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Multiple Choice Questions- Pre- University Examination (Paper-2)

Published April 18, 2013 | By Dr. Namrata Chhabra
Q.1-The p H of the body fluids is stabilized by buffer systems. Which of the following buffers is the most effective buffer system at physiological
pH?
a) Bicarbonate buffer
b) Phosphate buffer
c) Protein buffer
d) Deoxy hemoglobin
Q.2-Which of the following laboratory results below indicates compensated metabolic alkalosis?
www.namrata.co/category/past-papers/university-papers-with-model-answers/ 6/63
a) Low p CO2, normal bicarbonate and, high pH
b) Low p CO2, low bicarbonate, low pH
c) High p CO2, normal bicarbonate and, low p H
d) High pCO2, high bicarbonate, High pH.
Q.3–Which of the following has the highest glycemic index?
a) Ice cream
b) Cucumber
c) Bread
d) Dextrose
Q.4-In diabetes mellitus there is reduced oxidation of carbohydrates; what will the effect of insulin administration on
RQ?
a) It will increase
b) It will decrease
c) No effect
d) Initial rise and then fall
Q.5-Which of the following nutrients is rich in short and medium chain fatty acids
a) Milk
b) Peanut oil
c) Sunflower oil
d) Almond oil
Q.6- A woman’s risk for developing breast cancer is greatest with:
a) Family history of breast cancer and a history of taking hormone replacement therapy
b) Early age at menarche and late age of first parity
c) A family history of breast cancer and a history of benign breast disease
d) A BRCA1 or BRCA2 mutation.
Q.7-Reduction of the 2′-hydroxyl of purine and pyrimidine Ribonucleotides, catalyzed by-
a) Thioredoxinreductase
b) Ribonucleotide reductase
c) Dihydro folate reductase
d) Oxidoreductase.
Q.8-Human brain has a low level of which of the following enzymes?
a) PRPP synthetase
b) Amidotransferase
c) HGPRT
d) Adenosine deaminase
Q.9- The fragments of newly synthesized DNA are sealed by enzymes referred to as –
a) Restriction endonucleases
b) Topo isomerases
c) Telomerases
d) DNA ligases.
Q.10- In animal cells, including human cells, the replication of the DNA genome occurs only at a specified time during the life span of the cell. This
period is referred to as the
a) gap 1(G1)
b) gap 2(G2)
c) M phase
d) S phase.
Q.11- The derepression of lac operon in the presence of lactose is an example of-
a) Positive regulation
b) Negative regulation
c) Double negative regulation
d) Double positive regulation.
Q.12- The operator locus is a region of double-stranded DNA-
a) To bind RNA polymerase
b) To bind lac repressor
c) To bind CAP-cAMP complex
d) To bind transcription factors
Q.13- Which of the followings is not a stop codon in prokaryotes?
a) UAA
b) UAG
c) UGG
d) UGA
Q.14- The ideal support medium for separation of nucleic acids is-
a) Starch gel
b) Cellulose acetate
c) Agarose gel
d) Filter paper
Q.15- The drug Aspirin is detoxified by-
a) Methylation
b) Acetylation
c) Hydrolysis
d) Glucuronidation
Q.16- Which of the following enzymes is not a tumor marker?
a) Alkaline phosphatase
b) Acid phosphatase
c) Lactate dehydrogenase
d) Acid maltase
Q.17- DNA is assembled into nucleosomes with the help of special proteins called-
a) Prolamines
b) Histones
c) Chaperones
d) Protamines
Q.18- Burkitt’s lymphoma is caused by-
a) Adeno virus
b) Human Papilloma virus
c) Hepatitis B virus
d) Epstein – Barr virus
Q.19- Which drug out of the following is not an anticancer drug?
a) Azaserine
b) Allopurinol
c) Cytosine arabinoside
d) Mercaptopurine.
Q.20- Which out of the followings is not a true mechanism for conversion of proto oncogenes to
oncogenes?
a) Point mutation
b) Chromosomal translocation
c) Insertional mutagenesis
d) Histone acetylation
Key to answers-
1)-a,2)-d,3)-d,4)-a,5)-a,6)-d,7)-b,8)-b,9)-d,10)-d,11)-c,12)-b,13)-c,14)-c,15)-c,16)-d,17)-b,18)-d,19)-b,20)-d
Please help "Biochemistry for Medics" by CLICKING ON THE ADVERTISEMENTS above!

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Multiple Choice Questions- Pre-University Examination (Answer Key)

Q.1- S- Adenosyl Methionine (Active Methionine )is required for the synthesis of all of the following compounds except-
a) Thymine
b) Nor epinephrine
c) Epinephrine
d) Melatonin
Q.2-Which out of the following compounds is not an inhibitor of complex IV of electron transport chain?
a) CO
b) H2S
c) BAL
d) CN.
Q.3-The inner mitochondrial membrane is rich in which of the following phospholipids?
a) Cardiolipin
b) Lecithin
c) Cephalin
d) Plasmalogen
Q.4– The conversion of Pyruvate to Acetyl co A involves the participation of all except –
a) Niacin
b) Riboflavin
c) Biotin
d) Pantothenic acid.
Q.5– Which out of the followings is a fatty acid with 18 carbon atoms and one double bond in the trans configuration?
a) Palmitoleic acid
b) Oleic acid
c) Erucic acid
d) Elaidic acid.
Q.6–Which out of the followings is an ω 6 fatty acid?
a) Linolenic acid
b) Linoleic acid
c) Palmitic acid
d) Arachidic acid.
Q.7-“Phospho enol pyruvate carboxy kinase”is an enzyme of which of the following pathway?
a) Glycolysis
b) Gluconeogenesis
c) Pentose phosphate pathway
d) Glycogenolysis.
Q.8-Which out of the followings is not a hemoprotein?
a) Tryptophan pyrrolase
b) Tyrosinase
c) Myoglobin
d) Cytochrome P450.
Q.9-Which of the following monosaccharides is not a carboxylic acid?
a) Glucuronate
b) Gluconate
c) Glucose
d) Muramic acid.
Q.10– Which of the following apoproteins is an activator of lipoprotein lipase?
a) Apo A
b) Apo B
c) Apo C II
d) Apo D.
Q.11-Which of the following vitamins is used as a hypolipidemic drug?
a) Thiamine
b) Niacin
c) Folic acid
d) Pantothenic acid
Q.12-Malonyl co A is a direct inhibitor of which of the following enzymes of fatty acid oxidation?
a) Carnitine Acyl Transferase –I
b) Carnitine Acyl Transferase –II
c) Thiokinase
d) Thiolase
Q.13-Which of the following enzymes requires adenosine triphosphate (ATP) for its action?
a) Argino Succinate lyase
b) Argino Succinate synthetase
c) Arginase
d) Glutaminase.
Q.14-Which out of the followings is not a fibrous protein?
a) Carbonic anhydrase
b) Collagen
c) Fibrinogen
d) Keratin.
Q.15-Which of the following enzymes is not present in muscle?
a) Phosphorylase b
b) Hexokinase
c) Glucose-6-phosphatase
d) Glycogen synthase
Q.16-A 78-year-old male is brought to emergency with acute myocardial infarction. Blood biochemistry reveals lactic acidosis. How much energy yield
(ATP) per mol of glucose is expected in such a condition?
a) 32
b) 2
c) 34
d) 36
Q.17-Pasteur effect is due to inhibition of glycolysis by high concentration of –
a) Creatine phosphate
b) ATP
c) ADP
d) AMP
Q.18-The citric acid cycle is inhibited by which of the followings?

a) Fluoroacetate
b) Fluoride
c) Malonyl co A
d) Fluorouracil.
Q.19-The key regulatory enzyme of HMP pathway is-
a) Glucose-6-P dehydrogenase
b) Transaldolase
c) Transketolase
d) 6-P-Gluconate dehydrogenase.
Q.20-A mutation has changed an Isoleucine residue of a protein to Glutamic acid, which statement best describes its location in a hydrophilic exterior-
a) On the surface since it is hydrophilic in nature
b) Inside the core of the protein since it is hydrophobic in nature
c) Any where inside or outside
d) Inside the core of protein since it has a polar but uncharged side chain.
Key to answers- 1)-b, 2- c, 3)-a, 4)-c, 5)-d, 6)-b, 7)-b, 8)-b, 9)-c, 10)-c, 11)-b, 12)-a, 13)-b,14)-a, 15)-c,16)-b,17)-b,18)-a,19)-a,20)-a

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Sample paper-2 (2010)

