Test - 5 (Code-A) (Answers) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2019

All India Aakash Test Series for NEET - 2019

TEST - 5 (Code-A)
Test Date : 06/01/2019

ANSWERS
1. (3) 37. (2) 73. (1) 109. (3) 145. (4)
2. (4) 38. (1) 74. (4) 110. (3) 146. (3)
3. (2) 39. (3) 75. (3) 111. (3) 147. (4)
4. (2) 40. (4) 76. (4) 112. (2) 148. (3)
5. (1) 41. (2) 77. (4) 113. (2) 149. (4)
6. (2) 42. (3) 78. (3) 114. (3) 150. (2)
7. (3) 43. (3) 79. (4) 115. (3) 151. (2)
8. (2) 44. (1) 80. (1) 116. (4) 152. (4)
9. (3) 45. (2) 81. (2) 117. (3) 153. (4)
10. (3) 46. (1) 82. (2) 118. (4) 154. (2)
11. (3) 47. (3) 83. (3) 119.Delete 155. (1)
12. (3) 48. (2) 84. (3) 120. (2) 156. (4)
13. (3) 49. (4) 85. (3) 121. (3) 157. (4)
14. (1) 50. (4) 86. (1) 122. (1) 158. (3)
15. (4) 51. (4) 87. (4) 123. (2) 159. (4)
16. (4) 52. (3) 88. (3) 124. (3) 160. (1)
17. (2) 53. (3) 89. (4) 125. (3) 161. (1)
18. (3) 54. (4) 90. (3) 126. (4) 162. (2)
19. (3) 55. (4) 91. (2) 127. (2) 163. (4)
20. (1) 56. (4) 92. (3) 128. (1) 164. (4)
21. (4) 57. (3) 93. (4) 129. (1) 165. (3)
22. (2) 58. (3) 94. (3) 130. (2) 166. (2)
23. (2) 59. (3) 95. (3) 131. (4) 167. (2)
24. (4) 60. (4) 96. (2) 132. (3) 168. (2)
25. (1) 61. (2) 97. (1) 133. (3) 169. (4)
26. (1) 62. (2) 98. (4) 134. (2) 170. (2)
27. (3) 63.Delete 99. (2) 135. (2) 171. (4)
28. (3) 64. (3) 100. (2) 136. (4) 172. (2)
29. (2) 65. (2) 101. (4) 137. (2) 173. (4)
30. (4) 66. (1) 102. (3) 138. (1) 174. (2)
31. (2) 67. (4) 103. (1) 139. (1) 175. (2)
32. (1) 68. (2) 104. (3) 140. (3) 176. (3)
33. (4) 69. (3) 105. (4) 141. (1) 177. (2)
34. (3) 70. (2) 106. (3) 142. (1) 178. (4)
35. (1) 71. (3) 107. (2) 143. (3) 179. (4)
36. (4) 72. (3) 108. (1) 144. (2) 180. (4)

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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2019 Test - 5 (Code-A) (Hints and Solutions)

HINTS & SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS Sol. : A B
1. Answer (3)
  
Hint : L  m (r  v ) O
  
Sol. : L  m (r  v ) B A

C
x

S AP  4 i

S BP  – 4 i
 
L  mbv  S PG  – xi
   
L  mbv cos  S AP  S AG – S PG
2. Answer (4) 
  S AG  (4 – x ) i
Hint :   I  
S BG  (–4 – x ) i
Sol. : A
60º  (4 – x ) 40  (–4 – x )  60 –  x  20 
S CG 
120
60º 160 – 40x – 240 – 60x – 20x = 0
mg cos60° mg 160 – 240 – 120x = 0
B
– 120x = 80
 –2
  mg cos 60 x m
2 3
4. Answer (2)
mg 

4 mI 2
Hint : I  sin²
3
m 2
I Sol. :
3
= I
60º 60º
mg 
 4
m 2
60º 60º
3

3g

4
As  = 60°
3. Answer (2)
  ml 2  2
Hint : S cm  0 Inet  4   sin 60
 3 
 

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Test - 5 (Code-A) (Hints and Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2019
7. Answer (3)
ml 2 3
4     
3 4 v
Hint : v P  v c.m   r ,   c.m
= ml2 R
5. Answer (1)
v P  v 2  v 0 2  2v v 0 cos 
1 1
Hint : K .E  mv 2  I 2
2 2

 1 2 
K .ER  I 
 2
Sol. : 
K .E  1 mv 2  1 I 2 
 2 2 

v
As  = v0
R v
2
1 2 v2 
 mR 2  2  v 2
K .ER 2  3 R  v  v 02  0  v 02 cos(90  )
 4
K .E 1 1 2 v2
mv 2   R 2 
2 2 3 R2  v0  5v 02
 2  5  2 3   v 02 sin 
2   4

 3 Squaring both side

2
1 v 02 5v 2
3
4
 
5  2 3  0  v 02 sin 
4
2
 
5 3
sin  
6. Answer (2) 2

tan    60º
Hint : min  for disc
3 8. Answer (2)
Sol. : min >  Hint : I = m1r12 + m2r22
therefore disc starts rolling with slipping
Sol. : 4m
ac.m = g sin– g cos m
tan  r1 cm
ac.m =g sin– gcos  r2
4
3gsin 4mr1 = mr2
ac.m 
4
r 
h r1   2 
Scm  4
sin
v cm 2  ucm 2  2acmScm r1  r2  

h 5r2
v c.m  2a 
sin  4

3 gsin  4
v c.m  2  h r2 
4 sin  5

3 gh 
v cm  r1   
2 5

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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2019 Test - 5 (Code-A) (Hints and Solutions)

