Regd.

Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005

Ph.: 011-47623456

Admission-cum-Scholarship Test
(Sample Paper)
First Step Course for JEE (Main & Advanced) 2017-2019
(Syllabus of the Test : Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics of Class IX & X)

Test Booklet Code : A

Time : 2 Hrs. Max.Marks : 300

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

1. The initial 10 minutes are earmarked for the candidates to carefully read the instructions. (Note : The
candidates are not allowed to either look inside the question booklet or start answering during these
initial 10 minutes.)
2. The question booklet and answer sheet are issued separately at the start of the examination.
3. This question booklet contains 75 questions.
4. Read each question carefully.
5. Determine the correct answer, one out of the four available choices given under each question.
6. It is mandatory to use Black/Blue Ball Point Pen to darken the appropriate circle in the answer sheet.
7. For each correct answer, four marks will be awarded. There is no negative marking.
For Example
Q. 12 : In the Question Booklet is: Which one of the following is linear in Geometry ?
(Answer Sheet)
(1) SO2 Q.12.    
(2) CO2
(3) NO2
(4) KO2
Thus as the correct answer is choice (2), the candidate should darken completely (with a blue/black Ball
point pen only) the circle corresponding to choice (2) against Question No. 12 on the Answer Sheet. If
more than one circle is darkened for a given question such answer will be rejected.
8. Do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on answer sheet. No change in the answer once
marked is allowed. Before handing over the answer sheet to the invigilator, candidate should check that
Roll No. and Test-Booklet code have been filled and marked correctly.
9. Rough work should be done only on the space provided in the question booklet.
10. Immediately after the prescribed examination time is over, the Answer sheet and Question booklet
are to be returned to the invigilator. If the candidate wants to leave the examination hall before time,
he/she should hand over the question paper and answer sheet to the invigilator. However, no student can
leave the examination hall before half time.
First Step Course for JEE (Main & Advanced) 2017-2019 Sample Paper

PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer :
1. Sound from a source vibrating at frequency 200 Hz 6. The magnetic field pattern that corresponds to that
travels at speed of 300 m/s in air. Wavelength of around a current carrying straight wire is
the sound is
(1) 15 m (2) 1.5 m
(3) 150 m (4) 6 m (1) (2)

2. Equal current flows through two coils A and B

having same radius. If number of turns in coil A is
10 and that in B is 50, magnetic fields produced
due to coils A and B at their centres are in ratio
(3) (4)
(1) 1 : 5 (2) 5 : 1

(3) 1 : 5 (4) 5 : 1
7. A light ray incident obliquely, passes into three
3. An object is thrown up with a speed of 50 m/s. Its media as shown in the figure. The refractive index
height from the ground after 7 s is [Take g = 10 m/s2] of medium 3 with respect to medium 1 is

(1) 125 m (2) 20 m

60°
(3) 105 m (4) 100 m 1

4. A net force of 20 N acts on a 5 kg mass kept at 45° 2

rest. Distance travelled by the mass in 6 s is
3

30
°
(1) 72 m (2) 36 m
1
(3) 24 m (4) 12 m
5. Power dissipated across the resistor X is 3 1
(1) (2)
2 2
1.5 V
(3) 3 (4) 2
3
 4
3 8. The refractive index of water is and that of glass
3
 X
3 3 3
is . The ratio of speed of light in water to the
2
3
glass is
(1) 18.7 W
9 8
(1) (2)
(2) 0.187 W 8 9
(3) 35.2 W
1
(3) 2 (4)
(4) 0.352 W 2

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Sample Paper First Step Course for JEE (Main & Advanced) 2017-2019
9. The equivalent resistance across A and B is 13. In the figure given below, the current drawn from the
battery of 30 V, connected across the points A and
R R E is
A
R
R C
R R
F
B
R 2 1
12 R 7R 2 1
(1) (2)
7 12