Paper II
Q.1. -Twenty multiple choice questions.
Q.2. – Briefly describe the following-
a) Wobble hypothesis
b) Chemical carcinogenesis
c) Nucleotide excision repair
Q.3. – Write short notes on-
a) Protein sparing effect of carbohydrates
b) Bicarbonate buffer system of blood
c) 15 minutes PSP excretion test
d) Renal production and excretion of ammonia
Q.4. -a) Discuss in brief the causes, clinical manifestations and laboratory diagnosis of AIDS.
b) What is the cause of Orotic aciduria? Which pathway is most affected? Outline the steps of that pathway and explain the basis of treatment of this disorder.
Q.5.- Explain the principle, procedure and applications of –
a) DNA finger printing
b) ELISA
c) Cloning of chimeric DNA
Q.6.- a) Discuss the significance of glucuronidation reactions of detoxification giving examples.
b) Describe the process of excessive uric acid production by abnormal activities of various enzymes. Explain the basis of using Allopurinol as a part of
treatment of hyperuricemia.
c) Describe in brief the mechanism of chromosomal translocation in the causation of various cancers. Give suitable examples in support of your answer.
Multiple Choice questions
Q.1- Selenium poisoning can be cured by administration of:
a) Benzyl amines
b) p- Bromo Benzene
c) Acetanilide
d) p- nitro benzaldehyde
Q.2- Atrial Natriuretic peptide (ANP) produces all except-
a) Natriuresis
b) Hypervolemia
c) Decreased blood pressure
d) Increased GFR.
Q.3- All of the following are associated with metabolic acidosis except-
a) Lactic acidosis
b) Starvation
c) Methanol poisoning
d) Prolonged diuretic therapy
Q.4- Feeding of raw egg white will result in the deficiency of –
a) Biotin
b) Thiamine
c) Choline
d) Riboflavin
Q.5- The ideal tumor marker for the diagnosis of pheochromocytoma is-
a) Serotonin
b) Catecholamines
c) Calcitonin
d) Insulin
Q.6- If the p H of the blood is 7.4 then the ratio of [NaHCO3] to [H2CO3] will be-
a) 4:1
b) 10:1
c) 20:1
d) none of the above.
Q.7- Prolonged administration of Acetazolamide (Diamox) as a diuretic in a patient of congestive heart failure will produce-
a) Acidic urine
b) Increase in NH4Cl excretion
c) Alkaline urine
d) none of the above.
Q.8- All are causes of water intoxication except-
a) Renal failure
b) Excessive administration of fluids
c) Deficiency of Aldosterone
d) Hypersecretion of Aldosterone
Q.9- The binding of the prokaryotic DNA dependent RNA polymerase to promoter site is inhibited by-
a) Streptomycin
b) Puromycin
c) Rifampicin
d) Tetracycline
Q.10-The mutagenesity of a compound can be detected by-
a) ELISA
b) Ame’s test
c) Western blotting
d) any of the above.
Q.11- A 20 year old man was diagnosed with abnormal form of β – globin (Hemoglobin Constant Spring) which is longer than the normal protein,
which of the following point mutation is consistent with the abnormality?
a) UAA——>CAA
b) CGA—–>UGA
c) UAA—->UAG
d) GAC—> UAC
Q.12- Antipyrin breath test is undertaken to diagnose underlying-
a) Hepatitis
b) Cancer
c) Tuberculosis
d) Renal failure.
Q.13- Sudden increase in γ-GT in chronic Alcoholics indicates:
a) Hepatitis
b) Intrahepatic cholestasis
c) Recent bout of drinking alcohol
d) All of the above.
Q.14- Urinary loss of Sodium occurs in-
a) Addison’s disease
b) Chronic renal failure
c) Diabetic keto acidosis
d) All of the above
Q.15- Carbonic anhydrase is absent in-
a) Parietal cells of stomach
b) Erythrocytes
c) Plasma
d) Renal tubular epithelial cells.
State True or False
Q.16- High intestinal obstruction causes metabolic acidosis.
Q.17- If urine of specific gravity 1.020 or more contains 3.0gms NaCl/liter, salt depletion is present.
Q.18- Serum Alkaline phosphatase level is abnormally low in obstructive jaundice.
Q.19- BMR is increased in Acromegaly.
Q.20- Aspirin is mainly detoxified by oxidation.
Model Answers
Q.1- b, 2-b, 3-d, 4-a, 5-b, 6-c, 7-c, 8-c, 9-c, 10-b, 11-a,
12-a, 13-c, 14-d, 15-c, 16- true, 17-true, 18-false, 19-true,
20-false.
Q2- Briefly describe
a) Wobble hypothesis- The mechanism by which the t RNAs can recognize more than one codon for a specific amino acid is described by the wobble
hypothesis, in which the base at the 5’end of the anticodon (the first base of the anticodon) is not as spatially defined as the other two bases. Movement of that
first base allows nontraditional base pairing with the 3’ base of the codon(the last base of the codon). This movement is called wobble and allows a single tRNA
to recognize more than one codon. The result of the wobbling is that there need to be 61 codons coding for amino acids. (The examples of traditional and
nontraditional base pairing are required to be given between the codon and the anticodon).
b) Chemical Carcinogenesis- A large number of chemicals have been incriminated as carcinogenic. Some of them are direct reacting and some are
procarcinogens and are converted to ultimate carcinogens in the body. The examples of chemical carcinogens are as follows-
1) Polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons-Benzpyrene and dimethyl benzanthracene.
2) Azo- dyes(Aromatic amines)- β nephthyl amines, N- methyl -4- amino azo benzene, 2-acetyl amino fluorine.
3) Nitrosamines and Amides-Dimethyl nitrosamines, Diethyl nitroso amines.
4) Naturally occurring compounds- Aflatoxin B1 produced by the fungus Aspergilus flavus.
5) Drugs- Alkylating and acylating agents e.g.- Cyclophosphamide, Busulfan.
diethyl stilbestrol, estrogen, Nitrogen Mustard, β- propiolactone.
6) Miscellaneous agents- Beryllium, Cadmium, Nickel, chromium, Arsenic, Asbestos, vinyl chloride, saccharine and cyclamates.
Mechanism of chemical carcinogenesis- the chemicals can be-
Direct reacting-which can interact directly with the target molecule.
Procarcinogens- are not chemically reactive. In the body after metabolism they are converted to ultimate carcinogens which are highly reactive. This process of
conversion is called metabolic activation. The enzyme systems involved in metabolic activation are cytochrome P450 species present in the endoplasmic
reticulum of cells.
DNA is the primary and the most important target of chemical carcinogens. Hence chemical carcinogens are mutagens. The damage to DNA occurs can
be-
– binding covalently with DNA(also to RNA and proteins)

– Interaction with purine, pyrimidines and phosphodiester groups of DNA
– Most common site of attack is guanine .
C) Nucleotide Excision repair-
The exposure of a cell to ultraviolet light can result in the covalent joining of two adjacent pyrimidines(Usually Thymines) producing a dimer. These thymine
dimers prevent the DNA polymerase to further replicate the DNA strand beyond the site of dimer formation. The dimers are excised in prokaryotes by
Nucleotide excision repair. The similar mechanisms operate in human beings.
1. Recognition of dimer by UV specific endonuclease- First a UV specific endonuclease recognizes the dimer and cleaves the damaged strand at the 5’side
of the dimer.
2. Excision of damaged DNA-Next an excision endonuclease recognizes the incision made by the endonuclease. The stretch of the DNA containing the
dimer is removed and the gap is filled by using the sister strand as a template by DNA polymerase. The nick is sealed by DNA ligase.
3. Xeroderma pigmentosum-The pyrimidine dimers can be formed in the skin cells of humans exposed to UV light. In the rare genetic disease Xeroderma
pigmentosum, the cells can not repair the damaged DNA strand, resulting in extensive accumulation of the mutations and consequently skin cancers. The
most common form of the disease is caused by the absence of the UV specific endonuclease.
Q.2- a) Protein sparing effect of carbohydrates-
Adequate amount of carbohydrates and fats in the diet may reduce the protein requirement. This may be due to metabolic products of carbohydrates such as
oxaloacetate, pyruvate and alpha keto glutarate which provide the carbon skeleton for the formation of non essential amino acids through transamination.
Carbohydrates reduce the requirement of the amino acids for gluconeogenesis. Both carbohydrates and fats are oxidized to produce energy and thus spare the
proteins to be used for this purpose.
b)Bicarbonate buffer system of blood
This consists of a weak acid “Carbonic acid and its corresponding salt with a strong base (Sodium bicarbonate).
Normal ratio in blood – NaHCO3: H2CO3– 20:1
They are the chief buffers of blood and constitute the Alkali reserve of the body. Neutralization of the strong acids and non volatile acids entering the ECF is
achieved by the bicarbonate buffers. Such acids, e.g.- HCl. H2SO4, Lactic acid, etc which are strong and volatile react with NaHCO3 component forming
H2CO3. Thus a strong and non volatile acid is converted to a volatile and weak acid, which is eliminated through alveoli of lungs. Hence bicarbonate buffer
system is linked directly with respiration.
Similarly when alkaline substance enters e.g. NaOH enters the ECF, it reacts with the acid component of the buffer system, and forming H2O.Thus the p H is
maintained.
Advantages of bicarbonate system-

