Open Mock Test - 4 (Code-A) (Answers) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2019

All India Aakash Test Series for NEET - 2019

OPEN MOCK TEST - 4 (Code-A)
Test Date : 28/04/2019

ANSWERS
1. (2) 37. (2) 73. (2) 109. (1) 145. (4)
2. (3) 38. (1) 74. (3) 110. (2) 146. (3)
3. (1) 39. (2) 75. (1) 111. (3) 147. (2)
4. (3) 40. (1) 76. (3) 112. (4) 148. (1)
5. (1) 41. (3) 77. (1) 113. (3) 149. (3)
6. (2) 42. (1) 78. (2) 114. (1) 150. (4)
7. (2) 43. (1) 79. (4) 115. (3) 151. (3)
8. (1) 44. (4) 80. (4) 116. (3) 152. (1)
9. (2) 45. (4) 81. (2) 117. (1) 153. (2)
10. (1) 46. (4) 82. (3) 118. (4) 154. (3)
11. (3) 47. (3) 83. (2) 119. (2) 155. (1)
12. (1) 48. (4) 84. (2) 120. (2) 156. (2)
13. (1) 49. (2) 85. (2) 121. (1) 157. (4)
14. (1) 50. (3) 86. (4) 122. (1) 158. (4)
15. (3) 51. (3) 87. (3) 123. (2) 159. (3)
16. (4) 52. (4) 88. (2) 124. (4) 160. (4)
17. (2) 53. (2) 89. (2) 125. (2) 161. (1)
18. (1) 54. (1) 90. (2) 126. (3) 162. (1)
19. (2) 55. (2) 91. (4) 127. (3) 163. (1)
20. (3) 56. (2) 92. (3) 128. (2) 164. (3)
21. (2) 57. (4) 93. (1) 129. (4) 165. (2)
22. (3) 58. (2) 94. (2) 130. (3) 166. (2)
23. (1) 59. (3) 95. (4) 131. (3) 167. (4)
24. (4) 60. (2) 96. (2) 132. (1) 168. (4)
25. (2) 61. (2) 97. (3) 133. (3) 169. (3)
26. (2) 62. (1) 98. (3) 134. (3) 170. (4)
27. (1) 63. (4) 99. (2) 135. (1) 171. (1)
28. (2) 64. (3) 100. (2) 136. (3) 172. (1)
29. (3) 65. (3) 101. (4) 137. (1) 173. (1)
30. (3) 66. (2) 102. (4) 138. (1) 174. (3)
31. (1) 67. (2) 103. (2) 139. (1) 175. (4)
32. (4) 68. (3) 104. (3) 140. (4) 176. (4)
33. (2) 69. (2) 105. (4) 141. (2) 177. (2)
34. (3) 70. (2) 106. (2) 142. (3) 178. (2)
35. (2) 71. (1) 107. (1) 143. (3) 179. (3)
36. (3) 72. (3) 108. (3) 144. (3) 180. (3)

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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2019 Open Mock Test - 4 (Code-A) (Hints and Solutions)

HINTS & SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS vm = 10t2 ⇒ t2 = v m
1. Answer (2) 10
Hint : Same dimensional quantities can be added, vm
Now h= (t1 + t2 )
subtracted or equated 2
A s vm ⎛ vm vm ⎞
Sol. : U (s )= = +
B+s 3 2 ⎜⎝ 20 10 ⎟⎠
A U vm = 40 ms–1
=
B s 4. Answer (3)

⎡ML2 T −2 ⎤ x2
=⎣ ⎦ Hint : ∫ x1 dx = ∫ vdt = area under v – t curve
⎡L1/2 ⎤
⎣ ⎦ Sol. :

= ⎡ML3/2 T −2 ⎤
⎣ ⎦
2. Answer (3)

d 2x
Hint : Use a =
dt ²
Sol. : x² = t – 4x
x² + 4x = t
dx dx
2 x. +4 =1 x = –10 m at t = 0
dt dt
dx 1 Δx = area (v – t) curve
(2 x + 4) = 1 ⇒ v =
dt 2x + 4 Now at t = 24 s displacement is maximum.
2 x+10 = 20+32+18
⎛ dx ⎞ d ²x d ²x
Now, 2 ⎜ ⎟ + 2 x. +4 =0 x = 60 m
dt
⎝ ⎠ dt ² dt ²
1 Hence maximum value of position co-ordinate is
a(2 x + 4) = –2 x = 60 m
(2x + 4)²
5. Answer (1)
1 Hint : Horizontal components of velocity of stone
a=–
4( x + 2)³ w.r.t ground observer must be zero.
1 Sol. :
Hence Retardation =
4( x + 2)3

3. Answer (1)
Hint : S = area under v – t curve
Sol. :

Now 20 iˆ + (–30.cosα) iˆ = 0
2
cos α =
3
⎛2⎞
α = cos –1 ⎜ ⎟ in opposite direction of motion of
v ⎝3⎠
vm = 20 t1 ⇒ t1 = m
20 truck.

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Open Mock Test - 4 (Code-A) (Hints and Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2019
6. Answer (2)
Fnet 65 2
1 2 ablock = = ms–2
Hint : ux.t = x & v y t – gt = y mblock 40
2
Sol. :
13 2
ablock = ms –2
8
8. Answer (1)

 ΔP
Hint : Favg =
Δt
Sol. :

Let at time t cannon gun will destroy the bomb. Then   
ΔP = P2 − P1
(400+400cosθ)t = 2000 3
= mviˆ − ( −mviˆ)
(1+cosθ)t = 5 3 ...(i)

ΔP = 2mv
1 1 2
gt² + (400 sinθ) t – gt = 2000
2 2 πR
sinθ. t = 5 ...(ii) Δt =
v
From eqn (i) & (ii) 
sin θ 1  ΔP 2mv 2
= ⇒ Fav = =
1 + cos θ 3 3 sin θ = 1+cosθ Δt πR
9. Answer (2)
3 sin θ – cos θ = 1
Hint : Concept of static friction.
On solving
1 Sol. :
sin(θ – 30°) = ⇒ sin(θ – 30°) = sin30°
2
θ = 30° + 30°
θ = 60º
7. Answer (2)
Hint : ΣF = m.a
Sol. : F1 = 60 N
Maximum static friction
30 N fs = μN
F2
N = mg cos45° + T sin45°
37° 40 N = 100 2 + 50 2 =150 2 N
45° 25 N Now μN ≥ mg sin 45° – Tcos45°
= 100 2 – 50 2 ≤ μ(150 2)
F3
50 2 ≤ μ × 150 2
25 N
ΣFx = 40+25 = 65 N 1
μmin =
ΣFy = 60+30–25 = 65 N 3
Fnet = 65² + 65² = 65 2 N 10. Answer (1)
Hint : Use work energy theorem.

