Cisco Actualtests 200-310 v2016-07-07 by Any 372q

QUESTION 1
Which two statements about designing the Data Center Access layer are correct? (Choose two.)
a) Multiport NIC servers should each have their own IP address
b) Layer 3 connectivity should never be used in the access layer
c) Layer 2 connectivity is primarily implemented in the access layer
d) Multiport NIC servers should never be used in the layer access
e) Layer 2 clustering implementation requires servers to be Layer 2 adjacent
QUESTION 2
An organization needs a WAN Transport technology that meets these criteria:
has a low initial cost
provides low-to-medium BW
has medium-to-high latency and jitter
Which technology should the organization use?
a) DSL
b) X.25
c) ISDN
d) Wireless
e) Analog Modem
Correct Answer: A Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 3
Which two of these are scalability benefits of designing a network that utilizes VPNs? (Choose two.)
a) Extends the network to remote users
b) Allows networks to be set up and restructured quickly
c) reduces dial infrastructure expenditures
d) Reduces the number of physical connections
e) Simplifies the underlying structure of a customer WAN
Correct Answer: DE Section: Multiple choice Explanation
QUESTION 4
A standard Layer 2 campus network design is pictured:
http://www.gratisexam.com
Which numbered box represents the core layer?
a) #1
b) #2
c) #3
d) #4
e) #5
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5
Which two design criteria require VLANs in a proposed solution? (Choose two.)
a) Video streaming on the LAN
b) Security between departments
c) The segmenting of collision domains
d) The segmenting of broadcast domains
e) The use of multi vendor equipment
f) A limited corporate budget
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 6
Which three sources does a network designer use to collect information for characterizing an existing
network? (Choose three.)
a) Staff input
b) Visual inventory
c) Network audit
d) Traffic analysis
e) Server statistics
Correct Answer: ACD Section: Multiple choice Explanation
QUESTION 7
Which Cisco security mechanism has the attributes listed below?
It is a sensor appliance
It searches for potential attacks by capturing and analyzing traffic
It is a "purpose-built device"
It is installed passively
It introduces no delay or overhead
a) IKE
b) PIX
c) HIPS
d) NIDS
e) HMAC
Correct Answer: D
Explanation/Reference:
HIPS = Host based Intrusion Prevention System HMAC = Hashed Message Authentification Code IKE
= Internet Key Exchange
NIDS = Network based Intrusion Detection System PIX = Private Internet eXchange
QUESTION 8
Which three pieces of information should be documented for each step in a design implementation
plan? (Choose three.) http://www.gratisexam.com
a) Step description
b) Design document references
c) Easy guidelines in case of failure
d) Estimated implementation time
e) Simple implementation guidelines
f) Estimated rollback time in case of failure
Correct Answer: ABD Section: Multiple choice Explanatio
QUESTION 9
A company is implementing an Identity Management solution with these characteristics:
Existing AAA Server
Cisco Catalyst switches
Minimal added investments
Which Cisco Trust and Identity Management solution would you recommend?
a) NAC Appliance
b) Cisco IBNS
c) CSM
d) Cisco Security MARS
Correct Answer: B
CSM = Cisco Security Manager
IBNS = Identity Based Networking Services
Cisco MARS = (Cisco Security) Monitoring Analysis and Response System NAC = Network Admission
Control
QUESTION 10
Which Cisco device management feature is most suited to metering network traffic and providing data
for billing network usage?
a) BGP
b) Cisco Discovery Protocol
c) QoS
d) RMON
e) NetFlow
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 11
What are the three valid methods of gathering information about an existing data network? (Choose
three.)
a) Use organizational input
b) Perform a traffic analysis
c) Analyze the user-mapping of a running application
d) Perform a packet-level audit to verify carrier service guarantees
e) Perform a network audit to gather more detail about the network
f) Use reports that analyze the metrics of the customer's existing network
Correct Answer: ABE Section: Multiple choice Explanation
QUESTION 12
Which two routing protocols converge most quickly? (Choose two.)
a) RIPv1
b) RIPv2
c) BGP
d) OSPF
e) EIGRP
QUESTION 13
What is the benefit of VLSM? http://www.gratisexam.com
a) Reduces configuration complexity by using the same subnet mask length
b) Reduces the routing table size by using automatic route summarization
c) Reduces the routing table size by using manual route summarization
d) Allows the subnet mask and classful routing updates to be advertised
e) Secures the hosts on a subnet by using RFC 1918 addresses
Correct Answer: C Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 14
You want to gather as much detail as possible during a network audit with a minimal impact on the
network devices themselves. Which tool would you use to include data time stamping across a large
number of interfaces while being customized according to each interface?
a) RMON
b) SNMPv3
c) NetFlow
d) Cisco Discovery Protocol
Correct Answer: C
RMON = Remote network Monitoring
QUESTION 15
What is the primary consideration when choosing a routed network design over a traditional Campus
Network design?
a) Layer 3 service support at the Network Edge
b) The routing protocol choice: open (OSPF) or proprietary (EIGRP)
c) The routing abilities of the host devices
d) The need to control the broadcast domains within the Campus Core
Correct Answer: A
Layer 3 ability at network edge should be available to leverage the benefits of routed network design.
QUESTION 16
Which statement is true concerning the Data Center Access layer design?
a) The access layer in the data center is typically built at Layer 3, which allows for better sharing of
services across multiple servers
b) With Layer 2 access, the default gateway for the servers can be configured at the access or
aggregation layer
c) A dual-homing NIC requires a VLAN trunk between the two access switches to support the dual
IP addresses on the two servers links to two separate switches
d) The access layer is normally not required, as dual homing is standard from the servers to the
aggregation layer
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 17
Which statement is true concerning the Data Center Distribution (Aggregation) layer design?
a) With Layer 3 at the aggregation layer, the physical loops in the topology must still be managed
by STP
b) The boundary between Layer 2 and Layer 3 must reside in the multilayer switches, independent
of any other devices
c) A mix of both Layer 2 and Layer 3 access is sometimes the most optimal
d) In a small data center, the aggregation layer can connect directly to the campus core,
exchanging IP routes and MAC address tables
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 18
When considering the three VoIP design models - single site, centralized multisite, and distributed
multisite - which question below would help to eliminate one of the options?
a) Will the witches be required to provide inline power?
b) Will users need to make offsite calls, beyond the enterprise?
c) Will users require applications such as voice mail and interactive voice response?
d) Are there users whose only enterprise access is via a QoS-enabled WAN?
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 19
With deterministic Wireless LAN Controller redundancy design, the different options available to the
designer have their own strengths. Which statement is an example of such a strength?
a) Dynamic load balancing, or salt-and-pepper access point design, avoids the potential impact of
oversubscription on aggregate network performance
b) N+N redundancy configuration allows logically grouping access points on controllers to
minimize intercontroller roaming events
c) N+N+1 redundancy configuration has the least impact to system management because all of
the controllers are colocated in an NOC or data center
d) N+1 redundancy configuration uses Layer 3 intercontroller roaming, maintaining traffic on the
same subnet for more efficiency
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 20
When there is a need for immunity to EMI for connecting locations that are greater than 100 meters
apart, which two solutions can be utilized?
a) Multimode fiber
b) Fibre Channel
c) HVDC transmission lines
d) Single-mode fiber
e) Serial RS-232
f) Gigabit Ethernet 1000Base-CX
Correct Answer: AD
EMI = ElectroMagnetic Intererence HVDC = High Voltage Direct Current
QUESTION 21
Which mode is used to exclusively look for unauthorized access points?
a) Monitor mode
b) Sniffer mode
c) Rogue detector mode
d) Local mode
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 22
OSPF will be used as the IGP within a campus network. Which two things should you consider before
deployment? (Choose two.)
a) All areas need to connect back to area 0
b) The OSPF process number on each router should match
c) NSSA areas should be used when an area cannot connect directly to area 0
d) Stub areas should be connected together using virtual links
e) ECMP may cause undesired results depending on the environment
Correct Answer: AE
ECMP = Equal Cost Multi-Path
QUESTION 23
Which is the North American RIR for IPv4 addresses?
a) RIPE
b) ARIN
c) IANA
d) IEEE
e) APNIC
Correct Answer: B Section: Single choice Explanation
APNIC = Asia-Pacific Network Information Center ARIN = American Registry for Internet Numbers
IANA = Internet Assigned Numbers Authority
IEEE = Institute of Electrical and Electronic Engineers RIPE = Réseaux IP Européens
RIR = Regional Internet Registry
QUESTION 24
An Enterprise Campus module is typically made up to four submodules, as described by the Cisco
Enterprise Architecture Model. Which two submodules are part of this module? (Choose two.)
a) DMZ
b) Entreprise branch
c) Building distribution
d) Server Farm / Data Center
e) MAN
Correct Answer: CD Section: Multiple choice Explanation

QUESTION 25
WAN backup over the Internet is often used to provide primary connection redundancy. Which is the
most important consideration when passing corporate traffic over the public Internet?
a) Security
b) Static versus dynamic routing
c) Bandwidth
d) QoS
e) Latency
QUESTION 26
Which type of area should you use in an enterprise OSPF deployment if you want to prevent
propagation of type 5 LSAs but still allow the redistribution of external routes?
a) Stub
b) Totally stubby
c) Backbone
d) NSSA
e) Virtual link
Correct Answer: D Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 27
Which protocol is used for voice bearer traffic?
a) MGCP
b) RTP
c) SCCP
d) CDP
e) ICMP
QUESTION 28
On which router should you configure redistribution?
a) Router 1
b) Router 2
c) Router 3
d) Router 4
e) Router 5
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 29
Which three Cisco technologies can you use to detect and mitigate threats? (Choose three.)
a) NetFlow
b) FWSM
c) ISE
d) VRRP
e) sFLOW
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 30
Which technology allows remote networks to be connected via site-to-site tunnels?
a) IPSec VPN
b) AnyConnect VPN
c) SSL VPN
d) EasyConnect VPN
QUESTION 31
Which RFC defines the IPv6 standard?
a) RFC 1918
b) RFC 2338
c) RFC 2460
d) RFC 2740

QUESTION 32
What is the maximum RIPv2 hop count for a reachable route?
a) 13
b) 14
c) 15
d) 16
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 33
Which Cisco Wireless LAN Controller interface is used for out-of-band management?
a) Service port
b) Management port
c) Controller port
d) Virtual port
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 34
In which operation mode does the AP act as a dedicated sensor for location-based and intrusion
detection services?
a) Monitor mode
b) Promiscuous mode
c) Discovery mode http://www.gratisexam.com
d) Sniffer mode
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 35
Which HSRP parameters must match to ensure proper functionality?
a) Group parameters
b) Priority parameters
c) Preempt parameters
d) Tracking parameters
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 36
What three primary sources of information are needed to perform a network audit? (Choose three.)
a) Existing documentation
b) New documentation
c) Existing network management software
d) New network management tools
e) Management personnel
f) Technical personnel
QUESTION 37
Which three layers comprise the traditional hierarchical model? (Choose three.)
a) Core layer
b) Distribution layer
c) Access layer
d) Aggregation layer
e) Network layer
f) Internet layer
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 38
Which first-hop redundancy protocol dynamically distributes client traffic between multiple routers?
a) HSRP
b) VRRP
c) GLBP
d) IGRP
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 39
Which three options are characteristics of data center evolution? (Choose three.)
a) Consolidation
b) Virtualization
c) Automation
d) Standardization
e) Optimization
f) Modulation
Correct Answer: ABC Section: Multiple choice Explanation
QUESTION 40
Which option is a benefit of the modular approach to network design?
a) Higher availability
b) Repeatable scalability
c) Increased security
d) Improved resiliency
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 41 http://www.gratisexam.com
Which statement describes the methodology that supports the Cisco Enterprise Architecture models?
a) It divides the network into functional network modules
b) It divides the network into role-based network modules
c) It divides the network into regional network modules
d) It divides the network into operational network modules
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 42
Which design is the recommended geometric design for routed topologies?
a) Linear
b) Triangular
c) Rectangular
d) Circular
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 43
Which statement describes an advantage of the Layer 2 access model over the Layer 3 access model
in the data center?
a) It enables NIC teaming
b) It removes STP dependency
c) It increases scalability
d) It decreases convergence
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 44
Router A has three feasible successors to the 192.168.1.0/24 network, which are listed here:
Option 1 has a metric of 8123228
The variance 4 command was issued on Router A.
How many active entries does Router A have in its routing table for the 192.168.1.0/24 network?
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 45
Which two mechanisms are used by distance vector protocols to prevent routing loops? (Choose two.)
a) Split horizon
b) Route summarization
c) Route poisoning
d) Tuned timers
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 46
Which interior routing protocol has the most preferable administrative distance by default?
a) RIP
b) OSPF
c) EIGRP
d) BGP
e) IS-IS
QUESTION 47
What are the three modes of unicast reverse path forwarding? (Choose three.)
a) Strict
b) Loose
c) VRF
d) Global
e) PIM
f) Local

