Documente Academic
Documente Profesional
Documente Cultură
Fundamentals of nursing
4. Microbiology
6. Oncology
10.Urinary system
11.Anaesthesia nursing
12.Emergency Nursing
14.Musculoskeletal system
17.Psychiatric Nursing
18.Gynecology
(1)Fundamentals of nursing
Q 1 before taking an axillary temperature it is most important to ;
Ans dry the armpit by patting the area with a towel
Q 2 the word flatus refers to:
Ans gas in the intestinal tract
Q 3 which of the following terms describes a high fever, usually above 41 degrees centigrade ?
Ans hyperpyrexia
Q 4 which of the following positions would best facilitate examination of the rectum or vagina ?
Ans dorsal recumbent position
Q 5 which of the following assessment measures is use to assess the location,shape,size, and density of
tissues ?
Ans percussion
Q 6 A client who presents with a dusky, bluish skin color is experiencing which of the following conditions?
Ans cyanosis
Q 7 Mr. Rogers has been diagnosed as having a large tumor in his left lung . which assessment technique
would be used to determine the size of this tumors ?
Ans percussion
Q 8 most drugs are excreted through which of the following organs ?
Ans kidneys
Q 9 A type of medication that is most effective when taken without water is :
Ans a sedative cough mixture
Q 10 which of the following measurement systems uses a grain as a basic unit of weight ?
Ans apothecary
Q 11 which of the following is the best example of charting the results of an enema ?
Ans solution returned clear with small amount of constipated stool
Q 12 A rectal temperature of 99.4F (37.4F) is considered to :
Ans within the normal range
Q 13 an axillary temperature is taken by placing the thermometer :
Ans so that the bulb is in the armpit
Q 14 the most common sites of taking pulse are :
Ans the wrist and temple
Q 15 A pulse of unsually full force is best described as :
Ans bounding
Q 16 stertorous breathing refers to :
Ans noisy or snoring type of breathing
Q 17 Cheyne-stokes respirations are characterized by :
Ans periods of dyspnea followed by periods of apnea
Q 18 Blood pressure is defined as the :
Ans amount of force exerted by the blood against the walls of the blood vessels
Q 19 when taking blood pressure, the first in a series of sounds heard through the stethoscope is called the :
Ans systolic pressure
Q 20 The normal range of blood pressure is generally considered to be :
Ans 90 to 120 over 60 to 80
Q 21 Hypotension refers to :
Ans abnormally low blood pressure
Q 22 When recording observation of client,the nurse must remember that a clients chart is:
Ans a legal document that may be used as evidence in court .
Q 23 The main reason for charting a client s refusal of the medication is to :
Ans inform the physician of the clients reaction to the medication
Q 24 Correction of an error in charting should be made by :
Ans drawing a single line through the error and writing the word ‘error’ above
Q 25 The instrument used to examine the eye is called the :
Ans opthalmoscope
Q 26 If a client decide to leave the hospital against the advice of his physician, the nurse must :
Ans ask the client to sign a release, relieving the hospital and physician from responsibility
Q 27 The amount of urine considered adequate for most laboratory test would be :
Ans 60 to 100 ml
Q 28 A sterile specimen of urine is obtained by :
Ans having the client void directly into a specimen bottle
Q 29 The best time for collecting sputum specimen is :
Ans just before breakfast
Q 30 A sputum specimen must contain :
Ans material coughed up from the lungs and bronchi
Q 31 A stool specimen consists of :
Ans fecal material
Q 32 stool specimens usually should be sent the laboratory immediately after they are collected
Ans deterioration of the specimen begins almost immediately
Q 33 A culture is done by :
Ans growing bacteria under special laboratory conditions
Q 34 To test ice bags or ice caps for leakage it is best to :
Ans fill with water and check for leaks
Q 35 The position recommended for administration of an enema is :
Ans sim’s left lateral
Q 36 Catheterization is performed as a sterile procedure because :
Ans the urinary system is considered to be sterile unless an infection is present
Q 37 Irrigation of the bladder is most effective if it is done :
Ans when the bladder is empty
Q 38 The type of bandage most commonly used as a sling for the arm is the :