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All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2019 Open Mock Test - 4 (Code-A) (Hints and Solutions)
Sol. :
2G(m1+m2 )
v ap =
r
13. Answer (1)
Hint : Use T 2 ∝ R 3 (Kepler’s third law)

T2 r3
Sol. : 2
=
⎛T ⎞ r ′3
⎜3⎟
1 ⎝ ⎠
m2 gL = (m1 + m2 )u ² + μm1gL.
2 r
(3)2/3 =
2gL(m2 – μm1) r′
v=
m1 + m2
r
2 × 10 × 2(4 – 0.5 × 6) r'=
1/3
= 9
6+4
14. Answer (1)
4 × 10 × 1
= =2
10 1 2 v
Hint : KERot = I ω and ω =
2 R
v = 2 ms –1
11. Answer (3) v
Sol. : ω = and I = mR2
Hint : Work energy theorem. R
Sol. : When work is done on body by the field then
kinetic energy of body increases and P.E of the 1 v 2 mv 2
body decreases. Now KERot = × m.R 2 × 2 =
2 R 2
12. Answer (1) 15. Answer (3)
Gm1m2 Hint : ΣFnet = ma and Στ = Iα
Hint : Fg = and ΔP = 0
r2 Sol. :
 
Sol. : 0 + 0 = m1v1 + m2v 2
 m 
v 2 = − 1 v1 ...(i)
m2

For translational motion

m2 2 Gm1 m2 mg sinθ – Ff = ma ..(i)
m1v12 + 1 v12 =
m2 r For rotational motion
2Gm22 2 a
(m2+m1)v12 = Ff R = . mR² .
r 5 R
2
⎛ 2G ⎞ 2 Ff = . ma ...(ii)
v1 = ⎜ ⎟ m2 5
⎝ r (m1 + m2 ) ⎠
On solving (i) & (ii)
From equation (i)
2
Ff = mg sin θ
2G 7
v 2 = m1
r(m1 + m2 ) i.e θ → increases ⇒ sinθ ⇒ increases.
Hence θ→ increases i.e. fr. increases.
2G There is no slipping for Pure rolling. Hence no loss
v ap = v1 +v 2 = (m1 + m2 ) of energy in form of heat and frictional force supports
r(m1 + m2 )
rotational motion.

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Open Mock Test - 4 (Code-A) (Hints and Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2019

16. Answer (4)

Vrms 1 300
FL Sol. : V =
Hint : Δl = Δ1 + Δ2 + Δ3. , Δl = rms 2 273 + t
AY
2
Sol. : Since rods are in equilibrium. Then force in ⎛ Vrms ⎞ 300
each rod will be F. ⎜ ⎟ =
⎝ 2Vrms ⎠ 273 + t
F 1 F2 F3 273 + t = 1200
Now Δ1 = , Δ 2 = and Δ 3 =
A1Y1 A2Y2 A3Y3
t = 927°C

⎡    ⎤ 21. Answer (2)

Δl = F ⎢ 1 + 2 + 3 ⎥
⎣ A1Y1 A2Y2 A3Y3 ⎦ g
Hint : For angular SHM, θ = θ0 sin ωt and ω =
L
17. Answer (2)
Hint : Use ρVg = W Sol. : Since φ < θ ⇒ ball hit the wall before
Sol. : ρ. A. (8 cm)g = 500×g ...(i) extreme position
ρ A. (9 cm)g = (500+m)g ...(ii) T L
Now t1 = =π ...(i)
8 500 2 g
(i/ii) =
9 500 + m φ = θ sin ωt.
On solving φ 1 ⎛φ⎞
m = 62.5 kg sin ωt =⇒ t = sin–1 ⎜ ⎟ ...(ii)
θ ω ⎝θ⎠
18. Answer (1)
T
2 Now time period T ' = + 2t .
⎛R⎞ 4 2
Hint : Solar constant S = ⎜ ⎟ σ T
r
⎝ ⎠ L L⎡ ⎛ φ ⎞⎤
T'=π + ⎢ 2 sin–1 ⎜ ⎟ ⎥
Sol. : S ∝ T4 g g⎣ ⎝ θ ⎠⎦
ΔS ΔT
= 4. ⎡L –1 ⎛ φ ⎞ ⎤
S T T'= ⎢ π + 2 sin ⎜ θ ⎟ ⎥
⎣g ⎝ ⎠⎦
ΔS ΔT 22. Answer (3)
× 100 = 4 × 100
S T ⎛ I ⎞
Hint : Intensity L = 10 log ⎜ ⎟
= 4 × 0.25
⎝ I0 ⎠
= 1%
Sol. : When I2 = 2I1
19. Answer (2)
⇒ Intensity in dB → increased by 3 dB.
W T2 Hence number of years required = 3 years.
Hint : Q = 1– T 23. Answer (1)
1
Hint : F = qE and Fv = 6πηrv
T2 1 T2 4 T 5 Sol. : v = constant ⇒ Fnet = 0
Sol. : 1– = ⇒ = or 1 = ...(i)
T1 5 T1 5 T2 4 Hence neE = 6πrηv

T2 2 T2 3 6 × 3.14 × 1.6 × 10 –5 × 5 × 10 –7 × 0.01

1– = ⇒ = n=
T1 + 100 5 T1 + 100 5 ...(ii) 1.6 × 10–19 × 3.14 × 105
= 6×5×10–19×10+19
T1 100 5
+ = n = 30 electrons
T2 T2 3
24. Answer (4)
On solving (i) & (ii)  
Hint : ΔV = – E. Δr and VA < VB.
100 5 5 T2 = 240 K
= – ⇒ V
T2 3 4 T1 = 300 K Sol. : ΔV = –3 × 103 × (0.6) m.
m
20. Answer (3) = –3 × 0.6 × 103 V
Hint : Vrms ∝ T VA – VB = –1800 V

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All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2019 Open Mock Test - 4 (Code-A) (Hints and Solutions)
25. Answer (2)
2R 2
V3 = ×E = E
1 2 R + 2R 3
Hint : U = CV = msΔT
2 V3 = 0.67E
1 Hence V3 < V1 < V2
Sol. : CV 2 = ms ΔT
2 28. Answer (2)

2ms ΔT V2 V2
V = Hint : PS = and PP =
C RS RP

26. Answer (2)

V2 V V2
C1 C2 Sol. : PP = = 2 = n. ...(i)
Hint : Use CP = C1 + C2 and CS = Req (R/n ) R
C1 + C2
V2 V2 1 V2
PS = = ⇒ . ...(ii)
Req nR n R

Sol. :
V2
PP n
Now = R = n2
PS V2
nR
29. Answer (3)
μ 2M μ M
Hint : Baxial = 0 3 and Beq = 0 . 3
4π r 4π r
μ 2M
Sol. : B1 = 0 3 1
4π r 1

5 2
CAB = + 9 || 9 B1 = 10–7 × = 2 × 10 –7 T.
2 13
5 9
= + = 7 μF
2 2
C AB = 7 μ F
27. Answer (1)
R1
Hint : Use voltage divider rule. V1 = V
R1 + R2
μ0 M 2
RR B2 = ×
And RP = 1 2 4π r 32
R1 + R2
–7 1
3R = 10 × 3
Sol. : When S1 → closed ⇒ V1 = .E 1
4R
= 1×10–7 T.
3
V1 = E = 0.75E Now B = B12 + B22
4