-It is present in very high concentration as compared to other buffers.
– Produces H2CO3 which is weak and volatile and CO2 ie exhaled out.
Thus it is a very good physiological buffer and acts as a front line defence.
Disadvantage of bicarbonate buffer
As a chemical buffer it’s a weak buffer as pKa is further away from the physiological pH
c) 15 minutes PSP excretion Test
This test is based on the fact that in the first 15 minutes 30 -50 % of the injected dye is excreted in urine which is an index of the adequate renal functions.
Test and interpretations-
When 1 ml of PSP(6mg) is injected IV, normal kidney will excrete 30-50% of the dye in first 15 minutes.
Excretion of less than 23% of the injected dye during this period regardless of the amount excreted in 2 hours indicates impaired renal functions.
It is also used to determine the function of each kidney separately. Here the appearance time and the rate of excretion of the dye are important. Increase in
appearance time and the decrease in excretion rate indicate impaired renal functions.
c) Renal production and excretion of ammonia-
Ammonia mechanism operates in the distal tubular cells, for the elimination of H+ ions and the conservation of Na+.
Sources of Ammonia-
1) Ammonia is produced by the hydrolysis of Glutamine by the enzyme Glutaminase which is present in these cells.
2) In addition NH3 is also produced from other amino acids by the oxidative Deamination by L- amino acid oxidase.
3) It can also be formed from the glycine by the Glycine oxidase enzyme.
The NH3 thus formed forms Ammonium ion by combining with H+ ions and ammonium ion can exchange Na+ from NaCl.
The ammonia production is greatly increased in metabolic acidosis and is reduced in alkalosis. The activity of the Glutaminase enzyme is also enhanced in
acidosis.. This mechanism is important for the conservation of the fixed bases.
Q4- a) AIDS is caused by a virus called Human Immuno deficiency virus. HIV belongs to the retrovirus group. They are RNA containing viruses that replicate
with the help of the reverse transcriptase enzyme.75% of the total patients get this infection through sex. In about 15% of the patients the disease is transmitted
through blood. Virus may be transmitted from mother to fetus through placenta. About 30% of the infants born of HIV positive mothers may get the infection.
Clinical presentations–
Lymphadenopathy and fever may be seen at the end of the second stage. As the name indicates the basic defect lies in the immunodeficiency. This is mainly
because the T helper cells are decreased in number. Since the immunity id deficient, non pathogenic micro organism enter the body and produce lesions in the
skin, gastro intestinal tract, lungs, urinary tract and brain. Gastroenteritis and tuberculosis are the predominant pattern inIndia. In all the cases there is weight
reduction and Kaposi’s sarcoma is also commonly associated with AIDS.
Laboratory Analysis
1) The antibodies in the blood are detected by ELISA test, but there is a chance of false positive test, so all the positive cases are confirmed by Western Blot
analysis. In ELISA the antibody against only one antigen (gp120) is tested, so there is probability of false result.
2) In Western Blot analysis, antibodies against 6 different components of the virus are analyzed, so its confirmatory.
3) T helper count is lowered. The normal level is more than 400/cmm. In AIDS patients the level is always is below 300/cmm. As the disease progresses the,
the T helper count is correspondingly is lowered.
4) In the last stages the p24 antigen starts rising.
5) By Reveres transcriptase polymerase chain reaction, or by real time PCR, the number of HIV particles in blood can be estimated, value of less than 5000
copies per ml of blood has good prognosis, while a count more than 100, 000 per ml means a very bad prognosis.
c) Orotic aciduria
This condition results from absence of either or both of the enzymes, OPRTase and OMP decarboxylase. It is an autosomal recessive disease, characterised by
retarded growth and megaloblastic anemia. The rapidly growing cells are most affected, hence there is anemiaCrystalsare excreted in urine, which may cause
urinary tract obstruction. Due to the lack of feed back inhibition orotic acid production is excessive. The condition can be treated by feeding cytidine or Uridine.
The may be converted to UTP which can act as feed back inhibitor.
This defect is associated with the pathway of Denovo pyrimidine synthesis.
Steps are to be mentioned.
Q5- a) DNA finger printing
There are tandem repeats (VNTR) in chromosomes. The number of such repeats sites varies from person to person, but the number is unique for a given person.
Therefore it serves as a molecular finger print. It is also known as a DNA profile. Probability of similarity between two persons is only 1 in 3×1010persons.
DNA probes have been developed, so that at low stringency, they hybridize to a number of loci to produce individual specific finger prints. The technique is
used identify the criminals and also used in disputes of parenthood. DNA can be isolated from the stains on clothing made by blood or semen stained even
several years ago.
DNA finger printing is more applied in medico legal cases.
b) ELISA
This Technique is widely used for detecting antigens, antibodies, estimating hormones, growth factors and tumor markers etc. This test is commonly employed
to detect antigens or antibodies present in very small concentration in tissues or blood.
Antigen detection by ELISA Method
The specific antibody is fixed to the well of the micro titer plate. The patient’s serum is added to the well and incubated for 30 minutes at 37 degree centigrade.
By this time if the serum contains antibodies it would have fixed to the well. Excess antigen and unwanted proteins are washed out and the antibody tagged with
hose radish peroxidase is added. If the antigen is already fixed, the Ab-HRP conjugate will be fixed to the well. Then a color reagent containing hydrogen
peroxide is added to the well. Color is developed. The development of the color indicates that the Ag is originally present in the patient’s serum. The intensity of
the color formed is proportional to the amount og the antigen present in the given sample.
Based on the specific affinity the antibodies can also be detected by this method.
c) Cloning of chimeric DNA- cloning allows the production of a large number of identical molecules. The steps involved are-
1) Preparation of chimeric DNA molecules
2) Transfection of the vector in to the host
3) Selection of the colony carrying the desired genes
4) Amplification of the gene.
All steps are to be elaborated with diagrams. The applications of this technology in the field of medicine, agriculture and industrial fields are to be discussed in
brief.
Q.6- a) Glucuronidation reactions of detoxifications
These reactions are for the detoxification of toxic substances. UDP Glucuronic acid is formed in the uronic pathway. Glucuronyl transferase is the enzyme
responsible for the detoxification reactions. Various substances that are conjugated with Glucuronic acid are as follows-
1) Bilirubin to form bilirubin diglucuronide.
2) Aromatic acids e.g.- Benzoic acid
3) Phenols and other secondary and tertiary aliphatic alcohols
4) Morphine, menthol, acetanilide, sulfa, pyridine etc.
5) Hormones like thyroid hormones, derivatives of steroids etc
b) Hyperuricemia by abnormal activities of enzymes
The activities of PRPP synthetase, amido transferase, HGPRTase, Glucose-6 phosphatase and Glutathione reductase are to be mentioned.
The use of Allopurinol as a competitive inhibitor of Xanthine oxidase is to be mentioned.
d) Chromosomal Translocation- Most of the tumor cells show chromosomal abnormality, in which a piece of one chromosome is split off and joined to
another chromosome. If the second chromosome also donates the piece to the first then is is called reciprocal translocation.
The examples of Burkitt’s lymphoma, chronic granulocytic leukemia are to be mentioned with diagrams.