Ans triangular
Q 39 An object must be considered as contaminated if it is :
Ans left uncovered for a period of time
Q 40 To properly place the cover of a container of sterile articles onto a table so that it is not
contaminated. One must place the cover so that it is lying :
Ans sterile side up
Q 41 To prevent contamination of the tips of pick up forceps, they must always be held :
Ans with the tips down
Q 42 Pick up forceps should be used to :
Ans lift and handle sterile objects only
Q 43 When using pick up forceps to remove sterile articles from a container, it is most important to :
Ans avoid touching the inside or outside of the container with the forceps
Q 44 To decrease the client’s desire to expel the suppository, the nurse should insert it :
Ans at least 3 to 4 inches or well beyond the sphincter muscle
Q 45 All suppositories :
Ans have a base which melts at body temperature
Q 46 A medication that consists of a suspension of fat globules and water is classified as :
Ans an emulsion
Q 47 A drug that is absorbed into the blood and carried to specific organs or tissues is said to have :
Ans a systemic effect
Q 48 Drug which relieve pain are classified as :
Ans analgesics
Q 49 Vitamin b12 usually is given :
Ans intramuscularly
Q 50 The most common route administration of nitroglycerine is :
Ans sublingual
Q 51 Drug which help relieve the symptoms of an allergic reaction called :
Ans antihistamines
Q 52 When administering medication, the nurse’s chief concern should be :
Ans complete accuracy in measuring and giving the medications
Q 53 To be sure that correct medication is being poured for a client it is most important to :
Ans read the label on the container three times
Q 54 4cc. of a liquid can be measured most accurately in a :
Ans minim glass or calibrated syringe
Q 55 The goal of nursing care is :
Ans restoration of the client to as near his former state of health as possible
Q 56 Failure to use screens’ curtains and proper drapping wile performing a nursing procedure is
considered to be :
Ans an invasion to client’s privacy
Q 57 The bottom linen on the bed should be :
Ans pulled tight and tucked in well under the mattress
Q 58 An open bed is one in which the top linens are :
Ans fan folded to the foot of the bed
Q 59 Nurses are instructed to keep the client’s hair clean and well groomed because :
Ans cleanliness and daily brushing of the hair are important to the health of the scalp.
Q 60 The nits of the pediculi capitis are the :
Ans egg of head lice
Q 61 The best time to clean the client’s fingernails is :
Ans during the bath after the hands have soaked in warm water
Q 62 The safest method for shaping the fingernails is by using :
Ans an emery board
Q 63 The term urinary incontinence refers to :
Ans inability to control urination
Q 64 When dentures are note in use they should be :
Ans placed in a denture cup, labeled with client’s name and room number, and put in the drawer of the
bedside table
Q 65 A good back rub promotes relaxation and helps prevent pressure sores. A back is most relaxing if
the back is :
Ans rubbed with long smooth strokes, exerting more pressure on the upward stroke than the downward
stroke
Q 66 The term posture means :
Ans the manner in which one holds different parts of the body in relation to to each other
Q 67 A bed cradle may be used in the hospital or home to :
Ans support the weight of the top covers
Q 68 When the doctor orders passive exercises for a client this means that :
Ans the nurses exercises the muscles of the client by moving the extremities in a prescribed manner
Q 69 Another name for tube feeding is :
Ans gavage
Q 70 Tube feeding is usually done :
Ans every 4 to 6 hours
Q 71 It is recommended that bath water used for a bed bath be changed :
Ans at least once during the bath
Q 72 The temperature of the bed bath water should be:
Ans 105 to 115 F ( 41 to 46 C )
Q 73 To remove dust from a furniture of a client’s unit it is best to use:
Ans a damp cloth
Q 74 Mrs. William has received a bouquet of flowers and ask you to put them in a vase. When preparing
the cut flowers you should:
Ans place the stems in the water and cut the stems diagonally while they remain submerged in the water
Q 75 Nurses must avoid strong perfumes and colognes while in uniform because:
Ans most persons who are ill are very sensitive to odours and may be offended by strong perfumes.
