies above condition. hand
4
17. If MENTAL: SMXFOB then ABILITY: ________ Answer ( 1 )
(1) GJSXWJQ (2) GSXWJJQ
Sol. +2 +2 +2 +2
(3) SGXWJJQ (4) SJXQJWG
J14, L16, N18, P20, R22
Answer ( 1 )
Sol. Difference +2 +2 +2 +2
M S  6 21. What will be the missing term in the given
E M  8 sequence?
N X  10 ACC, ______, CEO, DFX
T F  –14 (1) BDD (2) BDE

A O  14 (3) BDH (4) BED
L B  –10 Answer ( 3 )
With above difference pattern, ABILITY will be
coded as GJSXWJQ +5 +7 +9
+1 +1 +1
18. As JAISALMER is to JAILSARME, as
HYDERABAD is to__________. S o l . 1 3 3 2 4 8 3 5 15 4 6 2 4
ACC BDH CEO DFX
(1) HYDAERDBA (2) HYDRBEDAA
(3) HYDBDREAA (4) HYDEADRAB +1 +1 +1
Answer ( 1 ) 22. Which number comes in place of '?' ?
J A I S A L M E R 64, 57, 66, 55, ?, 52
Sol.
J A I L S A R M E (1) 68 (2) 69
In the same way HYDERABAD will be coded as (3) 70 (4) 71
HYDAERDBA Answer ( 2 )
19. Which of the following alternatives will fit in –2 –3

the place of ‘?’ ?
AZ, GT, MN, ?, YB 64 57 66 55 69 52
Sol.
(1) KF (2) RX
+2 +3
(3) SH (4) TS
23. Select the suitable figure from the given
Answer ( 3 )
alternatives to complete the figure.
+6 +6 +6 +6
Sol. A Z, G T, M N, S H, Y B
1 26 7 20 13 14 19 8 25 2
?
–6 –6 –6 –6
20. Look at this series : (1) (2)

J14, L16, ____, P20, R22
(3) (4)
Which of the following alternatives will fit in
the blank space?
Answer ( 1 )
(1) N18 (2) S24
S o l . Spokes are reducing by 1 in next figure and
(3) M18 (4) T24 spoke with dot move 90° in clockwise.
5
24. Arrange the given words in a meaningful 27. When a square shaped transparent sheet with
sequence and find the correct sequence from the pattern shown in the figure is folded along
the given options: the dotted line which pattern would appear?
(A) Wall (B) Clay

(C) House (D) Room
(E) Bricks
(1) E, B, A, D, C (1) (2)
(2) B, E, D, A, C
(3) B, E, A, D, C
(4) A, B, C, D, E (3) (4)
Answer ( 3 )
S o l . Clay, Bricks, Wall, Room, House Answer ( 1 )
S o l . After folding along the dotted line we get
25. Identify the figure that completes the pattern.
answer figure 1
28. Fact 1: All monkeys like to jump.
Fact 2: Some monkeys like to swim.
Fact 3: Some monkeys look like their
? masters.
If the first three statements are facts, which
of the following statements must also be a
fact(s)?
(1) (2) I. All monkeys who like to swim look like
their masters.
II. Monkeys who like to swim also like to
jump.
(3) (4)
III. Monkeys who like to jump do not look like
their masters.
Answer ( 3 ) (1) I only (2) II only
26. Replace "?" by the appropriate figure from the (3) II and III (4) Both I and II
given options.
Answer ( 2 )
Jump
? Monkey
S o l . Master Swim
(1) (2) 29. Given below is a statement followed by two

assumptions.
The population below poverty line has
increased in urban area during the last year.
(3) (4)
Assumptions:
I. The population below poverty line has
Answer ( 3 ) decreased in rural area.
S o l . Two figures interchanges their places and II. The population below poverty line has not
their size. increased during the current year.
6
Which of the assumptions is implicit in the 32. In a school, students are offered subjects in
statement? such a manner that they have to choose at
least one subject from History and Geography.
(1) Only I is implicit
Accordingly:
(2) Only II is implicit
All students who study History also study
(3) Either I or II is implicit Geography logically implies:
(4) Neither I nor II is implicit I. There are no students who study
Geography and do not study History.
Answer ( 4 )
II. There are no students who study History
S o l . No assumption is implicit in the given
and do not study Geography.
statements.
III. There are no students who do not study
30. Identify the conclusion(s) which logically
History and do not study Geography.
follow(s) from the given statements :
A. Some men are educated. IV. All students who do not study Geography
are students who study History.
B. Educated men prefer small families.
(1) I and II (2) I and III
Conclusions :
(3) II and III (4) II and IV
I. All small families are educated.
Answer ( 3 )
II. Some men prefer small families
(1) Only conclusion I follows
Sol. G
(2) Only conclusion II follows H
(3) Both I and II follow
(4) Neither I nor II follows
Answer ( 2 )
Men Educated
Sol. According to above venn-diagram, II and III
statements logically implies.
Small families 33. In a city, all the roads are either parallel to the
East-West or North-South direction. Every
31. A watch is showing right time at 9 pm. This
watch gains 10 minutes in every 24 hours. 1
th of a kilometre from each road there is a
What will be the time shown next day by the 8
watch when the correct time is 2 am? crossing and the square area covered
between four crossings is called a block.
(1) 02:00:24 am (2) 02:00:48 am Starting from a crossing, if I travel four blocks
north, take left and then travel three blocks
(3) 02:02:05 am (4) 02:02:30 am
west, I reach another crossing. What is the
Answer ( 3 ) distance between these two crossings?
S o l . 9 pm to 2 am = 5 hours
In 24 hours watch gains = 10 mins
10 1 block
In 1 hour watch gains = mins
24
10 50 25
In 5 hours watch gains = 5 = 
24 24 12 (1) 5 km (2) 7 km
= 2 min 5 seconds (3) 7/8 km (4) 5/8 km
So the watch will show 02 : 02 : 05 am at 2 : 00 am Answer ( 4 )

7
Sol. Directions (Questions 36-38)

B7 B6 B5 B4
Each of integers 1 to 26 represented in the Venn
B3 diagram in the appropriate regions P to W where
region K represents integers from 1 to 26.
B2
I represents even integers from 1 to 26.
B1 II represents perfect square integers from 1 to 26.
A
III represents prime numbers from 1 to 26.
2 2 W represents numbers from 1 to 26 other than those

 4 3 in I, II and III.
Distance      
8 8
5 K
km
8 II I
34. How many minimum right turns will you take Q S P
to reach school from home?
VU
Home T
R III
W
36. Which region contains exactly two integers?

School (1) P and W only
(1) 7 (2) 8
(2) R and U only
(3) 9 (4) 10
(3) S and W only
Answer ( 3 )
(4) U and W only
35. The figure shows the Gender, Marital Status
and Profession (GMP) of a number of people. Answer ( 3 )
Each shape shows a different GMP. S o l . S contains 4, 16 and W contains 15, 21.
So, only S and W contains exactly two
integers.
37. The total number of integers in S and R is
equal to the number of integers in
(1) P only (2) T only
(3) V only (4) W only
Circle indicates total population, trapezium is Answer ( 1 )
males, pentagon is married, rectangle is S o l . S contains {4, 16} = 2 integers
teachers, and triangle is doctors.
R contains {3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, 23} = 8
What do the shaded regions represent in the integers
diagram?
P contains {6, 8, 10, 12, 14, 18, 20, 22, 24,
(1) Married males who are teachers 26} = 10 integers
(2) Unmarried males who are doctors  Total number of integers in S and R is equal
(3) Unmarried females who are doctors to total number of integers in P.
(4) Married males who are neither doctors 38. Which region contains exactly eight integers?
nor teachers
(1) P (2) Q
Answer ( 1 )
(3) R (4) S
S o l . Because the shaded region is comes into
rectangle, pentagon and trapezium. Answer ( 3 )
 So, the shaded region shows married S o l . R contains {3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, 23} = 8
males who are teachers. integers.
8
39. In a school, commerce and arts subjects were 41. A, B and C have money with them in the ratio
offered. Some students opted only for 5:3:1. How much money does B have?
commerce and some only arts. There were
I A has ` 60 more than C
science students also who did not choose any
of these subjects. The rest of them accepted II The money with B is 40% less than the
both commerce and arts. Which one of the money with A
following Venn diagram correctly reflects this
(1) (1) (2) (2)
situation?
(3) (3) (4) (4)
(1) (2) Answer ( 1 )

S o l . Let A = 5x, B = 3x and C = x
A – C = 60
(3) (4)
 5x – x = 60
Answer ( 1 )  x = 15
40. A person walked 100 m straight from the point Therefore, B is having 15 × 3 = `45
'A' in the North-East direction, walked 200 m
in South-West direction from there, 100 m in According to statement II, we cannot find the
North-East direction again, walked 100 m value of B.
eastward, 200 m southward and 100 m 42. What is the cost of each pen?
westward to reach at the point 'B'. Choose the
I. The cost of 6 pens and 5 pencils is `30.
right answer from the following to find out his/
her distance and direction from 'A'. II. If the cost of each pen and each pencil is
(1) 100 m, North (2) 100 m, South reduced by 40%, then the cost of 12 pens
and 10 pencils will be `36.
(3) 200 m, North (4) 200 m, South
Answer ( 4 ) (1) (1) (2) (2)
S o l . AB = 200 m, South (3) (3) (4) (4)
N Answer ( 4 )
m S o l . Let cost of 1 pen and 1 pencil be x and y
0
A 10
100m respectively
W m
E
m
0
0
10 6x + 5y = 30 ...(i)
20
200 m  60x   60y 

 100   12   100   10  36
   
B 100 m  6x + 5y = 30 ...(ii)
S
Directions (Questions 41-44) Both (i) and (ii) represents infinite many
solutions.
Items 41-44, each contains a question of two
statements I and II, giving certain data. Select the 43. What is the ratio of savings of A and B?
correct answer from (1) to (4) depending on the I. The ratio of income of A and B is 5 : 6.
sufficiency of data given in the statements to II. The ratio of expenditure of A and B is
answer each question. 3 : 4.
(1) If I alone is sufficient and II alone is not
(1) (1) (2) (2)
sufficient to answer the question.
(3) (3) (4) (4)
(2) If II alone is sufficient and I alone is not
sufficient to answer the question. Answer ( 4 )
(3) If both I and II together are sufficient but S o l . Let income of A and B be 5x and 6x
neither statement alone is sufficient to answer respectively and expenditure be 3y and 4y
the question. respectively.
(4) If both I and II together are not sufficient to 5x  3y
Therefore, ratio of their saving is
answer the question and additional data 6x  4y
specific to the question are needed. which cannot be determined.
9
44. What is the ratio of the selling prices of two 47. One evening before sunset two friends Rajni
articles A and B? and Sanjiv were talking face to face. If
I. The cost price of article A is equal to the Sanjiv’s shadow was exactly to his right side,
selling price of B. to which direction Rajni was facing?
II. The profit made by selling A is equal to (1) North (2) North East
1/5 of its selling price. (3) South (4) South East
(1) (1) (2) (2) Answer ( 3 )
(3) (3) (4) (4)
Sol. North
Answer ( 3 )
Sol. A B Rajni
CP = x CP = z West East
SP = y SP = x Sanjiv
Profit of A = Selling price of A – Cost price of A
South
y
=y–x
5  Rajni was facing towards south.
y 5 48. The square boxes in the figures below are to
 = be painted with different colours such that no
x 4
two adjacent boxes (even diagonally) have
Both statements are required. same colour. How many minimum colours do
45. If in a code language STAR = 50 and you need in each case?
CIRUS = 65 then PLANET will be
(1) 68 (2) 78
(3) 84 (4) 94
Answer ( 4 )
Sol. S T A R = 50
   