Posted in Past Papers, University papers with model answers
Sample papers with model answers(2010)- Paper- 1 and 2

Q.1-20 multiple choice questions .
Q-2- a) Describe the reaction catalyzed by phosphofructo kinase-1 enzyme and explain how is it regulated?
b) Give a diagrammatic representation of sites of ATP formation and inhibitors of the mitochondrial Electron Transport Chain.
Q.3- a) Describe various mechanisms of enzyme inhibition. Mention the clinical uses of enzyme inhibitors.
b) Describe the steps of urea formation and discuss the mechanism of ammonia intoxication of brain.
Q.4- a) Explain the causes, clinical manifestations and laboratory diagnosis of-
i) Albinism
ii) Von Gierke’s disease
b) Calculate the energy yield from the complete oxidation of one molecule of glucose under aerobic conditions.
Q.5- a) Describe the steps of beta oxidation of fatty acids. What is the clinical significance of this pathway?
b) Give a diagrammatic representation of structure of a lipoprotein molecule.
c) Discuss the causes, and effects of denaturation of proteins.
Q.6- Write short note on-
a) Vitamin C deficiency
b) Rancidity
c) Lipotropic agents
d) Cori’s cycle
Q.1- Acetyl co A carboxylase enzyme requires ————— as a coenzyme.
a) FMN
b) Biotin
c) NAD+
d) TPP
Q.2- All are intermediates of glycolysis except-
a) Glucose-6 phosphate
b) Fructose 1, 6 bisphosphate
c) Fructose-6- phosphate
d) Glycerol – 3- phosphate
Q.3- In the de novo synthesis of fatty acids, Acetyl co A first gets converted to –
a) Mevalonate
b) Malonyl co A
c) Malonate
d) D-Methyl malonyl co A
Q.4- All of the following compounds are synthesized from Tyrosine except-
a) Melanin
b) Catecholamines
c) Thyronine
d) Creatinine
Q.5- Which of the following is predominantly required for coagulation of blood-
a) Sodium
b) Calcium
c) Potassium
d) Magnesium
Q.6- Hemoglobin is a
a) Nucleoprotein
b) Glycoprotein
c) Phosphoprotein
d) Chromo protein
Q.7- Cholesterol is a precursor of all except-–
a) Bile pigment
b) Sex hormones
c) Vitamin D
d) Corticosteroids
Q.8- Phospholipase A2 can be found in –
a) Pancreatic juice
b) Gastric juice
c) CSF
d) Amniotic fluid
Q.9-The disease resulting from vitamin B12 deficiency is-
a) Pernicious anemia
b) Night blindness
c) Beri-Beri
d) Scurvy
Q.10- Serotonin is synthesized from which of the following amino acid?
a) Phenylalanine
b) Glycine
c) Tryptophan
d) Methionine
Q.11- Prostaglandins are synthesized from –
a) Arachidonic acid
b) Stearic acid
c) Palmitic acid
d) Oleic acid
Q.12- The biochemical defect in Niemann–pick disease, is deficiency of-
a) Glucose-6 –phosphate dehydrogenase
b) Hexosaminidase –A
c) Glucose-6-phosphatse
d) Sphingomyelinase
Q.13- In an enzyme assay, in which the substrate concentration is much higher than Km, the rate
a) Approaches half Vmax
b) Shows first order kinetics
c) is independent of enzyme concentration
d) shows zero order kinetics
Q.14- Formation of UDP Galactose from Galactose-1-P is catalyzed by-
a) Hexokinase
b) Aldolase
c) Galactokinase
d) Galactose-1-P Uridyl transferase
Q.15- All are found in obstructive jaundice except-
a) Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia
b) Bilirubinuria
c) Raised Alkaline phosphatase
d) Dark tarry stools
Q.16- The excretion of which of the following compound is greatly increased in urine in Carcinoid syndrome-
a) Indole acetic acid
b) 5- hydroxy Tryptamine
c) 5- hydroxy tryptophan
d) 5- Hydroxy Indole acetic acid
Q.17- The iso electric p H of which of the following proteins is 4.6-
a) Zein
b) Casein
c) Keratin
d) Myosin
Q.18- The reaction catalyzed by- Lactate dehydrogenase is-
a) Pyruvate <—————————–> Lactate
b) Pyruvate—————————–>Oxaloacetate
c) Pyruvate—————————-> Acetyl Co A
d) Pyruvate—————————->Acetaldehyde
Q.19- The key regulatory enzyme of HMP pathway is-
a) G- 6-phosphate dehydrogenase
b) Transaldolase
c) Transketolase
d) G-6-phophatase
Q.20- Pellagra is caused by nutritional deficiency of-
a) Vitamin B12
b) B6
c) Niacin
d) Folic acid
Model Answers- Paper -I
Q.1- Multiple Choice Questions-
1-b
2-d
3-b
4-d
5-b
6-d
7-a
8-a
9-a
10-c
11-a
12-d
13-d
14-d
15-d
16-d
17-b
18-a
19-a
20-c
Q2- a) Reaction catalyzed by phosphofructo kinase-1 enzyme – This is the rate limiting enzyme of glycolysis. It catalyzes the formation of Fr 1,6
bisphosphate from Fr-6-p.It is regulated by substrate concentration, product inhibition, allosteric modification and by induction or repression. Insulin favours
while glucagon and catecholamines inhibit glycolysis. Hypoxia also stimulates glycolysis. Allosterically fr-2,6 bisphosphate acts as a positive modifier while
ATP acts as negative modifier.
Details are needed
b) A diagrammatic representation of sites of ATP formation and inhibitors of the mitochondrial Electron Transport Chain- The four complexes of ETC
are to be represented showing the entry of reduced coenzymes, and the sites of ATP formation . The sites of site specific inhibitors are to be shown.
Q.3- a) Mechanisms of enzyme inhibition- Enzymes can be inhibited by-
a) Competitive inhibition
b) Non Competitive inhibition
c) Un Competitive inhibition
d) Allosteric inhibition
Clinically enzyme inhibitors are used as drugs for the treatment of various diseases. The role of ACE inhibitors for the treatment of hypertension, Methotrexate
and various other for cancers, Statins for hypercholesterolemia, Sulphonamides, Trimethoprim and Penicillin as antibacterial agents etc are to be referred
mentioning the inhibition of the specific enzymes.
3-b) Steps of Urea formation- Urea is formed in liver from Ammonia and CO2, which condense together to form Carbamoyl- phosphate in the presence of
CPS-I enzyme. Carbamoyl- phosphate further condenses with ornithine to form Citrulline. Citrulline condenses with aspartic acid to form Argino succinic acid
which is subsequently cleaved to form Arginine and fumarate. Fumarate is converted to malate, then to Oxaloacetate, which is transaminated to form Aspartate.
Aspartate can re enter the cyclic pathway. On the other hand Arginine is cleaved to form Ornithine and urea. Ornithine can be reutilized for the continuation of
the cycle.
Reactions are to be shown
Ammonia is toxic to brain, as it depletes Alpha keto glutarate, and glutamate resulting in depression of TCA cycle and reduced formation of GABA the
inhibitory neurotransmitter. Glutamine level is increased which is transported out in return for Tryptophan. Tryptophan is a precursor for serotonin, an excitatory
neurotransmitter. All these result in energy depletion due to depression of TCA cycle and hyperexcitaion due to excessive Serotonin production. Convulsions
and coma are the signs on ammonia intoxication. Death occurs in untreated cases.
Q.4- a) i) Albinism- is a disorder of Tyrosine metabolism. There is deficiency of Tyrosinase enzyme; as a result there is impaired formation of Melanin. The
affected patients show depigmentation of iris, skin and hair. Based on the type of defect, Albinism can be ocular, occulocutaneous or partial. Diagnosis is made
by clinical manifestations and by estimation of Tyrosinase enzyme in cultured cells. No permanent cure only symptomatic treatment can be imparted.
ii) Von-Gierke’s disease- It is a type 1 glycogen storage disease. The defect lies in the deficiency of Glucose-6 phosphatase enzyme. There is impaired
glycogen degradation and hence normal glycogen gets abnormally accumulated in liver, intestine and kidney. Hypoglycemia is a characteristic finding. Short
stature, protuberant abdomen, pallor, bleeding tendencies and impairment of liver and kidney functions are typical of this disease. Hyperuricemia, hypoglycemia
and lactic acidosis are diagnostic. No permanent cure, only symptomatic treatment is given.
Details are needed
b) Energy yield from the complete oxidation of one molecule of glucose under aerobic conditions-38 ATPs are produced from the complete oxidation of
one molecule of Glucose. The details of energetic of Glycolysis, Pyruvate dehydrogenase complex and the oxidation of Acetyl co A in TCA cycle are to be
mentioned.8 ATPs in glycolysis, 6 in PDH complex and 24 ATPs in TCA cycle are produced making a total of 38 ATPs.
Q.5-a) Steps of beta oxidation of fatty acids-
Activation to form Acyl co A, internalization to mitochondrial matrix through carnitine shuttle and the subsequent steps of beta oxidation in the form of
