NID DAT

NID DAT
SAMPLE PAPER
NID DAT B.Des. / GDPD
SAMPLE PAPERS
(PART I)
BOOKLET CODE 31 QUESTION BOOKLET SERIES D
Please fill in your Roll No.
NOTE : Confirm that the 1st and 2nd digits of your Roll No. are 3 1 . If not, bring it to the notice of the invigilator.
Name of candidate : ____________________________________Signature of the candidate:_____________
Part Pattern Question Marks per Marking of Answers Exam Duration

Nos. Question
I Objective 1 to 24 0.5 Answers of these questions are to be marked
Type-Multiple 25 to 47 1.0 only on the OMR Answer Sheet which is
Choice 48 to 49 1.5 provided separately, using Black/Blue ball
Questions 50 to 62 2.0 point pen.
63 to 64 3.0 3 hours
II Subjective 65 10.0 Answers of these questions are to be given in

Type 66 14.0 the space provided below each question on
67 6.0 the Question-cum-Answer Booklet only.
INSTRUCTIONS FOR CANDIDATES

1. Please do not open this Question Booklet (Part I) until asked to do so.
2. Fill up the necessary information in the space provided on the cover of this Question Booklet (Part I), OMR Answer
Sheet and Question-cum-Answer Booklet Part II before commencement of the test.
3. The total duration of this test (Part 1 & Part II) is 3 hours. There are 64 questions in Part I and 3 questions in Part II.
4. The Test (Part I & Part II) is of total 100 marks.
5. There is No Negative Marking.
6. You may attempt the questions in any order you prefer.
7. Please check for the completeness of the Question Booklet (Part I) & Question-cum-Answer booklet (Part II)
immediately after opening.
8. Q.Nos.1 to 64 are objective type questions and answers of these objective type questions are to be marked on
OMR Answer sheet provided separately.
8.1. Each question has four options marked (A) (B) (C) and (D).
8.2. Choose the correct option and fill the oval completely with a Blue or Black Ball Point Pen only against the relevant
question number.
8.3. Use only Blue or Black Ball Point Pen to darken the oval for answering.
8.4. Do not darken more than one oval against any question. No marks will be given for such responses.
9. Rough work, if any, is to be done on the Question Booklet only. No separate sheet will be provided/used for rough
work.
10. Calculator, Mobile or any Electronic Gadgets, etc., are not permitted inside the examination hall.
11. Candidates seeking, receiving and/or giving assistance during the test will be disqualified.
12. Appropriate civil/criminal proceedings will be instituted against the candidates taking or attempting to take this
Question Booklet or part of it outside the examination hall.
13. The right to exclude any question(s) from final evaluation rests with the Examining authority.
QUESTION BOOKLET (PART I), OMR ANSWER SHEET AND QUESTION-CUM-ANSWER

BOOKLET (PART II) ARE TO BE RETURNED ON COMPLETION OF THE EXAM.
D/31/XX-XVIII/I 1 382/ 1
D/31/XX-XVIII/I 2
PART-I
Questions 1 to 64 are multiple choice questions. The correct answer must be marked in the
OMR answer sheet provided separately. Do not write your name anywhere in the booklet. This
will lead to disqualification.
Directions (Question Nos. 1 to 24): Each question carries 0.5 marks. Please read the question
carefully and select your response from the options provided.
Q1. Which one of the pairs given below is correctly matched?

(A) Harappan civilisation: Painted greyware
(B) The Mughals: Ajanta painting
(C) The Kushans: Gandhara school of art
(D) The Marathas: Pahari School of Painting
Q2. Among the options given, in which of the following languages are the sacred scriptures of
Buddhism written in?
(A) Prakrit (B) Pali
(C) Hebrew (D) None of these
Q3. Kanyakumari, the tip of India is located towards which of the following?
(A) North of Tropic of Cancer (B) South of the Equator
(C) South of the Capricorn (D) North of the Equator
Q4. Who won for India a silver medal in the Rio Olympics and in which sport?
(A) Sakshi Malik (Wrestling) (B) P V Sindhu (Badminton)
(C) Sania Mirza (Tennis) (D) Sakshi Malik (Badminton)
Q5. The state of Emergency in India was of 21 months duration. When did this happen?
(A) 1975-1977 (B) 1973-1975
(C) 1977-1979 (D) None of these
Q6. Choose the correct set of colours from given choices for the given Indian traffic sign.
(A) Red, Black, Green
(B) Red, Blue, Green
(C) Red, Black, White
(D) Red, Black, Blue
Q7. Match the following Materials with their respective Processes.

Materials Processes
M1- Textile P1- Blowing
M2- Stone P2- Carving
M3- Metal P3- Weaving
M4- Glass P4- Casting
(A) M1- P3, M2- P2, M3- P4, M4- P1

(B) M1- P2, M2- P3, M3- P4, M4- P1
(C) M1- P3, M2- P1, M3- P4, M4- P2
(D) M1- P4, M2- P2, M3- P3, M4- P1
D/31/XX-XVIII/I 3 382/ 2
Q8. Choose the correct option from given choices for matching the right pairs.
1-Spiral Binding; 2-Perfect Binding; 3-Wire-o Binding
P Q R
(A) P - 2, Q - 1, R - 3 (B) P - 3, Q - 2, R - 1
(C) P - 1, Q - 2, R - 3 (D) P - 2, Q - 3, R - 1
Q9. Which artist painted the classic 'The Last Supper'?

(A) Leonardo da Vinci (B) Michaelangelo
(C) Salvador Dali (D) Pablo Picasso
Q10. Which of the following refers to ‘The Study of Insects’?

(A) Anthropology (B) Insectology (C) Entomology (D) Etymology
Q11. The major part of agricultural land in India is under which kind of crop?
(A) Cash crops (B) Food crops (C) Oilseeds (D) Plantation crops
Q12. The period of European history that lasted from the 14th to the 17th century is known as what?
(A) Renaissance (B) Industrial revolution
(C) Dadaism (D) None of these
Q13. The closest descendant of Tyrannosaurus Rex that still lives today is
(A) (C (D)
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Q14. 'Demography' is the statistical study of _____________.

(A) Human behavior (B) Human settlement (C) Human life (D) Human populations
Q15. Whose signature is seen on currency notes in India?