(1) (3, 4) (2) (4, 4)
Reverse 8 7 26 9
(3) (4, 5) (4) (3, 5)
C I R U S = 65
Answer ( 2 )
    
S o l . R  Red, G  Green, B  Blue, O  Orange
24 18 9 6 8
In the same way, PLANET equals
11 + 15 + 26 + 13 + 22 + 7 = 94 R B R O R
46. Pankaja puts her alarm clock on the table in O G O G G B G
such a way that at 6 pm the hour hand points
to North. In which direction will the minute B R O R O
hand point at 9:15 pm?
(1) South-East (2) South 49. What is the number in place of ‘?’ ?
(3) North (4) West 2Y23, 3V19, 5V17, 7T13, 11V11, ___?___
Answer ( 4 ) (1) 13T7 (2) 13V9
(3) 13W9 (4) 13U7
12 (South) Answer ( 1 )
S o l . 2 Y 23, 3 V 19, 5 V 17, 7 T 13, 11 V 11, 13 T 7

9 3
S o l . (East) (West) Prime
Numbers
6 Alphabet is the sum of both the numbers

(North)  13 +7 = 20 = T
10
50. Identify which number does not fit in the 53. Which group of letter given in the alternatives
sequence? will complete the sequence?
156, 182, 210, 240, 282, 306 a__tta__ant__an__nt__an
(1) 182 (2) 210
(1) a t n t t (2) n n t a t
(3) 282 (4) 306
(3) n a n t t (4) t n t a t
Answer ( 3 )
Answer ( 2 )
Sol. 156 , 182 , 210 , S o l . a n t t a n ant t an a nt t an
  
2 2 2 So, the correct group of letters is nntat
13 – 13 14 – 14 15 – 15
240 , 282 , 306 Directions (Questions 54-57)
  
2 2 2 A group of students is sitting in such a way that
16 – 16 17 – 7 18 – 18 each occupies a corner of a hexagonal table.
Ninong is sitting opposite to Yaangba. Ribiya is
Not correct sitting next to Silva, Nazeli is sitting opposite to
Silva, but not next to Ninong. One person is sitting
51. What is the number in place of '?' ? between Talyang and Yaangba.
6, 15, 35, ?, 143, 221 54. Who is sitting opposite to Ribiya?
(1) 45 (2) 65
(1) Yaangba (2) Silva
(3) 77 (4) 93
(3) Talyang (4) Nazeli
Answer ( 3 )
Answer ( 3 )
S o l . Multiplication of prime numbers.
2×3=6 55. Who is sitting between Ribiya and Ninong?
3 × 5 = 15 (1) Yaangba (2) Nazeli

5 × 7 = 35 (3) Talyang (4) Silva
7 × 11 = 77 Answer ( 4 )
11 × 13 = 143 56. Who is sitting between Talyang and Yaangba?
13 × 17 = 221
(1) Nazeli (2) Ribiya
The missing number is 77
(3) Ninong (4) Silva
52. A pattern is being followed to derive numbers
using two out of the six numbers appearing on Answer ( 1 )
the faces of a dice having numbers from 4 to
57. If Talyang sits to the right of Ninong, who is on
9 both inclusive. Two such pair yield 106 and
the left on Ninong?
52. What will the third pairs yield?
(1) Ribiya (2) Nazeli
5 7 7
4 4 5 (3) Yaangba (4) Silva
8 5 6
Answer ( 4 )
(1) 100 (2) 113 Solutions of Q.54 to Q.57
(3) 130 (4) 145 Ribiya Yaangba
Answer ( 2 )
S o l . Sum of squares of the numbers out.
Silva Nazeli
(9)2 + (5)2 = 106
(4)2 + (6)2 = 52
Then (7)2 + (8)2 = 113
Ninong Talyang
11
58. A cylinder is painted in 6 colours. Violet, Red, 5 13 8
Blue, Green, Yellow and Orange. The three E M H
positions of the cylinder are as follows.
Looking at these figures, identify the correct 14 15 1
colour in place of?'. N O A
9 13 4
Orange
I ? D
Yellow
? Orange 61. Which letter replaces the question mark (?)?

Violet Violet
Red
Blue
Green 6 4 4 7
(i) (ii) (iii)
4 N L 1
(1) Red (2) Blue
5 U ? 1
(3) Green (4) Violet
Answer ( 3 ) 6 10 14 2
(1) M (2) O
S o l . Because the left side of yellow is green and
right side of yellow is red. (3) P (4) Q
59. Find the missing number at the place of 'M'? Answer ( 4 )

S o l . 14 + 2 + 1 = 17 = Q
5 4 3 8 9 4
20 9 24 11 M 13 62. What is the number that should come in place
of 'M' ?
(1) 36 (2) 52
5 6 M
(3) 81 (4) 117
95 36 68
Answer ( 1 )
10 3 3 2 4 8
3 8 9 4 (1) 2 (2) 3
5+4=9
Sol. 5 × 4 = 20 3×8 3+8 9×4 9+4 (3) 4 (4) 6
M
Answer ( 2 )
M = 36 S o l . 4 × 8 + 8 × M + 4 × M = 68
60. Which letter replaces the question mark (?) ? M=3
63. In the given figure which number should

E M H replace 'M' ?
18
N O A 8 13
11 8
I ? D 13 11
M 21
(1) A (2) E
10 9
(3) H (4) M
Answer ( 4 ) 23 10 8 9
S o l . 5 + 8 = 13 (1) 4 (2) 11
14 + 1 = 15
(3) 13 (4) 19
9 + 4 = 13
Answer ( 1 )
[According to alphabetical order]
12
Sol. Answer ( 4 )
18
13
8  1 1 1
8 S o l . After 1 day =     to get a gain of
11 2 3 6
13 11
5 minute.
M 21
h
5
10 9 6
h = 30 days
9
23 10 8 Clock will shows 5 minute fast on 31st March.
13 + 11 + 8 + 18 = 50 67. What is the length 'x' of the line segment CD
M + 10 + 23 + 13 = 50 in the triangle drawn below?
M=4 C
64. Manushi remembers that birthday of Chaitra

is after July 10 but before July 17, but
8
Vishakha remembers that it is between 15 6
and 27 July, both inclusive. If July 10 was a
Thursday and if both of them remember x
correctly then on which day was Chaitra's
A B
birthday? 5 D 5
(1) Sunday (2) Monday (1) 4 (2) 5
(3) Tuesday (4) Wednesday (3) 6 (4) 8
Answer (3 & 4) Answer ( 2 )
S o l . Birth date – 15 July or 16 July
C
Birthday – Tuesday or Wednesday
65. A family consists of six members P, Q, R, X, Y, Z.
Q is the son of R but R is not mother of Q. 6 x 8
Sol.
P and R are a married couple.
Y is the brother of R. X is the daughter of P.
Z is the brother of Q. A 5 D 5 B
Which symbol represents all the children of P? Since, ACB = 90°
(1) QXYZ (2) QXZ  AD = BD = CD = 5
(3) XZR (4) QZ
68. If m + n = o + p,
Answer ( 2 )
m + q = p + n,
H/W
P R ,Y 2p < m + q and 2 m > o + n, then
S/D (1) o > m > n > p > q (2) m > o > p > n > q
Sol. (3) n > o > p > m > q (4) o > p > n > q > m
Answer ( 1 )
X Q Z S o l . 2p < m + q
1 2p < p + n [ m + q = p + n]
66. I noticed that my watch goes minute fast at
2 p<n ...(i)
1 2m + n + q = 2p + o + n
dusk, but at dawn it loses minute. On 1st
3 (on adding given two equations)
March morning my watch showed right time,
2p = 2m + q – o
then on which of the following dates the
watch was 5 minutes fast? 2p < m + q
(1) 28th March (2) 29th March 2m + q – o < m + q
(3) 30th March (4) 31st March m<o ...(ii)
13
2m > o + n 72. Six dice are stacked as shown in the figure.

2m > 2m + n + q – 2p On each dice, the sum of number appearing
on a face and on the face opposite to it is 7.
2p > n + q
m+q>n+q
m>n ...(iii)
2m > o + n
2p + o – q > o + n
2p – q > n > p What is the maximum possible sum of the
2p – q > p numbers on the visible faces?
p>q ...(iv) (1) 88 (2) 89
From (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) we conclude (3) 96 (4) 147
o > m > n > p > q. Answer ( 2 )
69. If water image of OXIDE is OXIDE, then water Sol.
image of METAL will be A
(1) (2) B D
(3) (4) METAL C E F
Answer ( 2 )
METAL
Sol. AT M Maximum sum of numbers
E
A  20
70. How many dots lie opposite the face having B  13
three dots, when the given figure is folded to
C  13
form a cube?
D  18
E7
F  18
Total sum = 89
73. Observe the sequence given below and select
the appropriate alternative which will
maintain the series.
5 6 3
(1) 2 (2) 4
6 4 5 3 6 4
(3) 5 (4) 6
Answer ( 4 ) 4 5 ?
Sol. 1  2
45
36 2 6 4 2 ? ?
71. ’ is ‘+’, ‘×’ is ‘–’, ‘–’ is ‘
If ‘ ’ and ‘+’ is ‘×’ then 6 3
what is the value of
20  4 × 12 – 6 + 11 ? (1) (2)
(1) 2 (2) 5
4 1 6 4
(3) 56 (4) 65 2 1
Answer ( 1 )
S o l . 20 + 4 – 12  6 × 11 (3) (4)
= 24 – 2 × 11 = 2 4 5 4 5
14
Answer ( 4 ) Answer ( 2 )
S o l . 6x = 5y, 2y > 3z
Sol. 5 6 3
6
y x ...(i)
5
6 4 5 3 6 4
6
5 + 6 + 4 = 15 6 + 5 + 3 = 14 3 + 6 + 4 = 13 2    x  3z [From (i)]
5
4 5 1
 4x > 5z
77. If Q means ‘addition sign’, J means
‘multiplication sign’, T means ‘subtraction
2 6 4 2 4 5 sign’ and K means ‘division sign’ then,
4 + 2 + 6 = 12 5 + 4 + 2 = 11 1 + 4 + 5 = 10 30 K 2 Q 3 J 6 T 5 = ?
74. Two positions of a dice are shown. When Find the number in place of ‘?’
number 3 is on the top, what number will be
at the bottom? (1) 18
(2) 28
2 2
(3) 31
3 6 6 1
(4) 103
(1) 1 but not 4 (2) 4 but not 1 Answer ( 2 )
(3) 5 or 4 (4) 5 but not 4 S o l . 30  2 + 3 × 6 – 5
Answer ( 1 ) = 15 + 18 – 5 = 28
S o l . 1 is adjacent to both 2 and 6 78. Which figure should come next among the
 1 is opposite to 3 options given below?
75. Which interchange in signs and number would

make the equation correct?
(96  128) + 64 = 2
(1) + and , 64 and 96
(2) + and , 64 and 128
(1) (2)
(3) + and , 96 and 128
(4)  and +, 94 and 128
Answer ( 1 )
S o l . (64 + 128)  96 = 2 (3) (4)
 192  96 = 2
Answer ( 4 )
 2=2
76. Let “%” stands for “is equal to”, “?” for Sol.
2 on right side
“greater than”, “#” for “lesser than”. If 6x% 5y
and 2y?3z, then 3 4
(1) 2x ? 3z
(2) 4x ? 5z
(3) 2x # z 2 3
(4) 4x % 3z 1 on left side
15
79. Observe the trends in figures given below and 82. Find the number of rectangles in the following
find the missing character. figure
(1) (2) (1) 18 (2) 17

