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CPT-5 VIII

MUMBAI | AKOLA | DELHI & NCR | KOLKATA | LUCKNOW | NASHIK | GOA | BOKARO | DURGAPUR | DUBAI

JSTSE MOCK TEST-01


(for CLASS-IX) Date: 07-01-2019
Time: 3 1 2 Hrs. Maximum marks: 200

Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATS:
Read the following instructions carefully before you answer the questions. Answers are to be given on a ANSWER-SHEET
(OMR).
1. Write your Roll No. very clearly (only one digit in one block) on this booklet and on the ANSWER- SHEET.
2. This question paper comprises of five sections. Make sure you have all the five Section A, B, C, D and E with you. See
that parts (Section-A (General Knowledge) contain 50 questions, Section-B (General Science & Mathematics); Science
contains 40 questions in each, Mathematics contains 30 questions. Total is 200 questions in all.
3. Answer each question by filling the correct alternative among the four choices on the answer
4. Separate sheet has been provided for rough work in this test booklet.
5. If you want to change your answer erase the earlier filled circle completely and then darken the circle of your choice.
6. One mark for each correct answer, there is (-1) negative marking.

Name of the Candidate : _____________________________________________________________________________________________

Roll Number : _____________________________________________________________________________________________

Batch / Centre : _____________________________________________________________________________________________

CENTRES AT DELHI & NCR:


Kalu Sarai Centre: 50-C, Kalu Sarai, New Delhi - 110016, Tel.: 011-41032930 / 41657741 / 9999732400
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Faridabad Centre: SCO-33, Sector-16 Market, Tel.: 0129-4041900 / 9650741900

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SECTION-A (GENERAL KNOWLEDGE)


1. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
Authors Books
(a) Ram Manohar Lohia - The Wheel of History
(b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad - India Divided
(c) Maulana Azad - India Wins Freedom
(d) Mahatma Gandhi - My India
2. Swami Vivekananda’s birthday is observed in India as:
(a) Hindu Renaissance day (b) World Religions day
(c) National Youth day (d) Teacher’s day
3. The International Date Line is approximately equal to:
(a) The equator (b) 100th meridian (c) 180th meridian (d) None of these
4. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) Bhangra - Punjab (b) Bihu - Nagaland
(c) Garba - Gujarat (d) Tamasha - Maharashtra
5. Which one of the following pairs is correctly match?
(a) Vitamin B1-Rctinol (b) Vitamin C-Calciferol
(c) Vitamin B6-Niacin (d) Vitamin B2-Riboflavin
6. Tathometer is used to measure:
(a) Earthquakes (b) Rainfall (c) Ocean depth (d) Sound intensity
7. Who among the following scientists shared the Nobel Prize in physics with his son?
(a) Max Planck (b) Enrico Fermi (c) Albert Einstein (d) William Henry Bragg
8. Who coined the slogan “Jai Jawan Jai Kisan”?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi (b) Sardar Patel (c) Lal Bahdur Shastri (d) Jawaharlal Nehru
9. Which term is given to the relationship between culture and food?
(a) Astronomy (b) Agronomy (c) Gastronomy (d) Geology
10. The first month of Saka year is:
(a) Chaitra (b) Paush (c) Vaisakh (d) Jyeshtha
11. A Dobson unit is a measure for the physical thickness of the:
(a) Ozone layer (b) Upper atmosphere
(c) Sulphuric acid in the upper atmosphere (d) Upper reaches of the atmosphere over Anterctica
12. Which of the following is not a contagious disease?
(a) Typhoid (b) Small pox (c) Tuberculosis (d) Mumps
13. The use of which of the following devices has given the modern biologist a better insight into the internal
structure of cells?
(a) Computer (b) Ultracentrifuge (c) Electron microscope (d) Spectrophotometer
14. World Cancer Day is celebrated every year on:
(a) February 4 (b) March 4 (c) April 4 (d) May 4
15. The first general election in India was held in which year?
(a) 1947-48 (b) 1951-52 (c) 1957 (d) 1962

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16. P.V. Sindhu is associated with which of the following sports?
(a) Weight lifting (b) Badminton (c) Table Tennis (d) Air Rifle Shooting
17. After failure of which among the following movements, the Swaraj Party was formed?
(a) Quit India Movement (b) Non-Cooperation Movement
(c) Civil Disobedience Movement (d) Swadeshi Movement
18. Who amongst the following is the author of the Book ‘A Bend in the River’?
(a) Arun Shourie (b) Walter Scott (c) V.S. Naipaul (d) Octavia Paz
19. The Non-Cooperation movement was started in:
(a) 1918 (b) 1920 (c) 1921 (d) 1922
20. Yuan is the currency of which country ?
(a) Japan (b) Myanmar (c) China (d) South Korea
21. Which former Indian tennis player has been conferred with Dhayan Chand Award -2013?
(a) Baichung Bhutia (b) Zeeshan Ali (c) Gagan Kapoor (d) Suresh Babu
22. As per notification issued by RBI, Circulation of the following coins shall be ceased w.e.f. year 2011?
(a) Rs. 1 coins (b) 50 paise coins (c) 25 paise coins (d) Both (b) & (c) above
23. Who among the following is the first citizen of a city in India?
(a) Mayor (b) Chief Minister
(c) Governor (d) Member of Legislative Assembly
24. Who was appointed as the first Indian Governor General of independent India?
(a) V.V. Giri (b) S. Radhakrishnan (c) C. Rajagopalchari (d) Rajendra Prasad
25. The most ancient musical instrument among the following is:
(a) Sitar (b) Veena (c) Sarod (d) Tabla
26. The book “Bharat Bharati” was written by:
(a) Maithili Sharan Gupt (b) Jai Shanker Prasad
(c) Rabindra Nath Prasad (d) Bankim Chandra Chatterji
27. Which of the following states has the largest number of people belonging to Scheduled Caste?
(a) Bihar (b) Rajashan (c) Uttar Pradesh (d) West Bengal
28. Noted social worker Anna Hazare did his hunger strike in New Delhi to protest against the reported delay in
bringing in which of the following bills to effectively deal with corruption?
(a) Central Vigilance Commission Bill
(b) The Competition (Amendment) Bill
(c) The Airports Economic Regulatory Authority of India Bill
(d) Lokpall Bill
29. TRAI regulates the functioning of which of the following services?
(a) Port (b) Trade (c) Telecom (d) Transport
30. Which one of the following countries is not a member of ASEAN?
(a) Indonesia (b) Thailand (c) Vietnam (d) South Korea
31. Which of the following is the Largest river in the world:
(a) Nile (b) Congo (c) Ganges (d) Amazon
32. Khyber Pass is in:
(a) Bangladesh (b) Bhutan (c) India (d) Pakistan

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33. The world’s highest hydel power project Rongtong is located in:
(a) Rangoon (b) Kathmandu (c) Himachal Pradesh (d) Beizing
34. K.L.M. a world wide airlines belongs to which of the following countries?
(a) France (b) Germany (c) Japan (d) The Neitherlands
35. Kerosene oil is an example of:
(a) Vegetable oil (b) Essential oil (c) Mineral oil (d) Natural oil
36. Tides in the Sea have stored in them:
(a) Hydraulic Energy (b) Kinetic Energy
(c) Gravitational Energy (d) A contribution of all the above three forms of Energy
37. “Galileo satellites” are four large moons of the Planet:
(a) Saturn (b) Uranus (c) Jupiter (d) Neptune
38. A state which has two Capitals is:
(a) U.P. (b) Punjab (c) Jammu & Kashmir (d) Maharashtra
39. Mithali Raj belongs to which spots
(a) Tennis (b) Cricket (c) Archery (d) Badminton
40. Who was appointed as Lt. Governor of Delhi in July 2013?
(a) Tejinder Khanna (b) Banwari Lal Joshi
(c) Najeeb Jung (d) Romesh Bhanderi
41. Cricket world cup 2015 will be hosted by
(a) India (b) Australia and New Zeeland
(c) England (d) South Africa
42. The largest Union Territory of India is
(a) Chandigarh (b) Puducherry
(c) Andaman and Nicobar Island (d) Lakshadweep
43. Which city’s local time indicated India Standard Time (IST)
(a) New Delhi (b) Madras (c) Kolkata (d) Allahabad
44. SIM is the abbreviations of
(a) Signal Information Mode (b) Simple Identity Mode
(c) Subscriber Identification Module (d) Selling International Matrix
45. Match the items given in List – I with those of List – II.
List – I List – II
(i) Antyodaya Anna Yojna (a) 2006
(ii) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Gaurantee Programme (b) 1997
(iii) Targeted Public Distribution System (c) 2000
(iv) Swarn Jayanti Gram Swarojgar Yojna (d) 1999
(a) i – c, ii – a, iii – b, iv – d (b) i – c, ii – d, iii – b, iv - a
(c) i – b, ii – d, iii – a, iv – c (d) i – d, ii – c, iii – b, iv - a
46. Which one of these Indian monment is not enlisted in ‘UNESCO’S WORLD HERITAGE’ list?
(a) Taj Mahal, Agra (b) Chhatrapati Shivaji Terminal, Mumbai
(c) Akshardham Temple, Delhi (d) Jantar Mantar, Jaipur

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47. The main occupation of Palaeolithic (Old Stone Age) people was
(a) Agriculture (b) Animal Husbandry (c) Fishing (d) Hunting
48. Saka Era was founded by
(a) Kanishka (b) Vikramaditya (c) Pulakesin-II (d) Harsha
49. Samudragupta’s achievements are mentioned in
(a) Ashoka Pillar at Allahabad (b) Hathigumpha inscription
(c) Indica (d) Kalinga edict
50. The capital city of the Pallavas was
(a) Vatapi (b) Kanchipuram (c) Mahabalipuram (d) Madurai

SECTION-B (General Science and Mathematics)

PART - I : PHYSICS
51. A particle is thrown vertically up in the air. At its maximum height, its acceleration is:
(a) Zero (b) 9.8 m/sec2 (c) 4.9 m/sec2 (d) 0.01 m/sec2
52. Number of electrons that constitute 1 coulomb of charge is:
18 19
(a) 6.25  10 (b) 1 (c) 1019 (d) 1.6 10
53. 1 Joule = x erg ; then x is:
(a) 105 (b) 107 (c) 109 (d) 1015
54. The value of G (universal gravitational constant) at the surface of moon in NM2Kg-2 is:
11 11
(a) 6.67 10 (b) 1.11 10 11 (c) 110 (d) 4.2  10 10
55. What is SI unit of temperature?
(a) Celsius (b) Kelvin (c) Fahrenheit (d) None of these
o o
56. The amount of heat required to increase 100gm of water from 40 C to 50 C is:
(a) 4200 cal (b) 1000 cal (c) 42000 cal (d) 10000 cal
57. A particle is dropped from a height of 125m. Time taken by it to reach the ground is:
(a) 2 sec. (b) 5 sec. (c) 7 sec. (d) 10 sec.
58. Wave length of a wave travelling with speed 100 m/sec. is 1m. What is its time period?
(a) 100 sec. (b) 10 sec. (c) 0.01 sec (d) 0.1 sec.
59. A particle of mass 5kg is thrown vertically up in the air with a speed of 40ms-1 then at its maximum height,
its potential energy is:
(a) 4 KJ (b) 2.4 KJ (c) 6 KJ (d) 10.4 KJ
60. On increasing temperature, resistance of which of the following materials will increase?
(a) Iron (b) Copper (c) Aluminium (d) All of these
61. Name the device which changes mechanical energy into electrical energy?
(a) Transformer (b) Generator (c) Motor (d) Galvanometer
18
62. If 6.25  10 electrons crosses a cross section area in 1 second then, electric current is:
(a) 6.25  1018 amp (b) 1 amp (c) 2 amp (d) 1.25  1018 amp
63. An electric heater rated 400W operators 6 hours/day. The cost of energy to operate it for 30 days at Rs 3 per
KWh is:
(a) 216 Rs (b) 288 Rs (c) 432 Rs (d) 576 Rs

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64. 1 KWh = x Joule then; x is:
5 6 2
(a) 3.6  10 (b) 3.6  10 (c) 3.6  10 (d) 3.6  109
65. ohm is the unit of:
(a) Resistance (b) Conductance (c) Current (d) Potential
66. On which of the following principles does electric generator work:
(a) ohm’s law (b) Newton’s law (c) Faraday law’s (d) Lenz’s law
67. A magnet NS is placed along the axis of a circular coil. The magnet is moved back and forth periodically then
induced current in the coil is:

(a) Clock wise (b) Anti clockwise (c) zero (d) changes direction periodically
68. In the visible spectrum, the colour having shortest wavelength is:
(a) Red (b) Yellow (c) Blue (d) Violet
69. If 20N force is applied on a body for 10 seconds, then it change in momentum is:
(a) 20NS (b) 200 NS (c) 2000NS (d) 2NS
70. Light year is a unit of:
(a) Time (b) Distance (c) Energy (d) Force
71. Velocity time graph of a particle is given. Displacement of the particle at the end of 12 sec. is:

(a) 120 m (b) 160 m (c) 200 m (d) 320 m


72. A particle hits the ground with a speed of 20 ms and bounces back with 10 ms-1 in the vertical
-1
direction. It
mass of the particle is 100gm then magnitude of change in momentum of the particle is:
(a) 1NS (b) 3NS (c) 5NS (d) 2NS
73. A wire is stretched to double its length then its resistance becomes:
(a) Two times (b) Four times (c) Half (d) No change
74. The value of acceleration due to gravity at the earth’s surface is
(a) 9.8 m/sec2 (b) 0 (c) infinity (d) 4.9 m/sec2
75. Sound wave is an example of:
(a) One dimensional wave (b) Electromagnetic wave
(c) Longitudinal wave (d) Transverse wave
76. Pitch of sound is related to:
(a) Frequency (b) Amplitude (c) Speed (d) Intensity
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77. An accelerated charge produces:
(a) Electric field (b) Magnetic field (c) Both (d) None of these
78. A particle covers half of the distance with a speed of 60 km/hr and rest half with 40 km/hr. Then its average
speed for the whole journey is:
(a) 50km/hr (b) 48 km/hr (c) 46 km/hr (d) 60km/hr
79. A particle thrown is vertically up in the air such that it was found be at the same height at t=2 and t=6 sec.
Find the maximum height achieved by it.
(a) 80m (b) 120m (c) 125m (d) 180m
80. Work done in moving a 2C of charge through a potential difference of 20V is :
(a) 40J (b) 10J (c) 400V (d) 100J
81. A force of 50N acts on a body of mass 5kg and its acceleration found to be 6m/sec2 then friction force acting
is:
(a) 20N (b) 30N (c) 40N (d) 50N
82. A bullet of mass 10 gm is fired from a gun of mass 10kg with a speed of 100ms-1, with what speed does the
gun recoil?
(a) 1 ms-1 (b) 0.1 ms-1 (c) 0.01 ms-1 (d) 10 ms-1
83. Specific heat capacity of water is:
(a) 1 Cal/gm (b) 4.2 Cal/gm (c) 4200 Cal/gm (d) 100Cal/gm
o
84. Temperature of human body is 36.9 C. This temperature is Kelvin is:
(a) 384K (b) 432K (c) 378.9K (d) 309.9K
85. 10A of current flow through a resistor of 100  for 1 hr. The heat produced in KJ is:
(a) 1000 (b) 36000 (c) 3600 (d) 1000
86. A ray of light incident on a plane mirror such that angle of incidence is 60o then angle of deviation is:
(a) 60o (b) 120o (c) 180o (d) 240o
87. An object of relative density 0.9 floats in water. What percentage of its volume is outside water?
(a) 90% (b) 10% (c) 45% (d) 5%
88. Speed of light in a medium whose a refractive index is 3 2 is:
8
(a) 2×108 m/sec. (b) 4.5×10 m/sec. (c) 1×108 m/sec. (d) 109 m/sec.
89. The speed of 5kg of mass changes from 10ms-1 to 20ms-1. Work done on the mass is:
(a) 1500J (b) 2250J (c) 750J (d) 250J
90. A 10 kg mass moves along x-axis. Its acceleration as a function of its position is shown in the figure. What is
the total work done on the mass by the force as the mass moves from x = 0 to x = 8cm

(A) 8  102 J (B) 16  102 J (C) 4  104 J (D) 1.6  103 J

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PART - II : CHEMISTRY
91. The compound which contain both ionic and covalent bond is
(a) CH4 (b) SO2 (c) Ca(CN)2 (d) SO3
92. The number of electron and proton in an element is 11 and 12 respectively. Its mass number is
(a) 2 (b) 23 (c) 25 (d) 22
93. A neutral atom (Atomic number >1)always has equal number of
(a) Electron and proton (b) Neutron and electron
(c)Electron, neutron and proton (d) Neutron and proton
94. Of classification of modern periodic table is
(a) Atomic number (b) Atomic size (c) Atomic volume (d) atomic mass
95. Quick lime is
(A) CaO (b) Ca(OH)2 (c) Ca(OCl)2 (d) CaCl2
96. Laughing gas is:
(a) Nitrous oxide (N2O) (b) Nitric oxide (NO)
(c) Nitrogen trioxide (N2O3) (d) Nitrogen Pentoxide (N2O5)
97. ‘Baking Powder’ is:
(a) Na2CO3 (b) Na2SO4 (c) NaHCO3 (d) K2CO3
98. An example of Alum is:
(a) Al2(SO4)3.Na2SO4.12H2O (b) FeSO4.(NH4)2SO4. 6H2O
(c) K2SO4.Al2(SO4)3.24H2O (d) FeSO4.Al2(SO4)3.24H2O
99. Vinegar is
(a) Acetic acid (b) Benzoic acid (c) Formic acid (d) Ethanol
100. The element among the following exist in liquid state is:
(a) Sodium (b) Helium (c) Bromine (d) Zinc
101. Chemical symbol of ‘mercury’ is:
(a) W (b) Xe (c) Hg (d) Zr
102. Percentage of carbon in urea (NH2CONH2) is:
(a) 23.3% (b) 46.7% (c) 11.66% (d) 20%
103. Choose the incorrect pair:
(a) NO – Neutral oxide (b) Cl2O7 – Acidic oxide
(c) CO2 – Basic oxide (d) Na2O - Basic
104. Formula for zinc Blende:
(a) ZnS (b) ZnCO3 (c) ZnSO4 (d) Zn(OH)2
105. Galena is ore of
(a) Copper (b) Zinc (c) Lead (d) Gallium
106. Which pair represents isobar:
(a) 11 H and 12 H (b) 13 H and 32 He (c) 32 He and 84 Be (d) 13 H and 24 He
107. Which pair represents isotone:
3 3
(a) 11 H and 12 H (b) 1 H and 2 He (c) 32 He and 24He (d) 13 H and 24 He
108. The chemical formula of blue vitriol is:
(a) Na2SO4 . 10H2O (b) ZnSO4. 7H2O (c) FeSO4 . 7H2O (d) CuSO4. 5H2O
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109. The chemical formula of white vitriol is:
(a) Na2SO4 . 10H2O (b) ZnSO4. 7H2O (c) FeSO4 . 7H2O (d) CuSO4. 5H2O
110. 46 amu of Na contains
(a) 2 mole of Na-atoms (b) 2 atoms of Na
23
(b) 2  6.022  10 atoms of Na (d) None of these
111. The rate of evaporation increase with
(a) Increase in humidity (b) decrease of temperature
(c) Increase in wind speed (d) decrease of surface area
112. The density of which state of matter is highest:
(a) Solid (b) Liquid (c) Gas (d) All of these
113. The highest temperature among the following is:
(a) 205o F (b) 275K (c)108o C (d) 299K
238
114. Number of neutrons is 92 U
(a) 146 (b) 92 (c) 184 (d) 238
115. Electron was discovered by
(a) Rutherford (b) Thomson (c) Goldstein (d) Chadwick
116. The proton is heavier than an electron by
(a) 1850 times (b) 1840 times (c) 1000 times (d) 100 times
117. The ion of an element has 2 positive charge. Mass number of atom is 24 and number of neutron is 12. What is
the number of electron in the ions?
(a) 13 (b) 14 (c) 10 (d) 16
118. Nucleus was discovered by
(a) J. J. Thomson (b) Gold stein (c) Rutherford (d) Chadwick
119. One amu is equals to:
(a) 1.66×10-24 Kg (b) 1.66×10-24 g (c) 1.66×10-24 (d) 1.66×10 -24 Pounds
120. Weight of a molecule of CO2 is
1 1
(a) 44g (b) 44u (c) u (d) g
44 44
121. The oxide ion (O2-) is iso-electronic with
(a) F+ (b) F- (c) N-2 (d) N+3
122. Which is thermosetting plastic?
(a) Melamine (b) PVC (c) Polythene (d) Nylon
1 2 3
123. Hydrogen H, H and H are
1 1 1

(a) isobars (b) isotope (c) isotone (d) none of these


2-
124. The oxide ion (O ) ion contains
(a) 10 electrons (b) 8 electrons (c) 9 electrons (d) 7 electrons
2+
125. Number of proton in Mg
(a) 10 (b) 12 (c) 2 (d) 14
3+
126. Number of electron is Al
(a) 10 (b) 13 (c) 14 (d) 3

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127. Number of mole in 32g of He sample
(a) 8 (b) 32 (c) 2 (d) 16
128. Number of atoms is 4u of He sample
(a) 1 (b) 4 (c) 2 (d) 3
129. Formula unit mass of CaCl2
(a) 111.0 (b) 115.4 (c) 40.4 (d) 71.4
-
130. Mass of 1 mole of O atoms
(a) 16u (b) 16g (c) 8u (d) 8g

PART - III : BIOLOGY


131. Cancer can be caused due to:
(a) High blood pressure (b) Low blood pressure (c) Genetic abnormalities (d) High blood sugar level
132. Hybridisation refers to crossing between
(a) genetically dissimilar plants (b) two different verities
(c) two different genera (d) All statements
133. Plant Micronutrient
(a) Nitrogen (b) Calcium (c) Zinc (d) Sulphur
134. lntercropping is :
(a) growing of different crops on a piece of land in a pre-planned succession
(b) removal of unwanted plants from the cultivated field
(c) growing two or more crops simultaneously on the same field in a definite pattern
(d) all statements true
135. Life supporting zone of Earth is known as :
(a) Hydrosphere (b) Biosphere (c) Atmosphere (d) Lithosphere
136. Acute diseases last for
(a) Life time (b) very short period (c) a long time (d) none of the above
137. Sleeping sickness is caused by
(a) Staphylococci (b) Leishmania (c) Ascaris lumbricoides (d) Trypanosoma
138. Antibiotic block biochemical pathway is important for
(a) bacteria (b) virus (c) protozoa (d) worms
139. The commonest vectors are
(a) Flies (b) Parasites (c) Mosquitoes (d) Amoeba
140. The disease spread through air is
(a) Pneumonia (b) Jaundice (c) AIDS (d) Cholera
141. Local general effect of inflammation is :
(a) Cough (b) Fever (c) Drowsiness (d) Rashes
142. In HIV infection, virus damages the :
(a) Muscular system (b) Nervous system (c) Immune system (d) Circulatory system
143. The scheme of classification is :
(a) Phylum, kingdom, family (b) Kingdom, Phylum, Class
(c) Phylum Kingdom order (d) Kingdom, Order, Family

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144. Widely used classification is proposed by
(a) Haeckel (b) Whittaker (c) Woese (d) Edison
145. Monera group includes
(a) Green algae (b) Amoeba (c) Plantae (d) Cyanobacteria
146. Lichens is the symbiotic relationship between
(a) Fungus and bacteria (b) Fungus and green algae
(c) Fungus and funaria (d) Fungi and blue green algae
147. These are called the amphibians of the plant kingdom
(a) Algae (b) Pteridophyta (c) Bryophyta (d) Fungus
148. Naked embryos of thallophytes & pteridophytes are called
(a) egg (b) gametes (c) spores (d) seed
149. Seeds are enclosed in fruits
(a) Gymnosperm (b) Angiosperm (c) Phanerogam (d) Bryophyta
150. An animal have two layers of cells
(a) Jelly fish (b) Sponge (c) Fluke (d) Spirogyra
151. Annelid animals have
(a) Triploblastic but no coelom (b) Triploblastic & pseudocoelom
(c) Triploblastic and dorsiventrally flattened (d) Triploblastic & true body cavity
152. Shark fish have
(a) Three chambered heart (b) Two chambered heart
(c) No heart (d) Four chambered heart
153. The girth of stem or root increases due to
(a) Lateral Meristem (b) Apical meristem (c) Epidermis (d) Intercalary meristem
154. Flexibility in plants is due to
(a) Parenchyma (b) Chlorenchyma (c) Aerenchyma (d) Collenchyma
155. The cell of the tissue are dead, walls are thickened due to lignin, the tissue is
(a) collenchyma (b) sclerenchyma (c) Cambium (d) Aerenchyma
156. Desert plants, epidermis had a coating of
(a) Lignin (b) Cutin (c) Melanin (d) Iodine
157. Tissue that connects muscle to bone in
(a) Cartilage (b) Ligament
(c) Tendon (d) Areolar connective tissue
158. Reflex action is a function of :
(a) Spinal cord (b) Medulla (c) Cerebrum (d) Cerebellum
159. Red blood corpuscles formed in
(a) Liver (b) Stomach (c) Kidney (d) Bone marrow
160. Which one is not warm blooded animal
(a) Pigeon (b) Fish (c) Rat (d) Bat
161. A cross between two distinct varieties of a species is called:
(a) Genetic engineering (b) Hybridisation (c) Inbreeding (d) Hybrid vigour
162. Which one is an oil yielding plant among the following?
(a) Lentil (b) Sunflower (c) Cauliflower (d) Hibiscus
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163. A bacterial disease, characterized by fever and swelling of body in cattle is:
(a) Rinderpest (b) Anthrax (c) Rabies (d) Aspergillosis
164. Rinderpest disease of cattle is caused by:
(a) Fungi (b) Virus (c) Bacteria (d) Protozoa
165. Which of the following is an original and natural breed of India?
(a) Jersey (b) Holstein-Friesian (c) Sahiwal (d) Brown Swiss
166. Choose the difference between prokaryotes and eukaryotes ?
(a) Prokaryotes have RNA, eukaryotes have DNA
(b) Prokaryotes have a nucleoid, eukaryotes have a nucleus
(c) Prokaryotes have DNA, eukaryotes have RNA
(d) Prokaryotes have a nucleus, eukaryotes have a nucleoid
167. Who is known as father of microscopy?
(a) Leuwenhoek (b) T. Schwann (c) H.G. Khorana (d) M.J. Schleiden
168. Depending upon their shape bacteria can be classified as
(a) Coccus, Bacillus, Spiral (b) Coccus, Spindle, Spiral
(c) Coccus, Helix, Spiral (d) Coccus, Bacillus, Helix
169. The Gram’s stain used to stain bacteria is
(a) Safranin and iodine (b) cotton blue and iodine
(c) Crystal Violet and Iodine (d) Crystal Violet and Cotton Blue
170. Bacterial cell wall is mainly composed of
(a) Cellulose (b) Chitin (c) Peptidoglycan (d) Pectin

PART - IV : MATHEMATICS

171. If a  4 2 , then the value of


 a  2    a  2 2  is:
2 1  a  2 a  2 2
(a) 12  8 2 (b) 12  8 2 (c) 2 (d) -2
172. The products of two numbers is 1296. If one number is 16 times the other, find the numbers.
(a) 9, 144 (b) 140, 9 (c) 10, 160 (d) 8, 128
173. If the wages of 15 workers for 6 days are Rs 945. Find the wages of 19 workers for 5 days.
(a) 9000 (b) 9075 (c) 9975 (d) 9875
12 x
3 17
174. If   4 , then the value of x is:
5 27

(a) 2 7 (b) 2 7 (c) 7 2 (d) 7 2

175. A shopkeeper expect against of 22.5% on his cost price. If in a week his sale was of Rs. 392, what was his
profit?
(a) Rs 18 (b) Rs 70 (c) Rs. 72 (d) Rs 88.25
Find the products of  x  x  1 and  x  x  1
2 2
176.
4 2
(a) x 4  x 2  1 (b) x 4  x 2  1 (c) x 4  x 2  1 (d) x  x  1
2
177. In HCF of the polynomial f  x   150  6 x 2  x  1 x  33  , a  x   84  x  3 8 x 2  14 x  5  . What is exponents of
2x + 1?
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3

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178. A man takes 3 hours to cover a certain distance upstream and takes only half the time to return. If the speed of
the river is 5km/hr, the speed at which the man can row in still water is:
(a) 15 km/hr (b) 40 km/hr (c) 30 km/hr (d) 20 km/hr
179. The angles of a triangle are arranged in ascending order if the difference between consecutive angles is 10o,
all the three angles will be:
(a) 40o, 60o, 80o (b) 45o, 55o, 65o (c) 40o, 50o, 60o (d) 50o, 60o, 70o
180. In  ABC,  B = 45o,  C = 55o and bisector of  A meets BC at as point D. Find  ADC.
(a) 75o (b) 95o (c) 85o (d) 105o
181. If a cone and hemisphere stands on equal bases, and have the same height. Find the ratio of their volumes.
(a) 2:1 (b) 2:3 (c) 3:2 (d) 1:2
182. A sphere and a right circular cylinder have the same radius. If the volume of the sphere is one fifth the volume
of the cylinder, then what is the ratio of cylinder height and radius?
(a) 4:3 (b) 3:4 (c) 20:3 (d) 3:20
183. A sphere and a cone have the same radii. If the volume of the sphere is double of the volume of the cone. Find
the ratio of the cone’s height and radius.
(a) 1:3 (b) 1:2 (c) 2:1 (d) 3 : 1
184. The equation of straight line which is parallel to y-axis and is at a distance of P from y-axis is:
(a) y = P (b) x = P (c) y + x = P (d) y – x = P
185.  ABC is an isosceles triangle with AB = AC. We extend the segment AB to D such that AB = BD. What is
the value of  BCD?
(a) 60o (b) 90o (c) 30o (d) 45o
186. In a two digit number, product of the digit is 12. Difference of the digit is 1, find the number.
(a) 34 (b) 43 (c) 62 (d) 26
187. In the given figure, quad ABCD is circumscribed touching the circle at P, Q, R and S. If AP = 6 cm. BP =
5cm, CQ = 3cm and DR = 4 cm, then perimeter of quad ABCD is

(a) 18 cm (b) 27 cm (c) 36 cm (d) 22 cm


188. In the given figure, three circles with centres A, B, C respectively touch each other externally. If AB = 5 cm,
BC = 7 cm and CA=6 cm. Then the radius of the circle with centre A is

(a) 2 cm (b) 3cm (c) 4 cm (d) 1.5 cm

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189.  cos 4
x  sin x  
4

(a) 2sin 2 x  1 (b) 1  2 cos 2 x (c) sin 2 x  cos 2 x (d) none of these
190. If sec   tan   P, then cos  =
2P 2P 2P P
(a) (b) (c) (d)
1  P2 P2 1 1  P2 P 12

1
191. If P  E  P  E   , then P(E)
8
(a) Is a rational number (b) has only one possible value
(c) Has two possible values (d) cannot be determined
192. Probability of throwing is 16 in one throw with three dice is
1 1 1 1
(a) (b) (c) (d)
36 18 72 9
193. If 12, 15, 17, 18, x+2, x+4, 25, 30, 31, 32 are in ascending order and median of the observations is 22, then
value of x is:
(a) 20 (b) 22 (c) 19 (d) 23
th th th
194. p term of an A.P. is a q and 9 term is P, its r term is:
(a) p – q + r (b) q – p + r (c) p + q – r (d) p + q + r
195. A cone is divided into two parts by drawing a plane through the mid-point of its axis parallel to its base. Then
the ratio of volumes of the two parts is:
(a) 1:7 (b) 2:7 (c) 7:2 (d) 3:2
196. A 4 cm cube is cut into 1 cm cubes. What is the percentage increase in the surface area after such cutting?
(a) 4% (b) 300% (c) 75% (d) 400%
2 2
197. The coefficient of x in the expansion of  x  x  1   x  x  1 is
2 2 2

(a) 6 (b) 5 (c) 4 (d) 3


198. If 3a-2b+c=0 , then the value of 27a 3 -8b 3 + c3 +18abc is:
(a) -1 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 0
2 3
199. In LCM of polynomials p  x   90  x 2  5 x  6   2 x  1 andQ  x   140  x  3 greatest exponent is of the terms is
(a) 2 (b) x-2 (c) x-3 (d) 2x +1
200. If one zero of the polynomials f  x    K  4  x  13x  4k is repricol of the other than k =
2 2

(a) 2 (b) -2 (c)1 (d) -1

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