2 fk = k N
2  4 
Ic.m  4m  m  = 0.4 × mg
25  5 
= 0.4 × 10 × 10
20 m 2 = 40 N

25 At t = 0, F = ma
 50 = 10a
 4 m 2 
   a = 5 m/s2
 5 
  v = u + at
9. Answer (3)  0 = 10 – 5t
Hint : Angular momentum of a body symmetrical
about axis of rotation. t  2s
Sol. : Angular momentum of body symmetrical At t = 2 s, block comes to rest therefore, at t = 3
 s acceleration will be zero.
about of axis rotation is in direction of 
14. Answer (1)
10. Answer (3)
Hint : By conservation of M.E.
Hint : Condition of pure rolling.
Sol. : Net velocity of point of contact is not zero, v1
Sol. :
velocity of point of contact is 2vcm forward therefore, h
it will roll with forward slipping.
 v2
11. Answer (3)
Hint : T = mr2
Sol. :
T 1 1
x mv12  mg h  mv 22
2 2

1 gR 1
Tension at distance x from pivoted and m  mg R (1– cos )  mv 22
2 4 2
1 m2 2
T  ( – x 2 )
2  g v 2
 2g (1– cos )  2 ...(i)
 2 4 R
1 m2  2  3  
T   –
2    2  
    v 2
g cos   2 ...(ii)
R
1 m2  4 2 – 3  2 
T    g
2   4   2g (1– cos )  g cos 
4
 m2  1
T    2 – 2cos   cos 
 8  4
 
12. Answer (3) 9
 3 cos 
Hint : Concept of pseudo force. 4
Sol. : Pseudo force can be applied in accelerating
3
frame of reference. cos  
4
13. Answer (3)
  cos–1(0.75)
Hint : F net  ma 15. Answer (4)
Sol. : 10 m/s Hint : Properties of elastic collision.
Sol. : In an elastic collision final kinetic energy of
10 kg F = 10 N the system always equal to initial kinetic energy of
fk the system.

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Test - 5 (Code-A) (Hints and Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2019

16. Answer (4) T

Sol. :
Hint : Concept of pseudo force and friction. 2m
Sol. :
m k
2m F m

For upper block By conservation of M.E.

mg = mamax 1 2 2mg
kx  mgx x 
 Fmax till both blocks will move together = g × 3m 2 k
4mg 2 mg
Applied force = hence both blocks will move T  k  2mg
3 k
together.
fsmax  T
 4mg 2mg 2 mg
a
3  3m
min  1
4g 19. Answer (3)
a
9 Hint : Concept of pure rolling.
17. Answer (2) Sol. : Disc is in pure rolling on rough horizontal
Hint : Concept of centrifugal force surface therefore friction is not acting on the disc
therefore, when it will go on smooth surface there will
be no change.
Sol. :
 20. Answer (1)
  
 Hint : v   r
T1 Sol. :
x 30º i j k
 m 
v  2 – 2 –1
T2 2 –2 2


v  i (– 4 – 2) – j (4  2)  k (– 4  4)

v  – 6i – 6 j
3
x 
2 v  6 2 m/s
T1sin30° = mg + T2 sin30° 21. Answer (4)
for just taut T2 = 0 Hint : I = Mk2
T1 sin30° = mg Sol. :
T1 = 2 mg
T1 cos 30° = mx 2
3 3 2 c.m
2mg m  
2 2 4
Icm I
2g
 2 2
 
I  Icm  m  
4
2g
 M 2 m 2
 I 
12 16
18. Answer (3)
4 m 2  3 m  2
Hint : Concept of friction and spring forces I
48

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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2019 Test - 5 (Code-A) (Hints and Solutions)
24. Answer (4)
7m 2
I Sol. : Energy = power × time
48
= 60 × 60
I = m k2
1 2
2  I   3600
7 2
k
48 1 2 2
    3600
2 2
 7   = 60 rad/s
k
4 3  
 P  
22. Answer (2) d
 60  I  
Hint : xcritical = R d
2 2 60
Sol. : Moment of Inertia of hollow sphere  MR  2d   d
3 I

I 60
  d  I 
d
2
where   2
MR
60 
 3  60  2 

2    0
3  3 0 2
60  60  60
2R 2R   302 
xcritical  , if force will be at distance above 3
3 3  = 2400 rad
the center of mass then hollow sphere will do pure
rolling without use of friction 25. Answer (1)
x = R – xcritical Hint : = I
Sol. : = r × F = 0.2 F
2R
R –  0.2 F = I 
3
 0.2 F = 1 × 2
R
 F  10N
3
26. Answer (1)
23. Answer (2)
Hint : Apply conservation of angular momentum. Hint : Fnet = 0 condition of equilibrium.
I11 = I2 2 Sol. : Fnet = 0
Sol. : I11 = I2 2 kx – N = 0
N=kx
I1  9  N = 200 × 4 × 10–2

I2  3 
=8N
I1 27. Answer (3)
3
I2 Hint : Concept of pseudo force

1 Sol. :
k1 I112
 2 a
k2 1 ma
I  2
2 2 2
a1 30º
2
3 mg
 3  30º
9
 1 (mg sin 30° – ma sin30°) = ma1
 
3 a1 = g sin30° – a sin30°

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Test - 5 (Code-A) (Hints and Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2019
= 0.1 × 10
a1  2.5 m/s2
= 1 Ns
28. Answer (3) 32. Answer (1)
Hint : Fnet = ma, fmax = N Hint : fsmax  m r 2
Sol. : System will move Solution : fsmax  m r 2
when T  2f max  mg  m r 2
mg  2(0.4 × 5 × 10)
r 2
mmin = 4 kg 
g
29. Answer (2)
Hint : Concept of friction 50  10 –2  (4)2

Sol. : 10 N 10
T
min = 80 × 10–2
T
= 0.8
33. Answer (4)
fSmax = mg
= 0.4 × 5 × 10 W
Hint : P 
= 20 N t
fsmax > F  
Sol. : W  F .d
There will be no relative slipping between the blocks
10 = 2T W  (6i – 2 j ).(2i  3 j )
T  5N = 12 – 6
30. Answer (4) =6J
W
Hint : R  a ²  b ²  2ab cos  P
t
Sol. : T 6
 0.4
t
T
5 kg 60
t
4