(A) Finance Minister (B) Mahatma Gandhi
(C) Finance secretary of state (D) Governor of RBI
Q16. Identify the organization which uses the given logo.

(A) National Skill Development Corporation
(B) Infrastructure Leasing & Financial Services
(C) Indian Institute of Entrepreneurship
(D) Indian Institute of Packaging
D/31/XX-XVIII/I 4
Q17. On which mechanism Paper Punching machine works?
(A) Gear mechanism (B) Rack and Pinion mechanism
(C) Spring mechanism (D) Four bar Mechanism
Q18. The essential condition for the formation of shadow is,

(A) there should be an opaque material.
(B) there should be a source of light and screen.
(C) the object must be placed in the path of light.
(D) All of the above
Q19. Which Indian River doesn’t pass through any other neighboring country?
(A) Sutlej (B) Jhelum (C) Narmada (D) Brahmaputra
Q20. The ‘Left’ in politics refers to which of the following?

(A) Progressive, radical groups (B) Conservative groups
(C) Those sitting on the left in Parliament (D) None of these
Q21. Which of these images depicts clockwise movement?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Q22. Identify the visual which represents the correct relationship between chappals (flipflops),
sandals, shoes and footwear.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Q23. What will be warmer to wear in winters - one thick sweater or layers of thin sweaters?
(The combined thickness of the thin sweaters is the same as one thick sweater.)
(A) Both will be equally warm (B) One thick sweater will be warmer
(C) Layers of thin sweaters will be warmer (D) Can’t be said for sure
Q24. 1. Gmail runs faster than Yahoo.

2. Hotmail runs faster than Gmail.
3. Yahoo runs faster than Hotmail.
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is __________.
(A) True (B) False (C) Uncertain (D) Can’t Say
D/31/XX-XVIII/I 5
Q25. You and your best friend are entering the stage for a dance performance from the same point,
you both walk straight for 20 feet and turn left; then walk another 10 feet and turn left; again
walk 10 feet, now you turn right and move 5 feet; while your friend turns left and moves 5 feet.
Who is closer to the point from where you entered the stage?
(A) You (B) Your Best friend (C) Both (D) Neither
Q26. Fact 1: Rashmi said, "Jyoti and I both have dogs."

Fact 2: Jyoti said, "I don’t have a dog."
Fact 3: Rashmi always tells the truth, but Jyoti sometimes lies.
Which of the following statements must also be a fact?

Statement I: Jyoti has a dog. Statement II: Rashmi has a dog. Statement III: Jyoti is lying.
(A) All the statements are facts. (B) Statement II Only
(C) Statement I & II Only (D) Statement I Only
Q27. Pointing to a man in a sketch, a woman said, “His brother’s father is the only son of my
grandfather.” How is the woman related to the man in the sketch?
(A) Mother (B) Sister (C) Aunt (D) Daughter
Q28. In the given figure, how many triangles are there in total?
(A) 5
(B) 8
(C) 10
(D) 12
Q29. If it takes 5 machines 5 minutes each to make 5 laddoos, how long would it take 100 machines
to make 100 laddoos?
(A) 5 (B) 20 (C) 100 (D) 25
Q30. Out of the 26 English alphabets, how many ‘capital’ alphabets can be made using straight lines
only?
(A) 13 (B) 15 (C) 16 (D) 17
Q31. Select the correct image of the given figure, as it will appear reflected in water.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
D/31/XX-XVIII/I 6
Directions (Question Nos. 32 to 35): Study the given images carefully to answer these questions.
Q32. Which one of the above images best represents, “I want to live long”?
Q33. Which one of the above images best represents, “I don’t want to carry extra baggage”?
Q34. Which one of the above images best represents, “I am comfortable with who I am”?
Q35. Which one of the above images best represents, “I want to be the best”?
Q36. Which one of the above images best represents, “Sincere”?
Q37. Which one of the above images best represents, “Indifferent”?
Q38. Which one of the above images best represents, “Dramatic”?
Q39. Which one of the above images best represents, “Selfish”?
Q40. Population of a village increases by 10% per year. Find the total population after 3 years if
present population is 1000.
(A) 1300 (B) 1301 (C) 1331 (D) 1030
Q41. Mr ''X'' and Mr ''Y'' are good friends. Mr ''X'' borrows 2 lakhs (without any interest) from
Mr ''Y'' and agrees to pay back 'Half' of the 'outstanding amount' every year. How many years
Mr ''X'' takes to pay back the entire money ?
(A) Sixteen Years (B) Thirty Two Years (C) Sixty Four Years (D) None of these
D/31/XX-XVIII/I 7
Q42. Which one of the above images best represents, “stability”?
Q43. Which one of the above images best represents, “symmetry”?
Q44. The given sheet of transparent square paper with the patterns is folded twice. What will be the
resultant pattern?
Q45. If the earth took 365 days to spin once about its own axis (as opposed to one day), then the
consequence of this would be that,
(A) there would be no seasons.
(B) one half of the earth would be in permanent darkness and the other in permanent daylight.
(C) days and nights would be of equal length at all places on earth at all times.
(D) the sun would be overhead everywhere on earth.
Q46. Identify the missing figure.
?
(1) (2) (3) (4)
(A) (B) (C) (D)

D/31/XX-XVIII/I 8
Q47. Based on the set-up given below, identify the correct shadow which will fall on the screen.
(A) (B) (C) (D)