(3) 16 (4) 15
(3) (4)
Answer ( 1 )
Answer ( 1 )
1
Sol.
Sol. 1
2 1
1
1+2 = 3 2
3
1
4 2
1+2 = 3
6 – = 2( ) 3 – = 1( ) 7 – = 3( ) 1
4 [ > ] 4 [ > ] 4 [ > ] 1+2+3+4 = 10
80. Total number of rectangles
Equivalent = 3 + 10 + 3 + 1 + 1 = 18
Signs
83. In the given matrix, first row and the first
column consist of symbols and numbers
respectively, the combination of those would
3 8 4 2 5 7 12 1 ?? 6 be the code for specific alphabets given in
other cells. For example, the code for ‘G’
What will come in place of ‘??’ ?
could be 1$ or 2@. In the same manner, what
from the given alternatives will be the correct
(1) (2)
code for ‘‘PEACE’’?
(3) (4) @ # * $
Answer ( 1 ) 0 A P Q P
S o l . 3 × 8  4 + 2 – 5 = (7 + 12 – 1)  6 1 T P S G
 3=3 2 G R N E
3 E M O T
81. Complete the missing pattern.
4 C E A C
5 J R P V
6 A B L J
7 E Q C Z
? (1) 0$ 4# 0@ 7* 2#
(2) 1# 3@ 6@ 4$ 4#
(1) (2) (3) 5* 7@ 4* 1$ 2@
(4) 0$ 2$ 0@ 6* 2#
(3) (4) Answer ( 2 )
Answer ( 4 ) S o l . PEACE is also coded as ' 1# 3 @ 6 @ 4$4 # '.
16
84. A square sheet is folded into half, the line of 87. If in a coded language.
folding being parallel to a side of the square. 'Busy bees' are coded as 'Cpu cff',
It is again folded into half, the line of folding
being parallel to the shorter side. In this 'Busy crows' are coded as 'cpu hup',
condition the front of the paper always 'Bright Crows' are coded as 'Csj Hup'.
appears as it is given in the figure below (the
Then, 'Busy crows are clever' will be coded as
dotted lines represent the folded portions).
______
(1) Cpu Hup Bsf Dmf (2) Cpu hup bsf dmf
(3) cpu Hup Baf Dmf (4) cpu hup bsf Dmf
Answer ( 2 )
From the alternatives choose the correct S o l . Busy – Cpu
figure which represents the paper in to Bees – cff
original unfolded form.
Crows – hup
Bright – Csj
(1) (2) 'Busy crows are clever'
Cpu hup bsf dmf.
88. What is the code used for 'Blue' derived from
the given coded statements as per a code
(3) (4) language?
I. 'Flower Blue Red White' is coded as 'Sa Ra
Ga Ma'
Answer ( 3 )
II. 'Take Red Pink Flower' is coded as 'Sa Ha
S o l . After opening the folds we get the (3) option. Ma Pa'
III. 'Take Blue Red Buds' is coded as 'Pa Da
A B Ma Ga'
85. C D E F
IV. 'Bring Red Take White' is coded as 'Ma Na
G H Pa Ra'
A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H are each to be assigned (1) Sa (2) Ga
a different number from 1 to 8. What should (3) Pa (4) Ra
be values of B, D, E, F, and G so that no Answer ( 2 )
consecutive numbers are in adjacent (even
S o l . Red – Ma Blue – Ga
diagonally) squares.
Flower – Sa Take – Pa
Given : A = 5, C = 2, H = 4
89. What will be the number of digits used in
(1) (6, 8, 1, 7, 3) (2) (3, 8, 7, 1, 6) numbering the pages of a book having 199
(3) (8, 6, 3, 7, 1) (4) (3, 8, 1, 7, 6) pages?
(1) 398 (2) 489
Answer ( 4 )
(3) 495 (4) 532
86. In a farmhouse there are 50 hens, 45 goats
and 8 camels which are maintained by a few Answer ( 2 )
supervisors. If the total number of feet be 224 S o l . 1-9  9 digits
more than the number of heads in the 10-99  90 × 2 = 180 digits
farmhouse then the total number of 100-199  100 × 3 = 300 digits
supervisors is
300 + 180 + 9 = 489 digits
(1) 5 (2) 8 90. In certain code 678 means 'study very hard',
(3) 10 (4) 15 347 means ' hard work pays' and 246 means
'study and work'. Which of the following is the
Answer ( 4 )
code for 'very'?
S o l . Let number of supervisors = x (1) 4 (2) 6
 312 + 2x = 103 + x + 224 (3) 7 (4) 8
 x = 15 Answer ( 4 )
17
Sol. Hard coded as 7 Sol.  Represent Female
Work coded as 4
 Male
Study coded as 6
F
 Study very hard coded as 678
 Very coded as 8 D A E
91. In a certain code 'TOME' is written as '@$*?'
and 'ARE' is written as '! & ?'. C B
How can 'REMOTE' be written in that code?  C is not the daughter of E.
(1) &?!$@ ? 94. If P+Q means P is husband of Q, P/Q means P

is sister of Q, P*Q means P is the son of Q.
(2) &?*$@? How is D related to A in D*B+C/A?
(3) @?*$@? (1) Son (2) Nephew
(4) *@$*?! (3) Sister (4) Couple
S o l . C is the sister of A, B is husband of C and D is
Sol. R E M O T E son of B
     
& ? * $ @ ?  D is nephew of A.
92. If in a certain code 23 × 26 = 42 and, 11 × 15 = 19 95. Afsana was walking in a desert. Anwar was
then, 32 × 16 = ? passing by riding on a camel. Afsana
requested for a lift.
(1) 40 (2) 41
Anwar said he will give lift only to those who
(3) 44 (4) 48 are related to him.
Answer ( 2 ) At this, Afsana told him that Anwar's mother-
in-law is the mother of her mother-in-law.
S o l . 23 × 26 = 42
How is Anwar related to Afsana?
(23 + 26) – 7 = 42
(1) Father (2) Maternal uncle
11 × 15 = 19
(3) Brother-in-law (4) Father-in-law
(11 + 15) – 7 = 19 Answer ( 4 )
32 × 16 = ? Sol.
Mother
(32 + 16) – 7 = 41
93. In a family of 6 (A, B, C, D, E and F) members,
there is one married couple with equal
number of male and female members. Read Anwar Wife of Anwar
the following relations and find out the one
from the alternatives, which is not true for the
given family. Husband of Afsana Afsana
Relations:
A and E are sons of F.
Father-in-law
D is the mother of a boy and a girl. 96. A person travels from Mumbai to Ahmedabad
B is the son of A. by car in 5 hours. The speed of the car during
first hour of journey was 60 km/hr. For the
(1) A, E, B are males next two hours speed was 80 km/hr. Next hour
(2) C is the granddaughter of F it was 100 km/hr. Finally, during the last hour
of his journey he drove at 40 km/hr. What is
(3) C is the daughter of E the average speed during his journey?
(4) D is the wife of A (1) 56 km/hr (2) 67.4 km/hr
Answer ( 3 ) (3) 70 km/hr (4) 72 km/hr
18
Answer ( 4 ) 99. The following table shows the distribution of
Boys and Girls students of seven different
60  80  2  100  1  40  1 schools.
S o l . Vavg =
5
School Boys Girls
360 (Total 27,300) (Total 24,700)
=  72 km / hr A. 17% 8%
5
B. 12% 15%
Directions for (Questions 97-98) C. 12% 12%
Study the pie chart and information given below D. 13% 13%
and answer the following questions. E. 19% 14%
F. 14% 21%
Book
G. 15% 17%
Reading
What is the ratio between the number of Girls
Drawing 9%
21% and Boys students respectively from school F?
(1) 14 : 21 (2) 19 : 21
Pottery Sports
5% 23% (3) 17 : 21 (4) 19 : 14
Photography
6%
Answer ( 4 )
14  27300
Music Nature Club S o l . Number of boys in school F =
14%
100
22%
21 24700
Number of girls in school F =
100
There are 1150 students of a school opted 19
Ratio =
sports as a hobby. 14
97. How many students have book reading as a 100. Ayush, Hina, Harbhajan and George are
hobby? student friends studying in Delhi and plan to
go on winter holiday some where in India.
(1) 390 (2) 420 They can go to Rajasthan, Goa, Kerala,
(3) 440 (4) 450 Odisha, Madhya Pradesh or any of the North
Eastern States.
Answer ( 4 )
Ayush is willing to go any where except North
S o l . Total number of students Eastern States. Harbhajan prefers not to go to
Goa and Kerala. Hina wants to go either to
1150  100
=  5000 Goa or Odisha. George does not mind as long
23 as it is not Rajasthan.
Students reading books Which destination would be acceptable to all?
9 (1) Goa (2) Odisha

= 5000   450
(3) Kerala (4) Madhya Pradesh
100
98. What is the total number of students in the Answer ( 2 )
school? Ayush Harbhajan Hina George
Sol.
(1) 4990 (2) 5000 Rajasthan
(3) 5050 (4) 5100 Goa
Answer ( 2 ) Kerala
S o l . Total number of students Odisha

MP
1150  100
=  5000 NES
23

19
DATE : 13/05/2018 BOOKLET CODE
13-15
Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005

Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472
Time : 120 Mins.