Q 76 Loud talking and laughing in the hall, slamming the doors or dropping equipment must be avoided
because:
Ans noise produces stimulation and fatigue
Q 77 One of the characteristics of a good nursing care plan is:
Ans flexibility to meet the changing needs of client
Q 78 A symptom is best defined as:
Ans any indication of disease in the condition of a client
Q 79 Examples of subjective symptoms would include:
Ans itching and burning
Q 80 The main reason for filling a hot water bottle only half full of water is to:
Ans prevent excess weight on the part to which it is applied
Q 81 The application of cold to the body has the effect of :
Ans constricting blood vessels and reducing circulation to the part to which it is applied
Q 82 1 pint is equal to approximately:
Ans 500 ml. ( cc )
Q 83 1ml. is equal to :
Ans 1cc
Q 84 2000cc is equal to approximately :
Ans ½ gallon
Q 85 Subcutaneous injections must be given so that the drug is deposited :
Ans under all layers of the skin
Q 86 The usual sites for subcutaneous injection include the :
Ans upper outer arm, or the thigh
Q 87 The most common site for an intradermal injection is :
Ans the upper arm
Q 88 The primary unit of solid measure in the metric system is the :
Ans gram
Q 89 The primary unit of liquid measure in the metric system is the :
Ans liter
Q 90 As a liquid drug is being poured into the medicine glass,the glass is :
Ans held at eye level to assure accurate measurement
Q 91 Immediately after an intramuscular injection , the area is massaged gently with a cotton pledget to
:
Ans increase the absorption of the medication
Q 92 To straighten the air canal during the administration of ear drops to an adult patient, the ear lobe
is gently pulled :
Ans upward and back
Q 93 Constipation in the elderly is usually the result of :
Ans inactivity and poor eating habits
Q 94 Rehabilitation is best described as :
Ans helping the patient to help himself
Q 95 Intradermal injection are most often used to administer :
Ans certain substances for skin tests
Q 96 The physician orders 0.5gm. of diamox. You have 250-mg.tablets on hand. The patient should
receive :
Ans 2 tablets
Q 97 When pouring a liquid medication , the container should be held so that the :
Ans label toward the palm of the hand
Q 98 The reason for holding the container in described manner is :
Ans to avoid soiling the label with medication
Q 99 When oxygen therapy is being used “ No smoking “ are posted because oxygen :
Ans supports combustion
Q 100 Which of the following is the name assigned to a drug by the manufacturer that first develops it ?
Ans Generic name
Q 101 Which of the following types of medication orders would a physician prescribe for ‘ as needed ‘
pain medication ?
Ans PRN order
Q 102 A nurse suspects a drug she administered to her client is in error. Who is legally responsible for
the error ?
Ans nurse
Q 103 If a nurse is preparing the medication for her client and is called away to an emergency situation,
which of the following should she/he do?
Ans lock the medication in a room and finish them when she returns
Q 104 Before administering a drug to a client, nurse should identify the client by doing which of the
following?
Ans Check the client’s ID bracelet/tag
(4) Microbiology
Q 1 Which of the following is an example of first line of defense mechanism?
Ans Intact skin.
Q 2 The best definition of sterilization is:
Ans free from all forms of life.
Q 3 Which of the following infection iws controlled by DCG vaccine?
Ans Tuberculosis.
Q 4 Which of the following scientist is known as “father of microbiology”?
Ans A. V. Leeuwenhoek.
Q 5 Which of the following organisms as normal flora helps in the production of Vit. K ?
Ans E. Coli.
Q 6 Who introduced the use of disinfectant to clean surgical wound in order to control infection?
Ans Joseph lister.
Q 7 Which structure determines whether a bacterial growth is gram positive or negative?
Ans Cell membrane.
Q 8 Which of the following bacteria is acid fast?
Ans Mycobacterium.
Q 9 Which of the following is an air-borne respiratory tract infection?
Ans Diphtheria.
Q 10 Which of the following structure of a bacteria cell resist to phagocytosis?
Ans capsule.
Q 11 Who developed the “GERM THEORY” of disease?
Ans Francisco Redi.
Q 12 Which of the following is the mode of action of penicillin?
Ans Inhibition of cell wall synthesis.
Q 13 Which of the following immune cells matures in thymus gland?
Ans T. cells.
Q 14 Bacilli are:
Ans rod shaped bacteria.
Q 15 Which of the following is a viral infection?
Ans Mumps.
Q 16 Which of the following does not kill endospores?
Ans Boiling.
Q 17 In a healthy person an area of the body bacteria usually not found is :
Ans blood.
Q 18 A microbicidal is an agent which:
Ans kills all form of microorganisms.