Q48. The cleaning and restoration of Michaelangelo's frescoes on the ceiling of the Sistine Chapel
were undertaken by some of the world’s finest art restorers under the close supervision of an
international team of art experts and historians. Nonetheless, the results have produced a
storm of controversy. Most modern viewers, it seems, had become accustomed to seeing the
frescoes with their colours dulled by layers of yellowing glue and varnish and with the contours
of the figures obscured by centuries' accumulation of grime.
The passage implies that Michaelangelo's frescoes
(A) have been the subject of intense controversy over their artistic merit.
(B) suffered until recently from centuries of obscurity and neglect.
(C) have been obscured by dirt during the recent process of restoration.
(D) were originally much brighter and more vivid than most modern viewers realize.
Q49. “So when we see ‘Red”, what we are actually seeing is that portion of the electromagnetic
spectrum with a wavelength of about 0.0007 millimeters, in a situation where the other
wavelengths are absent. It is our brains (and our language) which inform us it is “red”, and at
the same time they often attach cultural labels that tell us it is powerful, or that it is the colour
of love, or that it is a traffic sign which means we have to stop”.
Of all the inferences that we can make from this narration which is the most untrue?
(A) Electromagnetic waves of wavelength of about 0.0007 millimeters, come and hit our eyes
when we are in front of a Traffic light with the red light glowing.
(B) When we see a painting with many colours - blue, green, red, yellow, etc. electromagnetic
waves of many wavelengths are coming and hitting us.
(C) When we see the colour red, we call it ‘red’ as our language defines the portion of the
electromagnetic spectrum with a wavelength of about 0.0007 millimeters as ‘red’.
(D) The ‘red’ colour is so powerful because of the electromagnetic wave of wavelength of
0.0007 mm that the colour comes from.
D/31/XX-XVIII/I 9
Q50. In the given figure, if ‘S’ represents Sea, ‘B’ represents Bhopal, ‘C’ represents Chennai, then
what does ‘X’ represent?
(A) Pune
(B) Bhubaneshwar
(C) Hyderabad
(D) Raipur
Q51. Which of the following options has the closest resemblance

to the given image?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Q52. If the sun were a cube instead of a sphere, in what possible shapes could you see it in the sky?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
Directions (Question Nos. 53 to 55): Read the paragraph carefully to answer these questions.
Culture gives meaning to our relationship with the other, as it also forms our subjective
identity. Culture, therefore, enters into the processes of social change in many forms and at
various levels. It defines the quality of social change as its indicator. Anthropologists define
culture as the set of learned behaviours, beliefs, attitudes, values, and ideals that are
quintessential to a particular society. The defining features of culture are that it is commonly
shared; it is learned; it is mostly integrated (we mean that the elements or traits that make up
that culture are just a random assortment of customs but are mostly consistent with one
another); and culture is always changing. This definition includes such products of group life
as folklore, mores, and other group expectations. In addition, there are the material elements
that comprise so important a part of our contemporary culture and supplement the
D/31/XX-XVIII/I 10
psychological elements at every point. Finally, there are the meaningful relationships between
the various parts of culture and the symbolic interpretations placed upon them. Customs,
material objects, and meaningful relationships thus comprise the principal aspects of culture.
Culture includes both structure and function. Because of its symbolic character,…culture is
easily transmitted from one person to another. In this way, culture is a continuous and growing
whole, acquiring new elements as it is handed down from one generation to the next, and
spreading to new groups and peoples. The history of culture is, in a real sense, the history of
humankind. For hundreds of thousands of years, culture in some form has been continuously
transmitted. Some elements have been lost, others have been changed, new ones have been
added. But culture itself has gone on.
Ideas are the real foundations of culture. All the machines in the world would be useless
without the knowledge of how to use them. Human beings are, furthermore, a symbol-using
animal, who make an understanding of these symbols fundamental to an understanding of
culture. The meanings attached to the different aspects of culture are more important than the
physical form these aspects may take. Material objects are clearly the product of humankind’s
cultural activity. No one would presume that the automobile for example sprang full blown
from the brain of some supernatural power. The automobile is the product of a long line of
human inventors, each of whom added something to the finished product. It must have started
with the invention of the wheel.
Q53. Which of the following cannot be inferred from the passage?

(A) The transmission of material culture over time has led to several inventions across the
world.
(B) The symbolic dimension of culture leads to its continual transmission over time.
(C) Culture plays a key role in how society changes over time.
(D) Culture and society are often at odds with each other.
Q54. Which of the following would be the best substitute for the term ‘quintessential’ in the
passage?
(A) Quaint (B) Typical (C) Unmatched (D) Inadequate
Q55. The writer uses the phrase, ‘ideas are the real foundations of a culture’ in the passage to refer to
the fact that
(A) without the intellectual stimulus, material objects are meaningless.
(B) ideas are based on culture.
(C) symbols are the result of humankind’s material activity.
(D) culture is something solid and stable.
Q56. Pappu’s mummy leaves home for office at 8:05 am and returns home at 11:15 pm. In this
period how many times would Pappu see the minute and hour hands of their clock line up along
a straight line?
(A) 30 (B) 15 (C) 14 (D) 28
Q57. Which option indicates the correct sequence in which the following words appear in a
Dictionary?
1) decease 2) decelerate 3) decentralize 4) deceased
5) deceive 6) december 7) deception
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7 (B) 1, 3, 5, 2, 4, 6, 7
(C) 2, 4, 6, 1, 3, 5, 7 (D) 1, 4, 5, 2, 6, 3, 7
D/31/XX-XVIII/I 11
Q58. The shape below is formed from three smaller pieces. These pieces are connected by a tiny
hinge at their point of attachment. Suppose, you were able to rotate the pieces so that
neighboring sides aligned flatly and squarely, they will come together to form which of the
following shapes?
(A) Square
(B) Rectangle
(C) Triangle
(D) Trapezium
Q59. Aman was playing with his building blocks. He made a structure, three views of which are
given. So, how many blocks did Aman use eventually?
Top View Front view Side view

(A) 28 (B) 26 (C) 27 (D) 29
Directions (Question Nos. 60 to 62): Read the paragraph carefully to answer these questions.
Colour is one of the most obvious visual feature of a gem. But in fact, it is just one of many
properties, all of which are dependent upon light. The individual crystalline structure of a
gemstone interacts with light in a unique way and determines the optical properties of each gem
species. Effects produced by light passing through a gem and also produced by the reflection of
light are discussed here. The colour of a gem depends largely on the way it absorbs light. White
light is made up of the spectral colours of the rainbow, and when it strikes a gem some spectral
colours are "preferentially absorbed". Those that are not absorbed, pass through or are reflected
back, giving the gem its colour. Each gem, in fact has a unique colour "fingerprint", but this is only
visible when viewed with a spectroscope. To the naked eye, many gems look the same colour.
Allochromatic or other-coloured gems are coloured by trace elements or other impurities that
are not an essential part of their chemical composition. Corrundum, for example, is colourless
when pure but impurities in it (like metal oxide) create the red stones we know as rubies, blue,
green and yellow sapphires, and orange-pink padparadscha. Allochromatic gems are often
susceptible to colour enhancement or change.
Q60. What is a gemstone’s unique characteristic?
(A) Its transparency (B) Its abruption spectrum
(C) Its reflection (D) None
Q61. What cannot be called allochromatic?
(A) Stone with metal oxide (B) Orange-pink padparadscha
(C) Pure corundum (D) None
Q62. What subject of study/science stream is being discussed here?
(A) Gemology (B) Colour therapy (C) Astrology (D) Spectrology
D/31/XX-XVIII/I 12
Q63. Which of the following shapes can fill the given figure without any gaps?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Q64. Look at the given figure which has 16 squares. Now if –