6R 6 = B = (22 + 12 )10 –14

When S2 → closed ⇒ V2 = 6R + R E = 7 E
B = 5 × 10 –7 T
V2  0.85 E
30. Answer (3)
When S1 & S2 are closed   
Hint : F = i (ieff × B )

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Open Mock Test - 4 (Code-A) (Hints and Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2019
33. Answer (2)
Sol. :
V0
Hint : At resonance i = & VC = i × XC
R

1 1
Sol. : ω0 = ⇒ ω0 =
LC 1× 10 –4.
ω0 = 100 Hz
Frequency of source ωs = 100 Hz.
Since x² = 5y. ωs = ω0 ⇒ Resonance

x = 5 × 5 = 5 m. v 0 15
Now i = = = 1 A.
R 15
Now i (ieff ) = i (2 × iˆ) = (2i x )iˆ
i (ieff) = (2×2.5)×5 iˆ ⎛ 1 ⎞ 1
Vc = i ⎜ ⎟ = 1×
= 25 iˆ ⎝ ωc ⎠ 100 × 10 –4
 
Now F = i (ieff ) × B = 25 iˆ × 2 × 10–3 k Vc = 100 V

= 0.050 (iˆ × kˆ ) 34. Answer (3)

 I L
F = − 0.05 ˆj N Hint : m = =– I
O Lo
31. Answer (1)
Sol. : Since image touches one end of needle
Hint : Use properties of diamagnetic substance. hence one end will have position at centre of
Sol. : For diamagnetic subtance, susceptibility is curvature.
independent on temperature.
32. Answer (4)
φ
Hint : M = 2
i1
Sol. :

uA = vA⇒ –2f. . . .(1)

f 7f
Now uB = −2f +
=−
4 4
1 1 1 1 4
= – = +
μ0 i v B f uB – f 7f
B1 = 4. = .2(sin 45°)
4π ⎛ L ⎞ 1 –3 –7
⎜2⎟ = ⇒ vB = f ...(i)
⎝ ⎠ v B 7f 3
μ0 2 2i 7 f
B1 = LI = uB – uA = – f – 2f = ...(ii)
π L 3 3
2 2μ0 i 2 f
φ2 = B1S2 = . –
4
π L m= 3 =–
f 3
φ2 2 2μ0 2 4
M= =
i π L 4
m=–
3
2 2μ0 2
M= 35. Answer (2)
π L
Hint : δ = (i1 + i2) – A

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All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2019 Open Mock Test - 4 (Code-A) (Hints and Solutions)

Sol. : h
v= ( ν – ν0 )
37º e
16º Since φB > φA
53º
Hence ν0B > ν0A
39. Answer (2)
h
Given i1 = 53º Hint : λ =
2mKT
δ = 16º
Now 16° = 53° + i2 – 37° λ1 T2
i2 = 0 Sol. : λ = T
Now r2 = 0 2 1
Hence r1 + r2 = A ⇒ r1 = 37º
1200
sin i ′ λ2 = ×λ
μ= 400
sin r1
4 λ2 = 3 × λ
sin53° 5
μ= = 40. Answer (1)
sin37° 3
5 n(n – 1)
4 Hint : Number of wavelength =
μ= 2
3
36. Answer (3) 5× 4
Sol. : Number of different wavelengths = = 10
2
λD λD λ
Hint : β = and β′ = and λ′ = 41. Answer (3)
d d μ
T1T2
β' 1 β Hint : Teff =
Sol. : = ⇒ β' = T1 + T2
β μ μ
Sol. : λ = λ1 + λ2
0.84
β' = = 3 ×.21 = 0.63 mm
4/3 ln 2 ln2 ln2
= +
β = 0.63 mm T T1 T2
37. Answer (2)
1 1 1 1 1
sin i = + = +
Hint : = μ = tan i p T T1 T2 20 40
sin r
(i p = 60º ) 1 3
Sol. : μ = tan i p = 3 =
T 40
sin37° 3
= 3 ⇒ sin r = 40
sin r 5. 3 T= days
3
3 42. Answer (1)
sin r = α β
5 Hint : ZX
A
⎯⎯ →Z −2 Y A − 4 and ZX
A
⎯⎯ →Z +1 X A
Sol. : A′ = A – (n × 4)
⎛ 3⎞
r = sin–1 ⎜ 4n = 288 – 260 = 28
⎜ 5 ⎟⎟
⎝ ⎠ n=7
38. Answer (1) z′ = z – 2n + m
Hint : eV = hν – φ m = – 90 + 80 + 14
h =4
h
Sol. : V = ν – .ν0 43. Answer (1)
e e
Hint : Use K.V.L and KCL

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Open Mock Test - 4 (Code-A) (Hints and Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2019
49. Answer (2)
Sol. : Hint : For Lyman series n1 = 1 and n2 = 2, 3, 4...
Sol. : Number of Lyman lines obtained = 6 – 1 = 5
50. Answer (3)
Hint : EAN of V in V(CO)6 is 35
Sol. : To follow EAN rule V of V(CO)6 accepts one
electron to form [V(CO)6]–.
51. Answer (3)
0.7 V 1
Now, I1 = Hint : Rate of diffusion ∝
0.5 kΩ M
I1 = 1.4 mA Sol. : Lighter the gas, higher will the rate of
diffusion.
10 – 0.3 – 0.7 52. Answer (4)
I= = 9 mA
10 k Ω Hint : Ketone which can exist in enol form will
show tautomerism.
ID = I – I1 = (9–1.4)mA = 7.6 mA. Sol. : Enol of compound (ii) will not be formed due
I1, ID and I = 9 mA, 7.6 mA and 1.4 mA. to the presence of α-hydrogen on bridge head
44. Answer (4) carbon.
53. Answer (2)
Hint : y = A
a a

Sol. : y = A.A = A Hint : Biphenyls of type are optically

y = A+ A = A b b

45. Answer (4) active when a and b are bulky groups.

54. Answer (1)
Rout Hint : CS2 contains two σ and two π bonds.
Hint : Av = β
Rin S=C=S
55. Answer (2)
1
Sol. : Av = 50 × ΔHvap
2 Hint : ΔS vap =
Tfus
= 25
Sol. : T = 273 + 127 = 400 K
CHEMISTRY ΔHfus. = 36200 J/mol
46. Answer (4) 36200
ΔS = = 90.5 JK −1 mol−1
Hint : Dipole moment is a vector quantity. 400
47. Answer (3) 56. Answer (2)

Volume of CO2 at STP Hint : Ksp of M(OH)2 = [M2+ ][OH– ]2

Hint : Mole of CO2 = Sol. : pH of M(OH)2 = 10
Molar volume at STP
pOH = 14–10 = 4
224
Sol. : Mole of CO2 = ⎡⎣OH– ⎤⎦ = 10 –4 M
22400
224 
 2+
 M + 2OH
M(OH)2  –

Mole of O atoms = × 2 = 2 × 10–2

22400
⎛ 10 −4 ⎞
Number of O atoms = 2 × 10–2 × NA ⎜
2
(
⎟ 10
−4
)
⎝ ⎠
48. Answer (4)
Hint : n = 3 and l = 2 represents 3d subshell. ⎛ 10 −4 ⎞
( )
2
−4
Ksp = ⎜ ⎟ 10 = 5 × 10–13
Sol. : There are five d orbitals. ⎝ 2 ⎠
So, maximum number of electrons present in 3d 57. Answer (4)
Hint : An acid after losing proton forms its
orbitals = 5 × 2 = 10
conjugate base.