T=5g t  15 s

T = 50 N 34. Answer (3)

Hint : Minimum tension will be at top most point.
N  T 2  T 2  2T 2 cos90
Sol. : v  2 2 gR
N  2T
 8 gR
 50 2 N
31. Answer (2) T
Hint : Impulse = change in momentum
 
Sol. : Impulse = mv f – mv i

J  100  10 –3 (–3i – 4 j – 3i – 4 j ) v
 By conservation of energy
J  0.1(–6i – 8 j )
1 1
 m(2 2gR )2  m2gR  mv12
J  0.1 62  82 2 2

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All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2019 Test - 5 (Code-A) (Hints and Solutions)

1 Sol. : F  2 xi  3 j  3z 2 k
4 m g R  2m g R  mv12
2 
4gR = v12 dr  dxi  dy j  dz k

v1  2 gR dW  (2xi  3 j  3z2 k ).(dxi  dy j  d2 k )

W = [x2]32 + 3[y]23 + [z3]10
mv12 W = 5 – 3 +1
T  mg 
R W=+3J
T + mg = 4 mg 38. Answer (1)
T = 3 mg Hint : K is maximum when U is minimum
35. Answer (1) dU
Sol. :  8x  6x 2  0
Hint : dx

 relative velocity of 
4
 
x = 0, m
3
Coefficient of restitution =  separation 
relative velocity of approach d 2U
 8  12 x
dx 2
Sol. :
d 2U
 8  U  min
dx 2 x 0

d 2U 4
 8  12   8
v – v1 dx 2 4 3
e 2 x
3
v0
 U  maximum
1 v 2 – v1 39. Answer (3)

4 v0 Hint : Work-energy theorem.
Sol. : Wf = MEf – MEi
v0 = 4(v2 – v1) ...(i)
1
By conservation of linear momentum.
=  4  (10)2  4  10  10
Mv0 = Mv1 + Mv2 2
v1 + v2 = v0 . . . (ii) = – 200 J
Divide equation (ii) by (i) 40. Answer (4)

v1  v 2  K .Ef – KEi 
 4 Hint : %lossof K .E   K .Ei
  100
v 2  v1  
2 2

v1 3 1 v  1  3v  mv 2
K .E  m  m   
 2  2 
Sol. :
2  2  3 
f
v2 5 6

1
36. Answer (4) K .Ei  mv 2
2
Hint : Properties of conservative force.
1  1
Sol. : mv 2 1    100
Work done against conservation force = U 2  3
% lossof K .E 
1
Work done against conservation force stored in the mv 2
2
form of potential energy.
37. Answer (2) 2
  100
  3
Hint : dW  F . dr = 66%

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Test - 5 (Code-A) (Hints and Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2019
 
41. Answer (2) a  b  i (–1– 4) – i (1– 2)  k (2  1)
   
Hint : W  F.d a  b  – 5i  j  3k
Sol. : W = 0  
  a  b  (–5)2  (1)2  (3)2
F  d  m1  m2  1
 35
4 –P
  –1 –5i  j  3k
3 2 c 
35
3
P 45. Answer (2)
2
42. Answer (3)
Hint : X cm   xdm
Hint : Use conservation of M.E
 dm
1 1 Sol. : dm = dx = (2+3x) dx
Sol. : K1x 2  K 2 x 2  mg x
2 2 2
(K1 + K2)x = 2 mg  (2  3 x )xdx
xcm  02
 2mg 
x 
 K1  K 2   (2  3 x )dx
0
2  5  10 2
x  x2  x3 
200  300  0

2
1  3x 2 
x m 2 x  
5 2 
 0
2
1  1 48
P.E A  200    
2 5 46
=4J = 1.2 m from end A
or
43. Answer (3)
0.8 m from end B
output
Hint : % efficiency   =  100
CHEMISTRY
input
46. Answer (1)
450000  10  20
Solution : Pout  Hint : Rate of diffusion
600
 volume diffuse  1
45  1000  10  20 (r)   .
   100  time taken  M
30  103  60  10
= 50% V
rgas  t 
44. Answer (1)  gas t MNe
Sol. : = = Ne =
  rNe V t gas Mgas
 ab  t 
Hint : c     Ne
ab

MNe 20
,  2 =
2
j 2=
iˆ k Mgas Mgas
 
Sol. : a  b  1 – 1 2
1 2 1 20
Mgas   5u
4

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All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2019 Test - 5 (Code-A) (Hints and Solutions)

47. Answer (3) 2+ –

Sol. : CaF2(s) Ca (aq) + 2F (aq)
Hint : Apply ideal gas equation, PV = nRT.
s 2s
Sol. : PV = nRT
∵ 2s  x 
 L  a tm  K sp (CaF2 ) = s(2s)2 = 4s3  x
(5atm) × (2 L) = n × 0.0821   × 300 K  s  
 K m ol   2
n = 0.4 mol 3
x x3
48. Answer (2)  4  
2 2
Hint : U = 0, for isothermal process.
55. Answer (4)
Sol. : In isothermal process, temperature remains Hint : All salts are binary.
constant.
49. Answer (4) Sol. : s  K sp , for all the three salts solubilities
Hint : Standard enthalpy of formation of most stable are same.
allotrope is assumed to be zero except for phosphorous. 56. Answer (4)
50. Answer (4) Hint : Heat transfer at constant pressure is equal to
ng
change in enthalpy.
Hint : K p  K c (RT) .
H nCp T nCp T
Sol. : For reaction (1), ng = – 3, Kp = Kc (RT)–3 Sol. :  
w P V nRT
For reaction (2), ng = – 1, Kp = Kc (RT)–1
For reaction (3), ng = – 1, Kp = Kc (RT)–1 Cp 7 R
  2 7 : 2
For reaction (4), ng = 0, Kp = Kc (RT)0
R R
51. Answer (4)
57. Answer (3)
Δng
 mol  Hint : Cationic hydrolysis generates acidic solution.
Hint : Unit of Kc is  
 L  Sol. : Hydrolysis reaction of NH 4 Cl salt will

 produce acidic solution.
Sol. : For reaction, N2(g) +3H2(g) 
 2NH3(g)