Q 19 What type of disease is Typhoid?
Ans Food borne.
Q 20 Which of the following cell structure is not present in a prokaryotic cell?
Ans Nuclear membrane.
Q 21 Name the process by which neutrophils or macrophages ingest a foreign particles?
Ans Phagocytosis.
Q 22 Which of the following chemical is used to disinfect water?
Ans Chlorine.
Q 23 Which of the following physical agent is used in autoclaving?
Ans High temperature.
Q 24 Who first time called microorganisms as animalcules?
Ans A. V. Leeuwenhoek.
Q 25 A 40X objective and ocular of the microscope produces a total magnification power of:
Ans 100X.
Q 26 Which of the following statements is true about viruses?
Ans They need host machinery for multiplication.
Q 27 Which of the following structure of a bacterial cell helps in the attachment to different surfaces?
Ans pili.
Q 28 Which of the following immunoglobulin is secreted and appeared in mucosal secretions alive?
Ans IgA.
Q 29 Which of the following was first widely used antiseptic & disinfectant?
Ans Phenol.
Q 30 The stomach usually contains a very low concentration of bacteria due to:
Ans low ph.
Q 31 Dermetomycosis is a:
Ans fungal infection.
Q 32 Which of the following vaccine is used for the control of polio?
Ans Sabin & Salk.
Q 33 Which of the following is a prokaryote?
Ans Bacteria.
Q 34 Which of the following infection is caused by contaminated fertile soil?
Ans Tetanus.
Q 35 Microbiology is the study of:
Ans all micro-organisms.
Q 36 Fimbrae is a part of bacteria structure which helps the bacteria:
Ans to stick to .
Q 37 Robert kock discovered the tubercle bacilli in :
Ans 1882.
Q 38 Free from all pathogenic organisms is called:
Ans asepsis.
Q 39 The size of bacteria is measured in S.I. unit> they may vary in size ranging from:
Ans 0.3 um to 14 um.
Q 40 The definition of antibodies:
Ans substance which is produced in the body as a result of antigen.
Q 41 The flagella in bacterial cells help them to:
Ans move.
Q 42 Clostridium tetani has all the following characteristics except:
Ans found in round shape.
Q 43 The microbes that are normally found in or within the human body is called:
Ans commensals.
Q 44 There are following routes from which microorganisms can enter into the body except:
Ans isolation.
Q 45 Mushrooms are example of :
Ans fungus.
Q 46 The suitable physical condition which is required for bacterial growth includes:
Ans all of the above.
Q 47 An aerobic bacteria are found in condition of:
Ans fresh wound.
Q 48 virus possess:
Ans head & tail.
Q 49 Founder of penicillin:
Ans sir Alexander Fleming.
Q 50 Streptococci are assigning in number of:
Ans chain.
Q 51 Droplets caused the infections of:
Ans respiratory tract.
Q 52 By which of the following sources cholera organisms can be transmitted:
Ans milk.
Q 53 BCG vaccine as against the tuberculosis disease as:
Ans preventive.
Q 54 Infection which is acquired from outside of body is called:
Ans exogenous.
Q 55 Tincture of iodine is used for the method of sterilization as:
Ans chemical.
Q 56 The causative organism of AIDS disease can be transmitted through:
Ans semen.
Q 57 The organism which is smallest in size is:
Ans virus.
Q 58 Chemically antibodies contain:
Ans proteins.
Q 59 The microorganisms which are normally present in our body and can caused disease under certain
circumstances are:
Ans opportunists.
Q 60 If a temperature of 100°C is applied for 2-3 minutes it will:
Ans kill all form of bacteria except bacterial spores.
(6) Oncology
Q 1 The optimal time for breast self examination is usually beginning at the ______day after menses.
Ans fifth
Q 2 Which of the following would least accurately describe cancer ?
