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P7-19 ® SET

1
ADVANCED PATTERN PART TEST-1(APT-1)
TARGET : JEE (MAIN + ADVANCED) 2019
REVISION PLANE-2 COURSE : VIJETA(JP),VISHWAAS(JF),VIJAY(JR)
Date : 18-04-2019 Time: 3 Hours Maximum Marks : 180
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.
GENERAL %
1. The sealed booklet is your Question Paper. Do not break the seal till you are instructed to do so.
2. The question paper CODE is printed on the right hand top corner of this sheet.
3. Use the Optical Response Sheet (ORS) provided separately for answering the question.
4. Blank spaces are provided within this booklet for rough work.
5. Write your Name and Roll Number in the space provided on the below cover.
6. After the open booklet, verify that the booklet contains all the 54 questions along with the options are legible.

DO NOT BREAK THE SEAL WITHOUT BEING INSTRUCTED TO DO SO BY THE INVIGILATOR


QUESTION PAPER FORMAT AND MARKING SCHEME :
7. The question paper has three parts : Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry. Each part has two sections.
8. Each section as detailed in the following table :
Category-wise Marks for Each Question Maximum
Number of
Section Question Type Negative Marks of the
Questions Full Marks Partial Marks Zero Marks
Marks Section
+3
Zero
Double digit If only the bubbles 0
1 12 – in all other 36
Integer (00-99) corresponding to the correct In all other cases
cases
answer is darkened
+4 +1
0
If only the bubble(s) For darkening a bubble –2
One or More If none of the
2 6 corresponding to all the corresponding to each correct In all other 24
Correct Option(s) bubbles is
correct option(s) is(are) option, provided NO incorrect cases
darkened
darkened option is darkened

OPTICAL RESPONSE SHEET :


9. Darken the appropriate bubbles on the original by applying sufficient pressure.
10. The original is machine-gradable and will be collected by the invigilator at the end of the examination.
11. Do not tamper with or mutilate the ORS.
12. Write your name, roll number and the name of the examination centre and sign with pen in the space provided for
this purpose on the original. Do not write any of these details anywhere else. Darken the appropriate bubble
under each digit of your roll number.
DARKENING THE BUBBLES ON THE ORS :
13. Use a BLACK BALL POINT to darken the bubbles in the upper sheet.
14. Darken the bubble COMPLETELY.
15. Darken the bubble ONLY if you are sure of the answer.
16. The correct way of darkening a bubble is as shown here :
17. There is NO way to erase or "un-darkened bubble.
18. The marking scheme given at the beginning of each section gives details of how darkened and not darkened
bubbles are evaluated.

NAME OF THE CANDIDATE : ………………………………………………………………..………………………

ROLL NO. : ………………………..………………………


I have read all the instructions I have verified the identity, name and roll number
and shall abide by them of the candidate.

------------------------- -------------------------
Signature of the Candidate Signature of the Invigilator

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MATHEMATICS
PART : I MATHEMATICS

MATHEMATICS
SECTION – 1 : (Maximum Marks : 36)
 This section contains TWELVE questions
 The answer to each question is a DOUBLE DIGIT INTEGER ranging from 00 to 99, both inclusive
 For each question, darken the bubble corresponding to the correct integer in the ORS
 Marking scheme :
+3 If the bubble corresponding to the answer is darkened
0 If none of the bubbles is darkened

1. Three circles touch one another externally. The tangents at their points of contact meet at a point
whose distance from a point of contact is 4. Then the ratio of the product of the radii to the sum of
the radii of the circles is

2. The vertices of a triangle are A(m, n) B(12, 19) and C(23, 20). Its area is 70 square unit. If the
slope of the median through A is –5, then sum of possible values of m is

1
3. The chord of the parabola y = –a2x2 + 5ax – 4 (a ) touches the curve y = at x = 2 and is
1– x
bisected by the point then value of a is

4. If f "(x) + f '(x) + f 2(x) = x2 be the differential equation of a curve and let P be the point of maxima,
then maximum number of tangents which can be drawn from P to x2 – y2 = a2 is/are :

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MATHEMATICS

5. If equation of normal to the curve y = (1 + x)y + sin–1(sin2 x) at x = 0 is given by ax + by = 1 then

MATHEMATICS
value of 3a + 2b is

6. If the perimeter of rectangular base ABCD of a semi-right circular cylinder is 36 m and the

maximum volume of this semi-cylinder is  then value of is
3

D C
A B

7. Let P(x) be a polynomial of degree 5 having extremum at x = –1, 1 and lim  P(x)  2   4 . If M
3
x 0
 x 
and m are the maximum and minimum value of the function y = P' (x) on the set
A = {x|x2 + 6 5x} then find 2m .
M

8. Let the function g(x) = f(x2 – x – 10) + f(14 + x – x2), f(x) > 0 for all real numbers x except finite
number of real numbers x1 for which f(x) = 0. Then find the number of negative integral values of
x in the interval for which g(x) is increasing.