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All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2019 Open Mock Test - 4 (Code-A) (Hints and Solutions)
58. Answer (2)
Hint : NaCN is used as depressant in the
concentration of PbS containing ZnS. Sol. :
PbS(s) + NaCN → No reaction
ZnS(s) + 4NaCN → [Zn(CN)4]2–
59. Answer (3)
Hint : Ore Formula
Barytes BaSO4
67. Answer (2)
Calamine ZnCO3 Hint : Cyclohexanone undergoes aldol condensation
Chile saltpetre NaNO3 reaction on heating with aq. KOH.
Carnalite KCl.MgCl2.6H2O Sol. :
60. Answer (2)
Hint : As the stability of the anion increases its
oxidising power decreases.
61. Answer (2)
Hint : Thermal stability of group II carbonates
increases down the group.
62. Answer (1)
Hint : Vacant d orbitals are present in chlorine.

Sol. : N N H
Cl Cl Cl + OH2 Cl Cl + Cl – O
H

NH3 + HOCl H2O Cl – NH + Cl – OH

Cl
63. Answer (4)
Hint : O–2 and NO has one unpaired electron each
in their MO. Step-III
64. Answer (3) O H O
–
Hint : Dehydration of alcohol will generate OH –
carbonium ion as an intermediate. Δ
OH OH
Sol. : HO
+
+ +
H –H O
– H2O –
+ OH
OCH3 OCH3 OCH3

(A) 68. Answer (3)

Methoxy group present at para position in (A) Hint : Benzyne formation
stabilises the carbonium ion by resonance. CH3 CH3
65. Answer (3) –
Hint : Resonance stabilized carbonion is very Sol. : + NH2
stable. Cl
Sol. : As the s-character in the hybrid orbital of H –
NH2
carbon increases, the stability of negative charge on
CH3 CH3
it increases
66. Answer (2) NH3
–
–NH 2
Hint : Aromatic aldehydes do not give Fehling’s NH2 NH2
test. –
P (Major)

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Open Mock Test - 4 (Code-A) (Hints and Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2019
69. Answer (2) 76. Answer (3)
Hint : 4.45 m means 1 kg water contains 4.45 mole
Hint : Salvarsan is an antibiotic and used in the
of urea.
treatment of syphilis.
Sol. : Mole of urea = 4.45
77. Answer (1)
1000
Mole of water = = 55.55
18 Hint : Sugar units present in DNA is β-D-2-
deoxyribose.
4.45
Mole fraction of urea = = 0.074 78. Answer (2)
4.45 + 55.55
70. Answer (2) Hint : Oxygen connected with sp 2 hybridised
Hint : In negative deviation average interaction of carbon will not be cleaved by HI.
A–B molecules is more than average interactions of
79. Answer (4)
A–A or B–B molecules. Therefore, ΔH will be
negative. Hint : In Ni(CO)4, the d-orbitals of Ni are completely
71. Answer (1) filled and four CO group will form bond with the sp3
Hint : 2a = 4r hybridised orbitals of Ni.

Sol. : 2r = 200 2 80. Answer (4)

Hint : In Swarts reaction alkyl fluorides are made
r = 100 2
from alkyl bromide/iodide.
4r 4 × 100 2
a= = Sol. : CH3 − Br + AgF ⎯⎯
→ CH3 − F + AgBr
2 2
a = 400 pm 81. Answer (2)
72. Answer (3)
Hint : Electron withdrawing group present at o/p
Hint : NH4NO3 Δ position enhances acidity of phenol or benzoic acid.
2H2O + N2O↑
73. Answer (2) Sol. : Compounds pKa
Hint :  In [XeF5]+, Xe is sp3d2 hybridised with one COOH
lone pair and NO2
2.17
 In [ICl4]–, I is sp3d2 hybridised with two lone pairs
+
COOH
F F
Xe Square pyramidal
Sol. : F F
F 3.43
NO2
OH
O2N NO2

1.02
74. Answer (3) NO2
Hint : La3+ has electronic configuration of Xe [54], 82. Answer (3)
so La3+ is diamagnetic in nature. Hint : Reductive ozonolysis of cyclic alkene will
75. Answer (1) give acyclic dicarbonyl compound.
Hint : Nylon–6 is a polyamide
Sol. :

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All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2019 Open Mock Test - 4 (Code-A) (Hints and Solutions)

83. Answer (2)

BIOLOGY
− + − 2+
Hint : MnO + 8H + 5e ⎯⎯
4 → Mn + 4H2O 91. Answer (4)
Hint : Maximum volume of a plant cell is occupied
Sol. : n-factor = 5 by vacuole.
Number of Faraday required = 0.5 × 5 = 2.5 F Sol. : In plants, vacuole can occupy upto 90%
volume of the cell.
Electricity required = 2.5 × 96500 C
These are characterised by presence of tonoplast
84. Answer (2)
and water soluble pigments such as anthocyanin.
1000 × k 92. Answer (3)
Hint : ΛM = Hint : Cytoskeleton is found in eukaryotes only.
C
Sol. : Microtubules help in formation of cilia and
flagella in eukaryotes.
1000 × 1.5 × 10 −2
Sol. : ΛM = = 75 S cm2 mol–1 Formation of cleavage furrow during cell division and
0.2
pseudopodia formation are functions of
85. Answer (2) microfilaments.
Hint : On addition of catalyst in a reaction the 93. Answer (1)
activation energy of reaction decreases. Hint : Crossing over gets completed at the stage
which is also characterised by chiasmata formation.
86. Answer (4)
Sol. : Crossing over initiates at pachytene stage
Hint : For a complex reaction, order is given by whereas it gets completed at diplotene stage of
slowest step of the reaction. meiosis I.
87. Answer (3) 94. Answer (2)
Hint : Magnitude of root pressure is 1-2 atm. which
Hint : Cloud is the colloidal solution of liquid in gas.
can raise water upto certain height of the plant.
88. Answer (2) Sol. : Root pressure is a weak force to account for
Hint : Intermolecular forces of attraction are movement of water to the top of tall trees.
negligible in H2 95. Answer (4)
89. Answer (2) Hint : Minerals are transported via xylem tissue.
Sol. : Nitrogen travels in both organic as well as
Hint : On adding inert gas at constant pressure,
inorganic forms via xylem.
volume increases, therefore the reaction moves in a
direction where the number of moles of the gas Phloem transports only organic form of nitrogen e.g.,
amino acids.
molecules increases.
96. Answer (2)
90. Answer (2)
Hint : In monocot stem, secondary growth is absent.
Hint : Gabriel's phthalimide synthesis Sol. : Wheat is a monocot plant. Since monocots
lack vascular cambium therefore secondary phloem
will be absent in wheat. Phloem parenchyma is also
absent in monocots.
Sol. : 97. Answer (3)
Hint : Both early and late wood are formed by the
activity of cambium ring.
Sol. : Early wood is lighter in colour and has a lower
density than the late wood. Its vessels also have
wider lumen. Both early wood as well as late wood
are formed during secondary growth hence they are
secondary in origin.
98. Answer (3)
Hint : Diatoms have cell wall impregnated with
silica.
Sol. : Diatoms lack flagella except in their
reproductive stage.