12 R 19 R B D
(3) (4) A 3
19 12 E

10. A ball of mass 500 g kept near the earth's surface (1) 10 A (2) 20 A
will attract the earth with a force of
(3) 30 A (4) 40 A
(1) 9.8 N (2) 19.6 N
14. The I-V graph for resistances R1, R2 and R3 are
(3) 4.9 N (4) 29.4 N given below. Choose the correct option.
11. In the shown figure, if beam of light is incident on
R1
face EF through the holes and emerges out of the
hole on other face GH. Which could possibly be I R3
inside the box EFGH? (ampere)
R2
E G
1 5
2 4 0
V (volt)
3 3
4 2 (1) R1 > R3 > R2 (2) R2 > R3 > R1
5 1 (3) R1 = R2 = R3 (4) R1 > R2 > R3
F H
15. If the electron enters at right angle into the
(1) Concave lens magnetic field as shown in figure, then the direction
(2) Convex lens of force is

(3) Prism
–
e
(4) Rectangular glass slab
12. The ratio of height of image produced by concave
lens to height of object is 0.5. The distance of
image from lens is [Assume focal length of the
lens is 10 cm]
(1) 5 cm (2) 10 cm (1) Out of the plane (2) Into the plane
(3) 25 cm (4) 20 cm (3) Downward (4) Upward

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First Step Course for JEE (Main & Advanced) 2017-2019 Sample Paper

16. The material which is used to slow down the speed 22. In the given figure, if the block starting from rest
of neutrons in nuclear reactor is on the smooth surface reaches the point B, then
(1) Boron (2) Cadmium the magnitude of velocity of the block at B is
[Taking g = 10 m/s2]
(3) Graphite (4) Liquid sodium
17. Which of the following elements does not obey the
A
given voltage (v) versus current (I) graph? 2 kg

v
5m

0 I B

(1) Copper (2) Aluminium (1) 10 m/s (2) (10)2 m/s

(3) Gold (4) Silicon (3) 10 m/s (4) 20 m/s
18. A concave lens and convex lens each of equal
23. An object covers first half of total distance with
power are placed in close contact. The combination
constant speed v1 and second half of total distance
will behave as
with constant speed v2. If the object is moving in
(1) Glass slab (2) Concave lens a straight line, then the average speed for the entire
(3) Convex lens (4) Plane mirror trip is
19. The correct relation between magnification m,
v1  v 2 v1v 2
object distance u and focal length f of a spherical (1) (2) v  v
mirror is 2 1 2

f u f 2v1v 2 v1v 2
(1) m  (2) (3) v  v (4) 2(v  v )
f f u 1 2 1 2

f u f 24. In the given velocity-time graph, the net

(3) m  (4) m  displacement of the object in time interval 0 to
f f u
8 s is
20. If an engine of mass 2000 kg pulls 10 wagons
each of mass 1000 kg with a force of 16000 N,
Velocity (m/s)

then the magnitude of force applied by 9th wagon

on 10th wagon is 4
(1) 16000 N (2) 160 N
2
(3) 1600 N (4) 16 N
21. The ratio of gravitational acceleration of planet (of
mass 3 times the mass of earth and diameter 0 2 4 8 Time (s)
twice the diameter of earth), to the gravitational
(1) 20 m (2) 10 m
acceleration of earth is
(3) –20 m (4) Zero
4 3 25. The speed of sound at room temperature is
(1) (2)
3 4 maximum in
(1) Vacuum (2) Kerosene
1 1
(3) (4) (3) Water (4) Copper
4 2

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Sample Paper First Step Course for JEE (Main & Advanced) 2017-2019