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MATHEMATICS

9. In the diagram, DC is a diameter of larger circle centered at A and AC is a diameter of the smaller

MATHEMATICS
circle centered at B. If chord DE is tangent to the smaller circle at F and DC = 12 then the value of
 DE 
  is
 2

E
F

D C
A B

10. The line 2x + 3y = 12 meets the x - axis at A and the y - axis at B . The line through (5, 5)
perpendicular to AB meets the x - axis, y - axis & the line AB at C, D, E respectively. If O is the
p p 
origin and the area of the OCEB is , p, q are coprime numbers, then   is (where [.] denotes
q  q
greatest integer function)

11. The graph of y = f(x), where f(x) is a polynomial of degree 3 contain points A(2, 4), B(3, 9) and
C(4, 16). Lines AB, AC and BC intersect the graph again at points D, E and F respectively. It the
m
sum of x-coordinates of D, E and F is 24, then f(0) = (m, n are coprime). The value of m + n is
n

12. Triangle ABC with AB = 13, BC = 5 and AC = 12 slides on the coordinates axis with A and B on
the positive x-axis and positive y-axis respectively, the locus of vertex C is a line 12x – ky = 0, then
the value of k is.

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MATHEMATICS

MATHEMATICS
SECTION – 2 : (Maximum Marks : 24)

 This section contains SIX questions


 Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these
four option(s) is(are) correct
 For each question, darken the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct option(s) in the ORS
 For each question, marks will be awarded in one of the following categories :
Full Marks : +4 If only the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct option(s) is(are)
darkened.
Partial Marks : +1 For darkening a bubble corresponding to each correct option, provided
NO incorrect option is darkened.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubbles is darkened.
Negative Marks : –2 In all other cases.
 For example, if (A), (C) and (D) are all the correct options for a question, darkening all these three
will result in +4 marks ; darkening only (A) and (D) will result in +2 marks and darkening (A) and
(B) will result in –2 marks, as a wrong option is also darkened.
13. Let C1 and C2 be centres of two circles whose radii are 2 and 4 respectively. Also
C1C2 = 10 and direct common tangents of these circles touch them at P,Q,R,S. Another circle of
radius '' is drawn passing through P, Q, R, S, then
(A) Mid-point of C1C2 is centre of the circle passing through P,Q,R,S.
(B) Centre of the circle passing through P,Q,R,S divides C1C2 in the ratio 1 : 2.
(C) 2 = 33
(D) 2 = 35

14. Consider the function f (x) = x2 – x sin x – cos x then the statements which holds good, is/are
(A) f (x) = k has no solution for k < – 1.
(B) f is increasing for x < 0 and decreasing for x > 0.
(C) Lim f(x)  
x 
(D) The zeros of f (x) = 0 lie on the same side of the origin.

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MATHEMATICS

MATHEMATICS
15. If m1 and m2 are the roots of the equation x2 – ax – a – 1 = 0, then the area of the triangle formed

by the three straight lines y = m1x, y = m2x and y = a(a  –1) is

a2  a  2  a 2  a  2 
(A) if a  1 (B) if a  1
2  a  1 2  a  1

a 2  a  2  a2  a  2 
(C) if  2  a  1 (D) if a  2
2  a  1 2  a  1

16. Point M moved on circle (x – 4)2 + (y – 8)2 = 20 then it broke away from it and moving along a

tangent to the circle, cut the x-axis at the point (–2, 0). The co-ordinate of a point on the circle at

which the moving point broke away is

 42 36   –2 44 
(A)  ,  (B)  , 
 51 5   5 5 

(C) (6, 4) (D) (2, 4)

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MATHEMATICS

MATHEMATICS
17. For the maximum perimeter(s) p of a triangle on a given base 'a' and having the given vertical

angle ''. Which of the following is/are CORRECT ?

