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Questions
Question 1. What Are The Duties Of A Maintenance And Repair Worker?
Answer :
Building partitions
Make a plaster or drywall repairs
Fix or paint roofs
Fix worn or broken parts
Maintain and repair specialized equipment’s
Inspect mechanical parts like motors, belts, drives, fluid levels and perform other
maintenance actions
Drywall repairs
Answer :
Basic calculation
Safety practices and handling tools
Basic plumbing repair skills
Basic knowledge of electrical wiring
Ability to decipher written or oral instructions
Physical agility
Able to lift and move heavy objects.
Question 3. Mention What Are The Challenges That Maintenance And Repair Work
Usually Face?
Answer :
Question 4. What Is The Potential Risk That Repair And Maintenance Work Usually
Face?
Answer :
The potential risk that repair and maintenance worker faces are:
Faulty electrical: Risk of electrocuted always remains with repair and maintenance workers,
if not equipped with electric-proof tools and attires. They are prone to burns, shocks, etc.
Lifting equipment: Workers usually have to deal with heavy metal objects and lifting
equipment is not inspected or maintained then they are at risk of a fatal accident
Maintenance of working and walking surfaces: Slippery working surfaces, sharp tools and
nails scattered on working surface, slip and trip, uneven and potholed are some potential
hazard that may cause an accident
Dust: It potential risk for the workers specially working in woodworking or iron industries.
Question 5. Mention What Are The Precaution Measures Taken By The Repair And
Maintenance Worker At Working Site?
Answer :
Overhead and side clearances are adequate to permit the safe operation of the lift
truck
Aisles, floors and passageways should be kept clear and free of hazards
To avoid the accumulation of vapours from the refueling and operation of its lift
trucks, workplace should be adequately ventilated.
Question 6. What Care Has To Be Taken Care When Doing Gas Welding?
Answer :
Answer :
To become general maintenance worker the individual should learn some basic skills in high
school or technical classes, community college or postsecondary trade of vocational schools.
Student aspire to become maintenance worker can also observe and learn maintenance skill.
Question 8. While Doing Welding What Are The Safety Measures That Worker
Should Follow?
Answer :
Respirator or welders mask: Use mask or respirators as per your projects, match the filter
to the types of metals and coatings used
Ventilation: Welding area should have proper ventilation; improper ventilation can cause
“plume poisoning.”
Clean and tidy area: Make sure the area you working is clean and check for any leaks
Eye protection: Eye protection can protect against injuries due to debris and the effects of
the ultraviolet light
Fire protection: The sparks from welding can set fire, proper fire extinguisher should be
kept in reach of the welding area
Protective clothing: Body parts like hands and legs should be a cover with protective and
clothes which can bear heat and spark emitted from the welding.
Question 9. What Are The Factors That Can Lead To The Psychological Risks And
Stress?
Answer :
Excessive workloads
Psychological harassment by third party
Conflicting demand and lack of communication
Lack of role clarity
Lacking decision-making skill
Poorly managed organization
Working in overtime
Answer :
Answer :
Question 12. Mention What Are The Tools Used By Road Maintenance Worker?
Answer :
Swiss hammer
Drills
Jackhammers
Road-rollers
Epoxy guns
Chain drags
Pressure washers
Sand blasters, Saws, etc.
Answer :
Answer :
The role of maintenance in maintaining asset value over time is getting more visible at the
business level with the increase in its acquisition and maintenance costs.
various manufacturing systems are introduced along with their distinctive features that
influence maintenance strategies and practices.
Answer :
The oldest type of manufacturing system is the custom manufacturing where a person or a
machine makes a certain product tailored to a specific need. A shoemaker is an example of
this system. Modern manufacturing have intermittent, continuous or flexible production
systems.
Answer :
The most flexible and responsive to changes manufacturing system is the flexible
manufacturing system (FMS). It absorbs sudden large scale changes in production volume,
capacity and capability. FMS produces a product just like intermittent manufacturing and is
continuous like continuous manufacturing.
Answer :
The main advantage of FMS is its high flexibility in managing manufacturing resources. The
resulting gains are numerous including:
However, FMS implementation requires a large initial capital and substantial preplanning. It
also requires high skilled labor.
Other special feature of manufacturing environment that makes it distinct from other
environment is its complicated interrelation with large number of stakeholders, internal and
external. The management structure in manufacturing environment is usually highly
structured with many several decision layers and many parallel functional areas.
Answer :
The main decisive factor for maximizing manufacturing asset value in terms productivity,
reliability, cost, etc. is maintenance management, the body of the organization that is in
charge of planning, implementing, controlling, and improving maintenance activities.
Maintenance management is often considered as a centralized functional unit within the
overall organizational structure in parallel with other functional units such as, production,
Decentralized maintenance units is another common structure adopted by large organizations
with multiple production units. The decision of adopting centralized or decentralized
management structure is usually mad at the high management level taking into consideration,
the size of the organization, the complexity of its operations, and the organization culture.
Question 8. What Are The Elements Included In Technical And Operational Plans?
Answer :
1. Maintenance philosophy
2. Maintenance load forecasting
3. Maintenance capacity
4. Maintenance scheduling.
Answer :
Maintenance philosophy is the step of designing on the general maintenance concept selected
from known best practices as the maintenance philosophy for the organization. Total
productive maintenance and reliability based maintenance concepts are two widely spread
concepts. The selected concept is supported with right combinations of maintenance
strategies such as preventive maintenance, condition based maintenance, and shutdown
maintenance.
Maintenance forecasting is a major part of planning concerned with estimating the current
and future amount of maintenance work and type needed. Maintenance load forecasting is a
complex task that involves a lot of uncertainties and influenced by many factors such as the
age of the equipment, the rate of use, usage climate, and skills of workers.
Answer :
Capacity planning is the translation of the maintenance load into resource needed to meet the
forecasted load. Resources include, number and skills of craftsmen, maintenance tools, labor,
material, spare parts, etc.
Answer :
Answer :
1. Job design
2. Time standards
3. Project management.
Job design involves defining for each major maintenance job, the work content, the method
of maintenance the required skills and the needed tools.
Time standards are determined for major components of major maintenance jobs following
the scientific approach. This helps in controlling maintenance tasks and efficient utilization of
resources. It is also useful for planning and scheduling maintenance activities and forecasting
workload.
Project management is used for optimizing and controlling major complex time consuming
maintenance operations, such as shutdown maintenance projects for large plants. Critical Path
Method (CPM) and Program Evaluation and Review (PERT) are common project
management tools.
Answer :
Controlling activities of maintenance management include the following:
1. Work Control
2. Inventory Control
3. Cost Control
4. Quality Control.
Work control is done using work order system in an integrated data base system for
controlling reporting and analyzing. Intelligent maintenance systems are developed and
integrated with ERP systems are commonly used and proven to be efficient and effective.
Cost control involves tracing all cost components of maintenance activities that include direct
maintenance costs, lost production, equipment degradation, backups, and over maintenance
costs.
Quality control of maintenance work involves assuring that the maintenance work is
following standards and producing the expected results. Control is done by the supervision
and testing final outcomes following a predetermined control procedure.
Answer :
Several maintenance concepts were developed in different parts of the world that are usually
based on cultural and philosophical backgrounds. These trends encompass other strategies
and technologies of maintenance. Some of these concepts are briefly introduced below:
Answer :
TPM is defined as a system of maintaining and improving the integrity of production and
quality systems through the machines, equipment, processes and employees that add business
value to the organization. Total Productive Maintenance (TPM) is a proactive and cost-
effective approach to maximize equipment effectiveness using the principles of teamwork,
empowerment, ‘zero breakdowns’ and ‘zero defects’.
Question 17. What Are The Key Objectives Of Total Productive Maintenance (tpm)?
Answer :
Answer :
Answer :
Reliability Centered Maintenance (RCM) was initiated by the commercial aviation industry
and then adopted by the U.S. military in the 1970s and then by the U.S. commercial nuclear
power industry (in the 1980s) followed by other commercial industries and fields in the early
1990s.
RCM is defined by the technical standard SAE JA1011, as ‘‘an engineering framework that
enables the definition of a complete maintenance regime. It regards maintenance as the means
to maintain the functions a user may require of machinery in a defined operating context’’.
Question 20. What Are The Primary Principles Upon Which Rcm Is Based?
Answer :
The primary principles upon which RCM is based are the following:
Function oriented. It seeks to preserve system or equipment function.
Device group focused. It is concerned with maintaining the overall functionality of a
group of devices rather than an individual device.
Reliability centred. It uses failure statistics in an actuarial manner to look at the
relationship between operating age and the failures. RCM is not overly concerned
with simple failure rate; it seeks to know the probability of failure at specific ages.
Acknowledges design limitations. Its objective is to maintain the inherent reliability
of the equipment design, recognizing that changes in reliability are the province of
design rather than maintenance. Maintenance can only achieve and maintain the level
provided for by design.
Driven by safety and economics. Safety must be ensured at any cost; thereafter, cost-
effectiveness becomes the criterion.
Defines failure as any unsatisfactory condition. Therefore, failure may be either a loss
of function (operation ceases) or a loss of acceptable quality (operation continues).
Uses a logic tree to screen maintenance tasks. This provides a consistent approach to
the maintenance of all kinds of equipment.
Tasks must be applicable. The tasks must address the failure mode and consider the
failure mode characteristics.
Tasks must be effective. The tasks must reduce the probability of failure and be cost
effective.
Acknowledges two types of Maintenance tasks and Run-to-failure. The tasks are
Interval (Time- or Cycle-)-Based and Condition-Based. In RCM, Run-to-Failure is a
conscious decision and is acceptable for some equipment.
A living system. It gathers data from the results achieved and feeds this data back to
improve future maintenance. This feedback is an important part of the Proactive
Maintenance element of the RCM program.
Answer :
To avoid Cavitation, we have to increase the Pump size to One or Two Inch;
To increase the pressure of the Suction Head, or
Decrease the Pump Speed.
Answer :
Centrifugal pump. Because flow rate is higher compared to reciprocating pump. Flow is
smooth and it requires less space to install. Lower initial cost and lower maintenance cost.
Answer :
The centrifugal has varying flow depending on pressure or head, whereas the Positive
Displacement pump has more or less constant flow regardless of pressure.
Likewise viscosity is constant for positive displacement pump where centrifugal pump have
up and down value because the higher viscosity liquids fill the clearances of the pump
causing a higher volumetric efficiency. When there is a viscosity change in supply there is
also greater loss in the system. This means change in pump flow affected by the pressure
change.
One more example is, positive displacement pump has more or less constant efficiency,
where centrifugal pump has varying efficiency rate.
Answer :
Centrifugal pump is a kinetic device. The centrifugal pump uses the centrifugal force to push
out the fluid. So the liquid entering the pump receives kinetic energy from the rotating
impeller. The centrifugal action of the impeller accelerates the liquid to a high velocity,
transferring mechanical (rotational) energy to the liquid. So it discharges the liquid in high
rate. It is given in the following formulae:
Where,
M-Mass
V-Velocity
R-Radius
Answer :
The formation of cavities (or bubbles) is induced by flow separation, or non-uniform flow
velocities, inside a pump casing. In centrifugal pumps the eye of the pump impeller is smaller
than the flow area of pipe. This decrease in flow area of pump results in increase in flow rate.
So pressure drop happened between pump suction and the vanes of the impeller. Here air
bubbles or cavities are formed because of liquid vapour due to increase in temperature in
impeller. This air bubbles are transmitted to pump which forms cavitation.
In a radialflow turbine, steam flows outward from the shaft to the casing. The unit is usually a
reaction unit, having both fixed and moving blades.
Answer :
1. Carbon rings fitted in segments around the shaft and held together by garter or
retainer springs.
2. Labyrinth mated with shaft serration’s or shaft seal strips.
3. Water seals where a shaft runner acts as a pump to create a ring of water around the
shaft. Use only treated water to avoid shaft pitting.
4. Stuffing box using woven or soft packing rings that are compressed with a gland to
prevent leakage along the shaft.
Answer :
Answer :
Answer :
In an impulse turbine, the stage is a set of moving blades behind the nozzle. In a reaction
turbine, each row of blades is called a "stage." A single Curtis stage may consist of two or
more rows of moving blades.
Answer :
Partitions between pressure stages in a turbine’s casing are called diaphragms. They hold the
vaneshaped nozzles and seals between the stages. Usually labyrinthtype seals are used.
Onehalf of the diaphragm is fitted into the top of the casing, the other half into the bottom.
Question 12. What Are The Two Basic Types Of Steam Turbines?
Answer :
1. Impulse type.
2. Reaction type.
Answer :
Topping and superposed turbines arc highpressure, noncondensing units that can be added to
an older, moderatepressure plant. Topping turbines receive highpressure steam from new
highpressure boilers. The exhaust steam of the new turbine has the same pressure as the old
boilers and is used to supply the old turbines.
Answer :
This unit has the ends of the Babbitt bearing extended radically over the end of the shell.
Collars on the rotor face these thrust pads, and the journal is supported in the bearing between
the thrust collars.
Answer :
Answer :
Positive displacement pumps are those that operate by forcing a fixed volume of fluid from
the inlet pressure section of the pump into the discharge zone of the pump.
Answer :
The kinematic viscosity is the ratio of absolute viscosity to the density of the liquid.
Question 18. Differentiate Between The Uniform Flow And Non-uniform Flow?
Answer :
Uniform Flow: The flow is defined as uniform flow when in the flow field the velocity and
other hydrodynamic parameters do not change from point to point at any instant of time.
Non-Uniform Flow: When the velocity and other hydrodynamic parameters changes from
one point to another the flow is dened as non-uniform flow.
Question 19. What Is The Difference Between The Unsteady Uniform Flow And
Steady Uniform Flow?
Answer :
Answer :
Coefficient of contraction is the ratio of area of jet at vena contracta to the area of orifice.
The typical value may be taken as 0.64 for a sharp orifice (concentric with the flow channel).
The smaller the value, the more effect the vena contracta has.
Answer :
The notation CFM (Cubic Feet per Minute) refers to a volume of air produced by the air
compressor at a given pressure or PSI (Pound per Square Inch)
Answer :
A compressor’s duty cycle determines the percentage of run time in a full cycle. A full cycle
is determined by adding the compressor run time to its rest time.
Question 3. Does A Compressor That Has 100% Duty Cycle Mean That I Can Run
The Compressor All The Time? Can I Run My Compressor 24 Hours A Day?
Answer :
No, you’ve got to remember that duty cycle is rated at 100PSI, at an ambient temperature of
72°F, but certainly a 100% duty cycle compressor can run for much longer periods of time
than a 30% duty compressor under the same conditions.
Answer :
Either the 400C 12V air compressoror the 450C 12V air compressor for setup.
Answer :
The 400C pump is rated at 150psi working pressure and the duty cycle on this unit is rated at
33% duty at 100psi in 72 degree ambient temp. The 450C is rated at 150psi working pressure,
the duty is rated at 100% at 100psi at 72 degrees ambient temp. TIP: If you need duty cycle,
go with the 450C. If you want speed, go with the 400C (it is faster than the 450C).
Answer :
PART NUMBER
TA-508: 5.0 Gallon Tank with 8 Ports
PS-150R: 110/150 PSI Pressure Switch
VA00035: 35ft Hose with Close-ended Tire Chuck
Answer :
No, they do not. Typically after an install, you should power up the system from 0 to
whatever the cut-off pressure is and check for any leaks that may be present.
Answer :
You can check for leaks by putting soap and water solution where the fitting connections are.
If there are bubbles present that grow in size, then there are leaks.
Question 9. Does It Matter Where I Install My Compressors On My Vehicle?
Answer :
This depends on several factors such as available space, whether or not the compressor is of a
sealed or vented type, as well as personal preference and aesthetics. Make sure to utilize the
rubber insulators to keep vibration and noise to a minimum.
Question 10. How Can I Tell Whether The Compressor Is Sealed Or Non-sealed?
Answer :
Manufacturers will normally specify if a compressor is sealed against moisture and dust, and
in many cases, you can tell the difference by simply inspecting the compressor. If you see
vents, cracks, or holes in the motor housing, then the compressor is not sealed and must be
kept away from dust and moisture.
Answer :
The preference of a sealed-type compressor is due to the fact that in mobile pneumatics,
compressors are likely to be exposed to outside elements.
Answer :
The 550C is not a sealed unit. If you want to mount a compressor under your truck, you
might want to take a look at our 450 series. While it is not as fast as the 550 series, it is
moisture and dust resistant and can be mounted under your truck. Also, we have new
compressors that are more suited to exterior mounting (420, 460C, and 480C).
Answer :
Yes, you can mount our compressors in any direction or position because they are oil-less.
The only position we do not recommend is an upside-down mount, since heat tends to travel
upward.
Answer :
you mount your compressor sideways to the frame rail, you should periodically check to
make sure that your compressor is mounted securely. Use a thread-locking compound to keep
the screws from backing off and causing the compressor to be mounted loosely.
Answer :
Yes, it is possible to use one pressure switch on more than one compressor. You should
always run a relay if you want to hook up multiple compressors to a single switch. You
should check the amp draw on the switch first, and then you’ll know how many compressors
you can hook up to one switch.
Answer :
May not use adjustable pressure switches with any VIAIR compressor. If you use an
adjustable pressure switch, you can set the pressure switch higher than the maximum pressure
that is rated for your compressor, or you may exceed the maximum rated working pressure
for your air supply tank. Doing so will immediately void your warranty, not to mention, it is
dangerous.
Answer :
Yes, the lower the amp draw, the better the compressor is. As a rule of thumb, the maximum
amperage that a compressor should require is 30amps.
Answer :
In a rotary screw compressor, oil should be changed about every 7000-8000 hours. This
depends on the type of compressor you purchase. For a Reciprocating air compressor,
generally you would change the oil approximately every 3 months. For a more accurate time
frame, call in with a model number to find the recommended schedule for your compressor.
Answer :
If your compressor has an Air Intake Filter, it should be cleaned on a weekly basis (assuming
you are using the compressor about 3 days a week). When the filter starts to develop debris
that is becoming harder to clean out, or you notice any tears or holes in the filter, the filter
should be replaced.
Question 20. What Is The Difference Between Stop-start And Constant Run?
Answer :
Simply put, a start-stop air compressor has a pressure switch that turns the machine on and
off. Most small electric and small gas air compressors are start-stop.
A constant run compressor means the motor continuously runs and continuously turns the
pump. Many industrial shops who need consistent air on a daily basis will purchase a
constant run compressor.
Answer :
It depends on the size of Compressor. Most Homeowner sized small compressors are built to
run on a single 110V Outlet. As you get into larger models, many compressors offer the
choice between 110 to 460 voltage.
Answer :
The compressor should be able to run given the proper requirements, however we
recommend not using a compressor with a generator. Generators have fluctuations in power,
and because a compressor needs constant voltage to be able to run, it is generally best not to
use a generator if no power is available.
Answer :
Compressor tanks are made of steel, which means if water is left in the tank, rust will start to
accrue. Depending on the severity, contact your local service center about the best way to
eliminate the problem. One place to start would be to look into purchasing an air dryer, to
help eliminate the problem.
Answer :
Generally this is caused by two problems - either a failed condensate trap or a failed or
undersized air compressor dryer. To solve the first problem, you will need to either clean the
water trap or simply replace it. The second problem is a bit trickier, as you would need to
repair or replace your air dryer with something larger (unfortunately, this can be a bit pricy).
Answer :
This will depend on the type of compressor that you have. The two most common sizes are
1/4" and 3/8". Check your compressor manual, or give us a call to help find the right size to
use.
Generally, the larger the compressor means the larger size of diameter you can use. Most
homeowner compressor manufacturers would recommend a 1/4" hose diameter.
Question 26. What Is The Maximum Hose Length I Should Use With My
Compressor?
Answer :
This will also depend on the size of compressor and CFM required. The Maximum hose
length is one of the most open ended questions related to air compressors. For a small
homeowner unit, it would be smart not to exceed 150'. For a shop or industrial compressor,
contact your local installation provider or give us a call to help figure out your maximum
length.
Question 27. How Much Air Will I Need To Power My Air Compressor Tool?
Answer :
Generally, most air tools will take around 70-100 PSI, and will consume less than 10 CFM,
however consult the manual or manufacturer of your tool for exact air requirements.