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Open Mock Test - 4 (Code-A) (Hints and Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2019
99. Answer (2) Sol. : Sphagnum is a bryophyte and all bryophytes
Hint : Morels and truffles belong to class are homosporous.
ascomycetes of fungi. Salvinia – A pteridophyte, (heterosporous)
Sol. : Members of ascomycetes asexually Sequoia – A gymnosperm, (heterosporous)
reproduce by conidia. Sunflower – An angiosperm, (heterosporous)
They have shorter dikaryophase as compared to club 106. Answer (2)
fungi in their sexual cycle. Hint : Gymnosperms produce seeds but lack
100. Answer (2) flowers.
Sol. : Cycas, Cedrus, Pinus and Ginkgo are
Hint : Prions mostly affect the brain and nervous
gymnosperms whereas pea, orchids and Acacia are
tissue system.
angiosperms.
Sol. : Bovine spongiform encephalopathy or madcow
107. Answer (1)
disease is caused by prions.
Hint : Manganese plays a major role in liberation of
Potato spindle tuber disease – Viroids oxygen during photosynthesis.
Potato leaf roll ⎫ Sol. : Calcium – Involved in mitotic spindle formation
⎪ Manganese – Involved in splitting of water
and ⎬ – Caused by viruses
Bunchy top of banana ⎪
⎭
Zinc – Involved in synthesis of auxin.
108. Answer (3)
101. Answer (4)
Hint : Light saturation occurs at 10% of the total
Hint : Tendrils can be formed by the modification of sunlight available to plants, except those found in
leaf or stem. shade or dense forest.
Sol. : In sweet pea, tendril is a modification of entire Sol. : For such plants light intensity along with CO2
leaf whereas in cucumber they are modifications of concentration and chlorophyll content act as limiting
axillary buds. factor for rate of photosynthesis. Duration of light
102. Answer (4) affects overall photosynthesis not rate of
Hint : Stamens are united in two bundles in the photosynthesis.
members of family Fabaceae. 109. Answer (1)
Sol. : Union of stamens into two bundles is called Hint : Increase in yield in CO2 enriched atmosphere
diadelphous condition which is found in pea. is known as CO2 fertilization effect.
China rose – monoadelphous condition. Sol. : CO2 enrichment effect is seen in C3 plants
inside greenhouse and maize is a C4 plant.
103. Answer (2)
110. Answer (2)
Hint : Coconut is a drupe. Hint : The NADH2 and FADH2 synthesised during
Sol. : Drupe is a fleshy or succulent fruit glycolysis, link reaction and Krebs cycle give
characterised by electrons to complexes present in ETS.
– Differentiated pericarp Sol. : During aerobic respiration, 1 glucose molecule
– Mostly one seeded. gives total 10 molecules of NADH2 and 2 molecules
of FADH2.
In coconut mesocarp is not edible. It is used in
10 molecules of NADH2 form 10 × 3 = 30 ATP
making coir.
2 molecules of FADH2 form 2 × 2 = 4 ATP
104. Answer (3)
Thus total ATP produced are 34 ATP.
Hint : Both Porphyra and Spirogyra produce non
111. Answer (3)
flagellated gametes.
Hint : Ethylene can be used to increase number of
Sol. : In Spirogyra – Both the gametes are similar in fruits in a plant.
size (Isogamy)
Sol. : Ethylene increases number of female flowers
In Prophyra – Male gamete is smaller and female is which in turn increase number of fruits e.g.
larger i.e., Oogamy. cucumber.
105. Answer (4) 112. Answer (4)
Hint : All gymnosperms, angiosperms and some Hint : When fusing gametes are morphologically
pteridophytes are heterosporous. similar they are known as homogametes.