Ans incurable
Q 3 A malignant tumor differs from a benign tumor in that the malignant tumor:
Ans spreads more easily
Q 4 Metastasis is best defined as :
Ans a spread of a new growth to the other parts of the body
Q 5 Cancer may be spread by :
Ans the lymphatic system or by direct extension into adjacent tissues
Q 6 Which of the following may be an early symptom of cancer :
Ans any sore that does not heal
Q 7 Removal of a sample of living cells for the purpose of microscopic examination is known as :
Ans a biopsy
Q 8 In the treatment of cancer the word ‘’cure’’ means that the client :
Ans has been free of cancer for at least 5 years
Q 9 Mammography can diagnose breast cancer before it is clinically palpable, meaning the lump can
detected by x-ray when it is approximately :
Ans 1 cm in size
Q 10 Mammography should be used to annually screen women :
Ans from 40 to 50 years old
Q 11 Breast cancer is the leading cause of the death for women:
Ans between the ages of 35 and 60
Q 12 Early clinical manifestation of breast cancer includes all of the following except :
Ans pain in the breast tissue
Q 13 The chance of developing breast cancer doubles if :
Ans all of above
Q 14 The most common site of distant metastasis for breast carcinoma is the :
Ans bones
Q 15 The majority of breast cancers occur in the :
Ans upper, outer quadrant
Q 16 The most commonly encouraged breast condition in the male is :
Ans gynecomastia
Q 17 Women over the age of 30 are encouraged to have papanicolaou smear done every every 6 months
because this is helpful in the diagnosis of :
Ans cancer of the cervix
Q 18 Early diagnosis of cancer is especially important because it :
Ans helps prevent the spread of the malignancy to other parts of the body
Q 19 Research had shown that the cause of cancer is :
Ans not fully understood and may be the combination of several factors
Q 20 Which of the following statement by a 25 year old woman indicates the understands breast self –
examination (BSE):
Ans “I Will do complete BSE on both breast 8 days after menses ”
(17)Psychiatric Nursing
Q 1 A person who is mentally healthy has all of the following characteristics except:
Ans placing his values on material things rather than inner worth.
Q 2 An autistic individual is most concerned with:
Ans himself.
Q 3 Hearing voices that are not really present is an example:
Ans an hallucination.
Q 4 Repeatedly carrying out an act such as washing one's hands inspite of a desire not to do so is an
example of:
Ans a compulsion.
Q 5 Some drugs, such as heroin, can produce a feeling of great elation and joy especially when one first
begin taking the drug this feeling can best be called:
Ans euphoria.
Q 6 Human beings behave in certain ways primarily because they are seeking:
Ans release from physical tension and security in being accepted by others.
Q 7 When a psychotic patient is extremely uncooperative or repulsive in his speech or actions it is most
important for the nurse to:
Ans remain calm and accept his behavior as a symptom of his illness.
Q 8 Avoiding unpleasant past experiences by completely “forgetting” about them and trying to pretend
that they never happened is an example of:
Ans repression.
Q 9 Mrs. Lee insists that she is Queen Victoria and frequently refers to the psychiatric nurses as her
ladies-in-waiting. Mrs Lee's behavior is an example of carrying to extreme the defense mechanism of:
Ans identification.
Q 10 Jerry john is a 19 year old who is emotionally disturbed. His chief difficulty in getting along with
others is his superior attitude and “bossy” manner. Jerry actually feels very inferior to other people and
his behavior is an example of extreme:
Ans compensation
Q 11 The nurse becomes angry with her supervisor and “takes it out”on the nurse’s aide with whom she
works is which of the following defense mechanisms?
Ans displacement
Q 12 The behavior pattern by which one avoids accepting full responsibility for his own action and
shortcomings by blaming someone or something else is called:
Ans projection
Q 13 If a patient who has been very loud and demanding and discourteous toward the staff suddenly
becomes withdrawn,we might say that he is :
Ans overcompensating for his aggressive behavior
Q 14 A schizophrenic individual :
Ans has difficulty distinguishing between reality and what goes on in his mind
Q 15 The patient who withdraws from the society of others frequently suffering from:
Ans a deep sense of unworthiness and a self respect
Q 16 Mrs. Kim has the reputation of being the “nuisance” of the ward. She finds numerous ways to gain
the attention of the nursing staff, criticizes everything that is done for her, questions every action of the
physicians and nurses, and often bangs around the furniture and threatens to leave if she doesn’t receive
better care. Her behavior can best be describe as:
Ans aggressive
Q 17 Recreational therapy is especially helpful in the treatment of mental disorder because it :
Ans put the client in a more normal situation that similar to his/her home and community life
Q 18 A very important aspect of nursing care of the extremely underactive patient is :
Ans regular skin care and physical exercise to avoid circulatory and musculoskeletal complicatins
Q 19 A neurotic individual is best described as one who:
Ans cannot control his emotions in a normal manner
Q 20 A very serious mental breakdown with severe personality changes is best described as:
Ans a psychosis
Q 21 Organic behaviour disorders differ from functional types of mental illness in that organic disorder
are :
Ans a result of injury to brain cells or nervous system
Q 22 Delirium is characterized by:
Ans a sudden onset with a toxin being the cause
Q 23 Psychotherapy is primarily a from of treatment in which the patient:
Ans is encouraged to face reality by talking about himself and his problems
Q 24 Psychotherapy is possible only when the patient is:
Ans able to communicate with others through wards or actions and express his true feelings
Q 25 Which of following psychiatric disturbances are most common among the elderly?