-2 NH+4 + H2O 



 NH4OH + H
+

 mol 
ng = – 2, so unit of Kc is  –2 2
 or mol L
 L  58. Answer (3)
52. Answer (3)
[H2 ] [I2 ]
Hint : For neutral solution, [H+] = [OH–]. Hint : K c  .
[HI]2
Sol. : Kw = [H+] [OH–] = 3.6 × 10–13 = 36 ×10–14
Sol. : 2HI(g)  H2(g) + I2(g)
–
[H ]  36  10 14 (∵ [H+ ] = [OH ] in neutral solution) Initially 2 0 0
[H+] = 6 × 10–7 At equilibrium 2– 2  
pH = 7 – log6 ( )2
Kc 
53. Answer (3) (2  2 )2
Hint : CH3COONa is a salt of weak acid and strong
base. 2
Sol. : pH of salt of weak acid and strong base is Kc 
4(1   )2
1 59. Answer (3)
pH  7  (pK a + logc)
2 Hint : pH + pOH = 14 (at 25ºC).
54. Answer (4) Sol. : [OH–] = 10–10, pOH = 10
Hint : Ksp (CaF2) = [Ca2+] [F–]2 pH + pOH = 14, pH = 4

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Test - 5 (Code-A) (Hints and Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2019

60. Answer (4) 66. Answer (1)

Hint : According to Dalton’s law of partial pressure Hint : pH of acidic buffer is
PHe = PT × XHe.
 salt 
Sol. : pH  pK a  log  
 acid 

w Sol. : CH3COOH + NaOH  CH3COONa + H2O

4 8 initial mole 0.1 V 0.01 V
XHe  
w w 9 final mole 0.09 V 0 0.01 V

4 32
 0.01 V   1
pH  pK a  log    pK a  log  
 0.09 V  9
8 P 8
Hence, PHe = PT ×  He 
9 PT 9 pH = 4.74 – log 9 = 4.74 – log32
= 3.786  3.79
61. Answer (2)
67. Answer (4)
‘an 2 ’ Hint : Kc is independent of the concentration.
Hint : has unit of pressure and ‘nb’ has unit
V2 If Qc > Kc reaction will shift in backward direction.

of volume. 0.02


 B(g) ; K c 
Sol. : 2A(g)   200 M1
Sol. : Unit of a  atm L2 mol–2 0.012
Unit of b  L mol–1 If volume increases, Qc becomes greater than Kc
and equilibrium will shift in backward direction.
unit of ‘a’ atmL2 mol2
 = atm L mol1 68. Answer (2)
unit of ‘b’ L mol-1
Hint : On addition of two reversible reactions, their
equilibrium constants will multiply and when a
62. Answer (2)
reaction is reversed, equilibrium constant becomes
Hint : Active mass of solid components are always reciprocal.
unity. Sol. :
63. Delete
A(g)  B(g) ; K1  102
64. Answer (3)
Hint : In adiabatic process, q = 0. + B(g)  C(g) ; K 2  101
Sol. : For adiabatic, q = 0
work done, w = – P(V2 – V1)
A(g)  C(g) ; K 3  103
= – 5 atm (4.5 – 2.5)L
= – 5 × 2 L atm = – 10 L atm
U = q + w C(g)  A(g) ; K '3  103
U = w = – 10 L atm = –10 × 101.3 J = –1013 J
1 1
65. Answer (2) C(g)  A(g) ; K 4  10 10
2 2
Hint : Consider common ion effect 69. Answer (3)
–
Sol. : AgCl (s)  Ag+ (aq) + Cl (aq) Hint : Condition of precipitation, Ksp < IP (ionic
s s + 0.2  0.2 product)
Ksp = [Ag+] [Cl–] Sol. : For saturation of CuS, [S2–]
1.6 × 10–10 = s (0.2) K sp 1031
10–10 =   1030
s=8× mol/L [Cu2 ] 0.1

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All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2019 Test - 5 (Code-A) (Hints and Solutions)

K sp 4  1044 3RT
For saturation of Ag2S, [S2–] =  2
 Root mean square speed =
[Ag ] (0.1)2 M

= 4×10–42 Sol. : (umps)A = (urms)B

K sp 1054 2RT 3RT

  1053
For saturation of HgS, [S2–] = 2
[Hg ] 0.1 MA = MB

Hence, HgS will precipitate first.

2RT 3RT 2 3
70. Answer (2) or   
MA MB 36 MB
Hint : Down the group, acidic nature of H2O, H2S
and H2Se increases MB = 54 u
Sol. : K2O > K2S > K2Se (order of pH) 76. Answer (4)
K2O < K2S < K2Se (order of pOH) Hint : Pmoist gas = Pdry gas + Aqueous tension
71. Answer (3) Sol. :
Hint : Addition of inert gas at constant pressure will P1 = 740 – 620 = 120 mm Hg, V1 = 360 ml
increase the volume. P2 = 370 mm Hg,
Sol. : Addition of inert gas at constant pressure P1V1 120  360
 Increases the total moles of gases V2 = P = = 116.76 ml
2 370

