La Filipina National High School

La Filipina, Tagum City

Unit Test
Unit 3: Matter
Module 1: The Particle Nature of Matter

1. A solid is a phase of matter that has_________.

a. an definite volume and an definite shape
b. an indefinite volume and a fixed shape
c. a fixed volume and an indefinite shape
d. a fixed volume and a fixed shape
2. The particles of a liquid_________________.
a. are tightly packed together and stay in fixed positions
b. are very far from one another with negligible forces of attraction
c. are free to move in a container but remain in close contact with one another
d. cannot be determined
3. The ratio of the mass and volume of any given substance refers to its____________.
a. density b. strength c. hardness d. thermal conductivity
4. What state of matter can be compressed easily?
a. Gas c. liquid
b. solid d. all states of matter can be compressed easily
5. Liquids have the ability to flow because___________.
a. their particles are very far apart
b. their particles can slide over one another
c. their particles are arranged in a regular pattern
d. there are strong forces of attraction between them
6. What phases of matter take the shape of the container they are placed in?
a. Gases only
b. Liquid only
c. Gases and liquids only
d. Liquids and solids only
7. What phase of matter is represented in this figure?

a. gas b. solid c. liquid d. plasma

8. The density of an object is ________________.
a. equal to its weight
b. its mass divided by its volume
c. its volume divided by its mass
d. its mass multiplied to its volume
9. A tiny piece of sand is very light but sinks in water. This is because________.
a. sand is solid
b. sand is less dense than water
c. sand is more dense than water
d. there is more water than sand
10. The melting point of a solid refers to the temperature in which it will change________.
a. gas c. plasma
b. liquid d. any type of matter except solid
11. At the same temperature, at which phase are the particles moving the fastest?
a. gas b. solid c. liquid d. all of them
12. Which of the following properties is common to both gases and liquids?
a. They have a definite volume.
b. They have a definite shape
c. They can be compressed
d. They can flow
13. What change of state occurs when particles in a solid begin to move slowly past one another, as
indicated in this figure?
 a. Boiling c. Freezing
b. Melting d. Condensation
14. Which one of the following is not a property of solids?
a. They do not flow c. They have no definite shape
b. They are incompressible d. They have a definite volume
15. The following figure shows the changes in the phase of water. What is the process W called?

solid liquid gas

W
a. Sublimation b. Deposition c. Condensation d. Evaporation
16. Dry ice is used in fire extinguishers. The dry ice is stored in the cylinder in a solid form. When
sprayed on a fire, it quickly changes into the gas known as carbon dioxide (CO2). What is this change
of phase called?
a. melting b. freezing c. sublimation d. condensation
17. The average kinetic energy of all the particles of a given substances is directly proportional to
its_____.
a. phase b. temperature c. density d. mass
18. Temperature is a measure of the average_____________ energy of the particles in the object.
a. thermal b. kinetic c. potential d. chemical
19. Consider this figure. The particles of a solid are packed closely together and cannot move around
but they can vibrate. Which of the following statements can be explained by this diagram?

a. Solids can flow

b. Solids have no definite shape
c. Solids cannot be compressed
d. Solids have no definite volume
20. The freezing point of a substance is _________ the melting point of the same substance.
a. greater than c. equal to
b. less than d. unrelated to
21. For most substances, the distance between particles is greatest when the substance exists
as_________.
a. a gas b. a liquid c. an amorphous solid d. a crystalline solid
22. What is evaporation?
a. a gas becoming a liquid
b. a liquid becoming a gas
c. a solid becoming a gas
d. a solid becoming a liquid
23. Gases do not have a fixed volume because of the_____________.
a. weak attractive forces between their particles
b. strong repulsive forces between their particles
c. very fast and random motion of their particles
d. all of the above
24. When a solid changes directly into a gas, the solid______________ and the process is
called_______.
a. releases heat; deposition
b. absorbs heat; sublimation
c. releases heat; sublimation
d. absorbs heat; deposition
25. When the solid substance is heated at its melting point, the additional heat is used to______.
a. raise the temperature of the solid
b. drive the change from solid to liquid
c. reverse the process and let the solid cool down
d. none of the above.
26. Which of the following statements describes the particles of a liquid?
a. The particles are a state of matter that contains only charged particles
b. Molecules vibrate around a fixed equilibrium position and are held in place by strong
attractive forces.
c. Molecules can rotate and roll over one another because the attractive forces are only
moderately strong.
d. Molecules can move any way in random, free paths because there are no attractive forces
holding the molecules together.
27. Ice keeps your drink cool because melting ice__________.
a. releases some of its heat to the drink
b. absorbs the heat from the drink
c. absorbs and then releases heat to the drink
d. none of the above
28. An uncovered pot of soup is simmering on a stove, and there are water droplets on the wall above
the back of the stove. What sequence has occurred?
a. Melting, then boiling
b. Freezing, then thawing
c. Boiling, then condensation
d. Condensation, then evaporation
29. The process in which a gas directly changes into a solid without passing through the liquid phase is
called__________.
a. sublimation c. deposition
b. evaporation d. melting
30. What kinds of changes in substances are always physical change?
a. Changes of state from solid to liquid to gas and back
b. Changes that result in the formation of new substances
c. Changes that can alter the identity of the substances
31. What is the best way to tell if a chemical change has taken place?
a. The change is reversible
b. The composition of the substance does not change
c. A new substance has been formed
d. All of the above
32. Which of the following is not a result of chemical change?
a. Milk that has gone sour
b. Metal that has become rusty
c. Food that has been digested
d. Glass that has been broken
33. How does a physical change differ from a chemical change?
a. Physical changes alter the composition of the substances.
b. Physical changes produce new substances.
c. Physical changes always involve heat and light.
d. Physical changes can change the properties of the substances
34. Which of the following is not a consequence of the interaction of heat and matter.
a. Thermal decomposition
b. Combustion
c. Change in length
d. Production of magnetic properties
35. Which of the following process is endothermic?
a. Frying fish for dinner
b. Freezing water to make ice cubes
c. Condensing water vapor to dew
d. Burning fuel to release heat