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All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2019
Sol. : Cladophora, Synchytrium and Rhizopus all are
homogametic.
Fucus – Produces morphologically distinct
heterogametes.
113. Answer (3)
Sol. : Papaver has multicarpellary, syncarpous
ovary.
114. Answer (1)
Hint : Cell wall of pollen grain (male gametophyte) is
called sporoderm.
Sol. : Sporoderm is bilayered i.e., differentiated into
exine and intine in angiosperms.
115. Answer (3)
Hint : Insect pollinated flowers are colourful and have
nectaries.
Sol. : Some aquatic plants such as water lily show
entomophily i.e., pollination by biotic agents.
116. Answer (3)
Hint : Phenylketonuria is an autosomal recessive
disorder.
Sol. : Gene responsible for phenylketonuria is a
pleiotropic gene that produces multiple phenotypic
expressions.
In humans, AB blood group shows co-dominance.
117. Answer (1)
Sol. : Mendel worked with 14 true-breeding pea plant
varieties (7 pairs of varieties) and 7 characters during
his experiments.
118. Answer (4)
Hint : Colour blindness is an X linked recessive trait
and it shows criss-cross inheritance.
Sol. :
119. Answer (2)
Hint : In test cross, organism with the dominant
phenotype is crossed with the recessive one.
Sol. : Fruit colour genes of Cucurbita pepo show
dominant epistasis.
WwYy × wwyy
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Open Mock Test - 4 (Code-A) (Hints and Solutions)
Phenotypic ratio – Yellow : White : Green
1:2:1
120. Answer (2)
Sol. : On discontinuous strand, Okazaki fragments
are joined by the action of DNA ligase.
121. Answer (1)
Hint : Dystrophin has 2.4 million bases.
Sol. : Dystrophin is the largest human gene. TDF is
smallest gene with 14 bases.
122. Answer (1)
Hint : Those genes which are continuously
expressing themselves in a cell are called
constitutive genes.
Sol. : ‘i’ gene of lac operon is a constitutive gene
that always keeps on expressing in E.coli.
123. Answer (2)
Hint : 5-methyl uracil is thymine.
Sol. : RNA lacks thymine that provides additional
stability to DNA.
124. Answer (4)
Sol. : Jaya is a high yielding variety of rice
developed in India.
125. Answer (2)
Hint : Statin is a blood-cholesterol lowering agent
obtained from a yeast.
Sol. : Statin is obtained from Monascus purpureus.
126. Answer (3)
Hint : Flocs are found in aeration tanks of sewage
treatment plants.
Sol. : Flocs are masses of aerobic, heterotrophic
bacteria and fungi that act on organic matter present
in sewage.
127. Answer (3)
Hint : Xerophytic plants are adapted to minimise
water loss.
Sol. : Xerophytes may have thick cuticle, sunken
stomata and succulent stems.
Pneumatophores or respiratory roots are found in
halophytes of marshy areas.
Open Mock Test - 4 (Code-A) (Hints and Solutions)
128. Answer (2)
Hint : In population ‘X’ number of pre-reproductive
individuals is less than reproductive individuals which
shows negative growth.
Sol. : Such population, is unstable and will decline
with time and is represented by Urn-shaped age
pyramid.
129. Answer (4)
Hint : In mutualism, both the species are benefitted.
Sol. : In interaction of cattle egrets and cattles, only
egrets are benefitted as they obtain their food during
grazing of cattles. It is an example of
commensalism.
130. Answer (3)
Sol. : The most limiting nutrient of marine
ecosystem is nitrogen as fixed nitrogen rapidly
converts into nitrogen gas by marine micro-
organisms.
131. Answer (3)
Hint : In tree ecosystem, a single tree supports and
nourishes large number of frugivores.
Sol. : Pyramid of number of tree ecosystem may be
inverted.
Parasites
Birds
Tree
132. Answer (1)
Sol. : Alexander Von Humboldt described the
species area relationship.
133. Answer (3)
Hint : Loss of biodiversity increases by destruction of
the habitat.
Sol. : Habitat loss and fragmentation is the most
important cause of biodiversity loss.
134. Answer (3)
Hint : COP-22 was held in 2016.
Sol. : COP-22 was held at Marrakesh (Morocco) in
year 2016.
135. Answer (1)
Hint : Jhum cultivation is also known as slash and
burn agriculture.
Sol. : Jhum cultivation causes deforestation.
136. Answer (3)
Hint : This toxin generally acts at pH around 8.
Sol. : Bt toxin is proteinaceous in nature and it
exists in inactive form but gets activated in midgut
of various insects in alkaline medium.
137. Answer (1)
Hint : An enzyme which participates in purine
metabolism.
All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2019
Sol. : Adenosine deaminase participates in purine
metabolism and is helpful in maintaining immune
response of the body. In its absence, number of
lymphocytes decrease.
138. Answer (1)
Hint : Plasmids act as a vehicle for gene transfer.
Sol. : As plasmid is used as a vehicle that delivers
a foreign piece of DNA into the host organism, so
they are considered as gene taxi. Meloidogyne is a
nematode of plants whose growth can be controlled
by RNA interference. Rosie is a transgenic cow
which yield protein rich milk. Deficiency of α-1-
antitrypsin causes emphysema.
139. Answer (1)
Hint : It is an intercalating dye which is used to
visualise DNA.
Sol. : After gel electrophoresis, DNA fragments are
visualised on staining with ethidium bromide under
UV light. Bromophenol blue is a tracking dye.
140. Answer (4)
Hint : The enzyme present in pancreatic juice to
digest nucleic acids.
Sol. : Deoxyribonuclease is responsible for
hydrolysis of DNA into its nucleotides. So it cannot
be used in isolation of DNA.
Cellulase can digest cellulose, protease can digest
proteins and ribonuclease can digest RNA. These
are used for isolation of DNA of a plant cell.
141. Answer (2)
Hint : The first alphabet of an RE respresents the
genus of bacteria.
Sol. : Restriction endonucleases may cut DNA
strands away from centre of palindromic sequence
to produce two different sticky ends or blunt ends.
Different restriction endonucleases cut strands of
DNA to produce different kinds of sticky ends.
142. Answer (3)
Hint : It is programme for herd improvement.
Sol. : MOET abbreviation stands for “Multiple
Ovulation Embryo Transfer”.
143. Answer (3)
Hint : This is a method of outbreeding.
Sol. : Hisardale is a product of mating Bikaneri
ewe and Merino ram.
144. Answer (3)
Hint : Rearing of aquatic plants and animals in
controlled habitats for human welfare.
Sol. : Rearing of all types of aquatic animals and
plants in controlled condition to increase their yield
is called aquaculture. Rearing of only fishes is known
as pisciculture. Rearing honey bee at commercial
level is called apiculture.
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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2019
145. Answer (4)
Hint : Anabolic steriods are misused by sports
person.
Sol. : Anabolic steroids are similar to testosterone
that result in increased protein synthesis in body
builders. In females, it causes masculinisation and
enlargement of clitoris but not enlargement of
breasts. But in males testosterone is converted into
estrogen by enzyme aromatase causing enlarged
breasts as a side effect.
146. Answer (3)
Hint : Cancer is uncontrolled and rapid
multiplication of cells due to failure of contact
inhibition.
Sol. : Malignant tumors are invasive, metastatic, fast
growing without limited boundaries and without
contact inhibition.
147. Answer (2)
Hint : Interferons are released from virus infected
cells.
Sol. : Physiological barriers include acid in
stomach, saliva in mouth and tears from eyes.
Ruptured RBCs release haemozoin which is
responsible for chills and high fever recurring every
three to four days.
148. Answer (1)
Hint : British economist who wrote “An essay on
the principle of population”.
Sol. : Darwin was influenced by Malthusian theory
of human population growth. Hugo de Vries gave the
mutation theory.
149. Answer (3)
Hint : Embryological evidences.
Sol. : Homologous structures show divergent
evolution. Analogous structures show convergent
evolution. Atavism is sudden reappearance of