 Shift the equilibrium in backward direction, as 77. Answer (4)

ng < 0 Hint : G = H –TS
 Decreases the partial pressure of SO3 Sol. : H = U + ngRT
72. Answer (3) = 1.2 × 103 + 2 × 2 × 400
= 1.2 × 103 + 1.6×103 = 2.8 × 103 cal
H
Hint : log KP = log A – 2.303RT G = H – TS
= 2.8 × 103 – 400×40 = –13.2 kcal
Sol. : For an endothermic reaction, H > 0 78. Answer (3)
Hint : rH = fH(product) – fH(reactant)
Slope = H Sol. :
2.303R
or H+(aq) + OH–(aq)  H2O(l). H = –y kJ/mol
logKP –
–y = fH [H2O(l)] – fH [OH (aq)]
–y = –x – fH [OH–(aq)]
–
fH[OH (aq)] = y – x (kJ/mol)
1 (K)
T 79. Answer (4)
73. Answer (1) Hint : Enthalpy of formation is enthalpy change for
Hint : Basic buffer is a mixture of weak base and formation of 1 mole product by using reactants
salt of weak base with strong acid. species of standard state.
Sol. : NH4OH and KOH both are bases so cannot Sol. : S8(Rhombic) + 8O2(g)  8SO2(g)
act as buffer. Hreaction = 8fH(SO2(g)) = cH(S8)
74. Answer (4) 80. Answer (1)
Hint : He shows positive deviation. Hint : Extensive properties depend on quantity of
Sol.: Gas having maximum intermolecular attraction substance.
shows maximum negative deviation. Sol. : Density is an intensive property.
75. Answer (3) 81. Answer (2)
Hint : During vapourization of water, w = ngRT and
2RT U = q + w
Hint : Most probable speed =
M Sol. : H2O(l)  H2O (v), H = 40.66 kJ/mol

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Test - 5 (Code-A) (Hints and Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2019
q = 2 × H = 2 × 40.66 = 81.32 kJ Sol. : Al(OH)3(s)  Al3+(aq) + 3OH–(aq)
w = –ngRT = –2 × 8.314 × 373 J s 3s
= –6.2 kJ 5
10
U = q + w = (81.32 – 6.2) kJ ∵ 3s = 10–5 s=
3
= 75.12 kJ KSP = [Al3+][OH–]3 = s × (3s)3 = 27s4
82. Answer (2) 4
Hint : Properties which depend on path followed by  10 5  1020
= 27   = 27 
the system are known as path functions.  3  81
83. Answer (3)
1
=  1020
C 2 3
Hint : Ka = 90. Answer (3)
1 
pH = pKa – 1  [H+] = Ka × 10 rSO2 P1 MHe
Hint : 
84. Answer (3) rHe P2 MSO2
Hint : London forces are associated with Non-polar
rSO2 2 4 1 2
molecules. Sol. :  =2  =1:2
Sol. : Cl 2 + H 2O, system has dipole – induced rHe 1 64 16 4
dipole interaction. 64  8
Mavg =  24 g mol–1
85. Answer (3) 3
PM BIOLOGY
Hint : Density of ideal gas (d) =
RT 91. Answer (2)
PM 2  48 Hint : Diatoms have two thin overlapping shells in
Sol. : d =  = 2.9 g/L
RT 0.0821 400 their cell wall.
86. Answer (1) Sol. : Diatoms are called soap-box like organisms
and they are chief producers of oceans.
Hint : For a process to be non-spontaneous
G > 0 92. Answer (3)
Sol. : ∵ G = H – TS Hint : Chlamydomonas, Chlorella, Paramoecium and
Amoeba all are unicellular eukaryotes.
If H > 0 and S < 0 then G will be always +ve
and process will be always non-spontaneous. Sol. : Chlamydomonas and Chlorella were placed
87. Answer (4) earlier in Plantae due to presence of cell wall while
Amoeba and Paramoecium placed in Animalia due
Hint : M1V1 = M2V2.
to lack of cell wall.
Sol. : 10–2 × 1 = 10–3 × V2
93. Answer (4)
V2 = 10 L
Hint : This feature was used by Carolus Linneaus for
Hence, volume of water added = 10–1 = 9 L
grouping organisms into two different kingdoms.
88. Answer (3)
Sol. : Whittaker never used ‘response to external
Hint : G° = –RTlnKc
stimulus’, to group organisms into five kingdoms.
Sol. : A(g) + 2B(g)  4C(g) 94. Answer (3)

[C]4  0.2 4 
16
Hint : Organisms with membrane bound cell
KC = = organelles and autotrophic mode of nutrition belong
[A][B]2 (0.15)  (0.1)2 15
to either kingdom Protista or Plantae.
Sol. : Nitrobacter, Chromatium, Nostoc and
 16 
So, G° = –R × 298 ln   Methanococcus belong to kingdom Monera thus they
15
do not have membrane bound cell organelles.
89. Answer (4) Only Euglena and Gonyaulax are autotrophic
Hint : Ksp (Al(OH)3) = [Al3+] [OH–]3 eukaryotes. Rest all are heterotrophs.