Answer Key

1. A 6. C 11. A 16. C 21. A 26. C 31.D

2. C 7. A 12. D 17. C 22. B 27. B 32.D
3. A 8. B 13. B 18. B 23. D 28. C 33.D
4. A 9. C 14. C 19. C 24. B 29. C 34.D
5. B 10. B 15. C 20. C 25. B 30. A 35.A
 La Filipina National High School
La Filipina, Tagum City

Unit Test
Unit 1: Force, Motion, and Energy
Module 2: Atoms: Inside Out

1. Who is the first person to suggest that all matter is made of tiny particles called atoms?
a. Democritus b. John Dalton c. J.J. Thomson d. Ernest Rutherford

2. Which of the following statements is not part of Dalton’s atomic theory?

a. All atoms of a given element are identical
b. Atoms are made up of protons, neutrons, and electrons.
c. Atoms combine in simple, fixed whole number ratios
d. During a chemical reactions, atoms are neither created nor destroyed

3. Which of the following is the most important contribution of J.J. Thomson, when he experimented on
cathode ray tubes?
a. The existence of electrons
b. The distribution of charges in an atom
c. Determining the actual value of the mass and charge of an electron
d. The idea that like charges repel and unlike charges attract each other

4. The law of conservation of mass states that____________?

a. all atoms are composed of electrons, protons, and neutrons
b. energy is neither created nor destroyed in a chemical equation
c. The mass of the substance produced is equal to the mass of the substances that reacted
d. all samples of a pure compound always contain the same proportions of the composing
elements

5. Who is the main author of the idea that an atom contains a dense nucleus?
a. James Chadwick
b. Ernest Rutherford
c. J.J. Thomson
d. John Dalton

6. When alpha particles are used to bombard a gold foil, most of the alpha particles pass through
undeflected. This result indicates that most of the volume of a gold atom consists of__________.?
a. protons b. neutrons c. empty space d. a dense nucleus

7. Which atomic model was the first one to include electrons?

a. Dalton’s atomic model
b. Thomson’s plum pudding
c. Rutherford’s atomic model
d. Bohr’s atomic model

8. Which atomic model was the first one to identify energy levels?
a. Dalton’s atomic model
b. Thomson’s plum pudding model
c. Rutherford’s atomic model
d. Bohr’s atomic model

9. Who discovered the neutron?

a. James Chadwick
b. Democritus
c. John Dalton
d. Ernest Rutherford

10. Which subatomic model was the first to assume that atoms come in different shapes and sizes?
a. Democritus’ model
b. Dalton’s model
c. Thomson’s model
d. Rutherford’s model
11. The three basic subatomic particles are____________.
a. proton, neutron, and hydrogen
b. nucleus, proton, and neutron
c. proton, neutron, and electron
d. proton, ion, and electron

12. The number of protons within the nucleus of an atom is called its_________?
a. atomic mass c. atomic number
b. mass number d. nucleon number

13. Collectively, protons and neutrons are called__________.

a. electrons c. nucleons
b. ions d. nucleus

14. Which of the following particles will be attracted to a negatively charged plate?
a. electron b. proton c. both of them d. neither of the two

15. A neutral atom of nitrogen (N) has seven protons, seven neutrons, and seven electrons. Its atomic
number is_________ and its mass number is_________.
a. 14:7 b. 7:7 c. 7:14 d. 14:14

16. Which of the following symbols should be used to represent the atom in item 15?
a. 147N b. 77N c. 1414N d. 714N

17. Which particles have approximately the same size and mass as each other?
a. Neutrons and electrons c. Protons and neutrons
b. Electrons and protons d. All subatomic particles have different mass and size

18. The mass number of an atom is equal to the_________.

a. total number of protons in the atom
b. total number of electrons in the atom
c. total number of subatomic particles in the atom
d. total number of particles within the nucleus of the atom

19. An element has a mass number of 40 and atomic number of 20. How many neutrons does this
atom have?
a. 40 c. 60
b. 20 d. 2

20. The symbol Ca-40 denotes that _____________.

a. a calcium atom contains 40 protons
b. a calcium atom contains 40 neutrons
c. a calcium atom contains 40 electrons
d. a calcium atom has a mass number of 40