QUESTION 48
A network engineer has been asked to follow a top down design approach. Which layer of the OSI
model is used to start the design?
a) Physical
b) Network
c) Transport
d) Application

QUESTION 49
Where in the network hierarchy should network access control be performed?
a) Backbone
b) Core
c) Access
d) Distribution
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 50
What are two advantages of employing scalability when designing a campus network? (Choose two.)
a) Reduces operational cost

b) Higher port density
c) Investment protection
d) Consistent operation
e) Improved fault tolerance
QUESTION 51
A network engineer is using the traditional switched hierarchical design. The client has asked to
increase uplink utilization from the access layer to the distribution. How can the engineer attain this
new requirement without adding new physical connections?
a) Enable spanning-tree portfast
b) Enable VSS at the distribution layer
c) Increase the MTU size on the uplink interfaces
d) Ensure the root bridge is equal on both distribution switches
QUESTION 52
Multicast has been enabled and configured in the Enterprise, and PIM Sparse-mode has been enabled
on all VLANs. What feature is required to stop multicast traffic from being broadcasted on the access
layer switches?
a) IGMP snooping
b) Multicast boundary filter
c) PIM dense-mode
d) Dynamic ARP inspection
QUESTION 53
What two SAN protocols will allow a customer to utilize 10GbE for SAN access? (Choose two.)
a) iSCSI
b) FCoE
c) SATA
d) Fiber Channel
e) AoE
Correct Answer: AB Section: Multiple choice Explanation
QUESTION 54
Application servers require load balancing and security services. Where in the data center network
should these services be provisioned?
a) Core
b) Aggregation
c) Layer 3 access
d) Distribution
QUESTION 55
A data center is reaching its power and cooling capacity. What two virtualization technologies can
address the problem by directly reducing the number of physical devices? (Choose two.)
a) Virtual switching systems

b) Virtual device contexts
c) Virtual servers
d) Virtual routing and switching
e) Virtual port channels
f) Virtual LANs
Correct Answer: BC Section: Multiple choice Explanation
QUESTION 56
A dynamically routed private line and a statically routed IPsec tunnel connect two offices. What routing
configuration prefers the IPsec tunnel only in the event of a private line failure?
a) Floating static entry
b) EIGRP variance
c) Bandwidth metric
d) OSPF maximum path
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 57
When designing a new Enterprise Campus Network, what topology should be used for maximum
scalability?
a) Flat
b) Three-layer
c) Star
d) Partial mesh
e) Full mesh
QUESTION 58
A spanning tree topology can be simplified by deploying what Cisco IOS technology in the distribution
block?
a) VDC
b) vPC
c) Rapid PVST+
d) VSS
e) Flex Links
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 59
An organization is deciding what routing protocol to use throughout their network. What must be
considered if routing is to be performed at the access layer?
a) Reduced scalability of the network when introducing a large number of switch blocks into the
routing table
b) Centralized management of access control lists at the distribution layer
c) Reliability when implementing routing over spanning-tree at the access layer
d) Performance differences between core, distribution and access layer equipment
QUESTION 60
A routing protocol neighbor relationship has been established between two routers across the public
Internet using GRE. What technology can be used to encrypt this communication channel?
a) Access list
b) IP security
c) Context based access
d) Intrusion prevention system
QUESTION 61
Which statement correctly describes queuing in environments supporting teleworkers?
a) CQ is for time sensitive protocols

b) Queuing occurs on the outbound interface
c) Priority queuing guarantees some level of service to all traffic
d) Hardware queues are configured for appropriate PQ, CQ, or WFQ
e) WFQ is the Cisco IOS default on all WAN links regardless of speed

QUESTION 62
Which first-hop redundancy protocol dynamically distributes traffic across multiple gateways?
a) HSRP
b) GLBP
c) VRRP
d) iBGP
QUESTION 63
A network engineer must collect application-level information passing through a router. What two tools
can provide this information? (Choose two.)
a) NBAR
b) CiscoWorks
c) SNMP collector
d) NetFlow collector
e) Syslog
Correct Answer: AD Section: Multiple choice Explanation
NBAR = network based application recognition
QUESTION 64
What information should be utilized to identify network applications that are running on an existing
network infrastructure?
a) Customer information
b) Existing documentation
c) Traffic analysis
d) External feedback
e) User feedback
QUESTION 65
A design engineer must send management information messages across the public internet. What
solution provides a secure and encrypted method for passing these messages?
a) SNMP v3
b) NetFlow v9
c) Syslog traps
d) Secure Shell v2
e) SNMP v2
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 66
A network engineer is designing a solution that will monitor IP traffic through corporate routers with the
ability to export the flows to a collection engine without using network probes.
Which technology meets this requirement?
a) RMON
b) NetFlow
c) SNMP
d) Syslog
e) IP SLA
QUESTION 67
A network engineer is following the Cisco enterprise architecture model. Where are aggregation
switches found?
a) Enterprise Campus
b) Enterprise Edge
c) SP Edge WAN
d) Remote Module
Correct Answer: A Section: Single choice Explanation http://www.gratisexam.com
QUESTION 68
What two configurations are Cisco recommended best practices for user access interfaces? (Choose
two.)
a) VTP transparent mode

b) BPDU guard
c) Root Guard
d) Portfast
e) Trunk mode
Correct Answer: BD Section: Multiple choice Explanation
QUESTION 69
What Cisco product is designed to improve the performance of Windows file and exchange services in
remote data centers?
a) Application Control Engine
b) Wide Area Application Services
c) Cisco Application Policy Infrastructure Controller
d) Cisco Prime Network Services Controller
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 70
What design feature should be considered when accessing resources from a remote data center over
a WAN connection?
a) Security
b) Bandwidth
c) Reliability
d) Management
QUESTION 71
What two addresses are defined under RFC 1918? (Choose two.)
A. 19.22.37.1
B. 10.1.7.19
C. 127.0.0.1
D. 172.31.1.1
E. 239.15.12.1
QUESTION 72
What IPv4 addressing technique is used for proper address planning to reduce the number of entries
in a routing table?
a) Filtering
b) Tunneling
c) Summarization
d) Translation
e) Supernetting
QUESTION 73
What two components are used when creating an endpoint's modified EUI-64 format IPv6 address?
a) IPv6 Prefix
b) 64-bit MAC address
c) 48-bit MAC address
d) IPv4 address
e) Link Local Suffix
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 74
A network engineer requires that an OSPF ASBR must only flood external LSAs only within its own
area. What OSPF area type should be configured?
a) Backbone area
b) Totally Stub area
c) Not so Stubby area
d) Stub area
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 75
What two factors should be considered when deploying an enterprise campus network? (Choose two.)
a) Employees
b) Geography
c) Applications
d) Administration
e) Throughput
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 76
The spanning tree topology can be simplified by deploying what Cisco NX-OS technology is the
distribution and access layer?
a) VDC
b) vPC
c) Rapid PVST+
d) VSS
e) Flex Links
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 77
What network technology consolidates network and storage traffic in the data center?
a) Virtual storage-area network
b) Unified fabric
c) Unified computing system
d) Virtual switching system
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 78
What type of topology supports WAN redundancy when a balance is required between cost, high
availability, and performance?
a) Partial mesh
b) Full mesh
c) Star
d) Ring
e) Bus
f) Point-to-point
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 79
What is the key limitation of using Internet circuits as a backup to a private enterprise WAN?
a) Circuit bandwidth
b) Prioritization
c) Security
d) Operational expense
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 80
A network design engineer is seeking a dynamic routing protocol that supports fast convergence in a
Cisco environment. What protocol allows for this?
a) EIGRP
b) OSPF
c) RIP
d) BGP
e) IS-IS
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 81
What are two benefits of the bottom-up design approach? (Choose two.)
a) Allows a quick response to a design request

b) Facilitates design that is based on previous experience
c) Requires little or no notation of actual requirements for implementation
d) Incorporates organizational requirements
e) Provides a broader overview to the organization and the designer
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 82
Which network layer is the best fit fro security features such as DAI and DHCP snooping?
a) Campus core
b) Enterprise edge
c) Campus distribution
d) Remote-access VPN
e) Enterprise data center
f) Campus access
Correct Answer: F
QUESTION 83
Directory services and electronic messaging are performed at which layer of the network?
a) Core
b) Application
c) Distribution
d) Network
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 84
Which configuration can be used to implement FHRP protocol and load balancing at the same time?
A)
R1
interface Ethernet0
ip address 171.16.6.5 255.255.255.0
standby 1 preempt
standby 1 ip 171.16.6.100 standby 1 track Serial0 standby 2 preempt
standby 2 ip 171.16.6.200 standby 2 track Serial0 standby 2 priority 95
!
R2
interface Ethernet0
ip address 171.16.6.6 255.255.255.0
standby 1 preempt
standby 1 ip 171.16.6.100
standby 1 track Serial0 standby 2 preempt
standby 2 ip 171.16.6.200 standby 2 track Serial0
B)
R1
interface Ethernet0
ip address 171.16.6.5 255.255.255.0
standby 1 preempt http://www.gratisexam.com
!
R2
interface Ethernet0
ip address 171.16.6.6 255.255.255.0
standby 1 preempt
C)
R1
interface Ethernet0
ip address 171.16.6.5 255.255.255.0
standby 1 preempt
standby 2 preempt
!
R2
interface Ethernet0
ip address 171.16.6.6 255.255.255.0
standby 1 preempt
standby 1 ip 171.16.6.100 standby 1 track Serial0 standby 2 preempt
standby 2 ip 171.16.6.200 standby 2 track Serial0
D)
R1
interface Ethernet0
ip address 171.16.6.5 255.255.255.0
standby 1 preempt
!
R2
interface Ethernet0
ip address 171.16.6.6 255.255.255.0
standby 1 preempt
standby 1 ip 171.16.6.100
QUESTION 85
Cisco FabricPath brings the benefits of routing protocols to Layer 2 network Ethernet environments.
What are two advantages of using Cisco FabricPath technology? (Choose two.)
a) Cisco FabricPath provides MAC address scalability with conversational learning
b) Loop mitigation is provided by the TTL field in the frame
c) Cisco FabricPath technology is supported in all Cisco platforms and can replace legacy
Ethernet in all campus networks
d) Cisco FabricPath relies on OSPF to support Layer 2 forwarding between switches, which allows
load balancing between redundant paths
e) Cisco FabricPath is IETF-standard and is not used with Cisco products
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 86
A network design shows two routers that are directly connected to an Ethernet switch using optical
connections. There is an OSPF Adjacency between the routers. In this design, which solution ensures
that interface-down detection is reported as quickly as possible to the IGP?
a) Optimized OSPF SPF timers
b) Bidirectional Forwarding Detection
c) Automatic protection switching
d) Optimized OSPF LSA timers
e) Ethernet OAM CFM monitoring
Correct Answer: B
Which statement is true about using a DNS server to discover a controller IP?
a) The AP sends a discovery request to the first controller on the list and then goes down the list
chronologically until it receives a discovery response
b) The AP sends a discovery request to the last controller on the list and then goes up the list
chronologically until it receives a discovery response
c) The AP sends a discovery request to all controllers on the list simultaneously
d) Multiple controller IP addresses in a DNS response are not supported
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 88
A network engineer at a technical call center receives a call from a customer complaining that only 56
kbps of data can be transferred over the T1 Frame Relay WAN circuit at a remote site. The engineer
checks the Frame Relay switch and confirms that only 56 kbps is being transferred over the circuit.
The engineer requests the router configuration of the customer headquarters site router.
What is causing this issue to occur?
a) The wrong CIR is configured

b) The BECN configuration is causing this issue
c) The class name is spelled wrong under the interface
d) The wrong DLCI number is assigned to the interface
QUESTION 89
Which option is an advanced congestion management mechanism?
a) Weighted fair queuing
b) Policing
c) Payload compression
d) Header compression
Correct Answer: A Section: Single choice Explanation http://www.gratisexam.com
QUESTION 90
Which option is an example of physical device virtualization?
a) VSS
b) VPN
c) VRF
d) VLAN
QUESTION 91
A data center is being deployed, and one design requirement is to be able to readily scale server
virtualization. Which IETF standard technology can provide this requirement?
a) Transparent Interconnection of Lots of Links
b) Cisco FabricPath
c) Data center bridging
d) Cisco Unified Fabric
QUESTION 92
A company would like to distribute a VM hosting cluster between three data centers with the capability
to move VMs between sites. The connectivity between data centers is IP only, and the new design
should use existing WAN.
Which layer 2 tunneling technology should be used?
a) VPLS
b) L2TPv3
c) OTV
d) AToM
QUESTION 93
In which two places is redundancy recommended in an Enterprise Campus Network design? (Choose
two.)
a) Building distribution
b) Campus core
c) Building access
d) E-commerce
e) Internet connectivity
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 94
What are two purposes of route redundancy? (Choose two.)
a) Minimize the effect of link failures

b) Minimize the effect of internetworking device failures
c) Minimize the convergence time of STP
d) Load balance across redundant paths
e) Save network costs
Which two statements are true regarding a hierarchical network? (Choose two.)
a) Facilitates choosing the type of routing protocols to be used in the network
b) Provides scalability without affecting other layers and functionality
c) Provides better performance as network resources are efficiently utilized
d) Limits redundancy at the distribution layer
e) Complicates manageability because of the added security
QUESTION 96
Which two Cisco data center can participate in Cisco FabricPath? (Choose two.)
a) Cisco Nexus 5500 Series Switches

b) Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switches
c) Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches
d) Cisco Nexus 4900 Series Switches
e) Cisco MDS 9500 Series Multilayer Directors
Correct Answer: AC Section: Multiple choice Explanation