 
(A) If  = and a = 2 then p = 6 (B) p = a + a cosec
3 2

2 
(C) If  = and a = 1 then p = 3 (D) p = a + a sec
3 2

18. A(1, 2) and B(7, 10) are two points. If P(x, y) is a point such that APB = 60º and area of APB is

maximum, then which of the following is (are) TRUE ?

(A) P lies on any line perpendicular to AB

(B) P lies on the right bisector of AB

(C) P lies on the line 3x + 4y = 36

(D) Radius of circumcircle of PAB is 10 units

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PHYSICS
PART : II PHYSICS

PHYSICS
SECTION – 1 : (Maximum Marks : 36)

 This section contains TWELVE questions


 The answer to each question is a DOUBLE DIGIT INTEGER ranging from 00 to 99, both
inclusive
 For each question, darken the bubble corresponding to the correct integer in the ORS
 Marking scheme :
+3 If the bubble corresponding to the answer is darkened
0 If none of the bubbles is darkened

19. A man of mass 50 kg falls freely from a height of 40 m into a swimming pool and just come to rest
at the bottom of the pool. Assume that the average upward force on the man due to water is
1000 N. Find the depth of water in the pool in meter. (g = 10 m/s2)

20. Two blocks of masses m1 = 10 kg and m2 = 20 kg are connected by a spring of stiffness


k = 200 N/m. The coefficient of friction between the blocks and the fixed horizontal surface is
µ = 0.1. Find the minimum constant horizontal force F (in Newton) to be applied to m1 in order to
slide the mass m2. (Take g = 10 m/s2)

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PHYSICS
21. A box of mass 20 kg is kept on a rough horizontal surface ( = 0.1). There is a spring mass system

PHYSICS
having block of mass 20 kg and spring of spring constant 100 N/m in the box. There is no friction
between block and box and spring is initially relaxed. Now an external force of 120 N is applied on
the box, find acceleration of the box (in m/s2) just after applying the force.

25 2
22. System shown in figure is released from rest. If the acceleration of 2kg block is ms–2 then x
x
will be :

23. A particle A is at origin, and another particle B is at x = 5m at t = 0 and they are moving with
constant velocities (2iˆ  2ˆj  k)m
ˆ / s and ( 2iˆ  ˆj  k)m
ˆ / s respectively. What is the minimum
distance (in m) between these particle during the course of their motion ?

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PHYSICS
24. A particle is projected with a speed of 30m/s at angle 22.5° with horizontal from ground as shown.

PHYSICS
If AB and CD are parallel to y-axis and B is highest point of trajectory of particle, then the value of
CD/AB is :

25. A man does 30 J of work on a ball to throw it vertically upto a height h on earth, if man does work
1
x J on same ball to throw it vertically upto height 2h on another planet having its radius of radius
4
of earth and planet has same density as that of earth. Find 'x' ?

26. A binary star has a time period 3 years (time period of earth is one year) while distance between
these two stars is 9 times distance between the earth and the sun. Mass of one star is equal to
mass of the sun and mass of other star is 5n times mass of the sun then calculate n.

27. Four point charge q, – q, 2Q and Q are placed in order at the corners A, B, C, D of a square. If the

5 5
field at the mid point of CD is zero, then the value of q/Q is . Find the value of x
x

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PHYSICS
28. In the figure shown points A and B are at distance r and 2r respectively from one end of uniformly

PHYSICS
charged infinitely long wire having linear charge density . If potential difference VA – VB is

n(x) , calculate x.
16 0

29. Two parallel beams of light pass through an isosceles prism of refractive index 1.4 as shown in the
figure. Find the angle between the two emergent rays in degree. [sin350 = 0.57, sin-1(0.798) = 530]

30. A converging lens (focal length f) is broken in two equal pieces and placed at 60 cm as shown
along with the object. It is found that real images are formed at the same place and ratio of image
 1
heights is 9 : 1, if the value of f is  x   cm then value of x is :
 2

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PHYSICS

SECTION – 2 : (Maximum Marks : 24)

PHYSICS
 This section contains SIX questions
 Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these
four option(s) is(are) correct
 For each question, darken the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct option(s) in the ORS
 For each question, marks will be awarded in one of the following categories :
Full Marks : +4 If only the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct option(s) is(are)
darkened.
Partial Marks : +1 For darkening a bubble corresponding to each correct option, provided
NO incorrect option is darkened.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubbles is darkened.
Negative Marks : –2 In all other cases.
 For example, if (A), (C) and (D) are all the correct options for a question, darkening all these three
will result in +4 marks ; darkening only (A) and (D) will result in +2 marks and darkening (A) and
(B) will result in –2 marks, as a wrong option is also darkened.