Ans depression
Q 26 which of the following is not true of alcoholism?
Ans the condition is caused by a lack of will power
Q 27 Delirium tremens usually is produced by:
Ans sudden withdrawal of alcohol from a person who has been drinking heavily for a number of years.
Q 28 Symptoms of delirium tremens include all except:
Ans hypotension
Q 29 The suicidal person:
Ans has profound feeling of unworthiness
Q 30 Which of the following states of mood is least likely to lead to suicide:
Ans elation
Q 31 Overactivity in a mentally ill client most often is characterized by:
Ans frantic activity that is apparently unreasonable and without purpose
Q 32 The opposite of reality is:
Ans fantasy
Q 33 A disorder characterized by anxiety in which there is no distortion of reality is known as:
Ans neurosis
Q 34 _____means loss of memory:
Ans amnesia
Q 35 Disordered thought, behaviour, delusion and illusion are the positive symptoms of :
Ans schizophrenia
Q 36 Which of the following are the organic factors of mental illness?
Ans anxiety, depression and fatique
Q 37 In psychiatric depression:
Ans client loss ability to recognize or explain new experiences through previous knowledge
Q 38 A client expresses the belief that his enemy is out to kill him this is an example of :
Ans delusion of persecution
Q 39 Client is not able to communicate in words:
Ans expressive aphasia
Q 40 Electro Convulsive therapy is a form of shock therapy in this the client first goes into:
Ans tonic phase then clonic convulsions
Q 41 The imaginary sequence of events is called:
Ans fantasy
Q 42 The psychoanalysis was developed by :
Ans Sigmund freud
Q 43 The commonest psychiatric illness in pakistan is :
Ans depressive neurosis
Q 44 The purpose of the defense mechanism include all of the following except:
Ans improve insight
Q 45 some clients have defective mental development known as:
Ans mental retardation
Q 46 A psychiatric client is able to achieve his possible mental and social efficiency, so that he can live an
independent member of society:
Ans rehabilitation
Q 47 A bomb blast resulting in 200 dead and hundreds injured in a nearby shopping centre. The
survivor families and community will experience a (n):
Ans situational crisis
Q 48 One of the following is a mood regulator drug:
Ans lithium
Q 49 In the following condition the client imitates the act of another person:
Ans echopraxia
Q 50 Common side effects of antipsychotic drugs:
Ans akinesia
(18) Gynecology
Q 1 The Expected date of delivery of a human pregnancy can be calculated:
Ans As 40 weeks after last menstrual period.
Q 2 The last menstrual period was June 30. the expected
date of delivery (EDD) is approximately:
Ans March 7.
Q 3 Uterine Cervix:
Ans Is the portion of the uterus below the isthmus
Q 4 The main support of the uterus is provided by:
Ans The cardinal ligament
Q 5 The most important muscle in the pelvic floor is:
Ans Levator ani.
Q 6 The pelvis includes which of the following bones
Ans Ilium, ischium, pubis, sacrum & coccyx.
Q 7 The joint between the two pubic bones is called the:
Ans Pubis symphysis
Q 8 The greatest diameter of the fetal head is:
Ans Occipitomental.
Q 9 Molding of the fetal head;
Ans Does NOT have time to occur in breech delivery.
Q 10 The main blood supply of the vulva is.
Ans Pudendal artery.
Q 11 The following are typical in the female bony pelvis EXCEPT:
Ans Is funnel shaped
Q 12 Regarding fetal head, Choose the CORRECT answer:
Ans Considered to be engaged when the Biparietal diameter passes the level of the pelvic inlet.