Answer :
Air Compressors do not need to be broken in. Check for any leaks or malfunctions during the
first start-up, but after that you should be ready to go.
Answer :
The tank size you will use will depend on the amount of air that you need stored. A benefit to
a larger tanked air compressors is that the motor will not start and stop as often as a smaller
tanked compressor. However, if you do not believe that you will use a good amount of air, it
may be smarter and cheaper to use a smaller tank.
Question 30. What Is The Difference Between A Rotary Screw Compressor And A
Reciprocating Compressors?
Answer :
A rotary screw compressor is one that utilizes two intermeshing helical rotors to trap a
volume of air, then compress it to a higher pressure. Rotary screw compressors can be run at
lower temperatures for 24 hours per day, 365 days a year.
A piston compressor (aka reciprocating) uses pistons driven by a crankshaft to deliver air at
high pressure.
Answer :
It depends on whether or not you have a continuous duty air compressor or not. A continuous
duty compressor means that it is able to run for long periods of time (aka continuously). This
type of compressor will not have any problems running a larger spare tank.
If it is not continuous duty then it might have a tougher time. Depending on the size of your
machine and the receiver tank, it should be able to handle it. Just be sure that you give it time
to cool off when filling the tank, otherwise you would be going overboard.
Question 32. Why Does My Compressor Leak Air When The Compressor Shuts Off?
Answer :
Most air compressors have a one way check valve between the compressor pump and the air
receiver. When the compressor shuts off the check valve prevents the high pressure air from
traveling back from the receiver to the pump. This allows for an unloader valve to release the
pressure on the pump to atmosphere to allow for easier startup. The unloader system can be
of several different designs. Two of the more common types are pressure switch mounted or
centrifugal mounted on the end of the crankshaft.
Question 33. Why Does The Safety Valve On My Compressor Pump Make A
"popping" Sound?
Answer :
This is most commonly an indication of bad valves. Depending on the model valves could be
rebuilt or replaced.
Question 34. Why Does The Safety Valve On My Tank Blow Off?
Answer :
This is caused by a pressure switch improperly installed, set too high or malfunctioning.
Safety valves do not normally fail on their own.
Question 35. Why Doesn't My Air Compressor Produce As Much Air As It Used To?
Answer :
The most common cause is bad valves. It is also important to check your entire system for
higher air consumption or leaks.
Question 36. Why Compressor Shuts Down On High-temperature?
Answer :
Answer :
They may be integrated, with heating, ventilation and air conditioning provided by a single
system, for example, air handling units connected to ductwork, or they may be a combination
of separate systems, for example mechanical ventilation but with radiators for heating and
local comfort cooling units.
Answer :
The most common central cooling system is a split system, which includes an outdoor cabinet
containing a condenser coil and compressor, and an indoor evaporator coil, usually installed
in conjunction with your furnace. or air handler . The compressor pumps a chemical called
refrigerant through the system.
Answer :
Constant Air Volume (CAV) is a type of heating, ventilating, and air-conditioning (HVAC)
system. In a simple CAV system, the supply air flow rate is constant, but the supply air
temperature is varied to meet the thermal loads of a space. Most CAV systems are small, and
serve a single thermal zone.
Question 4. What Is Variable Air Volume System & Dual Duct System?
Answer :
Answer :
Hydronic systems circulate hot water through warming baseboards, radiators and/or radiant
tubing in your floors or ceilings. There are many advantages to heating your home using a
hydronic system, whether it is for a new home or as a replacement heating system.
Answer :
The Vapor-Compression Refrigeration Cycle is comprised of four steps. ... The condenser is
in contact with the hot reservoir of the refrigeration system. (The gas releases heat into the
hot reservoir because of the external work added to the gas.) The refrigerant leaves as a high
pressure liquid.
Answer :
The compressor does exactly as its name says: it compresses the refrigerant. The compressor
receives low pressure gas from the evaporator and converts it to high pressure gas. As
mentioned earlier, as the gas is compressed, the temperature rises. The hot refrigerant gas
then flows to the condenser.
Answer :
Answer :
The compressor constricts the refrigerant vapor, raising its pressure, and pushes it into
the coils on the outside of the refrigerator.
When the hot gas in the coils meets the cooler air temperature of the kitchen, it
becomes a liquid.
The refrigerant absorbs the heat inside the fridge, cooling down the air.
Answer :
A 4 ton air conditioner is one that can remove 48,000 BTUs of heat per hour from the house.
For most people, though, 4 tons means 8000 pounds. (A BTU is a British Thermal Unit,
approximately the amount of heat you get from burning one kitchen match all the way down.)
Answer :
A ton, as used in the HVAC field, is a term that describes how much heat the AC unit can
remove from a home in one hour. The measurement for heat is the British thermal unit
(BTU). One ton of air conditioning can remove 12,000 BTUs of air per hour.
Answer :
A ton is the cooling capacity of an air conditioning system. One ton is equal to the amount of
heat required (288,000 Btu) to melt one ton of ice in a 24-hour period. A one-ton air
conditioner is rated at 12,000 Btu per hour (288,000/24). A two-ton unit would be rated at
24,000 Btu per hour.
Question 14. What Is Btu?
Answer :
The British thermal unit (Btu or BTU) is a traditional unit of heat; it is defined as the amount
of heat required to raise the temperature of one pound of water by one degree Fahrenheit. ...
Heat is now known to be equivalent to energy, for which the metric unit is the joule; one
BTU is about 1055 joules.
Answer :
Btu – British Thermal Unit (Btu) is the international measure of energy. A Btu is the amount
of heat needed to raise 1 (one) pound of water by 1(one) degree Fahrenheit. In HVAC
industry, Btu's measure the quantity of heat a conditioning unit can remove from a room per
hours. One BTU per hour is equal to 0293 watts.
Answer :
The infiltration rate is the volumetric flow rate of outside air into a building, typically in
cubic feet per minute (CFM) or liters per second (LPS). The air exchange rate, (I), is the
number of interior volume air changes that occur per hour, and has units of 1/h.
Answer :
While the Energy Center usually tries to avoid the use of acronyms, HVAC is in common use
in the heating and cooling industry. It stands for "heating, ventilation and air conditioning,"
three functions often combined into one system in today's modern homes and buildings.
Answer :
An HVAC engineer's job duties can include the design, installation, maintenance, and repair
of heating, ventilation, air conditioning, cooling, and refrigeration systems.
Answer :
Psychometry is a psychic ability in which a person can sense or "read" the history of an
object by touching it. Such a person can receive impressions from an object by holding it in
his/her hands or, perhaps, touching it to the forehead.
Question 20. What Are The Types Of Air Conditioning Systems?
Answer :
The choice of which air conditioner system to use depends upon a number of factors
including how large the area is to be cooled, the total heat generated inside the enclosed area,
etc.
Answer :
The standard method consists of three calculation steps: General lighting VA load. When
calculating branch circuits and feeder/service loads for dwellings, include a minimum 3VA
per sq ft for general lighting and general-use receptacles [220.12]. When determining the
area, use the outside dimensions of the dwelling.
Answer :
An Air Handling Unit (AHU) is used to re-condition and circulate air as part of a heating,
ventilating and air-conditioning system. The basic function of the AHU is take in outside air,
re-condition it and supply it as fresh air to a building.
Answer :
An air handler is usually a large metal box containing a blower, heating or cooling elements,
filter racks or chambers, sound attenuators, and dampers. Air handlers usually connect to a
ductwork ventilation system that distributes the conditioned air through the building and
returns it to the AHU.
Answer :
An air handler, or air handling unit (often called an AHU), is used to condition and circulate
air as part of an HVAC system. An air handler usually contains a blower, heating or cooling
elements, filter racks or chambers, sound attenuators, and dampers.
Question 25. Where The Fcu’s Are Used?
Answer :
A fan coil unit is a simple device consisting of a heating or cooling coil and fan. It is part of
an HVAC system found in residential, commercial, and buildings. Typically a fan coil unit is
not connected to ductwork and is used to control the temperature in the space where it is
installed, or serve multiple spaces.
Answer :
A Fan Coil Unit (FCU) is a simple device consisting of a heating and/or cooling heat
exchanger or 'coil' and fan. It is part of an HVAC system found in residential, commercial,
and industrial buildings.
Answer :
FAHU is the abbreviation used for FRESH AIR HANDLING UNIT. These are usually
centralized units employed to induce fresh air quantities to the confines spaces. They come
into picture wherever there are limitations to fresh air intake either directly or through AHUs.
Answer :
The AC condenser is a very important component found on virtually all modern automotive
AC systems. Its primary function is to convert the refrigerant coming from the compressor
from a high temperature, high pressure vapor into a high pressure liquid through
condensation.
Answer :
In the refrigeration cycle, there are five basic components: fluid refrigerant; a compressor,
which controls the flow of refrigerant; the condenser coils (on the outside of the fridge); the
evaporator coils (on the inside of the fridge); and something called an expansion device.
Answer :
Answer :
Inside the condenser, the refrigerant vapor is compressed and forced through a heat exchange
coil, condensing it into a liquid and rejecting the heat previously absorbed from the cool
indoor area. The condenser's heat exchanger is generally cooled by a fan blowing outside air
through it.
Answer :
The three main types of condensers used in general refrigeration systems are:
1. air-cooled.
2. water-cooled.
3. evaporative.
Answer :
Answer :
A gas compressor is a mechanical device that increases the pressure of a gas by reducing its
volume. An air compressor is a specific type of gas compressor. Compressors are similar to
pumps: both increase the pressure on a fluid and both can transport the fluid through a pipe.
Answer :
The compressor does exactly as its name says: it compresses the refrigerant. The compressor
receives low pressure gas from the evaporator and converts it to high pressure gas. As
mentioned earlier, as the gas is compressed, the temperature rises. The hot refrigerant gas
then flows to the condenser.
Answer :
Hand wash, and try not to spin it. Never wash double shield bearings, only wipe them off
then apply lubricant before wrapping and storing.
Question 2. Besides Storing Bearings On The Shelf, What’s The “correct” Way To
Store Them?
Answer :
Keep bearings in a clean, dry location, and watch temperature changes as drastic changes can
harm the bearing if any moisture is present. Handle bearings as little as possible, as your
fingerprints can promote rusting. Take care not to drop or handle them roughly, they are
precision components. Another best practice is to store them by keeping the oldest at the
front, and always using the oldest bearing first.
Answer :
Lubricant is used to establish and maintain a micro-thick separating film between rotating
and static parts, so that the bearing can perform well, have long life, and keep from being
damaged.
Answer :
Yes, improper lubrication is responsible for approximately 43% of bearing failure – that’s a
lot! Application specific grease or oil is important, as is lubricating frequency, quantity, and
viscosity. Be sure to re-lube at proper intervals, and beware lubricant contamination. And,
take note that over-lubrication of bearings used in high heat applications can be just as
harmful as insufficient lubrication.
Answer :
Not if you want to avoid problems. A shield provides a clearance between the inner and outer
race, whereas a seal is attached to the inner race and could cause problems rubbing on the
inner race, depending on the speed, heat, and starting torque of the machine.
Answer :
Three main indicators – excessive noise, heat, and/or vibration. If these are present more than
expected, you can be pretty certain that a bearings is failing.
Answer :
A couple main ones here. One is contaminating the bearing during installation. The other is
applying force on the incorrect ring, as it should only be applied to the press fitted ring.
Question 8. If My Work Space Is Dirty, How Can I Take Care To Install A New
Bearing Without Messing It Up From The Git-go?
Answer :
It’s understandable, after you’ve taken the time and care to properly store your bearings, that
you would want to be sure to install them in a clean environment. But, that’s tricky. Clean the
work bench area and the tools you will use on the new bearing, and keep away any linty
clothes. Keep the bearing on its original wrapper or some clean paper when working on it.
Don’t let the bearing sit on a dirty surface, even for a short time, or you’ll risk contamination
and early failure. And, remember bearings should not be washed, except for oil mist or
circulating oil system.
Answer :
Not to the extent you might think. Stainless steel is not rust proof. It is corrosion resistant and
will rust in corrosive environments over time, but at a much slower rate than chrome alloy
steel.
Answer :
Bearing seals are designed to retain the lubrication inside the bearing, and most are
considered water-repellent, but they won’t prevent water from entering the bearing if it is
submerged. If the bearing must operate while submerged in a liquid, use a ceramic hybrid or
full ceramic bearing.
Answer :
Radial Play refers to the fit or clearance of the balls within the bearing. The normal range is
from C2 to C5, with C2 being the tightest fit (not much room for expansion of the balls or
misalignment) and C5 being the loosest (allowance for some expansion as the bearing heats
up or misalignment of the application).
Question 12. Can I Flush Out A Lubricant And Use Another?
Answer :
You would need a prescribed flushing agent, and a properly environmentally controlled
environment in a controlled area. The bearing would have to be thoroughly dried post flush,
and lubricated with the correct amount and type of grease. Short answer is yes, with some
extra effort.
Answer :
Bearing Service accepts cash, VISA, MasterCard, American Express, Discover, Diners Club
and company purchase orders on open accounts, subject to credit approval.
Answer :
Bearing Service will ship your order anywhere in the United States or abroad. We use United
Parcel Service and Federal Express for lighter shipments, and a variety of motor freight
carriers for heavy shipments. We will ship same-day on in-stock items for standard shipment.
UPS and Fed-Ex offer standard service, second-day, and next-day shipping.
Question 15. Where Can I Find Product Specifications On Bearings And Other
Products?
Answer :
The best method for obtaining this information is to contact one of our experienced sales
reps. we have extensive resources available to us. If the sales person cannot immediately
answer your question, we will research it and respond in a timely manner.
Answer :
Bearing Service does not publish a catalog for use by our customers. We assume the job of
helping our customers identify and find the products they need, rather than you spending
hours digging through a catalog that only has a small portion of the manufacturer's product
line. We can provide the manufacturer's catalog for any line we represent, giving you
information on the full line of merchandise.
Answer :
Bearing Service is a distributor. We do not manufacture the products we sell, but our shops
can machine, fabricate, and customize a variety of products to meet your maintenance needs.
Answer :
Bearing Service will work with your staff to provide product training for your maintenance
and purchasing people. We will work with various manufacturers to make available their
product training seminars and courses, or we can work with you to customize a seminar for
your needs.
Answer :
Answer :
Gate Valve
Globe Valve
Ball valve
Butterfly Valve
Needle Valve
Plug Valve
Diaphragm Valve
Non-Return Valve
Knife Edge Valve
Drain Valve
Float Valve
Flush Bottom Valve
Pinch Valve
Pen Stack Valve etc.
Answer :
Gate Valve – Body, Bonnet, Seat, Gate, Stem, Hand Wheel, Gland Bush, Gland Flange,
Gland Bolt and Nuts. Hand Wheel lock nut.
Ball Valve – Body , End Piece , Ball , Stem , Seal , Seal Follower , Seat , Lock Nut , Handle
Gland Packing , Gland Flange , Gland Stud and nut.
Globe Valve – Body , Bonnet , Seat , Plug , stem , Hand Wheel , Lock Nut ,Gland Packing ,
Gland Flange , Gland Stud and nut.
Butterfly – Body , Disc , Stem , Seat ring , Seat ring holder , Bush , End cover , Hand Wheel
or Gear Box , Gland Bush , Gland Packing , Gland Flange , Gland Stud and nut.
Answer :
Answer :
Uses:
Answer :
Answer :
Answer :
PRV (Pressure Relief valve) release excessive more than set point, released fluid re
circulated.
PSV (Pressure Safety Valve) released pressure more than set point to safe the
equipments.
Answer :
Body
Bonnet
Nozzle
Disc
Disc Holder
Stem
Blow down ring
Blow down ring lock screw
Spring Bottom Plate
Spring
Spring Top Plate
Control Screw
Lock Nut
Cap
Gasket
SPADE- Give space between two flanges and give flow through the spade.
SPECTACLE – Combination of SPADE and BLIND and both option done in one flange.
Answer :
E.g.) Helmet, Boiler Shout, Safety Goggles, Safety Shoe, Gloves, Dust Mask etc...
Question 12. What Is Heat Exchanger? What Are The Types Of Heat Exchanger?
Answer :
Types:
Question 13. Explain The Following Valves Shell And Seat Testing?
Answer :
Ball Valve
Gate Valve
Globe Valve
Butterfly valve
Plug valve
Testing flange to be fixed on both sides. Pressurized one side under the valve partial
open condition as per the standard. Check the leakage through body, Bonnet sealing area,
Gland packing area.
Question 14. What Are The Testing Mediums Used For Testing?
Answer :
Answer :
Answer :
Answer :
Answer :
E.g. Brass hammer, Brass Wedge, Brass Spanner, Copper hammer, Copper rod , Brass rod ,
Brass chisel , Rubber hammer , Nylon hammer.
Answer :
Answer :
Work Permit is an Authority for doing work in a process plant.
Types:
Answer :
When power is driven from driver pulley to driven pulley by means of belt , it is known as
belt drive. In open belt drive both the pulleys run in the same direction and in cross belt drive
both the pulleys run in opposite direction to each other.
Answer :
Answer :
Answer :
Answer :
Jockey pulley is used to increase the contacting area in between the belt and pulley and also
used to press the belt for giving tension.
Question 6. Define Crowning In Belt Drive?
Answer :
The outer surface or face of rim of the pulley is made in convex form to keep the belt in
center when it is in movement, it is called crowning.
Answer :
To avoid slip or creep, the resin powder or paste is poured in between the outer surface of
pulley and belt for increasing the tension is called dressing.
Answer :
The movement of belt upon the face of rim or outer surface of driver and driven
pulleys within the area of arc of contact is called creep in belt drive.
If the belt is loosely fitted on pulleys, it slips down which is called slip in belt drive.
Answer :
The distance between two pulleys should not be less than three times the diameter of
the larger pulley.
The slack side should be uppermost which may increase the arc of contact.
The ratio of diameter of both the pulleys should not exceed 6:1.
If necessary ,a jockey pulley should be used to minimize the slip.
Answer :
The main advantages of V belt are it has more gripping power, long life and it
occupies less space.
Disadvantages are it is not fit for long distances and cross belt drive.
Answer :
Answer :
Worm drive consists of a worm and worm wheel and the worm wheel is always driven by the
worm. It is suitable for heavy loads and also for speed reduction.
Answer :
It is a common type of gear having teeth in straight. It is used to transmit the motion on
parallel shafts and used for all general purpose for transmitting motion.
Answer :
Addendum is the distance from the top of tooth to the pitch circle.
Dedendum is the distance from the root to the pitch circle of gear tooth.
Answer :
It is distance in straight line from tooth to tooth along the pitch circle.
Answer :
It is the ratio between the pitch diameter and the number of teeth in the gear.
Answer :
Diameteral pitch is the ratio between the number of teeth of a gear and the pitch circle
diameter.
Question 18. Which Gears Are Used To Connect The Shafts Lying In The Same
Plane?
Answer :
Herringbone Gears . Double helical gears are known as Herringbone gears. These
gears have teeth in series on both sides from the centre in the inclined position to the
axis. These type of gears are used to transmit motion at high speed with heavy load
without producing noise.
Helical Gears. These type of gears have teeth in series of single way in an inclined
position. Helical gears are used to transmit the motion at high speed without
producing noise.
Question 20. Which Gears Are Used To Connect The Shafts Which Intersect At Same
Angle?
Answer :
Question 21. Which Gears Are Used To Connect The Shafts At An Angle But Lying
In The Same Plane?
Answer :
Spiral gears
Worm and worm wheel
Answer :
These gears have intersecting axis. Bevel gears are used to connect shafts which are not
parallel and when their axis meet at an angle and found with straight, helical and spiral teeth.
Answer :
Rack is a flat bar having straight teeth in series .It is meshed with a pinion having straight
teeth like spur gear. These type gears used in carriage of lathe and milling machine table.
Answer :
Friction bearings. This type of bearings contact that shaft directly such as bush
bearing ,journal bearing etc. These bearings generally made of cast iron ,brass and
gun metal.
Anti-friction bearings. These type of bearings have rolling elements such as balls,
rollers etc.
Question 25. Why Is The Bearing Tinned Before Refilling?
Answer :
While removing the damaged lining it helps to melt the lining at low temperature and it helps
to spread over the molten metal on the bearing surface.
Answer :
Answer :
Ball bearing is generally used on high speed with light load because it has point
contact.