ancestral characters.
150. Answer (4)
Hint : Contraceptives which are placed in uterus.
Sol. : IUT, GIFT and ZIFT are assisted reproductive
technologies but IUDs are used to prevent pregnancy
so they are birth control methods e.g., CuT,
Multiload 375, LNG-20, progestasert etc.
151. Answer (3)
Hint : Identify the structure formed during
oogenesis.
Sol. : Primary oocyte is diploid structure while
secondary oocyte, secondary spermatocyte and
spermatid are haploid structures.
152. Answer (1)
Hint : Hormone commonly known as pregnancy
hormone.
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Open Mock Test - 4 (Code-A) (Hints and Solutions)
Sol. : Parturition starts with decrease in
progesterone and increase in estrogen, progesterone
ratio. Other hormones such as oxytocin and cortisol
are increased during parturition.
153. Answer (2)
Hint : It is observed during second trimester.
Sol. : First foetal movement is known as
quickening, occurs at 5th month of pregnancy in
human female. Hair on head also appear at 5th month
of gestation.
154. Answer (3)
Hint : Gonadotrophic hormones increase in
preovulatory phase whereas level of progesterone
remain unaffected.
Sol. : A - Progesterone
B - Estrogen
C - LH
D - FSH
155. Answer (1)
Hint : Identify the structure form due to fusion of
gametes.
Sol. : Gametogenesis and gamete transfer are
included in pre-fertilization event while zygote is
formed during fertilization event.
156. Answer (2)
Hint : Meiocytes are diploid cells.
Sol. : Meiocytes are diploid cells of germinal
epithelium of testes and ovary which participate in
gametogenesis. Gametes are haploid, hence number
of chromosomes in a meiocyte is 39 × 2 = 78.
157. Answer (4)
Hint : This structure is also known as renal
corpuscle.
Sol. : Nephrocytes, fat body and Malpighian tubules
are excretory structures in cockroach. Glomerulus
surrounded by Bowman’s capsule together form
Malpighian body.
158. Answer (4)
Hint : Accessory reproductive duct in male frog is
present in its kidney.
Sol. : In frog, Bidder’s canal is present in kidney
and is responsible for passage of sperms.
159. Answer (3)
Hint : Vertebrates having creeping habit and scales
on body surface.
Sol. : Reptiles have epidermal scales on the body
surface and it is not unique property as it is also
found in birds and mammals.
Open Mock Test - 4 (Code-A) (Hints and Solutions)
160. Answer (4)
Hint : Eucoelomates are of two types: Protostomes
and deuterostomes.
Sol. : On the basis of fate of blastopore arthropods
are protostomic eucoelomates because blastopore
forms mouth whereas birds are deuterostomic
because blastopore forms anus. Metameric
segmentation can be seen in aves as well
arthropods.
161. Answer (1)
Hint : Chargaff’s rule.
Sol. : [A] = [T]
[G] = [C]
A = 30%, since adenine always combines with
thymine, so percentage of thymine = 30%
Therefore, [G + C] = 100% – 60% = 40%
So % of cytosine = 40 – 20 = 20%
% of purine = [G] + [A] = 50%
162. Answer (1)
Hint : Structure related to locomotion in arthropods.
Sol. : Arthropods have jointed appendages
(outgrowths) such as legs, antennae and mouth
parts. They are unisexual or dioecious, having
balancing organ statocyst in aquatic form.
Exoskeleton is chitinous.
163. Answer (1)
Hint : Identify the animal which belongs to phylum
hemichordata.
Sol. : Hookworm is a pseudocoelomate while
sandworm and earthworm are coelomates with
closed circulatory system.
164. Answer (3)
Hint : Taxon gnathostomata includes true fishes.
Sol. : Petromyzon is a false fish having circular
mouth and cartilaginous endoskeleton. They lack
jaws and paired fins which are the characters of a
true fish.
165. Answer (2)
Hint : It is also called Grave’s disease.
Sol. : Cretinism is a special type of malgrowth of
body caused due to hyposecretion of thyroxine
during gestation period. Exopthalmic goitre/Grave’s
disease are caused in case of hyperthyroidism.
Gull’s disease occurs due to hypothyroidism in
adults. Simple goitre occurs due to the deficiency of
iodine in diet and results in low secretion of thyroid
hormone.
All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2019
166. Answer (2)
Hint : Aldosterone is a salt retaining hormone.
Sol. : Aldosterone increases absorption of Na+ and
Cl– from filtrate and promotes secretion of K+ and
phosphate ions. So, it decreases Na+ but increases
K+ in urine.
167. Answer (4)
Hint : Sympathetic nervous system is a part of
autonomic nervous system.
Sol. : Sympathetic nervous system is activated
during emergency conditions. It relaxes the smooth
muscles of the body to decrease peristalsis. It
inhibits salivation and micturition.
168. Answer (4)
Hint : Iris surrounds the pupil.
Sol. : Iris has involuntary and unstriated muscle
fibres which are under control of ANS. Sympathetic
stimulation causes dilation of pupil and
parasympathetic stimulation causes constriction of
pupil.
169. Answer (3)
Hint : A type of arthritis.
Sol. : Inflammation in joints due to deposition of
urate crystals is known as gout/gouty arthritis. It is
caused due to altered secretion of enzyme xanthine
oxidase. As a result purine metabolism is impaired.
Tetany is rapid spasm in muscles fibres due to low
Ca2+ in body fluids. Bone mass decreases during
osteoporosis, which is an age related fibres disorder.
170. Answer (4)
Hint : Joints which are present in skull.
Sol. : Fibrous joints are immovable joints in which
two bones remain fixed due to collagen fibres hence
they never participate in locomotion and movement.
171. Answer (1)
Hint : Fresh water fishes live in hypotonic medium.
Sol. : Fresh water has osmolarity of 50 mOsm/L
and that of body of organisms is 300 mOsm/L. So,
Na+ from body diffuses to exterior and water from
outside enters in the body. For osmoregulation
ionocytes regularly pump Na+ from outside to inside.
Water is balanced by formation of dilute urine.
172. Answer (1)
Hint : Kidneys are situated near the posterior wall
of abdominal cavity.
Sol. : One pair of kidneys are situated between T12
to L3 vertebrae.
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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2019 Open Mock Test - 4 (Code-A) (Hints and Solutions)
173. Answer (1) Sol. : Mast cells release heparin, histamine and
Hint : Artery is thick walled in which blood flows serotonin. Heparin is anticoagulant, serotonin is a
under high pressure. vasoconstrictor and histamine is a potent vasodilator.
Sol. : Blood pressure in our body in circulation is It causes inflammation characterised by redness,
listed as follows: pain and swelling. Macrophages are phagocytic cells.
Aorta → main arteries → arterioles 177. Answer (2)
↓ Hint : Haldane’s effect.
Vena cava ← veins ← venules ← capillaries
Sol. : Oxyhaemoglobin dissociation curve will shift
174. Answer (3) to left when pO2 increases pCO2 decreases, pH
Hint : Blood cells which participate in allergic increases and body temperature decreases.
reactions of the body.
178. Answer (2)
Sol. : Neutrophils – 60-65%
Monocytes – 6-8% Hint : FRC = ERV + RV
Eosinophils – 2-3% Sol. : IC = TV + IRV
Lymphocytes – 20-25% TLC = RV + ERV + TV + IRV; TLC = IC + FRC
Basophils – 0.5-1% TLC = 5800 ml ≅ 6 L
175. Answer (4) 179. Answer (3)
Hint : Brush border appearance increases surface
Hint : Wine flask shaped cells.
area for absorption.
Sol. : Inner lining of fallopian tube, ventricles of the Sol. : Mucus is alkaline in nature.
brain and central canal of spinal cord, all are 180. Answer (3)
internally lined by simple ciliated columnar epithilium
Hint : Identify a pancreatic enzyme.
but inner lining of intestinal mucosa has simple
columnar epithelium containing microvilli giving brush Sol. : Amino acids are produced by hydrolysis of
border appearance. proteins and polypeptides with the help of
176. Answer (4) aminopeptidase and carboxypeptidase. Amino acids
Hint : Cells of connective tissue which perform cannot be produced by hydrolysis with the help of
function similar to basophils. trypsin.

