NEET Code ZZ Solution PDF

DATE : 06/05/2018 Test Booklet Code
ZZ
ALHCA
Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005

Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472
Time : 3 hrs.
Answers & Solutions Max. Marks : 720
for
NEET (UG) - 2018
Important Instructions :
1. The test is of 3 hours duration and Test Booklet contains 180 questions. Each question carries
4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response,
one mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.
2. Use Blue / Black Ball point Pen only for writing particulars on this page/marking responses.
3. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
4. On completion of the test, the candidate must handover the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator before
leaving the Room / Hall. The candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
5. The CODE for this Booklet is ZZ.
6. The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make any stray marks on
the Answer Sheet. Do not write your Roll No. anywhere else except in the specified space in the
Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.
7. Each candidate must show on demand his/her Admission Card to the Invigilator.
8. No candidate, without special permission of the Superintendent or Invigilator, would leave his/her
seat.
9. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.
10. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the examination with regard to their
conduct in the Examination Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and
Regulations of this examination.
11. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be detached under any circumstances.
12. The candidates will write the Correct Test Booklet Code as given in the Test Booklet / Answer Sheet
in the Attendance Sheet.
1
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-ZZ) ALHCA
1. A tuning fork is used to produce resonance in 4. The electrostatic force between the metal
a glass tube. The length of the air column in plates of an isolated parallel plate capacitor
this tube can be adjusted by a variable piston. C having a charge Q and area A, is
At room temperature of 27ºC two successive (1) Independent of the distance between the
resonances are produced at 20 cm and 73 cm plates
of column length. If the frequency of the (2) Linearly proportional to the distance
tuning fork is 320 Hz, the velocity of sound in between the plates
air at 27ºC is
(3) Inversely proportional to the distance
(1) 330 m/s (2) 339 m/s between the plates
(3) 300 m/s (4) 350 m/s (4) Proportional to the square root of the
Answer ( 2 ) distance between the plates
S o l . v = 2 () [L2 – L1] Answer ( 1 )
= 2 × 320 [73 – 20] × 10–2 S o l . For isolated capacitor Q = Constant
= 339.2 ms–1 Q2
Fplate 
= 339 m/s 2A0
2. An electron falls from rest through a vertical F is Independent of the distance between
distance h in a uniform and vertically upward plates.
directed electric field E. The direction of
5. Current sensitivity of a moving coil
electric field is now reversed, keeping its
galvanometer is 5 div/mA and its voltage
magnitude the same. A proton is allowed to
sensitivity (angular deflection per unit voltage
fall from rest in it through the same vertical applied) is 20 div/V. The resistance of the
distance h. The time of fall of the electron, in galvanometer is
comparison to the time of fall of the proton is
(1) 40  (2) 25 
(1) Smaller (2) 5 times greater
(3) 500  (4) 250 
(3) Equal (4) 10 times greater
Answer ( 4 )
Answer ( 1 )
S o l . Current sensitivity
1 eE 2
Sol. h  t NBA
2 m IS 
C
2hm
 t Voltage sensitivity
eE
NBA
VS 
 t  m as ‘e’ is same for electron and CRG
proton. So, resistance of galvanometer
∵ Electron has smaller mass so it will take IS 51 5000
smaller time. RG     250 
VS 20  103 20
3. A pendulum is hung from the roof of a
6. A thin diamagnetic rod is placed vertically
sufficiently high building and is moving freely
between the poles of an electromagnet. When
to and fro like a simple harmonic oscillator.
the current in the electromagnet is switched
The acceleration of the bob of the pendulum
on, then the diamagnetic rod is pushed up, out
is 20 m/s2 at a distance of 5 m from the mean of the horizontal magnetic field. Hence the
position. The time period of oscillation is rod gains gravitational potential energy. The
(1) 2 s (2)  s work required to do this comes from
(3) 1 s (4) 2 s (1) The current source
Answer ( 2 ) (2) The magnetic field
S o l . |a| = 2y (3) The induced electric field due to the
 20 = 2(5) changing magnetic field
  = 2 rad/s (4) The lattice structure of the material of the
rod
2 2
T  s Answer ( 1 )
 2
2
S o l . Energy of current source will be converted 10. A set of 'n' equal resistors, of value 'R' each,
into potential energy of the rod. are connected in series to a battery of emf 'E'
7. An inductor 20 mH, a capacitor 100 F and a and internal resistance 'R'. The current drawn
is I. Now, the 'n' resistors are connected in
resistor 50  are connected in series across
parallel to the same battery. Then the current
a source of emf, V = 10 sin 314 t. The power
drawn from battery becomes 10 I. The value of
loss in the circuit is
'n' is
(1) 0.79 W (2) 0.43 W
(1) 10 (2) 11
(3) 1.13 W (4) 2.74 W (3) 9 (4) 20
Answer ( 1 ) Answer ( 1 )
2
⎛V ⎞ E
S o l . Pav  ⎜ RMS ⎟ R Sol. I  ...(i)
⎝ Z ⎠ nR  R
2 E
⎛ 1 ⎞ 10 I  ...(ii)
2
Z  R  ⎜ L   56  R
⎝ C ⎟⎠ n
R
2 Dividing (ii) by (i),

⎛ ⎞
10 ⎟ (n  1)R
 Pav  ⎜  50  0.79 W 10 
⎝  
⎜ 2 56 ⎟
⎠
⎛1 ⎞
⎜ n  1⎟ R
8. A metallic rod of mass per unit length ⎝ ⎠
0.5 kg m–1 is lying horizontally on a smooth After solving the equation, n = 10
inclined plane which makes an angle of 30° 11. A battery consists of a variable number 'n' of
with the horizontal. The rod is not allowed to identical cells (having internal resistance 'r'
slide down by flowing a current through it each) which are connected in series. The
when a magnetic field of induction 0.25 T is terminals of the battery are short-circuited
acting on it in the vertical direction. The and the current I is measured. Which of the
current flowing in the rod to keep it stationary graphs shows the correct relationship
is between I and n?
(1) 7.14 A (2) 5.98 A
(3) 11.32 A (4) 14.76 A
I I
Answer ( 3 )
S o l . For equilibrium, (1) (2)
°
B 30
mg sin30  Il Bcos 30 s O O
co n n
llB
mg
I tan30 ° 30° llB
lB 30
n I I
si
0.5  9.8 g
  11.32 A m 30°
0.25  3 (3) (4)
9. A carbon resistor of (47 ± 4.7) k is to be O O
marked with rings of different colours for its n n
identification. The colour code sequence will Answer ( 1 )
be n 
Sol. I  
(1) Violet – Yellow – Orange – Silver nr r
(2) Yellow – Violet – Orange – Silver So, I is independent of n and I is constant.
 I
(3) Green – Orange – Violet – Gold
(4) Yellow – Green – Violet – Gold
Answer ( 2 )
S o l . (47 ± 4.7) k = 47 × 103 ± 10%
 Yellow – Violet – Orange – Silver O
n
3
12. In Young's double slit experiment the 14. Unpolarised light is incident from air on a
separation d between the slits is 2 mm, the plane surface of a material of refractive index
wavelength  of the light used is 5896 Å and ''. At a particular angle of incidence 'i', it is
distance D between the screen and slits is found that the reflected and refracted rays are
100 cm. It is found that the angular width of perpendicular to each other. Which of the
the fringes is 0.20°. To increase the fringe following options is correct for this situation?
angular width to 0.21° (with same  and D) the (1) Reflected light is polarised with its
separation between the slits needs to be electric vector parallel to the plane of
changed to incidence
(1) 1.8 mm (2) Reflected light is polarised with its
(2) 1.9 mm electric vector perpendicular to the plane
of incidence
(3) 1.7 mm
⎛ 1⎞
(4) 2.1 mm (3) i  tan1 ⎜ ⎟
⎝⎠
Answer ( 2 )
⎛ 1⎞
(4) i  sin1 ⎜ ⎟
 ⎝⎠
S o l . Angular width 
d Answer ( 2 )
S o l . When reflected light rays and refracted rays

0.20  …(i) are perpendicular, reflected light is polarised
2 mm with electric field vector perpendicular to the
plane of incidence.

0.21  …(ii)
d
i
0.20 d
Dividing we get, 0.21  2 mm
 d = 1.9 mm 
13. An astronomical refracting telescope will
have large angular magnification and high
angular resolution, when it has an objective Also, tan i =  (Brewster angle)
lens of 15. An em wave is propagating in a medium with

(1) Small focal length and large diameter a velocity V  Viˆ . The instantaneous
(2) Large focal length and small diameter oscillating electric field of this em wave is
along +y axis. Then the direction of oscillating
(3) Small focal length and small diameter magnetic field of the em wave will be along
(4) Large focal length and large diameter (1) –z direction
Answer ( 4 ) (2) +z direction
(3) –x direction
f0
S o l . For telescope, angular magnification = (4) –y direction
fE
Answer ( 2 )
So, focal length of objective lens should be
  
large. Sol. E  B  V

D ˆ  (B)  Viˆ
Angular resolution = should be large. (Ej)
1.22

So, objective should have large focal length So, B  Bkˆ
(f0) and large diameter D. Direction of propagation is along +z direction.
4
16. The refractive index of the material of a Sol.

f = 15 cm
prism is 2 and the angle of the prism is 30°.
One of the two refracting surfaces of the O 40 cm
prism is made a mirror inwards, by silver
coating. A beam of monochromatic light
entering the prism from the other face will
retrace its path (after reflection from the
1 1 1
silvered surface) if its angle of incidence on  
the prism is f v1 u
(1) 60° 1 1 1
–  –
15 v1 40
(2) 45°
1 1 1
(3) Zero   
v1 –15 40
(4) 30°
v1 = –24 cm
Answer ( 2 )
When object is displaced by 20 cm towards
S o l . For retracing its path, light ray should be mirror.
normally incident on silvered face.
Now,
u2 = –20
1 1 1
30°  
f v2 u2
M 60°
30° 1 1 1
i  –
–15 v2 20
1 1 1
 –
 2 v2 20 15
v2 = –60 cm
Applying Snell's law at M, So, image shifts away from mirror by

= 60 – 24 = 36 cm.
sin i 2 18. The magnetic potential energy stored in a

sin30 1 certain inductor is 25 mJ, when the current in
the inductor is 60 mA. This inductor is of
1 inductance
 sin i  2 
2
(1) 0.138 H (2) 138.88 H
1 (3) 13.89 H (4) 1.389 H
sin i  i.e. i = 45°
2
Answer ( 3 )
17. An object is placed at a distance of 40 cm S o l . Energy stored in inductor
from a concave mirror of focal length 15 cm.
If the object is displaced through a distance 1 2
U Ll
of 20 cm towards the mirror, the 2
displacement of the image will be 1
25  10–3   L  (60  10–3 )2
(1) 30 cm away from the mirror 2
(2) 36 cm away from the mirror 25  2  106  10–3

L
3600
(3) 36 cm towards the mirror
500
(4) 30 cm towards the mirror 
36
Answer ( 2 )
= 13.89 H
5
19. For a radioactive material, half-life is 10 S o l . Initial de-Broglie wavelength

minutes. If initially there are 600 number of
h
nuclei, the time taken (in minutes) for the 0  ...(i)
mV0
disintegration of 450 nuclei is
(1) 20 (2) 10 E0
(3) 15 (4) 30 F V0
Answer ( 1 )
Acceleration of electron
S o l . Number of nuclei remaining = 600 – 450 = 150
eE0
N ⎛ 1⎞
n a
 m
N0 ⎜⎝ 2 ⎟⎠ Velocity after time ‘t’
t
⎛ eE0 ⎞
150 ⎛ 1 ⎞ t 1/2 V  ⎜ V0  t⎟