CHEMISTRY
26. ‘When a magnesium ribbon is burnt in oxygen, it 31. An amphoteric oxide ‘X’ reacts with aqueous NaOH
gets converted to magnesium oxide.’ The balanced to form sodium aluminate. Identify the product when
chemical equation for the given statement is ‘X’ reacts with hydrochloric acid
(1) Mg + O2  MgO2 (1) NaCl (2) AlCl3
(2) 4Mg + 3O2  2Mg2O3 (3) Al2Cl3 (4) NaAlO2
(3) 2Mg + O2  2MgO 32. Consider the following statements,
(4) Mg + O2  2MgO I. The oily dirt gets collected in the centre of the
micelle.
27. On mixing 3 ml of aqueous solution of sodium
sulphate and 3 ml of aqueous solution of barium II. The hydrophobic part of a soap molecule
chloride, an insoluble substance ‘Y’ is formed. remains towards water.
Compound Y and the type of reaction involved is Choose the correct option.
(1) Barium sulphate , precipitation reaction (1) Statement I is correct, statement II is incorrect
(2) Barium hydroxide , combination reaction (2) Statement II is correct, statement I is incorrect
(3) Barium hydroxide, displacement reaction (3) Both the statements are correct

(4) Barium sulphate, decomposition reaction (4) Both the statements are incorrect

28. pH of solutions A, B, C and D are 3, 8, 5 and 10. 33. Which of the following is not acidic in nature?
The correct order of the concentration of H+ ions in (1) Vinegar (2) Nettle sting
the given four solutions is
(3) Lime water (4) Lemon juice
(1) A < B < C < D (2) B > A > C > D 34. Which of the following is not the member of same
(3) A > B > C < D (4) A > C > B > D homologous series?
29. Two formula units of calcium sulphate shares 'X' (1) CH3COOH (2) CH3COCH3
molecules of water as water of crystallization in (3) CH3CH2COOH (4) HCOOH
POP. ‘X’ is
35. Which of the following steps is not involved in the
(1) 1 (2) 2 process of extraction of a moderately reactive metal
(3) 3 (4) 4 from its carbonate ore?
(1) Concentration (2) Roasting
30. Which of the following elements will form ionic
bonds when react with each other? (3) Calcination (4) Refining
36. The atomicity of chlorine gas is
Element Electronic configuration
(1) 1 (2) 2
A 2, 8, 2
B 2, 8, 7 (3) 3 (4) 4
C 2
37. Isotope of which of the following elements can be
D 2, 6
used in the cancer treatment?
(1) A and C (2) B and C (1) Iodine (2) Cobalt
(3) A and B (4) B and D (3) Chlorine (4) Uranium

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First Step Course for JEE (Main & Advanced) 2017-2019 Sample Paper
38. Find the mismatch: 46. The approximate amount of sugar added to 75 g of
a 10% aqueous sugar solution to make its
Colloid Dispersed phase
concentration 15% is
(1) Milk of magnesia Liquid
(1) 5.81 g (2) 5.52 g
(2) Milk Liquid
(3) 4.91 g (4) 4.41 g
(3) Jelly Liquid
47. Which of the given compounds does not sublime?
(4) Fog Liquid
(1) Ammonium chloride
39. The rate of evaporation of water decreases with
increase in (2) Sodium chloride
(1) Surface area (2) Temperature (3) Anthracene
(3) Humidity (4) Wind speed (4) Naphthalene
40. Which of the following techniques can be used to 48. Which of the given periodic properties does not
separate a mixture of two miscible liquids A and B increase along the period of the Modern Periodic
having boiling points 63 K and 78 K respectively? Table?
(1) Separating funnel (2) Fractional distillation (1) Non-metallic character
(3) Simple distillation (4) Chromatography (2) Atomic size
41. Number of atoms of carbon in 4.4 g of carbon
(3) Nuclear charge
dioxide is
(4) Electronegativity
(1) 6.022 × 1023 (2) 12.044 × 1023
(3) 6.022 × 1025 (4) 6.022 × 1022 49. Consider the following statements:

42. The molecular mass of nitric acid is I. The melting point of pure ethanoic acid is
290 K
(1) 98 u (2) 68 u
II. 5-8% solution of acetic acid in water is called
(3) 63 u (4) 54 u glacial acetic acid
43. Rusting cannot be prevented by Now, choose the correct option.
(1) Painting (2) Galvanisation (1) Both the statements are correct
(3) Oiling (4) Beating (2) Both the statements are incorrect
44. The given reaction (3) Only statement-I is correct
2CH3CH2OH + 2Na  2CH3CH2ONa + H2 (4) Only statement-II is correct
proves that, ethanol is 50. Consider the given box :
(1) Lethal Gold, Sodium, Magnesium,
(2) Acidic in nature Platinum, Aluminium

(3) Basic in nature The total number of metals found in nature in free/
native state is
(4) An unsaturated compound
(1) One
45. CNG can be stored into a small cylinder due to its
(2) Three
(1) High volume (2) High density
(3) Two
(3) High compressibility (4) High molecular mass (4) Four

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Sample Paper First Step Course for JEE (Main & Advanced) 2017-2019

MATHEMATICS
57. In the given figure, the value of y is
51. If 5 3 is multiplied with 27 , then we get

(1) 105 3
(2) 45
45°
(3) 405 2x x
(4) 105 y
52. x2 – 1 is always divisible by 8, if x is a/an
(1) Integer
(2) Natural number
(1) 110° (2) 125°
(3) Odd integer
(3) 105° (4) 135°
(4) Even integer
58. Equivalent version of Euclid's fifth postulate is
53. The value of m for which the lines 3x = y – 8 and
6x + my + 16 = 0 coincide is (1) A terminated line can be produced indefinitely

(1) 2 (2) –2 (2) For every line l and for every point P not lying
on l, there exists a unique line m passing
1 1 through P and parallel to l
(3) (4) 
2 2 (3) Things which are double of the same thing are
equal to one another
54. Which term of the AP 122, 118, 114, ......, is the
first negative term? (4) A straight line may be drawn from any one
point to any other point
(1) 20th (2) 22nd
59. Which constant must be added and subtracted to
(3) 32nd (4) 46th
solve the quadratic equation y 2  3 2y  4  0 by
55. If the ratio of the angle bisectors of two similar
the method of completing the square?
triangles is 2 : 5, then the ratio of their
corresponding areas is 3 1
(1) (2)
(1) 2 : 5 4 4
(2) 4 : 81
9 9
(3) 4 : 25 (3) (4)
16 2
(4) 2 : 25 60. ABCD is a parallelogram. If perimeter of
56. If cos 8 = sin  and 8 < 90°, then the value of parallelogram is 20 cm and AB = x cm, then BC
tan 6 is is equal to
(1) (10 + x) cm
1
(1) 0 (2) (2) (10 – x) cm
3
(3) (20 + x) cm
(3) 3 (4) Not defined (4) (20 – x) cm

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First Step Course for JEE (Main & Advanced) 2017-2019 Sample Paper
61. In the given figure, if QOP is a diameter of the 67. In the given figure, the value of (h – x) is