dehydrogenation, hydration, dehydrogenation and thiolytic cleavage are to be mentioned. The total energy yield is to be explained. The clinical significance lies
in medium chain acyl co A dehydrogenase deficiency and carnitine deficiency producing hypoglycemia due to imbalance between demand and supply of
energy.
b) Structure of lipoprotein molecule- Lipoproteins are conjugated proteins for the transportation of lipids. The hydrophilic exterior of lipoprotein is made by
apoproteins, free cholesterol and by phospholipids while the hydrophobic core is constituted by triglycerides, cholesteryl ester etc. All have to be represented by
a clean diagram.
c) Denaturation- The process of disruption of the secondary, tertiary or quaternary structure if present of proteins is called Denaturation. The primary structure
remains intact. Application of heat, strong acids, strong alkalies, heavy metal salts and physical factors like vigorous shaking and freezing can bring about
Denaturation. The Denaturation in most cases is irreversible but it can be reversible also as in iso electric p H pecipitation or denaturation of Ribonuclease in the
presence of urea.
Protein loses its biological property on Denaturation. There is total functional loss on Denaturation. Details are to be provided for the types and effects of
Denaturation.
Q.6- a) Vitamin C deficiency is manifested in the form of scurvy, which is characterized by bleeding tendencies, bony changes and microcytic hypochromic
anemia. Causes, detection of deficiency and treatment are to be mentioned
b) Rancidity- It is the unpleasant smell and taste given by fats when kept for a long time or exposed to air. It is due to partial hydrolysis or oxidation of fats
producing fatty aldehydes. Anti oxidants can be added to prevent rancidity. Brief reference of lipid peroxidation is also required to be mentioned.
c) Lipotropic agents- Essential fatty acids, choline. Betaine, methionine, vitamin B6, B12 and folic acid are called as lipotropic agents. They are so called
lipotropic agents as they prevent the deposition of fats in liver cells and promote fat mobilization from liver to peripheral tissues. Deficiency of these factors
produces fatty liver.
d) Cori’s cycle- Transportation of lactate from muscles through blood to liver for conversion to glucose and transportation of glucose from liver back to
muscles for utilization in the glycolytic pathway for energy production and production of lactate which is transported to liver again and again in the same way,
this constitutes cori’s cycle. It is meant for disposal of waste product of muscle i.e. lactate for glucose production. Accumulation of lactate in muscles produces
fatigue,
Paper II
Q.1- 20 multiple choice questions ,
Q.2- a) What is the significance of maintenance of p H in body? Give a brief account of role of kidneys in the regulation of acid and base balance of the body.
b) Briefly discuss the role of ATP in the biological system.
c) Discuss the biochemical basis of hyperuricemia in HGPRTase deficiency.
Q.3-a) Discuss the salient features of Transcription of DNA.
b) Briefly discuss about post translational modifications.
c) What are the possible causes of DNA damage? How is this damage repaired?
Q.4- a) Give a detailed account of Respiratory acidosis, mentioning the possible causes, alterations in laboratory profile, compensation by the regulatory
mechanisms and the consequences in untreated cases.
b) Describe the role of Renin -Angiotensin system in the maintenance of water and electrolyte balance of the body;
Q.5- a) Discuss the causes of Protein energy malnutrition. What are the possible risk factors associated with it and how can this be treated?
b) A 20 year-old drug addict has reported to emergency complaining of fever, cough, diarrhea and weight loss from the last few months. He is too weak to
walk. There is a suspicion of HIV infection. How will you proceed for the diagnosis? What seems to be the possible cause for HIV infection in this patient?
What are the various modes of transmission of HIV infection?
Q.6- Write short note on-
a) Biochemistry of cancer cells
b) Galactose tolerance test
c) Thin layer chromatography
Q.1- In protein synthesis which out of the following is a termination codon?
a) UAU
b) UAC
c) UGA
d) UGG
Q.2- A promoter site on DNA –
a) is present upstream to the start site
b) is present on the coding strand
c) Initiates transcription
d) All of the above
Q.3- All are true for DNA polymerase except one-
a) Has exonuclease activity
b) Works only in 5`to 3` direction
c) Edits as it synthesizes
d) Synthesizes RNA primer to initiate DNA synthesis.
Q.4- Which of the following result is provided by Western Blot Analysis
a) Detects DNA molecules
b) Detects Protein molecules
c) Detects RNA molecules
d) Determines chromosomal structure
Q.5- Which of the following is an anticancer drug?
a) 5- methyl thymidine
b) Ribose phosphate
c) Ara C
d) PRPP (5- phosphoribosylpyrophosphate)
Q.6- All are true regarding Nephrotic syndrome except-
a) Hypoglycemia
b) Proteinuria
c) Edema
d) Hypoproteinemia
Q.7- Urinary finding in Starvation is
a) Glycosuria
b) Ketonuria
c) Proteinuria
d) oliguria
Q.8- What is true of Diabetes Insipidus?
a) High specific gravity of urine
b) Oliguria
c) Deficiency of ADH hormone
d) Glycosuria
Q.9- LDH is increased in-
a)Acute MI
b) Hemolytic anemia
c) Liver diseases
Q.10- Approximately ———– of bile acids are excreted in feces per day
a) 2 00 G
b) 200 mg
c) 400 G
d) 400 mg
Q.11- Essential fatty acids can be synthesized in-
a) Human beings
b) Animals
c) plants
d) None of the above
Q.12- A condition where the amount of nitrogen lost from the body exceeds the dietary intake is called as:
a) Negative nitrogen balance
b) Nitrogen equilibrium
c) Positive nitrogen balance
d) Uremia.
Q.13- Which of the following sugar is found in RNA?
a) 2- deoxy Ribose
b) 3-deoxy Ribose
c) D- Ribose
d) D- Xylulose
Q.14- Congenital absence of Adenosine deaminase causes-
a) Immunodeficiency
b) Hyperglycemia
c) Hyperuricemia
d) Hyperoxaluria
Q.15- All are nucleosides except-
a) Cytosine
b) Guanosine
c) Inosine
d) Adenosine
Q.16- An anxious, nervous female was breathing rapidly. What do you expect the acid base status of the body?
a) Metabolic acidosis
b) Metabolic alkalosis
c) Respiratory acidosis
d) Respiratory Alkalosis
Q.17- Periods of prolonged starvation will produce what type of acid base alteration in the body?
a) Metabolic acidosis
b) Metabolic alkalosis
c) Respiratory acidosis
d) Respiratory Alkalosis
Q.18- All are inhibitors of protein synthesis except-
a) Streptomycin
b)Erythromycin
c) Oligomycin
d) Tetracycline
Q.19- All of the following are observed in high fibre diet except-
a) Reduced incidence of constipation
b) Decrease in blood cholesterol
c) Increased frequency of hyperglycemia
d) Decreased risk of colon cancer
Q.20-If there is an increased concentration of glucose in urine, the most likely cause could be–
a) Starvation
b) Alcoholism
c) Diabetes mellitus
d) Hepatitis
Model Answers- Paper- II
Q.1-Multiple choice questions
1-c
2-d
3-d
4-b
5-c
6-a
7-b
8-c
9-d
10-d
11-c
12-a
13-c
14-a
15-a
16-d
17-a
18-c
19-c
20-c
Q.2-a) Significance of maintenance of p H in the body- p H maintainenance is required for the proper functioning of proteins, enzymes, DNA, nerve
conduction ,muscle contraction, as well as for the flow of substances across the membranes. Blood buffers, lungs and kidney play a significant role in the
maintenance of body p H. Kidneys promote excretion of H+ and reabsorption of bicarbonate ions depending on acid base status of the body. The bicarbonate,
phosphate and ammonia mechanisms are required to be explained giving diagrammatic representations.
b) Role of ATP in the biological system- ATP is considered the energy currency of cell. Various examples of exergonic reactions are to be mentioned. Sources
of ATP i.e. from oxidative phosphorylation and substrate level phosphorylation are to be mentioned.
c) Biochemical basis of hyperuricemia in HGPRTase deficiency- HGPRTase deficiency is manifested as Lesch Nyhan syndrome. Hyperuricemia is due to
non utilization of PRPP which in turn is used for Denovo synthesis of purine nucleotides. Purines can not be utilized by Salvaged pathway; hence they are
catabolized to form uric acid. Excess synthesis and catabolism of purines is the cause of hyperuricemia in this defect.
Q.3- Salient features of Transcription of DNA