(1) Square “a” moves two blocks right
(2) Square “b” moves one block left
(3) Square “c” moves one block up
(4) Square “d” moves one block right and
(5) The resultant figure is flipped about its vertical axis.
Which one of the following will be the final figure?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
D/31/XX-XVIII/I 13
Space for Rough Work
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D/31/XX-XVIII/I 15
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D/31/XX-XVIII/I 16
(PART II)
BOOKLET CODE 31 (Question-cum-Answer Booklet)
Part Pattern Question Marks per Marking of Answers Exam

Nos. Question Duration
II Subjective 65 10.0 Answers of these questions are to be given in 3 hours

1. Please do not open this Question-cum-Answer Booklet (Part II) until asked to do so.
2. Fill up the necessary information in the space provided on the cover of this Question Booklet (Part II) before commencement of the test.
3. The total duration of this exam (Part I & Part II) is 3 hours. There are 64 questions in Part I and 3 questions in Part II.
4. The Exam (Part I & Part II) is of total 100 marks. There is No Negative Marking.
6. Please check for the completeness of the Question Booklet (Part I) & Question-cum-Answer booklet (Part II) immediately after opening.
7. Question Nos. 65 to 67 are subjective type. Answers to these questions are to be written in the space provided below each
question in the Question-cum-Answer Booklet only.
8. Rough work, if any, is to be done on the Question-cum-Answer Booklet only. No separate sheet will be provided/used for rough work.
10. Candidates seeking, receiving and/or giving assistance during the Exam will be disqualified.
11. Appropriate civil/criminal proceedings will be instituted against the candidates taking or attempting to take this Question Booklet or part
of it outside the examination hall.
12. The right to exclude any question(s) from final evaluation rests with the examining authority.
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
FOR EVALUATOR’S USE
Q.No. Max. Marks Marks Secured Signature of Evaluator

65. 10.0 . ……………………………..
66. 14.0 . ……………………………..
67. 6.0 . ……………………………..
Total Marks Secured: .

In Words: …………………………………………………………………….………….……………..
………………………………....

31/XX-XVIII/I – Part-II 1 383/ 1

31/XX-XVIII/I – Part-II 2
PART-II
Directions: Please read the questions carefully and answer in the space provided.
Q65. Given here is the silhouette of a few objects in a specific position

with respect to each other.
Imagine that the three objects are made of a) transparent glass, b)

paper and c) wood respectively. In the given space below, draw
the same arrangement of all the three objects without changing
their relative position. Your drawing should be as large size as
possible in the given space. Use shading to render material on the
objects, such that the source of light is from the top right corner.
3
31/XX-XVIII/I – Part-II
383/ 2
Q66. During a mishap due to short-circuit in the wiring of a multi story building, there was a fire
on the ground floor near the staircase, which was spreading fast. A middle aged mother with
her two children aged 4 and 7 were trapped in the balcony of the first floor. Neighbours of
the society could find only a scooter, a 5 feet. tall ladder and some nylon rope of 12 feet.
Depict the scenes showing how would the neighbours rescue the group and bring them down
in the respective spaces provided. Do not use colour.
A) Rescuing the mother
B) Rescuing the children
Q67. “Ajay loved spending time gardening with his grandmother when he was a child. He
remembers, once when he was 8 years old, by mistake he planted a seed of Corn along with
a seed of Pea. Next morning when he went to the spot what he saw there was simply beyond
his imagination. He still has the drawing of what grew on that spot. He felt amazed looking
at the drawing of what he saw and wondered whether it was just his imagination or it
actually happened.”
Draw the drawing mentioned in the above paragraph.

Use pencil or pen to draw. Shading or coloring is not required.
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NID DAT M.Des.
SAMPLE PAPERS
(PART I)
BOOKLET CODE 30 QUESTION BOOKLET SERIES A
Part Pattern Question Marks Marking of Answers Exam Duration
Nos. per
Question
I Objective 1 to 18 0.5 Answers of these questions are to be marked
Type-Multiple 19 to 35 1.0 only on the OMR Answer Sheet which is
Choice 36 to 51 1.5 provided separately, using Black/Blue ball
Questions 52 to 55 2.0 point pen.
3 hours
56 to 59 3.0
II Subjective 60 8 Answers of these questions are to be given in
Type 61 10 the space provided below each question on
62 12 the Question-cum-Answer Booklet only.

1. Please do not open this Question Booklet (Part I) until asked to do so.
2. Fill up the necessary information in the space provided on the cover of this Question Booklet (Part I), OMR
Answer Sheet and Question-cum-Answer Booklet Part II before commencement of the test.
3. The total duration of this test (Part 1 & Part II) is 3 hours. There are 59 questions in Part I and 3 questions in Part
II.
4. The Test (Part I & Part II) is of total 100 marks.
5. There is No Negative Marking.
7. Please check for the completeness of the Question Booklet (Part I) & Question-cum-Answer Booklet (Part II)
immediately after opening.
8. Q. Nos. 1 to 59 are objective type questions and answers of these objective type questions are to be marked
on OMR Answer sheet provided separately.
8.1 Each question has four answer options marked (A) (B) (C) and (D).
8.2 Choose the correct option and darken the oval completely with a BLACK/BLUE PEN ONLY against the relevant
question number.
8.3 Use only Black/Blue Pen to darken the oval for answering.
8.4 Do not darken more than one oval against any question. No marks will be given for such responses.
9. Rough work, if any, is to be done on the Question Booklet only. No separate sheet will be provided/used for rough
work.
10. Calculator, Mobile or any Electronic Gadgets, etc. are not permitted inside the examination hall.
11. Candidates seeking, receiving and/or giving assistance during the test will be disqualified.
12. Appropriate civil/criminal proceedings will be instituted against the candidates taking or attempting to take this
Question Booklet or part of it outside the examination hall.