  1 RNQ
circle and PMR  , then the measure of A
4
ROQ is
N h
R
M 30° 60°
P Q D C x B
O 10 m

(1) 6( 3  1) metres

(1) 108° (2) 72°

(2) 5( 3  1) metres
(3) 36° (4) 144°
62. To construct a triangle similar to a given ABC (3) 5( 3  1) metres
11
with its sides
5
of the corresponding sides of (4) 3( 2  1) metres
ABC, draw a ray BX such that CBX is an 68. If two dice are thrown simultaneously, then the
acute angle and X is on the opposite side of A probability of getting a doublet or a total of 6 is
with respect to BC. The minimum number of points
to be located at equal distances on ray BX is 1 5
(1) (2)
3 18
(1) 5 (2) 11
7 11
(3) 7 (4) 16 (3) (4)
18 36
63. The length of the longest pole that can be put in
69. If the edges of a triangular board are 15 cm, 36 cm
a room of dimensions 10 m × 12 m × 4 5 m is and 39 cm, then the cost of painting its one of the
faces at the rate of 5 paise per cm2 is
(1) 21 m (2) 19 m
(1) ` 1212 (2) ` 13.5
(3) 17 m (4) 18 m
(3) ` 1350 (4) ` 11.6
64. If the area of a sector of a circle of radius 14 cm
is 77 cm2, then the central angle of the sector is 70. In the given figure, D is a point on BC such that
BD : DC = 1 : 3. If O is the midpoint of AD, then
(1) 30° (2) 60°
the ratio of areas of AOB and ABC will be
(3) 45° (4) 90°
65. The points (1, –2), (3, 4) and (4, 7) form a/an
A

(1) Right angled triangle (2) Equilateral triangle

(3) Isosceles triangle (4) Straight line
66. The median of the distribution given below is O
Class interval 0-5 5-10 10-15 15-20 20-25
Frequency 3 6 5 7 5 B D C
(1) 26 (2) 14 (1) 1 : 8 (2) 1 : 3
(3) 20 (4) 18 (3) 1 : 4 (4) 1 : 6

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Sample Paper First Step Course for JEE (Main & Advanced) 2017-2019
71. If the zeroes of the polynomial px2 + qx + r are of 74. For which values of a and b respectively, will the
following pair of linear equations have infinitely
  1
the form and , then the value of many solutions?
 1 
3x + 4y = 5
(p + q + r)2 is
(3a + 5b)x + (a + 7b)y = 3b – a + 2
(1) 4q2 – 2pr (2) q2 – 2pr
(3) q2 – 4pr (4) 2q2 – pr 1 1
(1) ,
27 9
72. If LCM (p, q, r) = 420, HCF (p, q, r) = 1, HCF
(p, q) = 3, HCF (q, r) = 5 and HCF (p, r) = 1, then 1 1
the product of p, q and r is (2) ,
9 3
(1) 630 (2) 6300
1 1
(3) 450 (4) 6500 (3) ,
27 3
73. If the diagonals KT and EI of a parallelogram KITE
1 1
intersect at O and P, Q, R and S are the (4) ,
midpoints of KO, EO, TO and IO respectively, 3 27
then the ratio of (PQ + QR + RS + SP) to (KE + 75. The average of all the prime and composite
ET + TI + IK) is numbers upto 99 is
(1) 1 : 4 (2) 1 : 3 (1) 52 (2) 49.5
(3) 1 : 1 (4) 1 : 2 (3) 50.5 (4) 55

  

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 Test Booklet Code : A

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005

Ph.: 011-47623456

Admission-cum-Scholarship Test
(Sample Paper)
First Step Course for JEE (Main & Advanced) 2017-2019

Answers
1. (2) 16. (3) 31. (2) 46. (4) 61. (4)

2. (1) 17. (4) 32. (1) 47. (2) 62. (2)

3. (3) 18. (1) 33. (3) 48. (2) 63. (4)

4. (1) 19. (4) 34. (2) 49. (3) 64. (3)

5. (2) 20. (3) 35. (2) 50. (3) 65. (4)

6. (3) 21. (2) 36. (2) 51. (2) 66. (2)

7. (3) 22. (1) 37. (2) 52. (3) 67. (2)

8. (1) 23. (3) 38. (1) 53. (2) 68. (2)

9. (3) 24. (1) 39. (3) 54. (3) 69. (2)

10. (3) 25. (4) 40. (2) 55. (3) 70. (1)

11. (2) 26. (3) 41. (4) 56. (3) 71. (3)

12. (1) 27. (1) 42. (3) 57. (4) 72. (2)

13. (3) 28. (4) 43. (4) 58. (2) 73. (4)

14. (2) 29. (1) 44. (2) 59. (4) 74. (3)

15. (3) 30. (3) 45. (3) 60. (2) 75. (3)