I) Transcription process includes initiation, elongation and termination.
2) There are specific sites on DNA that act as start signals for initiation process. The RNA polymerase attaches at the promoter site on the template strand.
3)The region between promoter and terminator sites on DNA site is called as Transcription unit, which is transcribed in to mRNA.
4) Bacterial RNA polymerases differ from eukaryotic RNA polymerases.
5) One of the strand acts as a template and the base pairing rule is followed.
6) There is no proof reading, hence less fidelity is there.
7) Specific signals are recognized for termination by termination protein, the Rho factor. The termination can also be Rho independent.
8) The primary transcript thus formed undergoes post transcriptional modifications.
b) Post translational modifications- The mature functional protein is formed by the post translational processes, which include the following processes-
1) Proteolytic cleavage
2) Modification of the amino acids
3) Sub unit aggregation etc. are to be discussed with suitable examples.
c) DNA damage and repair
Following are the possible causes of DNA damage –
1) Misincorporation of deoxy ribonucleotides during replication
2) Spontaneous Deamination of bases
3) From X- Rays that cause nicks in the DNA
4) From UV radiations that cause Thymine dimer formation
5) From various chemicals that interact with the DNA
Mechanisms of repair– Several methods are there –
1) Excision repair
2) Photo reactivation
3) Recombinational repair
4) Mismatch repair
Q.4-a) Respiratory acidosis
Primary excess of carbonic acid produces respiratory acidosis. Respiratory acidosis may result from bronchopneumonia or status asthmaticus. Depression of
respiratory centre by sedatives or narcotics; chronic obstructive pulmonary diseases etc cause difficulty in breathing resulting in retention of carbonic acid.
Renal compensation occurs by excretion of more H+ and retention of bicarbonates.
Alterations in p H, blood gas analysis etc to be mentioned.
Treatment depends on the primary cause.
Details are needed
b) Role of Renin -Angiotensin system in the maintenance of water and electrolyte balance of the body- Renin is a proteoltic enzyme released from the
kidney. It is released in response to the fall in sodium ion concentration, Hypovolemia, hypotension and a fall in intra cellular calcium ion conc., All these
factors stimulate the release of Renin from J.G. cells to blood. The action of Renin is mediated through the release of Angiotensin I from Angiotensinogen.
Angiotensin I is then converted to Angiotensin II and then to Angiotensin III. Both the later Angiotensins cause the release of Aldosteron from the Adrenal
cortex, which causes the absorption of Sodium ions to restore the blood pressure and the fluid volume. The interdependence of Renin- Angiotensin system and
the Aldosteron is to be discussed. The clinical significance and the use of ACE inhibitors for the treatment of Hypertension are to be discussed.
Q.5- a) Protein energy malnutrition
At one end of the spectrum is Marasmus which results from a continued and the severe deficiency of both dietary energy and proteins (primary calorie in
adequacy and Secondary protein deficiency). At the other end of the spectrum is Kwashiorkor, where isolated deficiency of proteins along with adequate calorie
intake is seen.
A brief description of the causes, clinically symptoms and laboratory findings is to be given. The possible treatment is also required to be mentioned.
b) Transmission of HIV- The various routs like the blood, placenta, sex etc are to me mentioned. The cause of HIV infection in this patient seems to be drug
abuse.
Q.6-a) Biochemistry of cancer cells- cancer cells are characterized by three important properties-Diminished or unrestricted growth, Capability of invasion of
local tissues and capability of spread to distant places by metastasis . The characteristics of cancer cells – the morphological and biochemical changes are to be
discussed.
b) Galactose tolerance test- It is an index of impaired liver functions. When galactose load is given , it is exclusively metabolized in liver and is converted to
glucose The rate of utilization is proportional to functional liver cell mass. Details of procedure and observations in cirrhosis of liver and infective hepatitis are
to be mentioned.
c) Thin layer chromatography
This is another version of the liquid- liquid chromatography. A thin layer of the silica gel is spread on a glass plate, biological sample is applied as a small spot
.T he plate is placed in a trough containing the solvent.. The stationary water phase is held on the silica gel and the mobile phase of non polar solvent moves up.
In the case of TLC it takes only 3-4 hours for the separation of the substances in comparison to Paper chromatography which takes 14-16 hours, that is a distinct
advantage for TLC.