Roller bearing is generally used on high speed with heavy load because it has line
contact.
Answer :
A taper roller bearing is used to carry heavy loads because it has taper rollers instead of plain
cylindrical rollers.
Answer :
It is generally used on high speed with light load because its bearing metal controls the heat.
Question 30. What Are The Reasons Of Over Heating On Anti-friction Bearings?
Answer :
The main reasons are, inadequate lubrication ,overloading ,miss-alignment and bearing in
defective condition.
Answer :
Bush Bearing. It is a plain cylindrical bearing made of brass , gun metal ,cast iron etc.
Its inner bore is finished and made running fit to the shaft. It is generally used on low
speed shafts carrying light load.
Ball bearing. It consists of outer race, inner race, steel balls and cage. The balls are
rolling themselves in the tracks between the outer and inner races ,bearing is fitted on
shaft while its outer portion is fixed in housing .Balls have point contact and are free
in the races,friction makes balls to rotate.
Answer :
It is a split bearing having two halves which are made of brass, gun metal, etc. Its outer ends
have collar on both sides. IT is fitted in the housing generally made of cast iron. It is used
where the supporting pressure of the bearing is at right angle to the shaft axis.
Question 33. What Are The Advantages Of Anti-friction Bearing Over A Friction
Bearing?
Answer :
Answer :
A cam is a cylinder, plate or other solid with curved outline which is designed to convert
rotary motion into timed irregular motion on the follower which is in contact with it.ie,cams
rotary motion can be changed to reciprocating motion.
Answer :
Radial cam. On this cam the follower operates in a plane perpendicular the axis of the
camshaft which is raised and lowered as the cam revolves.
Cylindrical Cam. On this cam the follower oscillates in a plane parallel with the axis
of the camshaft .
Answer :
Commonly four types of shafts are used in industry:
Main shaft
Counter shaft
Crank shaft
Splined shaft.
Answer :
Answer :
Commonly used followers are, Pointed , Flat faced, Roller and Spherical faced.
Answer :
A Screw jack consists of a body and a square threaded screw rod. Its screw rod has a head
and a revolving pad. This screw rod acts on both directions according to the action of the
lever attached with ratchet arrangement with the handle. It is used to lift the loads therefore it
is mostly used by motor mechanics.
Answer :
Clutch is used to connect and disconnect the driving and driven units of a machine. It does
the function when machine speed is changed after stopping the driving unit.
Answer :
It is a device used to connect two shafts. These are generally used to increase the length of
shafts.
Answer :
It is very common type of coupling used to connect the shafts by means of two flanges. Two
cast iron flanges are fitted with key to the ends of the two shafts to be connected and fastened
together by means of bolts and nuts.
Question 43. Explain About Universal Coupling?
Answer :
It is used to connect two shafts whose axis are not in line with each one center block, two
pins and two pins and two collars with lock pins. The forks are fitted with key on the ends of
two shafts and then joined to a center block having two arms at 90 degree to each other. This
coupling does the function on the action of its two pins. It does not work well if the angle
between the two shafts is more than 45 degree.
Answer :
It connects the shafts with soft materials such as rubber, leather, canvas etc. It adjusts the
little misalignment and controls the vibrations also. It is generally used electric pumps.
Answer :
Pulley block is a block in which two or three group of pulleys are used with a rope to lift and
heavy loads. The load is tied in the hook of the movable block and the effort is applied at the
end of the rope which comes through the fixed pulley block.
Answer :
It is a hollow piece which is used with key to connect the shafts. It may be found in
cylindrical muff,half lap muff or split muff type. A gib head key or a saddle key is inserted
between the coupling and shafts through out for connecting the shafts.
Answer :
It consists of a cylinder and ram. The oil is forced into the cylinder. The load is lifted by this
jack according to the pressure of the oil. In its working system the oil is filled through the oil
plug in the oil reservoir. It has a tube at the lower en d and a non return valve. When the lever
is operated up and down, plunger moves up in the tube supplying the oil and it down the non
return valve which allow the oil into the cylinder which causes the ram raises. The ram raises
according to the pressure of the oil which lift the load accordingly.
Answer :
It consists of two grooved pulleys which are fixed side on the same spindle having chain also.
While another pulley is fitted with clamp in which a lifting hook is provided. One chain
connects the hanging pulley. When a chain is pulled by hand then all the pulleys start
functioning and the hook carries the load. In this way the load is lifted to a required height.
Question 49. What Is The Formula To Find Out The Length Of A Belt In An Open
Belt Drive?
Answer :
Question 50. What Is The Formula To Find Out The Length Of A Belt In A Closed
Belt Drive?
Answer :
L = 2C + 1.57 (D +d ) + (D+d)2/ 4C
Question 51. How To Calculate The Number Of Teeth In A Gear If Given The
Module And Pitch Circle Diameter?
Answer :
Answer :
Pipe threads are grouped in certain ranges such as 1/4” to 3/8” pipe threads have 19 T.P.I , ½
“ to 7/ 8” pipe threads have 14 T.P.I, 1” and above size pipe threads have 11 T.P.I . Pipe
threads may be either straight or tapered.
Answer :
Commonly used pipe fitting accessories are : Socket, Reducing socket, Cross, Union, Stop
valve, Elbow, Union, Plug, Flange, Tee.
Answer :
It is used to hold the pipe firmly and it is fit for rotation on both ways.
Question 55. Explain About Common Types Of Pipe Materials And How Are Pipes
Specified?
Answer :
Pipes are commonly made of cast iron , steel, copper, lead, zinc, galvanized iron(G.I)
wrought iron , aluminium and also cement and plastic pipes are used. Generally pipes are
specified by the length, material, bore size.
Question 56. Describe The Methods Of Protecting Leakage At The Pipe Joint?
Answer :
Threads joints should be fixed applying red lead, white lead, dry point etc. in the
threads, bound the pipe threads using twine and tightened them fully with a suitable
wrench.
Flanged joint should be fixed using a washer of rubber, leather, card board or soft
metal in metal in between the inner sides of both the flanges.
Question 57. What Are The Different Types Of Tools Used In Pipe Fittings?
Answer :
Generally tools used in pipe fittings are Pipe vice, Pipe wrench, Pipe die, Pipe tap, Chain
wrench, Chisel, Hammer, Reamer and Pipe cutter.
Question 58. Explain Briefly The Uses Of Pipe Vice And Pipe Wrench ?
Answer :
Pipe vice. It is used to hold the pipe firmly while cutting, threading etc.
Pipe wrench. It is used fir tightening and loosening the pipes.
Answer :
This joint is generally used to connect cast iron pipes which are buried in ground .This is also
suitable for straight pipe line carrying water and this joint has less rigidity.
Answer :
This joint is used to carry the piping system at high pressure. This joint is provided with
gland and stuffing box which make the joint perfectly steam tight. To prevent leakage
asbestos packing is provided.
Machine Design Interview Questions
Question 1. Define Ductility?
Answer :
It is the property of the material enabling it to be drawn into wire, with the application of
tensile force. It must be both strong and plastic. It is usually measured in terms of percentage
elongation and reduction in area, (e.g.) Ni, Al, and Cu.
Answer :
When a material is subjected to repeated stress, it fails at stresses below the yield point stress;
such type of failure of the material is called fatigue.
Answer :
The ratio between maximum stresses to working stress is known as factor of safety.
Answer :
Endurance limit is the maximum value of completely reversed stress that the standard
specimen can sustain an infinite number (106) of cycles without failure.
Answer :
If the time of load application is less than one third of the lowest natural period of vibration
of the part, it is called an impact load.
Answer :
1. Recognition of need.
2. Definition of problem
3. Synthesis
4. Analysis and optimization
5. Evaluation
6. Presentation
Question 7. What Are The Different Types Of Loads That Can Act On Machine
Components?
Answer :
1. Steady load.
2. Variable load.
3. Shock load
4. Impact load.
Answer :
Answer :
Answer :
Repeated stress refers to a stress varying from zero to a maximum value of same nature.
Reversed stress of cyclic stress varies from one value of tension to the same value of
compression.
1. Ductile fracture
2. Brittle fracture
Answer :
Answer :
Stress concentration is the increase in local stresses at points of rapid change in cross section
or discontinuities.
Stress concentration factor is the ratio of maximum stress at critical section to the nominal
stress.
Answer :
Size factor is used to consider the effect of the size on endurance strength. A large size object
will have more defects compared to a small one. So, endurance strength is reduced. If K is the
size factor, then
Question 15. Explain Griffith Theory. (or) State The Condition For Crack Growth?
Answer :
A crack can propagate if the energy release rate of crack is greater than crack resistance.
Answer :
Question 17. What Are The Factors To Be Considered In The Selection Of Materials
For A Machine Element?
Answer :
While selecting a material for a machine element, the following factors are to be considered
Answer :
Question 19. List Out The Factors Involved In Arriving At Factor Of Safety?
Answer :
1. Material properties
2. Nature of loads
3. Presence of localized stresses
4. Mode of failures
Answer :
Question 21. Explain Notch Sensitivity. State The Relation Between Stress
Concentration Factor And Notch Sensitivity?
Answer :
Notch sensitivity (q) is the degree to which the theoretical effect of stress concentration is
actually reached.
Question 22. What Are The Factors That Affect Notch Sensitivity?
Answer :
1. Material
2. Notch radius
3. Size of component
4. Type of loading
5. Grain Structure
Answer :
Answer :
It is the property of the material, which refers to a relative ease with which a material can be
cut. It is measured in a number of ways such as comparing the tool life for cutting different
material.
Answer :
N curve has fatigue stress on ‘Y’ axis and number of loading cycles in ‘X’ axis. It is used to
find the fatigue stress value corresponding to a given number of cycles.
Answer :
In curved beam the neutral axis does not coincide with the centroidal axis.
Answer :
C frame, crane hook.
Answer :
A plane which has no shear stress is called principle plane the corresponding stress is called
principle stress.
Answer :
Where,
Answer :
Where,
Question 31. What Are The Common Profiles Used For Splines In Machine
Elements?
Answer :
The profiles used for splines in machine elements are straight sided splines, triangular splines
and in volute splines.
Question 32. What Type Of Threads Are Used For Pressure Tight Joints And For
Power Transmission?
Answer :
Pipe threads are used for pressure tight joints and square threads for power transmission.
Answer :
Computer is able to store lot of information and same can be retrieved fast.
It performs calculations very fast. The design can be visualized on screen and any alterations
made and its effects clearly seen. Thus optimum designs can be achieved much faster and
these are thoroughly tested from all angles.
Answer :
In Hazop (Hazards and operatibility) study each and every conceivable process deviation
from normal operating condition of a system having identical design intention, is thoroughly
analysed for causes and consequence and required action plan to mitigate hazard/operability
problems are suggested on the basis of available protective system.
Answer :
When length of the member is increased, the member may fail due to buckling even though
the member is symmetrical in all respects and the load is concentric.
Answer :
Allowance in limits and fits refers to maximum clearance between shaft and hole.
Answer :
Answer :
To prevent relative axial movement between the shaft and the bearing.
Question 39. What Is The Constant Factor In Case Of R-10 Series Of Preferred
Numbers?
Answer :
1.25
Question 40. On What Basis A Transmission Shaft Subjected To Bending Loads Must
Be Designed?
Answer :
Answer :
Question 42. The Critical Speed Of Rotating Shaft Depends Upon What?
Answer :
Question 43. What Is The Empirical Formula Used To Give The Number Of Bolts In
Flange Coupling?
Answer :
n = 0.2d + 3
Answer :
Answer :
Question 46. Rankine’s And Guest’s Theory Of Failure Are Applicable For What
Materials?
Answer :
Rankine’s theory of failure is applicable for brittle materials. Guest’s theory of failure is
applicable for ductile materials.
Answer :
Answer :
Endurance limit or fatigue limit is the maximum stress that a member can with stand for an
infinite number of load applications without failure when subjected to completely reversed
loading.
Question 49. For Tight Leakage Joints, Which Type Of Thread Is Best Suited?
Answer :
Answer :
ACME
Answer :
If a material exhibits same mechanical properties regardless of loading direction, it is
isotropic.
ex:homogeneous cast materials. Materials lacking this property are anisotropic.
Answer :
Orthotropic materials are a special class of isotropic materials which can be described by
giving their properties in three perpendicular directions
ex: wood; composites.
Question 3. A Plain Carbon Steel Has Brinell Hardness Number (bhn) Of 180. What
Are The Values Of Rc, Vhn And Ultimate Strength?
Answer :
Answer :
ii) Strength (for no plastic deformation under static loading) – yield point.
Answer :
The addition of nickel and chromium increases the tensile strength and increase in resistance
to corrosion takes place.
Dislocation refers to a break in the continuity of the lattice. In an edge dislocation, one plane
of atoms gets squeezed out. In screw dislocation, the lattice atoms move from their regular
ideal positions.
Answer :
Answer :
Curie point is the temperature at which ferromagnetic materials can no longer be magnetized
by outside forces.
Question 9. Specific Strength Of Materials Is Very High When They Are In Fibre
Size But Lower When They Are In Bar Form - Why?
Answer :
The crystal structure has ordered, repeating arrangement of atoms. Fibers are liable to
maintain this and thus have high specific strength. As for size increases, the condition of
ordered and repeating arrangements can’t be guaranteed because of several types of defects
and dislocations, and thus the specific strength gets lower.
Answer :
2.5%.
Answer :
Chromium.
Answer :
Yes.
Question 13. Why Is It That The Maximum Value Which The Residual Stress Can
Reach Is The Elastic Limit Of The Material?
Answer :
A stress more than the elastic limit, with no external force to oppose it, we relieve itself by
plastic deformation until it reaches the value of the yield stress.
Question 14. Why Fatigue Strength Decreases As Size Of A Part Increases Beyond
Around 10mm?
Answer :
The perfection of material conditions is possible at lower sizes, and as size increases, it is not
possible to attain a uniform structure of the material.
Answer :
Creep is low and progressive deformation of a material with time under a constant stress at
high-temperature applications. Fatigue is the reduced tendency of material to offer resistance
to applied stress under repeated or fluctuating loading condition.
Question 16. While Normal Carburizing And Nit Riding Surface Treatments Increase
Fatigue Strength, Excessive Treatment May Decrease The Fatigue Strength. Why?
Answer :
Normal carburizes/nits riding treatments increases volume due to phase transformation at the
surface and introduce residual compressive surface stress and thus increases fatigue strength.
By excessive treatment, the high compressive stresses ae introduced but these are balanced by
high internal elastic stresses of equal value, and the surface fatigue cracks may develop in the
regions of the high tensile stress and lead o early fatigue failure.
Question 17. List At Least Two Factors That Promote The Transition From Ductile
To Brittle Fracture?
Answer :
The manner of loading and the rate of loading promote the transition from ductile to brittle
fracture. A machine member may have ductile failure under static loading but may fail in
brittle fashion when the load is fluctuating. Similarly a material may evidence ductile failure
under tensile loading at ordinary testing speed, but if the load is applied at a high velocity
then failure may be brittle.
Question 18. Which Theories Of Failure Are Used For? (a) Ductile Materials (b)
Brittle Materials?
Answer :
For ductile materials, theories of failure used are maximum shear stress theory and maximum
energy of distortion theory;
For brittle materials, the theory of maximum principal stress and maximum strain are used.
Question 19. What Is The Common Element Between The Brass And Bronze Metal
Alloys?
Answer :
Copper.
Answer :
FG 250 alloy designation indicates Grey cast iron with a tensile strength of 250 MPa.
Answer :
Question 22. Give One Example Of Metal Classified As Per Structure As Bcc, Fcc,
Hcp And Ccp?
Answer :
Question 23. What Is The Name Of Solid Solution Of Carbon In Alpha-iron And
Delta Iron?
Answer :
Question 24. Explain The Difference Between Pear Lite And Cementite?
Answer :
Question 25. Give One Example Each Of The Following Proportion Of Materials –
Dimensional, Physical, Technological And Mechanical?
Answer :
Question 26. For Which Parts The Wahl Factor And Lewis Factor Is Used?
Answer :
Wahl factor and Lewis factor is used for springs and gears respectively.
Question 27. How Oxygen Gas Can Be Removed From Steel During Melting? What
Are Fully Killed Steel?
Answer :
Oxygen gas can be removed from steel during melting by adding elements such as
manganese, silicon or aluminium which, because of their high affinity for oxygen, react with
it to form non-metallic oxides such as manganese oxide, silicon oxide and aluminium oxide.
Which rise into the slag. Steels in which have has most of their dissolved oxygen removed
are called ‘fully killed steels’.
Question 28. Hydrogen Cannot Be Removed Easily From Molten Steel. What Harm
Hydrogen Has On Property Of Steel?
Answer :
Excessive hydrogen in molten steel results in the formation of small fissures often described
as hairline cracks or flakes in the steel. Large forgings an alloy steel are particularly sensitive
to this phenomenon.
Question 29. What Is Allot Rope? In What Forms Of Cubic Pattern, Iron Exists?
Answer :
Some elements exist in more than one crystalline form. Each crystalline form is known as
‘allotrope’ of the element. Iron exists in two crystalline forms of cubic pattern, namely, body-
centered cubic (BCC) and face-centered cubic (FCC).
Answer :
A material is known as allotropic aur polytropic if it exists in several forms at a different
temperature.
Question 1. State The Third Law Of Thermodynamics. Give Its Limitations And
Importance.?
Answer :
“The entropy of a perfect crystal of each element and a compound is zero at absolute zero.”
Limitations: If any disorder like impurity or imperfection is found in a substance then the
entropy of such crystal is non-zero at 0 K. For example: The entropy of pure carbon dioxide
and nitric oxide is zero at 0K. This shows that there exists disorder in the arrangement of such
molecules.
This law is applicable only to pure compounds. Thus we can say that, this law is not
applicable to glass which is a supercooled liquid. It is also not applicable to amorphous
substance and supercooled solutions.
Importance:
1. With the help of this law Thermodynamic properties can be calculated and chemical
affinity can be measured.
2. This law helps in explaining the behaviour of solids at very low temperature.
Answer :
1. Zeroth law: If any two systems are in thermal equilibrium with the third system, then
they are also in thermal equilibrium with each other.
2. First law: First law of thermodynamic states that energy can neither be created nor be
destroyed but it can only be converted from one form to another.
3. Second law: This law states that “all processes in nature tend to occur with an
increase in entropy and the direction of change always lead to the increase in
entropy.”
4. Third law: This law states that “The entropy of a perfect crystal of each element and
a compound is zero at absolute zero.”
Question 3. Explain The Following Terms: Isolated System, Open System And Closed
System And Give Example Where Ever Possible.?
Answer :
1. Isolated system: A system that can neither exchange matter nor heat with the
surrounding is known as an isolated system.
For example: Water placed in a vessel that is closed as well as insulated.
2. Open system: A system that can exchange both matter and energy with the
surrounding is said to be an open system.
For example: A reaction taking place in an open vessel exchanges both energy and
matter with the surrounding.
3. Closed system: A system that exchanges only energy and not matter with the
surrounding is said to be a closed system.
For example: A reaction taking place in a closed metallic vessel.
Question 4. Write A Short Note On Gibbs Free Energy And Derive The Equation For
The Same.?
Answer :
This thermodynamic quantity states that the decrease in value during a process is equal
to the useful work done by the system. It is denoted by G and the mathematical
equation is:
G = H – TS
Where,
H = heat content
T = absolute temperature
S = entropy of the system
Therefore,
Now,
ds=dQ/T. Entropy is inversely proportional to the temperature so, as temp. Increases, entropy
decreases.
Question 6. Why Different Types Of Sound Are Produced In Different Bikes, Though
They Run On Si Engines?
Answer :
Engine specifications are different in different manufactures like as Bore Diameter (CC),
Ignition timing. Also the exhaust passage takes more responsible for sound.
Answer :
746.2 Watt
Answer :
Rear wheel sprocket works under the principle of ratchet and pawl.
Answer :
Octane No:-Octane number is defined as the percentage, by volume, of iso octane in the
mixture of iso octane and h-heptane. It is the measure of rating of SI engine.
Cetane No:- Cetane number is defined as the percentage, by volume, of n-cetane in the
mixture of n-cetane and alpha methyl naphthalene. It is the measure of rating of CI engine.
Answer :
Differential mechanism
Question 11. When Crude Oil Is Heated, Which Hydrocarbon Comes First?