cx
31. A particle of mass 'm' moves under a conservative force with potential energy U(x) 
x 2  a2
where c and a are positive constants. Choose the correct option(s)
(A) Position of unstable equilibrium is x = +a
(B) The particle can oscillate about x = –a
c
(C) If particle's speed is more than at origin, then it will reach x = + 
ma
c
(D) If particle's speed in more than at x = –a, then it will reach x = – 
ma

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PHYSICS
32. Man A of mass 2m is standing on a ladder of mass m. Ladder is attached with an inextensible light

PHYSICS
string and man C of mass 3m is holding the other end of string. Initially, the whole system is at
rest. Assume whole system is at sufficient height and pulley is frictionless. Also A and C are at
same horizontal level. Then choose the correct options.[g = 10 m/s2].

(A) If man A starts climbing up on the ladder with a constant acceleration of 4 m/s2 w.r.t ground
then, the vertical distance between A and C after 1 sec is 1 m.
(B) If man C starts climbing up on the rope (while A remain at rest with respect to ladder) with
constant acceleration of 4 m/s2 with respect to ground then, the vertical distance between A and C
after 1 sec is 2 m.
(C) If both man A and C starts climbing up with constant acceleration 4 m/s2 with respect to ground
then, acceleration of ladder is 4 m/s2 upward .
(D) If both man A and C starts climbing up with constant acceleration 4 m/s2 with respect to ground
then, acceleration of ladder is 3 m/s2 upward.

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PHYSICS
33. A body is thrown from ground with an angle  returns to ground after covering a horizontal

PHYSICS
distance b. Then this body is projected with same velocity at same angle  above horizontal from a

tower of height h1 and returns to the ground after covering a horizontal distance s. If this body is

projected with same speed at angle  (below the horizontal) from tower of height h2 so that it will

fall on the ground at the same distance s from this tower base, then Choose the correct option(s) :

2s2
(A) h1 + h2 = tan 
b

(B) h2 – h1 = 25cot

h2 s  b
(C) 
h1 s  b

h2 s
(D) 
h1 2b

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PHYSICS
34. A solid spherical planet of mass 2m and radius 'R' has a very thin tunnel along its diameter. A

PHYSICS
small cosmic particle of mass m is at a distance 2R from the centre of the planet as shown. Both

are initially at rest, and due to gravitational attraction, both start moving toward each other. After

some time, the cosmic particle passes through the centre of the planet. (Assume the planet and

the cosmic particle are isolated from other planets)

4R
(A) Displacement of the cosmic particle till that instant is
3

(B) Acceleration of the cosmic particle at that instant is zero

8Gm
(C) velocity of the cosmic particle at that instant is
3R

2Gm2
(D) Total work done by the gravitational force on both the particle is 
R

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PHYSICS
35. An uncharged conducting sphere of radius R is placed near a uniformly charged ring of radius R.

PHYSICS
Total charge on ring is Q. The centre of sphere lies on the axis of ring and distance of centre of

sphere from centre of ring is R.

KQ
(A) Potential at centre of ring is
R

KQ
(B) Potential at centre of ring is
2R

(C) Potential at centre of ring due to conducting sphere is zero

KQ
(D) Potential at centre of conducting sphere is
2R

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PHYSICS
36. A person is looking at the flat surface of a transparent hemisphere. Half of the flat surface is

PHYSICS
coloured black and half of curved surface is coloured in six equal strips as shown in the figure.

Then select correct alternative/s (nR = 1.412, nO = 1.413, nY = 1.414, nG = 1.415, nB= 1.416,

nV = 1.417) (where alphabates has usual meaning)

(A) The person can see green orange and red

(B) The person can see only yellow, indigo and blue

(C) The ray coming from green, red and orange strips will be totally reflected

(D) The ray coming from yellow, indigo and blue strips will be totally reflected

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CHEMISTRY

PART : III CHEMISTRY


Atomic masses : [H = 1, D = 2, Li = 7, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Na = 23, Mg = 24, Al = 27, Si = 28,

CHEMISTRY
P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, K = 39, Ca = 40, Cr = 52, Mn = 55, Fe = 56, Cu = 63.5, Zn = 65, As = 75,
Br = 80, Ag = 108, I = 127, Ba = 137, Hg = 200, Pb = 207]

SECTION – 1 : (Maximum Marks : 36)

 This section contains TWELVE questions


 The answer to each question is a DOUBLE DIGIT INTEGER ranging from 00 to 99, both
inclusive
 For each question, darken the bubble corresponding to the correct integer in the ORS
 Marking scheme :
+3 If the bubble corresponding to the answer is darkened
0 If none of the bubbles is darkened

37. Find sum of total number of ns and np subshell electrons of all such third period elements having

less ionization energy than next atomic number element.