Answers & Solutions Max. Marks : 100
for
NTSE (Stage-II) - 2018
(For Students of Class X)
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES :
Read the following instructions carefully before you open the question booklet.
1. There are 100 questions in this test. All are compulsory. The question numbers 1 to 40 belong to
Sciences, 41 to 60 pertain to Mathematics and 61 to 100 are on Social Science subjects.
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5. Since the time allotted for this question paper is very limited and all questions carry equal marks,
you should make the best use of it by not spending too much time on any one question.
6. Rough work can be done anywhere in the booklet but not on the answer sheet/loose paper.
8. There will be NO NEGATIVE marking.
1
NTSE (Stage-II) - 2018 (Scholastic Aptitude Test)
1. Under which condition stated below, the six- Answer ( 4 )
carbon glucose molecule is broken down into S o l . Edward Jenner found that the cow pox
three-carbon molecules pyruvate and lactic infection protects the person from
acid? subsequent infection from small pox.
(1) aerobic condition in muscle cells 5. Four important events given below may have
(2) anaerobic condition in yeast cells led to the origin of life on the earth.
(3) aerobic condition in mitochondria I. Formation of amino acids and nucleotides
(4) anaerobic condition in muscle cells II. Availability of water
Answer (4) III. Organization of cells
S o l . During vigorous muscular activity there is IV. Formation of complex molecules
lack of oxygen supply and thus anaerobic
Select the correct sequence of events.
respiration takes place in muscle cells. During
this process lactic acid is formed which gets (1) I, II, III and IV
accumulated in the muscle cells leading to (2) II, I, IV and III
cramps. (3) I, IV, II and III
2. Which among the following is the correct
(4) II, III, I and IV
sequence regarding the flow of impulse in a
neuron? Answer ( 2 )
(1) Dendrite  Axon  Cell body S o l . Origin of life on the earth evolved in the
following sequences :- First, water is
(2) Axon Cell body  Dendrite
available, secondly formation of amino acids
(3) Axon Dendrite  Cell body and nucleotides occurs, thirdly formation of
(4) Cell body Axon  Nerve terminal complex molecules occurs, lastly organization
of cells occurs.
Answer ( 4 )
6. Read the following statements carefully.
S o l . Transmission of impulse through neurons is in
the form of electrical signals and occurs in I. Energy transfer in the biotic world always
one direction only, i.e., Dendrite  Cell body proceeds from the autotrophs.
 Axon  Nerve terminal II. Energy flow is unidirectional.
3. In a hypertensive patient, the systolic pressure III. Energy availability is maximum at the
increased to 150 mm of Hg. Which part of the tertiary level.
brain would be involved in the regulation of
IV. There is loss of energy from one trophic
blood pressure?
level to the other.
(1) Medulla (2) Cerebrum
Select the relevant statements for the forest
(3) Cerebellum (4) Hypothalamus ecosystem
Answer ( 1 ) (1) I, II and IV (2) I, II and III
Sol. All the involuntary actions including blood (3) I, III and IV (4) II, III and IV
pressure, salivation and vomiting are
controlled by the medulla in the hind brain. Answer ( 1 )
4. Edward Jenner's contribution for the S o l . Flow of energy in an ecosystem is always
eradication of small pox is unidirectional i.e., the energy which passes
from the autotrophs to the herbivores does not
(1) his proposition that small pox had possibly
revert to the autotrophs. There is a loss of
spread throughout the world from India
energy from one trophic level to the other.
and China.
(2) his discovery of transformation 7. In a highly pesticide polluted pond, which of
procedure. the following aquatic organisms will have the
maximum amount of pesticide per gram of
(3) his finding that rubbing of the skin crust of body mass?
small pox victims on the arm of a healthy
person, would develop resistance against (1) Lotus
small pox. (2) Fishes
(4) his finding that the cow pox infection
(3) Spirogyra
protects the person from subsequent
infection from small pox. (4) Zooplanktons
2
Answer ( 2 ) 10. Raw banana has bitter taste, while ripe
banana has sweet taste. It happens because
S o l . Pesticides gets accumulated at each trophic
of the conversion of
level. As, fishes occupy the last trophic level
in pond. So, fishes will have the maximum (1) starch to sugar
amount of pesticide per gram of body mass. (2) sucrose to fructose
8. A farmer made an observation in a backwater (3) amino acids to sugar
paddy field of coastal Kerala that the paddy
(4) amino acids to protein
plants wilt during noon onwards everyday but
appear normal next morning. What would be Answer ( 1 )
the possible reason for wilting? S o l . During ripening, there is breakdown of starch
(1) The rate of water absorption is less than to simple sugars (such as glucose, fructose,
the rate of transpiration in the afternoon. sucrose) which increases sweetness of
banana.
(2) The rate of water absorption is more than
11. In the flowering plants sexual reproduction
the rate of transpiration in the afternoon.
involves several events beginning with the
(3) The changes in the rate of water bud and ending in a fruit. These events are
absorption and transpiration are not arranged in four different combinations.
associated with wilting. Select the combination that has the correct
(4) The rate of water absorption is not related sequence of events.
to the rate of transpiration. (1) Embryo, zygote, gametes, fertilization
Answer ( 1 ) (2) Gametes, fertilization, zygote, embryo
S o l . When rate of water absorption is less than the (3) Fertilization, zygote, gametes, embryo
rate of transpiration, plant cells loose water (4) Gametes, zygote, embryo, fertilization
and thus plants wilt in the afternoon.
Answer ( 2 )
9. Observe the experimental sets [A] & [B]. S o l . The male and female gametes fuse to form
[A] [B] zygote. This process is called fertilization.
Test tube Zygote then divides to form embryo.
Water 12. In pea plants, Round (R) and Yellow (Y)
features of seeds are dominant over wrinkled
Cotton Plug (r) and green (y) features. In a cross between
two plants having the same genotypes (RrYy),
Plant
the following genotypic combinations of
offspring are noticed.
Day 1 Day 5 A. RrYY B. Rryy
C. rrYy D. rryy
Observe the test tube A & B. From the list
given below, choose the combination of The phenotypic features of A, B, C and D are
responses of shoot and root that are given below in an order in four combinations.
observed in B. Select the correct combination of characters
that corresponds to the genotypes,
(1) Positive phototropism and positive
geotropism (1) Round & yellow; round & green; wrinkled
& yellow; wrinkled & green.
(2) Negative phototropism and positive
geotropism (2) Round & green; wrinkled & yellow;
wrinkled & green; round & yellow.
(3) Positive phototropism and negative
(3) Wrinkled & green; round & yellow;
geotropism
wrinkled & yellow; round & green.
(4) Only negative phototropism
(4) Wrinkled & yellow; round & green;
Answer ( 1 ) wrinkled & yellow; round & yellow.
S o l . Shoot bends towards light which shows Answer ( 1 )
positive phototropism, while root bends
S o l . In heterozygous condition, dominant trait (i.e.,
towards earth in response to gravity which
round and yellow) will be expressed. So,
shows positive geotropism.
phenotypes will be
3
A – RrYY : Round and Yellow S o l . According to ideal gas equation,
B – Rryy : Round and Green PV = nRT
C – rrYy : Wrinkled and Yellow Volume and temperature are constant (given)
D – rryy : Wrinkled and Green  Pn
13. Eukaryotic organisms have different levels of 100
organization. Select the combination where Number of moles of O2 (n1 )   3.125 moles
32
the levels are arranged in the descending
order.
100
(1) DNA, chromosome, cell, nucleus, tissue Number of moles of He (n2 )   25 moles
4
(2) Tissue, cell, nucleus, chromosome, DNA
As n2 > n1
(3) Nucleus, cell, DNA, chromosome, tissue
So, the pressure of He gas would be greater
(4) Tissue, cell, chromosome, nucleus, DNA than that of O2 gas
Answer ( 2 ) 16. At 298 K and 1 atm pressure, a gas mixture
contains equal masses of He, H2, O2 and NH3.
S o l . Chromosomes, present in nucleus, are made
Which of the following is correct for their
up of DNA and proteins. Nucleus is the
average molecular velocities?
control room of the cell. A group of cells that
are similar in structure and/or work together (1) He > H2 > NH3 > O2
to achieve a particular function forms a
(2) He < H2 < O2 < NH3
tissue.
(3) H2 < He < NH3 < O2
14. The gaseous byproduct of a process in plants
is essential for another vital process that (4) O2 < NH3 < He < H2
releases energy. Given below are four
Answer ( 4 )
combinations of processes and products.
Choose the correct combination Sol. Gases Molecular masses
(1) Photosynthesis and oxygen (u)
(2) Respiration and carbon dioxide Hydrogen (H2) 2
(3) Transpiration and water vapour Helium (He) 4
(4) Germination and carbon dioxide Ammonia (NH3) 17

Oxygen (O2) 32
Answer ( 1 )
S o l . Oxygen is a byproduct of photosynthesis
which occurs in plants. Oxygen is essential for 8 RT
Average molecular velocity =
another vital process in organisms which M
releases energy, i.e., respiration.
According to the above relation, greater the
15. 100 grams of oxygen (O2) gas and 100 grams molecular mass lesser will be the average
of helium (He) gas are in separate containers molecular velocity.
of equal volume at 100°C. Which one of the
 The correct order is : O2 < NH3 < He < H2
following statement is correct?
17. A test tube along with calcium carbonate in it
(1) Both gases would have the same pressure
initially weighed 30.08 g. A heating experiment
(2) The average kinetic energy of O 2 was performed on this test tube till calcium
molecules is greater than that of He carbonate completely decomposed with
molecules evolution of a gas. Loss of weight during this
experiment was 4.40 g. What is the weight of
(3) The pressure of He gas would be greater
the empty test tube in this experiment?
than that of the O2 gas
(1) 20.08 g (2) 21.00 g
(4) The average kinetic energy of He and O2
molecules is same (3) 24.50 g (4) 2.008 g
4
S o l . On thermal decomposition of calcium Answer ( 4 )
carbonate. S o l . a lead nitrate + b aluminium chloride 
 c aluminium nitrate + d lead chloride
CaCO3   CaO  CO2
100 g 56 g 44 g a Pb (NO3)2 + b AlCl3  c Al(NO3)3 + d PbCl2
On balancing the above equation
44 g CO2 is formed from 100 g CaCO3
3Pb(NO3)2 + 2AlCl3  2Al(NO3)3 + 3PbCl2
100 So, a = 3, b = 2, c = 2, d = 3
4.40 g CO2 is formed from  4.4 = 10 g CaCO3
44 20. The correct order of increasing number of
Initial weight of (CaCO3 + test tube) = 30.08 g alpha particles passing undeflected through
the foils of Au, Ag, Cu and Al of 1000 atoms
Calculated weight of CaCO3 = 10 g
thickness each in a simulated alpha particle
Weight of empty test tube = 30.08 – 10 = 20.08 g scattering experiment of Rutherford would be
18. Match List-I (Mixture to be separated) with the (1) Au < Ag < Cu < Al (2) Al < Cu < Ag < Au
List-II (Method used) and select the correct
(3) Au < Cu < Al < Ag (4) Ag < Cu < Al < Au
option using the codes given below.
Answer ( 1 )
S o l . Number of -particles deflected  Z2
List-I List-II
(Mixture to be (Method used) Where Z = Atomic number
separated) Elements Au Ag Cu Al
A. Petroleum products I. Chromatography
Z 79 47 29 13
B. Camphor and rock salt II. Centrifugation
Lesser the value of Z, more will be the
C. Cream from milk III. Sublimation number of undeflected -particles
D. Coloured components IV. Fractional So, correct order is
in a dye distillation
Au < Ag < Cu < Al
21. The correct order of increasing pH values of
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV the aqueous solutions of baking soda, rock
(2) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I salt, washing soda and slaked lime is
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II (1) Baking soda < Rock Salt < Washing Soda
< Slaked lime
(4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(2) Rock Salt < Baking Soda <Washing soda<
Answer ( 4 )
Slaked lime
(3) Slaked lime < Washing soda < Rock salt <
Sol. (Mixture to be (Method used) Baking Soda
separated)
(4) Washing soda < Baking Soda < Rock Salt <
Petroleum products Fractional
Slaked lime
distillation
Camphor and rock salt Sublimation Answer ( 2 )
Cream from milk Centrifugation Sol. – NaCl (rock salt) does not undergo
hydrolysis hence pH remains 7
Coloured components
Chromatography – Baking soda and washing soda undergo
in a dye
hydrolysis as given below.
19. In the balanced chemical equation: NaHCO3 + H2O Na + H2CO3 + OH