600 ⎜⎝ 2 ⎟⎠ ⎝ m ⎠
h h
2
t
So,   
⎛ 1⎞ ⎛ 1 ⎞ t 1/2 mV ⎛ eE ⎞
⎜2⎟  ⎜2⎟ m ⎜ V0  0 t ⎟
⎝ ⎠ ⎝ ⎠ ⎝ m ⎠
t = 2t1/2 = 2 × 10 h 0
  …(ii)
= 20 minute ⎡ eE0 ⎤ ⎡ eE0 ⎤
mV0 ⎢1  t⎥ ⎢1  t⎥
20. The ratio of kinetic energy to the total energy ⎣ mV0 ⎦ ⎣ mV0 ⎦
of an electron in a Bohr orbit of the hydrogen Divide (ii) by (i),
atom, is
0
(1) 1 : 1 
⎡ eE0 ⎤
⎢1  t⎥
(2) 1 : –1 ⎣ mV0 ⎦
(3) 1 : –2 22. When the light of frequency 20 (where 0 is
(4) 2 : –1 threshold frequency), is incident on a metal
plate, the maximum velocity of electrons
Answer ( 2 ) emitted is v 1 . When the frequency of the
S o l . KE = –(total energy) incident radiation is increased to 5 0, the
maximum velocity of electrons emitted from
So, Kinetic energy : total energy = 1 : –1
the same plate is v2. The ratio of v1 to v2 is
21. An electron of mass m with an initial velocity
(1) 1 : 2

V  V0 î (V 0 > 0) enters an electric field (2) 1 : 4
(3) 2 : 1

E  –E0 î (E0 = constant > 0) at t = 0. If 0 is its (4) 4 : 1
de-Broglie wavelength initially, then its de- Answer ( 1 )
Broglie wavelength at time t is
1
S o l . E  W0  mv2
0 2
(1)
⎛ eE0 ⎞ 1
⎜1 t⎟ h(20 )  h0  mv12
⎝ mV0 ⎠ 2
⎛ eE0 ⎞ 1
(2) 0 ⎜ 1  t⎟ h 0  mv12 …(i)
mV 2
⎝ 0 ⎠
1
(3) 0 h(50 )  h0  mv22
2
(4) 0t
1
Answer ( 1 ) 4h0  mv22 …(ii)
2
6
Divide (i) by (ii), S o l . VBE = 0
1 v12 VCE = 0

4 v22 Vb = 0
20 V
v1 1

v2 2 IC RC = 4 k
23. In the combination of the following gates the
output Y can be written in terms of inputs A RB
Vi Vb
and B as Ib 500 k
A
B
Y
(20  0)
IC 
4  103
IC = 5 × 10–3 = 5 mA
(1) A  B
Vi = VBE + IBRB
(2) A  B  A  B Vi = 0 + IBRB
(3) A  B 20 = IB × 500 × 103
(4) A  B  A  B 20
IB   40 A
Answer ( 2 ) 500  103
IC 25  103
A    125
Sol. A AB Ib 40  106
B 25. In a p-n junction diode, change in temperature
B Y due to heating
A
(1) Affects only reverse resistance
AB
B (2) Affects only forward resistance
(3) Affects the overall V - I characteristics of
Y  (A  B  A  B) p-n junction
24. In the circuit shown in the figure, the input (4) Does not affect resistance of p-n junction
voltage Vi is 20 V, VBE = 0 and VCE = 0. The
Answer ( 3 )
values of IB, IC and  are given by
S o l . Due to heating, number of electron-hole pairs
20 V will increase, so overall resistance of diode
will change.
RC 4 k
Due to which forward biasing and reversed
C biasing both are changed.
RB
Vi
500 k B 26. A solid sphere is rotating freely about its
E symmetry axis in free space. The radius of the
sphere is increased keeping its mass same.
Which of the following physical quantities
would remain constant for the sphere?
(1) IB = 40 A, IC = 10 mA,  = 250 (1) Angular velocity
(2) IB = 25 A, IC = 5 mA,  = 200 (2) Moment of inertia
(3) IB = 40 A, IC = 5 mA,  = 125 (3) Angular momentum
(4) IB = 20 A, IC = 5 mA,  = 250 (4) Rotational kinetic energy
7
S o l . ex = 0 29. A solid sphere is in rolling motion. In rolling

motion a body possesses translational kinetic
dL
So, 0 energy (K t ) as well as rotational kinetic
dt energy (K r ) simultaneously. The ratio
i.e. L = constant Kt : (Kt + Kr) for the sphere is
So angular momentum remains constant. (1) 7 : 10 (2) 5 : 7
27. The kinetic energies of a planet in an (3) 2 : 5 (4) 10 : 7
elliptical orbit about the Sun, at positions A, B
Answer ( 2 )
and C are KA, KB and KC, respectively. AC is
the major axis and SB is perpendicular to AC 1
S o l . Kt  mv 2
at the position of the Sun S as shown in the 2
figure. Then
2
1 1 1 1⎛ 2 ⎞⎛ v ⎞
Kt  Kr  mv2  I2  mv2  ⎜ mr 2 ⎟⎜ ⎟
B 2 2 2 2⎝5 ⎠⎝ r ⎠
A C 7
S  mv2
10
(1) KA < KB < KC Kt 5

So, 
Kt  Kr 7
(2) KA > KB > KC
(3) KB > KA > KC 30. A small sphere of radius 'r' falls from rest in a
(4) KB < KA < KC viscous liquid. As a result, heat is produced
due to viscous force. The rate of production of
Answer ( 2 )
heat when the sphere attains its terminal
Sol. B velocity, is proportional to
VC
perihelion (1) r3 (2) r2
A C
S (3) r4 (4) r5
aphelion
VA
Answer ( 4 )
Point A is perihelion and C is aphelion. 2
S o l . Power = 6 rVT iVT  6 rVT
So, VA > VB > VC
So, KA > KB > KC VT  r 2
28. If the mass of the Sun were ten times smaller ⇒ Power  r 5
and the universal gravitational constant were
31. A sample of 0.1 g of water at 100°C and
ten times larger in magnitude, which of the
normal pressure (1.013 × 105 Nm–2) requires
following is not correct?
54 cal of heat energy to convert to steam at
(1) Raindrops will fall faster 100°C. If the volume of the steam produced is
(2) Walking on the ground would become 167.1 cc, the change in internal energy of the
more difficult sample, is
(3) ‘g’ on the Earth will not change (1) 104.3 J
(4) Time period of a simple pendulum on the (2) 208.7 J

Earth would decrease (3) 84.5 J
Answer ( 3 ) (4) 42.2 J
S o l . If Universal Gravitational constant becomes Answer ( 2 )
ten times, then G = 10 G
S o l . Q = U + W
So, acceleration due to gravity increases.  54 × 4.18 = U + 1.013 × 105(167.1 × 10–6 – 0)
i.e. (3) is wrong option.  U = 208.7 J
8
32. Two wires are made of the same material and S o l . We know,
have the same volume. The first wire has
cross-sectional area A and the second wire max T  constant (Wien's law)
has cross-sectional area 3A. If the length of
the first wire is increased by l on applying a
So, max1 T1  max2 T2
force F, how much force is needed to stretch
3 0
the socond wire by the same amount? ⇒ 0 T  T
4
(1) 9 F
4
(2) 6 F ⇒ T  T
3
(3) F
4 4
P2 ⎛ T  ⎞ ⎛4⎞ 256
(4) 4 F So, ⎜ ⎟ ⎜ ⎟ 
P1 ⎝ T ⎠ ⎝3⎠ 81
Answer ( 1 )
34. At what temperature will the rms speed of
S o l . Wire 1 :
oxygen molecules become just sufficient for
F escaping from the Earth's atmosphere?
A, 3l
(Given :
Wire 2 :
Mass of oxygen molecule (m) = 2.76 × 10–26 kg
F
3A, l Boltzmann's constant kB = 1.38 × 10–23 JK–1)
For wire 1, (1) 2.508 × 104 K (2) 8.360 × 104 K
(3) 1.254 × 104 K (4) 5.016 × 104 K
⎛ F ⎞
l  ⎜ ⎟ 3l …(i)
⎝ AY ⎠ Answer ( 2 )
For wire 2, S o l . Vescape = 11200 m/s

Say at temperature T it attains Vescape
F l
Y 3kB T
3A l So,  11200 m/s
mO2
⎛ F ⎞
 l  ⎜ ⎟l …(ii) On solving,
⎝ 3AY ⎠
From equation (i) & (ii), T = 8.360 × 104 K
35. The volume (V) of a monatomic gas varies

⎛ F ⎞ ⎛ F ⎞
l  ⎜ ⎟ 3l  ⎜ ⎟l with its temperature (T), as shown in the
⎝ AY ⎠ ⎝ 3AY ⎠ graph. The ratio of work done by the gas, to
the heat absorbed by it, when it undergoes a
 F  9F change from state A to state B, is
33. The power radiated by a black body is P and
it radiates maximum energy at wavelength, 0.
If the temperature of the black body is now
changed so that it radiates maximum energy
3
at wavelength  0 , the power radiated by it
4
becomes nP. The value of n is
2 2
3 4 (1) (2)
5 3
(1) (2)
4 3
2 1
81 256 (3) (4)
(3) (4) 7 3
256 81
9
S o l . Given process is isobaric

⎛ T ⎞
S o l . Efficiency of ideal heat engine,   ⎜ 1 2 ⎟
dQ  n Cp dT ⎝ T1 ⎠
T2 : Sink temperature
⎛5 ⎞ T1 : Source temperature
dQ  n ⎜ R ⎟ dT
⎝2 ⎠
⎛ T ⎞
%  ⎜ 1  2 ⎟  100
dW  P dV = n RdT ⎝ T1 ⎠
dW nRdT 2 273 ⎞
Required ratio    ⎛
dQ ⎛5 ⎞ 5  ⎜ 1 ⎟  100
n ⎜ R ⎟ dT ⎝ 373 ⎠
⎝2 ⎠
⎛ 100 ⎞
36. The fundamental frequency in an open organ ⎜ ⎟  100  26.8%
pipe is equal to the third harmonic of a closed ⎝ 373 ⎠
organ pipe. If the length of the closed organ 38. A body initially at rest and sliding along a
pipe is 20 cm, the length of the open organ frictionless track from a height h (as shown in
pipe is the figure) just completes a vertical circle of
(1) 13.2 cm diameter AB = D. The height h is equal to
(2) 8 cm
(3) 16 cm
h B
(4) 12.5 cm
Answer ( 1 )
A
S o l . For closed organ pipe, third harmonic
3
(1) D (2) D
3v 2

4l
5 7
For open organ pipe, fundamental frequency (3) D (4) D
4 5
v Answer ( 3 )

2l 
Sol.
Given,
h
3v v B

4l 2l 
vL
4l 2l A
 l  
32 3 As track is frictionless, so total mechanical
2  20 energy will remain constant
  13.33 cm
3 T.M.EI =T.M.EF
37. The efficiency of an ideal heat engine working 1
between the freezing point and boiling point of 0  mgh  mvL2  0
2
water, is
vL2
(1) 26.8% h
2g
(2) 20%
(3) 12.5% For completing the vertical circle, vL  5gR
(4) 6.25% 5gR 5 5

h  R D
Answer ( 1 ) 2g 2 4
10
39. Three objects, A : (a solid sphere), B : (a thin 41. A moving block having mass m, collides with
circular disk) and C : (a circular ring), each another stationary block having mass 4m. The
have the same mass M and radius R. They all lighter block comes to rest after collision.
spin with the same angular speed  about When the initial velocity of the lighter block is
their own symmetry axes. The amounts of v, then the value of coefficient of restitution
work (W) required to bring them to rest, would (e) will be
satisfy the relation (1) 0.5
(1) WC > WB > WA (2) 0.25
(2) WA > WB > WC (3) 0.4
(3) WA > WC > WB (4) 0.8
(4) WB > WA > WC Answer ( 2 )