38. V ml, 0.175 M solution of I2 is heated with 100 ml, 0.2 M NaOH. After sufficient time is given for

disproportionation reaction to complete, excess of NaOH is back titrated with HCl, 25 ml of 0.1 M

HCl was needed. Calculate the value of V (in ml).

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39. 100 ml of 0.05 M CuSO4(aq) solution was electrolyzed using inert electrodes by passing current till

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the pH of resulting solution becomes 2. The solution after electrolysis was neutralized and then
treated with excess KI and I2 formed is titrated with 0.05 M Na2S2O3. Calculate the required
volume (in ml) of Na2S2O3. Assume volume of solution remains constant through out the process.

40. In the redox reaction

aCrCl3 + bH2O2 + cNaOH 


 xNa2CrO4 + yNaCl + zH2O.

The minimum possible integral value of (a+b+c+x+y+z) is :

41. In the absence of CFSE enthalpy of hydration of Fe2+ is –390 Kcal mol–1. 0 for the complex

[Fe(H2O)6]2+ is 8750 cm –1. Calculate the magnitude of enthalpy of hydration of Fe 2+ in Kcal mol–1 in
presence of CFSE. (Given: 1 Kcal mol–1 = 350 cm–1). Report your answer by dividing actual
answer by 10.

42. Consider the following species :

OF2, H2O, [BF4]–1, BF3, (CH3)2O, (SiH3)2O, (CH3)3N, (SiH3)3N

Let a = Total number of species in which no back bonding occurs.


b = Total number of species in which back bonding occurs.
Find a × b.

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43. Gaseous nitrosyl chloride and nitrogen are taken in a flask, sealed and heated to some

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temperature where the total pressure would have been 1 atm if the following reaction had not been
occurred.
Kp
2NOCl(g) 2NO(g) + Cl2(g)
But the actual pressure was found to be 1.2 atm due to above equilibrium. Now into the above
equilibrium mixture, some Cl2 gas was introduced at constant V & T so that the total pressure
would have been 8.3 atm, if no further reaction had occurred but the actual pressure was found to
be 8.2 atm.
Determine the value of Kp (in atm). Give your answer after multiplying by 10.

44. How many of the following statement(s) is/are correct ?


(i) Decreasing C – O bond strengths order Ni(CO)4  [Co(CO)4 ] > [Fe(CO)4]2–

(ii) In the isolated CO ligand, the electrons are arranged by sp mixing.


(iii) X–C–X bond angle : COCl2 > COF2
(iv) Due to  interactions for an octahedral [M(CO)6] complex there will be an increase in  0 .

(v) In Ferrocene the two five membered rings always have staggered conformation .
(vi) PCl6¯ has octahedral shape.

45. Unexposed silver halides are removed from photographic film when they react with Na2S2O3 to
form the complex ion [Ag(S2O3)2]3–. What amount of Na2S2O3 in gram is needed to prepare 1 L of a
solution that dissolves 0.1 moles of AgBr by the formation of [Ag(S 2O3)2]3– ? KspAgBr = 4 × 10–13
and Kf [Ag(S2O3)2]3– = 1.6 × 1012 (Report your answer to the nearest integer).

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46. The solubility of calcium palmitate Ca[CH3(CH2)14COO]2 is 0.0055 g per 100 ml at 25ºC. If soap is

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used to produce a final concentration of palmitate ion equal to 0.1 M in a water sample having
40 ppm Ca2+ initially. How many decigram of calcium palmitate would precipitate in a bucket
containing 10 L of this water sample ?

47. Consider the following species :


O2, O22–, O2–, O2+, O 22 , F2, Cl2, Li2, B2, C2, N2, NO, NO+
Let a = total number of species having bond order = 1
b = total number of species having bond order = 2
c = total number of species having bond order = 3
Find (a × b) + c

48. Consider the following orders :


(i) N3H < CH3N3 (Boiling point)
(ii) CH4 > SiH4 > GeH4 > SnH4 (Bond angle)
(iii) NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3 (Lewis base character)
(iv) HF > HCl > HBr > H (Bond dissociation energy)
(v) H2O > H2S > H2Se > H2Te (Thermal stability)
(vi) O2 > KO2 > K2O2 (Spin only magnetic moment order)
(vii) SiCl4 < SnCl4 < PbCl4 (Oxidising power order)
(viii) Be(OH)2 < Mg(OH)2 < Ca(OH)2 Sr(OH)2 < Ba(OH)2 (Solubility in water)
(ix) CH3Cl > CH3F > CH3Br > CH3 (Dipole moment)
(x) P4S5 > P4S3 (Number of P–P bond)
Calculate the value of (x – y)2 where x and y are total number of correct and incorrect orders
respectively.

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SECTION – 2 : (Maximum Marks : 24)


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 This section contains SIX questions
 Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these
four option(s) is(are) correct
 For each question, darken the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct option(s) in the ORS
 For each question, marks will be awarded in one of the following categories :
Full Marks : +4 If only the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct option(s) is(are)
darkened.
Partial Marks : +1 For darkening a bubble corresponding to each correct option, provided
NO incorrect option is darkened.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubbles is darkened.
Negative Marks : –2 In all other cases.
 For example, if (A), (C) and (D) are all the correct options for a question, darkening all these three
will result in +4 marks ; darkening only (A) and (D) will result in +2 marks and darkening (A) and
(B) will result in –2 marks, as a wrong option is also darkened.

49. A gaseous substance AB2(g) converts to AB(g) in presence of solid 'A' in sufficient amount as :
Kp
AB2(g) + A(s) 2AB(g)
The initial pressure and equilibrium pressure are 0.7 and 0.95 bar respectively. Now the
equilibrium mixture is expanded reversibly and isothermally till the gas pressure falls to 0.4 bar.
Select the correct option(s) :
(A) Mole % of AB(g) at final equilibrium is nearly 27%
(B) Mole % of AB2(g) at final equilibrium is nearly 32.5%
5
(C) KP = bar
9
(D) Ratio of equilibrium pressure of AB2(g) at initial and final equilibrium is 5 : 1

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50. Select true statement(s) for the given species :

(a) SbF4 (b) SF5 (c) SeF3

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(A) All have same number of lone pair of electrons on central atom.
(B) All have different hybridisation of central atom.
(C) All have different shape.
(D) All have same shape.

51. An aqueous solution containing 1M NiSO4 and 1M S2O82– is electrolyzed using palladium electrode,
at 25C.
Ni2+ +2e–  Ni; Eo = – 0.25 V
2H+ + 2e–  H2; Eo = 0.00 V
O2 + 4H+ + 4e–  2H2O; Eo = 1.23 V
Pd2+ + 2e–  Pd; Eo = 0.92 V
S2O82– + 2e–  2SO42–; Eo = 2 V
H2O + e–  1/2 H2 + OH– ; Eo = – 0.83 V

pH of solution is 7. Select the correct statement on the basis of above given information :
o
(Ignore over voltage, neglect variation of EPd2
/ Pd
with concentration and take pressure of gas equal

to 1 bar)
(A) Reaction at anode is Pd  Pd2+ + 2e–
(B) Reaction at anode is 2H2O  O2 + 4H+ + 4e–
(C) Reaction at cathode is Ni2+ + 2e–  Ni
(D) Reaction at cathode is 2H+ + 2e–  H2

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52. Given for H2CO3 K a1 = 4 × 10–7, K a2 = 4 × 10–11 then select correct statement(s) (log 2 = 0.30) :

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(A) Concentration of H+ ions in 0.1 M H2CO3 is 2 × 10–4 M

(B) pH of 0.1 M NaHCO3 is 9.6

(C) Concentration of H+ ions in 0.1 M H2CO3 is 2 × 10–6 M

(D) pH of 0.1 M NaHCO3. is 8.4

53. The correct order of radii is/are :

(A) F– < Cl– < Br– < H– < – (B) Co > Ni > Cu > Zn

(C) Ag < Cu < Au (D) K+ > Li+ > Mg2+ > Al3+

54. Select the correct option(s) :

(A) Total number of geometrical isomers of the complex [Fe(NH3)2(H2O) BrCl] is 9

(B) Total number of geometrical isomers of the complex [Cr(gly)3] is 2

(C) [Fe(NH3)2(H2O) BrCl] can show optical isomerism

(D) [Cr(gly)3] can show optical isomerism

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