Answer :
Question 12. How To Calculate Bearing Number Ti Diameter Of The Inner And
Outer?
Answer :
Divide the shaft diameter size by 5, it will give last two digit of the bearing no. and according
to type of load we have to choose the type of bearing and that will give prior number of the
bearing.
Answer :
Improving the surface finish by Polishing & providing residual stress by Shot peening.
Question 14. What Happens If Gasoline Is Used In A Diesel Engine, Siesel Engine
Will Work?
Answer :
No, It will not work, as the Compression ratio of Petrol engine is 6 to 10 & that of Diesel
engine is 15 to 22. Thus on such high compression, gasoline gets highly compressed & it may
blast.
Answer :
When a material is compressed in one direction, it usuallytends to expand in the other two
directions perpendicular tothe direction of compression. This phenomenon is called the
Poisson effect. Poisson’s ratio is a measure of the Poisson effect.
Answer :
A real gas behaves like an ideal gas in low pressure and high temperature conditions.
Answer :
As per the second law of thermodynamics, any heat input to the system (Heat engine) cannot
be converted completely into useful work. Some energy is lost and that is called 'unavailable
work'. The amount of unavailable work increases as the entropy increases.
Question 18. What Is The Difference Between Heat Transfer And Thermodynamics?
Answer :
Heat transfer deals with the energy analysis which in transition and and depends on the
modes of heat transfer like conduction, convection and radiation or combination of any
modes. Heat transfer deals in non equilibrium domain and conditions while thermodynamics
deals with study of system at equilibrium and does not depend on how heat transfer is
calculated.
Answer :
Not possible. Because thermal radiation becomes only zero at absolute zero temperature
which can never be attained by the third law of thermodynamics.
Answer :
There always a debate between differentiation of pipe and tube. Pipe is always
designated by its Inside Diameter (ID) because main purpose of pipe is to carry fluid,
while the
Tube is always designated by its Outside Diameter (OD). Pipe's thickness is
sometimes called as schedule and tube's thickness is gauge.
As per the tolerance basis, tubes requires higher tolerances as to that of pipe and tubes
are more costlier in manufacturing compared to pipe production.
Answer :
The function of flywheel is to store the energy/power produced during the power stroke of an
engine and this stored energy is used during remaining stroke to make piston up and down
during working of engine while governor tries control the speed of an engine due to variation
in load. It does this work by reducing or increasing the amount of fuel passing to the engine.
Answer :
All the mechanical engineering systems are studied with the help of thermodynamics. Hence
it is very important for the mechanical engineers.
Answer :
There are three laws of the thermodynamics.
1. First Law : Energy can be neither created nor destroyed. It can only change forms.In
any process in an isolated system, the total energy remains the same.
2. Second Law : When two isolated systems in separate but nearby regions of space,
each in thermodynamic equilibrium in itself, but not in equilibrium with each other at
first, are at some time allowed to interact, breaking the isolation that separates the two
systems, and they exchange matter or energy, they will eventually reach a mutual
thermodynamic equilibrium. The sum of the entropies of the initial, isolated systems
is less than or equal to the entropy of the final exchanging systems. In the process of
reaching a new thermodynamic equilibrium, entropy has increased, or at least has not
decreased.
3. Third Law : As temperature approaches absolute zero, the entropy of a system
approaches a minimum.
Answer :
According to the laws of conservation of energy, “energy can neither be created nor be
destroyed. It can only be transformed from one form to another.”
Answer :
Answer :
It was being designed by Carnot and let me tell you that Carnot engine is an imaginary engine
which follows the Carnot cycle and provides 100% efficiency.
Question 27. Which Formula Forms A Link Between The Thermodynamics And
Electro Chemistry?
Answer :
Gibbs Helmholtz formula is the formula which forms the link between the thermodynamics
and electromagnetism.
Answer :
Diamond.
Answer :
According to the Hess law the energy transfer is simply independent of the path being
followed. If the reactant and the product of the whole process are the same then same amount
of energy will be dissipated or absorbed.
Question 30. Which Has More Efficiency: Diesel Engine Or Petrol Engines?
Answer :
Off course Diesel engine has the better efficiency out of two.
Answer :
The entropy of the universe increases over time and moves towards a maximum value.
Answer :
Wet bulb temperature is measured in a wet bulb thermometer by covering the bulb with a
wick and wetting it with water. It corresponds to the dew point temperature and relative
humidity.
Answer :
When a moment is applied to bend an element, a bending moment exists in the element.
Question 34. What Are The Points In The Stress Strain Curve For Steel?
Answer :
Proportional limit, elastic limit or yield point, ultimate stress and stress at failure.
Answer :
Reynolds number is the ratio of inertial force and viscous force. It is a dimensionless number.
It determines the type of fluid flow.
Answer :
A Newtonian fluid possesses a linear stress strain relationship curve and it passes through the
origin. The fluid properties of a Newtonian fluid do not change when any force acts upon it.
Answer :
Answer :
Answer :
Otto cycle can be explained by a pressure volume relationship diagram. It shows the
functioning cycle of a four stroke engine. The cycle starts with an intake stroke, closing the
intake and moving to the compression stroke, starting of combustion, power stroke, heat
exchange stroke where heat is rejected and the exhaust stroke. It was designed by Nicolas
Otto, a German engineer.
Answer :
6 is the type code, which shows it is a single-row ball bearing, 2 is the series, means light, 03
is the bore, which is 17 mm and ZZ is the suffix meaning double shielded bearing.
Answer :
It is the ratio of the number of revolutions of the pinion gear to one revolution of the idler
gear.
Answer :
It is a process of heating a material above the re-crystallization temperature and cooling after
a specific time interval. This increases the hardness and strength if the material.
Answer :
Answer :
It is the temperature below which the tendency of a material to fracture increases rather than
forming. Below this temperature the material loses its ductility. It is also called Nil Ductility
Temperature
Answer :
Answer :
Air and flue gas circuit consists of forced draught fan, air preheater, boiler, furnace,
superheater, economizer, dust collector, induced draught fan and chimney.
Question 3. What Consists Of Feed Water And Steam Flow Circuit In Steam Power?
Answer :
The feed water and steam flow circuit consists of feed pump, economizer boiler drum super
heater, turbine and condenser.
Question 4. What Consists Of Cooling Water Circuit And Coal & Ash Circuit In
Steam Power Plant?
Answer :
The cooling water circuit consists of a pump, condenser and cooling tower. The coal and ash
circuit consists of coal delivery, preparation of coal, handling of coal to the boiler furnace,
ash handling and ash storage.
Answer :
The main purpose of reservoir is to store water received from catchments areas during the
rainy seasons and supply the same during the dry season.
Answer :
The main purpose of the dam is to increase the height of water level and also to increase the
working head of the hydraulic power plant.
Answer :
The trash rack is used to prevent the entry of debris, which might damage the turbine runners
and chock up the nozzle of impulse turbine.
Answer :
The surge tank is used to provide better regulation of water pressure in the system. The surge
tank controls the water when the load on the turbine decreases and supplies water when the
load on the turbine increases. Thus, surge tank controls the pressure variations resulting from
the rapid changes in water flow in penstock and hence prevents water hammer.
Answer :
Forebay is considered as naturally provided surge tank. It is temporary water storage when
the load on the plant is reduced and provides water for initial increment on increasing load.
Answer :
The pipe between surge tank and prime mover is known as penstock. It is designed to
withstand high pressure. It is made up of reinforced concrete. In very cold areas, the penstock
is buried to prevent ice formation and to reduce the expansion joints.
Answer :
Spillway is like a safety valve of the dam. It discharges major flood without damaging the
dam. It keeps the reservoir level below the maximum level allowed.
Answer :
Prime mover converts the kinetic energy of water into mechanical energy to produce
electrical energy. Pelton wheel, turbine, Francis turbine, Kaplan turbine and Propeller turbine
are prime movers used in hydraulic power plants.
Question 13. What Are The Uses Of Air Filter And Superchargers In Diesel Engine
Power Plant?
Answer :
The purpose of air filter is to filter the air from dust and other suspended particles. The
purpose of super charger is to increase the pressure of the engine to increase power of the
engine.
Answer :
The draft tube is used to regain the kinetic energy of water coming out of reaction turbine. It
enables the reaction turbine to be placed over tailrace level.
Question 15. What Is The Function Of Cooling System In Diesel Power Plant?
Answer :
The function of cooling system is to remove heat from the engine cylinder to keep the
temperature of the cylinder in low range and extend engine life.
Question 16. What Consists Of Lubrication System In Diesel Engine Power Plant?
Answer :
The lubrication system consists of oil pumps, oil tanks, filters, coolers and connecting pipes.
The purpose of the lubrication is to reduce the friction of moving parts and also pipes to
reduce the wear and tear of moving parts.
Question 17. What Is The Purpose Of Inter Cooler In Gas Turbine Power Plant?
Answer :
Since the power required compressing the air is less in isothermal process it is required to
maintain the, temperature of air constant as far as possible. Hence the air leaving the L.P.
compressor is cooled by intercooler and then passed to the H.P compressor.
Answer :
Question 19. Define Turbo Charging In Combined Gas Turbine And Diesel Cycles?
Answer :
In the combined cycle, the exhaust gas from the diesel engine is expanded in the turbine,
which is coupled with compressor which supplies pressurized air to the diesel engine. This
increases diesel engine output. This arrangement is known as turbo charging.
Answer :
The high-pressure boilers are used to increase the efficiency of the plant and to reduce the
cost of electricity production.
Answer :
The amount of scale formation is less, since the velocity of water through pipes are
more.
All parts of the system are heated uniformly, so there is no danger of overheating.
Answer :
La Mont boiler
Benson boiler
Loeffler boiler
Velox boiler.
Question 23. Write About La Mont Boiler? What Is The Major Disadvantage Of La
Mont Boiler?
Answer :
The major disadvantage is the formation of bubbles, salt and sediment on the inner surfaces
of the heating surfaces. This reduces the heat flow and steam generation.
Question 24. Write About Benson Boiler? State Some Important Advantages Of
Benson Boiler?
Answer :
Benson boiler is the high pressure, vertical fire tube boiler. This boiler has no drum and is
~designed to operate at critical pressure of 225 bars. Benson boiler has no drum.
So the total weight of the Benson boiler is reduced by 20%, when compared to other boilers.
The erection of Benson boiler is easier and quicker.
Answer :
The major disadvantage in La Mont boiler is the deposition of salt and sediment on the inner
surface of the water tubes. It reduces the heat transfer and ultimately the steam generating
capacity.
In Loeffler boiler, this problem is solved by preventing water from flowing through the boiler
tubes. The steam is generated outside the tubes.
Answer :
If the dryness fraction of steam leaving the turbine is less than 0.88, then, corrosion and
erosion of turbine blades occur. To avoid this situation, reheat is used.
In the reheat cycle, the expansion of steam takes place in one (or) more turbines. Steam is
expanded in the HP turbine first, and then it is reheated. The reheated steam is again
expanded in. the LP turbine.
Answer :
Answer :
Gas Reheating.
Live stream reheating.
Combined gas live steam reheater.
Answer :
Answer :
Regeneration means heating the feed water by steam taken from the turbine. The steam is
exhausted (bled) from the turbine at several locations before exhaust and is supplied to
regenerative (feed water heater) to heat the feed water.
Answer :
Question 32. Name Different Methods Used To Extract Steam For Heating The Feed
Water?
Answer :
Answer :
Waste heat is the heat which is not at all used and exhausted out as a waste product. Waste
heat is normally available from the industry in the form of process steam and water at high
temperature.
Also, the waste heat is discharged with the exhaust gases in so many industries. This heat can
be recovered for useful purpose. This process is known as waste heat recovery.
Question 34. What Are The Waste Materials, Which Can Be Used For Fuel For
Power Generation?
Answer :
Municipal waste.
Industrial waste.
Paper waste.
Rubber waste.
Answer :
The waste heat boilers use the waste heat in gases coming out of diesel engines and gas
turbines at high temperature (or) use the waste as a fuel in the incineration.
Some boilers use the industrial dirty gases for power generation.
Answer :
When the high velocity gas is passed through a packed bed of finely divided solid particles,
the particles become suspended in the gas stream and the packed bed becomes a fluidized
bed. When the gas velocity is very high, the fluidized bed become turbulent and rapid mixing
of particles occurs. Ultimately, the, behaviour of mixture solid particles and gas become a
fluid. Burning of a fuel in such a state is known as Fluidized Bed Combustion. The boiler
plant using this fluidized bed combustion is known as fluidized bed boilers.
Answer :
Any type of fuel solid, liquid (or) gaseous fuel (or) domestic and industrial waste can
be used in FBC system. Any type of combustible matter can be burned by adjusting
the factors as size, air velocity and rate of feed.
High heat transfer rate is possible to the surfaces immersed in the bed, because solid
mixing is extremely possible.
High combustion efficiency.
The solid fuel need not be pulverized in fluidized bed boilers.
Answer :
Out plant handling includes the handling of coal mine to the thermal power plant. These
handlings are outside the plant in the following ways.
Answer :
In order to handle large quantity of coal inside the plant, some mechanical handling systems
are provided f6r smooth, easy and better controlled operation. The implant coal handling is
divided, into following categories.
Coal unloading
Coal preparation
Coal transfer
Coal storage
Answer :
The coal from coal nines cannot be directly fed into the furnace. Proper preparation of coal
should be done before feeding the coal to the furnace. In the coal preparation, the coal passes
through the different equipments like
1. Crushers
2. Sizers
3. Dryers and Magnetic Separators.
Answer :
1. Belt conveyors
2. Screw conveyors
3. Bucket elevators
4. Grab bucket elevators
5. Skip hoists
6. Flight conveyors.
The coal transfer starts by carrying of coal from unloading point to the storage site.
Answer :
Belt conveyors are mostly used for transporting coal over long distance with large quantity.
An endless belt is made to run over a pair of end drums and pulleys and supported by series
of roller at regular intervals.
Answer :
In screw conveyor, an endless helicoids screw is fitted to the shaft. On one end of the shaft,
the driving mechanism is fitted and the other end of the shaft is supported on a ball bearing.
While the screw is rotating, the coal is transferred` from one end to the other end.
Bucket conveyors are used as vertical lifts. The coal is loaded at the bottom and unloaded at
the top in the bucket conveyors.
Question 45. Define Draught, What Is The Use Of Draught In Thermal Power Plants?
Answer :
Draught is defined as a small pressure difference required between the fuel bed (furnace) and
outside air to maintain constant flow of air and to discharge the gases through chimney to the
atmosphere. Draught can be obtained by chimney, fan, steam jet (or) air jet (or) combination
of these.
Answer :
1. Natural draught
2. Artificial draught
Answer :
The tall chimney creates the natural draught by the temperature difference between hot gases
in the chimney and cold atmospheric air outside the chimney.
Answer :
In modem power plants, the draught should be flexible to meet the fluctuating loads and it
should be independent of atmospheric conditions. To achieve this, the aid of draft fans
becomes must and by employing the draft fans, the height of the chimney would be reduced.
Answer :
In this system, the blower (forced draft fan) is located at the base of the boiler near the grate.
Air is forced to the furnace by forced fan and the flue gases are forced to chimney through
economizer and air preheater.
Answer :
Since the fan handles cold air, the fan size and the power required are less.
No need of water cooled bearings because the air being handled is cold air,
Pressure throughout the system is above atmospheric pressure so the air leakage into
the furnace is reduced.
Answer :
In an induced draught system, a blower (induced draft fan) is placed near (or) at the base of
the chimney. The fan sucks the flue gas from the furnace creating a partial vacuum inside the
furnace. Thus atmospheric air is induced to flow through the furnace to aid the combustion of
fuel. The flue gases drawn by the fan passes through chimney, to the atmosphere.
Question 52. Why The Balanced Draught System Is Preferred Than Other System?
Answer :
In the induced draught system, when the furnace is opened for firing, the cold airs enters the
furnace and dilate the combustion. In the forced draught system, when the furnace is opened
for firing, the high pressure air will try to blow out suddenly and furnace may stop.
Hence the furnace cannot be opened for firing (q) inspection in both, systems. Balanced
draught, which is a combination of induced and forced draught, is used to overcome the
above stated difficulties.
Question 53. What Is The Difference Between Stocker Firing And Pulverized Fuel
Firing?
Answer :
The stocker firing method is used for firing solid coal where as pulverized firing method is
used for firing pulverized coal.
Answer :
Question 55. What Is The Use Of Pulveriser And Name Different Types Of
Pulverising Mills?
Answer :
The pulveriser is used to pulverise the coal in order to increase the surface exposure.
Pulverised coal enables rapid combustion.
1. Ball mill
2. Hammer mill
3. Ball and race mill.
Question 56. Name The Two Methods Of Pulverized Fuel Firing System?
Answer :
Question 57. What Are Advantages Of Unit (or) Direct System Of Pulverized Fuel
Firing?
Answer :
Answer :
Answer :
Answer :
Gravitational separators
Bag house dust collector
2. Cyclone. Separators
3. Electrostatic Precipitator (ESP)
Question 61. What Is The Main Purpose Of Chimney?
Answer :
The main purpose of chimney is to emit the flue gases at a considerable height to avoid
nuisance to the surrounding people.
Question 62. What Are The Different Types Of Load Act On The Chimney?
Answer :
Its own weight which is considered to as a single vertical force acting through the
centroid, and
The Wind pressure, which is considered as the horizontal force acting on the centroid
of vertical projected area.
Answer :
1. Steel chimney
2. Site constructed chimney
3. Plastic chimney
Question 64. Define Forced Draft And Induced Draft Cooling Towers?
Answer :
If the fan is located at the bottom of the tower and air is blown by the fan up through the
descending water it is called as forced draft cooling towers.
If the fan is located at the top of the tower and airs enters through the louvers located on the
tower’s side and drawn up and discharge through the fan casing, it is called as induced draft.
Question 65. What Are The Advantages Of Induced Draft Cooling Tower Over
Forced Draft Cooling Tower?
Answer :
1. The outlet water comes in contact with the driest air and warmest water comes in
contact with most humid air.
2. The re-circulation is seldom a problem.
3. The first cost is low due to the reduction in pump power consumption.
Since no fans are used power cost and auxiliary equipments cost is reduced.
Hyperbolic tower chimney creates its own draft even when there is no wind.
Ground fogging and warm air re-circulation are avoided in hyperbolic towers.
The structure is more or less self-supported.
Question 67. What Are The Factors That Affect The Rate Of Evaporation Of Water
In Cooling Towers?
Answer :
Answer :
The hot water is sprayed from the top of the tower, while the air is made to flow from the
bottom of the tower to the top. This air cools the hot water in the cooling tower. Air
evaporates a small percentage of water, there by cooling the remaining water.
The air absorbs the heat and leaves at the top of the tower and cooled water leaves at the
bottom and recirculated to the condenser.
Answer :
Question 70. How The Atmospheric (or) Natural Draught Cooling Towers Are
Classified?
Answer :
In atmospheric (or) natural cooling towers, the natural air provides the required cooling
without the use of fans.
Answer :
Question 72. How The Dry Type Cooling Towers Are Classified?
Answer :
The dry type cooling towers are classified into two types ‘as follows:
Question 73. What Are The Methods To Reduce The Effects Of Particulates?
Answer :
Coal cleaning.
Using improved electrostatic precipitator design.
Controlling the dust within allowable limit. This can be done by increasing the height
of chimney thereby reducing the concentration.
Question 74. What Are The Equipment Used For Ash Collection?
Answer :
Electrostatic precipitator
Fly ash scrubbers
Cinder catcher
Cyclone dust collector
Question 75. What Is Meant By ‘desulphurization’ And Name The Methods Adopted
For Desulphurization?
Answer :
Desulphurization of fuel is the process of reducing the sulphur content in the fuel. The
following methods are adopted for desulphurization.
Chemical treatment
Forth flotation
Magnetic separation
Question 76. What Are The Methods Adopted To Remove’ S02 Flue Gases?
Answer :
1. Wet scrubbing
2. Solid absorbent
3. Catalytic oxidation
Answer :
In thermal power plants, it is necessary to keep the concentration Of CO2 is low is necessary
as possible. To achieve this, a constant recording of concentration Of CO2
These recorders are based on the three different principles, as given below.
Question 78. Name Some Of The Automatic Controlling Methods For Feed Water?