S o l . According to law of conservation of linear
Answer ( 1 )
momentum,
S o l . Work done required to bring them rest
mv  4m  0  4mv  0
W = KE v
v 
4
1 2
W  I v
2
Relative velocity of separation 4
e 
W  I for same  Relative velocity of approach v
1
2 1 e  0.25
WA : WB : WC  MR2 : MR2 : MR2 4
5 2
42. A block of mass m is placed on a smooth
inclined wedge ABC of inclination  as shown
2 1 in the figure. The wedge is given an
= : :1
5 2 acceleration 'a' towards the right. The
relation between a and  for the block to
= 4 : 5 : 10
remain stationary on the wedge is
 WC > WB > WA A
m
40. Which one of the following statements is
incorrect?
a
(1) Rolling friction is smaller than sliding

friction. C B
(2) Limiting value of static friction is directly g g
proportional to normal reaction. (1) a  (2) a 
cosec  sin 
(3) Coefficient of sliding friction has (3) a = g tan  (4) a = g cos 
dimensions of length.
Answer ( 3 )
(4) Frictional force opposes the relative Sol. N cos
motion.
Answer ( 3 ) N
S o l . Coefficient of sliding friction has no 

dimension. ma N sin
f = sN (pseudo) 
f
⇒ s  mg 
a
N
11

In non-inertial frame, 44. The moment of the force, F  4iˆ  5 ˆj  6kˆ at
N sin  = ma ...(i) (2, 0, –3), about the point (2, –2, –2), is given
by
N cos  = mg ...(ii)
(1) 8iˆ  4 ˆj  7kˆ
a
tan  
g (2) 4iˆ  ˆj  8kˆ
a = g tan 
(3) 7iˆ  4 ˆj  8kˆ
43. A toy car with charge q moves on a
frictionless horizontal plane surface under (4) 7iˆ  8ˆj  4kˆ
the influence of a uniform
electric field E .
Due to the force q E , its velocity increases Answer ( 3 )
from 0 to 6 m/s in one second duration. At Sol. Y
that instant the direction of the field is
reversed. The car continues to move for two
more seconds under the influence of this field. F
The average velocity and the average speed
of the toy car between 0 to 3 seconds are A r  r0
P
respectively
(1) 2 m/s, 4 m/s (2) 1 m/s, 3 m/s r0
r
(3) 1.5 m/s, 3 m/s (4) 1 m/s, 3.5 m/s
Answer ( 2 ) O X

a t=1 –a   (r  r0 )  F ...(i)
Sol. t = 0 t=2
A B ˆ  (2iˆ  2 ˆj  2k)
ˆ
v=0 v = 6 ms
–1
v=0 r  r0  (2iˆ  0ˆj  3k)
C –a
t=3  0iˆ  2 ˆj  kˆ
–1
v = –6 ms
î ˆj kˆ
60
Acceleration a   6 ms2   0 2 1  7iˆ  4 ˆj  8kˆ
1 4 5 6
For t = 0 to t = 1 s, 45. A student measured the diameter of a small
steel ball using a screw gauge of least count
1
S1   6(1)2 = 3 m ...(i) 0.001 cm. The main scale reading is 5 mm and
2
zero of circular scale division coincides with
For t = 1 s to t = 2 s, 25 divisions above the reference level. If
screw gauge has a zero error of –0.004 cm,
1
S2  6.1   6(1)2  3 m ...(ii) the correct diameter of the ball is
2
(1) 0.521 cm
For t = 2 s to t = 3 s,
(2) 0.525 cm
1 (3) 0.529 cm
S3  0   6(1)2  3 m ...(iii)
2
(4) 0.053 cm
Total displacement S = S1 + S2 + S3 = 3 m Answer ( 3 )
3 S o l . Diameter of the ball
Average velocity   1 ms 1
3 = MSR + CSR × (Least count) – Zero error
Total distance travelled = 9 m = 0.5 cm + 25 × 0.001 – (–0.004)
9 = 0.5 + 0.025 + 0.004

Average speed   3 ms 1
3 = 0.529 cm
12
46. The difference between spermiogenesis and S o l . Saheli is the first non-steroidal, once a week
spermiation is pill. It contains centchroman and its
functioning is based upon selective Estrogen
(1) In spermiogenesis spermatids are formed,
Receptor modulation.
while in spermiation spermatozoa are
formed. 49. Hormones secreted by the placenta to
maintain pregnancy are
(2) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are
formed, while in spermiation spermatids (1) hCG, hPL, progestogens, prolactin
are formed. (2) hCG, hPL, estrogens, relaxin, oxytocin
(3) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are (3) hCG, progestogens, estrogens,
formed, while in spermiation spermatozoa glucocorticoids
are released from sertoli cells into the (4) hCG, hPL, progestogens, estrogens
cavity of seminiferous tubules. Answer ( 4 )
(4) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa from S o l . Placenta releases human chorionic
sertoli cells are released into the cavity of gonadotropic hormone (hCG) which
seminiferous tubules, while in spermiation stimulates the Corpus luteum during
spermatozoa are formed. pregnancy to release estrogen and
Answer ( 3 ) progesterone and also rescues corpus
luteum from regression. Human placental
S o l . Spermiogenesis is transformation of lactogen (hPL) is involved in growth of body of
spermatids into spermatozoa whereas mother and breast. Progesterone maintains
spermiation is the release of the sperms from pregnancy, keeps the uterus silent by
sertoli cells into the lumen of seminiferous increasing uterine threshold to contractile
tubule. stimuli.
47. The amnion of mammalian embryo is derived 50. Match the items given in Column I with those
from in Column II and select the correct option
(1) ectoderm and mesoderm given below :
(2) endoderm and mesoderm Column I Column II

a. Proliferative Phase i. Breakdown of
(3) ectoderm and endoderm
endometrial
(4) mesoderm and trophoblast
lining
Answer ( 1 )
b. Secretory Phase ii. Follicular Phase
S o l . The extraembryonic or foetal membranes are c. Menstruation iii. Luteal Phase
amnion, chorion, allantois and Yolk sac.
a b c
Amnion is formed from mesoderm on outer (1) iii ii i
side and ectoderm on inner side.
(2) i iii ii
Chorion is formed from trophoectoderm and
(3) iii i ii
mesoderm whereas allantois and Yolk sac
membrane have mesoderm on outerside and (4) ii iii i
endoderm in inner side. Answer ( 4 )
48. The contraceptive ‘SAHELI’ S o l . During proliferative phase, the follicles start
developing, hence, called follicular phase.
(1) blocks estrogen receptors in the uterus,
preventing eggs from getting implanted. Secretory phase is also called as luteal phase
mainly controlled by progesterone secreted
(2) increases the concentration of estrogen by corpus luteum. Estrogen further thickens
and prevents ovulation in females. the endometrium maintained by
(3) is a post-coital contraceptive. progesterone.
(4) is an IUD. Menstruation occurs due to decline in

progesterone level and involves breakdown of
Answer ( 1 ) overgrown endometrial lining.
13
51. All of the following are part of an operon 55. Among the following sets of examples for
except divergent evolution, select the incorrect
(1) an operator option :
(2) structural genes (1) Forelimbs of man, bat and cheetah

(2) Heart of bat, man and cheetah
(3) a promoter
(3) Eye of octopus, bat and man
(4) an enhancer
(4) Brain of bat, man and cheetah
Answer ( 4 )
Answer ( 3 )
Sol. • Enhancer sequences are present in
S o l . Divergent evolution occurs in the same
eukaryotes.
structure, example - forelimbs, heart, brain of
• Operon concept is for prokaryotes. vertebrates which have developed along
52. A woman has an X-linked condition on one of different directions due to adaptation to
her X chromosomes. This chromosome can be different needs whereas eye of octopus, bat
inherited by and man are examples of analogous organs
(1) Only daughters showing convergent evolution.
56. Conversion of milk to curd improves its
(2) Only sons
nutritional value by increasing the amount of
(3) Both sons and daughters
(1) Vitamin D (2) Vitamin A
(4) Only grandchildren
(3) Vitamin E (4) Vitamin B12
Sol. • Woman is a carrier Sol.  Curd is more nourishing than milk.
• Both son & daughter inherit  It has enriched presence of vitamins
X–chromosome specially Vit-B12.
• Although only son be the diseased 57. Which of the following is not an autoimmune
53. According to Hugo de Vries, the mechanism disease?
of evolution is (1) Psoriasis
(1) Multiple step mutations (2) Rheumatoid arthritis
(2) Saltation (3) Vitiligo
(3) Minor mutations (4) Alzheimer's disease
(4) Phenotypic variations Answer ( 4 )
Answer ( 2 ) S o l . Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune

disorder in which antibodies are produced
S o l . As per mutation theory given by Hugo de against the synovial membrane and cartilage.
Vries, the evolution is a discontinuous
Vitiligo causes white patches on skin also
phenomenon or saltatory phenomenon/
characterised as autoimmune disorder.
saltation.
Psoriasis is a skin disease that causes itchy
54. AGGTATCGCAT is a sequence from the coding
or sore patches of thick red skin and is also
strand of a gene. What will be the
autoimmune whereas Alzheimer's disease is
corresponding sequence of the transcribed
due to deficiency of neurotransmitter
mRNA?
acetylcholine.
(1) AGGUAUCGCAU
58. The similarity of bone structure in the
(2) UGGTUTCGCAT forelimbs of many vertebrates is an example
(3) UCCAUAGCGUA of
(4) ACCUAUGCGAU (1) Homology
Answer ( 1 ) (2) Analogy
S o l . Coding strand and mRNA has same nucleotide (3) Adaptive radiation
sequence except, ‘T’ – Thymine is replaced by (4) Convergent evolution
‘U’–Uracil in mRNA. Answer ( 1 )
14
S o l . In different vertebrates, bones of forelimbs S o l . ‘Smack’ also called as brown sugar/Heroin is

are similar but their forelimbs are adapted in formed by acetylation of morphine. It is
different way as per their adaptation, hence obtained from the latex of unripe capsule of
example of homology. Poppy plant.
59. Which of the following characteristics 63. In a growing population of a country,
represent ‘Inheritance of blood groups’ in (1) pre-reproductive individuals are more
humans? than the reproductive individuals.
a. Dominance (2) reproductive individuals are less than the
b. Co-dominance post-reproductive individuals.
c. Multiple allele (3) pre-reproductive individuals are less than
d. Incomplete dominance the reproductive individuals.
e. Polygenic inheritance (4) reproductive and pre-reproductive

individuals are equal in number.
(1) b, c and e (2) a, b and c
Answer ( 1 )
(3) a, c and e (4) b, d and e
S o l . Whenever the pre-reproductive individuals or
Answer ( 2 ) the younger population size is larger than the
Sol.  IAIO, IBIO - Dominant–recessive reproductive group, the population will be an
relationship increasing population.
 IAIB - Codominance 64. Which one of the following population
 IA, IB & IO - 3-different allelic interactions is widely used in medical science
forms of a gene for the production of antibiotics?
(multiple allelism) (1) Commensalism (2) Mutualism
60. In which disease does mosquito transmitted (3) Amensalism (4) Parasitism
pathogen cause chronic inflammation of Answer ( 3 )
lymphatic vessels?
S o l . Amensalism/Antibiosis (0, –)
(1) Elephantiasis (2) Ascariasis
 Antibiotics are chemicals secreted by one
(3) Amoebiasis (4) Ringworm disease microbial group (eg : Penicillium) which
Answer ( 1 ) harm other microbes (eg :
S o l . Elephantiasis is caused by roundworm, Staphylococcus)
Wuchereria bancrofti and it is transmitted by  It has no effect on Penicillium or the
Culex mosquito. organism which produces it.
61. All of the following are included in ‘ex-situ 65. Match the items given in Column I with those
conservation’ except in Column II and select the correct option
(1) Wildlife safari parks given below :
(2) Sacred groves Column-I Column-II
(3) Seed banks a. Eutrophication i. UV-B radiation
(4) Botanical gardens b. Sanitary landfill ii. Deforestation
Answer ( 2 ) c. Snow blindness iii. Nutrient

enrichment
Sol.  Sacred groves – in-situ conservation.
d. Jhum cultivation iv. Waste disposal
 Represent pristine forest patch as
protected by Tribal groups. a b c d
62. Which part of poppy plant is used to obtain (1) ii i iii iv

the drug “Smack”? (2) i iii iv ii
(1) Flowers (2) Latex (3) i ii iv iii
(3) Leaves (4) Roots (4) iii iv i ii
15
S o l . a. Eutrophication iii. Nutrient 68. Match the items given in Column I with those
enrichment in Column II and select the correct option
b. Sanitary landfill iv. Waste disposal given below:
c. Snow blindness i. UV-B radiation Column I Column II

d. Jhum cultivation ii. Deforestation
a. Tidal volume i. 2500 – 3000 mL
66. Which of the following options correctly
represents the lung conditions in asthma and b. Inspiratory Reserve ii. 1100 – 1200 mL
emphysema, respectively?
volume
(1) Inflammation of bronchioles; Decreased
respiratory surface c. Expiratory Reserve iii. 500 – 550 mL
(2) Increased number of bronchioles; volume