Sample papers with model answers(2009)-Paper-1

Q.N.1- 20 multiple choice questions on a separate sheet.
Q.N.2- a) What are the salient features of an a-helix? Name two amino acids that destabilize this structure.
b) Give an account of the biochemical changes in the blood of a phenylketonuric subject. How will you proceeds for the diagnosis and treatment of this
disease?
c) Outline 3 metabolic roles of glycine.
Q.N.3– a) Describe the steps of de novo synthesis of fatty acids? How is this process regulated?
b) Explain the significance of the enzyme b-hydroxy-b-methylglutaryl CoA (HMG-CoA) Reductase.
Q.N.4- a) Explain why are the following compounds toxic: (i) Rotenone (ii) 2, 4-dinitrophenol (iii) Atractyloside.
b) Explain how alcohol consumption by an undernourished person can cause hypoglycemia.
c) Explain why the breath of an untreated diabetic smells of acetone.
d) Explain how the monitoring of glycosylated hemoglobin (HbAIc) levels is useful in the treatment of diabetes mellitus.
Q.N.5- Write short notes on-
a) Visual cycle
b) One carbon metabolism.
c) Enzyme Inhibition
Q.N.6- a) Briefly discuss the mechanism of iron absorption from the intestinal lumen. What is its biological and clinical significance?
b) Give an example of:
(i) cyclic fatty acid
(ii) polyunsaturated fatty acid and
(iii) Glycolipids.
c) Give the biochemical explanation for the presence of high levels of (i) Ketone and (ii) Methylmalonic acid in the urine.
Multiple Choice Questions
Q.N.1- Which of the following monosaccharide is not an aldose?
a) Ribose
b) Glucose
c) Fructose
d) Glyceraldehyde.
Q.N.2- Which of the following enzymes catalyzes a reaction that involves a decarboxylation reaction?
a).Pyruvate dehydrogenase
b) Isocitrate dehydrogenase
c) α-keto glutarate dehydrogenase
d) all of the above.
Q.N.3- In the enzyme catalyzed reactions when the conc. of the substrate is too high the reaction order is-
a) Zero order
b) First order
c) Second order
d) Third order.
Q.N.4-. The primary defect which leads to sickle cell anemia is:
a)An abnormality in porphyrin part of hemoglobin.
b Replacement of glutamate by Valine in β-chain of HbA.
c).A nonsense mutation in the β -chain of HbA.
d)Substitution of Valine by glutamate in the α -chain of HbA.
Q.N.5-Which of the following is a sugar alcohol?
a) Gluconic acid
b) Mannitol
c) Maltose
d) Xylulose
Q.N.6- In Tangier’s disease-
a) HDL is more in plasma
b) HDL is less in plasma
c) LDL is more in plasma
d) LDL is lesst in plasma.
Q.N.7- All are nitrogen containing compounds except-
a) Catecholamines
b) Thyroid hormones
c) Creatine
d) Fructose-6-phosphate.
Q.N.8- Absorption of calcium is enhanced by the presence of vitamin-
a) A
b) D
c) K
d) B1
Q.N.9- All are proteins that include a porphyrin ring except-
a) Catalase
b) Myoglobin
c) Fibrinogen
d) Cytochrome
Q.N.10-Enzymes of TCA cycle are found in-
a) Cytoplasm
b) Mitochondria
c) Lysosomes
d) None of the above.
Q.N.11- Histidine is catabolized by opening the ring to produce-
a) Formimino Glutamic acid
b) Ornithine
c) γ-amino butyric acid
d) p- amino benzoic acid
Q.N.12-Which metal is responsible for imparting red color to vitamin B12-
a) Magnesium
b) Cobalt
c) Chromium
d) Zinc
Q.N.13- Zinc is a part of the structure of the following enzyme-
a) Pepsin
b) Carbonic Anhydrase
c) Trypsin
d) Cytochrome Oxidase.
Q.N.14- Pellagra is characterized by-
a) Gastroenteritis
b) Osteomalacia
c) Aplastic anemia
d) Exfoliative dermatitis.
Q.N.15- Creatine is present in urine in-
a) Thyrotoxicosis
b) Starvation
c) Myasthenia Gravis
State True or False
Q.N.16- Tay Sach’s disease is a Glycogen Storage disease.
Q.N.17- Serotonin is derived from Tryptophan.
Q.N.18-Ammonium ion is toxic to the brain.
Q.N.19-Muscles can efficiently synthesize glucose.
Q.N.20- 131ATP molecules are produced by the complete oxidation of one molecule of Palmitic acid.
Model Answers
Q.N.1-(Multiple Choice Questions)
1- c,
2-d,
3-a,
4-b,
5-b,
6-b,
7-d,
8-b,
9-c,
10-b,
11-a,
12-b
13-b,
14-d,
15-d,
16-False,
17-True,
18-True,
19-False,
20-False.
Q.N.2-a)-Salient features of Alpha helix-
1) The Alpha helix is a spiral structure.
2) The structure is stabilized by Hydrogen bonds between NH and C=O groups of the main chain.
3) Each turn is formed by 3.6 residues.
4) The distance between each amino acid residue is 1.5A.
5) It is generally right-handed.
6) In proteins like Hb and Myoglobin the alpha helix is abundant.
7) Two amino acids that disrupt the helix are proline and hydroxy proline.
Diagram and the list of participating amino acids / amino acids causing disruption of helix are to be given
b) Biochemical changes in the blood of a phenylketonuric subject- Phenyl Alanine can’t be converted to Tyrosine , it accumulates and alternate minor
pathways are opened. Phenyl pyruvate, phenyl lactate and phenyl acetate accumulate in blood and are excreted in urine.
Diagnosis is made by blood phenyl Alanine levels, Guthrie test and urine ferric chloride test.
Treatment is based on early detection. The principle of treatment is to provide a diet containing low phenyl Alanine. Gene therapy is the permanent cure.
Details of reactions are needed
c) 3 metabolic roles of glycine.
1) Formation of Haem
2) For detoxification of toxic substances
3) For the formation of bile salts.
Reactions and the clinical significance of each is needed.
Q.N.3-a) steps of de novo synthesis of fatty acids- all the steps of incorporation of acetyl co A and Malony co A to the enzyme. The steps of reduction,
dehydration and reduction are to be explained. The repetition of cycles and the energy yield etc is to be explained.
b)- significance of enzyme b-hydroxy-b-methylglutaryl CoA (HMG-CoA) Reductase- it is a key regulatory enzyme of cholesterol synthesis. It is regulated
by feed back inhibition, covalent modification, allosteric modification and by diet induced induction or repression. It is competitively inhibited by statins which
are used for lowering plasma cholesterol levels.
Reaction and some details are needed.
Q.N.4- a)The following compounds are toxic because
(i) Rotenone – It inhibits the first complex of ETC, thus there is no ATP formation and death occurs due to metabolic derangements.
(ii) 2, 4-dinitrophenol- It is an uncoupler of oxidative phosphorylation
(iii) Atractyloside- inhibits ATP/ADP translocase.
b) Alcohol consumption by an undernourished person can cause hypoglycemia- Alcohol is metabolized by alcohol dehydrogenase and aldehyde
dehydrogenase, which utilize NAD+, as a result NADH accumulates and all the reactions where NAD+ is utilized are inhibited and the reactions where NADH
is utilized are promoted. Hence oxaloacetate and pyruvate are converted to malate and lactate respectively limiting the substrates for Gluconeogenesis resulting
in to hypoglycemia.
c) why the breath of an untreated diabetic smells of acetone- untreated diabetes mellitus leads to hyperglycemia. Non utilization of glucose leads to lipolysis.
The excess acetyl co A is utilized for ketogenesis. Acetone, the Ketone body is excreted through lungs, that’s why the breath of the untreated diabetics smells of
acetone.
d) How the monitoring of glycosylated hemoglobin (HbAIc) levels is useful in the treatment of diabetes mellitus– The degree of hyperglycemia can be
depicted by the conc. of glycosylated hemoglobin (HbAIc). The target of therapy is based on lowering the levels of glycosylated HbA1c . It is a better
parameter than estimating blood sugar levels.
Q.N.5- Short notes on-
a) visual cycle – The steps of disintegration of Rhodopsin and reformation are to be explained.
b) One carbon metabolism- Sources and various acceptors of one carbon are to be explained. Various forms of folic acid acting as carriers of one carbon group
are to be discussed.
c) Enzyme Inhibition– various types of inhibitions like competitive, non competitive, feed back, allosteric inhibition etc are to be discussed.
Q.N.6- a) Mechanism of iron absorption from the intestinal lumen- Mucosal block theory is to be explained.
b) Give an example of: (i) cyclic fatty acid – Chaulmoogric acid and hydnocarpic acid
(ii) Polyunsaturated fatty acid – Arachidonic acid
(iii) Glycolipids-Glucocerebrosides, Glucocerebrosides, Gangliosides.
c)The biochemical explanation for the presence of high levels of (i) Ketone bodies
The possible causes are starvation, uncontrolled diabetes mellitus, high fat feeding etc.
(ii) Methylmalonic acid in the urine- It is excreted in the deficiency of vitamin B12. L-methyl malonyl co A is not converted to suucinyl co A, it accumulates
and is thus excreted excessively in urine.