Answer :
Answer :
The main purpose of automatic combustion’ control system is to maintain load against
demand, to prevent smoke, to increase boiler house efficiency, to carry out routine
adjustments and to provide interlocking safe guards.
Question 80. What Are The Appliances Known As Boiler Accessories?
Answer :
The appliances used to increase the efficiency of the boiler are known as boiler accessories.
1. Economizer
2. Super heater
3. Air preheater
4. Feed pump
5. Injector
Question 81. What Are The Methods Adopted To Remove So2 From Due Gases?
Answer :
1. Wet scrubbing
2. Solid adsorbent
3. Catalytic oxidation
Question 82. What Is The Necessity Of Automatic Controls For Feed Water?
Answer :
The electrical load on power plant varies irregular manner. The automatic man control
provided at a steam power plant successfully meets over the variable load. The automatic
control for feed water is necessary sine the supply of feed water depends upon plant load.
Answer :
Air pre heater is used to transfer heat from the flue gases to the air before it passes into the
furnace for combustion. It is placed between the economizer and chimney. The overall
efficiency of the plant may be increased by 10 per cent by the use of air preheater.
Answer :
The devices used for the efficient operation, proper maintenance, and safe operation boiler
mountings.
Answer :
Steam is generated in boilers under certain conditions of feed water and exists as steam while
a certain amount of fuel is burnt.
To study the performance of boiler, some experiments are conducted by operating, the boiler
for a certain length of time and recording the data. This procedure is known as boiler trial.
Answer :
To determine the thermal efficiency of the boiler when working at a definite pressure.
To draw up heat balance sheet for the boiler to check the performance of the boiler.
Answer :
Answer :
Load curve is a graphical representation between load in kW and time in hours. It. shows
variation of load at the power station. The area under the load curve represents the energy
generated in a particular period.
Answer :
Load factor is defined as the ratio of average load to the peak load (or) maximum demand.
Answer :
Fixed cost includes the following cost.
1. Cost of land
2. Cost of building
3. Cost of equipment
4. Cost of installation
5. Interest
6. Depreciation cost
7. Insurance
8. Management cost
Answer :
Cost of fuel
Cost of operating labour,
Cost of maintenance labours and materials.
Cost of supplier like
Water for feeding boilers, for condenser and for general use.
Answer :
Depreciation cost is the amount to be set aside per year from the income of the plant to meet
the depreciation caused by the age of service, wear and tear of the machinery and
equipments. Depreciation amount collected every year helps in replacing and repairing the
equipment.
Answer :
The nucleus contains protons and neutrons. The number of protons in a given atom is an
atomic number (Z). The atomic number for H is 1 and He is 2.
Answer :
Some elements have the same number of protons in the nucleus but different number of
neutrons. As a result, these elements have the same atomic number but different mass
number. Such type of elements which ‘have the same atomic number – same number of
protons the same chemical properties but different mass numbers due to different number of
neutrons, are known as in the isotopes of an element.
Answer :
Answer :
Answer :
There are materials like U 235 and Th232 which are not fissile but can be converted into
fissile materials by the bombardment of neutrons. Such materials are known as fertile
materials.
The process of converting more fertile material into fissile material in a reaction is known as
breeding.
Answer :
It must be as light as possible It must slow down the neutron as quick as possible.
It must have resistance to corrosion.
It must have good machinability.
It must have good conductivity and high melting point.
Answer :
Answer :
Fast reactors, Thermal reactors, natural fuel reactors, Enriched Uranium reactors, water
moderated reactors, heavy water moderated reactor, graphite moderated reactor, gas cooled
reactors and Sodium cooled reactors.
Answer :
Answer :
Answer :
Answer :
Answer :
Answer :
The working principle of MHD is as like that of dynamo. Instead of solid conductor high
temperature plasma is passed through the magnetic field at sonic speed. When the gas is
passed through magnetic field, current is induced. Electrodes collect this induced current.
Answer :
The control rods are used to start the chain reaction, maintain the chain reaction at required
level and to shut down the reactor during emergency.
Question 108. What Are The Different Types Of Load Acting On The Chimney?
Answer :
Its own weight which is considered to act on single vertical force acting through the centroid
The wind pressure, which is considered to act on the horizontal force acting on the centroid
of vertical projected area.
Answer :
Uranium exists in different isotopes of U 238, tP34 and U 235. Out of these, EP35 is most
unstable.
When unstable heavy nucleus is bombarded with high-energy neutrons, it splits up roughly
into two equal fragments and about 2.5 neutrons are released and a large amount of energy is
produced. This process is called nuclear fission.
Answer :
1. Nuclear fuel
2. Moderator
3. Control rods
4. Reflectors
5. Reactor vessel
6. Biological shielding
7. Coolant
Question 111. State Some Advantages Of Pressurized Water Reactor?
Answer :
Question 112. What Are The Advantages Of Gas Cooled Reactor Nuclear Power
Plant?
Answer :
Answer :
The process of producing fissionable material from a fertile material such as uranium 238 (U
238) and thorium 232 (Th 232) by neutron absorption is known as breeding.
Question 114. Name The Coolants Commonly Used For Fast Breeder Reactors?
Answer :
Answer :
A inventory should be taken at least once a year. If items are perishable, seasonal or highly
demanded a inventory should be taken more often.
Answer :
Yes, In the market today there are many computer software packages that can compute
forecasted demand for goods held in inventory.
Answer :
Answer :
Yes, through the use of forecasts inventory levels can be set to meet the demands while
keeping levels as low as possible.
Answer :
Answer :
Are those basic inputs that are converted into finished product through the manufacturing
process. Raw materials inventories are those units which have been purchased and stored for
future productions.
Answer :
A order point is a point in time at which a order is placed to replenish goods in inventory.
Answer :
Demand is the quantity that customers are willing to buy. Demand can be found through
forecasting and is needed to find the EOQ level.
Answer :
An order quantity is the amount of goods that an order requests be shipped to the store.
Question 10. Tell Me What Types Of Forecasting Can I Do?
Answer :
There are two types of forecasting qualitative and quantitative. Qualitative uses personal
opinions to determine forecasts. Quantitative uses numerical data and statistical modeling to
determine forecasts.
Answer :
Lead time is the period of time from which a order for goods is placed until it is received by
the store. Lead time is an important consideration for determining when orders should be
placed.
Question 12. Suppose I Get A Discount Will It Effect The Eoq Model?
Answer :
Yes, a discount will cause the basic EOQ model to fail. To use a discount in determine a
EOQ you must use the EOQ model with quantity discounts.
Answer :
A cycle count is an inventory auditing procedure, which falls under inventory management,
where a small subset of inventory, in a specific location, is counted on a specified day. Cycle
counts contrast with traditional physical inventory in that a full physical inventory may stop
operation at a facility while all items are counted at one time.
It helps to see the difference between Actual stock and Book Stock. Book Stock is the stock
available in the system.
Answer :
The EOQ formula is the square root of 2 times demand times order completion cost divided
by carrying cost. The mathematical formula is square root of 2DS/C.
Question 15. Tell Me What Do The Letters In The Eoq And Stocking Cost Formula
Stand For?
Answer :
The letters in the formulas represent the quantity ordered(Q), the carrying cost of a unit(C),
the demand for the units(D) and the cost of completing a order(S).
Question 16. Tell Us What Does Inventory Affect In A Store?
Answer :
Inventory levels and their values can affect the income of the store, the amount of taxes paid,
and the total stocking cost.
Question 17. Tell Me What Skills Make You Great At What You Do As An Inventory
Specialist?
Answer :
I am a stickler for perfection and organization. In addition to this, I possess great leadership
qualities which make it easy for me to direct personnel to do their job properly. Possessing
knowledge of accounting procedures makes it easy for me to manage related bookkeeping
and budget management tasks.
Answer :
Interference is a factor in forecasting demand. Interference is made up of all the factors that a
forecaster has no control over. Factors that may be considered interference include natural
disasters, unusual customer demands, or rare events in the business period.
Question 19. Do You Know As An Inventory Specialist, What Are Your Specific
Duties?
Answer :
Answer :
At the beginning of a reporting period, or after a cycle count, the stock available in your
inventory account is the Opening Stock. It is also called as Beginning Inventory.
So, there's an Opening Stock. Then, lots of transactions happens - Items are purchased and
Sold. And finally Closing Stock is calculated.
Closing stock is the amount of inventory that a business still has on hand at the end of a
reporting period. This includes raw materials, work-in-process, and finished goods inventory.
The amount of closing stock can be ascertained with a physical count of the inventory. It can
also be determined by using a perpetual inventory system and cycle counting to continually
adjust inventory records to arrive at ending balances.
Answer :
Times for reordering goods vary dependent on the control system you use and its lead time.
In fixed order quantities reorders should be placed when the safety stock is reached. In fixed
period systems the reordering is done at set time periods. In just in time systems reordering is
based on matching the demand with supply. For just in time a close watch on inventory levels
is needed so that reorders are placed before goods are out of stock.
Question 22. Explain Me What If There Is No Savings Or The Models Produce Even
Results?
Answer :
If there is no savings a error in the calculations may have occurred or the model does not fit
your case. For instances were the total stocking costs are even you may use either order
quantity.
Answer :
Question 24. Tell Me What Are The Important Considerations In Inventory Control?
Answer :
For inventory control to work at its best a store must consider the costs of acquisition,
carrying, ordering, and stock-out. the store must also look at its reordering system, its
budgeting for inventory, insurance and forecasted demand.
Answer :
Once you've reduced inventories, you'll have to put new processes in place to lower them
even more over time. We use an analytical tool that highlights the biggest levers for
continually reducing inventory.
For example, instead of working to improve sales forecast accuracy from 70 percent to just
75 percent, establishing a team that's focused on reducing lead times from Asian suppliers
may have more impact.
Answer :
A weighted inventory average determines the average cost of all inventory items based on the
inventory items' individual cost basis and the quantity of each item held in inventory.
When a business purchases items for inventory, the business may pay different prices for the
inventory items. This price differential can apply to both different inventory items and the
same inventory items purchased at different times.
The average cost is computed by dividing the total cost of goods available for sale by the
total units available for sale. This gives a weighted-average unit cost that is applied to the
units in the ending inventory.
Weighted Average Unit Cost = Total Cost of Inventory / Total Units in Inventory
For Ex:
In that we sold 3 items. 7 qty left in stock. Total cost of those 7 items = 7 x 10 = 70 AED.
After 3 months, item A cost is reduced to 8 AED. And then we bought 10 more for 8 AED.
Now, we have 7 items bought for 10 AED and 10 items bought for 8 AED.
Total 17 items.
Now, when we calculate the weighted average cost of the 17 items which are to be sold = 150
AED/17 = 8.82 AED.
Question 27. Do You Know Who Decides Key Inventory-related Policy Such As
Striking The Right Balance Between Customer Service And Cost-effective Product
Inventory Levels?
Answer :
Many decisions about inventory levels are strategically important. So instead of relying
solely on the supply organization to decide, executives need to have a major say in the
fundamental issues that impact inventory management-everything from determining the right
breadth and complexity of product offerings to optimal plant and distribution footprints.
Answer :
Inventories are those completely manufactured products which are ready for sale. Stocks of
raw materials and work-in-process facilitate production, while stock of finished goods is
required for smooth marketing operations. Thus, inventories serve as a link between the
production and consumption of goods.
Question 29. Tell Us Do You Apply The Above Practices To All Parts Of Your
Inventory (finished Goods, Raw Material, Works In Process And Spare Parts) And In
All Organizational Entities?
Answer :
One of the most common mistakes made by supply organizations is looking at only a small
subset of all inventory-the finished goods sitting in major warehouses-even though raw
materials, works in process, spare parts and even goods in retail stores can make up 50
percent of the total. As a result, they miss potential savings. An organizational map of all
inventories will help better prioritize ways to reduce inventories. And all the inventory
techniques we've discussed apply.
Question 30. Do You Know What Is Cogs (cost Of Goods Sold) Formula?
Answer :
For manufacturers, “cost of goods sold” (COGS) is the cost of buying raw materials and
manufacturing finished products.
For retailers, it's the cost of obtaining or buying the products sold to customers.
Opening Stock (Beginning inventory) + Purchases – Closing Stock (End Inventory) = COGS
If the company is in a service industry, COGS is the cost of the service it offers.
COGS can help companies work out how much they should charge for their products and
services, and the level of sales they need to sustain in order to make a profit.
The price paid for products is particularly crucial to retailers, as it is often their greatest area
of expenditure. But all businesses can benefit from an analysis of COGS, as it can highlight
ways of improving efficiency and cutting expenditure.
Question 31. Tell Me Do You Have Regular Visibility Into Excess And Obsolete
Stock, And Is It Linked To Targeted Action Plans To Sell Off Or Reduce This
Inventory?
Answer :
Typically, excess and obsolete stock stems from ineffective sales forecasting, planning or
using a business model that fails to factor in product complexity and life cycles correctly.
Inventory leaders establish processes to determine why excesses are being created and then
develop a plan of action to sell it off. In some instances, the fear of the write-off has led to a
large buildup over time of obsolete inventory.
Question 32. Tell Me Are You Able To Break Down Your Operating Inventory Into
The Three Major Categories When Reporting Levels-safety, Replenishment And Excess
Or Obsolete Stock?
Answer :
This breakdown makes it easier to make sound decisions about appropriate levels for each of
these three areas. It helps determine the minimum safety stock needed to provide an
insurance policy against supply chain problems either from manufacturing glitches or
distribution uncertainties so that customers get what they ordered.
It's useful for pinpointing the amount of inventory required to replenish deliveries every two
weeks. And it helps companies find ways to avoid a backlog of excess or obsolete inventory.
Answer :
When conducting a physical inventory the classification, location and number in stock of a
good should be recorded.
Question 34. Explain Me What Are The Types Of Reordering Systems That Can Be
Used In Inventory Control?
Answer :
There are several types of reordering systems, in this module we discussed three. The fixed
order quantity uses fixed quantities of goods ordered at various order points to replenish
inventory.
The fixed order period use fixed times of reorder with various order quantities to replenish
inventory to preset levels. The final system, just in time uses a constant flow of goods to
match the level of demand.
Answer :
If you are involved with inventory, then you need the GR/IR account (Inventory Account)
when the IR is posted.
If you are not involved about inventory, then the system does not need the GR/IR account
when the IR is posted, the system needs a G/L instead of the GR/IR account.
Question 36. Tell Me How To Determine The Frequency For Ordering And Inventory
Production If It's Not Set Solely By Factories Or The Supply Organization?
Answer :
Ideally, there are two factors: companies should consider calculations that minimize the
overall cost such as inventory and changeover costs. They also should base frequency on
negotiations between the different parties involved and factor in upcoming events such as
promotions and uncertainties like bad weather.
Question 37. Explain Me Do I Need To Recompute Stocking Costs For The Eoq
Level?
Answer :
Yes, in order to compare stock costs when using the EOQ model you must compute the costs
for both the original level and the EOQ level of order quantities.
Answer :
A good forecast model will have reasonable costs. the accuracy of its forecasts will allow
good decision making. The model will have ample data available for its use and a relevant
time span. The model finally will have a low interference level.
Question 39. How To Determine The Numbers To Use In The Eoq Formula?
Answer :
To determine which numbers to use you must look for the following items. The number of
items per order is the quantity(Q). The number of items that can be sold is D. D may be the
forecast demand for that particular good. The cost of placing the order is used for S. The final
number to find is the carrying cost(C) which is the cost of the item to be held in inventory.
Answer :
The value can be found using four methods in inventory control. The first is the specific cost
in which each item's cost is added together for the inventory's value. A second method is to
use the weighted average of the costs for a period to determine value. A third method is first
in, first out. In this method value is measured using the latest costs of goods while working
towards the beginning of the period until all goods in inventory are valued. The final method
is last in, first out. In this method the costs of gods at the beginning of the period are used to
determine the inventory's value much like FIFO.
In financial accounting, the term inventory shrinkage is the loss of products between point of
manufacture or purchase from supplier and point of sale. The term shrink relates to the
difference in the amount of margin or profit a retailer can obtain. If the amount of shrink is
large, then profits go down which results in increased costs to the consumer to meet the needs
of the retailer.
In retail terms, shrinkage refers to a company's percent loss resulting from damage, product
expiration and theft of unsold products. Retail shrinkage can happen anywhere along the
production and sale chain, including at the factory, in transit or at the retail location.
You can calculate retail shrinkage by dividing the value of goods lost to shrinkage by the
total value of goods that are supposed to be in the inventory.
Shrinkage =
( Total value of the goods that you are supposed to have in your inventory - Total value of the
goods that is physically stocked in your inventory )
/ Total value of the goods that you are supposed to have in your inventory.
= Total Value of goods lost / Total value of the goods that you are supposed to have in your
inventory
Answer :
Total stocking cost is the cost to the store of holding a good in its inventory. The stocking
cost consists of the carrying cost times half the quantity in inventory and the order
completion cost times demand divided by the quantity. In its mathematical form the cost is
represented by TSC=(Q/2)C + (D/Q)S.
Answer :
Inventories are semi-manufactured products. They represent products that need more work
before they become finished product for sale.
Answer :
The EOQ level is the point at which stocking costs are at their lowest point for a given item.
Materials Management Interview Questions
Question 1. What Is An Order Quantity?
Answer :
An order quantity is the amount of goods that an order requests be shipped to the store.
Answer :
When conducting a physical inventory the classification, location and number in stock of a
good should be recorded.
Answer :
Yes, through the use of forecasts inventory levels can be set to meet the demands while
keeping levels as low as possible.
Answer :
Procurement Process starts with gathering requirements, then creating a purchase requisition
and then we create a formal document that has to be sent to vendor i.e. purchase order. After
this goods will be supplied by vendor and goods receipt is done along with invoice
verification. Then vendor is paid for supplied goods and services.
Answer :
Lead time is the period of time from which a order for goods is placed until it is received by
the store. Lead time is an important consideration for determining when orders should be
placed.
Answer :
Demand is the quantity that customers are willing to buy. Demand can be found through
forecasting and is needed to find the EOQ level.
Answer :
There are two types of forecasting qualitative and quantitative. Qualitative uses personal
opinions to determine forecasts. Quantitative uses numerical data and statistical modeling to
determine forecasts.
Answer :
Answer :
A batch is a collection of similar items from your stock that have the same characteristics.
For example, all food items produced on a particular day belong to one batch.
Batches are searched using the standard facility (match code, key F4) based on the batch
names or other properties that distinguish them from others.
Answer :
A good forecast model will have reasonable costs. the accuracy of its forecasts will allow
good decision making. The model will have ample data available for its use and a relevant
time span. The model finally will have a low interference level.
Answer :
The purchasing view consists of RFQ / Quotation, Purchase Requisition (PR), Purchase
Order (PO), Master Data that has several fields like info record, source list, conditions,
vendors etc. and finally Outline Agreements.
Answer :
RFQ is request for quotation and it is a form of invitation that is sent to vendors to submit
quotation indicating pricing and their terms and conditions while quotation is a reply by a
vendor in response to request for quotation.
Answer :
Times for reordering goods vary dependent on the control system you use and its lead time.
In fixed order quantities reorders should be placed when the safety stock is reached. In fixed
period systems the reordering is done at set time periods. In just in time systems reordering is
based on matching the demand with supply. For just in time a close watch on inventory levels
is needed so that reorders are placed before goods are out of stock.
Question 14. What Are Transactions That Will Cause Change In Stock?
Answer :
Goods receipt and goods issue will cause change in stock as goods receipt will increase
warehouse stock and goods issue will decrease warehouse stock.
Answer :
By following your inventory policy you should be able to realize important advantages in
inventory control. The first is reduced costs for inventories, along with reduced amounts of
inventory. Theft and shrinkage should also be reduced if inventory policy is followed. The
final benefit will be increased profits for the store.
Answer :
Materials with some common attributes are grouped together and they are assigned to a
material type. This will differentiate materials and allow organization to manage different
materials in systematic manner in accordance to company's requirement.
Question 17. What Are The Different Kinds Of Special Stocks Available?
Answer :
Special stocks available are consignment stocks (from vendor), subcontracting stocks (to sun-
contractor), project stocks, pipeline materials, sales order stocks, stock transfer and third
party.
Question 18. Suppose If I Get A Discount Will It Effect The Eoq Model?