Increased respiratory surface
d. Residual volume iv. 1000 – 1100 mL
(3) Decreased respiratory surface;
Inflammation of bronchioles a b c d
(4) Increased respiratory surface;
(1) iii ii i iv
Inflammation of bronchioles
Answer ( 1 ) (2) iii i iv ii
S o l . Asthma is a difficulty in breathing causing (3) iv iii ii i
wheezing due to inflammation of bronchi and
bronchioles. Emphysema is a chronic disorder (4) i iv ii iii
in which alveolar walls are damaged due to
Answer ( 2 )
which respiratory surface is decreased.
67. Match the items given in Column I with those S o l . Tidal volume is volume of air inspired or
in Column II and select the correct option expired during normal respiration. It is
given below : approximately 500 mL. Inspiratory reserve
Column I Column II volume is additional volume of air a person
can inspire by a forceful inspiration. It is
a. Tricuspid valve i. Between left atrium around 2500 – 3000 mL. Expiratory reserve
and left ventricle volume is additional volume of air a person
b. Bicuspid valve ii. Between right can be expired by a forceful expiration. This
ventricle and averages 1000 – 1100 mL.
pulmonary artery
Residual volume is volume of air remaining in
c. Semilunar valve iii. Between right
lungs even after forceful expiration. This
atrium and right
averages 1100 – 1200 mL.
ventricle
a b c 69. Which of the following is an amino acid
derived hormone?
(1) iii i ii
(2) i iii ii (1) Epinephrine
(3) ii i iii (2) Ecdysone
(4) i ii iii
(3) Estriol
Answer ( 1 )
(4) Estradiol
S o l . Tricuspid valves are AV valve present
between right atrium and right ventricle. Answer ( 1 )
Bicuspid valves are AV valve present between
left atrium and left ventricle. Semilunar valves S o l . Epinephrine is derived from tyrosine amino
are present at the openings of aortic and acid by the removal of carboxyl group. It is a
pulmonary aorta. catecholamine.
16
70. Which of the following structures or regions is 73. Which of the following gastric cells indirectly
incorrectly paired with its functions? help in erythropoiesis?
(1) Medulla oblongata : controls respiration (1) Chief cells
and cardiovascular
(2) Mucous cells
reflexes.
(2) Limbic system : consists of fibre (3) Parietal cells
tracts that (4) Goblet cells
interconnect
Answer ( 3 )
different regions of
brain; controls S o l . Parietal or oxyntic cell is a source of HCl and
movement. intrinsic factor. HCl converts iron present in
(3) Corpus callosum : band of fibers diet from ferric to ferrous form so that it can
connecting left and be absorbed easily and used during
right cerebral erythropoiesis.
hemispheres. Intrinsic factor is essential for the absorption
(4) Hypothalamus : production of of vitamin B 12 and its deficiency causes
releasing hormones pernicious anaemia.
and regulation of 74. Match the items given in Column I with those
temperature, in Column II and select the correct option
hunger and thirst. given below :
Answer ( 2 )
Column I Column II
S o l . Limbic system is emotional brain. It controls
a. Fibrinogen (i) Osmotic balance
all emotions in our body but not movements.
71. The transparent lens in the human eye is held b. Globulin (ii) Blood clotting
in its place by c. Albumin (iii) Defence
(1) ligaments attached to the ciliary body mechanism
(2) ligaments attached to the iris a b c
(3) smooth muscles attached to the ciliary (1) (iii) (ii) (i)
body
(2) (i) (ii) (iii)
(4) smooth muscles attached to the iris
(3) (ii) (iii) (i)
Answer ( 1 )
(4) (i) (iii) (ii)
S o l . Lens in the human eye is held in its place by
suspensory ligaments attached to the ciliary Answer ( 3 )
body.
S o l . Fibrinogen forms fibrin strands during
72. Which of the following hormones can play a coagulation. These strands forms a network
significant role in osteoporosis? and the meshes of which are occupied by
(1) Aldosterone and Prolactin blood cells, this structure finally forms a clot.
(2) Progesterone and Aldosterone Antibodies are derived from -Globulin fraction
(3) Parathyroid hormone and Prolactin of plasma proteins which means globulins are
involved in defence mechanisms.
(4) Estrogen and Parathyroid hormone
Albumin is a plasma protein mainly
Answer ( 4 )
responsible for BCOP.
S o l . Estrogen promotes the activity of osteoblast
and inhibits osteoclast. In an ageing female 75. Which of the following is an occupational
osteoporosis occurs due to deficiency of respiratory disorder?
estrogen. Parathormone promotes (1) Anthracis (2) Silicosis
mobilisation of calcium from bone into blood.
(3) Emphysema (4) Botulism
Excessive activity of parathormone causes
demineralisation leading to osteoporosis. Answer ( 2 )
17
S o l . Silicosis is due to excess inhalation of silica 78. Nissl bodies are mainly composed of
dust in the workers involved grinding or stone (1) Proteins and lipids
breaking industries.
(2) DNA and RNA
Long exposure can give rise to inflammation
leading to fibrosis and thus causing serious (3) Free ribosomes and RER
lung damage. (4) Nucleic acids and SER
Anthrax is a serious infectious disease caused Answer ( 3 )
by Bacillus anthracis. It commonly affects S o l . Nissl granules are present in the cyton and
domestic and wild animals. Emphysema is a even extend into the dendrite but absent in
chronic disorder in which alveolar walls are axon and rest of the neuron.
damaged due to which respiratory surface is
decreased. Nissl granules are in fact composed of free
ribosomes and RER. They are responsible for
Botulism is a form of food poisoning caused protein synthesis.
by Clostridium botulinum.
79. Which of these statements is incorrect?
76. Calcium is important in skeletal muscle
contraction because it (1) Enzymes of TCA cycle are present in
mitochondrial matrix
(1) Binds to troponin to remove the masking
of active sites on actin for myosin. (2) Glycolysis occurs in cytosol
(2) Activates the myosin ATPase by binding to (3) Oxidative phosphorylation takes place in
it. outer mitochondrial membrane
(3) Prevents the formation of bonds between (4) Glycolysis operates as long as it is
the myosin cross bridges and the actin supplied with NAD that can pick up
filament. hydrogen atoms
(4) Detaches the myosin head from the actin Answer ( 3 )

filament. S o l . Oxidative phosphorylation takes place in inner
Answer ( 1 ) mitochondrial membrane.
Sol.  Signal for contraction increase Ca++ level 80. Which of the following events does not occur
many folds in the sarcoplasm. in rough endoplasmic reticulum?
 Ca++ now binds with sub-unit of troponin (1) Protein folding

(troponin "C") which is masking the active (2) Protein glycosylation
site on actin filament and displaces the (3) Phospholipid synthesis
sub-unit of troponin.
(4) Cleavage of signal peptide
 Once the active site is exposed, head of
the myosin attaches and initiate Answer ( 3 )
contraction by sliding the actin over S o l . Phospholipid synthesis does not take place in
myosin. RER. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum are
77. Select the incorrect match : involved in lipid synthesis.
(1) Lampbrush – Diplotene bivalents 81. Many ribosomes may associate with a single
mRNA to form multiple copies of a polypeptide
chromosomes simultaneously. Such strings of ribosomes are
(2) Allosomes – Sex chromosomes termed as
(3) Polytene – Oocytes of (1) Polysome (2) Polyhedral bodies
chromosomes amphibians (3) Nucleosome (4) Plastidome
(4) Submetacentric – L-shaped Answer ( 1 )
chromosomes chromosomes
S o l . The phenomenon of association of many
Answer ( 3 ) ribosomes with single m-RNA leads to
S o l . Polytene chromosomes are found in salivary formation of polyribosomes or polysomes or
glands of insects of order Diptera. ergasomes.
18
82. Which of the following terms describe human 85. Which of the following features is used to
dentition? identify a male cockroach from a female
(1) Thecodont, Diphyodont, Homodont cockroach?
(2) Thecodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont (1) Presence of a boat shaped sternum on the
9th abdominal segment
(3) Pleurodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont
(2) Presence of caudal styles
(4) Pleurodont, Monophyodont, Homodont
(3) Presence of anal cerci
Answer ( 2 )
(4) Forewings with darker tegmina
S o l . In humans, dentition is
Answer ( 2 )
 Thecodont : Teeth are present in the
S o l . Males bear a pair of short, thread like anal
sockets of the jaw bone called alveoli.
styles which are absent in females.
 Diphyodont : Teeth erupts twice,
Anal/caudal styles arise from 9th abdominal
temporary milk or deciduous teeth are
segment in male cockroach.
replaced by a set of permanent or adult
teeth. 86. Which of the following organisms are known
as chief producers in the oceans?
 Heterodont dentition : Dentition consists
of different types of teeth namely incisors, (1) Dinoflagellates
canine, premolars and molars. (2) Diatoms
83. Identify the vertebrate group of animals (3) Euglenoids
characterized by crop and gizzard in its
(4) Cyanobacteria
digestive system
Answer ( 2 )
(1) Amphibia
S o l . Diatoms are chief producers of the ocean.
(2) Reptilia
87. Ciliates differ from all other protozoans in
(3) Osteichthyes
(1) using flagella for locomotion
(4) Aves
(2) having a contractile vacuole for removing
Answer ( 4 ) excess water
S o l . The digestive tract of Aves has additional (3) having two types of nuclei
chambers in their digestive system as crop
and Gizzard. (4) using pseudopodia for capturing prey
Answer ( 3 )
Crop is concerned with storage of food grains.
S o l . Ciliates differs from other protozoans in
Gizzard is a masticatory organ in birds used to
having two types of nuclei.
crush food grain.
eg. Paramoecium have two types of nuclei i.e.
84. Which one of these animals is not a
macronucleus & micronucleus.
homeotherm?
88. Which of the following animals does not
(1) Macropus
undergo metamorphosis?
(2) Chelone
(1) Earthworm (2) Tunicate
(3) Psittacula
(3) Starfish (4) Moth
(4) Camelus
Answer ( 1 )
Answer ( 2 )
S o l . Metamorphosis refers to transformation of
S o l . Homeotherm are animals that maintain larva into adult.
constant body temperature, irrespective of
Animal that perform metamorphosis are said
surrounding temperature.
to have indirect development.
Birds and mammals are homeotherm.
In earthworm development is direct which
Chelone (Turtle) belongs to class reptilia means no larval stage and hence no
which is Poikilotherm or cold blood. metamorphosis.
19
89. Match the items given in Column I with those a b c d