Q 13 The ovarian artery is a branch of
Ans Aorta.
Q 14 The normal lining of the fallopian tube is:
Ans Columnar epithelium with cilia.
Q 15 The cilia of the fallopian tube has the following function;
Ans Transport the ovum towards the uterus.
Q 16 Hyperextension of the fetal head is found in;
Ans Face presentation
Q 17 Stages of labor ;
Ans The third stage end with the delivery of the placenta and membranes.
Q 18 All the following characteristics are applied to a pelvis favorable to vaginal delivery EXCEPT;
ans Obstetric conjugate is less than 10 cm
Q19 In the fetus:
Ans Fetal lie describes the long axis of the fetus to the long axis of the mother.
Q 20 Which of the following terms best describes the pelvic type of small posterior saggital diameter,
convergent sidewalls, prominent ischial spines, and narrow pubic arch?
Ans Android.
Q 21 The second stage of labor involves:
Ans Expulsion of the fetus.
Q 22 Which is true?
Ans Station – level of ischial spines
Q 23 A pelvic inlet is felt to be contracted if :
Ans The transverse diameter is only 10 cm
Q 24 During clinical pelvimerty, which of the following
is routinely measured:
ans Shape of the pubic arch.
Q 25 At term, the ligaments of the pelvis change. This can result in:
ans Enlargement of the pelvic cavity.
Q 26 During the delivery, the fetal head follow the pelvic axis. The axis is best described as:
ans A curved line, 1ST directed posteriorly then caudal
Q 27 A head of level (one fifth) indicates:
Ans Indicates that the head is engaged.
Q 28 In a vertex presentation, the position is determined by the relationship of what fetal part to the
Mother's pelvis:
ans Occiput.
Q 29 Signs of Placental separation after delivery include:
Ans All of the above.
Q 30 The persistence of which of the following is usually incompatible with spontaneous delivery at
term:
Ans Mentum posterior.
Q 31 An unstable lie is related to all of the following EXCEPT;
Ans Fundal fibroid.
Q 32 The relation of the fetal parts to one another determines:
Ans Position of the fetus.
Q 33 The relationship of the long axis of the fetus to the long axis of the mother is called:
Ans Lie.
Q 34 Engagement is strictly defined as:
Ans When the greatest Biparietal diameter of the fetal head passes the pelvic inlet.
Q 35 The fetal head may undergo changes in shape during normal delivery. The most common etiology
listed is:
Ans Molding.
Q 36 If the large fontanel is the presenting part, what is the presentation?
Ans Sinciput
Q 37 Methods of determining fetal presentation & position include:
Ans Leopold's maneuver.
Q 38 A transverse lie of the fetus is least likely in the presence of:
Ans Normal term fetus.
Q 39 A primpara is in labor and an episiotomy to be cut.Compared with amid line episiotomy,
anadvantage of medio-lateral episiotomy is:
Ans Less extension of the incision.
Q 40 A patient sustained a laceration of the premium during delivery, it involved the muscles of Perineal
body but not the anal sphincter.Such a laceration would be classified as :
Ans Second degree
Q 41 An unstable lie is associated with all the following EXCEPT:
Ans Cervical fibroid
Q 42 A primipara is in labor & and an episiotomy is about to be cut. Compared with a midline
episiotomy, an advantage of mediolateral episiotomy.
Ans Less extension of the incision.
Q 43 Regarding Episiotomy:
Ans It is done after the head crown appear ( crowning )
Q 44 The first stage of labor :
Ans Ends with fully Dilation of the cervix.
Q 45 The heart rate of a normal fetus at term:
Ans 120-160 bpm.
Q 46 Repetitive late decelerations most commonly indicate:
Ans Fetal hypoxia
Q 47 Electronic fetal monitoring:
Ans Has low specificity but high sensitivity.
Q 48 What is the uterine blood flow at term:
Ans 500 to 750 ml/min.
Q 49 Regarding Fetal blood pH:
Ans Can be measured during labor.
Q 50 The following are major indicators of fetal asphyxia:
Ans Type II (late) decelerations with tachycardia.
Q 51Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of normal labor:
Ans Moderate bleeding.
Q 52 Bishop score includes all the followings EXCEPT:
Ans The presenting part of the fetus
Q 53 During which of the following conditions would the serum Prolactin level be greatest:
ans Suckling.