Answer :
Yes, a discount will cause the basic EOQ model to fail. To use a discount in determine a
EOQ you must use the EOQ model with quantity discounts.
Question 19. What Is Material And Vendor Data Available At All Organizational
Levels?
Answer :
Yes, material and vendor data is available at all levels as it is normally created for company
and it is valid for the levels below company.
Question 20. Explain How Stock Is Being Transferred From One Plant To Another
Plant?
Answer :
Stock within plants is transferred with the help of stock transport order. One plant order the
goods internally from another plant(receiving plant/issuing plant) with the help of stock
transport order.
Answer :
Release procedure means approval of documents like purchase orders and purchase
requisition manually by the criteria defined in the configuration.
Answer :
The EOQ formula is the square root of 2 times demand times order completion cost divided
by carrying cost. The mathematical formula is square root of 2DS/C.
Answer :
A inventory should be taken at least once a year. If items are perishable, seasonal or highly
demanded a inventory should be taken more often.
Answer :
In Consignment, material is available at our store premises, however it still belongs to the
vendor(seller)/Owner of the material. If you utilize the material from consignment stocks,
then you have to pay to the vendor.
Answer :
No, the model only works for those cases that meet its assumptions.
Question 27. If You Have Multiple Line Items In Purchase Order, Can You Release
Line By Line That Purchase Order?
Answer :
No, release is done only at header level in a combined way for all line items in case of
purchase order.
Answer :
A contract can be created centrally with different pricing conditions for every plant whereas a
scheduling agreement needs to be created at that particular plant location. In a contract, only
time-dependant conditions can be created whereas in a scheduling agreement, you can have
time-dependant or time-independent conditions subject to the customizations in the document
type.
Answer :
Yes, In the market today there are many computer software packages that can compute
forecasted demand for goods held in inventory.
Answer :
The EOQ level is the point at which stocking costs are at their lowest point for a given item.
Answer :
Source list include list of possible sources of supply for a material over a given framework of
time. A particular material can be ordered from different vendors in different time intervals.
This information can be maintained in a source list.
Answer :
The EOQ works if its four assumptions match the case it is used on. The assumptions are:
Answer :
Answer :
Once goods are procured from vendor and placed in company's premises through goods
receipt then we need to pay to vendor for acquired goods and services. The amount to be paid
along with details of material is provided by vendor in form of document that is known as
invoice. Before paying to vendor we need to verify the invoice. This process of verifying
invoice and paying to vendor is known as invoice verification.
Answer :
Answer :
The EOQ level is the point at which stocking costs are at their lowest point for a given item.
Question 37. What Are The Types Of Reordering Systems That Can Be Used In
Inventory Control?
Answer :
There are several types of reordering systems, in this module we discussed three. The fixed
order quantity uses fixed quantities of goods ordered at various order points to replenish
inventory. The fixed order period use fixed times of reorder with various order quantities to
replenish inventory to preset levels. The final system, just in time uses a constant flow of
goods to match the level of demand.
Question 38. Explain What Are Some Of The Movement Types For Stock Transport
Order?
Answer :
One step transfers of materials can be posted using movement type 301. Other movement
types are 303, 351, 641, or 643 in the stock transport order.
Answer :
In planned services at the time of procurement specifications like quantity and price are
known in advance. It means nature and scope of service is clear before procurement whereas
in unplanned services at the time of procurement specifications like quantity and price are not
known in advance. It means nature and scope of service is not clear before procurement.
These services can be extended as per the requirement.
Answer :
Outline agreement is a long term purchasing agreement with vendor containing terms and
conditions regarding the material that is supplied by vendor. Outline agreement are valid up
to certain period of time and cover a certain predefined quantity or value.
Answer :
Inventory control is the process of reducing inventory costs while remaining responsive to
customer demands. By this definition a store would want to lower its acquisition, carrying
ordering and stock-out costs to their lowest possible levels. However a store would need to
have enough inventories to meet any needs of its customers.
Answer :
Special stocks are stocks that are managed differently as these stocks did not belong to
company and these are being kept at some particular location.
Question 43. What Is Difference Between Contract And Scheduling Agreement?
Answer :
Contract is a long term outline agreement between vendor and ordering party over predefined
material or services over certain framework of time whereas scheduling agreement is a long
term outline agreement between vendor and ordering party over a predefined material or
service which are procured on predetermined dates over a framework of time.
Answer :
Interference is a factor in forecasting demand. Interference is made up of all the factors that a
forecaster has no control over. Factors that may be considered interference include natural
disasters, unusual customer demands, or rare events in the business period.
Question 45. What Do The Letters In The Eoq And Stocking Cost Formula Stand
For?
Answer :
The letters in the formulas represent the quantity ordered(Q), the carrying cost of a unit(C),
the demand for the units(D) and the cost of completing a order(S).
Answer :
Answer :
The GR blocked stock is an option used in the goods receipt process when you are not sure
about the quality of the goods received. In such a case, the stock is maintained as GR blocked
either from a material viewpoint or exclusively for a purchase order item.
Answer :
A order point is a point in time at which a order is placed to replenish goods in inventory.
Answer :
MRP is short for Materials Requirements Planning and it is a production planning technique
that's used to manage the manufacturing process. It is basically used to determine your
Material Planning procedure by specifying the various conditions like Reorder Point,
Seasonal Requirement, Replenishment, Vendor Managed, Forecast Based and Master
Production Scheduling (MPS). Lot size specifies the nature of material requirement in terms
of Weekly, Monthly, Quantity and Maximum Replenishment.
Answer :
Yes, through the use of forecasts inventory levels can be set to meet the demands while
keeping levels as low as possible.
Answer :
Operations management manages the resources needed to produce the company’s products
and services. It involves managing people, machines and information.
Answer :
Operations managers must plan the production schedule. This entails deciding how much to
produce and in what order. This information would be used to make purchasing and staffing
decisions.
Operations managers must manage inventory. They must arrange the inventory in the
warehouse. They also facilitate the movement of inventory from the warehouse to the retail
facilities or the customer.Operations managers also must manage quality levels. This may
include inspection of materials, and the use of quality tools such as control charts.
Answer :
The transformation process involves taking the various inputs and transforming them into
outputs. An advertising agency would transform the time of its staff into an advertising
campaign. A bank may use the time of a teller, an input computer, and a bank branch to
accept a deposit. A TV station could use the time of its production crew, the video
equipment, and the studio to produce a news story.
Question 4. What Are The Three Major Business Functions, And How Are They
Related To One Another? Give Specific Examples?
Answer :
The three major business functions are finance, marketing and operations. Operations entail
the production of a product or service and must manage the inputs to production such as
workers' time, aluminum, and machine time to create airplane parts Finance manages the
assets, such as the building used for production, investments and cash flows related to
production, such as providing the needed machines. Marketing generates sales of the product
or service, such as finding customers for the proposed airplanes.
Question 5. Identify The Two Major Differences Between Service And Manufacturing
Organizations. Find An Example Of A Service And Manufacturing Company And
Compare Them?
Answer :
Answer :
Three historical milestones are the industrial revolution, total quality management (TQM)
and global competition. The industrial revolution changed production processes from a labor
focus to a machine focus. TQM caused managers to be more focused on quality and
preventing defects. Finally, global competition caused managers to further increase their
focus on quality, realizing that to not improve was to “lose the race.”
Answer :
The lean systems concept is a current trend in operations management. This involves taking
a total system approach to creating an efficient operation. This includes concepts such as just-
in-time (JIT), total quality management (TQM), continuous improvement, resource planning,
and supply chain management (SCM).
Companies are using the Internet to reach out to customers, and suppliers directly.
Amazon.com has been able to sell books and many other items directly from its warehouse
to people like you and me. The Internet is changing how the supply chains work since we
can now eliminate the “middle man” or distributor by selling directly from the factory to the
final or end customer. Companies can also ease transactions between businesses, known as
B2B commerce, by using electronic trading networks.
Large information systems, called Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) systems, are allowing
companies to increase efficiency. These large, sophisticated software programs coordinate,
across the entire enterprise, the activities involved in producing and delivering products to
customers.
Each of these concepts makes intensive use of information and cooperation between partners.
OM will most likely continue to be more information intensive and require greater
cooperation among all the players in the value chain.
Answer :
Total quality management (TQM) is a philosophy that focuses on meeting the needs of the
customer. TQM is not inspection, but actually the prevention of defects. It involves
everyone in the organization. Just-in-time is a philosophy that focuses on reducing inventory
and other wastes and on the production of the right number of items at the right time.
Reengineering focuses on improving business processes in order to improve efficiency. Each
of these techniques strives to allow more responsive and more efficient production leading to
higher quality and higher customer satisfaction.
Answer :
Today’s OM environment is more global, more service oriented, and uses more information
technology than that of even a few years ago. Companies can outsource steps of their
operation easier. Now even service operations are outsourced off-shore. Information
technology allows companies to cooperate more closely, creating tighter supply chains,
quicker response and less waste. Specific features include greater outsourcing, greater use of
information technology, and deeper cooperation in the supply chain.
Answer :
In some types of organization it is relatively easy to visualize the operations function and
what it does, even if we have never seen it. For example, most people have seen images of
automobile assembly. But what about an advertising agency? We know vaguely what they do
– they produce the advertisements that we see in magazines and on television – but what is
their operations function? The clue lies in the word ‘produce’. Any business that produces
something, whether tangible or not, must use resources to do so, and so must have an
operations activity. Also the automobile plant and the advertising agency do have one
important element in common: both have a higher objective – to make a profit from
producing their products or services. Yet not-for-profit organizations also use their resources
to produce services, not to make a profit, but to serve society in some way.
Answer :
Irrespective of their size, all companies need to produce and deliver their products and
services efficiently and effectively. However, in practice, managing operations in a small or
medium-size organization has its own set of problems. Large companies may have the
resources to dedicate individuals to specialized tasks but smaller companies often cannot, so
people may have to do different jobs as the need arises. Such an informal structure can allow
the company to respond quickly as opportunities or problems present themselves. But
decision making can also become confused as individuals’ roles overlap. Small companies
may have exactly the same operations management issues as large ones but they can be more
difficult to separate from the mass of other issues in the organization.
Answer :
Terms such as competitive advantage, markets and business, which are used in this book, are
usually associated with companies in the for-profit sector. Yet operations management is also
relevant to organizations whose purpose is not primarily to earn profits. Managing the
operations in an animal welfare charity, hospital, research organization or government
department is essentially the same as in commercial organizations. Operations have to take
the same decisions – how to produce products and services, invest in technology, contract out
some of their activities, devise performance measures, and improve their operations
performance and so on.
However, the strategic objectives of not-for-profit organizations may be more complex and
involve a mixture of political, economic, social and environmental objectives. Because of this
there may be a greater chance of operations decisions being made under conditions of
conflicting objectives. So, for example, it is the operations staff in a children’s welfare
department who have to face the conflict between the cost of providing extra social workers
and the risk of a child not receiving adequate protection.
Nevertheless the vast majority of the topics covered in this book have relevance to all types
of organization, including non-profit, even if the context is different and some terms may
have to be adapted.
Question 13. What Is The Input–transformation–output Process?
Answer :
All operations produce products and services by changing inputs into outputs using an ‘input-
transformation-output’ process. Put simply, operations are processes that take in a set of input
resources which are used to transform something, or are transformed themselves, into outputs
of products and services. And although all operations conform to this general input–
transformation–output model, they differ in the nature of their specific inputs and outputs.
For example, if you stand far enough away from a hospital or a car plant, they might look
very similar, but move closer and clear differences do start to emerge. One is a manufacturing
operation producing ‘products’, and the other is a service operation producing ‘services’ that
change the physiological or psychological condition of patients.
Answer :
Each process is, at the same time, an internal supplier and an internal customer for other
processes. This ‘internal customer’ concept provides a model to analyse the internal activities
of an operation. It is also a useful reminder that, by treating internal customers with the same
degree of care as external customers, the effectiveness of the whole operation can be
improved.
Answer :
It is not just the operations function that manages processes; all functions manage processes.
For example, the marketing function will have processes that produce demand forecasts,
processes that produce advertising campaigns and processes that produce marketing plans.
These processes in the other functions also need managing using similar principles to those
within the operations function. Each function will have its ‘technical’ knowledge. In
marketing, this is the expertise in designing and shaping marketing plans; in finance, it is the
technical knowledge of financial reporting.
Yet each will also have a ‘process management’ role of producing plans, policies, reports and
services. The implications of this are very important. Because all managers have some
responsibility for managing processes, they are, to some extent, operations managers. They
all should want to give good service to their (often internal) customers, and they all will want
to do this efficiently. So, operations management is relevant for all functions, and all
managers should have something to learn from the principles, concepts, approaches and
techniques of operations management. It also means that we must distinguish between two
meanings of ‘operations’:
‘Operations’ as a function, meaning the part of the organization which produces the
products and services for the organization’s external customers;
‘Operations’ as an activity, meaning the management of the processes within any of
the organization’s functions.
Answer :
Some operations have both high- and low-visibility processes within the same operation.
In an airport, for example: some activities are totally ‘visible’ to its customers such as
information desks answering people’s queries. These staff operate in what is termed a front-
office environment. Other parts of the airport have little, if any, customer ‘visibility’, such as
the baggage handlers. These rarely-seen staff perform the vital but low-contact tasks, in the
back-office part of the operation.
Answer :
All four dimensions have implications for the cost of creating the products or services.
Put simply, high volume, low variety, low variation and low customer contact all help to keep
processing costs down. Conversely, low volume, high variety, high variation and high
customer contact generally carry some kind of cost penalty for the operation. This is why the
volume dimension is drawn with its ‘low’ end at the left, unlike the other dimensions, to keep
all the ‘low cost’ implications on the right. To some extent the position of an operation in the
four dimensions is determined by the demand of the market it is serving. However, most
operations have some discretion in moving themselves on the dimensions.
Answer :
Operations managers have some responsibility for all the activities in the organization which
contribute to the effective production of products and services. And while the exact nature of
the operations function’s responsibilities will, to some extent, depend on the way the
organization has chosen to define the boundaries of the function, there are some general
classes of activities that apply to all types of operation.
Answer :
The first is the input–transformation–output model and the second is the categorization of
operations management’s activity areas. The model now shows two interconnected loops of
activities.
The bottom one more or less corresponds to what is usually seen as operations management,
and the top one to what is seen as operations strategy.
Answer :
Customers’ perceptions, rather than objective criteria, will also be important. If they perceive
that a member of the operation’s staff is discourteous to them, they are likely to be
dissatisfied (even if the staff member meant no discourtesy), so high-visibility operations
require staff with good customer contact skills. Customers could also request goods which
clearly would not be sold in such a shop, but because the customers are actually in the
operation they can ask what they like! This is called high received variety. This makes it
difficult for high-visibility operations to achieve high productivity of resources, so they tend
to be relatively high-cost operations.
Conversely, a web-based retailer, while not a pure low-contact operation, has far lower
visibility. Behind its web site it can be more ‘factory-like’. The time lag between the order
being placed and the items ordered by the customer being retrieved and dispatched does not
have to be minutes as in the shop, but can be hours or even days. This allows the tasks of
finding the items, packing and dispatching them to be standardized by staff who need few
customer contact skills. Also, there can be relatively high staff utilization. The web-based
organization can also centralize its operation.
Answer :
Answer :
A stakeholder is anyone who has something to gain or lose as a result of the completion or
failure of this project or phase.
Answer :
It defines a logical closure of any deliverable or cycle. Example you have completed the
requirement phase with sign off from the client on the requirement document. So you put a
baseline and say that further any changes to this document are change request. Versioning of
source code is one type of baseline.
Answer :
Normally change request are handled by preparing an Impact analysis document and then
doing re-estimation.
Answer :
UTP (Unit Test Plan) are done at smallest unit level or stand alone mode. UTP can be done
using NUNIT. Unit testing is done normally by developers.
Answer :
The waterfall model is a sequential software development process, in which progress is seen
as flowing steadily downwards (like a waterfall) through the phases of Conception, Initiation,
Analysis, Design (validation), Construction, Testing and maintenance.
Answer :
The V-model is a software development process which can be presumed to be the extension
of the waterfall model. Instead of moving down in a linear way, the process steps are bent
upwards after the coding phase, to form the typical V shape. The V-Model demonstrates the
relationships between each phase of the development life cycle and its associated phase of
testing.
Answer :
The Dual Vee Model, like the V-Model is a systems development model designed to simplify
the understanding of the complexity associated with developing systems. In systems
engineering it is used to define a uniform procedure for product or project development.
The model addresses the necessary concurrent development of a system’s architecture with
the entities of that architecture and illuminates the necessary interactions and sequences
recommended for orderly maturation of a system and systems of systems. This article
explains the power of the Dual Vee Model when applied as a reminder model for
development of complex systems.
Answer :
Answer :
Answer :
Initiation:
Preparing scope document, requirement documents, Estimation chart, project plan and
proposal documents.
Planning:
Execution:
Writing code.
Controlling:
Closure:
Question 13. Explain The Popular Software Development Life Cycle Models?
Answer :
Waterfall model:
This is the oldest model. It represents sequence of stages; output of one stage becomes input
of others.
Spiral Model:
This is improved version of waterfall model. Here we have scope to reiterate and go back to
the earlier stages number of times as project progresses.
This is a risky and most unorganized model. In this, developers keep writing code until the
customer is happy.
In this model, we develop prototype which acts like a final product. Once prototype is
approved, then the actual development starts.
Incremental Model:
In this model, the product is divided into sections and each section of the product are created
and tested separately.
Answer :
Waterfall Model: The waterfall model is a software development process which follows a
sequential approach. This approach steadily flows downwards like a waterfall which includes
the phases of conception, initiation, analysis, design, construction, testing and maintenance.
Spiral Model: The spiral model is one of the software development processes which
combines the design and prototyping -in -stages together to gain the advantage of top-down
and bottom-up approaches.
Build and Fix model: This model is one of the worst model for project development. The
project is built without specifications and lacks design steps. Essentially, the project is
developed, tested, modified as many times as possible. This process continues until the
client’s satisfaction is attained. The cost is greater compared to other models. The software
engineers are discouraged to use this model.
Rapid prototyping Model: To determine and identify the design flaws and obtaining feedback
during design process is done by using rapid prototyping model. Product designers and
engineers are allowed to view their designs look and function in real world situations by
using Rapid Prototyping Model.
Incremental Model: The evolution of waterfall model is incremental model. The integration
testing, product design and development is done as a series of incremental builds. A popular
software evolution model used by many software companies. Incremental model is suitable
and applicable where software requirements are well defined, but their implementation may
be delayed; and the basic software functionality are required early.
Answer :
CAR identifies problem and perform a root cause analysis of the same. CAR needs to be
performed at every project phase. Fishbone diagram is one of the ways to perform CAR.
This is to analyze possible decisions using a formal evaluation process that identifies
alternatives against current resources.
Answer :
To analyze possible decisions by using a formal evaluation process which identifies the
alternatives against established criteria is done by the DAR. For example a project is to use a
third party tools and will not depend on only one tool but evaluate by using three to four
tools. In this process certain alternatives are available in case of problems.
Answer :
The identification of the root causes scientifically and carrying out their corrective and
preventive actions is the advantage of CAR. At the initial stage, all phase and at the end stage
of the project, the CAR is needed to be performed on a monthly basis. CAR can be done by
using ‘fishbone’ diagram.
Answer :
It is one way of tackling problem in management. It says 20% of the problems lead to other
80% of the problems. According to this principle, we should focus on 20% of the problem. In
any software project first 10% and last 10% from the vital part of the project.
Question 19. What Is Pareto Principle?
Answer :
Pareto Principle is also known as 80/20 principle. It is a management tool to track problem
tracking effectively. This principle says that 20% of the problems lead to 80% of other
problems. Hence, in order to concentrating on solving 80% of the problems rather, one can
concentrate to solve 20 % of the problems which saves lot of troubles. The analysis and
concentration is done for only 20% of the vital problems. In a project the vital problems are
the first 10% and the last 10% .
Answer :
At this level, there is no proven processes and has no stable environment in the organization.
This type of organization frequently exceeds the budget and schedule.
These organizations have basic processes that are established to track cost and schedule. They
have guidelines to repeat the same in the next similar project.
In this category, processes are well characterized and understood and are described in
standards.
These organizations are much more matured than level 3 where processes are only qualitively
predictable whereas in level 4 companies, processes are accessed using statistical and other
quantitive technique.