in Column II and select the correct option (1) iii ii iv i
given below:
(2) i ii iii iv
Column I Column II
(3) iv i ii iii
(Function) (Part of Excretory (4) ii iii i iv
system)
Answer ( 3 )
a. Ultrafiltration i. Henle's loop
S o l . Glycosuria denotes presence of glucose in the
b. Concentration ii. Ureter urine. This is observed when blood glucose
of urine level rises above 180 mg/100 ml of blood, this
is called renal threshold value for glucose.
c. Transport of iii. Urinary bladder
Gout is due to deposition of uric acid crystals
urine in the joint.
d. Storage of iv. Malpighian Renal calculi are precipitates of calcium
urine corpuscle phosphate produced in the pelvis of the
kidney.
v. Proximal
Glomerular nephritis is the inflammatory
convoluted tubule
condition of glomerulus characterised by
a b c d proteinuria and haematuria.
(1) iv v ii iii 91. What is the role of NAD + in cellular
(2) iv i ii iii respiration?
(1) It functions as an enzyme.
(3) v iv i iii
(2) It functions as an electron carrier.
(4) v iv i ii
(3) It is the final electron acceptor for
Answer ( 2 )
anaerobic respiration.
S o l . Ultrafiltration refers to filtration of very fine (4) It is a nucleotide source for ATP synthesis.
particles having molecular weight less than
Answer ( 2 )
68,000 daltons through malpighian corpuscle.
S o l . In cellular respiration, NAD+ act as an electron
Concentration of urine refers to water
carrier.
absorption from glomerular filtrate as a result
of hyperosmolarity in the medulla created by 92. Which one of the following plants shows a
counter-current mechanism in Henle's loop. very close relationship with a species of moth,
where none of the two can complete its life
Urine is carried from kidney to bladder
cycle without the other?
through ureter.
(1) Hydrilla (2) Yucca
Urinary bladder is concerned with storage of
(3) Viola (4) Banana
urine.
Answer ( 2 )
90. Match the items given in Column I with those
in Column II and select the correct option S o l . Yucca have an obligate mutualism with a
given below : species of moth i.e. Pronuba.
Column I Column II 93. Oxygen is not produced during photosynthesis

by
a. Glycosuria i. Accumulation of
(1) Green sulphur bacteria
uric acid in joints
(2) Nostoc
b. Gout ii. Mass of crystallised
salts within the (3) Chara
kidney (4) Cycas
c. Renal calculi iii. Inflammation in Answer ( 1 )
glomeruli S o l . Green sulphur bacteria do not use H 2O as
d. Glomerular iv. Presence of in source of proton, therefore they do not evolve
nephritis glucose urine O2.
20
94. In which of the following forms is iron 99. The two functional groups characteristic of
absorbed by plants? sugars are
(1) Ferric (1) Hydroxyl and methyl
(2) Ferrous (2) Carbonyl and methyl
(3) Both ferric and ferrous (3) Carbonyl and hydroxyl
(4) Free element (4) Carbonyl and phosphate
Answer ( 1 * ) Answer ( 3 )
S o l . Iron is absorbed by plants in the form of ferric S o l . Sugar is a common term used to denote
ions. (According to NCERT) carbohydrate.
*Plants absorb iron in both form i.e. Fe++ and Carbohydrates are polyhydroxy aldehyde,
Fe+++. (Preferably Fe++) ketone or their derivatives, which means they
have carbonyl and hydroxyl groups.
95. Double fertilization is
100. Which of the following is not a product of light
(1) Fusion of two male gametes of a pollen reaction of photosynthesis?
tube with two different eggs
(1) ATP (2) NADH
(2) Fusion of one male gamete with two polar
(3) Oxygen (4) NADPH
nuclei
Answer ( 2 )
(3) Syngamy and triple fusion
S o l . ATP, NADPH and oxygen are products of light
(4) Fusion of two male gametes with one egg
reaction, while NADH is a product of
Answer ( 3 ) respiration process.
S o l . Double fertilization is a unique phenomenon 101. Stomatal movement is not affected by
that occur in angiosperms only.
(1) Temperature
Syngamy + Triple fusion = Double fertilization (2) Light
96. Which of the following elements is responsible (3) CO2 concentration
for maintaining turgor in cells?
(4) O2 concentration
(1) Magnesium (2) Sodium
Answer ( 4 )
(3) Calcium (4) Potassium
S o l . Light, temperature and concentration of CO2
Answer ( 4 ) affect opening and closing of stomata while
S o l . Potassium helps in maintaining turgidity of they are not affected by O2 concentration.
cells. 102. The Golgi complex participates in
97. Pollen grains can be stored for several years (1) Fatty acid breakdown
in liquid nitrogen having a temperature of (2) Formation of secretory vesicles
(1) –120°C (2) –80°C (3) Activation of amino acid
(3) –160°C (4) –196°C (4) Respiration in bacteria
S o l . Pollen grains can be stored for several years S o l . Golgi complex, after processing releases
in liquid nitrogen at –196°C secretory vesicles from their trans-face.
(Cryopreservation)
103. Which of the following is true for nucleolus?
98. Which among the following is not a
(1) Larger nucleoli are present in dividing
prokaryote? cells
(1) Saccharomyces (2) Mycobacterium (2) It is a membrane-bound structure
(3) Oscillatoria (4) Nostoc (3) It is a site for active ribosomal RNA
Answer ( 1 ) synthesis
S o l . Saccharomyces i.e. yeast is an eukaryote (4) It takes part in spindle formation
(unicellular fungi) Answer ( 3 )
Mycobacterium – a bacterium S o l . Nucleolus is a non membranous structure
Oscillatoria and Nostoc are cyanobacteria. and is a site of r-RNA synthesis.
21
104. Stomata in grass leaf are 108. In India, the organisation responsible for
assessing the safety of introducing
(1) Dumb-bell shaped
genetically modified organisms for public use
(2) Kidney shaped is
(3) Barrel shaped (1) Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR)
(4) Rectangular (2) Council for Scientific and Industrial
Research (CSIR)
Answer ( 1 )
(3) Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee
S o l . Grass being a monocot, has Dumb-bell
(GEAC)
shaped stomata in their leaves.
(4) Research Committee on Genetic
105. The stage during which separation of the Manipulation (RCGM)
paired homologous chromosomes begins is
Answer ( 3 )
(1) Pachytene
S o l . Indian Government has setup organisation
(2) Diplotene such as GEAC (Genetic Engineering Appraisal
Committee) which will make decisions
(3) Zygotene
regarding the validity of GM research and
(4) Diakinesis safety of introducing GM-organism for public
Answer ( 2 ) services. (Direct from NCERT).
S o l . Synaptonemal complex disintegrates. 109. The correct order of steps in Polymerase

Terminalisation begins at diplotene stage i.e. Chain Reaction (PCR) is
chiasmata start to shift towards end. (1) Extension, Denaturation, Annealing
106. Which of the following is commonly used as a (2) Annealing, Extension, Denaturation
vector for introducing a DNA fragment in (3) Denaturation, Annealing, Extension
human lymphocytes? (4) Denaturation, Extension, Annealing
(1) Retrovirus (2) Ti plasmid Answer ( 3 )
(3) pBR 322 (4)  phage S o l . This technique is used for making multiple
Answer ( 1 ) copies of gene (or DNA) of interest in vitro.
Each cycle has three steps
S o l . Retrovirus is commonly used as vector for
introducing a DNA fragment in human (1) Denaturation
lymphocyte. (2) Primer annealing
Gene therapy : Lymphocyte from blood of (3) Extension of primer
patient are grown in culture outside the body, 110. Select the correct match
a functional gene is introduced by using a
(1) Ribozyme - Nucleic acid
retroviral vector, into these lymphocyte.
(2) F2 × Recessive parent - Dihybrid cross
107. Use of bioresources by multinational
companies and organisations without (3) G. Mendel - Transformation
authorisation from the concerned country and (4) T.H. Morgan - Transduction
its people is called Answer ( 1 )
(1) Bio-infringement (2) Biopiracy S o l . Ribozyme is a catalytic RNA, which is nucleic
(3) Bioexploitation (4) Biodegradation acid.
111. A ‘new’ variety of rice was patented by a
Answer ( 2 )
foreign company, though such varieties have
S o l . Biopiracy is term used for or refer to the use been present in India for a long time. This is
of bioresources by multinational companies related to
and other organisation without proper
(1) Co-667 (2) Sharbati Sonora
authorisation from the countries and people
concerned with compensatory payment (3) Basmati (4) Lerma Rojo
(definition of biopiracy given in NCERT). Answer ( 3 )
22
S o l . In 1997, an American company got patent 114. The experimental proof for semiconservative
rights on Basmati rice through the US patent replication of DNA was first shown in a
and trademark office that was actually been (1) Fungus
derived from Indian farmer’s varieties.
(2) Bacterium
The diversity of rice in India is one of the
(3) Virus
richest in the world, 27 documented varieties
of Basmati are grown in India. (4) Plant
Indian basmati was crossed with semi-dwarf Answer ( 2 )
varieties and claimed as an invention or a S o l . Semi-conservative DNA replication was first
novelty. shown in Bacterium Escherichia coli by
Sharbati Sonora and Lerma Rojo are varieties Matthew Meselson and Franklin Stahl.
of wheat. 115. Which of the following pairs is wrongly
112. Select the correct match matched?
(1) Alec Jeffreys - Streptococcus (1) Starch synthesis in pea : Multiple alleles
pneumoniae (2) ABO blood grouping : Co-dominance
(2) Alfred Hershey and - TMV (3) T.H. Morgan : Linkage
Martha Chase (4) XO type sex : Grasshopper

determination
(3) Francois Jacob and - Lac operon
Answer ( 1 )
Jacques Monod
S o l . Starch synthesis in pea is controlled by
(4) Matthew Meselson - Pisum sativum
pleiotropic gene.
and F. Stahl
Other options (2, 3 & 4) are correctly
Answer ( 3 ) matched.
S o l . Francois Jacob and Jacque Monod proposed 116. Offsets are produced by
model of gene regulation known as operon
(1) Meiotic divisions
model/lac operon.
(2) Mitotic divisions
– Alec Jeffreys – DNA fingerprinting
technique. (3) Parthenogenesis
– Matthew Meselson and F. Stahl – Semi- (4) Parthenocarpy

conservative DNA replication in E. coli. Answer ( 2 )
– Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase – S o l . Offset is a vegetative part of a plant, formed
Proved DNA as genetic material not by mitosis.
protein – Meiotic divisions do not occur in somatic
113. Which of the following has proved helpful in cells.
preserving pollen as fossils? – Parthenogenesis is the formation of
(1) Pollenkitt (2) Cellulosic intine embryo from ovum or egg without
fertilisation.
(3) Sporopollenin (4) Oil content
– Parthenocarpy is the fruit formed without
Answer ( 3 )
fertilisation, (generally seedless)
S o l . Sporopollenin cannot be degraded by
117. Select the correct statement
enzyme; strong acids and alkali, therefore it is
helpful in preserving pollen as fossil. (1) Franklin Stahl coined the term ‘‘linkage’’
Pollenkitt – Help in insect pollination. (2) Punnett square was developed by a British
scientist
Cellulosic Intine – Inner sporoderm layer of
pollen grain known as intine made up (3) Transduction was discovered by S. Altman
cellulose & pectin. (4) Spliceosomes take part in translation
Oil content – No role is pollen preservation. Answer ( 2 )
23
S o l . Punnett square was developed by a British 121. What type of ecological pyramid would be
geneticist, Reginald C. Punnett. obtained with the following data?
– Franklin Stahl proved semi-conservative Secondary consumer : 120 g
mode of replication. Primary consumer : 60 g
– Transduction was discovered by Zinder Primary producer : 10 g
and Laderberg.
(1) Inverted pyramid of biomass
– Spliceosome formation is part of post-
transcriptional change in Eukaryotes (2) Pyramid of energy
(3) Upright pyramid of biomass
118. Which of the following flowers only once in its
life-time? (4) Upright pyramid of numbers
(1) Bamboo species Answer ( 1 )
(2) Jackfruit Sol. • The given data depicts the inverted
pyramid of biomass, usually found in
(3) Papaya
aquatic ecosystem.
(4) Mango
• Pyramid of energy is always upright
Answer ( 1 )
• Upright pyramid of biomass and numbers
S o l . Bamboo species are monocarpic i.e., flower are not possible, as the data depicts
generally only once in its life-time after 50- primary producer is less than primary
100 years. consumer and this is less than secondary
Jackfruit, papaya and mango are polycarpic consumers.
i.e., produce flowers and fruits many times in 122. Which of the following is a secondary
their life-time. pollutant?
119. Niche is (1) CO
(1) all the biological factors in the organism's (2) CO2
environment
(3) O3
(2) the physical space where an organism
lives (4) SO2
(3) the functional role played by the organism Answer ( 3 )

where it lives S o l . O3 (ozone) is a secondary pollutant. These are
(4) the range of temperature that the formed by the reaction of primary pollutant.
organism needs to live CO – Quantitative pollutant
Answer ( 3 ) CO2 – Primary pollutant
S o l . Ecological niche was termed by J. Grinnel. It SO2 – Primary pollutant
refers the functional role played by the
123. World Ozone Day is celebrated on
organism where it lives.
(1) 5th June
120. In stratosphere, which of the following
elements acts as a catalyst in degradation of (2) 21st April
ozone and release of molecular oxygen? (3) 22nd April
(1) Carbon (2) Cl (4) 16th September
(3) Oxygen (4) Fe Answer (4)
Answer ( 2 )
S o l . World Ozone day is celebrated on 16 th
S o l . UV rays act on CFCs, releasing Cl atoms, September.
chlorine reacts with ozone in sequential
5th June - World Environment Day
method converting into oxygen
21st April - National Yellow Bat Day
Carbon, oxygen and Fe are not related to
ozone layer depletion 22nd April - National Earth Day
24
124. Natality refers to Sol. • Herbarium – Dried and pressed plant

specimen
(1) Death rate
• Key – Identification of various
(2) Birth rate taxa
(3) Number of individuals entering a habitat • Museum – Plant and animal
specimen are preserved
(4) Number of individuals leaving the habitat
• Catalogue – Alphabetical listing of
Answer ( 2 ) species
S o l . Natality refers to birth rate. 126. Which one is wrongly matched?