(Baking
(a lead nitrate + b aluminium chloride  c soda)
aluminium nitrate + d lead chloride) Which of Na2CO3 + 2H2O 2Na + H2CO3 + 2OH
the following alternatives is correct? (Washing
soda)
(1) a = 1, b = 2, c = 2, d = 1
Both produce free OH ions but Na 2 CO 3
(2) a = 4 , b = 3, c = 3, d = 4
produces more OH ions than NaHCO 3
(3) a = 2, b = 3, c = 2, d = 3 resulting into higher pH of Aq. solution of
(4) a = 3, b = 2, c = 2, d = 3 Na2CO3.
5
Slaked lime (Ca(OH)2) is an Arrhenius base S o l .  Highly reactive metals are extracted by
electrolysis.
and gives free OH ions in solution, making
solution most basic among all four solutions.  Moderately reactive metals are extracted
So correct sequence of pH of solution is by reduction using reducing agents like
carbon etc.
Rock salt < Baking soda < Washing soda <
Slaked lime.  Less reactive metals are extracted by
heating alone
22. How many grams of oxygen gas will be
needed for complete combustion of 2 moles of  Very less reactive metals (lies at the
3rd member of alkyne series? bottom of the series) are found in native
state.
(1) 186 g (2) 256 g
24. Which of the following statements can help a
(3) 352 g (4) 372 g chemistry student to predict chemical
Answer ( 3 ) properties of an element?
I. Position of element in the periodic table
S o l . 2C4H6 + 11O2  8CO2 + 6H2O
II. Atomic number of the element
For complete combustion of 2 moles of
butyne, 11 moles of oxygen is required III. Number of shells in the atom
No. of moles of O2 IV. Number of electrons in the outer most

shell
Mass of required O2 in grams  (1) I, II and III (2) I, II and IV
= Molecular weight in grams 
(3) I, III and IV (4) II, III and IV
W Answer ( 2 )
11 =
32 S o l . Chemical properties of an element depends
upon the valency i.e. the combining capacity
W = 352 g
of an element and that can be found out from
 352 g of O2 is required for complete
– Position of elements in the periodic table
combustion of 2 moles of butyne
– Atomic number of the element
23. Match List I (Position of the Metal in the
Activity Series) with the List II (Related – Number of electrons in the outermost
Reduction Process) and select the correct shell (Valence shell)
option using the codes given below. 25. Consider the elements A, B, C and D with
atomic numbers 6, 7, 14 and 15, respectively.
Which of the following statements are correct
List I List II concerning these elements?
(Position of the Metal in (Related Reduction
the Activity Series) Process) I. D will lose electron more easily than C
A. The bottom of the I. Electrolysis II. B will gain electron more easily than C
series
III. The element with highest electro-
B. The top of the II Reduction by heat
series alone
negativity is D
C. The lower regions of III. Found in native state IV. The element with largest atomic size is C
the series (1) I and II (2) II and III
D. The middle of the IV. Reduction using
series carbon or some (3) II and IV (4) III and IV
other reducing agent Answer ( 3 )
Sol. Elements Atomic Electronic Actual symbol

(1) A-II B-III C-IV D-I
number configuration of element
(2) A-II B-I C-IV D-III A 6 2, 4 C
(3) A-III B-I C-II D-IV B 7 2, 5 N
C 14 2, 8, 4 Si
(4) A-III B-I C-IV D-II
D 15 2, 8, 5 P
Answer ( 3 )
6
I. As D and C both are non-metals so they 27. An organic liquid ‘A’ with acidified potassium
will not lose electrons and hence dichromate gave product ‘B’. The compound
statement I is incorrect ‘B’ on heating with methanol in presence of
concentrated sulphuric acid formed
II. 'B' is more electronegative than 'C'. It will
compound ‘C’ which on subsequent treatment
gain electron more easily. So statement II
with sodium hydroxide formed two products
is correct
‘D’ and ‘E’. The product ‘D’ is known to affect
III. As we move down the group, electro- the optic nerve causing blindness. Intake of
negativity decreases so D is not having ‘D’ in very small quantities can cause death.
the highest electronegativity because 'D' What are compounds ‘A’, ‘B’, ‘C’, ‘D’ and ‘E’?
lies below the 'B' in the same group. Hence (1) A = Ethanol, B = Ethanoic acid,
statement III is not correct C = Methanol, D = Sodium acetate,
IV. According to the trends of periodic E = Methyl ethanoate
properties, as we move along the period (2) A = Ethanol, B = Ethanoic acid,
atomic size decrease whereas on moving C = Methyl ethanoate, D = Methanol,
down the group atomic size increases. So E = Sodium acetate
element 'C' has the largest atomic size. (3) A = Sodium acetate, B = Ethanoic acid, C
Hence statement IV is correct. = Methyl ethanoate, D = Methanol,
E = Ethanol
26. A hydrocarbon 'A' (C3H8) on treatment with
chlorine in presence of sunlight yielded (4) A = Ethanol, B = Ethanoic acid,
compound 'B' as major product. Reaction of 'B' C = Methyl ethanoate, D = Sodium
with aqueous KOH gave 'C' which on acetate, E = Methanol
treatment with concentrated H2SO4 yielded Answer ( 2 )
'D'. Hydrogenation of 'D' gave back 'A'. The S o l . Organic liquid (‘A’) is ethanol (CH3CH2OH)
sequence of reactions involved in above Acidified
conversion is : K2Cr2O7
CH3CH2OH CH3COOH
(1) Substitution, Substitution, Addition Ethanol Ethanoic
(A) acid
Conc. (B)
(2) Substitution, Substitution, Dehydration, H2SO4
Addition CH3COOH + CH3OH CH3COOCH3 + H2O
Ethanoic Methanol Methyl ethanoate
(3) Substitution, Dehydration, Addition, acid (B) (C)
Addition
NaOH
(4) Addition, Substitution, Dehydration,
Substitution CH3COONa + CH3OH
Answer ( 2 ) Sodium acetate Methanol
(E) (D)
S o l . C3H8(A) is propane. 28. Two nichrome wires A and B, each of length
5 cm and of radius 1 cm and 3 cm respectively
Sunlight
(i) CH3CH2 CH3 + Cl2 CH3CH2 CH2Cl + HCl are connected to each other in series. If a
Propane Chloropropane
(A) (B) current of 5 A flows through the combination
of wires, the ratio of potential difference
This is a substitution reaction. across wire A to that across wire B will be
(ii) CH3CH2 CH2Cl + aq. KOH CH3CH2 CH2OH + KCl (1) 1 : 3 (2) 3 : 1
Chloropropane Propanol Potassium
(B) (C) chloride (3) 9 : 1 (4) 1 : 9
Answer ( 3 )
This is also a substitution reaction.
S o l . For resistance R1,
Conc. H2SO4
(iii) CH3CH2CH2OH CH3CH = CH2 + H2O V1 = R1 × i
Propanol Propene
(C) (D) 5  102
V1 =  i
This is a dehydration reaction. (1 102 )2
5  102
V2 =  i
Ni/Pt/Pd
(iv) CH3CH = CH2 + H2 CH3CH2CH3
Propene Propane (3  102 )2
(D) (A)
V1 9
This is an addition reaction.  
V2 1
7
29. Two convex lenses A and B, each of focal Answer ( 4 )
length 30 cm are separated by 30 cm, as
S o l . Apply conservation of momentum for each 'L'
shown in the figure. An object O is placed at a
distance
distance of 40 cm to the left of lens A.
A B For distance L to 2L
3M
Mu  v1
2
O
40 cm 30 cm 2
v1  u
What is the distance of the final image formed 3
by this lens system? For distance 2L to 3L
(1) 120 cm to right of lens A
M 2
(2) 90 cm to right of lens A 3  u  2Mv2
2 3
(3) 22.5 cm to right of lens B
(4) 45 cm to right of lens B u
v2 
Answer ( 3 ) 2
S o l . For lens A : For distance 3L to 4L
1 1 1
  u 5M
v1 u1 f1 2M   v3
2 2
1 1 1
 
v1 30 40 2u
v3 
1 1 5

v1 120
9L
v1 = 120 cm For distance 4 L to
2
For lens B :
Now image formed by lens A is behave as 5M 2u
  3Mv 4
virtual object for lens B and its distance from 2 5
lens B is 90 cm.
1 1 1 u
  v4 
v2 u2 f2 3
1 1 1 Object covers first L distance with speed u

 
v2 30 90 L u
and last with .
1 4 2 3

v2 90 Time = t1 + t2 + t3 + t4 + t5
v2 = 22.5 cm to right of lens B.
L
30. A cart of mass M moves at a speed u on a
L L L L
frictionless surface. At regular intervals of =    2
u 2 u 2u u
M u
length L, blocks of mass m  drops 3 2 5 3
2
vertically into the cart. How much time is
L 3 5 3
9 =  1  2   
taken to cover a distance of L ? u 2 2 2
2
9L 5L L 5
(1) (2) = 6  
2u 2u u 2
19L 17L 17L

(3) (4) =
2u 2u 2u
8
31. A ball is thrown vertically up from the point A 32. A ray of light of pure single colour is incident
(see figure). A person, standing at a height H on the face of a prism having angle of the
on the roof atop a building, tries to catch it. prism 30° at an angle of incidence 45°. The
He misses the catch, the ball overshoots and refracted ray does not change its direction as
simultaneously the person starts a stop- it crosses the other face and emerges out of
watch. The ball reaches its highest point and the prism. The refractive index of the material
he manages to catch it upon its return. By this of the prism is
time, a time interval T has elapsed as
(1) 2 / 3 (2) 2
recorded by the stop watch. If g is the
acceleration due to gravity at this place, the (3) 2 (4) 3
speed with which the ball was thrown from Answer ( 3 )
point A will be
S o l . By using Snell's law
sini n2 30°

sinr n1 60°
90°
sin 45 n2 45° 30°

H 
sin30 1
Prism
A
1
2 n
(1) gH  gT 1 2
2
(2)  
g2 T 2  4gH / 2
n2 
2

2
2 2
(3)  g T  8gH / 2
2 2
 n2  2
33. A metallic cubical solid block of side L is
(4)  g2 T 2  2gH  slowly lowered continuously in a large vessel,
filled with water. Let d be the depth of the
Answer ( 3 ) lower surface of the block, measured from
the surface of the water, at some instant. The
S o l . As we know
graph which represents correctly the
v = u + at variation of the buoyant force F with depth d
is
gT
0  v1 
2
gT
v1 
2 B v1
d
For AB H
Water
v2 = u2 + 2gs A
2
 gT 
 2   u  2gH
2
F F
  (1) (N) (2) (N)
2
 gT 
u 
2
  2gH
 2  d (cm) d (cm)
(gT)2  8gH
u
4 F F
(3) (N) (4) (N)
u
 g2 T 2  8gH 
2 d (cm) d (cm)
9
Answer ( 3 )
vB2  vBH
2 2
 vBV
S o l . Buoyancy force, FB  Vw g
vB2  u2  2gH
where, volume V = AL
FB  (AL)w g vB  u2  2gH
FB  L vA = vB = vC
Where, Aw g  cons tan t 35. Four blocks of different masses (m1 = 1 kg, m2
= 2 kg, m3 = 1 kg and m4 = 5 kg) are connected
But when the block immersed completely with light, inextensible strings, as shown in
then buoyancy force will be constant. figure. This system is pulled along a
frictionless surface by a horizontal force of 36
N. The force pulling the block of mass m1 will
be
F
(N) m2 m4
m1 m3
36 N
d (cm)
34. Three balls A, B and C of same size but of (1) 2 N (2) 4 N
different masses are thrown with the same (3) 12 N (4) 36 N
speed from the roof of a building as shown in
figure. Let v A, v B and v C be the respective Answer ( 2 )
speeds with which the balls A, B and C hit the S o l . m = 9 kg
ground. Neglecting air resistance, which one
of the following relations is correct? F 36
a  = 4 m/s2
m 9
A
Force on block m1 = 1 × 4 = 4 N
B 36. The velocity-time graph of motion of two cars
A and B is shown in the figure
C
Car B
Car A
Velocity
(1) vA > vC > vB (2) vC > vA > vB (v)
(3) vA > vB > vC (4) vA = vB = vC