A/30/XX-XVIII/I 1
A/30/XX-XVIII/I 2
PART-I
Directions: Question Nos. 1 to 59 are multiple choice. The correct answer must be marked in
the OMR answer sheet provided separately. Do not write your name anywhere in the booklet.
This will lead to disqualification.
Q1. The story and theme are always taken from the Mahabharata and Ramayana in which of the following
styles of dance?
(A) Bharatanatyam (B) Kuchipudi (C) Oddissi (D) Kathakali
Q2. Which of the following is not a UNESCO World Heritage site?

(A) Somnath Temple, Gujarat
(B) Champaner-Pavagadh Archaeological Park, Gujarat
(C) Konark Sun Temple, Odisha
(D) Chhatrapati Shivaji Terminus railway station, Mumbai, Maharashtra
Q3. The painting ‘Guernica’, painted by a Spanish artist, depicts the horror of war and is considered as an
anti-war symbol. The name of the artist is
(A) Velazquez (B) Salvador Dali (C) Goya (D) Pablo Picasso
Q4. Which languages of the sets below was Jesus known to be able to speak in?
(A) German, Javanese and Aramaic (B) Aramaic, Hebrew and Greek
(C) Spanish, Greek and Portuguese (D) Hebrew, Russian and Lahnda
Q5. Recently, Guinness World Records declared Majuli to be the largest river island in the world. In which
country is Majuli located?
(A) India (B) Australia (C) Sri Lanka (D) South Africa
Q6. A big step has been taken in the application of green energy in public transport with the introduction of
the world's first hybrid electric tram powered by hydrogen fuel cells. The tram emits no pollutants as
water is its only emission. In which country is this tram running?
(A) Hong Kong (B) South Korea (C) China (D) Japan
Q7. On 24 August 2017, a landmark judgment was delivered by a nine-judge bench of the Supreme Court of
India. In this judgment, it declared which of the following options as a fundamental right under the
Constitution of India?
(A) Triple Talaq
(B) Use of biometric information
(C) Privacy
(D) Right to dissent
Q8. The Good Design Mark for recognition of excellence in design was initiated by which country?
(A) India (B) Japan (C) Denmark (D) Italy
Q9. Identify the set that lists substances in strictly increasing order of acidity:
(A) human blood, pure lemon juice, vinegar, liquid soap
(B) pure lemon juice, vinegar, liquid soap, human blood
(C) vinegar, liquid soap, human blood, pure lemon juice
(D) liquid soap, human blood, vinegar, pure lemon juice
A/30/XX-XVIII/I 3
Q10. Who founded Amazon.com?
(A) Sergey Brin and Larry Page
(B) Steve Jobs, Steve Wozniak, and Ronald Wayne
(C) Jeff Bezos
(D) Paul Allen
Q11. The ‘colour wheel’ as an organization of colours was first introduced in 1666, by
(A) Isaac Newton.
(B) Leonardo da Vinci.
(C) Johann Wolfgang von Goethe.
(D) Michel Eugène Chevreul.
Q12. Which of the following is not an embroidery technique?

(A) Chikankari (B) Phulkari (C) Kalamkari (D) Kashidakari
Q13. What has the UN declared the decade from 2016 to 2025 as?
(A) United Nations Decade on Biodiversity
(B) United Nations Decade of Action on Nutrition
(C) United Nations Decade for People of African Descent
(D) United Nations Literacy Decade
Q14. The newly introduced Goods and Services Tax is not applicable on
(A) Take-away food.
(B) Automobiles.
(C) Garments.
(D) Employment.
Q15. Which of the following countries is one of fifteen member nations who are elected to serve on the
United Nations (UN) Human Rights Council?
(A) Pakistan (B) South Africa (C) Chile (D) India
Q16. Sansad Bhawan, the house of the Parliament of India, is located in New Delhi. Identify the architects
who designed it.
(A) Edwin Lutyens, Herbert Baker
(B) Charles Correa, Laurie Baker
(C) Raj Rewal, B. V. Doshi
(D) Louis Kahn, Le Corbusier
Q17. Which word does not suitably describe the effect of the image below?
(A) Rhythm
(B) Hypnosis
(C) Spiral
(D) Continuation
Q18. How often does the lunar calendar add one extra month to a year?
(A) Every year
(B) Once in 2 years
(C) Every five years
(D) Every third year
A/30/XX-XVIII/I 4
Q19. The instrument shown can be used for measuring

(A) Depth
(B) Length
(C) Diameter
(D) All these
Q20. Identify the four government schemes shown in this image:
(1) (2) (3) (4)
(A) 1-Make in India, 2-Saubhagya, 3-Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana-Gramin, 4-Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala
Yojna
(B) 1-Skill India, 2-Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojna, 3-Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana-Gramin,
4-Saubhagya
(C) 1-Skill India, 2-Swachh Bharat, 3-Jan Aushadhi, 4- Start up India
(D) 1-Make in India, 2-Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojna, 3-Amrut Yojna, 4-Beti Bachao Beti Padhao
Q21. Which of the following is a case of "by design, not by accident"?

(A) Pollination of flowers
(B) The patterns obtained in a kaleidoscope
(C) Evolution of creatures on this earth
(D) A well-executed shot in carrom
Q22. You are inside a cinema hall 100 feet high. Adjacent to the cinema hall is an office building of the same
height. The office building is divided into floors of equal height. Each floor of the office building has a
window on the outside. How many windows would the building have when viewed from outside?
(A) 5 windows (B) 9 windows (C) 14 windows (D) 19 windows
Q23. At the end of a meeting of 12 designers, each one shook hands with everyone else once. How many
handshakes took place altogether?
(A) 11 (B) 13 (C) 66 (D) 132
Q24. Identify the missing number:

(A) 12
(B) 10
(C) 4
(D) 0
A/30/XX-XVIII/I 5
Directions (Question Nos. 25 to 28): Read the paragraph below carefully to answer these questions.
Architects tend to assume a “sameness”, or normality, amongst the population, that all kinds of people
have the same expectations of the environment. This has also been perpetuated through three
interconnected dimensions of the design process, that is, giving greater precedence to the idea of
building form over function; the construction of architectural and other design practices, thus creating a
new technical expert; and the ascendancy of the corporate economy as the dominant clientele. Further,
the culture, social ethics and/or practices of design professionals do not make them see themselves as
part of wider political processes. According to them, architects seem to have limited understanding of
the interconnectedness between values, design objectives and the design intentions derived from them,
with design theory tending to focus on the technocratic and technological, reducing questions of access
and form to the functional aspects of the subject, yet being inattentive to the social psychology of design
or people’s real needs. An impersonal, often alienating, practice is perpetuated because emphasis is laid
on the aesthetic or building form, not the user and/or the pragmatics of the functioning of the building.
Seen in this way, buildings are deemed as an “abstraction", which are independent of the socio-political
contexts within which they are produced. Then again, architectural movements and styles such as the
modern movement were based on the principle of having “segregated and monofunctional forms”. This
is an aesthetic based on “an abstract, intellectual purity of rational, geometric, forms and a mass-
produced industrial technology” and “a non-contextual” principle which negates bodily differences,
human subjectivity, differences in human behavior or access. The Bauhaus movement, for instance,
persuaded people to use predetermined design, and architects and designers sought to standardize
people’s bodily interactions with the built environment. Thus, the socio-architectural practices based on
universal design principles or based on structures which are multi-functional are non-disablist and
liberating.
Q25. Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the word "perpetuated" used in the passage.
(A) Sustain (B) Continue (C) Cease (D) Perpetrate
Q26. The author's most important objective of writing the passage seems to be to
(A) highlight how architects do not consider the varied range of users of a given built environment and
their interaction with it.
(B) show how architects emphasize function over form.
(C) illustrate the supremacy of architects.
(D) urge the adoption of flexible architecture.
Q27. According to the passage, architects need to pay attention to

(A) varied built environments.
(B) standardised design outcomes.
(C) socio-psychological aspects of design.
(D) engineering aspects of design.
Q28. The most appropriate title for the passage would be

(A) Towards Universal Design
(B) Alienated Design
(C) Dynamic Architectural Design
(D) Modern Movement
A/30/XX-XVIII/I 6
Q29. Which of the strips running along the walls of the building in the images below has a representational
perspective flaw?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Q30. Select a shape for the empty frame in the following.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Q31. How many pentagons must the object below have over its complete surface?
(A) 5
(B) 12
(C) 1
(D) 6
A/30/XX-XVIII/I 7
Q32. How many triangles can you see in the circle second from left in the second row?
(A) 0 (B) 5 (C) 12 (D) 16
Q33. Select the image from the following that belongs to the animal on the top of the chain of evolution.
(1) (2) (3) (4)
(A) 1 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 2
A/30/XX-XVIII/I 8
Q34. Study the image below carefully and identify the feelings of the image.
Now look at the images below and identify one which reflects the same feelings.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Q35. Which of the pictures below is a fish-eye view?
A/30/XX-XVIII/I 9
Directions (Question Nos. 36-39): Read the paragraph carefully to answer these questions.
“From this distant vantage point, the Earth might not seem of any particular interest. But for us, it's
different. Consider again that dot. That's here. That's home. That's us. On it everyone you love,
everyone you know, everyone you ever heard of, every human being who ever was, lived out their lives.
The aggregate of our joy and suffering, thousands of confident religions, ideologies, and economic
doctrines, every hunter and forager, every hero and coward, every creator and destroyer of civilization,
every king and peasant, every young couple in love, every mother and father, hopeful child, inventor
and explorer, every teacher of morals, every corrupt politician, every ''superstar,'' every ''supreme
leader,'' every saint and sinner in the history of our species lived there—on a mote of dust suspended in
a sunbeam. Our planet is a lonely speck in the great enveloping cosmic dark. In our obscurity—in all
this vastness—there is no hint that help will come from elsewhere to save us from ourselves. The Earth
is the only world known, so far, to harbor life. There is nowhere else, at least in the near future, to which
our species could migrate. Visit, yes. Settle, not yet. Like it or not, for the moment, the Earth is where
we make our stand. It has been said that astronomy is a humbling and character-building experience.
There is perhaps no better demonstration of the folly of human conceits than this distant image of our
tiny world. To me, it underscores our responsibility to deal more kindly with one another and to
preserve and cherish the pale blue dot, the only home we've ever known.”
Q36. The trigger for this speech was

(A) humankind reaching the moon.
(B) launch of the space shuttle.
(C) voyager looking back at Earth from a distant point in space.
(D) humankind going into space for the first time.
Q37. This speech could NOT have been written in the year __________.
(A) 2015 (B) 1995 (C) 1955 (D) 1935
Q38. The emotions that the author can be said to be experiencing are __________.
(A) Awe (B) Sorrow (C) Dismay (D) Nostalgia
Q39. “Blue Dot” above refers to