(1) Uniflagellate gametes – Polysiphonia
• Death rate – Mortality
(2) Biflagellate zoospores – Brown algae
• Number of individual – Immigration
entering a habitat is (3) Unicellular organism – Chlorella
(4) Gemma cups – Marchantia
• Number of individual – Emigration
leaving the habital Answer ( 1 )
125. Match the items given in Column I with those Sol. • Polysiphonia is a genus of red algae,
in Column II and select the correct option where asexual spores and gametes are
non-motile or non-flagellated.
given below:
• Other options (2, 3 & 4) are correctly
Column I Column II matched
a. Herbarium (i) It is a place having a 127. After karyogamy followed by meiosis, spores
collection of preserved are produced exogenously in
plants and animals
(1) Neurospora
b. Key (ii) A list that enumerates (2) Alternaria
methodically all the
species found in an area (3) Saccharomyces
with brief description (4) Agaricus
aiding identification
Answer ( 4 )
c. Museum (iii) Is a place where dried Sol.  In Agaricus (a genus of basidiomycetes),
and pressed plant basidiospores or meiospores are
specimens mounted on produced exogenously.
sheets are kept
 Neurospora (a genus of ascomycetes)
d. Catalogue (iv) A booklet containing a produces ascospores as meiospores but
list of characters and endogenously inside the ascus.)
their alternates which  Alternaria (a genus of deuteromycetes)
are helpful in
does not produce sexual spores.
identification of various
taxa.  Saccharomyces (Unicellular
ascomycetes) produces ascospores,
a b c d endogenously.
(1) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii) 128. Winged pollen grains are present in
(2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) (1) Mustard

(2) Cycas
(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(3) Pinus
(4) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(4) Mango
Answer ( 3 ) Answer (3)
25
S o l . In Pinus, winged pollen grains are present. It Sol. • Vascular cambium is partially secondary
is extended outer exine on two lateral sides to
• Form secondary xylem towards its inside
form the wings of pollen. It is the
and secondary phloem towards outsides.
characteristic feature, only in Pinus.
Pollen grains of Mustard, Cycas & Mango are • 4 – 10 times more secondary xylem is
not winged shaped. produced than secondary phloem.
129. Pneumatophores occur in 133. Select the wrong statement :

(1) Halophytes (1) Cell wall is present in members of Fungi
(2) Free-floating hydrophytes and Plantae
(3) Submerged hydrophytes (2) Mushrooms belong to Basidiomycetes

(4) Carnivorous plants (3) Mitochondria are the powerhouse of the
Answer (1) cell in all kingdoms except Monera
Sol.  Halophytes like mangrooves have (4) Pseudopodia are locomotory and feeding
pneumatophores. structures in Sporozoans
 Apogeotropic (–vely geotropic) roots Answer ( 4 )
having lenticels called pneumathodes to
uptake O2. S o l . Pseudopodia are locomotory structures in
sarcodines (Amoeboid)
130. Plants having little or no secondary growth
are 134. Which of the following statements is correct?
(1) Grasses (1) Ovules are not enclosed by ovary wall in
(2) Deciduous angiosperms gymnosperms
(3) Cycads (2) Selaginella is heterosporous, while
(4) Conifers Salvinia is homosporous
Answer (1) (3) Stems are usually unbranched in both

Cycas and Cedrus
S o l . Grasses are monocots and monocots usually
do not have secondary growth. (4) Horsetails are gymnosperms
Palm like monocots have anomalous Answer ( 1 )
secondary growth.
Sol. • Gymnosperms have naked ovule.
131. Casparian strips occur in
(1) Epidermis (2) Pericycle • Called phanerogams without womb/ovary
(3) Endodermis (4) Cortex 135. Sweet potato is a modified

Answer ( 3 ) (1) Stem
Sol. • Endodermis have casparian strip on radial (2) Adventitious root
and inner tangential wall.
(3) Rhizome
• It is suberin rich.
132. Secondary xylem and phloem in dicot stem (4) Tap root
are produced by Answer ( 2 )
(1) Apical meristems
S o l . Sweet potato is a modified adventitious root
(2) Vascular cambium for storage of food
(3) Axillary meristems
• Rhizomes are underground modified stem
(4) Phellogen
• Tap root is primary root directly elongated
Answer ( 2 ) from the redicle
26
136. The correct order of N-compounds in its 140. Which of the following statements is not true
decreasing order of oxidation states is for halogens?
(1) HNO3, NO, N2, NH4Cl (1) All form monobasic oxyacids
(2) HNO3, NO, NH4Cl, N2 (2) All are oxidizing agents

(3) Chlorine has the highest electron-gain
(3) NH4Cl, N2, NO, HNO3
enthalpy
(4) HNO3, NH4Cl, NO, N2
(4) All but fluorine show positive oxidation
Answer ( 1 ) states
Answer ( 4 )
+5 +2 0 –3
S o l . H N O , N O, N2 , NH Cl S o l . Due to high electronegativity and small size,
3 4
F forms only one oxoacid, HOF known as
Hence, the correct option is (1). Fluoric (I) acid. Oxidation number of F is +1 in
137. The correct order of atomic radii in group 13 HOF.
elements is 141. In the structure of ClF3, the number of lone
pair of electrons on central atom ‘Cl’ is
(1) B < Al < In < Ga < Tl
(1) One (2) Two
(2) B < Al < Ga < In < Tl
(3) Three (4) Four
(3) B < Ga < Al < In < Tl
Answer ( 2 )
(4) B < Ga < Al < Tl < In
S o l . The structure of ClF3 is
Answer ( 3 )
• •
• •
• •
Sol. F
• •
Elements B Ga Al In Tl
• •
F Cl
Atomic radii (pm) 85 135 143 167 170 • •
138. Considering Ellingham diagram, which of the

• •
• •
following metals can be used to reduce F

• •
alumina?
The number of lone pair of electrons on
(1) Fe (2) Zn central Cl is 2.
(3) Cu (4) Mg 142. The difference between amylose and

amylopectin is
Answer ( 4 )
(1) Amylopectin have 1 → 4 α-linkage and
S o l . The metal which is more reactive than 'Al' 1 → 6 α-linkage
can reduce alumina i.e. 'Mg' should be the
(2) Amylose have 1 → 4 α-linkage and 1 → 6
correct option.
β-linkage
139. Which one of the following elements is unable (3) Amylose is made up of glucose and
to form MF63– ion? galactose
(1) Ga (2) Al (4) Amylopectin have 1 → 4 α-linkage and
(3) In (4) B 1 → 6 β-linkage
Answer ( 1 )
Answer ( 4 )
S o l . Amylose and Amylopectin are polymers of α-
S o l . ∵ 'B' has no vacant d-orbitals in its valence D-glucose, so β-link is not possible. Amylose is
shell, so it can't extend its covalency beyond linear with 1 → 4 α-linkage whereas
4. i.e. 'B' cannot form the ion like MF6 3(–) i.e. Amylopectin is branched and has both 1 → 4
BF63(–). and 1 → 6 α-linkages.
Hence, the correct option is (4). So option (1) should be the correct option.
27
143. Regarding cross-linked or network polymers, Answer ( 2 )

which of the following statements is S o l . BeO < MgO < CaO < BaO
incorrect? ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→
Basic character increases.
(1) They contain covalent bonds between
various linear polymer chains. So, the most acidic should be BeO. In fact,
BeO is amphoteric oxide while other given
(2) They are formed from bi- and tri-functional
oxides are basic.
monomers.
146. Nitration of aniline in strong acidic medium
(3) They contain strong covalents bonds in
also gives m-nitroaniline because
their polymer chains.
(1) Inspite of substituents nitro group always
(4) Examples are bakelite and melamine.
goes to only m-position.
Answer ( 3 )
(2) In electrophilic substitution reactions
S o l . Cross linked or network polymers are formed amino group is meta directive.
from bi-functional and tri-functional monomers
(3) In acidic (strong) medium aniline is
and contain strong covalent bonds between
present as anilinium ion.
various linear polymer chains, e.g. bakelite,
melamine etc. Option (3) is not related to (4) In absence of substituents nitro group
cross-linking. always goes to m-position.
So option (3) should be the correct option. Answer ( 3 )
144. A mixture of 2.3 g formic acid and 4.5 g oxalic
acid is treated with conc. H2SO4. The evolved NH2 NH3
gaseous mixture is passed through KOH H
pellets. Weight (in g) of the remaining product Sol.
at STP will be
Anilinium ion
(1) 1.4 (2) 3.0
–NH3 is m-directing, hence besides para
(3) 4.4 (4) 2.8
(51%) and ortho (2%), meta product (47%) is
Answer ( 4 ) also formed in significant yield.
Conc.H2 SO4
S o l . HCOOH ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ → CO(g) + H2 O(l) 147. The compound A on treatment with Na gives
⎛ 1 ⎞ 1
2.3 g or ⎜ mol ⎟ mol B, and with PCl 5 gives C. B and C react
⎝ 20 ⎠ 20 together to give diethyl ether. A, B and C are
Conc.H2SO4 in the order
COOH CO(g) + CO2 (g) + H2O(l)
1 1
mol mol (1) C2H5OH, C2H6, C2H5Cl
COOH 20 20
⎛ 1 ⎞ (2) C2H5OH, C2H5Cl, C2H5ONa

4.5 g or ⎜ mol ⎟
⎝ 20 ⎠
(3) C2H5OH, C2H5ONa, C2H5Cl
Gaseous mixture formed is CO and CO2 when
it is passed through KOH, only CO 2 is (4) C2H5Cl, C2H6, C2H5OH
absorbed. So the remaining gas is CO. Answer ( 3 )
So, weight of remaining gaseous product CO
C2H5O Na+
Na
is S o l . C2H5OH
(A) (B)
2
× 28 = 2.8 g PCl5
20
C2H5Cl
So, the correct option is (4)
(C)
145. Which of the following oxides is most acidic in
C2H5O Na+ + C2H5Cl
SN2
nature? C2H5OC2 H5
(B) (C)
(1) MgO (2) BeO
So the correct option is (3)
(3) CaO (4) BaO
28
148. Hydrocarbon (A) reacts with bromine by 151. Which of the following molecules represents
substitution to form an alkyl bromide which by the order of hybridisation sp2, sp2, sp, sp from
Wurtz reaction is converted to gaseous left to right atoms?
hydrocarbon containing less than four carbon (1) HC ≡ C – C ≡ CH
atoms. (A) is
(2) CH2 = CH – C ≡ CH
(1) CH ≡ CH (2) CH2 = CH2
(3) CH3 – CH = CH – CH3
(3) CH4 (4) CH3 – CH3
(4) CH2 = CH – CH = CH2
Answer ( 3 )
Answer ( 2 )
Br2/hν
S o l . CH4 CH3Br
sp2 sp2 sp sp
(A) Na/dry ether S o l . CH2 = CH – C ≡ CH
Wurtz reaction
Number of orbital require in hybridization
CH3 — CH3
= Number of σ-bonds around each carbon
Hence the correct option is (3) atom.
149. The compound C7H8 undergoes the following 152. Which of the following carbocations is
reactions: expected to be most stable?
3Cl / Δ Br /Fe Zn/HCl