Answer ( 4 ) t
time (t) 0
S o l . v2A  u2  2(–g)(–H)
Choose the correct statement.
v2A  u2  2gH (1) Accelerations of two cars are equal to
each other at time t = t0
vA  u2  2gH (2) Accelerations of two cars are equal to
each other at an instant greater than t0
v2C  u2  2gH
(3) Accelerations of two cars are equal to
each other at an instant earlier than t0
vC  u2  2gH
(4) At no instant in the interval 0  t  t0, the
vBH = u two accelerations are equal
2 Answer ( 3 )
vBV  2gH
10
39. Two long current-carrying parallel wires are
Car B placed as shown.
Car A
i
2
Velocity (v)
3i
2
Sol.
Which of the following figures will represent
t t0 the magnitude and direction of the forces
time (t) exerted on the wires?
Slope of two graphs at an instant t is same F F

before time t0. i
(1) 2
37. Three electric bulbs of rating 40 W-200 V;
50 W-200 V and 100 W-200 V are connected in 3i
series to a 600 V supply. What is likely to 2
happen as the supply is switched on?
(1) Only 50 W bulb will fuse
(2) Both 40 W and 50 W bulbs will fuse 3F F
i
(3) All the three bulbs will emit light with (2) 2
their rated powers
3i
(4) 100 W bulb will emit light of maximum 2
intensity
Answer ( 2 )
S o l . Let I 1 , I 2 and I 3 are the maximum current F F
rating of bulbs. i
(3) 2
I1 = 0.2 A
I2 = 0.25 A 3i
2
I3 = 0.5 A
R1 = 1000 
R2 = 800  F 3F
i
R3 = 400  (4) 2
38. A sound wave is sent simultaneously through
3i
a long hollow pipe AB and a solid pipe CD of
2
same length and having same cross-sectional
area. A person standing at point P as shown
in the figure will hear the sound Answer ( 1 )
A B
Sol. 1 2
P
i 3i
2 2
C D
(1) at the same time from pipes, AB and CD
F12 F21
(2) first from pipe CD and then from pipe AB d
(3) first from pipe AB and then from pipe CD
(4) from pipe AB only and not from pipe CD Current in opposite direction, wire will repel
each other and experiences force of same
Answer ( 2 ) magnitude.
S o l . Velocity of sound in solid > Velocity of sound
 |F12| = |F21|
in air
11
40. An electrical circuit, shown below, consists of
1
a battery, an ammeter, three resistors and two 41. Given that  0.142857, which is a repeating
keys. 7
decimal having six different digits. If x is the
A sum of such first three positive integers n
1
such that  0.abcdef, where a, b, c, d, e and
3 4 12  n
12 V f are different digits, then the value of
x is
K1 K2 (1) 20 (2) 21
(3) 41 (4) 42
Consider two cases :
Answer ( 3 )
(i) The key K 1 is closed and the key K 2 is
open. 1
Sol.  0.142857
(ii) The key K 2 is closed and the key K 1 is 7
open.
1
The ratio of respective currents in these two  0.076923
13
cases will be :
(1) 3 : 4 (2) 4 : 3 1
 0.047619
(3) 4 : 5 (4) 5 : 4 21
Answer ( 4 )  x = 7 + 13 + 21
S o l . (i) When K1 is closed and K2 is open,  x = 41
A 42. Which of the following digits is ruled out in

the units place of 12n + 1 for every positive
integer n?
3 12  (1) 1 (2) 3
12 V (3) 5 (4) 7
K1 Answer ( 1 )
S o l . 12n + 1
12  3 36 Unit's digit of 12n + 1 can be 3, 5, 7, 9
 Req = 
12  3 15  1 cannot be the unit digit of 12n + 1
43. The rational roots of the cubic equation
V 12  15
 I1   5A x3 + 14kx2 + 56kx – 64k3 = 0 are in the ratio
Req 36 1 : 2 : 4. The possible values of k are
(ii) When K2 is closed and K1 is open, (1) 0 only (2) 1 only
A (3) 2, 0 (4) –2, –1
Answer ( * )
S o l . But ratio of roots is not valid when k = 0
4 12 
12 V  No correct option as technically it is wrong.
However, mathematically option (1) satisfies.
K2
44. The odd natural numbers have been divided in
groups as
12  4
 Req  3 (1, 3); (5, 7, 9, 11); (13, 15, 17, 19, 21, 23); ...
12  4
Then the sum of numbers in the 10th group is
V 12 (1) 4000 (2) 4003
 I2   4A
Req 3
(3) 4007 (4) 4008
 I1 : I2 = 5 : 4 Answer ( 1 )
12
S o l . (1, 3), (5, 7, 9, 11), (13, 15, 17, 19, 21, 23) .... 46. The values of k, so that the equations
2x2 + kx – 5 = 0 and x2 – 3x – 4 = 0 have one
Number of terms in Group 1 = 2
root in common, are
Number of terms in Group 2 = 4
27 27
Number of terms in Group 10 = 20 (1) 3, (2) 9,
2 4
Total number of terms before Group 10
= 2 + 4 + 6 + ...... + 18 27 4
(3) –3, (4) –3,
4 27
9
= (2  18)
2 Answer ( 3 )
= 90 S o l . x2 – 3x – 4 = 0 ... (i)
First term of 10th Group i.e., 91st odd number  4 and –1 are the roots of equation (i)
= 1 + (90)2 2x2 + kx – 5 = 0
= 181 When x = 4,
 181 is the first term of Group 10 2(4)2 + 4k – 5 = 0
 Sum of terms in group 10
27
 k
20 4
= (2  181  19  2)
2 When x = –1,
= 4000 2(–1)2 – k – 5 = 0
45. If the polynomial – x4+ 6x3 16x2
– 25x + 10 is  k=–3
divided by another polynomial x2 – 2x + k, the
remainder comes out to be x + a, then the 47. The value of cos x° – sin x° (0  x < 45) is
value of a is
(1) 0
(1) –1 (2) –5
(2) Positive
(3) 1 (4) 5
(3) Negative
Answer ( 2 )
(4) Sometimes negative and sometimes
Sol. positive
2
x – 4x + (8 – k) Answer ( 2 )
2
x – 2x + k x4 – 6x3 + 16x2 – 25x + 10
4 3 2 1
x – 2x + kx S o l . 1  cos x  , where 0  x  45
– + – 2
3 2
– 4x + (16 – k)x – 25x + 10
3 2
– 4x + 8x – 4kx 1
0  sinx  , where 0  x  45
+ – + 2
2
(8 – k)x + (–25 + 4k)x + 10
 cos x° – sin x° is always positive
2 2
(8 – k)x – (16 – 2k)x + 8k – k
48. A vertical pole of height 10 metres stands at
– + – +
2
one corner of a rectangular field. The angle of
(–25 + 4k + 16 – 2k)x + 10 – 8k + k elevation of its top from the farthest corner is
30°, while that from another corner is 60°. The
Remainder = (–9 + 2k)x + 10 – 8k + k2 area (in m2) of rectangular field is
– 9 + 2k = 1
200 2 400
 k=5 (1) (2)
3 3
a = 10 – 8k + k2
= 10 – 40 + 25 200 2 400 2
(3) (4)
=–5 3 3
13
Answer ( 1 ) 50. The surface of water in a swimming pool, when
S o l . In OAC, it is full of water, is rectangular with length and
breadth 36 m and 10.5 m respectively. The
10 O depth of water increases uniformly from 1 m at
tan30 
x one end to 1.75 m at the other end. The water
10 m in the pool is emptied by a cylindrical pipe
 x  10 3 60°
D y 0° C of radius 7 cm at the rate of 5 km/h. The time
In OCD, 3 (in hours) to empty water in the pool is
z 22
10 x (take   )
tan60  7
y A B
10 1 1
y (1) 6 (2) 6
3 4 2
In ADC, 3 4
y2 + z2 = x2 (3) 6 (4) 6
4 5
z2 = x2 – y2 Answer ( 3 )
800 Sol.
z2  A B
3
1m 1.75 m
20 2
z C
3
C
10 20 2 200 2
Required area  yz    Volume of water in tank =
3 3 3
49. A circle is inscribed in a square and the 3 1

36 × 10.5 × 1 + 36 × 10.5 × 
square is circumscribed by another circle. 4 2
What is the ratio of the areas of the inner
circle to the outer circle? 10.5  99 3
= m
2
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 2
Volume of water flows through pipe in one
(3)2:4 (4) 1 : 3 2
 7 
hour =     5000 m3
Answer ( 1 )  100 
Sol. Let time to empty water in pool is t hr
D S C
2
 7  10.5  99
    5000  t 
P R
 100  2
3
t= 6 hr
A Q B 4
51. There is a right circular cone of height h and
a vertical angle 60°. A sphere when placed
Radius of inner circle = [where a is the inside the cone, it touches the curved surface
2
length of side of square] and the base of the cone. The volume of
sphere is
a
Radius of outer circle = 4 3 4 3
2 (1) h (2) h
3 9
 Ratio of area of inner circle to outer circle
4 4
2
 a  a 
2 (3) h3 (4) h 3
=    :   27 81
 2 
=1:2
2
14
S o l . In ADC A S o l . Condition (1)
30
R °
tan 30  (AD  h) E
h r
h O R
R h2
3
In ADC B C
2
D R
 h 
= h 
2
AC2
 3 
h1 15 cm
4h2

3
2h
AC 
3
h Let the height of cylinder having radius 3 cm
CE = R  and 1.5 cm are h1 and h2 respectively
3
 Volume of water in condition (1)
 AE = AC – CE
 × (32)h1 + (1.5)2(15 – h1)
h

