DGCA March 2019 Air Regulations 90 mins 100 Marks

1. Which ICAO document covers Operations 9. When determining the OCA for a precision
of Aircraft? approach, obstacle clearance height is
(A) Annexure 2 referenced to:
(B) Annexure 6 (A) Threshold
(C) Annexure 9 (B) Highest obstacle within 25 nm of
aerodrome
2. The convention on offences and certain (C) Mean Sea Level
acts committed on board aircraft, is:
(A) the convention of Rome 10. What is the obstacle clearance in the
(B) the convention of Tokyo primary area of the intermediate approach
(C) the convention of Chicago segment?
(A) 300 m (984 feet)
3. Cabotage refers to (B) 200 m (656 feet)
(A) a national air carrier (C) 900 m (2952 feet)
(B) crop spraying
(C) domestic air services by a foreign state 11. A steady red light from the ground to an
aircraft in the air means:
4. Rules of the Air is applicable to (A) Return for landing
(A) IFR flights only (B) Aerodrome unsafe, do not land
(B) VFR flights only (C) Give way to other aircraft and continue
(C) Both IFR & VFR circling

5. Minimum sector altitudes are determined
by the inbound radial in relation to the IAF.
These sectors are established for a
distance from the IAF of:
(A) 20NM
(B) 5NM
(C) 25NM
6. When an aircraft is subjected to unlawful
interference, the pilot-in-command shall
indicate the situation by setting the
transponder to:
(A) 7700
(B) 7600
(C) 7500
7. When entering a FIR where SSR is used
from an area where SSR is not used. What
would you squawk?
(A) 7500
(B) 7700
(C) 2000
8. At what point in a flight is the QNH
communicated to the pilot by ATC?
(A) On engine start
(B) In the taxi clearance
(C) In the ATC clearance
12. What does a red flashing light from the
control tower to an aircraft on the
manoeuvring area mean?
(A) Cleared to taxi
(B) Return to the start point
(C) Move clear of the landing area
13. A red pyrotechnic addressed to a flying
aircraft means:
(A) Dangerous airfield. Do not land
(B) Not withstanding previous instructions,
do not land for the time being
(C) Return for landing
14. Which of the following is not a straight
departure?
(A) When the initial departure track is 25°
from the alignment of the runway
centerline
(B) When the initial departure track is 15°
from the alignment of the runway
centerline
(C) When the initial departure track is 10°
from the alignment of the runway
centerline
DGCA March 2019 Air Regulations
15. The approach categories of aircraft are
based upon:
(A) 1.3 times the stalling speed in clean
configuration at maximum certified
landing mass
(B) 1.3 times the stalling speed in clean
configuration at minimum certified
landing mass
(C) 1.3 times the stalling speed in landing
configuration at maximum certified
landing mass
16. The pilot of a departing aircraft flying under
IFR shall change the altimeter setting from
QNH to standard setting 1013.25hPa when
passing:
(A) Transition layer
(B) The level specified by ATC
(C) Transition altitude
17. Under which conditions may an aircraft on
a straight-in VOR approach continue its
descent below the OCA?
(A) When it seems possible to land
(B) When the aircraft is in contact with the
ground but not with the runway in sight
yet
(C) When the aircraft is in visual contact
with the runway and with the runway
lights in sight
18. Prisoners can be carried on board with the
permission of:
(A) Police Commissioner
(B) DM
(C) DGCA
19. The Alerting Service is provided by
(A) Search and Rescue centres
(B) Air Traffic Centers and Flight
Information Centers
(C) Area Control Centers
20. What is the principle requirement for a
signals area on an aerodrome?
(A) It must be big enough to contain all
signals
(B) It must be clearly visible from all parts
of the manoeuvring area
(C) It is only used for VFR operations
21. The minimum descent altitude for a non-
precision approach is not lower than:
(A) 200 feet
(B) Obstacle Clearance Altitude
(C) 400 feet
90 mins 100 Marks
22. As a result of automation in cockpits,
(A) coordination between the members is
facilitated by the provision of more
precise and more important information
(B) communication and coordination call
for an even greater effort on the part of
the crew members
(C) man-made communication has been
significantly improved
23. Gases of physiological importance to man
are:
(A) oxygen and carbon dioxide
(B) nitrogen and carbon dioxide
(C) oxygen and carbon monoxide
24. What are the characteristics of short-term-
memory?
(1) Easy to access
(2) Capacity of information is limited
(3) They are subject to bio-chemical burn
in
(A) 1, 2
(B) 1, 2, 3
(C) 1, 3
25. Carbon monoxide poisoning