C7H8 ⎯⎯⎯⎯
2
→ A ⎯⎯⎯⎯
2
→ B ⎯⎯⎯⎯
→C NO2 NO2
The product 'C' is ⊕
(1) m-bromotoluene
(1) (2)
(2) o-bromotoluene ⊕
(3) p-bromotoluene Y H Y H
(4) 3-bromo-2,4,6-trichlorotoluene
NO2 NO2
Answer ( 1 )
H ⊕
CH3 CCl3 CCl3
(3) Y (4) H
3Cl 2 Br2
Sol. Δ
Y ⊕
Fe
Br
(C7H8) (A) (B) Answer ( 4 )
Zn HCl S o l . –NO2 group exhibit –I effect and it decreases
with increase in distance. In option (4)
CH3 positive charge present on C-atom at
maximum distance so –I effect reaching to it
is minimum and stability is maximum.
Br 153. Which of the following is correct with respect
(C) to – I effect of the substituents? (R = alkyl)
So, the correct option is (1)
(1) – NH2 < – OR < – F
150. Which oxide of nitrogen is not a common
(2) – NR2 < – OR < – F
pollutant introduced into the atmosphere both
due to natural and human activity? (3) – NR2 > – OR > – F
(1) N2O5 (4) – NH2 > – OR > – F
(2) NO2 Answer ( 1 * )
(3) NO S o l . –I effect increases on increasing
(4) N2O electronegativity of atom. So, correct order of
–I effect is –NH2 < – OR < – F.
Answer ( 1 )
*Most appropriate Answer is option (1),
S o l . Fact however option (2) may also be correct answer.
29
154. In the reaction A and Y are respectively

OH O–Na+
(1) H3C CH2 – OH and I2
CHO
+ CHCl3 + NaOH
(2) CH2 – CH2 – OH and I2

The electrophile involved is
CH3
(1) Dichloromethyl cation CHCl2 ( ⊕
) (3) CH3 OH and I2
(2) Formyl cation CHO ( ⊕

)
CH – CH3 and I2
(4)
(3) Dichlorocarbene (: CCl2 )
OH
Answer ( 4 )
(4) Dichloromethyl anion CHCl2 ( ⊕
) S o l . Option (4) is secondary alcohol which on
oxidation gives phenylmethyl ketone
Answer ( 3 ) (Acetophenone). This on reaction with I2 and
S o l . It is Reimer-Tiemann reaction. The electrophile NaOH form iodoform and sodium benzoate.
formed is :CCl2 (Dichlorocarbene) according to 2NaOH + I2 → NaOI + NaI + H2 O
the following reaction
CH – CH3 NaOI
C – CH3
– .–.
CCl3 + H2 O
CHCl3 + OH OH O
Acetophenone
(A)
.–.
→ : CCl2 + Cl–
CCl3 ⎯⎯ COONa + CHI3
I2
Electrophile NaOH
Iodoform
Sodium benzoate (Yellow PPt)
155. Carboxylic acids have higher boiling points 157. Identify the major products P, Q and R in the
than aldehydes, ketones and even alcohols of following sequence of reactions:
comparable molecular mass. It is due to their Anhydrous
AlCl3
(1) Formation of intramolecular H-bonding + CH3CH2CH2Cl
(2) Formation of carboxylate ion
(i) O2
(3) Formation of intermolecular H-bonding P (ii) H3O+/Δ
Q+R
(4) More extensive association of carboxylic P Q R

acid via van der Waals force of attraction CH 2CH 2CH3 CHO
Answer ( 3 ) (1) , , CH3CH2 – OH

S o l . Due to formation of intermolecular H-bonding
CH2CH2CH3 CHO COOH
in carboxylic acid, association occurs. Hence
boiling point increases and become more (2) , ,
than the boiling point of aldehydes, ketones
and alcohols of comparable molecular
OH
masses. CH(CH3)2
156. Compound A, C8H10O, is found to react with (3) , , CH3 – CO – CH3
NaOI (produced by reacting Y with NaOH) and
yields a yellow precipitate with characteristic CH(CH3)2 OH
smell. (4) , , CH3CH(OH)CH3
30
Cl Reduction
+7 +3 +4
S o l . CH CH CH – Cl + Al S o l . MnO4– + C2O42– + H+ 2+
Mn + CO2 + H2O
3 2 2
Cl Cl Oxidation
−
1, 2–H
n-factor of MnO4 ⇒ 5
δ+ δ+ δ–
Shift
CH3 – CH – CH3 CH3CH2CH2 Cl AlCl3 n-factor of C2 O24− ⇒ 2
(Incipient carbocation)
Cl −
Ratio of n-factors of MnO4 and C2 O24− is 5 : 2
δ– So, molar ratio in balanced reaction is 2 : 5
AlCl3
∴ The balanced equation is
Now,
CH3 2MnO−4 + 5C2 O24− + 16H+ → 2Mn2 + + 10CO2 + 8H2 O
160. Which one of the following conditions will
CH – CH3
favour maximum formation of the product in
CH3 – CH – CH3 O2 the reaction,
(P) X2 (g) Δr H = − X kJ?

A2 (g) + B2 (g)
CH3 (1) Low temperature and high pressure
OH HC
3 –C – O– O –H (2) Low temperature and low pressure
O
+
H /H2O
(3) High temperature and low pressure
CH3 – C – CH3 + Hydroperoxide (4) High temperature and high pressure
Rearrangement
(R) (Q) Answer ( 1 )
158. Which of the following compounds can form a X2 (g); ΔH = −x kJ
S o l . A2 (g) + B2 (g)
zwitterion?
(1) Aniline (2) Acetanilide On increasing pressure equilibrium shifts in a
direction where pressure decreases i.e.
(3) Glycine (4) Benzoic acid forward direction.
Answer ( 3 ) On decreasing temperature, equilibrium shifts
in exothermic direction i.e., forward direction.
⊕ ⊕
Sol. H3N – CH2 – COOH H3N – CH2 – COO
–
So, high pressure and low temperature
(Zwitterion form) favours maximum formation of product.
pKa = 9.60 pKa = 2.34
161. When initial concentration of the reactant is
H2N – CH2 – COO– doubled, the half-life period of a zero order
reaction
159. For the redox reaction
(1) Is halved
MnO−4 + C2 O24− + H+ ⎯⎯
→ Mn2 + + CO2 + H2 O (2) Is doubled
(3) Remains unchanged
The correct coefficients of the reactants for
(4) Is tripled
the balanced equation are
Answer ( 2 )
MnO−4 C2 O24− H+ S o l . Half life of zero order
(1) 16 5 2 [A0 ]
t 1/2 =
(2) 2 5 16 2K
(3) 5 16 2 t 1/2 will be doubled on doubling the initial

concentration.
(4) 2 16 5
31
162. The correction factor ‘a’ to the ideal gas Answer ( 3 )

equation corresponds to S o l . Element (X) electronic configuration
(1) Density of the gas molecules 1s2 2s2 2p3
(2) Volume of the gas molecules So, valency of X will be 3.
(3) Forces of attraction between the gas Valency of Mg is 2.

molecules Formula of compound formed by Mg and X will
be Mg3X2.
(4) Electric field present between the gas
molecules 165. Iron exhibits bcc structure at room
temperature. Above 900°C, it transforms to
Answer ( 3 ) fcc structure. The ratio of density of iron at
room temperature to that at 900°C (assuming
⎛ 2 ⎞
S o l . In real gas equation, ⎜ P + an ⎟ (V − nb) = nRT molar mass and atomic radii of iron remains
⎜ V2 ⎟⎠ constant with temperature) is
⎝
van der Waal’s constant, ‘a’ signifies
intermolecular forces of attraction. 3 4 3
(1) (2)
2 3 2
163. The bond dissociation energies of X2, Y2 and
XY are in the ratio of 1 : 0.5 : 1. ΔH for the
1 3 3
formation of XY is –200 kJ mol–1. The bond (3) (4)
dissociation energy of X2 will be 2 4 2
(1) 200 kJ mol–1 (2) 100 kJ mol–1 Answer ( 4 )
(3) 400 kJ mol–1 (4) 800 kJ mol–1 4r

S o l . For BCC lattice : Z = 2, a =
Answer ( 4 ) 3
S o l . The reaction for ΔfH°(XY)
For FCC lattice : Z = 4, a = 2 2 r
1 1 ⎛ ZM ⎞
X2 (g) + Y2 (g) ⎯⎯
→ XY(g)
2 2 ⎜ N a3 ⎟
d25°C ⎝ A ⎠ BCC
∴ =
X d900°C ⎛ ZM ⎞
Bond energies of X2, Y2 and XY are X, , X ⎜ N a3 ⎟
2 ⎝ A ⎠ FCC
respectively 3
2 ⎛ 2 2 r⎞ ⎛3 3⎞
= ⎜ =⎜
⎛X X⎞ 4 4r ⎟ ⎝ 4 2 ⎟⎠
ΔH = ⎜ + ⎟ − X = −200 ⎜ ⎟
∴ ⎝ 3 ⎠
⎝2 4⎠
166. Consider the following species :
On solving, we get
CN+, CN–, NO and CN
Which one of these will have the highest bond
X X
⇒− + = −200 order?
2 4
(1) NO
⇒ X = 800 kJ/mole (2) CN–
164. Magnesium reacts with an element (X) to form (3) CN
an ionic compound. If the ground state (4) CN+
electronic configuration of (X) is 1s2 2s2 2p3, Answer ( 2 )
the simplest formula for this compound is
S o l . NO : (σ1s) 2 , (σ ∗1s) 2 , (σ2s) 2,(σ ∗2s) 2,(σ2p z) 2 ,
(1) Mg2X3 (π2px)2 = (π2py)2,(π∗2px)1 = (π∗2py)0
10 − 5
(2) MgX2 BO = = 2.5
2
(3) Mg3X2 CN– : (σ1s)2, (σ∗1s)2, (σ2s)2,(σ∗2s)2, (π2px)2
(4) Mg2X = (π2py)2,(σ2pz)2
32
10 − 4 (4) A first-order reaction can catalyzed; a