(A) A drop of water
(B) Earth as seen from a distant spacecraft
(C) An artist’s rendering of Earth
(D) Another planet seen from Earth
A/30/XX-XVIII/I 10
Directions (Questions 40-41): Read the paragraph carefully to answer these questions.
Three years after the Bandung Conference, in 1958, Nehru, the first prime minister of independent
India, invited the Eameses to help the developing country incorporate design into his project of national
regeneration. Before elaborating, however, I want to attend more closely to the summer of 1955, when
the self-assertions of the former colonies at the Bandung Conference converged with the arrival of
Indian art and aesthetics into public consciousness in the United States. The Textile and Ornamental
Arts of India exhibition at MoMA had gathered an unprecedented range of textiles, crafts, and
decorative objects from collections and institutions around the world, including several hundred loans
from the Victoria and Albert Museum in London, such as the highly symbolic Tipu’s Tiger, seized by
the British in 1799 and still displayed at the Victoria and Albert in London. Tellingly, American
audiences were largely indifferent to this contested symbol of imperial rule; they responded instead to
Girard’s installation of brightly colored saris from different regions of the subcontinent, which hung
over a fifty-foot pool of water and were reflected for the viewer in a large mirrored wall. Visitors did
not appear to object to this or other violations committed by Girard to the sanctity of MoMA’s
modernist "white cube" space. Indeed, his installation, designed as an imaginary bazaar, received rave
reviews in New York's fashion magazines and, intentionally or not, helped to establish the village scene
as the privileged setting for the display of Indian crafts in the post-war period. MoMA’s Textile and
Ornamental Arts of India thus received significant attention by the mainstream media and was featured
in Life, the New Yorker, the New York Times Magazine, Women’s Wear Daily, and Harpers Bazaar,
before traveling for the next three years to more than a dozen locations in the United States, ranging
from Pennsylvania, Illinois, and Tennessee, to Texas, California, Florida, and Hawaii. The exhibition
also brought the Eameses into contact with a number of distinguished ‘experts’ on Indian art, including
Stella Kramrisch, the Austrian professor and curator of Indian art who had recently arrived to work in
Philadelphia, Pupul Jayakar, the writer and cultural activist known for her advocacy of crafts in Indian
society, and John Irwin, the Keeper of the Indian Section at the Victoria and Albert Museum in London.
It is more than a simple coincidence that all of these authorities on Indian art would converge on the
MoMA show, the first large-scale exhibition of Indian culture in the United States.
Q40. Before the MOMA’s Textile and Ornamental Arts of India exhibition the designers, the Eameses, were
in contact with ___________.
(A) Girard
(B) Kramrisch
(C) Jayakar
(D) Irwin
Q41. The author believes that the American audiences of the ‘Textile and Ornamental Arts of India’
exhibition were unconcerned with the
(A) first large-scale exhibition of Indian culture in the United States.
(B) colonial past of some objects showcased in the exhibition.
(C) imaginary bazaar that was installed in modernist building of MOMA.
(D) coverage of the exhibition in many magazines in the United States.
A/30/XX-XVIII/I 11
Q42. If the river Sabarmati is represented by 94, Hoogly by 62, Beas by 42, Krishna by 72, and Ganga by 52,
then Narmada would be represented by which number?
(A) 73 (B) 74 (C) 75 (D) 76
Q43. Mr. Namit Patankar leaves Mumbai by the 8.00 am IST (Indian Standard Time) flight to New Delhi and
later boards an international flight at 12.20 pm IST to Tokyo (Japan) via Bangkok (Thailand) with a
layover connection time of 2 hr 15 min. The total duration of air time for the international flight is 9 hr
45 min. Predict in JST (Japan Standard Time), the estimated time of his arrival in Tokyo.
(A) 3.50 am (B) 8.50 pm (C) 12.20 am (D) 11.50 pm
Q44. Which of the following correctly represents the relationship between the perimeters of the shapes for the
same area?
(A) Circle < Square < Equilateral triangle
(B) Equilateral triangle < Circle < Square
(C) Square < Equilateral triangle < Circle
(D) Equilateral triangle < Square < Circle
Q45. Three figures– P, Q and R, are given below indicating the sequence in which a square sheet of paper is
folded. The last figure R shows the shapes which are then cut out from the folded piece of paper.
Select the option which would resemble the piece of paper unfolded after cutting out the shapes.
A/30/XX-XVIII/I 12
Q46. Which image will fit to the context of images given here most appropriately?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Q47. If the following shapes are extruded out of the plane of the paper to become solids, which two among
them will look identical in shape and size when seen from the right?
(1) (2) (3) (4)
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3 (C) 3 and 4 (D) 4 and 1
Q48. What letter will you get by rotating W first by 180 degrees about the Y axis, then by 180 degrees about
the X axis and then by 90 degrees about the Z axis?
(A) W (B) E
(C) M (D) None
Q49. If you were to look at the rainbow with red glasses, which two of the colours V (=1)-I-B-G-Y-O-R(=7)
would you expect to turn fully black?
(A) Colour no. 1, 4, 7 (B) Colour no. 3, 4, 5
(C) Colour no. 3, 4 (D) None of the 7 colours
A/30/XX-XVIII/I 13
Q50. Observe the shapes below. Visualize each shape rotated 360 degrees about a vertical axis passing
through its centre as shown and generating a 3D solid swept in the process. Rank the resulting solids
according to order of increasing stability?
(p) (q) (r) (s)
(A) p,q,r,s (B) p,s,q,r

(C) q,r,s,p (D) p,s,r,q
Q51. Identify the missing number in the sequence: 10 6 8 16 13 ? 24 34 20 18 27 12

(A) 13
(B) 15
(C) 16
(D) 19
Q52. Which of the following objects can best represent the ideas of—
1. Abstract 2. Sustainability
3. Organic 4. Minimalism
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(A) i-2, ii-4, iii-1, iv-3

(B) i-1, ii-2, iii-4, iv-3
(C) i-4, ii-3, iii-2, iv-1
(D) i-2, ii-3, iii-4, iv-1
A/30/XX-XVIII/I 14
Q53. If then
, ,
(A) 8
(B) 16
(C) 18
(D) 22
Q54. Given below are 4 objects A, B, C and D.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Which of these would look like a square within a square, as shown below, while looking from both front
and top
(A) A, B, C ,D (B) Only A & B

(C) Only A, B & C (D) Only D
A/30/XX-XVIII/I 15
Q55. Which of the options should appear at position number 5 to complete the series?
1 2 3 4 5
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Q56. Match the sayings and objects given below in the most suitable manner.
Sayings:
S1: Time and tide wait for no man
S2: The big fish eat the small
S3: Keep your friend close and enemy closer
S4: If at first you don’t succeed, try again
Objects:
(1) (2) (3) (4)
(A) 1-S2, 2-S4, 3-S1, 4-S3 (B) 1-S2, 2-S1, 3-S4, 4-S3
(C) 1-S2, 2-S1, 3-S3, 4-S4 (D) 1-S2, 2-S4, 3-S1, 4-S3
A/30/XX-XVIII/I 16
Q57. How many queens can be placed on a chessboard such that none is a target of any other?
(A) 12 (B) 6 (C) 8 (D) 7
Q58 Select the image from the given options that would be most suitable in this equation:
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Q59. For a story titled “An Opportunity” which is depicted as follows:
.........
.........
.................
?
Choose one of the following endings to be consistent with the story title.
(A)
(B) 1Yr.
(C) 2M
(D)
A/30/XX-XVIII/I 17
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A/30/XX-XVIII/I 20
(PART II)
BOOKLET CODE 30 (Question-cum-Answer Booklet)
Part Pattern Question Marks per Marking of Answers Exam