21. Isotopes of the same element must have the same number of _______.
a. electrons c. protons
b. neutrons d. both A and B

22. Isotopes of the same element must have a different number of____________.
a. electrons c. protons
b. neutrons d. all of the above

23. What is the region where an electron is most likely to be found?

a. energy level b. nucleus c. orbital d. shell

24. Who proposed the planetary model of the atom?

a. Dalton b. de Broglie c. Rutherford d. Schrodinger

25. What is the currently accepted model of the atom?

a. Billiard board model c. Electron cloud model
b. Bohr- Sommerfeld model d. Shell model

26. Who proposed the raisin bread model of the atom?

 a. Goldstein b. Rutherford c. Stoney d. Thomson

27. How many neutrons does the element 2345X-2 have?

a. 45 b. 25 c. 23 d. 22

28. How many electrons does the element 2345X-2 have?

a. 45 b. 25 c. 23 d. 22

29. How many protons does the element 2345X-2 have?

a. 45 b. 25 c. 23 d. 22

30. Which of the following statements correctly describes the change a neutral atom undergoes as it
becomes a cation?
a. The atom gains a proton and becomes positive
b. The atom loses a proton and becomes negative
c. The atom gains an electron and becomes negative
d. The atom loses an electron and become positive

Answer Key

1. A 6. C 11. C 16. D 21. C 26. D

2. B 7. B 12. C 17. C 22. B 27. D
3. A 8. D 13. C 18. D 23. A 28. C
4. C 9. A 14. B 19. B 24. C 29. C
5. B 10. A 15. C 20. B 25. B 30. D
 La Filipina National High School
La Filipina, Tagum City

Unit Test
Unit 1: Force, Motion, and Energy
Module 3: Periodic Table of Elements

1. Who was the scientist who arranged the elements in groups of three?
a. John Dalton b. John Newlands c. Dmitri Mendeleev d. Johann Dobereiner

2. Which of the following element is an alkali metal?

a. Li b. Ba c. S d. Cl

3. Which sublevel is being filled in the lanthanide series?

a. 3d b. 4d c. 4f d. 5f

4. The vertical columns in the periodic table are called_______.

a. rows b. groups c. periods d. blocks

5. Which family of elements includes neon and argon?

a. Halogens b. Alkali metals c. Noble gases d. Alkaline earth metals

6. Who was the scientist who arranged the elements in groups of eight?
a. Lothar Meyer b. John Newlands c. Johan Dobereiner d. Dmitri Mendeleev

7. Elements in the d-block are also known as the___________.

a. noble gases c. inner transition metals
b. transition metals d. representative elements

8. The elements commonly known as the alkali metals are part of which group in the periodic table?
a. IA b. IIA c. VIIA d. VIIIA

9. In the periodic table, which of the following identifies a horizontal row?

a. period b. group c. family d. series

10. Which of the following elements is not included in the p- block?

a. aluminum b. helium c. sulfur d. carbon

11. Which of the following is an alkaline earth metal?

a. 36Kr b. 17Cl c. 79Au d. 88Ra

12. Which of the following is a transition metal?

a. 33Ge b. 26Fe c. 17Cl d. 36Kr

13. According to the modern periodic law, the chemical properties of the elements are periodic
functions of their_______.
a. atomic number b. atomic weight c. period number d. all of the above

14. All elements in the d-block are classified as_______.

a. metals b. metalloids c. nonmetals d. noble gases

15. An unknown elements has an electron configuration of 1s22s22p63s23s54s23d10. In which block can
you locate this element?
a. s- block b. p- block c. d-block d. f-block

16. Which of the following is not a physical property of metals?

a. Luster b. Corrosion c. Malleability d. Ductile

17. The ability to pound a metal into a flat sheet without breaking it is________.
a. Luster b. Corrosion c. Malleability d. Ductile

18. Elements on the periodic table are ordered according to their______.

a. Number of neutrons b. Atomic mass c. Atomic number
19. What do the groups/families in the periodic table have in common?
a. The number of electron orbitals
b. The exact same characteristics
c. The number of valence electrons

20. Which of the following is not a characteristic of nonmetals?

a. Malleable b. Brittle c. Dull d. Poor conductors of heat

21. What are the elements to the left of the zig zag line called?
a. Metals b. Nonmetals c. Metalloids

22. What do the periods on the periodic table have in common?

a. The number of electron orbitals
b. The exact same characteristics
c. The number of valence electrons

23.The most reactive family of metals is the_________.

a. Transition Metals b. Alkaline Earth Metals c. Alkaki Metals

24. The atomic mass tells the number ____________________ in an atom.

a. Electrons and neutrons
b. Electrons and protons
c. Protons and neutrons

25. How many periods are on the periodic table?

a. 4 b. 7 c. 9 d. 5

Answer Key

1. D 6. B 11. D 16. B 21. A

2. A 7. B 12. B 17. C 22. C
3. C 8. A 13. A 18. C 23. C
4. B 9. A 14. A 19. C 24. C
5. C 10. B 15. C 20. A 25. B