BO = =3 second-order reaction cannot be
2
CN : (σ1s)2, (σ∗1s)2, (σ2s)2,(σ∗2s)2, (π2px)2 catalyzed
= (π2py)2,(σ2pz)1 Answer ( 2 )
9− 4
BO = = 2.5 0.693
2 Sol. ♦ For first order reaction, t 1/2 = ,
CN+ : (σ1s)2, (σ∗1s)2, (σ2s)2,(σ∗2s)2, (π2px)2 k
= (π2py)2 which is independent of initial
8− 4 concentration of reactant.
BO = =2
2 1
Hence, option(2) should be the right answer. ♦ For second order reaction, t 1/2 = ,
k[A0 ]
167. Which one is a wrong statement?
which depends on initial concentration of
(1) Total orbital angular momentum of reactant.
electron in 's' orbital is equal to zero
(2) An orbital is designated by three quantum
169. In which case is number of molecules of
numbers while an electron in an atom is
water maximum?
designated by four quantum numbers
(1) 18 mL of water
(3) The value of m for dz2 is zero
(2) 0.18 g of water
(4) The electronic configuration of N atom is
1 1 1 (3) 10–3 mol of water
1s2 2s2 2px 2py 2pz
(4) 0.00224 L of water vapours at 1 atm and
273 K
S o l . According to Hund's Rule of maximum S o l . (1) Mass of water = 18 × 1 = 18 g
multiplicity, the correct electronic
configuration of N-atom is 18
Molecules of water = mole × NA = NA
18
= NA
1s2 2s2 2p3
0.18
(2) Molecules of water = mole × NA = NA
OR 18
= 10–2 NA
(3) Molecules of water = mole × NA = 10–3 NA
2 2 3
1s 2s 2p
∴ Option (4) violates Hund's Rule. 0.00224
(4) Moles of water = = 10–4
22.4
168. The correct difference between first and
second order reactions is that Molecules of water = mole × NA = 10–4 NA
(1) The rate of a first-order reaction does not 170. Among CaH2, BeH2, BaH2, the order of ionic
depend on reactant concentrations; the character is
rate of a second-order reaction does (1) BeH2 < CaH2 < BaH2
depend on reactant concentrations
(2) CaH2 < BeH2 < BaH2
(2) The half-life of a first-order reaction does
(3) BaH2 < BeH2 < CaH2
not depend on [A] 0 ; the half-life of a
second-order reaction does depend on (4) BeH2 < BaH2 < CaH2
[A]0 Answer ( 1 )
(3) The rate of a first-order reaction does S o l . For 2nd group hydrides, on moving down the
depend on reactant concentrations; the group metallic character of metals increases
rate of a second-order reaction does not so ionic character of metal hydride increases.
depend on reactant concentrations Hence the option (1) should be correct option.
33
171. Consider the change in oxidation state of 173. Following solutions were prepared by mixing
Bromine corresponding to different emf values different volumes of NaOH and HCl of
as shown in the diagram below : different concentrations :
– 1.82 V – 1.5 V M M
BrO4 BrO3 HBrO a. 60 mL HCl + 40 mL NaOH
10 10
–
Br 1.0652 V Br2 1.595 V M M
b. 55 mL HCl + 45 mL NaOH
Then the species undergoing 10 10
disproportionation is
M M
(1) BrO3− c. 75 mL
5
HCl + 25 mL
5
NaOH
(2) BrO−4
M M
d. 100 mL HCl + 100 mL NaOH
(3) HBrO 10 10
(4) Br2 pH of which one of them will be equal to 1?
Answer ( 3 ) (1) b (2) a
+1 0 (3) c (4) d
o
S o l . HBrO ⎯⎯
→ Br2 , EHBrO/Br = 1.595 V
2
Answer ( 3 )
+1 +5
1
→ BrO3− , Eo
HBrO ⎯⎯ = 1.5 V Sol. • Meq of HCl = 75 × × 1 = 15
BrO3− /HBrO 5
o
Ecell for the disproportionation of HBrO, 1
• Meq of NaOH = 25 × × 1 = 5
5
o o
Ecell = EHBrO/Br − Eo
2 BrO3− /HBrO
• Meq of HCl in resulting solution = 10
= 1.595 – 1.5 • Molarity of [H+] in resulting mixture
= 0.095 V = + ve
10 1
Hence, option (3) is correct answer. = =
100 10
172. The solubility of BaSO4 in water is 2.42 × 10–3 gL–1
at 298 K. The value of its solubility product ⎡ 1⎤
pH = –log[H+] = − log ⎢ ⎥ = 1.0
(Ksp) will be ⎣ 10 ⎦
(Given molar mass of BaSO4 = 233 g mol–1)
174. On which of the following properties does the
(1) 1.08 × 10–10 mol2L–2 coagulating power of an ion depend?
(2) 1.08 × 10–12 mol2L–2 (1) The magnitude of the charge on the ion
(3) 1.08 × 10–8 mol2L–2 alone
(4) 1.08 × 10–14 mol2L–2 (2) Size of the ion alone
Answer ( 1 ) (3) The sign of charge on the ion alone

(4) Both magnitude and sign of the charge on
2.42 × 10−3 the ion
S o l . Solubility of BaSO4, s = (mol L–1)
233
Answer ( 4 )
= 1.04 × 10–5 (mol L–1)
Sol. • Coagulation of colloidal solution by using
an electrolyte depends on the charge
Ba2 + (aq) + SO 24−(aq)
BaSO 4 (s)
s s present (positive or negative) on colloidal
Ksp = [Ba2+] [SO42–]= s2 particles as well as on its size.
= (1.04 × 10–5)2 • Coagulating power of an electrolyte

depends on the magnitude of charge
= 1.08 × 10–10 mol2 L–2 present on effective ion of electrolyte.
34
175. Given van der Waals constant for NH3, H2, O2 178. Which one of the following ions exhibits d-d
and CO2 are respectively 4.17, 0.244, 1.36 and transition and paramagnetism as well?
3.59, which one of the following gases is most
(1) CrO42–
easily liquefied?
(2) Cr2O72–
(1) NH3
(2) H2 (3) MnO42–
(3) CO2 (4) MnO4–
(4) O2 Answer ( 3 )
Answer ( 1 ) S o l . CrO42– ⇒ Cr6+ = [Ar]

Sol. • van der waal constant ‘a’, signifies Unpaired electron (n) = 0; Diamagnetic
intermolecular forces of attraction.
Cr2O72– ⇒ Cr6+ = [Ar]
• Higher is the value of ‘a’, easier will be
Unpaired electron (n) = 0; Diamagnetic
the liquefaction of gas.
MnO42– = Mn6+ = [Ar] 3d1
176. Iron carbonyl, Fe(CO)5 is
(1) Tetranuclear (2) Mononuclear Unpaired electron (n) = 1; Paramagnetic
(3) Dinuclear (4) Trinuclear MnO4– = Mn7+ = [Ar]
Answer ( 2 ) Unpaired electron (n) = 0; Diamagnetic
S o l . • Based on the number of metal atoms 179. The geometry and magnetic behaviour of the
present in a complex, they are classified complex [Ni(CO)4] are
into mononuclear, dinuclear, trinuclear and (1) Square planar geometry and diamagnetic
so on.
(2) Tetrahedral geometry and diamagnetic
eg: Fe(CO)5 : mononuclear
(3) Tetrahedral geometry and paramagnetic
Co2(CO)8 : dinuclear
Fe3(CO)12: trinuclear (4) Square planar geometry and
paramagnetic
Hence, option (2) should be the right
answer. Answer ( 2 )
177. The type of isomerism shown by the complex S o l . Ni(28) : [Ar]3d8 4s2
[CoCl2(en)2] is ∵ CO is a strong field ligand
(1) Geometrical isomerism Configuration would be :
(2) Coordination isomerism
3
(3) Linkage isomerism sp -hybridisation
(4) Ionization isomerism ×× ×× ×× ××

Answer ( 1 ) CO CO CO CO
S o l . In [CoCl2(en)2], Coordination number of Co
is 6 and this compound has octahedral For, four ‘CO’-ligands hybridisation would be
geometry. sp 3 and thus the complex would be
diamagnetic and of tetrahedral geometry.
CO
Ni
CO
OC
• As per given option, type of isomerism is
geometrical isomerism. CO
35
180. Match the metal ions given in Column I with Answer ( 1 )

the spin magnetic moments of the ions given S o l . Co3+ = [Ar] 3d6, Unpaired e–(n) = 4
in Column II and assign the correct code :
Column I Column II Spin magnetic moment = 4(4 + 2) = 24 BM
a. Co3+ i. 8 BM Cr3+ = [Ar] 3d3, Unpaired e–(n) = 3
b. Cr3+ Spin magnetic moment = 3(3 + 2) = 15 BM

ii. 35 BM
Fe3+ = [Ar] 3d5, Unpaired e–(n) = 5
c. Fe3+ iii. 3 BM
Spin magnetic moment = 5(5 + 2) = 35 BM
d. Ni2+ iv. 24 BM
Ni2+ = [Ar] 3d8, Unpaired e–(n) = 2
v. 15 BM
Spin magnetic moment = 2(2 + 2) = 8 BM
a b c d
(1) iv v ii i
(2) i ii iii iv
(3) iii v i ii
(4) iv i ii iii

36

NEET Code ZZ Solution PDF

Încărcat de

Informații document

Titlu original

Drepturi de autor

Formate disponibile

Partajați acest document

Partajați sau inserați document

Opțiuni de partajare

Vi se pare util acest document?

Este necorespunzător acest conținut?

Drepturi de autor:

Formate disponibile

NEET Code ZZ Solution PDF

Încărcat de

Drepturi de autor:

Formate disponibile

DATE : 06/05/2018 Test Booklet Code

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005

2 Dividing (ii) by (i),

16. The refractive index of the material of a Sol.

Applying Snell's law at M, So, image shifts away from mirror by

(2) 36 cm away from the mirror 25  2  106  10–3

19. For a radioactive material, half-life is 10 S o l . Initial de-Broglie wavelength

Divide (i) by (ii), S o l . VBE = 0

S o l . ex = 0 29. A solid sphere is in rolling motion. In rolling

(1) KA < KB < KC Kt 5

(3) ‘g’ on the Earth will not change (1) 104.3 J

(4) Time period of a simple pendulum on the (2) 208.7 J

For wire 2, S o l . Vescape = 11200 m/s

From equation (i) & (ii), T = 8.360 × 104 K

35. The volume (V) of a monatomic gas varies

S o l . Given process is isobaric

(4) 6.25% 5gR 5 5

(4) WB > WA > WC Answer ( 2 )

S o l . Coefficient of sliding friction has no 

9 = 0.5 + 0.025 + 0.004

(2) endoderm and mesoderm Column I Column II

(4) is an IUD. Menstruation occurs due to decline in

(2) structural genes (1) Forelimbs of man, bat and cheetah

Answer ( 2 ) S o l . Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune

S o l . In different vertebrates, bones of forelimbs S o l . ‘Smack’ also called as brown sugar/Heroin is

e. Polygenic inheritance (4) reproductive and pre-reproductive

(2) Sacred groves Column-I Column-II

(3) Seed banks a. Eutrophication i. UV-B radiation

(4) Botanical gardens b. Sanitary landfill ii. Deforestation

Answer ( 2 ) c. Snow blindness iii. Nutrient

62. Which part of poppy plant is used to obtain (1) ii i iii iv

c. Snow blindness i. UV-B radiation Column I Column II

(2) Increased number of bronchioles; volume

(4) Detaches the myosin head from the actin Answer ( 3 )

 Ca++ now binds with sub-unit of troponin (1) Protein folding

89. Match the items given in Column I with those a b c d

Column I Column II 93. Oxygen is not produced during photosynthesis

S o l . Synaptonemal complex disintegrates. 109. The correct order of steps in Polymerase

pneumoniae (2) ABO blood grouping : Co-dominance

(2) Alfred Hershey and - TMV (3) T.H. Morgan : Linkage

Martha Chase (4) XO type sex : Grasshopper

– Matthew Meselson and F. Stahl – Semi- (4) Parthenocarpy

(3) the functional role played by the organism Answer ( 3 )

124. Natality refers to Sol. • Herbarium – Dried and pressed plant

S o l . Natality refers to birth rate. 126. Which one is wrongly matched?

(2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) (1) Mustard

129. Pneumatophores occur in 133. Select the wrong statement :

(3) Submerged hydrophytes (2) Mushrooms belong to Basidiomycetes

Answer (1) (3) Stems are usually unbranched in both

(3) Endodermis (4) Cortex 135. Sweet potato is a modified

(2) HNO3, NO, NH4Cl, N2 (2) All are oxidizing agents

138. Considering Ellingham diagram, which of the

following metals can be used to reduce F

(3) Cu (4) Mg 142. The difference between amylose and

143. Regarding cross-linked or network polymers, Answer ( 2 )

⎛ 1 ⎞ (2) C2H5OH, C2H5Cl, C2H5ONa

3Cl / Δ Br /Fe Zn/HCl

154. In the reaction A and Y are respectively

(2) CH2 – CH2 – OH and I2

(2) Formyl cation CHO ( ⊕

(4) More extensive association of carboxylic P Q R

Answer ( 3 ) (1) , , CH3CH2 – OH

(P) X2 (g) Δr H = − X kJ?