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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2019
95. Answer (3)
Hint : Binary fission is the most common mode of
asexual reproduction in bacteria.
Sol. : It occurs under favourable conditions and is
amitotic type. It involves DNA replication but no
spindle formation.
96. Answer (2)
Sol. : PPLO or Mycoplasma do not have cell wall.
97. Answer (1)
Hint : Red tide is caused by red dinoflagellates.
Sol. : Dinoflagellates have cell wall made up of stiff
cellulosic plates and two flagella, one transverse and
other longitudinal.
98. Answer (4)
Hint : Except sporozoans, all protozoan groups have
their specific locomotory structures.
Sol. : They all are single celled and heterotrophs.
Only ciliated protozoans have specific regions for
ingestion and egestion i.e. gullet and cytopyge
99. Answer (2)
Hint : In slime moulds, spores are formed under
unfavourable conditions.
Sol. : Slime moulds form aggregates called
plasmodium under favourable conditions which under
unfavourable conditions differentiate into fruiting
bodies.
100. Answer (2)
Hint : Basidiomycetes are commonly known as club
fungi.
Sol. : Mycelium of club fungi have septate hyphae.
Septa consist of dolipore for continuity of cytoplasm
between adjoining cells.
101. Answer (4)
Hint : Given figure is of Aspergillus.
Sol. : Aspergillus is known as weed of laboratory. It
has chitinous cell wall, reproduce asexually by
conidia. Sex organs are found but dikaryophase is of
shorter duration. Endogenous meiospores are formed
inside the fruiting bodies.
102. Answer (3)
Hint : Fruiting bodies are formed by members of
Ascomycetes and Basidiomycetes.
Sol. : Morels, Truffles, Agaricus and Saccharomyces
all are edible but Saccharomyces (yeast) do not form
fruiting bodies.
103. Answer (1)
Hint : Albugo is a member of Oomycetes.
Sol. : Its cell wall is made up of cellulose and
hyphae lack septa. Plasmogamy occurs via
gametangial contact.
104. Answer (3)
Hint : Late blight of potato is caused by a member
of Oomycetes.
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Test - 5 (Code-A) (Hints and Solutions)
Sol. : Phytophthora infestans causes late blight of
potato.
Alternaria solani is a member of Deuteromycetes
and causes early blight of potato.
105. Answer (4)
Hint : The fungus is popularly called bread mould.
Sol. : Rhizopus stolonifer is a saprophyte and grows
on decaying matter. It is not useful for human
beings.
Yeast – useful in baking/brewing industries
Neurospora – useful in biochemical and genetics
work
Penicillium – useful to produce antibiotics
106. Answer (3)
Hint : Members of Deuteromycetes do not have
coenocytic hyphae.
Sol. : Members of fungi imperfecti have branched
and septate mycelium, they form conidia and help in
mineral recycling.
107. Answer (2)
Hint :
Bacteriophages help in transduction process.
Sol. :
Bacteriophages usually have ds DNA as their
genetic material.
108. Answer (1)
Hint : Infectious nature of viruses is decided by its
nucleic acid.
Sol. : Virus is a nucleoprotein in which genetic
material is infectious in nature.
109. Answer (3)
Hint : Viroids are smallest self replicating particles.
Sol. : Viroids lack capsid and have only RNA as
their genetic material. Their RNA is of low molecular
weight but like viruses they are infectious in nature.
110. Answer (3)
Sol. : For the first time W.M. Stanley showed that
viruses could be crystallised.
111. Answer (3)
Hint : HIV is a retrovirus.
Sol. : Both TMV and HIV have ss RNA as their
genetic material. Both have capsid but envelope is
present only in HIV.
112. Answer (2)
Hint : Lichens do not grow in SO2 polluted areas.
Sol. : Mycobiont (Fungal partner) is always
heterotrophic and it forms bulk of the body of lichens.
113. Answer (2)
Hint : According to Carl Woese all 6 kingdoms are
grouped into 3 domains.
Test - 5 (Code-A) (Hints and Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2019
Sol. : Cymose inflorescence have
Sol. : Protista All are included in domain Eukarya
Fungi due to similarity in 16 S rRNA
1. Limited growth of main axis
Plantae gene sequences. 2. Basipetal arrangement of flowers where old
Animalia flowers are at the top
114. Answer (3) 3. Flowers open in centrifugal manner
Hint : Methanogens are found in guts of ruminants. 123. Answer (2)
Sol. : Methanogens are Hint : In imbricate aestivation margins of sepals and
1. Chemoautotrophs petals do not overlap in a definite manner.
2. Obligate anaerobes Sol. : Solanum nigrum – Valvate aestivation
3. Have pseudomurein in their cell wall China rose – Twisted aestivation
115. Answer (3) Asparagus – Valvate aestivation
Hint : Stilt roots are found in maize, sugarcane etc. Cassia – Imbricate aestivation
Sol. : Plants which have weak stem like maize, 124. Answer (3)
sugarcane, need support. In those plants adventitious Hint : Members of family Solanaceae have
roots arise from lower nodes to support the stem actinomorphic flowers and axile placentation.
while prop roots arise from the branches to give Sol. : Polyadelphous stamens – In lemon.
support.
The only feature common in all the three plants is
116. Answer (4)
axile placentation.
Hint : In carrot, turnip and radish, tap root stores
125. Answer (3)
food.
Hint : Keel is found in flowers of members of family
Sol. : Sweet potato is a modified adventitious root
Fabaceae.
which stores food.
Sol. :
117. Answer (3)
Hint : In some xerophytes, stem is modified to Apocarpous ovary – Rose
perform photosynthesis. Keel – Sesbania
Sol. : In both Opuntia and Euphorbia stems modify Swollen placenta – Chilli
and become fleshy and photosynthetic but in Inferior ovary – Cucumber
Opuntia it is flat while in Euphorbia it is cylindrical. 126. Answer (4)
118. Answer (4) Hint : Mustard is a member of family Brassicaceae.
Hint : Runner is a subaerial modification of stem. Sol. : Mustard has
Sol. : Grasses and strawberry have runner type of 1. Superior ovary
subaerial stem but jasmine has stolons.
2. Tetradynamous stamens
119. Delete
3. Parietal placentation
120. Answer (2)
4. Alternate phyllotaxy
Hint : Insectivorous plants fulfill their nitrogen
requirement by trapping insects. 127. Answer (2)
Sol. : Venus-fly-trap is an insectivorous plant and its Hint : Multiple fruit develops from entire inflorescence.
leaves modify to trap insects. Sol. : A multiple fruit is also known as composite
121. Answer (3) fruit e.g. jackfruit, pineapple etc.
Hint : Leguminous plants are included in family 128. Answer (1)
Fabaceae. Hint : Scar of seed coat is known as hilum.
Sol. : Plants of family Fabaceae have. Sol. : Pore found above hilum is known as
1. Racemose inflorescence micropyle.
2. Zygomorphic and hypogynous flower 129. Answer (1)
3. Ex-albuminous seeds Hint : Maize is a monocot.
4. Monocarpellary ovary Sol. : In maize seed
122. Answer (1) 1. Single cotyledon is known as scutellum
Hint : Main axis terminates into a flower in cymose 2. It is endospermic
inflorescence. 3. Seed coat is membranous and thin

