ELEMENT IV – Amateur Radio Practice

1. What reading on an SWR meter indicates perfect impedance match between the antenna and the feed line?
A. 2 to 1
B. 1 to 3
C. 1 to 1
D. 10 to 1

2. Which of the following precautions should be taken when measuring circuit resistance with an ohmmeter?
A. Ensure that the applied voltages are correct
B. Ensure that the circuit is not powered
C. Ensure that the circuit is grounded
D. Ensure that the circuit is operating at the correct frequency

3. What is the minimum safe distance from a power line when installing an antenna?
A. Half the width of your property
B. The height of the power line above ground
C. 1/2 wavelength at the operating frequency
D. So that if the antenna falls unexpectedly, no part of it can come closer than 10 feet to the power wires
must be 50 feet

4. What is an instance in which the use of an instrument with analog readout may be preferred over an
instrument with a numerical digital readout?
A. When testing logic circuits
B. When high precision is desired
C. When measuring the frequency of an oscillator
D. When adjusting tuned circuits.

5. What type of filter should be connected to a TV receiver as the first step in trying to prevent RF overload from
a nearby 2 M transmitter?
A. Low-pass filter
B. High-pass filter
C. Band-pass filter
D. Band-reject filter

6. What is the source of a high-pitched whine that varies with engine speed in a mobile transceiver's receive
audio?
A. The ignition system
B. The alternator
C. the electric fuel pump
D. Anti-lock braking system controllers

7. Which of the following controls could be used if the voice pitch of a single side band signal seems too high or
too low?
A. The AGC or limiter
B. Bandwidth selection
C. The tone squelch
D. The receiver RIT or clarifier
8. Which of the following is a common use of coaxial cable?
A. Carry dc power from a vehicle battery to a mobile radio
B. Carry RF signals between a radio and antenna
C. Secure masts, tubing and other cylindrical objects on towers
D. Connect data signals from a TNC to a computer

9. Which instrument is used to measure electrical current?

A. An ohmmeter
B. A wave-meter
C. A voltmeter
D. An ammeter

10. What could be used in place of a regular speaker to help you copy signals in a noisy area?
A. A video display
B. A low pass filter
C. A set of headphones
D. A boom microphone

11. Where should a mobile transceiver's power negative connection be made?

A. At the battery or engine block ground strap
B. At the antenna mount
C. To any metal part of the vehicle
D. Through the transceiver's mounting bracket

12. Which of the following can be used to enter the operating frequency of a modern transceiver?
A. The keypad or VFO knob
B. The CTCSS or DTMF encoder
C. The Automatic Frequency Control
D. All the choices are correct

13. Which of the following measurements are commonly used using a multi meter?
A. SWR and RF power
B. Signal strength and noise
C. Impedance and resistance
D. Voltage and resistance

14. What signals are used to conduct a two-tone test?

A. Two audio signals of the same frequency
B. Two non-harmonically related audio signals
C. Two swept frequency tones
D. Two audio frequency range square wave signals

15. Which of the following can be the result of an incorrectly adjusted speech processor?
A. Distorted speech
B. Splatter
C. Excessive background pickup
D. All of these choices are correct

16. Which of the following frequencies is in the 12-meter band?

A. 3.940 MHz
B. 12.940 MHz
C. 17.940 MHz
D. 24.940 MHz
17. Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies?
A. Nets always have priority
B. QSO's in process always have priority
C. No one has priority access to frequencies, common courtesy should be a guide
D. Contest operations must always yield to non-contest use of frequencies

18. How can a ground loop be avoided?

A. Connect all ground connections in series
B. Connect the AC neutral conductor to the ground wire
C. Avoid using lock washers and star washers when making ground connections
D. Connect all ground contacts to a single point

19. Which of the following can be the result of an improperly adjusted speech processor?
A. Distorted Speech
B. Splatter
C. Excessive background pick up
D. All of these choices are correct

20. Which of the following components should be added to a capacitor to increase the capacitance?
A. An inductor in series
B. A resistor in series
C. A capacitor in parallel
D. A capacitor in series

21. Which frequency is within the 6-meter band?

A. 49.00 MHz
B. 52.525 MHz
C. 28.50 MHz
D. 222.15 MHz

22. Under which of the following circumstances are amateur stations authorized to transmit signals related to
broadcasting, program production, or news gathering, assuming no other means is available?
A. Only where such communications directly relate to immediate safety of human life or protection of
property
B. Only when broadcasting communications to and from the space shuttle
C. Only when non-commercial programming is gathered and supplied exclusively to the Kapisanan ng mga
Brodkaster sa Pilipinas
D. Only when using amateur repeaters linked through the internet

23. What might cause erratic changes in SWR readings?

A. The transmitter is being modulated
B. A loose connection in an antenna or a feedline
C. The transmitter is being over-modulated
D. Interference from other stations is distorting your signal

24. How is an ammeter usually connected to a circuit?

A. In series with the circuit
B. In parallel with the circuit
C. In quadrature with the circuit
D. In phase with the circuit
25. What, in general terms, is standing wave ratio (SWR)?
A. A measure of how well a load is matched to a transmission line
B. The ratio of high to low impedance in a feed line
C. The transmitter efficiency ratio
D. An indication of the quality of your station's ground connection

26. What should you do if you receive a report that your station's transmissions are causing splatter or
interference on nearby frequencies?
A. Increase transmit power
B. Change mode of transmission
C. Report the interference to the equipment manufacturer
D. Check your transmitter for off-frequency operation or spurious emissions

27. Where must a filter be installed to reduce harmonic emissions?

A. Between the transmitter and the antenna
B. Between the receiver and the transmitter
C. At the station power supply
D. At the microphone

28. What electrical component is used to connect or disconnect electrical circuits?

A. Zener Diode
B. Switch
C. Inductor
D. Variable resistor

29. Which of the following may be useful in correcting a radio frequency interference problem?
A. Snap-on ferrite chokes
B. Low-pass and high-pass filters
C. Band-reject and band-pass filters
D. All of these choices are correct

30. What popular operating activity involves contacting as many stations as possible during a specified period of
time?
A. Contesting
B. Net operations
C. Public service events
D. Simulated emergency exercises

31. What type of instrument can be used to accurately measure an RF field?

A. A receiver with an S meter
B. A calibrated field-strength meter with a calibrated antenna
C. A betascope with a dummy antenna calibrated at 50Ω
D. An oscilloscope with a high-stability crystal marker generator

32. What is the purpose of a transmitter power supply interlock?

A. To prevent unauthorized access to a transmitter
B. To guarantee that you cannot accidentally transmit out of band
C. To ensure that dangerous voltages are removed if the cabinet is opened
D. To shut off the transmitter if too much current is drawn
33. What is normally meant by operating a transceiver in "split" mode?
A. The radio is operating at half power
B. The transceiver is operating from an external power source
C. The transceiver is set to different transmit and receive frequencies
D. The transmitter is emitting a SSB signal, as opposed to DSB operation

34. Which of these connector types is commonly used for audio signals in Amateur Radio stations?
A. PL-259
B. BNC
C. RCA Phono
D. Type N

35. Which HF antenna would be the best to use for minimizing interference?
A. A quarter-wave vertical antenna
B. An isotropic antenna
C. A unidirectional antenna
D. An omnidirectional antenna

36. Which of the following can be determined with a field strength meter?
A. The radiation resistance of an antenna
B. The radiation pattern of an antenna
C. The presence and amount of phase distortion of a transmitter
D. The presence and amount of amplitude distortion of a transmitter

37. What are the typical characteristic impedances of coaxial cables used for antenna feed lines at amateur
stations?
A. 25Ω and 30Ω
B. 50Ω and 75Ω
C. 80Ω and 100Ω
D. 500Ω and 750Ω

38. What brief statement is often used in place of "CQ" to indicate that you are listening on a repeater?
A. Say "Hello test" followed by your call sign
B. Say your call sign
C. Say the repeater call sign followed by your call sign
D. Say the letters "QSY" followed by your call sign

39. Which of the following is common practice during net operations to get the immediate attention of the net
control station when reporting an emergency?
A. Repeat the words SOS three times followed by the call sign of the reporting station
B. Press the push-to-talk button three times
C. Begin your transmission with "Priority" or "Emergency" followed by your call sign
D. Play a pre-recorded emergency alert tone followed by your call sign

40. What is the formula for converting frequency to wavelength in meters?

A. Wavelength in meters equals frequency in hertz multiplied by 300
B. Wavelength in meters equals frequency in hertz divided by 300
C. Wavelength in meters equals frequency in megahertz divided by 300
D. Wavelength in meters equals 300 divided by frequency in megahertz
41. Which of the following describes the common meaning of the term "repeater offset"?
A. The distance between the repeater's transmit and receive antennas
B. The time delay before the repeater timer resets
C. The difference between the repeater's transmit and receive frequencies
D. The maximum frequency deviation permitted on the repeater's input signal

42. Which of the following types of solder is best for radio and electronic use?
A. Acid-core solder
B. Silver solder
C. Rosin-core solder
D. Aluminum solder

43. Which of these items would be useful for a hidden transmitter hunt?
A. Calibrated SWR meter
B. A directional antenna
C. A calibrated noise bridge
D. All of these choices are correct

44. What does an antenna tuner do?

A. It matches the antenna system impedance to the transceiver's output impedance
B. It helps a receiver automatically tune in weak stations
C. It allows an antenna to be used on both transmit and receive
D. It automatically selects the proper antenna for the frequency band being used

45. Which of the following is a common use for the dual VFO feature on a transceiver?
A. To allow transmitting on two frequencies at once
B. To permit full duplex operation, that is transmitting and receiving at the same time
C. To permit ease of monitoring the transmit and receive frequencies when they are not the same
D. To facilitate computer interface

46. What is an advantage of a digital voltmeter as compared to an analog voltmeter?

A. Better for measuring computer circuits
B. Better for RF measurements
C. Better precision for most uses
D. Faster response

47. What could be a symptom of a ground loop somewhere in your station?

A. You receive reports of "hum" on your station's transmitted signal
B. The SWR reading for one or more antennas is suddenly very high
C. An item of station equipment starts to draw excessive amounts of current
D. You receive reports of harmonic interference from your station

48. What does an S-meter measure?

A. Conductance
B. Impedance
C. Received signal strength
D. Transmitter power output

49. Which of the following phone emissions uses the narrowest frequency bandwidth?
A. Single side band
B. Double side band
C. Phase modulation
D. Frequency modulation
50. What is the approximate length for a 1/2-wave dipole antenna cut for 3.550 MHz?
A. 42 feet
B. 84 feet
C. 131 feet
D. 263 feet

51. What is a logic probe?

A. A probe used for analyzing and troubleshooting logical states.
B. A probe to detect if a person is lying or telling the truth
C. A probe for detecting underwater objects
D. A probe for measuring changes in ambient temperature

52. An oscilloscope displays signals in what format?

A. Amplitude level and time duration
B. Amplitude level and frequency span
C. Noise floor of the signal
D. Signal to noise ratio

53. A Grid-dip meter/solid state dip meter measures what parameter?

A. A dip in voltage reading
B. A peak in voltage reading
C. Resonant frequency of an LC tank circuit
D. Number of cycles per second

54. Where do we use a frequency counter?

A. To measure the frequency of an RF Oscillator
B. To measure the Frequency of an Audio Oscillator
C. Measure the reference frequency in a PLL circuit
D. All of the above

55. What is intermodulation interference?

A. Interference caused by odd order harmonics of a transmitter's fundamental frequency.
B. Interference caused by the combining several signals in a non-linear device producing new unwanted
frequencies.
C. Interference caused by a shift in the carrier frequency of an AM transmitter.
D. Interference caused by signals arriving from different paths.

56. What is receiver desensitization?

A. When the receiver front-end is misaligned
B. Defective RF amplifier in the receiver
C. The receiver is not tuned to the correct frequency
D. Overloading of a receiver front-end by a strong off-channel signal causing a reduction in sensitivity

57. What is cross-modulation?

A. The transfer of the amplitude modulation of a strong unwanted carrier onto the wanted carrier caused
by non-linearity in the RF amplifier or mixer of a receiver
B. Modulation produced after passing through a zero-crossing detector
C. Modulation based on the zero-crossings of an RF signal
D. Modulation which is a cross between an AM and FM mode
58. What type of electrical circuit is created when a fuse blows?
A. A closed circuit
B. A bypass circuit
C. An open circuit
D. A Short circuit

59. What term describes the process of combining an information signal with a radio signal?
A. Superposition
B. Modulation
C. Demodulation
D. Phase-inversion

60. What is the meaning of: "Your signal is full quieting..."?

A. Your signal is strong enough to overcome all receiver noise
B. Your signal has no spurious sounds
C. Your signal is not strong enough to be received
D. Your signal is being received, but no audio is being heard

61. If you are told your amateur station is causing television interference, what should you do?
A. First make sure your station is operating properly, and it does not cause interference to your own
television
B. Immediately turn off your transmitter and contact the nearest NTC office
C. Connect a high-pass filter to the transmitter output and low-pass filter to the antenna input of the television
D. Continue operating normally, because you have no reason to worry about the interference

62. How many hertz are there in a kilohertz?

A. 10
B. 100
C. 1000
D. 1,000,000

63. Approximately how long is the driven element of a Yagi antenna?

A. 1/4 wavelength
B. 1/3 wavelength
C. 1/2 wavelength
D. 1 wavelength

64. What could happen to your transceiver if you replace its blown 5 amp AC line fuse with a 30 amp fuse?
A. The 30-amp fuse would better protect your transceiver from using too much current
B. The transceiver would run cooler
C. The transceiver could use more current than 5 amps and a fire could occur
D. The transceiver would not be able to produce as much RF output

65. How could you best keep unauthorized persons from using your amateur station at home?
A. Use a carrier-operated relay in the main power line
B. Use a key-operated on/off switch in the main power line
C. Put a "Danger-High Voltage" sign in the station
D. Put fuses in the main power line
66. What is the most important accessory to have for a hand-held radio in an emergency?
A. An extra antenna
B. A portable amplifier
C. Several sets of charged batteries
D. A microphone headset for hands-free operation

67. What may happen if an SSB transmitter is operated with the microphone gain set too high?
A. It may cause digital interference to computer equipment
B. It may cause splatter interference to other stations operating near its frequency
C. It may cause atmospheric interference in the air around the antenna
D. It may cause interference to other stations operating on a higher frequency

68. Most humans can hear sounds in what frequency range?

A. 0-20 Hz
B. 20-20,000 Hz
C. 200-200,000 Hz
D. 10,000-30.000 Hz

69. What instrument is used to measure standing wave ratio?

A. An ohmmeter
B. An ammeter
C. An SWR meter
D. A current bridge

70. If your mobile transceiver does not power up, what might you check first?
A. The antenna feed point
B. The coaxial cable connector
C. The microphone jack
D. The 12-volt fuses

71. In what radio frequency range do 2-meter communications take place?

A. UHF, Ultra High Frequency range
B. MF, Medium Frequency range
C. HF, High Frequency range
D. VHF, Very High Frequency range

72. What circuit blocks RF energy above and below certain limits?
A. A band-pass filter
B. A high-pass filter
C. An input filter
D. A low-pass filter

73. Which of the following devices would you need to conduct Amateur Radio communications using a data
emission?
A. A Telegraph key
B. A Computer
C. A Transducer
D. A telemetry sensor
74. What is a coaxial cable?
A. Two wires side-by-side in a plastic ribbon
B. Two wires side-by-side held apart by insulating rods
C. Two wires twisted around each other in a spiral
D. A center wire inside an insulating material covered by a metal sleeve or shield

75. What does a "TR" switch means?

A. A Transfer Relay switch
B. A Telephone Response switch
C. A Transmit-Receive change-over switch
D. A Telephone Receiver switch

76. What is capture effect?

A. The capturing of electrons in a vacuum tube by the plate electrode.
B. A phenomenon in FM reception in which only the stronger of two signals at, or near, the same
frequency will be demodulated.
C. Wide band antennas have this characteristic effect.
D. This phenomenon is inherent in AM modulation.

77. What is used to test the linearity and output power of an SSB transceiver?
A. Single-tone sine wave test
B. Single-tone square wave test
C. Two-tone sine wave test
D. Three-tone sine wave test

78. A logic probe has three LED's (Light Emitting Diode), red, green and amber, what does a flashing amber
light indicate?
A. A pulse signal
B. A logic low signal
C. A logic high signal
D. An open state signal

79. What does a spectrum analyzer test instrument display?

A. Time domain wave forms
B. Frequency domain wave forms
C. Spectral composition of light
D. Spectral analysis of elements

80. Why do we use a dummy load?

A. Using a transceiver without a load or antenna can seriously damage it
B. Transmitting into a dummy load does not cause interference
C. Incorrect adjustment of a transmitter when connected to a mismatched antenna than to a known load
D. All of the above choices

81. What is frequency drift?

A. Unintended and arbitrary offset of an oscillator from its nominal frequency
B. It is caused by changes in temperature, voltage or changes in component values
C. measured either in the long-term or short-term period of time
D. All of the above choices
82. What is frequency tolerance?
A. Initial deviation of a crystal or oscillator frequency as compared to the absolute at 25 deg. C.
B. Detuning of receiver front-end caused by overload
C. Ability to recover from frequency changes
D. Ability to tolerate shock and vibration

83. What does the term "Frequency Stability Over Temperature means"?
A. Frequency tolerance with respect to a range of temperature measured in PPM or Parts Per Million
B. The higher the PPM value the better is the stability
C. This specification is intended for RF amplifiers
D. It measures the gain with respect to temperature

84. What does the term "Selectivity" means?

A. It pertains to the selection of components in a circuit
B. It is a process where majority carriers are selected in a semiconductor material
C. A term that refers to the selection of channels in a transmitter
D. It is the ability of a receiver to distinguish between a signal at the desired frequency and signals at
adjacent frequencies

85. What does the term "Receiver Sensitivity" means?

A. It is a measure of a receiver's ability to re-produce very weak signals
B. It is a measure of a receiver's ability to re-produce the modulation exactly as it was transmitted
C. It is the ability of a receiver to overcome strong signals
D. It is the ability of a receiver to discriminate against off frequency signals

86. What safety equipment item should you always add to home built equipment that is powered from 230 volt
AC lines?
A. A fuse or circuit breaker in series with the equipment
B. A fuse or circuit breaker in parallel with the equipment
C. Install Zener diodes across AC inputs
D. House the equipment in a plastic or other non-conductive enclosure

87. What is the most important safety precaution to take when putting up an antenna tower?
A. Install steps on your tower for safe climbing
B. Insulate the base of the tower to avoid lightning strikes
C. Ground the base of the tower to avoid lightning strikes
D. Look for and stay clear of any overhead electrical wires

88. To avoid excessively high human exposure to RF fields, how should amateur antennas generally be
mounted?
A. With a high current point near ground
B. As far away from accessible areas as possible
C. On a non-metallic mast
D. With the elements in a horizontal position

89. What are the frequency limits of the 2-meter band in ITU Region 3?
A. 144.000-148.000 MHz
B. 145.000-149.500 MHz
C. 144.100-146.500 MHz
D. 144.000-146.000 MHz
90. Considering RF safety, what precaution should you take whenever you make adjustments to the feed line of a
directional antenna system?
A. Be sure no one can activate the transmitter
B. Disconnect the antenna-positioning mechanism
C. Point the antenna away from the sun so it doesn't concentrate solar energy on you
D. Be sure you and the antenna structure are properly grounded

91.If you are the net control station of a daily HF net, what should you do if the frequency on which you
normally meet is in use just before the net begins?
A. Reduce your output power and start the net as usual
B. Increase your power output so that the net participants will be able to hear you over the existing activity
C. Conduct the net on a clear frequency 3 to 5 kHz away from the regular net frequency
D. Cancel the net for the day

92. What is the purpose of the VOX sensitivity control?

A. To set the timing of transmitter activation
B. To set the audio frequency range at which the transmitter activates
C. To set the audio level at which the transmitter activates
D. None of these choices is correct

93. What is the best instrument to use to check the signal quality of a CW or single side band phone transmitter?
A. A monitoring oscilloscope
B. A field-strength meter
C. A side tone monitor
D. A signal tracer and an audio amplifier

94. Which of the following statements about station grounding is true?

A. The chassis of each piece of station equipment should be tied together with high-impedance conductors
B. If the chassis of all station equipment is connected with a good conductor, there is no need to tie them to an
earth ground
C. RF hot spots can occur in a station located above the ground floor if the equipment is grounded by a
long ground wire
D. A ground loop is an effective way to ground station equipment

95. If a single side band phone transmitter is 100% modulated, what will a speech processor do to the
transmitter's power?
A. It will increase the output PEP
B. It will add nothing to the output PEP
C. It will decrease the peak output power
D. It will decrease the average power output

96. Why is it best not to draw the DC power for a 100-Watt HF transceiver from an automobile's cigarette lighter
socket?
A. The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable
B. The socket's wiring may not be adequate for the current being drawn by the transceiver
C. The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceiver
D. The power from the socket is never adequately filtered for HF transceiver operation
97. Which of the following is an advantage of a switched-mode power supply as compared to a linear power
supply?
A. Higher output voltages are possible with the switched-mode supply
B. Fewer circuit components are required for the switched-mode power supply
C. The relatively high frequency power oscillator allows the use of small, light weight and low-cost
transformers in the switched-mode supply
D. All of the above

98. What would be the SWR if you feed a vertical antenna that has a 25-ohm feed point impedance with 50-ohm
coaxial cable?
A. 2:1
B. 2.5:1
C. 1.25:1
D. You cannot determine SWR from impedance values

99. What RF-safety precautions should you take before beginning repairs on an antenna?
A. Be sure you and the antenna structure are grounded
B. Be sure to turn off the transmitter and disconnect the feed line
C. Inform your neighbors so they are aware of your intentions
D. Turn off the main power switch in your house

100. What is the best reason to use a headset with an attached microphone and VOX control when using a
mobile station?
A. For safer, hands-free operation
B. It allows you to make quicker transmissions
C. To eliminate ambient noise from your transmissions
D. To reduce outside distractions while operating

101. What is a device used for radiating electromagnetic signals fed into it from a radio transmitter into space, or
for capturing a small portion of the RF energy from space and then feeding it into a receiver for subsequent
processing?
A. LED bulb
B. Fuse
C. Antenna
D. Diode

102. What is an electromechanical device having one or more contacts that are opened and closed by a magnetic
field generated by its own built-in electromagnet that can be activated by an external circuit?
A. Relay
B. Switch
C. Transformer
D. Mouse