Question 21. What Is Cmmi? What Are The Five Levels In Cmmi?
Answer :
Answer :
Fish Bone Diagram is also called Ishikawa Diagram or Cause and Effect Diagram.
It is called Fish Bone Diagram because of its structure.
Dr. Kaoru Ishikawa invented it so it is called Ishikawa Diagram.
It performs the job of analyzing the causes and their effects pertaining to the Project.
So, it is called Cause and Effect Diagram.
It helps in identifying the potential causes of problems and finally the root cause
which make a difference on the performance of the project. This helps in finding the
solutions to the problems which have affected the performance of the last project.
Answer :
Fish bone diagrams are the diagrams that show the causes of a certain events. In designing
products, to identify the potential reasons / factors that cause overall effect, the fishbone
diagrams are used.
Answer :
Black box testing or functional testing means testing the software for the outputs when
specified inputs are provided. It is usually performed to see if the software meets the user’s
requirements. There’s no focus on what goes behind running that software. An example of
this could be manual testing of the system by a tester, assembly testing.
Answer :
White box testing is done to test the accuracy of logic and code of the program. It is done by
programmers who know the logical flow of the system. It can be done by testing the classes
or components in isolation. One of the ways of doing it is Unit Testing.
Question 26. What Is Black Box Testing And White Box Testing?
Answer :
Black box testing is an external perspective of the object that is to be tested to obtain test
cases. These tests may be functional or non functional. The valid and invalid inputs are tested
by the testers to determine the correct output. Black box testing focuses on functional
requirements testing.
Also known as glass box testing is used for testing design test cases which are internal in
structure. It demands programming skills for identifying the paths through the software. The
test inputs are chosen by the tester to exercise paths through the code to determine the outputs
that are appropriate.
Answer :
Unit testing, also called Component testing is performed by programmers to test that a
specified unit of the program meets the expected output when a particular input is provided.
Here, the programmer has to know the internal logic and code of the system. It is a way of
performing the White box testing. It involves checking that each feature specified in the
“Component Design” is implemented in the components.
Answer :
Assembly testing moves one step ahead of Unit testing. It checks if two or more modules are
able to communicate and produce expected results or not. No Unit in the system can perform
stand alone activities. The output of one module may be used as input by another, so it is
highly important if the related modules are able to connect and produce the desired result.
Assembly testing is a way of Black box testing and can be done through the UI.
Answer :
Regression testing is performed to see if the system would work well in case of any
enhancements or changes in future. Here, all the scripts are run together to see that others are
not affected by a change in one module.
Answer :
System testing is done to see if the system delivers the required features, functional and non-
functional requirements & outputs. It doesn’t check each component individually but the
whole system is checked as one entity. It is done at developers end. The testing for non-
functional requirements includes:
Performance Testing.
Volume Testing.
Stress Testing.
Documentation Testing.
Robustness Testing.
Answer :
Acceptance Testing is performed by the client to see if the system delivers what was
requested. It looks similar to system testing but the difference is in the focus. Here, the testing
is done by Client from his point of view as he is the one who knows the whole process and
requirements of his business.
Answer :
V-model performs a mapping between the type of test and the stage in project development
i.e which test is to be performed at which stage. This has 4 levels of testing the system:
Answer :
A test plan that is done at the smallest level or stand alone mode is known as Unit
Test Plan. For example, a project is having customer and invoicing modules. So the
test on customer module and invoicing module will be done individually. This is Unit
Test Plan.
Later both customer and invoice is to be tested in one set. To do so, we integrate both
into one set and test them. So System Integration Test Plan and Unit Test Plan can be
done by using NUNIT.
Unit testing is normally done by developers and the system testing is normally done
by testing professionals in an integrated mode.
Question 34. What's The Difference Between Unit Testing, Assembly Testing And
Regression Testing?
Answer :
Unit testing ensures that the program unit meets the requirements which are reliable.
Unit testing is normally conducted by the programmer who is supervised by the team
lead. Testing the individual unit is the main objective of unit testing. Unit testing
follows white box testing style.
Assembly testing demonstrates the interaction among modules in a correct, stable and
proper manner which was defined in the functional requirements that are provided by
the client. Assembly testing follows black box testing style.
Regression testing ensures the proper functionality of an application irrespective of
changes or enhancements to the system. The testers will run all the scripts in order to
ensure that nothing has been affected.
Answer :
The mapping of the type of testing to the stage of development in a given project is done by
V model. In this model of testing there is a testing stage for every development stage which
means a mapping between the development and a testing.
Question 36. Who Forms The Part Of Six Sigma Implementation Team?
Answer :
Attaining Six Sigma is a team effort. An organization who wants to attain Six Sigma needs a
lot of restructuring and change in attitude. It includes building up the following roles to take
up the required responsibilities:
1. Executive Leadership-Includes CEO and other top management team members. They
set up the vision of Six Sigma and empower their team mates with the freedom and
resources required for the improvements in the process.
2. Champions- Responsible for the implementation of the process in an integrated
manner throughout the organization. They come from Top management.
3. Master Black Belts-Act as in-house expert coach for the organization. They assist
Champions and train Black Belts and Green Belts.
4. Black Belts-Apply Six Sigma methodology to specific projects. Their focus is on
execution of activities for Six Sigma.
5. Green Belts-These are like the soldiers on the war front who actually implement the
planned action.
Answer :
SIX sigma is one of the business management strategies. Six Sigma is used to improve
quality of process outputs which identifies and removes the causes of defects and variations
in manufacturing and business processes. It implements a set of management methods and
creates a special infrastructure of people within the organization who are the experts in these
methods. A well defined sequence of steps is followed by each six sigma project and has
quantified financial targets.
Answer :
FPA is a process to break system into discrete pieces and analyze them. Software application
is a combination of elementary process. FPA is the way to identify elementary processes and
analyze them.
Answer :
External Inputs: It is an elementary process which allows the data to cross the
boundary from outside to inside.
External Outputs: A elementary process which allows the data passes across the
boundary from inside to outside
External Inquiry: It is an elementary process which has both input and output
components which results data retrieval from one or more internal logical files and
external interface files.
Internal Logical Files: An identifiable group of logically related data that resides
entirely within the applications boundary and is maintained through external inputs.
External Interface Files: An identifiable group of logically related data that is used
only for reference purpose. The data is completely persisted outside the application
and is maintained by another application.
Answer :
Answer :
The project plan is the fundamental document directing all activities in pursuit of the
desired objective.
The plan may change as time passes, but nevertheless, it represents the project
manager's continuing view on what needs to be done by whom and when.
Answer :
Answer :
It is the balance of the project’s scope, schedule and cost. It is also called as Dempster’s
triangle.
Answer :
Fishbone diagrams also called as Ishikawa diagrams (or cause-and-effect diagrams) show the
reasons behind a certain event. In project management, this tool is used in Quality
Management & Risk Management processes.
Answer :
Answer :
SITP - System Integration Test Plan - This test is performed in an integrated mode
usually by the testing team.
UTP - Unit Test Plan - This test plan is performed at the smallest level or in a
standalone mode. It is usually performed by the developers.
Question 48. What Is Cmmi?
Answer :
Answer :
Level 2 - Managed
Level 3 - Defined
Level 4 - Quantitatively Managed
Level 5- Optimizing
Answer :
DMAIC is a series of steps used to measure defects in business processes and improve
profitability. The five steps are: Define, Measure, Analyze, Improve, and Control.
DMADV - This is also a series of steps to measure and analyze the defects and
produce better. The steps here are: Define, Measure, Analyze, Design, and Verify.
Answer :
Answer :
Answer :
A little appreciation for a successfully completed work. If failed in that task, I am motivated
to do it better than ever. If completed successfully, the success motivates me to go in for a
tougher project/work which is a new challenge for me. As it is, winning challenges is the
spirit in me.
Answer :
Task management.
File storage.
Reporting functions.
Commenting and message boards.
Client access.
Subcontractor task assignment.
Time tracking.
Answer :
Project Planning defines in detail the project activities and the product that will be produced,
and describes how the project activities will be accomplished. Project Planning defines all
major tasks, estimates the time and resources necessary to complete them, and provides a
framework for management review and control.
Work to be performed,
Project goals,
Estimates for planning, tracking, executing, and controlling the project,
Commitments of the affected groups, and,
Project alternatives, assumptions, and constraints.
Answer :
The different Project Management tools are MS Project, Templates, eBooks, flowcharts
Compliant with PMBOK 4th Edition, EPOs (Electronic Project Offices) etc.
Answer :
Business Object is a new query and report software program. It is a part of CSC software
package. It is capable of performing more sophisticated mathematical calculations than IQ
objects.
Answer :
Condition Object is a mode, state, situation and a condition which imposes upon an object
without which knowledge and thought are alleged to be impossible.
Answer :
A Customizing object in a SAP component is an object which is customized with the same
contents in another component. The contents of the customizing objects have to be
corresponding in different systems in a system landscape.
Answer :
Project cost, schedule and scope are depicted as a project management triangle. The triangle
is formed by customer as the center point and the three aspects form the sides of triangle. In
order to gain customer satisfaction, the project management team should deliver scope in
propose schedule and cost. In case any leg is gets disturbed, the other two legs gets affected.
For example, if the customer increases the scope, then the other two legs-schedule and cost-
get affected a lot.
Answer :
Project stakeholders are individuals and organizations that are actively involved in the
project, or whose interests may be affected as a result of project execution or project
completion. They may also exert influence over the project’s objectives and outcomes. The
project management team must identify the stakeholders, determine their requirements and
expectations, and, to the extent possible, manage their influence in relation to the
requirements to ensure a successful project.
To provide management with valid, auditable status on which to base management decisions.
Answer :
The main reason for planning a project is for cost expediency. Proper project planning will
insure that the amount of work to be accomplished, the time allotted to satisfactory complete
the work scope, and the resources required to complete the work scope are equally balanced.
Every project undergoes some amount of change while in progress. Proper planning allows
for the assessment of the impact of change prior to implementing the change.
Question 64. What Is The Most Important Safe Guard Provided By Project
Planning?
Answer :
Proper planning includes the documentation of the work scope in language that is
understandable by the individuals who must accomplish the work scope. This single step
when properly accomplished will save many false starts as well as preventing the waste of
resources working on efforts which are not required to obtain the desired goals of the project.
Answer :
The customer may wish to know how the company manages a project. The customer wants
some assurance that the company can deliver the project on time and within budget. Senior
management wants a valid insight on how the project is progressing. History is required of
past performance so that new proposals can be created based on fact. The company desires to
be a superior performer when compared to the competition.
Question 66. Does Each Project Have To Create Its Own Management System?
Answer :
The style of the individual project manager will normally vary for each project. It is the
responsibility of senior management to put in place a policy and procedure, supported by a
selection of project management tools and formats, which will assure that the status reporting
is readable, auditable, and valid.
Question 67. What Are The Tools Needed For A Project Management System?
Answer :
Question 68. What Should The Project Manager Look For In A Scheduling System?
Answer :
The three basic elements that the project scheduling systems should provide are; a common
basis for communication at all operational levels of the project, a basis for regular status
reporting, the use of the management by exception technique.
Answer :
The work breakdown structure defines the total project. A work breakdown structure is a
product oriented, family tree composed of hardware elements, software elements, and service
elements. The work breakdown structure relates project elements or work scope definitions to
each other and to the end product. The work breakdown structure is not an organization chart
of company personnel.
Answer :
Answer :
Critical Path is the longest path from the beginning event to the end event. The minimum
time required for completing the project is the duration on the critical path.
Answer :
Question 73. What Is The Difference Between A Risk And An Issue In The Context
Of Project Management?
Answer :
An issue is a problem or concern that may impede the progress of the project if not
addressed.
A risk is any factor (or threat) that may adversely affect the successful completion of the
project in terms of achievement of its outcomes, delivery of its outputs or adverse effects
upon resourcing, time, cost and quality.
Answer :
A risk is no longer a risk when it no longer is a factor (or threat) that may adversely affect the
successful completion of the project. This is usually as a result of mitigation strategies taken,
if the threat has been realized, or if there has been a change in the environment that makes the
risk no longer relevant.
Answer :
Yes, there are still risks associated with a project even if it is half over. This also forms a
baseline for the remainder of the project.
Question 76. What Are The Benefits Of Risk Management In The Context Of Project
Management?
Answer :
The benefit of risk management is to increase the likelihood that the project will be
completed successfully by ensuring levels of risk and uncertainty in the project is properly
managed. It enables those involved to identify possible risks, the manner in which they can
be contained and the likely cost of mitigation strategies.
Answer :
Risk identification in the Project Management is often done by using brainstorming sessions
to identify and clarify the main risks that may work against the project achieving its stated
outcomes. It is important to clearly define the scope of the project so that the identification of
risks can remain focused upon what potentially threatens the achievement of outcomes,
delivery of outputs, level of resourcing, time, cost and quality.
Answer :
In the context of Project Management, a risk is any factor (or threat) that may adversely
affect the successful completion of the project in terms of achievement of its outcomes,
delivery of its outputs or adverse effects upon resourcing, time, cost and quality.
Project Manager Interview Questions
Question 1. What Is A Process?
Answer :
It is a set of structured and related activities which are performed to achieve a specific
business goal.
Management processes
Operational processes
Supporting processes
Answer :
Answer :
The functions and features that are to be delivered to the customer is called the scope of the
project. Performance, user interface design, and constraints should meet the customer
requirement. Software scope is can be developed after communication with all members
those are directly or indirectly involved in the project.
Answer :
Program evaluation and review technique (PERT) and the critical path method (CPM) are
two project scheduling methods that can be applied to software development. CPM provides
critical path to analyze project and duration. PERT uses
TE = (O + 4M + P) / 6 formula for the expected completion time. Where
O=optimistic time
P=pessimistic time
TE =expected time
Risk is a potential problem, it may come or it may not come while developing the software.
Risks are uncertain. It is a good idea to analysis the risk, what is the chance to occur the risk,
what will be the impact on the project and what are the positive planes to overcome of these
risks is. There are two types of risk strategies: Reactive risk strategies and proactive risk
strategies. In reactive risk strategies software team come in action when something goes
wrong. A proactive risk strategy starts with long before technical work is initiated. Potential
risks are identified and their impacts are analyzed. Then, the software team establishes a plan
for managing risk.
Answer :
Project risks: This type of risk can destroy your project plan. The release date of project may
postpone further and cost will increase.
Technical risks: Due to technical risk implementation may become difficult or impossible.
Technical risks identify different types of problem such as design, implementation, interface,
verification, and maintenance problems.
Business risks: There are different types of business risk such as market risk, strategic risk,
sales risk, management risk, budget risk.
Answer :
Inventory analysis: The inventory is nothing but a type of spreadsheet model that contain
detailed description of every active application. It should be updated in regular time period.
Code restructuring: In legacy system some module have very poor coding pattern so it is
very difficult to understand, test and maintain. In such cases, those module have coding
problem, can be restructured.
Data restructuring: When data structure is weak, the data are reengineered. A program with
weak data structure will be difficult to accept and enhance.
Answer :
Software Engineering Institute (SEI) has developed a model that provides the different levels
of process maturity. In this model, in every level there are some key activities required at
different levels of process maturity.
1. Level 1: Initial.
2. Level 2: Repeatable.
3. Level 3: Defined.
4. Level 4: Managed.
5. Level 5: Optimizing.
Question 8. How Does A Project Manager Can Avoid The Above Given Ten Points
For The Success Of Project?
Answer :
Answer :
Software project management focuses on the four P’s: people, product, process, and
project.
The People: For success of any type of project, the most important factor is the skilled
people. These people participated actively for the success of project.
The people management maturity model focus on the following key practice areas for
software people: recruiting, selection, performance management, training, compensation,
career development, organization and work design development. An organization that follows
PM-CMM in the people management area has a higher success rate of software.
The Product: Before developing any software product objectives and scope should be
properly defined. The software analyst and customer must meet to define product objectives
and scope.
The Process: There are different types of model available that are used to develop the
software.
We can choose any model according to the need of software development and need of
customer.
The Project: For the success of any project we must understand the risk/problem that may or
may not come in future.
According to John Reel the following ten points indicate that an information systems
project is in trouble:
Answer :
The CSFs (critical success factors) for a successful software project management are
listed blow:
Answer :
1. Concentric
2. Segmental
3. Eccentric
Concentric: These plates are used for ideal liquid as well as gases and steam service.
Concentric holes are present in these plates, thats why it is known as concentric orifice.
Segmental: This plate has hole in the form of segment of the circle. This plate is used for
colloidal and sherry flow measurement.
Eccentric: This plate has the eccentric holes. This plate is used in viscous and sherry flow
measurement.
Answer :
An orifice tab is welded on the orifice plate which extends out of the line giving an indication
of the orifice plate.
Answer :
Following reasons justify for providing orifice tab:
Answer :
Bernoulli’s theorem states that the ‘total energy of a liquid flowing from one point to another
remains constant’. It is applicable for non-compressible liquids. For different types of liquid
flow Bernoulli’s equation changes. There is direct proportion between speed of fluid and its
dynamic pressure and its kinetic energy. It can be used in various real life situations like
measuring pressure on aircraft wing and calibrating the airspeed indicator. It can also be used
to low pressure in the venturi tubes present in carburetor.
Answer :
Answer :
Flow varies directly as the square root of pressure. Thus, F=K of square root of applied
pressure. Since this flow varies as the square root of differential pressure. The pressure pen
does not directly indicate flow. Thus flow can be determined by taking the square root of the
pen. Assume the pen reads 50% of the chart. So, flow can be calculated using the pen
measure in the chart.
Question 7. Name Different Parts Of A Pressure Gauge. Explain The Use Of Hair
Spring In The Pressure Gauge?
Answer :
Use of hair spring: Hair spring is responsible for controlling torque. It is also used to
eliminate any play into linkages..
Answer :
In closed tank, bottom of the tank is connected to the high pressure side of the transmitter.
Top of tank is connected to the lower pressure side of the transmitter. In this way vessel
pressure can be measured.
Answer :
In open tank the lower pressure side is vented to the atmosphere. All pressure is applied to the
high pressure side. This vessel pressure is measured through high pressure side.
Answer :
The variation in level of buoyancy resulting from a change in liquid level varies the net
weight of the displacer increasing or decreasing the load on the torque arm. This change is
directly proportional to change in level and specific gravity of the liquid. The resulting torque
tube movement varies the angular motion of the rotor in RVDT providing a rotor change
proportional to the rotor displacement, which is converted and amplified to a D.C. current.
Answer :
Enraf level gauge is based on the ser powered null balance technique. A displacer serves as
continuous level sensing element. A two phase ser motor controlled by a capacitive balance
system winds unwinds the the measuring wire until the tension in the weight springs is in
balance with the weight of the displaced part immersed in the liquid. The sensing system in
balance measures the two capacitance formed by the moving central sensing rod provided by
the two capacitor plates and the si plates.
Answer :
The constant voltage circuit consists of a rectifier, CR and a filter capacitor. It is followed by
two stages of zener regulation. Abridge configuration is provided to lamp line voltage zener
regulation. Regulation 1 and regulation 2 provides relatively provide constant current.
Resistors form a bridge that may remoment line voltage effects.
Answer :
Burnout provides the warnsug feature of driving indicator at the end of scale, if the input
circuit is open. A burnout resistor is provided which develops a voltage drop between the
measuring circuit and amplifier. The polarity of the signal determines the direction of the
servo drive upon an open circuit in the input.
Question 14. Why Thermowells Are Used? What Materials Are Used In Thermo
Wells?
Answer :
Materials used in thermowells: Stainless steel, Inconel, Monel, Alloy Steel, Hastelloy
Answer :
Answer :
When, in some processes, e.g. batch processes, long transient responses are expected during
which a sustained deviation is present the controller integral action continuously drives the
output to a minimum or maximum value. This phenomenon is called ‘integral saturation of
the control unit’. When this condition is met, then this unit is de-saturated.
Question 17. Explain The Working Of Rotameter?
Answer :
Variable area meters are special form of head meters. Where in the area of flow restrictor is
varied. So as to hold the differential pressure constant. The rota meter consists of a vertical
tapered tube through which the metered fluid flows in upward direction. As the flow varies
the ‘float’ rises or falls to vary the area of the passages that the differential across it balances
the gravitational force on the ‘float’. The differential pressure is maintained constant. The
position of the ‘float’ is the measure of the rate of flow.