3  27 h1  15  9  3
Now in AOE
= 
4  cm
 
r Condition (2)
tan 30 
AE
1 h
r = AE  
3 3
3
4 3 4  h
 Volume of sphere = r =   
3 3  3
4
h3 =
81
52. A sealed bottle containing some water is 24 cm
made up of two cylinders A and B of radius 1.5
cm and 3 cm respectively, as shown in the
figure. When the bottle is placed right up on a
table, the height of water in it is 15 cm, but
when placed upside down, the height of water
is 24 cm. The height of the bottle is Volume of water in condition (2)
= (1.5)2h2 + (24 – h2)9
36 24  27h2 
=   cm3
 4 
Volume of water in both condition must be
same
27 h1  15  9 36    24  27 h2
 
4 4
27(h1 + h2) = 36 ×  × 24 – 15 × 9
9 81
h1  h2  
(1) 25 cm (2) 26 cm 27 
(3) 27 cm (4) 28 cm  h1 + h2 = 27 cm
15
53. Let l be the length of each equal side of an Answer ( 4 )
isosceles triangle. If the length of each equal
Sol. A
side is doubled, keeping its height unchanged,
then the difference of the squares of bases of
the new triangle and the given triangle is x
(1) 0 (2) 4l 2 x
(3) 9l 2 (4) 12l 2
3 F 3 3
Answer ( 4 ) M
S o l . In ABC, 3 3 G
1
BC  2 l 2  h 2 C
B 3 D E
Given triangle 3 3
A FG = FM + MG
=3+1
=4
GC = 2 cm [ ∵ FDC  GEC]
B C
D
 DC  3 3 cm
In PQR,
In ABC
QR  2 4l 2  h 2
x  3 3   
2 2
  x  3  3  3 3
2
New triangle
P
 x 63 3
AB = x + 3
2 2
= 63 3 3
Q R
= 93 3
Now
55. In ABC, AB = AC, P and Q are points on
QR2 – BC2 = 4(4l 2 – h 2) –4(l 2 – h 2) AC and AB respectively such that BC = BP = PQ
= 16l 2 – 4l 2 = AQ. Then AQP is equal to (use  = 180°)
= 12l 2 2 3
(1) (2)
54. In the adjoining figure, ABC is a triangle in 7 7
which B = 90° and its incircle C1 has radius 3.
A circle C2 of radius 1 touches sides AC, BC 4 5
and the circle C1. Then length AB is equal to (3) (4)
7 7
A Answer ( 4 )
A
Sol.
C1 z
C2 Q 180°– y z P
3 y 180°– 2y
1 x
C
B
(1) 3  6 3 (2) 10  3 2 y
B
180°– 2x x C
(3) 10  2 3 (4) 9  3 3
16
In ABC PQ2 = BQ × QC – BP × PC
AB = AC = 4 × 3 – 4k × 3k
y + 180º – 2x = x = 12(1 – k2)
 180º = 3x – y ...(i)  37 
= 12  1 
In AQP  49 
2z = y ...(ii) 12  12
=
49
∵ APC is a straight line
 z + x + 180º – 2y = 180º 12
PQ = cm
 2x = 3y ...(iii) (from (ii)) 7
57. How many points (x, y) with integral co-
From (i) and (iii)
ordinates are there whose distance from
360º (1, 2) is two units?
y
7 (1) One (2) Two
(3) Three (4) Four
360º
AQP = 180º  Answer ( 4 )
7
S o l . Let the points A(1, 2), B(x, y) are at the
900º 5 
=  distance 2 units.
7 7
56. A line from one vertex A of an equilateral   x – 12   y – 2 2 2
ABC meets the opposite side BC in P and the
circumcircle of ABC in Q. If BQ = 4 cm and
CQ = 3 cm, then PQ is equal to   x – 12   y – 2 2  4
x and y can take only integral values.
4
(1) 7 cm (2) cm  (x – 1)2 = 0 and (y – 2)2 = 4 gives (1, 4), (1, 0)
3
Further, (y – 2) 2 = 0 and (x – 1) 2 = 4 gives
12 (3, 2), (–1, 2)
(3) cm (4) 2 cm
7 Hence four such points are possible.
Answer ( 3 ) 58. If the vertices of an equilateral triangle have
integral co-ordinates, then
A
(1) Such a triangle is not possible
Sol.
(2) The area of the triangle is irrational
(3) The area of the triangle is an integer
(4) The area of the triangle is rational but not
an integer
Answer ( 1 )
P
B C S o l . Option (1) is correct.
60° 60°
4 3
59. A box contains four cards numbered as 1, 2, 3
Q and 4 and another box contains four cards
numbered as 1, 4, 9 and 16. One card is
PQ is a bisector of BQC drawn at random from each box. What is the
probability of getting the product of the two
42  32  BC2 numbers so obtained, more than 16?
cos120 
2 43
5 1
BC2 = 37 (1) (2)
8 2
BC  37 ...(i)
3 1
(3) (4)
We know that 8 4
17
Answer ( 3 ) 61. The Swaraj flag designed by Mahatma Gandhi
had the spinning wheel in it. What did it
S o l . Number of possible outcomes = 16
symbolize?
Number of favourable outcomes = (1) Ideal of self-help.
{(2, 9), (2, 16), (3, 9), (3, 16), (4, 9), (4, 16)} (2) Symbol of defiance to the British rule.
6 3 (3) Greatness of India in pre-colonial time.
P E   
16 8 (4) Ahimsa (non-violence) in contemporary
world.
60. The mean of a group of eleven consecutive
natural numbers is m. What will be the Answer ( 1 )
percentage change in the mean when next six 62. Which of the following statements regarding
consecutive natural numbers are included in the Silk Routes are correct?
the group?
I. They also meant cultural links.
(1) m%
II. They spread over land and by sea.
m III. They connected Asia with Europe and
(2) % Africa.
3
IV. Besides textiles, gold and silver got
m exported from Asia to Europe through
(3) %
300 these routes.
300
(4) % (3) II, III and IV (4) I, II, III and IV
m
Answer ( 1 )
Answer ( 4 )
63. Which of the following statements regarding
S o l . Let the 11 consecutive natural numbers be the impact of Depression of 1929 are correct?
n, n + 1, n + 2,..., n + 10. I. India’s exports increased but imports
decreased.
n  n  1  n  2  ...  n  10
 Mean = II. India’s export of gold increased.
11
III. Urban India suffered more than the rural
10  11 India.
11n 
2  n  5  m(Given) IV. Industrial investment grew in India
=
11 (1) I, II and III (2) I, III and IV
Further, mean of 17 consecutive natural (3) II, III and IV (4) II and IV
n  n  1  ...  n  16 Answer ( 4 )
numbers =
17 64. Which of the following statements about the
French in Vietnam are correct?
16(17)
17n  I. The Vietnamese teachers generally
= 2 twisted the school curriculum given by
17 the French.
n8 II. The students protested the undue

dominance by the colons.
n8–n–5 III. The Annanese Student was a French
% difference =  100%
m journal for enlisting the students support.
IV. The French had to counter the Chinese
3 influence.
=  100
m
300 (3) I, III and IV (4) II, III and IV
 %
m Answer ( 2 )
18
65. Read the statements about the impact of Direction (Questions 69–74)
forest rules on tribal communities in the 19th
century. Which of the following statements are Read the statements and select the correct
incorrect? answer from the options given below.
I. Jhum cultivators could carry out their 1. Statement I is true, Statement II is false.
activities in village forests.
2. Statement I is false, Statement II is true.
II. Jhum cultivators took to plough cultivation
with ease. 3. Both Statements are true, and Statement II
III. Tribal people could collect wood and provides explanation to Statement I.
graze cattle in the forests. 4. Both Statements are true, but Statement II does
IV. Tribal people had access to protected not provide explanation of Statement I.
forests for collecting wood for fuel and
house building. 69. Statement I : In the 19th century, London
was a colossal city.
(3) II and III (4) III and IV Statement II : London had grown as an
industrial city.
Answer ( 1 )
66. Which of the following statements about the Answer ( 3 )
Non-Cooperation Movement are correct?
70. Statement I : Indians not taking off their
I. The Justice Party participated in the turban before colonial officials was
elections in Madras. considered offending.
II. The nationalist lawyers did not join back
the courts. Statement II : Turban was a sign of
respectability in India.
III. The taluqdars were targeted.
IV. The import of foreign cloth declined and Answer ( 4 )
the export of Indian textiles increased 71. Statement I : Louis Blanc built a cooperative
manifold. community.
(1) I and III (2) I and IV
Statement II : He believed the community
(3) I, II and III (4) II, III and IV
could produce goods together and divide the
Answer ( 1 ) profits among the members.
67. Which of the following regarding the
Constitution of 1791 and the status of women Answer ( 2 )
in France are correct? 72. Statement I : Hand printing developed in
I. It made them active citizens. China.
II. Provisions were made for schools for both Statement II : The Chinese state printed
boys and girls. textbooks in vast numbers.
III. Divorce rules were made stringent.
Answer ( 4 )
IV. Provisions were made for training women
for jobs. 73. Statement I : Rainfall is low in the western
(1) I, II and III (2) II and IV parts of Deccan Plateau and East of
(3) III and IV (4) II, III and IV Sahyadris.
Answer ( 2 ) Statement II : Western Ghats causes
68. Arrange the following historical developments convectional rainfall.
in a chronological sequence Answer ( 1 )
I. Rowlatt Act
74. Statement I : A large part of the Deccan
II. Kheda Satyagraha
plateau is occupied by black soil.
III. Champaran Movement
Statement II : Black soil in this part was
IV. Ahmedabad Mill Strike
formed by denudation of basaltic rocks
(1) I, II, III, IV (2) II, I, III, IV overtime.
(3) III, I, IV, II (4) III, II, IV, I
Answer ( 3 )
Answer ( 4 )
19
75. If the local time at Varanasi, located at 83°E (1) Montane Forest – Tropical Deciduous
longitude is 23:00 hour then what will be the Forests – Tropical Evergreen Forests
local time at Kibithu located at 97°E longitude (2) Tropical Evergreen Forests – Tropical
(Arunachal Pradesh) and Jodhpur, located at Thorn Forests – Tropical Deciduous
73°E longitude? Forests
(1) 00:00 hour, 22:00 hour (3) Tropical Deciduous Forests – Tropical
(2) 22:20 hour, 23:56 hour Evergreen Forests – Mangrove Forests
(3) 23:56 hour, 22:20 hour (4) Tropical Evergreen Forests – Tropical
Deciduous Forests – Mangrove Forests
(4) 22:56 hour, 23:20 hour
Answer ( 4 )
Answer ( 3 )
80. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true
76. Which one of the following statements are
with respect to monsoons in India?
true about latitudes and longitudes?
A. The Southwestern Monsoon takes longer
I. All latitudes are angular distances duration as compared to retreating
measured towards the Pole from the Monsoon in covering India.
Equator.
B. The Southwestern Monsoon has a shorter
II. All longitudes do not join at poles duration as compared to retreating
III. All Parallels and Meridians are imaginary Monsoon in covering India.
lines C. Both the Monsoons take almost the same
IV. Latitudes are used to determine the time duration in covering India.
of a place D. The Southwestern Monsoon is propelled
(1) I and II (2) I and III by the depressions while retreating
(3) I, II and III (4) II, III and IV Monsoon results from the movement of Air
Masses.
Answer ( 2 )
(1) A and D (2) B only
77. If the current climatic condition of Srinagar
(3) C only (4) B and D
(J&K) with average annual temperature of
13.5°C and annual average precipitation Answer ( 2 )
710 mm get modified and become similar to 81. Which one of the following regions marked on
that of Ranchi (Jharkhand) with annual the sketch is an ideal representation with the
average temperature 23.7°C and precipitation following characteristics?
1430 mm., which one of the following types of I. The approximate date for arrival of the
vegetation will become predominant in Southwestern Monsoon is June 15th.
Srinagar?
II. Well developed in Thermal and Nuclear
(1) Tropical Semi Evergreen energy production
(2) Tropical Moist Deciduous III. Rich in the production of oil and natural
(3) Tropical Dry Deciduous gas
(4) Tropical Dry Evergreen IV. Well developed Textile Industry
Answer ( 2 )
78. On a school field trip, a student spotted tigers,
turtles, gharials and snakes in their natural
habitats. Name the ecological region (delta)
where that student had gone.
(1) Cauvery
(2) Mahanadi
(3) Godavari
(4) Ganga - Brahmaputra
Answer ( 4 )
79. A person travelling by road (shortest distance)
(1) A (2) B
from Mangaluru to Machilipatnam will be able
to observe natural vegetation types in which (3) C (4) D
of the following sequences? Answer ( 3 )
20
82. With increasing urbanization, the main 85. Consider the following statements about the
activity which leads to loss of bio-diversity is United Nations Security Council (UNSC):
I. rural-urban migration. I. UNSC consists of 15 members.
II. rapid increase in built-up area. II. US, Russia and Germany are among the
III. increased vehicular pollution. permanent members.
IV. development of big industrial complexes. III. China is the only Asian nation among the
(1) I and III (2) I and IV permanent members.
(3) II and IV (4) III and IV IV. All members of the UNSC have veto
power.
Answer ( 3 )
83. Which one of the following statements is NOT
correct about the shaded part on the given (1) I and II
outline of India?
(2) I and III
(3) I and IV
(4) III and IV
Answer ( 2 )
86. Which of these statements about the Election
Commission of India are true?
I. It conducts and controls the election
process in the country.
II. It gets the voters list updated before the
elections.
III. It also conducts the Panchayat elections
in the country.
IV. It approves the election manifestoes of
political parties.
(1) It has high potential for hydel-power
(1) I and II (2) II and III
generation.
(2) It has the lowest degree of urbanization. (3) II and IV (4) III and IV
(3) Ragi is an important millet grown here. Answer ( 1 )