Q 54 Regarding Prostaglandins:
Ans Are involved in the onset of labor.
Q 55 Early deceleration is :
Ans Results from increased vagal tone secondary to head compression.
Q 56 The normal cord pH is :
Ans 7.2
Q 57 The bishop score is used to predict :
Ans The success rate of the induction of the labor.
Q 58 In Turner's syndrome:
Ans Ovaries are streak
Q 59 Congenital uterine malformations causes all of the following EXCEPT:
Ans Pregnancy induced hypertension.
Q 60 The normal sequence of pubertal changes in the female is:
Ans Thelarche, Maximal growth velocity, menarche
Q 61 The most common cause of precocious puberty is :
Ans Idiopathic.
Q 62 Which of the following is suggestive of ovulation:
Ans Regular cycle with dysmenorrhea
Q 63 The follicular phase of menstrual cycle is characterized by:
Ans Endometrial gland proliferation.
Q 64 Ovulation occurs:
Ans 36 hours after LH surge
Q 65 In the days after ovulation, all of the following occurs EXCEPT:
Ans The plasma progesterone concentration falls
Q 66 Which of the following is the primary source of estrogen ?
Ans Granulosa cells.
Q 67 The following are presumptive skin signs of pregnancy except:
Ans Maculo-papular rash
Q 68 The resting pulse in pregnancy is:
Ans Increased by 10 to 15 bpm.
Q 69 Normally, pregnancy in 2ND trimester is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT:
Ans Elevated fasting plasma glucose.
Q 70 All are CORRECT, EXCEPT, Pregnancy is associated with:
Ans Increase peripheral resistance
Q 71 The increase in blood volume in normal pregnancy ismade up of:
Ans More plasma than erythroblasts.
Q 72 Changes in the urinary tract system in pregnancy include:
Ans Increase the glomerular filtration rate (GFR)
Q 73 Lowered Hemoglobin during normal pregnancy is a physiological finding. It's mainly due to:
Ans Increased plasma volume.
Q 74 The Maternal blood volume in normal pregnancy:
Ans Increases up to 40%
Q 75 In normal physiological changes in pregnancy, all of the following are increased EXCEPT:
Ans Peripheral resistance
Q 76 During Pregnancy, all of the following are CORRECT EXCEPT:
Ans Progestin & HPL will decrease the number of glands
Q 77 Screening is most effective in preventing which of the following cancers:
Ans Cervix
Q 78 All are features of malignant ovaries except:
Ans Uniloclar
Q 79 Regarding missed abortion, all of the following areCORRECT, EXCEPT:
Ans Immediate evacuation should be done once the diagnosis is made
Q 80 With regards to contraception failure, the pearl index refers to:
Ans Number of pregnancies in 100 woman-year
Q 81 Most common cause of PM bleeding is:
Ans Atrophic vaginitis
Q 82 Which is right regarding procedures?
Ans Colposcopy – T zone
Q 83 In prenatal infection:
Ans HIV virus infects the baby more readily when delivered vaginally than cesarean section
Q 84 Feature of Preterm all except:
Ans hyperthermic
Q 85 Postpartum women with PPH and can not lactate her baby:
Ans Sheehan syndrome
Q 86 The largest diameter in fetal head is:
Ans mentovertical
Q 87 Compound presentation is most consistently associated with
Ans Prematurity.
Q 88 Regarding shoulder presentation, the following are true EXCEPT:
Ans More common in primigravida
Q 89 The most frequent severe complication of vaginal breech delivery:
Ans Head entrapment.
Q 90 The major cause of serious neonatal morbidity & mortality for infants with breech presentation is:
Ans Birth trauma.
Q 91 The most common complication of External Cephalic Versions
Ans Persistent fetal bradycardia.
Q 92 IUCD may prevent pregnancy by all of the following mechanism EXCEPT:
Ans Inhibiting ovulation.
Q 93Regarding gonococcal infection of the female genital tract, the following are common site of
infection
Ans Urethra & cervix
Q 94 Regarding Hyperprolactenemia, all of the following are CORRECT EXCEPT:
Ans In cases on pituitary adenoma surgical removal is the best option.
Q 95 Regarding Infertility:
Ans Including the husband in the investigation is essential