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All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2019
4. Radicle is enclosed in coleorhiza
5. Pericarp i.e. fruit wall fuses with seed coat.
130. Answer (2)
Hint : Both coconut and mango are drupe type of
fruits.
Sol. : Edible part of coconut is its seed
Its mesocarp is fibrous
Endocarp is hard and stony
131. Answer (4)
Hint : Attachment of stamens with perianth is called
epiphyllous condition as found in lily family.
Sol. : Brinjal – Epipetalous
Lily – Epiphyllous
132. Answer (3)
Hint : Endosperm is consumed by developing
embryo in seeds of leguminous plants.
Sol. : Gram, pea, bean are non-endospermous or
ex-albuminous seeds.
133. Answer (3)
Hint : Floral formula shows number and association
of floral whorls.
Sol. : Aestivation of calyx and corolla are shown in
floral diagram. Floral formula shows their number and
association with each other as well as with other
organs.
134. Answer (2)
Hint : Given floral formula is of family Liliaceae.
Sol. : Members of family Liliaceae are Aloe,
Gloriosa, Asparagus, Tulip and Allium.
135. Answer (2)
Hint : Sesbania is a fodder plant.
Sol. : Lupin and sweet pea are ornamental plants of
family Fabaceae.
Muliathi – Medicinal
Pea – Vegetable
136. Answer (4)
Hint : Exchange of gases occurs at this site.
Sol. : Conducting part of respiratory system starts
from external nostrils and extends upto terminal
bronchioles.
137. Answer (2)
Hint : Aquatic animals usually use gills for
respiration.
Sol. : Reptiles, birds and mammals respire through
lungs but fishes respire through gills.
138. Answer (1)
Hint : Relaxation of diaphragm and external
intercostal muscles decreases the thoracic volume.
Sol. : During normal inspiration, contraction of
diaphragm and external intercostal muscle
increases the thoracic volume.
Test - 5 (Code-A) (Hints and Solutions)
Internal intercostal muscles contract during forceful
expiration decreasing the thoracic volume.
139. Answer (1)
Hint: Breast bone is located on the mid-ventral side
of humans.
Sol. : Thoracic cage is formed dorsally by vertebral
column, ventrally by the sternum and laterally by the
ribs.
140. Answer (3)
Hint : This volume ranges around 2100-2300 ml.
Sol. : Functional residual capacity includes the RV
+ ERV = 1200 + 1100 = 2300 ml
141. Answer (1)
Hint : It is similar to the pCO2 in systemic arteries.
Sol. : pO2 in systemic vein is 40 mm Hg.
142. Answer (1)
Hint : Atrial systole lasts for 0.1 s.
Sol. : Duration of cardiac cycle is 0.8 sec. Atrial
diastole occurs for 0.7 s (0.8 – 0.1 = 0.7 sec).
143. Answer (3)
Hint : Semilunar valves are closed, when all the four
chambers of heart are in relaxed state.
Sol. : Semilunar valves open due to rise in pressure
of ventricles during ventricular systole.
144. Answer (2)
Hint : The flow of blood in veins is slower than in
arteries.
Sol. : Veins have valves which prevents backward
flow of blood.
145. Answer (4)
Hint : During joint diastole, right atrium receives
deoxygenated blood from superior vena cava and
inferior vena cava.
Sol. : Ventricle and atrium both remain relaxed
together for 0.4 s.
146. Answer (3)
Hint : This structure is associated with ventricular
musculature.
Sol. : These fibres have elongated cells and
numerous gap junctions facilitating fastest
conduction velocity.
147. Answer (4)
Hint : Right lymphatic duct drains lymph into the
right subclavian vein.
Sol. : Thoracic duct drains the lymph into left
subclavian vein.
148. Answer (3)
Hint : This hormone is stored in neurohypophysis.
Sol. : Stored antidiuretic hormone released by
posterior pituitary helps in facultative reabsorption of
water in distal parts of nephron.