Sample papers with model answers(November-2008)

Biochemistry- Paper-2
Date-04-11-08
Q.N.1. –a) Describe the essential differences between Metabolic Acidosis and Respiratory Acidosis.
b) Discuss the role of Renin -Angiotensin system in the maintenance of water and electrolyte balance of the body.
Q.N. 2. – a) What is PCR? Describe in detail the steps and applications of PCR.
b) – Give a brief description of the Lac operon model of Gene expression.
Q.N.3. – a) Describe the various tests which are based on excretory functions of liver.
b) Define Detoxification, Why is it required? Describe the various types of detoxification reactions occurring in the body giving one suitable example of each
reaction.
Q.N.4- Write short notes on-
a) Thin layer Chromatography
b) Balanced diet
c) Post translational modifications
Q.N.5 – a) What is BMR? Discuss the role of various factors that affect the BMR.
b) Explain briefly the transmission and the natural course of AIDS.
Q.N.6- Describe the followings-
a) Characteristics of Genetic code
b) Etiology of cancers
c) Orotic aciduria
d) Sparing action
BIOCHEMISTRY-PAPER
(Multiple choice questions)
Date- 04-11-08-08
Q.N.1- – The function of the Topo Isomerases is-
a) Proof reading b) Relief of super coils
c) Polymerization d) clamp loading.
Q.N.2- Actinomycin D is an inhibitor of-
a) Replication b) Transcription
c) Translation d) all of the above.
Q.N.3- The HIV genome can be identified by the following test:-
a) ELISA b) Western blot
c) PCR d) any one of the above
Q.N.4- In phenyl ketonurics, the phenyl acetic acid is conjugated by-
a) Glycine b) Acetylation
c) Glutamine d) Methylation
Q.N.5- On the third day, following the onset of Acute Myocardial infarction which enzyme estimation will have the best predictive value?
a) Serum AST b) Serum ALT
c) Serum CPK d) Serum LDH
Q.N.6-Normal maximum Urea clearance (Cm) in an adult averages about-
a) 60 b) 65
c) 70 d) 75
Q.N.7- The Prothrombin time in obstructive jaundice is
a) Normal b) Low
c) Increases after injection of Vitamin K d) none of the above.
Q.N.8- In which of the following enzymes, zinc constitutes an integral part of the enzyme-
a) Pepsin b) Trypsin
c) Carbonic Anhydrase d) Xanthine Oxidase
Q.N. 9- Which of the following essential dietary factors is a precursor for a compound that acts as a “one carbon carrier”-
a) Methionine b) Folic acid
c) Biotin d) Thiamine
Q.N.10- The intake of which food stuff results in the greatest SDA-
a) Carbohydrates b) Fats
c) Proteins d) Calcium
Q.N.11- AFP is the most specific tumor marker for the primary carcinoma of the-
a) Bone b) Liver
c) Lungs d) all of the above.
Q.N.12- Oxidation of which substance in the body yields the most calories per gram-
a) Glucose b) Lipids
c) Animal protein d) Plant protein.
Q.N.13- The synthesis of Adenylyl Cyclase is increased by-
a) Calcitonin b) Insulin
c) Parathormone d) Glucagon
Q.N.14- RNA does not contain –
a) Uracil b) Adenine
c) Thymine d) Ribose.
Q.N.15- All are inhibitors of protein synthesis except-
a) Tetra cyclin b) Erythromycin
c) Puromycin d) Streptoglidigin
State true or false
Q.N.16- A given codon designates only one single specific amino acid.
Q.N.17-If a given Purine is changed to another Purine it is Transversion.
Q.N.18- The renal plasma flow is measured by the Hippuric acid test.
Q.N.19- Sudden increase in Gamma Glutamyl Transferase enzyme in Chronic Alcoholics signifies recent bout of drinking of Alcohol.
Q.N.20- The Atrial Natriuretic Peptide Hormone is synthesized in the adrenal cortex.
Model Answers
Q.N.1- Multiple choice questions.
1)-b
2) b
3) d
4) c
5) d
6) d
7) c
8) c
9) b
10) c
11) b
12) b
13) d
14) c
15) d
16) True
17) False
18) False
19) True
20) False
Q.N.2-a) The differences between Metabolic acidosis and Respiratory Acidosis- Metabolic acidosis is primary alkali deficit due to the deficiency of
bicarbonate ions, While Respiratory Acidosis is due to primary carbonic acid excess. The p H and the ratio is altered in both the cases but the causes and the
compensatory mechanisms and the treatment are different in both the cases. All the causes, compensatory mechanisms and the treatment are to be discussed in
the tabular manner.
b) Renin – Angiotensin system- Renin is a proteoltic enzyme released from the kidney. It is released in response to the fall in sodium ion concentration,
Hypovolemia, hypotension and a fall in intra cellular calcium ion conc., All these factors stimulate the release of Renin from J.G. cells to blood. The action of
Renin is mediated through the release of Angiotensin I from Angiotensinogen. Angiotensin I is then converted to Angiotensin II and then to Angiotensin III.
Both the later Angiotensins cause the release of Aldosteron from the Adrenal cortex, which causes the absorption of Sodium ions to restore the blood pressure
and the fluid volume. The interdependence of Renin- Angiotensin system and the Aldosterone are to be discussed. The clinical significance and the use of ACE
inhibitors for the treatment of Hypertension are to be discussed.
Q.N.2-a) PCR- Polymerase chain reaction is a method of amplifying a target sequence of DNA. The flanking sequences of the target DNA are required to be
known. Two primers of about 20-30 nucleotides with complementary sequence of the flanking region can be synthesized. DNA strands are separated by heating
at 95 degree centigrade for 15 seconds to 2 minutes. The primers are annealed by cooling to 50 degree centigrade. The primers hybridize with their
complementary single stranded DNA produced in the first step. New strands are synthesized by Taq. Polymerase. The enzyme is heat resistant , hence it is not
denatured at that high temperature. The polymerase reaction is allowed to take place for 30 seconds in the presence dNTPs. Both strands of DNA are thus
duplicated. The steps are repeated, in each cycle the DNA strands are duplicated. Thus in a short span of time by simple technique the DNA is amplified many
times. In reverse PCR m RNA is detected , this allows c DNA synthesis from m RNA, followed by PCR amplification. The PCR technique is used for the
diagnosis of various diseases, for medico legal cases, for the diagnosis of genetic disorders, cancer detection and also for the Paleontological studies to study
the evolution of life. The diagram showing the steps is needed.
b) Lac operon model- The synthesis of proteins under the influence of genes is called gene expression. All the genes of the cell are not expressed at all the
time. The Lac operon is an inducible catabolic operon of E.Coli. It consists of structural genes and the regulatory genes. The structural genes Z,Y and A
transcribe to form a single large m-RNA with three independent translational units for the synthesis of three distinct enzymes. The regulatory genes produce the
Repressor molecule , the expression of which is constitutive. The repressor has a strong affinity for the operator which is the site between the promoter and the
structural genes. When the repressor is attached to the operator the RNAP can not move further and thus the transcription of the structural genes is inhibited. So
the structural genes are not transcribed. Thus when the lactose is not available, the lactose utilizing enzymes are not synthesized. When lactose is there in the
medium the it binds to the repressor molecule and this complex becomes inactive and can no longer bind to the DNA. Thus the structural genes are transcribed
and the lactose is thereby utilized.
The Repression, De-repression of the lac operon are to be discussed. The role of cAMP is also to be discussed.
Q.N.3- a) Tests based on the excretory functions of the liver- Bilirubin is formed by the catabolism of heme .It is the excretory product formed in the liver. It
is conjugated in the liver to form the Bilirubin diglucuronide and excreted through bile. Measurement of Serum Biliribin, urobilinogen and stercobilinogen in
blood and urine are important tests of liver functions. Besides that the BSP retention test and Indocyanin Green tests are to be discussed.
Reactions of conjugation of Bilirubin are to be discussed with clinical significance.
b) Detoxification- The biochemical processes whereby the toxic substances are rendered nontoxic and more water soluble are termed as detoxification. The
toxicants that are lipophilic, non-polar and are of low molecular weight are readily absorbed through the cell membranes of the skin, GI Tract and lungs and
accumulate in the lipid rich areas to produce the toxic effects. By Detoxication the substances are processed through two phases Phase I reactions are
hydroxylation reactions , while phase II reactions are conjugation reactions.
Details with one example each are to be given for both the phases, concluding with the harmful effects of xenobiotics if they are not rendered non toxic.
Q.N.4- a)Thin Layer Chromatography- This is another version of the liquid- liquid chromatography. A thin layer of the silica gel is spread on a glass plate,
biological sample is applied as a small spot .The plate is placed in a trough containing the solvent. The stationary water phase is held on the silica gel and the
mobile phase of non polar solvent moves up. In the case of TLC it takes only 3-4 hours for the separation of the substances in comparison to Paper
chromatography which takes 14-16 hours, that is a distinct advantage for TLC.
Diagram, indications , merits , demerits are to be discussed.
b) Balanced Diet- A diet is said to be a balanced one when it includes proportionate quantities of food items selected from the different basic food groups so as
to supply the essential nutrients in the complete fulfillment of the requirement of the body. The basic food groups and the criteria for the planning of a balanced
diet are to be discussed.
c) Post Translational Modifications- The mature functional protein is formed by the post translational processes, which include the following processes-
1) Proteolytic cleavage
2) Modification of the amino acids
3) Sub unit aggregation etc. are to be discussed with suitable examples.
Q.N.5-a) BMR- The basal metabolic rate may be defined as the energy required by an awake individual during physical, emotional and digestive rest. It is the
minimum amount of energy required to maintain life or sustain vital functions like the working of the heart, circulation, brain functions, respiration etc. The
measurement of BMR in brief is to be discussed along with the elaboration of various factors that produce variations in BMR
The significance of measurement is also to be discussed.
b) Transmission of HIV- The various routs like the blood, placenta ,sex etc are to me mentioned.
Natural course of the disease- Window period, seropositiveness stage and the phase of full blown AIDS are to be discussed.
Q.N.6-a) Characteristics of the Genetic code- The salient features like-
Triplet codon, non overlapping, non punctuated, degenerate, unambiguous and universal characteristics etc are to be discussed.
b) Etiology of Cancers- All cancers are multifactorial in origin. They include genetic, hormonal, metabolic, physical, chemical and environmental factors. The
effect of mutations and chemical carcinogens is also to be discussed.
c) Orotic aciduria- This condition results from the absence of either or both of the enzymes-OPRTase or OMPdecarboxylase. S/s, the lab.diagnosis and the
treatment are to be discussed.
d) Sparing action- The examples of formation of Tyrosine from phenyl Alanine and the formation of carbohydrates from the c- skeleton of amino acids is to be
discussed. The relative decrease in the requirement of the phenyl Alanine and proteins is to be discussed in brief.

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4/13/2019 University papers with model answers | Biochemistry for Medics – Lecture Notes

University papers with model answers

Multiple Choice Questions- Pre- University Examination (Paper-2)

a) Low p CO2, normal bicarbonate and, high pH

b) Low p CO2, low bicarbonate, low pH

c) High p CO2, normal bicarbonate and, low p H

d) High pCO2, high bicarbonate, High pH.

Q.3–Which of the following has the highest glycemic index?

d) Initial rise and then fall

Q.6- A woman’s risk for developing breast cancer is greatest with:

b) Early age at menarche and late age of first parity

c) A family history of breast cancer and a history of benign breast disease

d) A BRCA1 or BRCA2 mutation.

Q.7-Reduction of the 2′-hydroxyl of purine and pyrimidine Ribonucleotides, catalyzed by-

c) Dihydro folate reductase

Q.8-Human brain has a low level of which of the following enzymes?

c) Double negative regulation

d) Double positive regulation.

Q.12- The operator locus is a region of double-stranded DNA-

a) To bind RNA polymerase

b) To bind lac repressor

c) To bind CAP-cAMP complex

d) To bind transcription factors

Q.13- Which of the followings is not a stop codon in prokaryotes?

Q.15- The drug Aspirin is detoxified by-

Q.16- Which of the following enzymes is not a tumor marker?

Q.18- Burkitt’s lymphoma is caused by-

b) Human Papilloma virus

d) Epstein – Barr virus

Q.19- Which drug out of the following is not an anticancer drug?

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Multiple Choice Questions- Pre-University Examination (Answer Key)

Q.3-The inner mitochondrial membrane is rich in which of the following phospholipids?

Q.6–Which out of the followings is an ω 6 fatty acid?

c) Pentose phosphate pathway

Q.8-Which out of the followings is not a hemoprotein?

Q.9-Which of the following monosaccharides is not a carboxylic acid?

Q.10– Which of the following apoproteins is an activator of lipoprotein lipase?

Q.11-Which of the following vitamins is used as a hypolipidemic drug?

a) Carnitine Acyl Transferase –I

b) Carnitine Acyl Transferase –II

a) Argino Succinate lyase

b) Argino Succinate synthetase

Q.14-Which out of the followings is not a fibrous protein?

Q.15-Which of the following enzymes is not present in muscle?

Q.17-Pasteur effect is due to inhibition of glycolysis by high concentration of –

Q.18-The citric acid cycle is inhibited by which of the followings?

Q.19-The key regulatory enzyme of HMP pathway is-

a) On the surface since it is hydrophilic in nature

b) Inside the core of the protein since it is hydrophobic in nature

c) Any where inside or outside

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Sample paper-2 (2010)

Q.1. -Twenty multiple choice questions.

Q.2. – Briefly describe the following-

c) Nucleotide excision repair

Q.3. – Write short notes on-

a) Protein sparing effect of carbohydrates

b) Bicarbonate buffer system of blood

c) 15 minutes PSP excretion test

d) Renal production and excretion of ammonia

Q.5.- Explain the principle, procedure and applications of –

a) DNA finger printing

c) Cloning of chimeric DNA