Nos. Question Duration
II Subjective 60 8.0 Answers of these questions are to be given in 3 hours

1. Please do not open this Question-cum-Answer Booklet (Part II) until asked to do so.
2. Fill up the necessary information in the space provided on the cover of this Question Booklet (Part II) before commencement of the test.
3. The total duration of this exam (Part I & Part II) is 3 hours. There are 59 questions in Part I and 3 questions in Part II.
4. The Exam (Part I & Part II) is of total 100 marks. There is No Negative Marking.
6. Please check for the completeness of the Question Booklet (Part I) & Question-cum-Answer booklet (Part II) immediately after opening.
7. Question Nos. 60 to 62 are subjective type. Answers to these questions are to be written in the space provided below each
question in the Question-cum-Answer Booklet only.
8. Rough work, if any, is to be done on the Question-cum-Answer Booklet only. No separate sheet will be provided/used for rough work.
10. Candidates seeking, receiving and/or giving assistance during the Exam will be disqualified.
11. Appropriate civil/criminal proceedings will be instituted against the candidates taking or attempting to take this Question Booklet or part
of it outside the examination hall.
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
FOR EVALUATOR’S USE
Q.No. Max. Marks Marks Secured Signature of Evaluator

60. 8.0 . ……………………………..
61. 10.0 . ……………………………..
62. 12.0 . ……………………………..
Total Marks Secured: .

In Words: …………………………………………………………………….………….……………..
………………………………....

D/30/XX-XVIII/I 1 384/ 1
D/30/XX-XVIII/I 2
PART-II
Directions: Question No. 60 carries 8 marks. Please read the question carefully and answer in
the space provided.
Q60. a) Imagine and write a short story in the ruled space below, involving all the following objects:
Comb, Scissor, Matchstick, Potato, and Ice-cream.
___________________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________
b) From your story, select a scenario that you find most interesting. In the box below, draw the scenario
using pencil or pen. The scenario shouldn’t contain any text or dialogue. Use of colors or shading will
NOT be considered during evaluation.
3
384/ 2
D/30/XX-XVIII/I
the space provided.
Q61. In the boxes given below, draw three existing objects that are operated / used by the thumb and index
fingers only. Below each illustration mention the object drawn.
Object:………………………………………………. Object:………………………………………………. .
Object:……………………………………………….
D/30/XX-XVIII/I 4
the space provided.
Q62. A steel tube manufacturer, India Tubes Pvt. Ltd., is producing more tubes than its demand in the market.
The excess production of tubes needs to be utilized in a meaningful manner so that the manufacturer not
only avoids losses but may make good profits. As a creative genius, you are called upon to suggest
different products that can be made out of these excess tubes produced by India Tubes. The challenge is
to make simple products without having too many processes. The size of tubes produced varies from
4 mm to 10 mm outer diameter and of sufficient length for making any product by bending, cutting,
joining, etc.. Using only pencil, draw 4 innovative products in the boxes below and under each sketch,
give a self-descriptive name to the product.
Name:………………………………………………. Name:……………………………………………….
Name:………………………………………………. Name:……………………………………………….
D/30/XX-XVIII/I 5
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D/30/XX-XVIII/I 7
... Space for Rough Work
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D/30/XX-XVIII/I 8

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Part Pattern Question Marks per Marking of Answers Exam Duration

II Subjective 65 10.0 Answers of these questions are to be given in

INSTRUCTIONS FOR CANDIDATES

QUESTION BOOKLET (PART I), OMR ANSWER SHEET AND QUESTION-CUM-ANSWER

Q1. Which one of the pairs given below is correctly matched?

Q7. Match the following Materials with their respective Processes.

(A) M1- P3, M2- P2, M3- P4, M4- P1

Q9. Which artist painted the classic 'The Last Supper'?

Q10. Which of the following refers to ‘The Study of Insects’?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Q14. 'Demography' is the statistical study of _____________.

Q15. Whose signature is seen on currency notes in India?

Q16. Identify the organization which uses the given logo.

Q18. The essential condition for the formation of shadow is,

Q20. The ‘Left’ in politics refers to which of the following?

Q21. Which of these images depicts clockwise movement?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Q24. 1. Gmail runs faster than Yahoo.

Q26. Fact 1: Rashmi said, "Jyoti and I both have dogs."

Which of the following statements must also be a fact?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Q36. Which one of the above images best represents, “Sincere”?

Q37. Which one of the above images best represents, “Indifferent”?

Q38. Which one of the above images best represents, “Dramatic”?

Q39. Which one of the above images best represents, “Selfish”?

Q42. Which one of the above images best represents, “stability”?

Q43. Which one of the above images best represents, “symmetry”?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Q51. Which of the following options has the closest resemblance

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Q53. Which of the following cannot be inferred from the passage?

Top View Front view Side view

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Q64. Look at the given figure which has 16 squares. Now if –

Which one of the following will be the final figure?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Please fill in your Roll No.

Part Pattern Question Marks per Marking of Answers Exam

INSTRUCTIONS FOR CANDIDATES

FOR EVALUATOR’S USE

Q.No. Max. Marks Marks Secured Signature of Evaluator

66. 14.0 . ……………………………..

67. 6.0 . ……………………………..

Total Marks Secured: .

QUESTION BOOKLET (PART I), OMR ANSWER SHEET AND QUESTION-CUM-ANSWER

31/XX-XVIII/I – Part-II 1 383/ 1

Q65. Given here is the silhouette of a few objects in a specific position

Imagine that the three objects are made of a) transparent glass, b)

A) Rescuing the mother

Draw the drawing mentioned in the above paragraph.

INSTRUCTIONS FOR CANDIDATES

QUESTION BOOKLET (PART I), OMR ANSWER SHEET AND QUESTION-CUM-ANSWER

Q2. Which of the following is not a UNESCO World Heritage site?

Q12. Which of the following is not an embroidery technique?

Q19. The instrument shown can be used for measuring

Q20. Identify the four government schemes shown in this image:

(1) (2) (3) (4)

Q21. Which of the following is a case of "by design, not by accident"?

Q24. Identify the missing number:

Q27. According to the passage, architects need to pay attention to