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Test - 5 (Code-A) (Hints and Solutions)
149. Answer (4)
Hint : In counter current mechanism, the flow of
filtrate in two limbs of loop of Henle occurs in
opposite direction.
Sol. : NaCl is reabsorbed from the ascending limb
of Henle’s loop and is exchanged with the
descending limb of vasa recta. Water is reabsorbed
from the descending limb of Henle’s loop and is
exchanged with ascending limb of vasa recta.
150. Answer (2)
Hint : Renin cleaves angiotensinogen to
angiotensin-I.
Sol. : In response to low glomerular blood
pressure, JG cells release renin which cleaves
angiotensinogen into angiotensin-I which ultimately
is converted into angiotensin-II. Angiotensin-II is a
vasoconstrictor that constricts blood vessels and
increases or restores the blood pressure.
151. Answer (2)
Hint : This structure is responsible for storage of
urine.
Sol. : Micturition reflex is initiated by the stretching
of the urinary bladder as it gets filled with urine. In
response, the stretch receptors on the wall of the
bladder send signals to the CNS.
152. Answer (4)
Hint : Identify a hormone secreted by wall of heart.
Sol. : In response to decrease in blood volume,
ADH and aldosterone are released which further
increase reabsorption of water and Na+ in distal part
of nephron, thereby restoring the blood volume.
153. Answer (4)
Hint : Obligate reabsorption of filtrate occurs in this
part of nephron.
Sol. : Nearly 70% of filtrate is reabsorbed in PCT
even during water deficient conditions. ADH
increases the water reabsorption in latter part of
nephron.
154. Answer (2)
Hint : In this condition, urinary elimination of urea
declines.
Sol. : Term uremia is used when urea level
increases in blood than normal.
155. Answer (1)
Hint : Depolarisation of ventricles leads to
contraction of ventricles.
Sol. : QRS wave represents the ventricular
depolarisation in ECG. After the initiation of
ventricular depolarisation, ventricular contraction
starts and is completed with the end of T-wave.
156. Answer (4)
Hint : Lung congestion is one of the cause
symptom of this disease.
All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2019
Sol. : Heart failure means the state of heart when
it is not pumping blood effectively enough to meet
the needs of the body. It is also called congestive
heart failure.
157. Answer (4)
Hint : Parasympathetic stimulation results in
contraction of urinary bladder.
Sol. : For release of urine, the detrusor muscle
contracts and internal sphincter and external urethral
sphincter need to relax.
158. Answer (3)
Hint : Blood colloidal osmotic pressure and
capsular hydrostatic pressure opposes the
glomerular hydrostatic pressure.
Sol. : GFP = GHP – (BCOP + CHP)
= 60 – (30 + 20)
= 10 mm Hg
159. Answer (4)
Hint : Nutrients are almost completely reabsorbed
in PCT.
Sol. : Glucose and amino acids are almost
completely reabsorbed in PCT of nephron. Water is
reabsorbed by osmosis.
160. Answer (1)
Hint : Each kidney is covered by peritoneum only
ventrally.
Sol. : Kidney regulates the pH of blood by
reabsorbing HCO3– from filtrate and by secreting H+
into the filtrate from blood.
161. Answer (1)
Hint : This blood vessel carries deoxygenated blood
from kidney.
Sol. : Hepatic vein collects urea & deoxygenated
blood from liver and drains directly into inferior vena
cava. Inferior vena cava later opens directly into right
atrium of heart.
162. Answer (2)
Hint : This symptom is observed in an allergic
reaction.
Sol. : Asthma is characterised by spasms of
smooth muscles present in the wall of bronchioles &
wheezing sound.
163. Answer (4)
Hint : Under normal physiological conditions, 100 ml
of oxygenated blood carries 20 ml of O2.
Sol. : 100 ml of venous blood carries about 14.4 ml
of O2, so 1000 ml of venous blood will carry 144 ml
of O2
164. Answer (4)
Hint : Primary factor for association of O2 with Hb
is partial pressure of oxygen.
Sol. : Left shift of oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation
curve indicates association of O2 and Hb, which
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All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2019
occurs under following conditions:
(i) High pO2
(ii) Low pCO2
(iii) Less H+ concentration
(iv) High pH
(v) Low temperature
165. Answer (3)
Hint : pCO2 in alveoli is 40 mm Hg.
Sol. : pCO2 in deoxygenated blood is 45 mm Hg.
166. Answer (2)
Hint : Identify the precursor of macrophage.
Sol. : Monocyte is a agranulocyte, which performs
phagocytosis.
167. Answer (2)
Hint : Basement substance is an acellular layer.
Sol. : The wall of alveoli is lined by single layered
squamous epithelium and alveolar capillaries by
single layered endothelium and in between these
layers acellular basement substance is present, so
oxygen crosses two cellular layers and one acellular
layer.
168. Answer (2)
Hint : Rh antigen is present on RBCs surface.
Sol. : When Rh– mother conceives for the first time
and foetus is Rh+, then during parturition, blood of
foetus gets mixed with mother. Mother develops Rh
antibodies. During second pregnancy, if the foetus is
again Rh+, then these antibodies cross placenta to
foetus and destroy the foetal RBCs. This condition
is known as erythroblastosis foetalis.
169. Answer (4)
Hint : Thromboplastins are released by damaged
tissues and platelets.
Sol. : Prothrombin is formed by liver. Inactive
prothrombin is converted to active thrombin in
presence of thrombokinase & Ca 2+. Fibrinogen
converts into fibrin in the presence of thrombin.
170. Answer (2)
Hint. : Both anti-A and anti-B antibodies are present
in plasma of individual with O– blood group.
Sol. : Individuals with blood group O– do not have
antigen A and antigen B on their RBC surface and
individuals with B blood group have B antigen on their
R.B.C. Individuals with B blood group have anti
A antibody.
171. Answer (4)
Hint : RBCs are most abundant cells of blood.
Sol. : Neutrophils are most abundant among
WBCs. Eosinophils are least abundant among given
cells. Basophils are least abundant blood cells.
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18/18
Test - 5 (Code-A) (Hints and Solutions)
172. Answer (2)
Hint : Each ventricle pumps about 70 ml blood per
beat.
Sol. : Heart beats about 72 times per minute so
cardiac output of each ventricle is about 72 × 70 =
5040 ml, so two ventricles pump about 10 L of blood
in one minute.
173. Answer (4)
Hint : It is the sum of ERV and RV
Sol. : FRC = ERV + RV = 2300 ml.
174. Answer (2)
Hint : Microvilli in PCT helps in maximum
reabsorbtion.
Sol. : PCT is lined by simple brush bordered
cuboidal epithelium.
175. Answer (2)
Hint : All ventricular valves remain closed during
isovolumetric contraction of ventricles.
Sol. : AV valves close during initial phase of
ventricular systole and semilunar valves close during
initial phase of ventricular diastole. The time duration
between above two events is 0.3 sec.
176. Answer (3)
Hint : Tunica interna of blood vessel is the inner
most layer of a blood vessel.
Sol. : Tunica interna is internally lined by simple
squamous epithelium.
177. Answer (2)
Hint : Serum is plasma minus clotting factor.
Sol. : Albumin, -globulin and fibrinogen are plasma
proteins. Fibrinogen is a clotting factor, which helps
in blood clotting.
178. Answer (4)
Hint : These cells lack organelles called power
house.
Sol. : RBCs undergo anaerobic respiration as they
do not have mitochondria.
179. Answer (4)
Hint : First heart sound in humans is produced
when pressure in the ventricles rises.
Sol. : First heart sound is LUB and is of longer
duration than second heart sound. During the initial
phase of ventricular systole, the pressure inside the
ventricles rises that results into closure of AV-valves.
180. Answer (4)
Hint : All mammals have complete four chambered
heart.
Sol. : In mammals blood passes two times through
the heart in a single cardiac cycle.