(A) occurs only above 15 degrees OAT
(B) is more likely to occur in aeroplanes
where the cabin heat is technically
supplied by coating the exhaust
(C) is more likely to occur in aeroplanes
with twin-engines because of high
engine efficiency
26. Carbon monoxide is a
(A) colourless and odourless gas
(B)
(C)
27. Which of the following are the symptoms of
hypoxia?
(A)
(B) Headache, fatigue, impaired judgement
(C) Increase in body temperature, fatigue,
convulsions
28. Aerobatics within 2NM of airport can not be
done below:
(A) 2000’
(B) Over congested towns and settlements
(C) 6000’
DGCA March 2019 Air Regulations
29. It is estimated that due to a repair at an
airport, some facilities will remain
inoperative for a period of more than 2 hrs.
It is notified by NOTAM:
(A) Series A
(B) Series B
(C) Series C
30. Nitrogen bubbles in the lungs causes
(A) Creeps
(B) Chokes
(C) Staggers
31. Time of useful consciousness after a rapid
decompression at 30,000 feet is
(A) 10 - 15 mins
(B) 5 - 10 mins
(C) 45 secs to 1 min 30 secs
32. When instructed by ATC to hold short of
runway pilot should stop:
(A) With nose gear on hold line
(B) So that no part of the a/c extends
beyond the hold line
(C) So that the Flt Deck Area of a/c is even
with the hold line
33. A piece of equipment on your public
transport airplane fails while you are still
parked. The reference document you use
in the first place to decide on the procedure
to follow is:
(A) The flight manual
(B) The operations manual
(C) The minimum equipment list
34. Photography is restricted at
(A) Terminal buildings
(B) Civil aerodromes
(C) Military aerodromes
35. Clearance limit is valid
(A) Up to the point specified in the
clearance
(B) After the point specified in the
clearance
(C)
36. The continuing airworthiness of an aircraft,
according to ICAO Annex 8, shall be
determined by:
(A) ICAO
(B) The operator’s state
(C) The state of registry
90 mins 100 Marks
37. You plan to takeoff behind a departing
heavy aircraft from a parallel runway with a
light crosswind
(A) Depart before the rotation point of the
preceding aircraft and stay clear of its
wake
(B) Depart well after the preceding aircrafts
rotation point
(C)
38. ATC will provide the winds when
(A) The variation is between 5°E and 5°W
(B) The latitudes of the airport is between
75°N and 75°S
(C) To all aircraft before landing or taking
off
39. Changing of flight rules from IFR to VFR is
possible
(A) If the commander so requests
(B) If instructed by ATC so long as VMC is
forecasted during the next 30 minutes
(C) Only when leaving controlled airspace
40. If you are flying IFR in IMC conditions and
you experience a total communications
failure, you should:
(A) Continue the flight according to flight
plan
(B) Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome
and report to ATS
(C) Try to contact another aircraft for relay
41. A flight condition where there are slight
changes in attitude/altitude
(A) Light chop
(B) Light turbulence
(C) Moderate turbulence
42. Which of the following is true regarding
change in partial pressure of oxygen with
altitude
(A) Increases with increase in altitude
(B) Decreases at the same rate as
atmospheric pressure
(C) Decreases at thrice the rate as
increase in altitude
43. Susceptibility to hypoxia
(A) Increases with altitude
(B) Is normally experienced below 8000
feet
(C) Is due to over breathing
DGCA March 2019 Air Regulations 90 mins 100 Marks
44. At holding point ATC transmits “cleared for
immediate take off”, what does it mean?
(A) Take off immediately after completing
all mandatory power checks
(B) Takeoff within 30 seconds of receiving
the clearance
(C) Taxi immediately to runway and
commence rolling takeoff

45. Readability 3 signifies

(A) Readable
(B) Perfectly readable
(C) Readable but with difficulty

46. To check if the ELT has been inadvertently

activated,
(A) Turn OFF ELT after the flight
(B) Ask Air Traffic Control
(C) Monitor 121.5 before engine shutdown

47. Radar separation minima can be reduced

to what value
(A) 1.5 NM
(B) 2 NM
(C) 5 NM

48. A position report shall consist of the

following information in the order listed:
(A) Aircraft identification, position, time,
flight level/altitude, next ensuing
position
(B) Aircraft identification, position, flight
level/altitude, time, next ensuing
position
(C) Aircraft identification, position, flight
level/ altitude, time

49. The reduced visibility upto which a

helicopter is permitted to operate at a
speed that will give adequate opportunity
to observe other traffic or any obstacle in
time to avoid collision:
(A) 1500 m
(B) 800 m
(C) 1000 m