Answer :
An electric potential is developed when a conductor is moved across the magnetic field. In
most electrical machinery the conductor is a wire. The principle is equally applicable to a
moving, electrically conductive liquid. The primary device of commercial magnetic meters
consist of straight cylindrical electrically insulated tube with a pair of electrodes nearly flush
with the tube walls and located at opposite end of a tube diameter. This device is limited to
electrically conducting liquids. The magnetic meter is particularly suited to measurement of
slurries and dirty fluids.
Answer :
Turbine meters consist of straight flow tube within which a turbine or fan is free to rotate
about it s axis which is fixed along g the centre line of the tube. Mostly, a magnetic pick up
system senses the rotation of the rotor through the tube walls. The turbine meter is a flow rate
device, since the rotor speed is directly proportional to the flow rate. The output is usually in
the form of electric pulses from the magnetic pick up with a frequency proportional to the
flow rate.
Answer :
The most common range for differential range for liquid measurement is 0-100. This range is
high enough to minimize the errors caused by unequal heads in the seal chambers. It is also
dependent on the differences in the temperature of the load lines. The 100 range permits an
increased in capacity up to 400. While decrease down up to 20 by merely changing the range
tubes or range adjustments.
Answer :
The single seated valve is used on smaller sizes where an absolute shut off is required. The
use of single seated valve is limited by pressure drop across the valve in the closed or almost
closed position.
Answer :
In double seated valves the upward and downward forces on the plug due to reduction of
fluid pressure are nearly equalized. It is generally used on bigger size valves and high
pressure systems. Actuator forces required are less.
Answer :
1. Quick action
2. Valve hysteresis
3. Viscous liquids
4. Split range.
5. Line pressure changes on valve
6. Bench set not standard
7. Reverse valve operations
Question 24. What Are Primary Elements Of Measuring Pressure? Which Type Of
Pressure Can Be Measured By These Elements?
Answer :
1. Bourdon Tube
2. Diaphragm
3. Capsule
4. Bellows
5. Pressure springs
Answer :
1. C type
2. Spiral
3. Helix
Question 26. What Are Different Types Of Control Valves?
Answer :
a. Depending on Action: Depending on action there are two types of control valves
1. Air to open
2. Air to close
Answer :
Balanced draft boilers are generally used negative furnace pressure. When both forced draft
and induced draft are used together, at some point in the system the pressure will be same as
that of atmosphere. Therefore the furnace pressure must be negative to prevent hot gas
leakage. Excessive vacuum in the furnace however produces heat losses through air
infiltration. The most desirable condition is that the one have a very slight negative pressure
of the top of furnace.
Answer :
Intrinsic safety is a technique for designing electrical equipment for safe use in locations
made hazardous by the presence of flammable gas or vapours in the air. Intrinsically safe
circuit is one in which any spark or thermal effect produce either normally or under specified
fault conditions is incapable of causing ignition of a specified gas or vapour in air mixture at
the most ignited concentration.
Answer :
The breakdown region of a p-n diode can be made very sharp and almost vertical diodes with
almost vertical breakdown region are known a s zener diodes. A zener diode operating in the
breakdown region is equivalent to a battery. Because of this current through zener diode can
change but the voltage remains constant. It is this constant voltage that has made the zener
diode an important device in voltage regulation.
The breakdown region of a p-n diode can be made very sharp and almost vertical diodes with
almost vertical breakdown region are known a s zener diodes. A zener diode operating in the
breakdown region is equivalent to a battery. Because of this current through zener diode can
change but the voltage remains constant. It is this constant voltage that has made the zener
diode an important device in voltage regulation.
Voltage regulator: The output remains constant despite changes in the input voltage due to
zener effect.
Question 31. What Is Force Balance Principle? State Some Of Its’ Advantages?
Answer :
Force balance principle: A controller which generates an output signal by opposing torque.
The input force is applied on the input bellows which moves the beam. This crackles nozzle
back pressure. The nozzle back pressure is sensed by the balancing bellows which brings the
beam to balance. The baffle movement is very less about 0.002 for full scale output.
Advantages:
Answer :
A controller which generates an output signal by motion of its parts. The increase in the
baffle is to move towards the nozzle. The nozzle back pressure will increase. This increase in
the back pressure acting on the balancing bellows, will expand the bellows. The nozzle is
moved upward due to this. The nozzle will move until motion almost equals the input baffle
motion.
Answer :
A ratio control system is characterized by the fact that variations in the secondary variable
don’t reflect back on the primary variable. A ratio control system is the system where
secondary flow is hold in some proportion to a primary uncontrollable flow.
If we assume that the output of a primary transmitter is A. and the output of the secondary
transmitter is B, and that the multiplication factor of the ratio relay is K, then for equilibrium
conditions which means set valve is equal to measured valve,
KA-B=0 or B/A = K where ‘K’ is the ratio setting off the relay.
Answer :
1. Normally Open
2. Normally closed
Answer :
The technology which is used to measured and control the process system of plant is called
instrumentation. It is branch of engineering.
Answer :
Answer :
To elevate zero so that we can come to know whether it is dead zero or from signal.
Question 4. What Is The Difference Between Dry Leg And Wet Leg?
Answer :
Answer :
A positioner is a device put into a valve to ensure that it is at a correct position of opening as
per the control signal. An I/P converter only sends the opening/closing request to valve but
can not confirm its position.
Positioner senses the valve opening through a position feedback link connected to valve stem
which is its input signal. I/P converter output is its setpoint input. The difference between
these two is the error signal based on which the positioner positions the valve to correct
position to reduce error to zero. Hence positioner is nothing but a pneumatic feedback
controller.
Controlled external supply air to positioner provides power to positioner to position a valve.
Also positioner is used in a valve when valve operating signal range is different from I/P
converter output range.
Answer :
An electric potential is developed when a conductor is moved across the magnetic field. In
most electrical machinery the conductor is a wire. The principle is equally applicable to a
moving, electrically conductive liquid. The primary device of commercial magnetic meters
consist of straight cylindrical electrically insulated tube with a pair of electrodes nearly flush
with the tube walls and located at opposite end of a tube diameter. This device is limited to
electrically conducting liquids. The magnetic meter is particularly suited to measurement of
slurries and dirty fluids.
Answer :
Turbine meters consist of straight flow tube within which a turbine or fan is free to rotate
about it s axis which is fixed along g the centre line of the tube. Mostly, a magnetic pick up
system senses the rotation of the rotor through the tube walls. The turbine meter is a flow rate
device, since the rotor speed is directly proportional to the flow rate. The output is usually in
the form of electric pulses from the magnetic pick up with a frequency proportional to the
flow rate.
Answer :
The most common range for differential range for liquid measurement is 0-100. This range is
high enough to minimize the errors caused by unequal heads in the seal chambers. It is also
dependent on the differences in the temperature of the load lines. The 100 range permits an
increased in capacity up to 400. While decrease down up to 20 by merely changing the range
tubes or range adjustments.
Answer :
Variable area meters are special form of head meters. Where in the area of flow restrictor is
varied. So as to hold the differential pressure constant. The rota meter consists of a vertical
tapered tube through which the metered fluid flows in upward direction. As the flow varies
the ‘float' rises or falls to vary the area of the passages that the differential across it balances
the gravitational force on the ‘float'. The differential pressure is maintained constant. The
position of the ‘float' is the measure of the rate of flow.
Answer :
When, in some processes, e.g. batch processes, long transient responses are expected during
which a sustained deviation is present the controller integral action continuously drives the
output to a minimum or maximum value. This phenomenon is called ‘integral saturation of
the control unit'. When this condition is met, then this unit is de-saturated.
Answer :
Answer :
1. Normally Open
2. Normally closed
Answer :
A ratio control system is characterized by the fact that variations in the secondary variable
don't reflect back on the primary variable. A ratio control system is the system where
secondary flow is hold in some proportion to a primary uncontrollable flow.
If we assume that the output of a primary transmitter is A. and the output of the secondary
transmitter is B, and that the multiplication factor of the ratio relay is K, then for equilibrium
conditions which means set valve is equal to measured valve.
KA-B=0 or B/A = K where ‘K' is the ratio setting off the relay.
Answer :
Answer :
A controller which generates an output signal by motion of its parts. The increase in the
baffle is to move towards the nozzle. The nozzle back pressure will increase. This increase in
the back pressure acting on the balancing bellows, will expand the bellows. The nozzle is
moved upward due to this. The nozzle will move until motion almost equals the input baffle
motion.
Question 16. What Is Force Balance Principle? State Some Of Its' Advantages?
Answer :
Force balance principle: A controller which generates an output signal by opposing torque.
The input force is applied on the input bellows which moves the beam. This crackles nozzle
back pressure. The nozzle back pressure is sensed by the balancing bellows which brings the
beam to balance. The baffle movement is very less about 0.002 for full scale output.
Advantages:
Answer :
The breakdown region of a p-n diode can be made very sharp and almost vertical diodes with
almost vertical breakdown region are known a s zener diodes. A zener diode operating in the
breakdown region is equivalent to a battery. Because of this current through zener diode can
change but the voltage remains constant. It is this constant voltage that has made the zener
diode an important device in voltage regulation.
Voltage regulator: The output remains constant despite changes in the input voltage due to
zener effect.
Answer :
Intrinsic safety is a technique for designing electrical equipment for safe use in locations
made hazardous by the presence of flammable gas or vapours in the air.
Intrinsically safe circuit is one in which any spark or thermal effect produce either normally
or under specified fault conditions is incapable of causing ignition of a specified gas or
vapour in air mixture at the most ignited concentration.
Answer :
Balanced draft boilers are generally used negative furnace pressure. When both forced draft
and induced draft are used together, at some point in the system the pressure will be same as
that of atmosphere. Therefore the furnace pressure must be negative to prevent hot gas
leakage.
Excessive vacuum in the furnace however produces heat losses through air infiltration. The
most desirable condition is that the one have a very slight negative pressure of the top of
furnace.
Answer :
Depending on action there are two types of control valves 1. Air to close 2. Air to close
b. Depending on body:
2. Angle valves
3. Butterfly valves
Answer :
1. C type
2. Spiral
3. Helix
Question 22. What Are Primary Elements Of Measuring Pressure? Which Type Of
Pressure Can Be Measured By These Elements?
Answer :
a. Bourdon Tube
b. Diaphragm
c. Capsule
d. Bellows
e. Pressure springs
Answer :
a. Quick action
b. Valve hysterisis
c. Viscous liquids
d. Split range.
e. Line pressure changes on valve
f. Bench set not standard
g. Reverse valve operations
Answer :
In double seated valves the upward and downward forces on the plug due to reduction of
fluid pressure are nearly equalized. It is generally used on bigger size valves and high
pressure systems. Actuator forces required are less.
Answer :
The single seated valve is used on smaller sizes where an absolute shut off is required. The
use of single seated valve is limited by pressure drop across the valve in the closed or almost
closed position.
Question 26. Name Different Parts Of A Pressure Gauge? Explain The Use Of Hair
Spring In The Pressure Gauge?
Answer :
Use of hair spring: Hair spring is responsible for controlling torque. It is also used to
eliminate any play into linkages.
Answer :
Flow varies directly as the square root of pressure. Thus, F=K of square root of applied
pressure. Since this flow varies as the square root of differential pressure.
The pressure pen does not directly indicate flow. Thus flow can be determined by taking the
square root of the pen. Assume the pen reads 50% of the chart. So, flow can be calculated
using the pen measure in the chart.
Question 28. Explain How Can A D.p. Transmitter Be Calibrated?
Answer :
2. Perform static pressure test: Give equal pressure on both sides of transmitter. Zero
should not shift either side. If the zero shifts then carry out static alignment.
3. Perform vacuum test: Apply equal vacuum to both the sides. Zero should not shift.
4. Calibration procedure: Give 20 psi air supply to the transmitter and vent L.P. side to
atmosphere. Connect output of the instrument to the standard test gauge. Adjust zero. Apply
required pressure to the high pressure side and adjust the span. Adjust zero gain if necessary.
Answer :
Bernoulli's theorem states that the ‘total energy of a liquid flowing from one point to another
remains constant'. It is applicable for non-compressible liquids. For different types of liquid
flow Bernoulli's equation changes. There is direct proportion between speed of fluid and its
dynamic pressure and its kinetic energy.
It can be used in various real life situations like measuring pressure on aircraft wing and
calibrating the airspeed indicator. It can also be used to low pressure in the venturi tubes
present in carburetor.
Answer :
Question 31. Do You Know How Do You Identify An Orifice In The Pipeline?
Answer :
An orifice tab is welded on the orifice plate which extends out of the line giving an indication
of the orifice plate.
Question 32. Explain What Are Different Types Of Orifice Plates? State Their Uses?
Answer :
1. Concentric
2. Segmental
3. Eccentric
Concentric: These plates are used for ideal liquid as well as gases and steam service.
Concentric holes are present in these plates, thats why it is known as concentric orifice.
Segmental: This plate has hole in the form of segment of the circle. This plate is used for
colloidal and sherry flow measurement.
Eccentric: This plate has the eccentric holes. This plate is used in viscous and sherry flow
measurement.
Question 33. Why Thermo Wells Are Used? What Materials Are Used In Thermo
Wells?
Answer :
Materials used in thermo wells: Stainless steel, Inconel, Monel, Alloy Steel, Hastelloy
Answer :
Burnout provides the warnsug feature of driving indicator at the end of scale, if the input
circuit is open. A burnout resistor is provided which develops a voltage drop between the
measuring circuit and amplifier. The polarity of the signal determines the direction of the
servo drive upon an open circuit in the input.
Answer :
The constant voltage circuit consists of a rectifier, CR and a filter capacitor. It is followed by
two stages of zener regulation. Abridge configuration is provided to lamp line voltage zener
regulation. Regulation 1 and regulation 2 provides relatively provide constant current.
Resistors form a bridge that may remoment line voltage effects.
Answer :
Enraf level gauge is based on the ser powered null balance technique. A displacer serves as
continuous level sensing element. A two phase ser motor controlled by a capacitive balance
system winds unwinds the the measuring wire until the tension in the weight springs is in
balance with the weight of the displaced part immersed in the liquid. The sensing system in
balance measures the two capacitance formed by the moving central sensing rod provided by
the two capacitor plates and the si plates.
Answer :
The variation in level of buoyancy resulting from a change in liquid level varies the net
weight of the displacer increasing or decreasing the load on the torque arm. This change is
directly proportional to change in level and specific gravity of the liquid. The resulting torque
tube movement varies the angular motion of the rotor in RVDT providing a rotor change
proportional to the rotor displacement, which is converted and amplified to a D.C. current.
Question 38. Explain How D.p. Transmitter Can Be Applied To Open Tank?
Answer :
In open tank the lower pressure side is vented to the atmosphere. All pressure is applied to the
high pressure side. This vessel pressure is measured through high pressure side.
Question 39. Do You Know How D.p. Transmitter Can Be Applied To Close Tank?
Answer :
In closed tank, bottom of the tank is connected to the high pressure side of the transmitter.
Top of tank is connected to the lower pressure side of the transmitter. In this way vessel
pressure can be measured.
Answer :
excessive pressure to your differential pressure transmitter, you could damage your
instrument. This is known as over-ranging the transmitter.
A three-way manifold valve is a device that prevents the instrument from being over-ranged.
It also allows the isolation of the transmitter from the process loop (an option which could be
used generaly for maintenance or re-calibration or fitting new equipment).
Question 41. Why We Giving Input To Electronic Amplifier In Inverting Pin? What
Is The Reason Behind That?
Answer :
if we need a phase shift than we give input n inverting pin or when we need to boost signal at
higher level, i.e; using cascade stages of amplification(even) than we also use inverting pin.
Answer :
They typically work for industries with automated processes, such as chemical or
manufacturing plants, with the goal of improving system productivity, reliability, safety,
optimization and stability.
Answer :
Device Field Parameter(s) Valve Flow, Pressure Relay Voltage, Current Solenoid Physical
Location, Level Circuit breaker Voltage, Current.
Answer :
Answer :
Control valve can not be without positioner. The purpose of the positioner is to control the
control valve stroke so as to keep the valve in desired position. The positioner receives signal
from the controller, and send the boosted signal to the actuator to reach the desired position
as and when the valve reaches the desired position the positioner cuts the boosted signal to
the actuator and keeps the position.
Answer :
Generally in a transistor some amount of voltage is required for turning it on. This voltage is
the cut in voltage. Up to this voltage the exists a nonlinearity in its characteristics. Beyond
this cut in voltage the char. of transistor is linear. This nonlinear region lays between 0-4ma,
beyond 4ma it linear. This is why 4-20 ma range is used.
Question 47. What Is Remote Mount With Mta Option? (in Case Of Dual Sensor
Vortex Flowmeter, Rosemount Has Written In Its Catalog Drawings)?
Answer :
Remote mount with MTA means MTA connector for mounting remote connection.
MTA is the Connector used for connection. Generally we called it MTA Connector.
There are many types of MTA connector such as MTA 100connectors, Mta 156 connectors
etc.
Question 48. How To Write The Program For Single Push Button By Using Ladder
Diagram?
Answer :
Answer :
1. Flow
2. Pressure
3. Temperature
4. Level
5. Quality i. e. % D2, C02, PH etc.
Question 2. Define All The Process Variable And State Their Unit Of Measurement?
Answer :
Answer :
1. Orifice Plate.
2. Venturi tube.
3. Pitot tube.
4. Annubars.
5. Flow Nozzle.
6. Weir & Flumes.
Question 4. What Are The Different Types Of Orifice Plates And State Their Uses?
Answer :
1. Concentric.
2. Segmental.
3. Eccentric.
CONCENTRIC: The concentric orifice plate is used for ideal liquid as well as gases and
steam service. This orifice as a hole in concentric and hence known as concentric orifice.
Eccentric & Segmental: The eccentric orifice plate has a hole eccentric. The use this is
made in viscous and sherry flow measurement.
The segmental orifice place has the hole in the form segment of a circle. This is used for
colloidal and sherry flow measurement.
Answer :
An orifice tab is welded on the orifice plate which extends our of the line giving an indication
of the orifice plate.
Answer :
Answer :
Bernoulli’s theoram states the “total energy of a liquid flowing from one point to another
remains constant.” It is applicable for non compressible liquids.
Answer :
The marking is always done H. P. side of the orifice tab which gives an indication of the
H.P.side.
Question 9. How Do You Calibrate A D. P. Transmitter?
Answer :
Calibration Procedure:
Question 10. What Is The Seal Liquid Used For Filling Impulse Lines On Crude And
Viscous Liquid?
Answer :
Glycol.
Question 11. How Do You Carry Out Piping For A Different Pressure Flow
Transmitter On Liquids, Gas And Steam Services? Why?
Answer :
Liquid lines: On liquid lines the transmitter is mounted below the orifice plate. Since liquids
have a property of self draining.
Gas Service: On gas service the transmitter is mounted above the orifice plate because Gases
have a property of self venting and secondly condenlate formation.
Steam Service: On steam service the transmitter is mounted below the orifice plate with
condenlate pots. The pots should be at the same level.
Question 12. An Operator Tells You That Flow Indication Is More? How Would You
Start Checking?
Answer :
1. First flushing the transmitter. Flush both the impulse lines. Adjust the zero by
equalizing if necessary. If still the indication is more then.
2. Check L.P. side for choke. If that is clean then.
3. Check the leaks on L.P. side. If not.
4. Calibrate the transmitter.
Question 13. How Do You Do A Zero Check On A D.p. Transmitter?
Answer :
Close one of the valve either H.P. or L.P. open the equalizing valve. The O/P should read
zero.
Question 14. How Would You Do Glycol Filling Or Fill Seal Liquids In Seal Pots 7
Draw And Explain?
Answer :
Question 15. How Do You Calculate New Factor From New Range Using Old Factor
And Old Range?
Answer :
New Factor = _!New Range Old Factor = _IOld Range Flow = K_!Range
Question 16. How Will You Vent Air In The D.p. Cell? What If Seal Pots Are Used?
Answer :
Answer :
Flow varies directly as the square root of different pressure F = K square root of ΔP.
Since this flow varies as the square root of differential pressure the pen does not
directly indicate flow.
The flow can be determined by taking the square root of the pen. Say the pen reads
50% of chart.