QUESTION 97
Assuming that a network will grow exponentially for the next 24 months, what is the main limitation that
must be addressed?
a) Scalability
b) Serviceability
c) Redundancy
d) Resiliency

QUESTION 98
A network engineer is tasked with summarizing the routes to a remote site. What is the optimal route
statement to connect to the 192.168.101.0/24 and 192.168.102.0/24 networks across the corporate
WAN?
A. ip route 192.168.100.0 255.255.254.0 10.1.1.1

B. ip route 192.168.100.0 255.255.252.0 10.1.1.1
C. ip route 192.168.100.0 255.255.255.0 10.1.1.1
D. ip route 192.168.101.0 255.255.254.0 10.1.1.1
QUESTION 99
Where should routes in the routing table be aggregated or summarized?
a) In the core toward the data center

b) In the distribution toward the access
c) In the core toward the distribution
d) In the distribution toward the core
Correct Answer: D Section: Single choice Explanation http://www.gratisexam.com
QUESTION 100
Which option is used by OSPF to reduce the flooding domain of database updates in a network?
a) Hello packets
b) Virtual links
c) Interface cost
d) Areas
QUESTION 101
Which three OSPF routers are the only routers that may perform summarization with the current
network layout? (Choose three.)
a) Router 2
b) Router 3
c) Router 4
d) Router 5
e) Router 7
f) Router 8
Correct Answer: ACE Section: Multiple choice Explanation
QUESTION 102
Which two options should be used to achieve fast convergencehttp://www.gratisexam.com
in an OSPF network? (Choose two.)
a) Bidirectional Forwarding Detection

b) Fast hellos
c) LSA retransmission interval
d) SPF throttle timers
e) LSA group pacing

QUESTION 103
Which next hop will the router select if given an IP packet with the dstination address 19.48.254.3?
a) Router 1
b) Router 2
c) Interface 0
d) Interface 1
QUESTION 104
In this suboptimal design of homogeneous Cisco network, which version of spanning tree provides the
fastest convergence?
a) PVST+
b) CST
c) RPVST
d) VSTP
e) PVST
QUESTION 105
The red lines refer to STP blocked ports. What happens if the
HSRP active moves to the right distribution, and the STP root
remains on the left distribution?
a) The STP root becomes the gateway
b) The interdistribution link is used for transit
c) The HSRP standby becomes the gateway
d) The interaccess link is used for transit
e) Host traffic is unable to reach the HSRP active

QUESTION 106
The organization is migrating away from HSRP. VSS has been

implemented on a pair of Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series Switches. In
order to avoid changes to end hosts, the default gateway is carried
over to the SVI on the VSS.
Why does the implementation plan require a four-hour wait after

removing the FHRP configuration?
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a) The VLAN interface MAC address and the FHRP MAC
address are different. It takes four hours for the VLAN
interface to come up
b) The SVI IP address and the FHRP IP address are different.
It takes four hours for the SVI to come up
c) The VLAN interface MAC address and the FHRP MAC
address are different. It takes four hours for the ARP cache
to time out
d) The VLAN interface IP address and the FHRP address are
different. It takes four hours for the VLAN interface to come
up
e) The VLAN interface IP address and the FHRP IP address
are different. It takes four hours for the ARP cache to time
out

QUESTION 107
Which command is correct for creating a virtual interface on Cisco
wireless controller?
a) config create interface
b) tag interface
c) config interface address
d) untag interface
QUESTION 108
Which three series of Cisco wireless controllers support wireless
Bidirectional Rate Limiting?
a) Cisco 2500 Series Wireless Controllers

b) Cisco 5500 Series Wireless Controllers
c) Cisco 5700 Series Wireless Controllers
d) Cisco 7500 Series Wireless Controllers
e) Cisco 8500 Series Wireless Controllers
f) Cisco 7200 Series Wireless Controllers
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Correct Answer: BDE Section: Multiple choice Explanation
QUESTION 109
Which option cause deep-packet examination to determine the
specific nature of an attack?
a) Network IPS
b) Netflow collector
c) Stateful firewall
d) Syslog server
QUESTION 110
Which location is the best for placing a monitor-only IPS that has
visibility into the most data center traffic?
(A) Inline before the firewall
(B) Inline after the firewall
(C) Passive off the firewall
(D) Passive off the internal switch
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QUESTION 111
A remote user for a company must periodically connect to the
company network to access internal resources using a company
laptop with software that was preinstalled by the IT department.
Which VPN method is used for connectivity?
a) DMVPN
b) SSL VPN
c) IPsec VPN
d) GET VPN
QUESTION 112
Which statement is true about the Cisco NAC Appliance?
a) recognize users, their devices, and their roles in the

network
b) Does not offer audit and reporting features
c) Must be placed inline with other network devices
d) Does not recognize guest users
QUESTION 113
Which two Cisco products can be used in a data center to support
OTV technology? (Choose two.)
a) Cisco Nexus 5500 Series Switches

b) Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches
c) Cisco ASR 1000 Series Routers
d) Cisco ASR 9000 Series Routers
e) Cisco Nexus 3000 Series Switches
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 114
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Which IETF standard technology can be used with data center
design to readily scale server virtualization?
a) Transparent Interconnection of Lots of Links

b) OTV
c) vPC
d) FCoE
QUESTION 115
Which three options are examples of network logical virtualization?
(Choose three.)
a) Virtual PortChannel
b) Virtual machine
c) Virtual Device Context
d) Virtual Switching System
e) Virtual device driver
QUESTION 116
Which type of structure consists of the addressing, routing
protocols, QoS, and security components?
a) Logical
b) Physical
c) Layered
d) Virtual
QUESTION 117
What phase of Cisco's PPDIOO is the final test of the
appropriateness of the design?
a) Operate
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b) Optimize
c) Design
d) Implement
QUESTION 118
what phase of Cisco's PPDIOO includes the identification and
resolution of issues prior to moving the entire network to
production?
a) Optimize
b) Operate
c) Implement
d) Design
QUESTION 119
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Section: Select and Place Explanation
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QUESTION 120
Select and Place:
QUESTION 121
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QUESTION 122
Select and Place:
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Correct Answer:
QUESTION 123
Place Methodology in correct order
a) Prepare, Implement, Operate, Plan, Optimize, Design

b) Optimize, Operate, Design, Prepare, Implement, Plan
c) Prepare, Optimize, Design, Implement, Operate, Plan
d) Optimize, Design, Prepare, Implement, Operate, Plan
e) Prepare, Plan, Design, Implement, Operate, Optimize
f) Prepare, Plan, Design, Implement, Optimize, Operate
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Correct Answer: E Section: Single choice Explanation
QUESTION 124
Which is the equation used to derive a 64 Kbps bit rate?
a) 2 x 8 kHz x 4-bit code words

b) 8 kHz x 8-bit code words
c) 2 x 4-bit code words x 8 kHz
d) 2 x 4 kHz x 8-bit code words
While the human ear can sense sounds from 20 to 20,000 Hz, and
speech encompasses sounds from about 200 to 9000 Hz, the
telephone channel was designed to operate at about 300 to 3400
Hz. This economical range carries enough fidelity to allow callers
to identify the party at the far end and sense their mood. Nyquist
decided to extend the digitization to 4000 Hz, to capture higher-
frequency sounds that the telephone channel may deliver.
Therefore, the highest frequency for voice is 4000 Hz. According
to Nyquist theory, we must double the highest frequency, so
2x4kHz = 8kHz.
Each sample will be encoded into a 8-bit code. Therefore 8kHz x

8-bit code = 64 Kbps (notice about the unit Kbps: 8kHz = 8000
samples per second so 8000 x 8- bit = 64000 bit per second = 64
Kilobit per second = 64 Kbps)
Note:
Nyquist theory: “When sampling a signal (e.g., converting from an

analog signal to digital), the sampling frequency must be greater
than twice the bandwidth of the input signal in order to be able to
reconstruct the original perfectly from the sampled version.”
QUESTION 125
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Which three of these are components of the North American
Numbering Plan? (Choose three.)
a) Numbering Plan Area
b) Country Code
c) Prefix
d) Zone
e) Line Number
f) Trunk Channel
QUESTION 126
A customer has the following Enterprise Campus design
requirements:
at least 10 Gbps of bandwidth
network runs of up to 40km
no concern for transmission medium cost
Which transmission medium should you recommend to this
customer?
a) Shielded twisted pair
b) Unshielded twisted pair
c) Multimode fiber
d) Single-mode fiber
e) Wireless
QUESTION 127
In the Cisco branch office design, what categorizes an office as
large?
a) Between 50 and 100 users and a three-tier design
b) Between 50 and 100 users and a single-tier design
c) Between 100 and 200 users and a two-tier design
d) Between 100 and 200 users and a three-tier design
e) Over 200 users and a two-tier design
QUESTION 128
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Which layer is the distribution layer?
a) Layer A
b) Layer B
c) Layer C
d) Layer A & B form a consolidated core and distribution layer
QUESTION 129
Which two implementation plan principles best describe how to
deal with potential failures? (Choose two.)
a) A good implementation plan

b) A successful test network test
c) A test should be included at every step
d) A detailed rollback procedure for each implementation step
e) A table of failure points, and estimated rollback times
Correct Answer: CE Section: Multiple choice Explanation
QUESTION 130
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A standard Layer 2 campus network design is pictured. Which
numbered box represents the distribution layer?
a) #1
b) #2
c) #3
d) #4
QUESTION 131
Which three pieces of information should be documented for each
step of each phase in a design implementation plan? (Choose
three.)
a) Step description
b) Design document references
c) Easy guidelines in case of failure
d) Estimated implementation time
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e) Simple implementation guidelines
f) Estimated rollback time in case of failure
Correct Answer: ABD Section: Multiple choice Explanation

QUESTION 132
Which three terms describe the primary functions of the
distribution layer of the campus network design hierarchy?
(Choose three.)
a) Provide end-user connectivity

b) Provide high speed transport
c) Provide QoS services
d) Enforce security policies
e) Provide WAN connections
f) Connect access devices to the core backbone
Correct Answer: CDF Section: Multiple choice Explanation

QUESTION 133
Which two statements correctly identify the layers of the Enterprise

Campus module? (Choose two)
a) A is the Data Center Module and C is the Campus Core

layer
b) A is the Data Center Module and D is the Building Access
layer
c) B is the Campus Core layer and C is the Building
Distribution layer
d) B is the Building Distribution layer and C is the Campus
Core layer
e) A is the Internet Connectivity layer and B is the Campus
Core layer
f) B is the Building Distribution layer and D is the Building
Access layer
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QUESTION 134
Which statement accurately represents the characteristics of the

core layer in this design?
a) QoS should be performed only in the core

b) Load balancing should never be implemented or used in
the core
c) Access lists should be used in the core to perform packet
manipulation
d) It is acceptable to use a partial mesh in the core if it is
connected to each device by multiple paths
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QUESTION 135
Which element or elements of the existing network infrastructure

does this network map emphasize?
a) Network services
b) Network protocols
c) OSI data link layer
d) Network applications
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QUESTION 136
Which two of the following are benefits of using a modular
approach to network design? (Choose two.)
a) Improve flexibility
b) Facilitates implementation
c) Lowers implementation costs
d) Improves customer participation in the design process
QUESTION 137
Data link switching is typically used in which Enterprise Campus
Module layer?
a) Server Farm
b) Campus Core
c) Building Access
d) Building Distribution
e) Internet Connectivity
QUESTION 138
Which two statements about designing the Enterprise Data Center
Access submodule are correct? (Choose two)
a) Multiport NIC servers should each have their own IP
address
b) Layer 3 connectivity should never be used in the access
layer
c) Layer 2 connectivity is primarily implemented in the access
layer
d) Multiport NIC servers should never be used in the access
layer
e) Layer 2 clustering implementation requires servers to be
Layer 2 adjacent
QUESTION 139
Which two statements about the Enterprise Data Center
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Aggregation submodule are correct? (Choose two.)
a) it provides Layer 4-7 services
b) It should never support STP
c) It is the critical point for control and application services
d) It typically provides Layer 2 connectivity from the data
center to the core
QUESTION 140
Which of the following is a modular component within the Cisco
Enterprise Campus module in the Cisco Enterprise Architecture
framework?
a) Teleworker
b) E-Commerce
c) Internet Connectivity
d) Building Distribution
e) WAN/MAN Site-to-Site VPN
QUESTION 141
DataQuirk is a web-based medical transcription company for
exotic-animal veterinarians. The company recently added a third
ISP for international business. They are organizing the enterprise
network into a fully operational Enterprise Edge.
To which two modules will the three ISPs be directly related?
(Choose two.)
a) PSTN
b) E-Commerce
c) WAN/MAN
d) Edge Distribution
e) Internet Connectivity
f) Remote Access VPN
Correct Answer: BE Section: Multiple choice Explanation

QUESTION 142
Which statement describes the recommended deployment of DNS
and DHCP servers in the Cisco Enterprise Architecture Model?
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a) Place the DHCP and DNS servers in the Enterprise
Campus Access layer and Enterprise branch
b) Place the DHCP and DNS servers in the Enterprise
Campus Server Farm layer and Enterprise branch
c) Place the DHCP server in the Enterprise Campus Core
layer and Remote Access/VPN module with the DNS server
in the Internet Connectivity module
d) Place the DHCP server in the Enterprise Campus
Distribution layer with the DNS server in the Internet
Connectivity module
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 143
Which two modules are found in the Enterprise Edge functional
area of the Cisco Enterprise Architecture? (Choose two.)
a) Teleworker
b) WAN/LAN
c) Server Farm
d) E-Commerce
e) Internet Connectivty
f) Remote Access/VPN
QUESTION 144
The Cisco Data Center Network Architecture comprises which two
Cisco SONA layers? (Choose two)
a) Interactive Services
b) Business Applications
c) Network Infrastructure
d) Collaboration Applications
e) WAN/Internet
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QUESTION 145
Which three of these are layers in the Cisco SONA Architecture?
(Choose three.)
a) Application
b) Physical Infrastructure
c) Presentation
d) Integrated Transport
e) Core Common Services
f) Networked Infrastructure
Correct Answer: ABF
Section: Multiple choice Explanation
QUESTION 146
A Cisco SONA architecture layer is described as follows:
The layer’s IT resources are interconnected across a converged

network foundation.
The layer’s IT resources include servers, storage, and clients.
The layer represents how resources exist across the network.
The customer objective for the layer is to have anywhere/anytime
connectivity. Which Cisco SONA architecture layer is being
described?
a) Application
b) Physical
c) Integrated Transport
d) Interactive Services
e) Networked Infrastructure
QUESTION 147
At which stage in the PPDIOO process would you analyze a
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customer’s network in order to discover opportunities for network
improvement?
a) Plan
b) Prepare
c) Design
d) Implement
e) Operate
f) Design Assesment
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 148
Which of these is the next step after the design phase in the
PPDIOO process?
a) Order the equipment
b) Develop a high-level migration plan
c) Create a pilot or a prototype network
d) Develop the implementation plan in as much detail as
possible
e) Identify which network management protocol will be used
for which function
QUESTION 149
According to Cisco, which four improvements are the main
benefits of the PPDIOO lifecycle approach to network design?
(Choose four.)
a) Faster ROI
b) Improved business agility
c) Increased network availability
d) Faster access to applications and services
e) Lower total cost of network ownership
f) Better implementation team engagement
Correct Answer: BCDE Section: Multiple choice Explanation
QUESTION 150
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During which stage of the PPDIOO process are implementation
procedures prepared?
a) Prepare
b) Plan
c) Design
d) Implement
e) Operate
f) Optimize
QUESTION 151
Which two design methodology steps relate, at least in part, to the
implement phase of the PPDIOO process? (Choose two.)
a) Verifying the network
b) Testing design
c) Determining customer requirements
d) Characterizing the existing network
e) Establishing the organizational requirements
QUESTION 152
Which two statements represent advantages that the top-down
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network design process has over the bottom-up network design
process? (Choose two.)
a) Is able to provide the big picture
b) Utilizes previous experience
c) Takes less time to design a network
d) Identifies appropriate technologies first
e) Provides a design for current and future development
Correct Answer: AE Section: Multiple choice Explanation
QUESTION 153
Which statement identifies a benefit obtained when using a top-
down network design plan?
a) Allow quick responses to design requests
b) Facilitates design based on previous experience
c) Incorporates customer organizational requirements
d) Is less time-consuming than using a bottom-up approach
e) Provides a more detailed picture of the desired network
QUESTION 154
What are three valid methods of gathering information about an
existing data network? (Choose three.)
a) Use organizational input
b) Perform a traffic analysis
c) Analyze the user-mapping of a running application
d) Perform a packet-level audit to verify carrier service
guarantees
e) Perform a network audit to gather more detail about the
network
f) Use reports that analyze the metrics of the customer’s
existing network
QUESTION 155
Which of the following Cisco router services performs network
traffic analysis to assist in documenting a customer’s existing
network?
a) MRTG
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b) NetMon
c) NetFlow
d) SNMP MIB complier
QUESTION 156
You are performing an audit of a customer’s existing network and
need to obtain the following router information:
interfaces
running processes
IOS image being executed
Which command should you use?
a) show version
b) show tech-support
c) show starup-config
d) show running-config
e) show processes memory
QUESTION 157
Which Cisco device management feature is most suited to
metering network traffic and providing data for billing network
usage?
a) BGP
b) Cisco Discovery Protocol
c) QoS
d) RMON
e) NetFlow
QUESTION 158
Which network management protocol allows a network device to
have vendor-specific objects for management?
a) SNMP v1
b) SNMP v2
c) SNMP v3
d) MIB
e) RMON 1
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f) RMON 2
QUESTION 159
Which three sources does a network designer use to collect
information for characterizing an existing network? (Choose three.)
a) Staff input
b) Visual inventory
c) Network audit
d) Traffic analysis
e) Server statistics
QUESTION 160
To provide Layer 2 connectivity between the primary and remote
data centers, given that the two data centers are using Layer 3
routed DCIs, which NX-OS technology can be used to facilitate this
requirement?
a) VRF
b) OTV
c) MPLS
d) STP
e) vPC
QUESTION 161
What is the acceptable amount of one-way network delay for voice
and video applications?
a) 300 bytes
b) 1 sec
c) 150 msec
d) 500 msec

QUESTION 162
At which layer of the network is route summarization
recommended?
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a) Data link layer
b) Core layer
c) Distribution layer
d) Access layer
QUESTION 163
Which WAN technology is a cost-effective method to deliver
100Mb of bandwidth to multiple branch offices?
a) DSL
b) DWDM
c) ISDN
d) Metro Ethernet
QUESTION 164
Which Cisco device has the sole function at looking at threat
detection and mitigation at the Enterprise Edge?
a) Cisco IOS Router
b) Cisco ASA
c) Cisco Catalyst FWSM
d) Cisco IPS
QUESTION 165
If a teleworker is required to access the branch office via a secure
IPsec VPN connection, which technology is recommended to
provide the underlying transport?
a) ISDN
b) Metro Ethernet
c) Frame Relay
d) ASDL
e) ATM
QUESTION 166
Which factor would be most influential in choosing multimode fiber
optic connections over UTP?
a) Signal attenuation
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b) Required bandwidth
c) Required distance
d) Electromagnetic interference
e) Cost
QUESTION 167
A hierarchical design of the EIGRP domain facilitates which two of
the following? (Choose two.)
a) Route summarization
b) Faster convergence
c) Unequal cost load balancing
d) Redistribution
e) Virtual Links
QUESTION 168
Which three types of WAN topologies can be deployed in the
Service Provider Module? (Choose three.)
a) Ring
b) Star
c) Full mesh
d) Core/edge
e) Collapsed core
f) Partial mesh
Correct Answer: BCF Section: Multiple choice Explanation
QUESTION 169
Which two features are supported by single wireless controller
deployments? (Choose two.)
a) Automatic detection and configuration of LWAPPs
b) LWAPP support across multiple floors and buildings
c) Automatic detection and configuration of RF parameters
d) Layer 2 and Layer 3 roaming
e) Controller redundancy
f) Mobility groups
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QUESTION 170
Which three describe challenges that are faced when deploying an
environment for teleworkers? (Choose three.)
a) Supporting a mix of technically knowledgeable and non

technical users
b) Simplifying router installation and configuration
c) Verifying available power at employee's house for
necessary equipment
d) Avoiding situations where employees might use
nonstandard hardware or configurations
e) Reducing daily commuting time to main office location
f) Providing access to FTP servers located in main office
location
g) Implementing leased line connectivity between main office
and employee's home location
QUESTION 171
What are the three models that are required in the systematic
approach of the top-down design methodology? (Choose three.)
a) Logical
b) Physical
c) Layered
d) Network components
e) Technological
f) Protocols
g) Virtual
QUESTION 172
What design requirement is necessary for Campus Network
Access layer switching?
a) High cost per port
b) High availability
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c) High scalability
d) High performance
QUESTION 173
Which two issues are typical challenges to network stability and
reliability? (Choose two.)
a) Hardware failures
b) Layer 1 link failures
c) Application failures
d) Core layer failures
e) Distribution layer failures
QUESTION 174
If two routing protocols have the same route and prefix, which
effect do thery have on the routing table?
a) Only the route with the lowest administrative distance is
added
b) Only the route with the highest administrative distance is
added
c) Both routes are added
d) Neither route is added, and a loop is formed
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 175
Which two options are benefits of using a modular network
architecture? (Choose two.)
a) Facilitates troubleshooting
b) Accurate monitoring
c) Consistent documentation
d) Increased flexibility
e) Reduced cabling requirements
QUESTION 176
What is a benefit of IPv6 over IPv4 addresses?
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a) Shorter addresses
b) Automatic summarization
c) Hierarchical global address space
d) Faster IGP convergence
QUESTION 177
For a VLAN that requires 70 hosts, which subnet is the most
efficient?
A. 10.0.0.1/8
B. 172.31.17.0/26
C. 192.168.1.0/25
D. 192.168.15.0/24
QUESTION 178
Which item is the fundamental basis of a virtual network?
a) VRF instance
b) MIB database
c) GRE tunnel
d) Redundant hardware
QUESTION 179
Your company uses OSPF for internal routing. The company will be
connected to VendorA via a single dedicated link and to VendorB
via redundant links. Both vendors also use OSPF for internal
routing. Which of the following deployments describes the best
intra-domain routing practice in this situation?
a) Connect your company to both VendorA and VendorB
using existing OSPF
b) Redistribute the routes on each link between your company
and the vendors to a shared EIGRP routing protocol
c) Use iBGP to reach VendorA and eBGP to reach VendorB
d) Use static routes to reach VendorA and eBGP to reach
VendorB
e) Use static routes to reach both VendorA and vendorB
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 180
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Refer to the list of requirements. Which IP telephony design model
should you implement to fulfill these requirements?
Must be a single, large location with many remote sites
Must have multisite WAN connectivity
Requires SRST for call processing redundancy
a) Centralized
b) Distributed
c) Clustered
d) Decentralized
QUESTION 181
Which network access control technology is recommended to use
with Layer 2 access layer switches?
A. 802.1q B. 802.1x C. 802.3af D. 802.3q E. 802.11n
QUESTION 182
Which technology enables WLCs to peer with each other to enable
roaming support?
a) WAP profiles
b) Roaming profiles
c) Mobility groups
d) Peer groups
QUESTION 183
Which IP telephony component supports VoIP, PoE, and QoS?
a) Client Endpoints
b) Voice-enabled infrastructure
c) Cisco Unified Communications Manager
d) Cisco Unified Contact Center
QUESTION 184
What business trend allows employees to use personal devices to
access enterprise data and systems?
a) ISE
b) BYOD
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c) SAN
d) IOE
QUESTION 185
What three customer supported details identifies network
requirements based on the PPDIOO design model? (Choose
three.)
a) Goals
b) Budget
c) User needs
d) Locations
e) Policies
f) Tasks
QUESTION 186
An engineer receives a resource utilization alert on a router. What
command should be used to investigate the issue?
a) show processes cpu
b) show memory
c) show running-config
d) show version
QUESTION 187
What part of the network does a top-down network design focus
on for solution development?
a) Presentation
b) Hardware
c) Session
d) Application
e) Data link
f) Transport
QUESTION 188
An engineer has configured a router to send level 7 messages to a
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syslog server. What severity level are these messages?
a) Error
b) Warning
c) Debug
d) Informational
e) Notice
QUESTION 189
A network engineer must implement a design where LAN clients
are to connect to various access layer devices, while remaining on
the same VLAN. What type of design would support this
requirement?
a) Routed
b) Switched
c) Tunneled
d) Virtual
QUESTION 190
When evaluating network design, what indicator demonstrates that
the modular approach was followed?
a) Ability to scale
b) Follows best practices
c) Redundant connectivity
d) Easy to deploy
QUESTION 191
A network engineer is following the Cisco Enterprise Architecture
model. To which network layer would a branch office connect to
using a private VLAN?
a) Enterprise Campus
b) Enterprise Edge
c) SP Edge Premise
d) Remote Module
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QUESTION 192
A network engineer is following the three tiered Network
Hierarchical Model. At which tier is route summarization
implemented?
a) Core
b) Distribution
c) Backbone
d) Access
QUESTION 193
A network engineer is using the Cisco Enterprise Architecture
Model. In what module do network management servers reside?
a) Enterprise campus
b) Enterprise Edge
c) Remote Modules
d) SP Edge WAN/Internet
QUESTION 194
What three design requirements are key to design a Campus
Core?
a) Low latency
b) Access control
c) Traffic filtering
d) High speed
e) Redundant links
f) QoS tagging
Correct Answer: ADE Section: Multiple choice Explanation
QUESTION 195
What type of device can be installed to increase a broadcast
domain?
a) Router
b) Switch
c) IDS
d) IPS
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QUESTION 196
To what Layer 2 technology does VRF closely compare?
a) VSS
b) vPC
c) VLAN
d) VTP
QUESTION 197
What network virtualization technology can be leveraged within the
data center to reduce the number of physical devices?
a) VLANs
b) VPLS
c) VDC
d) VSS
QUESTION 198
During the design of a new campus network, the customer
requests the ability to route overlapping IP addresses. What
technology can be leveraged to meet this request?
a) VRF
b) VLANs
c) VSS
d) vPC
QUESTION 199
Which three are considered as technical constraints when
identifying network requirements? (Choose three.)
a) Support for legacy applications

b) Bandwidth support for new applications
c) Limited budget allocation
d) Policy limitations
e) Limited support staff to complete assessment
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f) Support for existing legacy equipment
g) Limited timeframe to implement
Correct Answer: ABF Section: Multiple choice Explanation

QUESTION 200
Which two common cable management strategies are used in
high-density server deployments in the data center? (Choose two.)
a) Top-of-rack
b) Middle-of-rack
c) Bottom-of-rack
d) Beginning-of-row
e) Middle-of-row
f) End-of-row
Correct Answer: AF Section: Multiple choice Explanation
QUESTION 201
Which protocol is the recommended first-hop redundancy protocol
for an existing infrastructure that contains multiple vendors and
platforms?
a) HSRP
b) VRRP
c) IGRP
d) OSPF
QUESTION 202
Which IGP provides the fastest convergence by default?
a) EIGRP
b) OSPF
c) IS-IS
d) RSTP
e) BGP
QUESTION 203
Which three are valid Layer 2 access designs? (Choose three.)
a) Looped Triangle
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b) Looped Square
c) Looped U
d) Loop-Free Triangle
e) Loop-Free Square
f) Loop-Free U
Correct Answer: ABF Section: Multiple choice Explanation
QUESTION 204
Which two enterprise campus layers are combined in a medium-
sized LAN? (Choose two.)
a) Core
b) Distribution
c) Access
d) Backbone
e) Aggregation
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 205
What is a characteristic of campus core design?
a) Fast transport
b) Security
c) Summarization
d) Redistribution
QUESTION 206
Which servers that reside in the data center require direct links to
all other enterprise modules?
a) Network management servers
b) DHCP servers
c) Active Directory servers
d) IP SLA servers
e) Web servers
QUESTION 207
Which Gigabit Ethernet media type provides the longest reach
without a repeater?
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a) 1000Base-CX
b) 1000Base-LX
c) 1000Base-SX
d) 1000Base-T
QUESTION 208
which three options represents the components of the Teleworker
Solution? (Choose three.)
a) Cisco Unified IP Phone
b) Cisco 880 Series Router
c) Aironet Office Extend Access Point
d) Catalyst 3560 Series Switch
e) Cisco 2900 Series Router
f) MPLS Layer 3 VPN
g) Leased lines
QUESTION 209
What is the maximum number of groups that is supported by
GLBP?
A. 64 B. 256 C. 512 D. 1024
QUESTION 210
Which three services categories are supported by an ISR?
(Choose three.)
a) Voice
b) Security
c) Data
d) Internet
e) Storage
f) Satellite
QUESTION 211
Which three protocols support VLSM? (Choose three.)
a) RIPv2
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b) RIPv1
c) EIGRP
d) OSPF
e) IGRP
QUESTION 212
Which statement describes an unique feature of EIGRP?
a) It enables unequal-cost load balancing
b) It enables equal-cost load balancing
c) It enables source-based load balancing
d) It enables port-based load balancing
QUESTION 213
ACME corporation is implementing dynamic routing on the LAN at
its corporate headquarters. The interior gateway protocol that they
select must support these requirements: multivendor environment,
efficient subnetting, high scalability, and fast convergence.
Which interior gateway protocol should they implement?

a) EIGRP
b) OSPF
c) RIPng
d) BGP
QUESTION 214
Which routing protocol classification should you use when full
topology information is needed?
a) Link-state
b) Distance vector
c) Stateful
d) Path vector
QUESTION 215
When you are designing a large IPv6 multivendor network, which
IGP does Cisco recommend to use?
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a) OSPFv3
b) EIGRP for IPv6
c) BGP
d) RIPng
QUESTION 216
When designing the infrastructure protection portion for the
Enterprise Edge, which solution would be the most appropriate
solution to consider?
A. 802.1x
a) ACLs in the Core layer
b) Cisco Security MARS
c) AAA

QUESTION 217
Which two design approaches provide management of Enterprise
Network devices? (Choose two.)
a) In-band
b) Out-of-line
c) Out-of-band
d) In-line
QUESTION 218
A network engineer is attempting to separate routing domains
using virtualization technology. What protocol can be configured to
perform this task?
a) VLAN
b) VSAN
c) VRF
d) vPC
QUESTION 219
What device virtualization technology allows a single point of
management and a centralized routing instance?
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a) ACE
b) VSS
c) VDC
d) VM
QUESTION 220
What two performance considerations must be taken into account
when designing a remote worker access solution? (Choose two.)
a) Simultaneous VPN connections
b) Port density
c) Throughput capacity
d) Packet size
e) Latency
QUESTION 221
In which network location should an external DNS server be
placed?
a) Campus data center
b) Enterprise branch
c) Internet
d) Remote access
QUESTION 222
What submodule is found within the Enterprise Edge module?
a) Enterprise WAN
b) Remote branch
c) Campus IPS
d) Building distribution
QUESTION 223
A company requires a managed WAN solution that supports Layer
2 adjacency across remote offices for applications and services.
What solution should be selected?
a) DMVPN
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b) MPLS
c) VPLS
d) FR
QUESTION 224
A circuit has been placed for Gigabit Ethernet and is 80 km from
the carrier equipment. What type of SFP will be required?
a) TX
b) SX
c) ZX
d) LX
QUESTION 225
A secure WAN design requires dynamic routing and IP multicast.
What two VPN protocols meet these requirements?
a) Standard IPsec
b) P2P GRE over IPsec
c) DMVPN
d) AnyConnect
e) PPTP
f) Easy VPN
g) SSL/TLS
QUESTION 226
What branch design supports 100 to 1000 users and integrates
ASA firewalls ?
a) Small
b) Medium
c) Large
d) Extra large
QUESTION 227
A network engineer is designing an enterprise managed VPN
solution for a large number of remote offices that do not have on-
site IT support and communicate only with the home office.
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What type of VPN solution should be implemented?
a) VPLS
b) GRE
c) IPsec
d) EVPN
e) DMVPN
f) SSL client
QUESTION 228
A remote office has a T1 WAN link to headquarters and a T1
Internet connection. The client requests WAN redundancy to
headquarters with similar bandwidth. What two connection types
satisfy this requirement? (Choose two.)
a) Secondary T1 WAN circuit
b) ISDN BRI
c) IPsec tunnel over the Internet
d) DWDM
e) POTS Line T1 WAN

QUESTION 229
What two features are advantages of adding a secondary WAN
link at the Enterprise Edge? (Choose two.)
a) Provides additional bandwidth and load balancing
capabilities
b) Acts as a a backup link in event the primary link fails
c) Reduces capital and operational costs
d) Improves security and prevents against denial of service
attacks
e) Distributes traffic proactively based on link utilization
QUESTION 230
What technology can secure data over an insecure medium and
provide WAN redundancy in the event of a primary connection
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failure?
a) Virtual Private Network
b) Shadow PVC
c) Dial-up ISDN
d) GRE tunnel
QUESTION 231
A client wants to consolidate applications that are currently housed
at multiple sites to a remote data center. What two design
requirements are unique to this scenario? (Choose two.)
a) Bandwidth
b) Security
c) Latency
d) Storage
e) Availability
QUESTION 232
What IPv4 addressing technique allows for the division of
addresses into subnets of different sizes?
a) VLSM
b) RIR
c) CIDR
d) NAT
QUESTION 233
An organization is conducting an evaluation on the migration to
IPv6 within the enterprise network and has requested clarification
on recommended migration strategies.
What three migration models would accomplish the organization's
goal? (Choose three.)
a) Dual Stack
b) Service Block
c) Top-Down
d) Hybrid
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e) Tunneled
f) Fork-Lift
QUESTION 234
An application uses broadcast traffic to send data to IPv4 hosts.
How can the application communicate using IPv6?
a) Anycast
b) Unicast
c) Broadcast
d) Multicast
QUESTION 235
What significant advantage does EIGRP have over OSPF?
a) Easy summarization
b) Shorter convergence time
c) Single area operation
d) Low processor utilization
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 236
What routing protocol requires full mesh between internal peers in
an enterprise network?
a) OSPF
b) EIGRP
c) BGP
d) IS-IS
e) RIP
QUESTION 237
What three considerations should be taken into account when
selecting a routing protocol? (Choose three.)
a) Classful routing
b) Scalability
c) Default route origination
d) Multi vendor support
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e) Link load balancing
f) Hop count
Correct Answer: BDE Section: Multiple choice Explanation
QUESTION 238
By default, how does EIGRP's metric differ from OSPF?
a) Hops
b) Cost
c) Bandwidth
d) Delay
QUESTION 239
What characteristic separates link state routing protocols from a
distance vector?
a) Creates a topological view of the entire network
b) Path calculation utilizes a more granular metric
c) Do not scale well for large networks
d) Constantly shares link states updates throughout the
topology
QUESTION 240
A company must deploy an IGP routing protocol on an Enterprise
Network. Where should route summarization be implemented?
a) Distribution
b) Core
c) Access
d) Backbone
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 241
What routing configuration can prevent routing loops between
IGPs?
a) Route filters
b) Route reflectors
c) Auto summarization
d) Virtual links
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QUESTION 242
What is the first step when creating a network security policy?
a) Define what should be protected
b) Investigate how likely an attack is to occur
c) Implement measures to protect assets
d) Hire a security firm to perform penetration tests
QUESTION 243
A customer requests a filtering design based on the need to scan
all internet traffic, including remote workers. What solution meets
these requirements?
a) Cisco Cloud Web Security
b) Cisco Network Admission Control
c) Cisco Identity Service Engine
d) Cisco Adaptive Security Appliance
QUESTION 244
A customer wants to support a BYOD environment. What two
products allow for posture assessment? (Choose two.)
a) ACS
b) NAC
c) ASA
d) ISE
e) WAAS
f) IDS
QUESTION 245
What two CoS values are used by voice traffic? (Choose two.)
a) CoS 1
b) CoS 2
c) CoS 3
d) CoS 4
e) CoS 5
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QUESTION 246
A client wants to deploy a video conferencing platform in a
multisite WAN environment. What two design considerations need
to be evaluated? (Choose two.)
a) Codecs supported by the video units
b) Buffer sizes on the routers
c) PoE capabilities of the switches
d) Number of current calls
e) Number of hops between sites
QUESTION 247
You want to gather as much detail as possible during a network
audit, to include data time stamping across a large number of
interfaces, customized according to interface, with a minimal
impact on the network devices themselves. Which tool would you
use to meet these requirements?
a) RMON
b) SNMPv3
c) NetFlow
d) Cisco Discovery Protocol
QUESTION 248
In which phase of PPDIOO are the network requirements
identified?
a) Design
b) Plan
c) Prepare
d) Implement
e) Operate
f) Optimize
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QUESTION 249
Which is part of the Prepare phase of PPDIOO?
a) Obtain site contact information
b) Perform network audit
c) Identify customer requirements
d) Optimize
QUESTION 250
When designing the identity and access control portions for the
enterprise campus network, which of these solutions would be the
most appropriate solution to consider?
1. 802.1x
2. ACL in the Core Layer
3. Cisco Security MARS
4. NetFlow
QUESTION 251
Which is the purpose of the Cisco NAC Profiler?
a) Automates discovery and inventory of all LAN attached
devices
b) Generates a profile based on username and group
c) Learns and creates a database of virus definitions based
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on LAN traffic
d) A database used to map user VPN accounts
QUESTION 252
Cisco Identity-Based Networking Services relies heavily on the
802.1x protocol. Which other authentication solution is used hand-
in-hand with 802.1x to authenticate users for network access?
a) RADIUS
b) LEAP
c) IPsec
d) TACACS
e) ISAKMP
QUESTION 253
Which protocol is used to reserve bandwidth for the transport of a
particular application data flow across the network?
a) cRTP
b) IEEE 802.1P
c) RSVP
d) LFI
e) Auto QoS
QUESTION 254
Which four services does the architecture for Media Services
contain? (Choose four.)
a) Access services
b) Transport services
c) Storage services
d) Forwarding services
e) Session control services
f) Security services
g) Filtering services
h) Remote access services
Correct Answer: ABCE Section: Multiple choice Explanation
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QUESTION 255
Which IPv6 feature enables routing to distribute connection
requests to the nearest content server?
a) Link-local
b) Site-local
c) Anycast
d) Multicast
e) Global aggregatable
QUESTION 256
What is the recommended spanning tree protocol to use for all
Layer 2 deployments in a branch office environment?
a) CST
b) RSPT
c) PVST
d) MISTP
e) Rapid PVST+
QUESTION 257
Which two are types of network virtualization? (Choose two.)
a) VSS: Virtual Switching System
b) VRF: Virtual Routing and Forwarding
c) VCI: Virtual Channel Identifier
d) VLSM: Variable Length Subnet Masking
e) VM: Virtual Machine
f) VMP: Virtual Memory Pool

QUESTION 258
You are tasked with designing a new branch office that will support
75 users with possible expansion in the future and will need a
highly available network. Which of the branch design profiles
should be implemented?
a) Large branch design
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b) Medium branch design
c) Teleworker design
d) Small branch design
QUESTION 259
Which two can be used as a branch office WAN solution? (Choose
two.)
a) Frame Relay
b) MPLS
c) Metro Ethernet
d) GPRS
e) Dial-up modem
f) 3G USB modems
QUESTION 260
Drag the WAN characteristics on the left to the branch office model
where it would most likely to be used on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 261
Your company's Cisco routers are operating with EIGRP. You need
to join networks with an acquisition's heterogeneous routers at 3
sites, operating with EIGRP and OSPF.
Which describes the best practice for routing protocol deployment?
a) Apply OSPF throughout both networks
b) Apply one-way redistribution exclusively at each location
c) Apply two-way redistribution exclusively at each location
d) Apply two-way redistribution at each location with a route
filter at only one location
e) Apply two-way redistribution at each location with a route
filter at each location
f) Apply EIGRP with the same autonomous system
throughout both networks
QUESTION 262
Which one of these statements is an example of how trust and
identity management solutions should be deployed in the
enterprise campus network?
a) Authentication validation should be deployed as close to
the data center as possible.
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b) Use the principle of top-down privilege, which means that
each subject should have the privileges that are necessary
to perform their defined tasks, as well as all the tasks for
those roles below them.
c) Mixed ACL rules, using combinations of specific sources
and destinations, should be applied as close to the source
as possible.
d) For ease of management, practice defense in isolation -
security mechanisms should be in place one time, in one
place.
QUESTION 263
When designing the threat detection and mitigation portion for the
enterprise data center network, which of the following would be the
most appropriate solution to consider?
a) 802.1x
b) ACL in the Core layer
c) Cisco Security MARS
d) Cisco Firewall Services Module
QUESTION 264
You have a campus network that consists of only Cisco devices.
You have been tasked to discover the device platforms, the IOS
versions, and an IP address of each device to map the network.
Which proprietary protocol will assist you with this task?
a) SNMP
b) TCP
c) CDP
d) ICMP
e) LLDP
QUESTION 265
Which three technologies are recommended to be used for WAN
connectivity in today's Enterprise Edge designs? (Choose three.)
a) DWDM
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b) Metro Ethernet
c) Frame relay
d) MPLS VPN
e) ISDN
f) DSL
g) Wireless
QUESTION 266
Which WLC interface is dedicated for WLAN client data?
a) Virtual interface
b) Dynamic interface
c) Management interface
d) AP manager interface
e) Service port interface
QUESTION 267
The first phase of PPDIOO entails identifying customer
requirements. Drag the example on the left to the associated
requirement on the right. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
http://www.gra
QUESTION 268
During which phase of the PPDIOO model would you conduct
interviews with supporting staff to develop and propose a viable
solution?
a) Prepare
b) Plan
c) Design
d) Implement
e) Operate
f) Optimize
QUESTION 269
Drag the description or characteristic on the left to the appropriate
technology or protocol on the right.
Select and Place:
http://www.gra
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 270
Click and drag the phases of the PPDIOO network lifecycle
approach on the left to their order on the right.
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QUESTION 271
Characterizing an existing network requires gathering as much
information about the network as possible. Which of these choices
describes the preferred order for the information-gathering
process?
a) Site and network audits, traffic analysis, existing

documentation and organizational input
b) Existing documentation and organizational input, site and
network audits, traffic analysis
c) Traffic analysis, existing documentation and organizational
input, site and network audits
d) Site and network audits, existing documentation and
organizational input, traffic analysis

QUESTION 272
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Which statement accurately represents the characteristics of the
core layer in this design?
a) QoS should only be performed only in the core
b) Load balancing should never be implemented or used
c) Access lists should be used in the core to perform packet
manipulation
d) Partial mesh should be used as long as it is connected to
each device by multiple paths
e) Policy-based traffic control should be implemented to
enable prioritization and ensure the best performance for all
time-critical applications
QUESTION 273
Which three modular components are part of the Cisco Enterprise
Edge Architecture? (Choose three.)
a) E-commerce module
b) Internet connectivity module
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c) Server farm module
d) Remote access and VPN module
e) PSTN services module
f) Enterprise branch module
g) Building distribution module
QUESTION 274
Drag the characteristics of the traditional campus network on the
left to the most appropriate hierarchical network layer on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
http://www.gra
QUESTION 275
Drag the network function on the left to the functional area or
module where it is most likely to be performed in the enterprise
campus infrastructure on the right.
Select and Place:
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QUESTION 276
Where in the Cisco Enterprise Architecture model does network
management reside?
a) Enterprise data center module
b) Enterprise campus module
c) Enterprise edge module
d) Service Provider edge module
e) Service Provider data center module

QUESTION 277
Drag the security prevision on the left to
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QUESTION 278
Which three solutions are part of the Borderless Network
Services? (Choose three.)
a) Wireless
b) Routing
c) TrustSec
d) MediaNet
e) Swicthing
f) EnergyWise
g) Next-Gen WAN
Correct Answer: CDF Section: Multiple choice Explanation
QUESTION 279
The evolution of the Data Center is best represented by the 3.0
architecture component of virtualization. Which of the following is
not an example of the virtualization taking place in the Data
Center?
a) Virtualized media access utilizing Fiber Channel over
Ethernet
b) VLANs and virtual storage area networks (VSANs) provide
for virtualized LAN and SAN connectivity, separating
physical networks and equipment into virtual entities
c) Virtual Machines that run an application within the client
operating system, which is further virtualized and running
on common hardware
d) Storage devices virtualized into storage pools, and network
devices are virtualized using device contexts
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 280
Which layer of the OSI model does Cisco recommend to place the
enterprise network core layer, when designing a network based on
its switched hierarchical design?
a) Layer 1
b) Layer 2
c) Layer 3
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d) Layer 4
QUESTION 281
Which Cisco technology using Nexus NX-OS infrastructure allows
the network architect to create up to four separate control and data
plane instances of the Nexus chassis?
a) vPC (Virtual port-channel)
b) VRF (Virtual Routing and Forwarding)
c) VSS (Virtual Switching System)
d) VDC (Virtual Device Context)
QUESTION 282
Which three options are valid Cisco STP tools used to ensure
best-practice access layer design for the enterprise campus?
(Choose three.)
a) PortFast
b) UDLD
c) Root Guard
d) BPDU Guard
e) Flex Links
f) SPAN
g) EtherChannel
QUESTION 283
Spanning Layer 2 across geographically separate data centers is a
key consideration for current data center designs. Which is the
name of the NX-OS technology
that facilitates MAC in IP transport for Layer 2 VLANs across any
IP network?
a) Overlay Transport Virtualization (OTV)
b) Virtual Private LAN Services (VPLS)
c) Generic Routing Encapsulation (GRE)
d) Q-in-Q tunneling
QUESTION 284
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When selecting which hardware switches to use throughout an
enterprise campus switched network, which consideration is not
relevant?
a) Whether data link layer switching based upon the MAC
address is required
b) The number of shared media segments
c) Which infrastructure service capabilities are required
d) Whether to support Layer 3 services at the network edge
QUESTION 285
Which two of these practices are considered to be best practices
when designing the access layer for the enterprise campus?
(Choose two.)
a) Implement all of the services (QoS, security, STP, and so

on) in the access layer, offloading the work from the
distribution and core layers.
b) Always use a Spanning Tree Protocol; preferred is Rapid
PVST+.
c) Use automatic VLAN pruning to prune unused VLANs from
trunked interfaces to avoid broadcast propagation.
d) Avoid wasted processing by disabling STP where loops are
not possible.
e) Use VTP transparent mode to decrease the potential for
operational error.
When designing the building access layer, you must consider the
number of users or ports required to size up the LAN switch.
Connectivity speed for each host should also be considered. Hosts
might be connected using various technologies such as Fast
Ethernet, Gigabit Ethernet, or port channels. The planned VLANs
enter into the design.
Performance in the access layer is also important. Redundancy
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and QoS features should be considered. The following are
recommended best practices for the building access layer:
Limit VLANs to a single closet when possible to provide the most
deterministic and highly available topology.
Use Rapid Per-VLAN Spanning Tree Plus (RPVST+) if STP is

required. It provides the faster convergence than traditional 802.1d
default timers.
Set trunks to ON and ON with no-negotiate.
Manually prune unused VLANs to avoid broadcast propagation

(commonly done on the distribution switch).
Use VLAN Trunking Protocol (VTP) Transparent mode, because

there is little need for a common VLAN database in hierarchical
networks.
Disable trunking on host ports, because it is not necessary. Doing

so provides more security and speeds up PortFast.
Consider implementing routing in the access layer to provide fast
convergence and Layer 3 load balancing.
Use the switchport host commands on server and end-user ports

to enable PortFast and disable channeling on these ports.
Use Cisco STP Toolkit, which provides:
> PortFast: Bypass listening-learning phase for access ports
> Loop Guard. Prevents alternate or root port from becoming
designated in absence of bridge protocol data units (BPDU)
> Root Guard. Prevents external switches from becoming root
> BPDU Guard. Disables PortFast-enabled port if a BPDU is
received
QUESTION 286
The enterprise campus core layer has requirements that are
unique from the distribution and access layers. Which of the
following is true about the core layer?
a) The core layer provides convergence using Layer 2 and
Layer 3 services and features
b) The core layer provides high availability to support the
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distribution layer connections to the enterprise edge
c) The campus core layer is optional
d) The core layer requires high performance to manage the
traffic policing across the backbone

QUESTION 287
Drag the technology on the left to the type of enterprise
virtualization where it is most likely to be found on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
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Network Virtualization:
VPC
VLAN
VRF
Device Virtualization:
ASA firewall context

IPS
VDC
Network virtualization encompasses logical isolated network

segments that share the same physical infrastructure. Each
segment operates independently and is logically separate from the
other segments. Each network segment appears with its own
privacy, security, independent set of policies, QoS levels, and
independent routing paths.
Device virtualization allows for a single physical device to act like

multiple copies of itself. Device virtualization enables many logical
devices to run independently of each other on the same physical
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piece of hardware. The software creates virtual hardware that can
function just like the physical network device. Another form of
device virtualization entails using multiple physical devices to act
as one logical unit.
QUESTION 288
Which statement is true concerning enterprise edge distribution

switches?
a) The speed of switching is the most critical feature

b) Security requirements are offloaded to the other modules
for performance reasons
c) Edge distribution switches are only required when using a
collapsed core backbone
d) Enterprise edge distribution switches are similar to the
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building distribution layer
QUESTION 289
Which is a factor in enterprise campus design decisions?
a) Network application characteristics
b) Routing protocol characteristics
c) Switching latency characteristics
d) Packet filtering characteristics
QUESTION 290
Which network virtualization technology involves creating virtual
routers with its own individual routing tables on a physical router?
a) VSS
b) vPC
c) VRF
d) VLAN
QUESTION 291
Drag the network characteristic on the left to the design method on
the right which will best ensure redundancy at the building
distribution layer.
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QUESTION 292
Which three are associated with the distribution layer within the
campus design? (Choose three.)
a) Access layer aggregation
b) Route summarization
c) Network trust boundary
d) Next-hop redundancy
e) Layer-2 switching
f) Port security
g) Broadcast suppression
QUESTION 293
High availability is a key design consideration in the enterprise
campus network. In a fully redundant topology, which is likely to
provide faster IGP convergence during a failure?
a) Redundant supervisors
b) Redundant supervisors with Cisco Nonstop Forwarding
(NSF) and Stateful Switchover (SSO)
c) Single supervisors with tuned IGP timers
d) Single supervisors
QUESTION 294
In the enterprise data center, which are the three main
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components? (Choose three.)
a) Network Infrastructure
b) Interactive services
c) Data Center Management
d) Internet services
e) WAN services
f) VPN and remote access
QUESTION 295
Drag the associated virtualization tool or solution on the left to the
appropriate design requirement on the right.
QUESTION 296
When designing using the Cisco Enterprise Architecture, in which
Enterprise Campus layer does the Remote Access and VPN
module establish its connection?
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a) Building Access
b) Campus Core
c) Enterprise Branch
d) Enterprise Data Center
QUESTION 297
Drag the WAN technology on the left to the most appropriate
category on the right.
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QUESTION 298
You need to connect to a remote branch office via an Internet
connection. The remote office does not use Cisco equipment. This
connection must be secure and must support OSPF.
Which of the following can be used to transport data to the branch
office?
a) GRE over IPsec
b) IPsec
c) GRE
d) IPsec VTI
QUESTION 299
Which two are characteristics of a Lightweight Access Point?
(Choose two.)
a) Managed via a central wireless LAN controller
b) Code upgrade performed via a TFTP server
c) CAPWAP tunnels
http://www.gra
d) Managed directly via CLI or web interface
QUESTION 300
Which one of these statements describes why, from a design
perspective, a managed VPN approach for enterprise teleworkers
is most effective?
a) A managed VPN solution uses a cost-effective, on-demand
VPN tunnel back to the enterprise
b) This solution supports all teleworkers who do not require
voice or video
c) This architecture provides centralized management where
the enterprise can apply security policies and push
configurations
d) It provides complete flexibility for remote access through a
wireless hotspot or a guest network at a hotel, in addition to
a home office
QUESTION 301
What are three key areas that need to be considered when
designing a remote data center? (Choose three.)
a) Power diversity
b) Active Directory services
c) Cisco IOS versions
d) Data storage
e) Applications
f) User access
g) Packet routing
QUESTION 302
Which model of ISR is utilized for the teleworker design profile?
a) Cisco 1900 Series
b) Cisco 1800 Series
c) Cisco 800 Series
d) Cisco 500 Series
http://www.gra
QUESTION 303
When designing a WAN backup for voice and video applications,
what three types of connections should be used? (Choose three.)
a) Private WAN
b) Internet
c) ISDN
d) MPLS
e) Dial-up
f) ATM
g) DSL
QUESTION 304
When designing for a remote worker, which two are typical
requirements? (Choose two.)
a) Best-effort interactive and low-volume traffic patterns
b) Connections to the enterprise edge using Layer 2 WAN
technologies
c) Always-on connection with SLA from ISP
d) Voice and IPsec VPN support
e) High-end security devices with stateful firewall filtering
f) Dual or multihoming to ISPs
QUESTION 305
Which two routing protocols operate over NBMA point-to-multipoint
networks without the use of point-to-point sub interfaces? (Choose
two.)
a) RIPv1
b) RIPv2
c) IS-IS
d) EIGRP
e) OSPF
QUESTION 306
http://www.gra
Which three modules would typically utilize public IPv4
addressing? (Choose three.)
a) Access
b) Distribution
c) Core
d) Data Center
e) E-Commerce
f) Internet Connectivity
g) Remote Access/VPN
h) WAN/MAM
i) Branch
j) Branch Data Center
http://www.gra
Correct Answer: EFG Section: Multiple choice Explanation
QUESTION 307
With respect to IPv6 addressing, from a design perspective, which
of these statements is it important to keep in mind?
a) IPv6 addressing provides convenience of anycast
addressing without any configuration requirements
b) IPv6 does not use multicast addressing
c) An IPv6 router will not forward packets from one link to
other links if the packet has either a link-local source or a
link-local destination address
d) Dynamic address assignment requires DHCPv6
QUESTION 308
Which consideration is the most important for the network designer
when considering IP routing?
a) Convergence
b) Scalability
c) On-demand routing
d) Redistribution
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 309
Your supervisor has asked you to deploy a routing protocol within
the lab environment that will allow for unequal cost multipath
routing. Which should you choose?
a) EIGRP
b) OSPF
c) IS-IS
d) RIP
QUESTION 310
Which two methods are used to reduce the mesh links required
between iBGP peers in the same AS? (Choose two.)
a) Community
b) Router reflectors
http://www.gra
c) Local preferences
d) Confederations
e) Atomic Aggregate
f) MED
QUESTION 311
A company wants to use private IP addresses for all its internal
hosts. Which technology can the company use to provide access
to the Internet using a single public IP address?
a) Static NAT
b) Source routing
c) ACL
d) PAT
QUESTION 312
Which two link state routing protocols support IPv6 routing?
(Choose two.)
a) BGP4+
b) OSPF
c) RIPng
d) EIGRP
e) IS-IS
QUESTION 313
What is the most compact representation of the following IPv6
address: 2001:db8:0000:0000:cafe:0000:0000:1234 ?
A. 2001:db8::cafe::1234
B. 2001:db8::cafe:0000:0000:1234 C. 2001:db8:0:0:cafe::1234
D. 2001:db8::cafe:0:1234
QUESTION 314
Which is usually used to connect to an upstream ISP?
a) EIGRP
b) OSPF
http://www.gra
c) BGP
d) IS-IS
e) RIPv2
QUESTION 315
You are designing a network that requires a routing protocol that
will use minimal network bandwidth. Which would satisfy this
requirement?
a) RIPv2
b) RIPng
c) OSPF
d) ARP
e) EGP
QUESTION 316
Which two statements best describe an OSPF deployment?
(Choose two.)
a) ABR provides automatic classful network boundary
summarization
b) ABR requires manual configuration for classful network
summarization
c) External routes are propagated into the autonomous
system from stub areas via ASBR
d) External routes are propagated into the autonomous
system from regular areas or NSSA via ASBR
e) External routes are propagated into the autonomous
system from regular areas or NSSA via ABR
QUESTION 317
Which three items pertain to EIGRP? (Choose three.)
a) Can use multiple unequal paths
b) Routes are redistributed as type 2 by default
c) ASN and K values must match to form neighbors
d) Uses multicast address 224.0.0.9 for updates
e) Exchanges full routing table every 30 seconds
http://www.gra
f) Summary routes have AD of 90
g) External routes have AD of 170
Correct Answer: ACG Section: Multiple choice Explanation
QUESTION 318
Which statement should the designer keep in mind when
considering the advanced routing features?
a) One-way route redistribution avoids the requirement for
static or default routes
b) Redistribution, summarization, and filtering are most often
applied between the campus core and enterprise edge
c) Filtering only occurs on the routing domain boundary using
redistribution
d) Summarize routes at the core toward the distribution layer
e) The hierarchical flexibility of IPv6 addressing avoids the
requirement for routing traffic reduction using aggregation
QUESTION 319
When designing an EIGRP network, which two things should you
take into consideration? (Choose two.)
a) ASN and K values must match
b) The neighbor command can be used to enable unicast
communication
c) The neighbor diameter cannot exceed a 15-hops limit
d) NSSA areas can be used to redistribute external routes
e) Neighbor relationship can be established with non-Cisco
routers
QUESTION 320
You are asked to design a new branch office that will need to
support 25 users. These users will be using an ISP connection and
will need to connect to the main office for network services. Which
two Cisco devices are the most appropriate to fulfill all of these
requirements? (Choose two.)
a) Cisco IPS
http://www.gra
b) Cisco ISR G2
c) Cisco ASA
d) Cisco 2960
e) Cisco CRS-1
f) Cisco ACS

QUESTION 321
Which three statements are true regarding the virtual interface on
a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller? (Choose three.)
a) Support mobility management
b) Serves as DHCP relay
c) Used for all controller to AP communication
d) Supports embedded Layer 3 security
e) Default for out-of-band management
f) Default for in-band management
g) Provides connectivity to AAA servers
QUESTION 322
A campus network needs end-to-end QoS tools to manage traffic
and ensure voice quality. Which three types of QoS tools are
needed? (Choose three.)
a) Interface queuing and scheduling
b) Congestion management
c) Compression and fragmentation
d) Bandwidth provisioning
e) Traffic classification
f) Buffer management
QUESTION 323
Your supervisor wants you to recommend a management protocol
that will allow you to track overall bandwidth utilization, utilization by
traffic type, and utilization by source and destination. Which is
ideally suited for this function?
http://www.gra
a) MRTG
b) NetFlow
c) RRD
d) SNMP
QUESTION 324
Which subnet address and mask would you use for all Class D
multicast addresses to be matched within an access list?
A. 224.0.0.0/20
B. 224.0.0.0/4
C. 239.0.0.0/24
D. 239.0.0.0/8
E. 225.0.0.0/8
QUESTION 325
Which two devices would you place in your DMZ to ensure
enterprise edge security? (Choose two.)
a) IPS
b) NAC
c) ASA
d) ACS
e) WCS
QUESTION 326
Which three are security services offered through Cisco Router
Security? (Choose three.)
a) Trust and Identity
b) Integrated Threat Control
c) Unified Wireless Network Security Solution
d) Secure Connectivity
e) Voice-Messaging Security
f) Endpoint Security
g) Virtual Security Gateway
http://www.gra
QUESTION 327
Which voice codec should you use in order to provide toll quality
calls?
A. G.711 B. G.718 C. G.722 D. G.729
QUESTION 328
Which three are features of LWAPP? (Choose three.)
a) Firmware synchronization
b) Local management of APs
c) Configuration changes manually synced
d) Encryption of control channel
e) Configuration data only on the WLC
f) Wireless control free operation
g) Replaces 802.1x for authentication in wireless connections
QUESTION 329
A company has dark fiber between headquarters and its data
center. It is presently configured as a 10GbE connection. Network
utilization shows high utilization on the connection. What
technology can be implemented to increase capacity without
acquiring another circuit?
a) MPLS
b) DWDM
c) VPLS
d) DMVPN
QUESTION 330
What wireless authentication option requires a Public Key
Infrastructure?
a) EAP-TLS
b) PEAP
c) LEAP
http://www.gra
d) EAP-FAST
QUESTION 331
What two access point modes support the transmission of user
traffic over a LWAPP/CAPWAP tunnel? (Choose two.)
a) Local
b) H-REAP
c) Rogue detector
d) Monitor
e) Sniffer
f) Standalone
QUESTION 332
What is the primary advantage of implementing a wireless LAN
controller in a wireless LAN design?
a) Roaming between APs
b) RADIUS user authentication
c) Radio resource management
d) accelerated data transfer
QUESTION 333
A wireless LAN client is sending traffic to the wired LAN client.
What path will the packet take to reach the destination endpoint in
a lightweight wireless deployment?
a) Switch > controller > ap > client
b) Controller > ap > switch > client
c) AP > controller > switch > client
d) Switch > ap > controller > client
QUESTION 334
You design a network with the following network addresses:
192.168.168.0
192.168.169.0
192.168.170.0
192.168.171.0
http://www.gra
192.168.172.0
192.168.173.0
192.168.174.0
192.168.175.0
Which route address is the best summary of these network
addresses? A. 192.168.0.0/24
B. 192.168.171.128/3 C. 192.168.168.0/21 D. 192.168.175.0/3 E.
192.168.0.0/16
QUESTION 335
Which option is an advantage of the bottom-up design model?
a) Focuses on the needs of user communities
b) Includes a thorough analysis of customer requirements
c) Facilitates a quick response to client requests
d) Produces a "big-picture" of the desired outcome
QUESTION 336
A large company requests a hierarchical design model. What tier
should be free of physically connected hosts?
a) Core
b) Access
c) Aggregation
d) Distribution
QUESTION 337
An organization is redesigning a 3-tier hierarchical network into a
collapsed core. What design issue is a primary concern per Cisco
best practices?
a) Services delineation
b) Port density
c) Feature availability
d) Resource utilization
QUESTION 338
What three design best practices are key functions of the
distribution layer? (Choose three.)
http://www.gra
a) Fault domain isolation
b) Admission control
c) Access switch aggregation
d) QoS tagging
e) Address summarization
f) End user and application isolation
QUESTION 339
A network engineer is tasked to upgrade and expand a large
existing production network. From the IOS CLI, what two protocols
can be used to build a topology map of the existing network?
(Choose two.)
a) SNMP
b) IP SLA
c) ICMP Echo
d) LLDP
e) Traceroute
QUESTION 340
A network engineer has finished designing and implementing a
new network. What two protocols would they use to gain insight
into the network and determine the components that require
optimization? (Choose two.)
a) CDP
b) NetFlow
c) ICMP Echo
d) NMAP
e) SNMP
QUESTION 341
What are two benefits of a structured IPv4 addressing scheme?
(Choose two.)
a) reduces routing table size
b) Provides increased security
http://www.gra
c) Allows for address translation to be performed
d) Improves manageability and troubleshooting
e) Increases high availability
QUESTION 342
What are two reasons discontinuous IPv4 networks hinder
scalability? (Choose two.)
a) Routing table bloat
b) Inability to utilize automatic summarization
c) Insufficient IP addresses
d) Slowed packet forwarding
e) Delayed interface queuing
QUESTION 343
GRE has been used to establish a routing-protocol neighbor
relationship between two routers, across the public Internet. Which
technology can you use to encrypt this communication channel?
a) Access lists
b) IPsec
c) CBAC
d) IPS
QUESTION 344
Which option is a benefit of Cisco Discovery Protocol?
a) Provides information about directly connected Cisco
devices
b) Provides greater detail about collected data, including time
stamping
c) Combines with the network layer data that is gathered by
NetFlow when using a NetFlow collector
d) Part of the IEEE 802.1ab standard
QUESTION 345
Which three QoS levels should VoIP clients be set to on a Cisco
http://www.gra
WLC? (Choose three.)
a) Platinium
b) Bronze
c) Gold
d) Silver
e) Premier
f) Critical
QUESTION 346
What is the optimal device and location to fulfill these

requirements?
a) IPS inline
b) IPS inline inside of the firewall
c) Cisco IOS IPS on the border router
d) passive IPS connected to a SPAN port outside of the
firewall
e) passive IPS connected to a SPAN port inside of the firewall
QUESTION 347
A remote worker for a sales company must submit daily updates
via the company email system. The employee does not have a
http://www.gra
company-issued laptop, so which VPN method is used for
connectivity to the company email server?
a) DMVPN
b) SSL VPN
c) IPsec VPN
d) GET VPN
QUESTION 348
Which functionality must be enabled on router A to connect two

networks for translating private addresses into "legal" public
addresses on a one-for-one basis?
a) PAT
b) NAT
c) VLAN
d) GARP
e) PPP
QUESTION 349
http://www.gra
You are designing routing between building distribution switches
and campus core switches. Assuming that all links have the same
speed, which statement about these designs is true?
a) Option A has more fault tolerance but slower convergence
than Option B
b) Option A has more fault tolerance and faster convergence
than Option B
c) Option B has more fault tolerance but slower convergence
than Option A
d) Option B has more fault tolerance and faster convergence
than Option A
QUESTION 350
Which technology should a company use to connect a branch office
to headquarters via an Internet connection while maintaining
confidentiality and the flexibility to run a routing protocol between
the two locations?
a) GRE over IPsec
b) IPsec
c) GRE
d) SSL VPN
QUESTION 351
A network engineer needs to create a controller-based, high-
http://www.gra
density RF design. Which two factors determine the cell size?
(Choose two.)
a) Antenna type
b) ClientLink support
c) TPC threshold setting
d) QoS setting
e) Free space path loss
QUESTION 352
Which IP address can be routed to cross the public Internet?
A. 10.31.1.1
B. 192.168.32.1
C. 172.32.1.1
D. 169.254.32.1
QUESTION 353
Which DHCP option do you need to configure to ensure that an
LWAP can communicate with the Cisco WLC in a different subnet?
a) 7
b) 19
c) 43
d) 150
QUESTION 354
Which two options can be virtual networking devices? (Choose
two.)
a) ESX host
b) VM
c) Switches
d) Routers
e) Hyper-V host
QUESTION 355
Drag the STP toolkit term on the left to the definition on the right.
http://www.gra
http://www.gra
QUESTION 356
Drag the characteristic on the left to the correct campus design
model on the right.
http://www.gra
QUESTION 357
Drag the technology on the left to the matching routing protocol on
the right.
http://www.gra
Correct Answer:
http://www.gra
QUESTION 358
Drag the security term on the left to the matching description on
the right.
http://www.gra
http://www.gra
QUESTION 360
What are two components of the Build phase in the Cisco Design
Lifecycle? (Choose two.)
a) Migration
b) Deployement
c) Optimization
d) Design
e) Configuration
QUESTION 361
Which design enables easy and flexible scaling in the Cisco
http://www.gra
Enterprise Architecture model?
a) Modular
b) Top-down
c) Bottom-up
d) Full-mesh
QUESTION 362
Which benefit is an advantage of route summarization?
a) It reduces the size of the routing table
b) It causes routes to be updated more frequently
c) It lowers the cost metric
d) It enables neighbor discovery
QUESTION 363
Which two states are RSTP port states? (Choose two.)
a) Discarding
b) Learning
c) Blocking
d) Listening
e) Disabled
QUESTION 364
When is the Cisco FlexConnect design model recommended?
a) When remote-site APs are centrally managed
b) When each remote site has its own wireless controller
c) When each remote site runs VSS
d) When the remote sites use WAN optimization
QUESTION 365
In which two modes can you deploy Cisco IPS appliances?
(Choose two.)
a) Inline
b) Promiscuous
c) VTP group
http://www.gra
d) Threat mitigation
e) Threat detection
QUESTION 366
According to Cisco best practices, which traffic control should you
apply to the strict priority queue?
a) Bandwidth should be limited to one-third of the link capacity
b) Bandwidth should be limited to 768 kbps
c) Limits should be applied to non-real-time traffic and all real-
time traffic should be permitted
d) The link serialization delay should be set to less than 100
ms
QUESTION 367
According to fundamental design principles, which location is best
for implementing Cisco QoS policies?
a) Hardware
b) Software
c) Cisco 3900 Series Integrated Services Routers running
IOS software
d) WAN routers running IOS software
QUESTION 368
Which item is the fundamental basis of a virtual network?
a) A VRF instance
b) A MIB database
c) A GRE tunnel
d) Redundant hardware
QUESTION 369
Which network virtualization technique can you implement without
disrupting the existing network design and infrastructure?
a) VRF-Lite
b) EVN
c) MPLS
http://www.gra
d) VNET tags
QUESTION 370
When designing a hierarchical network design, in which layer DAI
and DHCP snooping take place?
a) Core layer
b) Application
c) Distribution layer
d) Enterprise Edge
e) Access layer
f) Network layer
QUESTION 371
What are two components of the Build phase in Cisco design life
cycle? (choose two)
a) Assessment
b) Validation
c) Deployment
d) Design
e) Analysis
QUESTION 372
A network engineer must connect two sites. Each sites has a
different autonomous number. Which method do you use to
exchange Routing information between the sites?
a) BGP
b) IGP
c) EIGRP
d) OSPFv3
e) Static Route
http://www.gra

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QUESTION 1

Which numbered box represents the core layer?

Correct Answer: ACD Section: Multiple choice Explanation

Correct Answer: CD Section: Multiple choice Explanation

Correct Answer: A Section: Single choice Explanation

Correct Answer: D Section: Single choice Explanation

On which router should you configure redistribution?

Correct Answer: C Section: Single choice Explanation

Correct Answer: ABC Section: Multiple choice Explanation

Correct Answer: C Section: Single choice Explanation

Correct Answer: ABC Section: Multiple choice Explanation

Correct Answer: D Section: Single choice Explanation

a) Reduces operational cost

Correct Answer: DE Section: Multiple choice Explanation

Correct Answer: B Section: Single choice Explanation

Correct Answer: A Section: Single choice Explanation

Correct Answer: AB Section: Multiple choice Explanation

Correct Answer: B Section: Single choice Explanation

a) Virtual switching systems

Correct Answer: BC Section: Multiple choice Explanation

Correct Answer: D Section: Single choice Explanation

Correct Answer: B Section: Single choice Explanation

a) CQ is for time sensitive protocols

Correct Answer: B Section: Single choice Explanation

Correct Answer: AD Section: Multiple choice Explanation

Correct Answer: C Section: Single choice Explanation

Which technology meets this requirement?

Correct Answer: B Section: Single choice Explanation

Correct Answer: A Section: Single choice Explanation http://www.gratisexam.com

a) VTP transparent mode

Correct Answer: BD Section: Multiple choice Explanation

Correct Answer: B Section: Single choice Explanation

a) Allows a quick response to a design request

What is causing this issue to occur?

a) The wrong CIR is configured

Correct Answer: C Section: Single choice Explanation

Correct Answer: A Section: Single choice Explanation http://www.gratisexam.com

Correct Answer: A Section: Single choice Explanation

Correct Answer: A Section: Single choice Explanation

Which layer 2 tunneling technology should be used?

Correct Answer: C Section: Single choice Explanation

a) Minimize the effect of link failures

a) Cisco Nexus 5500 Series Switches

Correct Answer: AC Section: Multiple choice Explanation

Correct Answer: A Section: Single choice Explanation

A. ip route 192.168.100.0 255.255.254.0 10.1.1.1

a) In the core toward the data center

Correct Answer: D Section: Single choice Explanation http://www.gratisexam.com

Correct Answer: D Section: Single choice Explanation

Correct Answer: ACE Section: Multiple choice Explanation

a) Bidirectional Forwarding Detection

Correct Answer: AB Section: Multiple choice Explanation

Correct Answer: B Section: Single choice Explanation

The organization is migrating away from HSRP. VSS has been

Why does the implementation plan require a four-hour wait after

Correct Answer: C Section: Single choice Explanation

a) Cisco 2500 Series Wireless Controllers

Correct Answer: A Section: Single choice Explanation

a) recognize users, their devices, and their roles in the

Correct Answer: A Section: Single choice Explanation

a) Cisco Nexus 5500 Series Switches

a) Transparent Interconnection of Lots of Links

Correct Answer: A Section: Single choice Explanation