(4) It is famous for religious tourism. 87. Consider the following statements about the
Indian Parliament
Answer ( 3 )
84. Chandimal, Jaysurya and Umesh left their I. It is the ultimate authority to make laws in
respective villages in Sri Lanka for Chennai in India.
India. Who among the following could be a II. It consists of the President, the Lok Sabha
refugee? and the Rajya Sabha.
I. Chandimal, who is an IT professional, III. It consists of only the Lok Sabha and the
could not find a job in Sri Lanka. Rajya Sabha.
II. Jaysurya, who left his village due to ethnic IV. Lok Sabha members are chosen by the
conflicts. people through elections.
III. Umesh, whose land and house were
destroyed due to Tsunami.
(1) Only Jaysurya (1) I only
(2) Only Chandimal (2) I and III

(3) Jaysurya and Umesh (3) II and III
(4) Chandimal and Jaysurya (4) I, II and IV
21
88. Which of the following is the inspiring 92. Read the following statements and select one
philosophy of the Constitution of India? of the four options given below.
I. Secularism, Equality, Communism, Statement I : Enjoyment of pollution-free
Democratic Republic water is a fulfilment of right to life.
II. Democratic Republic, Sovereignty, Statement II : Release from forced labour is a
Fraternity fulfilment of right to life.
III. Secularism, Equality, Justice (1) Only I is correct
IV. Equality, Fraternity, Communalism, (2) Only II is correct
Secularism (3) Both I and II are correct
(1) I and II (2) I and III (4) Both I and II are incorrect
(3) II and III (4) II and IV Answer ( 1 )
Answer ( 3 ) 93. The daily wage of a person in urban areas is
` 300. The poverty line for a person is fixed at
89. Which of the following features of the Indian
` 1000 per month for the urban areas. The
Judiciary are true?
following table shows the details of
I. Integrated judicial system. employment of four families living in Mumbai
II. The Supreme Court is the highest court of city.
appeal.
Family Total Days of Members of
III. Only the Supreme Court can interpret the Employment got in a the Family
Constitution. Month by the family
IV. Public Interest Litigation (PIL) can be filed Hari 12 3
only in the Supreme Court and the High Tenzin 15 4
Courts. Bala 15 5
(1) I, II and III (2) I, III and IV Phulia 20 5
(3) I, II and IV (4) II, III and IV Identify the family living below poverty line.
Answer ( 3 ) (1) Hari (2) Tenzin
90. Which of the following statements is NOT true (3) Bala (4) Phulia
about Indian federalism? Answer ( 3 )
(1) The Union government is vested with 94. In a particular year, the price of wheat in a
more financial powers than the state market is ` 15 per kg and a farmer produces
governments. 100 kgs of wheat. In the next year the price of
(2) Power to legislate on residuary subjects is wheat has fallen to ` 10 per kg and the farmer
vested in the Union government. produces 120 kgs. If the government wishes to
(3) The name and boundaries of a State can stabilize the income of the farmer, then what
be changed by the Union government will be the minimum support price?
without the consent of the concerned (1) ` 12 per kg (2) ` 12.5 per kg
State. (3) ` 13 per kg (4) ` 13.5 per kg
(4) The Union legislature can amend any Answer ( 2 )
provision of the Constitution without the 95. A country has four groups of people. The table
consent of the State governments. below describes some social indicators of
Answer ( 4 ) these groups. Identify the group that is the
91. Democracy promotes equality through the most vulnerable.
following: Groups Literacy Life Unemploy-
I. Universal adult franchise rate Expectancy ment rate
II. Equality before law and equal protection (%) (years) (%)
of law A 74 82 5
III. Reservation for Scheduled Castes, B 93 80 10
Scheduled Tribes and women C 63 78 15
IV. Independent and impartial media D 65 78 10
(1) I and II (2) I, II and III (1) A (2) B
(3) I, III and IV (4) II and IV (3) C (4) D
22
96. Which of the following statements are 99. In a village Puranpur, 200 families are living.
correct? Eighty five families work on their own piece of
I. Bank deposits share the essential features land, 60 families work on the field of other
of money. farmers, 5 families run their own shops and
50 families work in a nearby factory to earn
II. Any depositor may demand his deposit at their livelihood. What percentage of Puranpur
any point of time from a bank. village depends on the secondary sector?
III. Bank must retain all deposits by itself.
(1) 20 (2) 25
(1) I and II are true, but III is false
(3) 35 (4) 55
(2) I is true, but II and III are false.
Answer ( 2 )
(3) I and II are false, but III is true.
(4) All statements I, II and III are true. 100. Identify the correct pairs from List-I (Rights)
and List-II (Violation of rights) and select the
Answer ( 1 ) correct option using the codes given below.
97. Bira and his wife Sheena have two daughters
aged 12 and 16. Sheena’s mother and father, List I List II
aged 65 and 72, also live with them. Bira is (Rights) (Violation of rights)
currently looking for work, but can’t find any. A Right to I Raman buys a packet of
His elder daughter completed class 10 and choose milk on which the
prefers to look for work. Sheena prefers to company’s name,
stay at home to look after house works. How manufacturing date, and
many unemployed members does Bira’s family expiry date were missing
have?
B Right II Sakina wants a particular
(1) 1 (2) 2 to be channel from her cable
(3) 3 (4) 4 informed operator but operator
offers some other channel
Answer ( 2 ) as part of a complete
98. Which of the following statements are package.
correct? C Right to III Joseph bought a
I. Globalization has led to increased flow of safety television from a shop. He
capital across countries. suffered electric shock
II. Increase in flows of labour across while using it.
countries has been larger than the D Right to IV Murli fell ill and was
increase in flows of capital. seek admitted in the hospital
redressal because of stale food
III. MNCs spread their production and work
served in the restaurant.
with local producers in various countries
across the globe. (1) A-I and C-III (2) B-II and C-III
(3) B-II and D-IV (4) C-III and D-IV
(3) II and III (4) I, II and III
Answer ( 4 )
Answer ( 2 )

23

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FIITJEE Solutions to

NATIONAL COUNCIL OF THE EDUCATIONAL RESEARCH AND TRAINING

NATIONAL TALENT SEARCH EXAMINATION – 2011

MENTAL ABILITY TEST

Time: 90 Minutes Max Marks: 100

PLEASE TURN OVER THE PAGE AND START YOUR WORK

Five students K, L, M, N and O study in a class, of these

1. Who among the students studies maximum number of subjects?

2. Who among the students studies minimum number of subjects?

3. Who among the students studies only four subjects?

4. Which of the following pairs studies Chemistry and Civics?

5. Who is sitting on the left of X?

7. 57, 54, 58, 55, 59, 56, 60, ?

8. 27, 31, 40, 56, 81, 117, ?

12. DGOT : JKUX : : FINP : ?

13. EIKR : HMPX : : GKMT : ?

14. FLIP : AEIN : : IKNT : ?

15. ILNT : FHIN : : KOSV : ?

19. Which word will be code for word Aj?

20. Which word will be code for word Hum?

21. Which word will be code for word pana?

22. Which word will be code for word Kahu?

23. Which word will be code for word Jai?

Find the odd one out from the alternatives.

37−41 Directions: These questions are based on following information.

37. Which two boys play all the games?

38. Which game is played by all the boys?

39. Who does not play football?

40. Which two games are not played by Naresh?

41. Who do not play Basketball?

52. Who is the father of M?

59. What is the profession of B?

60. What is the profession of A?

61. What is the relation of B with D?

62. What is the relation of D with F?

63. Which of the following is a married couple?

Answer the following questions.

65. What is the total of GREAT?

1. Only IV 2. Both II and III

1. Both II and IV 2. Both I and II

1. II, III and IV 2. III and IV only

1. Only I 2. Both II and III

71. HNPRQ, GIMQL, ZFJLK, ?, PVBDC

72. FHSIE, ISTRJ, RTCUQ, UCDBV, ?

73. YGIM, LOXY, ZFJL, ?

74. GYXOW, ZXOLP, FZWPV, ?

75. AMONB, YGIHZ, ?

76. Which is the code for ‘STOLEN’?

77. Which is the code of ‘LOWER’?

79. Identify the response which represents CHAIR.

80. Identify the response which represents MONKEY.

92. Which figure has been used most of the times?

96. Which number is opposite 4?

97. Which number is opposite 1?

98. Which number would be opposite to 3?

99. Which number would be opposite to 5?

100. Which number would be opposite to 4?

NATIONAL COUNCIL OF THE EDUCATIONAL RESEARCH AND TRAINING

NATIONAL TALENT SEARCH EXAMINATION – 2011

Time: 90 Minutes Max Marks: 100

PLEASE TURN OVER THE PAGE AND START YOUR WORK

3. Which is the main function of RBC?

4. Find the odd one out of the following: