B A N G A L O R E C E N T R E

FIITJEENTSE STAGE 1 TEST

MOCK TEST - 6

Time:120Minutes Maximum Marks:100

Scholastic Aptitude Test (SAT)

Instructions

➢ The question paper consists of 100multiple choice questions divided into five sections.
Section – I contains 40 questions of SST.

Section – II contains 20 questions of Mathematics.

Section – III contains 13 questions of Physics.

Section – IV contains 13questionsofChemistry.

Section – V contains 14 questions of Biology.

➢ Each question carries +1 marks.

➢ There is No negative marking.
➢ Attempt All questions.
➢ Use of Calculator is NOT PERMITTED.
➢ All symbols have their usual meanings, if not mentioned in the question.
➢ The Question Paper contains blank spaces for your rough work.

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No additional sheets will be provided for rough work.

➢ This booklet also contains OMR answer sheet.

Name of the Candidate : ……………….…………………………………..

Enrollment Number :…………………………………………………….

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SECTION-1
1. Choose the correct answer by matching them:
Column A Column B
(a) Raja Ram mohanroy (i) Jyotibaphule
(b) Arya samaj (ii) Dayanandasaraswati
(c) SatyaShodakSamaj (iii) Brahmosamaj
(d) Periyar (iv) Self-respect league
(A) a-iii,b-ii,c-i,d-iv (B) a-iv,b-iii,c-ii,d-i (C) a-i,b-ii,c-iii,d-iv (D) a-ii,b-iii,c-i,d-iv

2. The moderator believed in _________ methods to oppose the British

(A) Democratic (B) Rational (C) Unconstitutional (D) Constitutional

3. Who started the Swaraj Party?

(A) Motilal Nehru (B) C R Das (C) Mahatama Gandhi (D) Both (A) and (B)

4. There were ____ princely states in India at the time of independence

(A) 552 (B) 562 (C) 572 (D) 550

5. Which of the following statements are correct about dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(i) Ambedkar was dewan to Baroda Maharaja
(ii) He started ‘mahad’ and ‘kalaram’ temple movements
(iii) He joined the congress
(iv) He attended the third round table conference
(A) i, ii, iii only (B) i and ii only (C) i, ii and iv only (D) only iv

6. Match column A with column B and choose the correct answer:

Column A Column B
(a) Dondiyawagh (i) Gave the call ‘Delhi chalo’
(b) Subash Chandra Bose (ii) Cavalry soldier in Hyder Ali’s army
(c) SangoliRayanna (iii) Lion of Punjab
(d) Ranjithsingh (iv) Fought for the independence of kittur [Rani Chenanma]
(A) a-ii,b-i,c-iv,d-iii (B) a-iii,b-i,c-ii,d-iv (C) a-iv,b-i,c-iii,d-i (D) a-i,b-ii,c-iii,d-iv

7. Gandhi-Irwin pact was signed in

(A) 1930 (B) 1931 (C) 1932 (D) 1933

8. The act which helped founding of the present supreme court was:
(A) The Pitt’s India act (B) Reorganization act
(C) The charter act (D) The regulation act

9. Young Bengal movement was started by

(A) Henry Louis Vivian Derozio (B) Annie Besant
(C) Periyar (D) Madam Blavatsky

10. Which Treaty ended in the second Anglo-Mysore war

(A) Treaty of Srirangapatna (B) Treaty of Mangalore
(C) Treaty of Calcutta (D) Treaty of Mumbai

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11. Match column A with column B and choose the correct answer:
Column A Column B
(a) JallianwalaBagh massacre (i) 1923
(b) Swaraj Party Established (ii) 1919
(c) Quit India Movement (iii) 1942
(d) Third Round Table Conference (iv) 1932
(A) a-i,b-ii,c-iii,d-iv (B) a-ii,b-i,c-iii,d-iv (C) a-iv,b-iii,c-ii,d-i (D) a-ii,b-i,c-iv,d-iii

12. Esoor incident took place in which province

(A) Mysore (B) Mangalore (C) Bengal (D) None of these

13. When wasRyotwari System first implemented

(A) 1791 (B) 1790 (C) 1792 (D) 1793

14. Choose the correct answer with respect to Anglo-Sikh Wars:

(i) Political anarchy broke out after death of King Ranjit Singh
(ii) In Dec 1845, War broke out between British and Punjab
(iii) The opposition were led by ‘Chattar Singh Attariwala in Lahore
(iv) Moolraj in Multan
(A) i, ii, iii only (B) ii and iii only (C) i, ii only (D) All 4

15. When War Indian government act passed?

(A) 1931 (B) 1932 (C) 1935 (D) 1934

16. The headquarters of SAARC is at ________

(A) Colombo (B) Kathmandu (C) Mahe (D) Islamabad

17. ____ article of Indian constitution advocated for disarmament

(A) 21 (B) 31 (C) 41 (D) 51

18. Match column A with column B and choose the correct answer
Column A Column B
(a) European Union (i) 1945
(b) ASEAN (ii) 1985
(c) SAARC (iii) 1967
(d) IMf (iv) 1992
(A) a-iv,b-iii,c-ii,d-i (B) a-i,b-ii,c-iii,d-iv (C) a-iii,b-ii,c-i,d-iv (D) a-ii,b-i,c-iii,d-iv

19. Choose the correct answer with respect to UNO[United Nation Organization]
(i) UNO has 5 major affiliated
(ii) It established after Second World War
(iii) At present 193 out of 195 countries have become the members of UNO
(iv) It was established on 23 October, 1948
(A) i and ii only (B) ii and iii only (C) iii and iv only (D) i and iv only

20. In 1966, between India and Pakistan an agreement took place_________

(A) Indo – Sino agreement (B) Gandhi – Irwin agreement
(C) Non – Alignment agreement (D) Tashkent agreement

21. The buying and selling of government securities by Central Bank is called:
(A) Open Market Operations (B) Bank rate
(C) Repo rate (D) CRR

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22. The rainy season in India is also known as:

(A) South West monsoon (B) North West monsoon
(C) South East monsoon (D) South Monsoon

23. Which among these is currency of Japan:

(A) Dollar (B) Euro (C) Yen (D) Rupees

24. The highest reported temperature is ________ in Ganganagar in Rajasthan

(A) 49.5C (B) 49.9C (C) 49.4C (D) 50C

25. Government of India nationalized 14 commercial Banks in _______

(A) 1966 (B) 1967 (C) 1968 (D) 1969

26. Match column A with column B and choose the correct answer:
Column A Column B
(a) Alluvial soil (i) Cashew nut
(b) Laterite soil (ii) Wheat
(c) Black soil (iii) Cotton
(A) a-i,b-ii,c-iii (B) a-ii,b-i,c-iii (C) a-i,b-iii,c-ii (D) a-ii,b-iii,c-i

27. The northern plains has total area of ____ lakh sq. km
(A) 7 (B) 6 (C) 5 (D) 4

28. The tropic of cancer does not pass through :

A) Punjab (B) Gujarat (C) Rajasthan (D) Tripura

29. Which one of the following state has mostly laterite soil
(A) Assam (B) Punjab (C) Bihar (D) Rajasthan

30. Desert area lie in western part of ____ ranges

(A) Aravalli (B) Satpura (C) Vindhyas (D) None of these

31. Which among these are functions of RBI:

(i) Monopoly of note issue (ii) Banker’s Bank
(iii) Banker to Government (iv) All of these
(A) Both (i) and (ii) (B) Both (ii) and (iii) (C) (i),(ii) and (iii) (D) Only iv

32. The rate at which the RBI lends funds to banks is called ____
(A) CRP (B) Repo rate
(C) Bank rate (D) Reverse Repo rate

33. Area with medium rainfall has rainfall between __

(A) 100 - 150 cms. (B) 50 – 75 cms. (C) 50 – 100 cms (D) 75 – 100 cms

34. Which area gets the heaviest rainfall:

(A) Shimla (B) Shillong (C) Mawsynram (D) Jammu hills

35. The winter season in India is from _____ to _______ month

(A) March to May (B) June to August
(C) December to February (D) September to November

36. The land boundary line between India and China is called
(A) C.O.C border line (B) Radcliffe line (C) Durand line (D) Mcmahon line

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37. India has total how many states?

(A) 27 (B) 28 (C) 29 (D) 26

38. The height of Mount Everest is

(A) 8847m (B) 8848m (C) 8846m (D) 8845m

39. Match column A with column B and choose the correct answer
Column A Column B
(a) Narayan Murthy (i) Founder of Jet Airways
(b) VergheseKurien (ii) Father of white revolution
(c) NareshGoyal (iii) Founder of INFOSYS
(d) AzimPremji (iv) Founder of WIPRO
(A) a-iii,b-i,c-ii,d-iv (B) a-iii,b-ii,c-i,d-iv (C) a-iv,b-iii,c-ii,d-i (D) a-i,b-ii,c-iii,d-iv

40. Chipko movement was started in the year

(A) 1973 (B) 1983 (C) 1993 (D) 1963

Section-II
1. If x + (1/x) = 2, then what is the value of x64 + x121?
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) – 2

2. If a + b + c = 27, then what is the value of (a – 7)3 + (b – 9)3 + (c – 11)3 – 3(a – 7) (b – 9) (c –

11)?
(A) 0 (B) 9 (C) 27 (D) 81

3. If length of each side of a rhombus PQRS is 8 cm and ∠PQR = 120°, then what is the length
(in cm) of QS?
(A) 4√5 (B) 6 (C) 8 (D) 12

4. What is the simplified value of 1 + tan A tan (A/2)?

(A) sin A/2 (B) cos A (C) sec A (D) sin A

5. What is the reflection of the point (1, 2) in the line y = 3?

(A) (1, -4) (B) (1, 4) (C) (-1, -4) (D) (-1, 4)

6. ΔABC is right angled at B. BD is an altitude. AD = 9 cm and DC = 16 cm. What is the value

of BD (in cm)?
(A) 6 (B) 18 (C) 21 (D) 12

7. If the pth term of an harmonic progession is q and qth term is p, then common difference is
(A) mn (B) 1/mn (C) 1 (D) -1

8. What is the unit digit of the sum of first 111 whole numbers?
(A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 5 (D) 0

9. How many 100 digit positive number are there?

(A) 9 × 1099 (B) 9 × 10100 (C) 10100 (D) 11 × 1098

10. How many 101 digit positive number are there?

(A) 9 × 1099 (B) 9 × 10100 (C) 10100 (D) 11 × 1098

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11. N is the largest two digit number, which when divided by 3, 4 and 6 leaves the remainder 1, 2
and 4 respectively. What is the remainder when N is divided by 5?
(A) 4 (B) 2 (C) 0 (D) 1

12. If x + y + z = 0, then what is the value of (3y2 + x2 + z2) / (2y2 – xz)?

(A) 2 (B) 1 (C) 3/2 (D) 5/3

13. AB and AC are the two tangents to a circle whose radius is 6 cm. If ∠BAC = 60o, then what is
the value (in cm) of √(AB2 + AC2?)?
(A) 6√6 (B) 4√6 (C) 9√3 (D) 8√3

14. Radius of base of a hollow cone is 8 cm and its height is 15 cm. A sphere of largest radius is
put inside the cone. What is the ratio of radius of base of cone to the radius of sphere?
(A) 5 : 3 (B) 4 : 1 (C) 2 : 1 (D) 7 : 3

15. What is the value of [tan2 (90 – θ) – sin2 (90 – θ)] cosec2 (90 – θ) cot2 (90 – θ)?
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) – 1 (D) 2

16. The average of 41 consecutive odd numbers is 49. What is the largest number.
(A) 89 (B) 91 (C) 93 (D) 95

17. If N = 0.369369369369… and M = 0.531531531531…, then what is the value of (1/N) +

(1/M)?
(A) 11100/2419 (B) 111/100 (C) 1897/3162 (D) 2419/11100

18. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true?

I. (65)1/6> (17)1/4> (12)1/3
II. (17)1/4> (65)1/6> (12)1/3
III. (12)1/3> (17)1/4> (65)1/6
(A) Only I (B) Only III (C) Only II (D) None of these

19. In a triangle PQR, PX, QY and RZ be altitudes intersecting at O. If PO = 6 cm, PX = 8 cm

and QO = 4 cm, then what is the value (in cm) of QY?
(A) 6.3 (B) 5.8 (C) 6 (D) 7

20. If N = 1 + 11 + 111 + 1111 + … +111111111, then what is the sum of the digit's of N?
(A) 45 (B) 18 (C) 36 (D) 5

Section-III
1. A man has Five resistors each of value 0.2 ohms. The maximum resistance he can obtain by
connectingthem will be
(A) 0.1 ohm (B) 1.0 ohm (C) 0.04 ohm (D) 0.4 ohm

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2.

The displacement-time graph shows

(A) An object moving with a uniform velocity
(B) An object moving with a uniform speed
(C) A uniform accelerated motion
(D) Non-uniform accelerated motion

3. Direction of conventional current in electric circuit is

(A) from negative terminal to positive terminal only, outside the battery.
(B) from positive terminal to negative terminal only, outside the battery.
(C) first from negative terminal to positive terminal and vice-versa
(D) first from positive terminal to negative terminal and vice-versa

4. Two similar spheres having +q and –q charge are kept at a certain distance, Fforce acts between
thetwo. If in the middle of two spheres, another similar sphere having +q charge is kept, then it
experiencea force in magnitude and direction as
(A) Zero having no direction (B) 8 F towards +q charge
(C) 8 F towards – q charge (D)4 F towards +q charge

5. Electric lines of force about negative point charge are

(A) Circular, anticlockwise (B) Circular, clockwise
(C) Radial, inward (D) Radial,outward

6. In the electric field of a point charge q, a certain charge is carried from point A to
B, C, D and E.
Then the work done
(A) Is least along the point AB
(B) Is least along the point AD
(C) Is zero along all the paths AB.AC.AD and AD
(D) Is least along AF

7. The resistance of a wire is 20 ohms. Its so stretched that the length becomes three times, then the
newresistance of the wire will be
(A) 6.67 ohms (B) 60.0 ohms (C) 120 ohms (D) 180.0 ohms

8. The minimum resistance that can be obtained using three 5 ohm resistors is
(A) 5 ohms. (B) 1.67 ohms. (C) 15 ohms. (D) 1 ohm.

9. A boy travels 50km with 5km/hr and then for next 4hr travels with a uniform speed of 20km/hr. What
isthe average speed for the whole journey?
(A) 62/7km/hr (B) 65/7km/hr (C) 60/7km/hr (D) 9km/hr

10. If a body covers a distance d with velocity v1 and another distance d with same velocity v2 ,then
averagevelocity for the whole journey would be equal to:
2v1v2 v1v2 v1 + v2 2 ( v1 + v2 )
(A) (B) (C) (D)
v1 + v2 v1 + v2 2v1v2 v1v2

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11. The distance travelled by a body failing freely from rest in first, second and third seconds are in the
ratio
(A) 1: 3: 5 (B) 1: 2: 3 (C) 2: 3: 5 (D) None of these

12. The distance time graph shown below indicates motion with uniform
speed for which part of the graph:
(A) AB
(B)BC
(C)CD
(D) Both BC and CD

13. Which of the acceleration - time graph is not possible?

Section-IV
1. The electronic configuration of an M 2+ is 2, 8, 14. If its mas number is 56, the number of
neutrons in its nucleus is ______.
(A) 30 (B) 32 (C) 34 (D) 42

2. Which statement is correct about a proton?

(A) It is nucleus of deuterium (B) It is ionised hydrogen molecule
(C) It is ionised hydrogen atom (D) It is a negatively charged particles.

3. Which of the following pair is isoelectronic?

(A) Na + , Ar (B) Mg ++ , Ca ++
(C) K + , Ar (D) Na + , K +

4. Neutron less neutral atom is

(A) H (B) He (C) Na (D) K

5. Which of the following is the functional group for carboxylic acids?

(a) (B)

(C) — OH (D)

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6. Which of the following correctly represent 360 g of water?

(A) 2 mole of H 2O (B) 20 mole of water
(C) 6.022 1023 molecules of water (D) 1.2044 1025 molecules of water

7. Which of the following is treated with chlorine to obtain bleaching powder?

(A) CaSO4 (B) Ca ( OH )2
(C) Mg ( OH )2 (D) KOH

8. The amount of NaOH is 750ml of 0.2 M solution is _______.

(A) 2g (B) 4g (C) 6g (D) 8g

9. The chemical formula for Borax is

(A) Na2 B4O7 .10H 2O (B) Na2 B4O7 .18H 2O
(C) Na2 B4O7 .4 H 2O (D) Na2 B4O7 .6 H 2O

10. Which of the following is the most reactive metal

(A) Aluminium (Al) (B) Copper (Cu)
(C) tin (Sn) (D) Calcium (Ca)

11. An acid, obtained by destructive distillation of wood, which in turn gives acetic acid is
________
(A) Oxalic acid (B) Pyroligenous acid
(B) Chloro acetic acid (D) Citric acid

12. Which one of the following metal oxides shows both acidic and basic characters?
(A) Na2O (B) K 2O (C) Cuo (D) Al2O3

13. Chemical reaction between quick lime and water is characterised by

(A) Evolution of hydrogen gas
(B) Formation of slaked lime precipitate
(C) Change in temperature of mixture
(D) Change in colour of the product

Section-V
1. Large numbers of ribosomes are present in cells that specialize in producing which of the following
molecules?(cell)
(A) Lipids (B) Starches (C) Proteins (D) Steroids

2. Which type of organelle is primarily involved in synthesis of oils, phospholipids, and steroids?(cell)
(A) Ribosome (B) lysosome
(C) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum (D) mitochondrion

3. The main way that pine trees disperse their offspring is by using (diversity )
(A) Fruits that are eaten by animals (B) Spores
(C) Squirrels to bur cones (D) Windblown seeds

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4. Which term describes the following conditions of ,sister chromatids materials, separating and the event
of two new chromosomes moving to opposite poles of the cell?( cell division)
(A) Telophase (B) Anaphase (C) Prophase (D) Metaphase

5. Viviparous condition is shown in which of the following plants

(A) Rhizophora
(B)Cabbage and cauliflower plant
(C) Green pea plants
(D) Groundnut plants

6. You are trying to identify an organism. It is an animal, but it does not have nerve or muscle tissue. It is
neither diploblastic nor triploblastic. It is probably a ( diversity)
(A) Flatworm (B) Jelly (C) Comb jelly (D) Sponge

7. Once malaria parasites enter a person's blood they then travel to which organ?
(A) Kidney (B) liver (C) Heart (D) stomach

8. Which sequence of blood flow can be observed in a mammal?( circulation )

(A) Left ventricle → aorta → lungs → systemic circulation
(B) Right ventricle → pulmonary vein → pulmocutaneous circulation
(C) Pulmonary vein → left atrium → ventricle → pulmonary circuit
(D) Vena cava → right atrium → ventricle → pulmonary circuit

9. Read the following statements and answer accordingly, the body juices,referring to
1. Presence of highly acidic and colourless liquid
2.Presence of enzyme –pepsin
3. Presence of antibacterial activity
4. Helps in conversion of protein into peptides
(A)Bile juices (B)Pancreativc juices
(C)Salivary juices (D)Gastric juices

10. Which one of the following is extremely important for water conservation in mammals?
(A) Nephrons (B) Bowman’s capsule
(C) Urethra (D) Ureter
11. Which of the following endocrine disorders is not correctly matched with the malfunctioning gland?
(control and coordination)
(A) Diabetes and pancreas (B) Gigantism and pituitary
(C) Goitre and adrenal medulla (D) Tetany and parathyroid
12. Advantage of using garden pea for the Mendel experiment included all the listed below except.
(A)True breading variety were scare at that time
(B)Observation of the segregation of the traits among the off springs
(C)Having short generation time
(D)Sex organs of the plant enclosed within the flower

13. Males are more often affected by sex—linked traits than females because(genetics)
(A) Males have only one X chromosome.
(B) Male hormones such as testosterone often alter the effects of mutation on the X
(C) Female hormones such as estrogenoften compensate for the effects of mutation on the X
(D) X chromosomes in male generally have more mutations than X chromosomes in females

14. Which of the following organisms is incorrectly paired with its trophic level (our envi)
(A) Cyanobacterium—primary producer (B) Grasshopper—primary consumer
(C) Zooplankton—primary producer (D) Eagle—tertiary consumer

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