  

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Open Mock Test - 4 (Code-B) (Answers) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2019

All India Aakash Test Series for NEET - 2019

OPEN MOCK TEST - 4 (Code-B)
Test Date : 28/04/2019

ANSWERS
1. (4) 37. (2) 73. (4) 109. (1) 145. (1)
2. (4) 38. (1) 74. (1) 110. (3) 146. (4)
3. (1) 39. (2) 75. (2) 111. (3) 147. (3)
4. (1) 40. (2) 76. (2) 112. (1) 148. (4)
5. (3) 41. (1) 77. (3) 113. (3) 149. (4)
6. (1) 42. (3) 78. (2) 114. (4) 150. (2)
7. (2) 43. (1) 79. (4) 115. (3) 151. (2)
8. (1) 44. (3) 80. (2) 116. (2) 152. (3)
9. (2) 45. (2) 81. (2) 117. (1) 153. (1)
10. (3) 46. (2) 82. (1) 118. (3) 154. (1)
11. (2) 47. (2) 83. (2) 119. (1) 155. (1)
12. (3) 48. (2) 84. (4) 120. (2) 156. (4)
13. (2) 49. (3) 85. (3) 121. (4) 157. (3)
14. (4) 50. (4) 86. (3) 122. (3) 158. (4)
15. (1) 51. (2) 87. (2) 123. (2) 159. (4)
16. (3) 52. (2) 88. (4) 124. (4) 160. (2)
17. (3) 53. (2) 89. (3) 125. (4) 161. (1)
18. (2) 54. (3) 90. (4) 126. (2) 162. (3)
19. (1) 55. (2) 91. (1) 127. (2) 163. (2)
20. (2) 56. (4) 92. (3) 128. (3) 164. (1)
21. (2) 57. (4) 93. (3) 129. (3) 165. (3)
22. (4) 58. (2) 94. (1) 130. (2) 166. (4)
23. (1) 59. (1) 95. (3) 131. (4) 167. (3)
24. (3) 60. (3) 96. (3) 132. (2) 168. (1)
25. (2) 61. (1) 97. (4) 133. (1) 169. (2)
26. (3) 62. (3) 98. (2) 134. (3) 170. (3)
27. (2) 63. (2) 99. (3) 135. (4) 171. (4)
28. (1) 64. (3) 100. (3) 136. (3) 172. (3)
29. (2) 65. (1) 101. (2) 137. (3) 173. (3)
30. (4) 66. (2) 102. (4) 138. (2) 174. (3)
31. (3) 67. (2) 103. (2) 139. (2) 175. (2)
32. (1) 68. (3) 104. (1) 140. (4) 176. (4)
33. (1) 69. (2) 105. (1) 141. (4) 177. (1)
34. (1) 70. (2) 106. (2) 142. (3) 178. (1)
35. (3) 71. (3) 107. (2) 143. (1) 179. (1)
36. (1) 72. (3) 108. (4) 144. (1) 180. (3)

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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2019 Open Mock Test - 4 (Code-B) (Hints and Solutions)

HINTS & SOLUTIONS

Sol. : λ = λ1 + λ2
PHYSICS
1. Answer (4) ln 2 ln2 ln2
= +
R T T1 T2
Hint : Av = β out
Rin
1 1 1 1 1
= + = +
1 T T1 T2 20 40
Sol. : Av = 50 ×
2
= 25 1 3
=
2. Answer (4) T 40

Hint : y = A 40
T = days
Sol. : y = A.A = A 3
6. Answer (1)
y = A+ A = A
n(n – 1)
3. Answer (1) Hint : Number of wavelength =
2
Hint : Use K.V.L and KCL
5× 4
Sol. : Sol. : Number of different wavelengths = = 10
2
7. Answer (2)

h
Hint : λ =
2mKT

λ1 T2
Now, I1 =
0.7 V Sol. : λ = T
0.5 kΩ 2 1

I1 = 1.4 mA
1200
λ2 = ×λ
10 – 0.3 – 0.7 400
I= = 9 mA
10 k Ω
λ2 = 3 × λ
ID = I – I1 = (9–1.4)mA = 7.6 mA.
I1, ID and I = 9 mA, 7.6 mA and 1.4 mA. 8. Answer (1)
4. Answer (1) Hint : eV = hν – φ
α β
Hint : ZX
A
⎯⎯ →Z −2 Y A − 4 and ZX
A
⎯⎯ →Z +1 X A h h
Sol. : V = ν – .ν0
Sol. : A′ = A – (n × 4) e e
4n = 288 – 260 = 28
h
n=7 v= ( ν – ν0 )
e
z′ = z – 2n + m
m = – 90 + 80 + 14 Since φB > φA
=4 Hence ν0B > ν0A
5. Answer (3) 9. Answer (2)

T1T2 sin i
Hint : Teff = Hint : = μ = tan i p
T1 + T2 sin r

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Open Mock Test - 4 (Code-B) (Hints and Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2019
Sol. : Since image touches one end of needle
Sol. : μ = tan i p = 3 (i p = 60º )
hence one end will have position at centre of
curvature.
sin37° 3
= 3 ⇒ sin r =
sin r 5. 3

3
sin r =
5

⎛ 3⎞
r = sin–1 ⎜
⎜ 5 ⎟⎟
⎝ ⎠ uA = vA⇒ –2f. . . .(1)
10. Answer (3) f 7f
Now uB = −2f + =−
4 4
λD λD λ
Hint : β = and β′ = and λ′ = 1 1 1 1 4
d d μ = – = +
v B f uB – f 7f
β' 1 β
Sol. : = ⇒ β' = 1 –3 –7
β μ μ = ⇒ vB = f ...(i)
v B 7f 3
0.84 7 f
β' = = 3 ×.21 = 0.63 mm LI = uB – uA = – f – 2f =
4/3 ...(ii)
3 3
β = 0.63 mm f
11. Answer (2) –
3 4
m= =–
Hint : δ = (i1 + i2) – A f 3
4
Sol. :
37º 4
m=–
16º 3
53º
13. Answer (2)

V0
Hint : At resonance i = & VC = i × XC
R
Given i1 = 53º
δ = 16º 1 1
Now 16° = 53° + i2 – 37° Sol. : ω0 = ⇒ ω0 =
LC 1× 10 –4.
i2 = 0
Now r2 = 0 ω0 = 100 Hz
Hence r1 + r2 = A ⇒ r1 = 37º Frequency of source ωs = 100 Hz.
sin i ′ ωs = ω0 ⇒ Resonance
μ=
sin r1 v 0 15
Now i = = = 1 A.
4 R 15
sin53° 5
μ= =
sin37° 3 ⎛ 1 ⎞ 1
Vc = i ⎜ ⎟ = 1×
5 ω
⎝ c⎠ 100 × 10 –4
4
μ=
3 Vc = 100 V
12. Answer (3)
14. Answer (4)
I L φ2
Hint : m = = – I Hint : M =
O Lo i1

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All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2019 Open Mock Test - 4 (Code-B) (Hints and Solutions)
Sol. : 17. Answer (3)
μ 2M μ M
Hint : Baxial = 0 3 and Beq = 0 . 3
4π r 4π r
μ 2M
Sol. : B1 = 0 3 1
4π r 1
2
B1 = 10–7 × 3
= 2 × 10 –7 T.
1
μ0 i
B1 = 4. = .2(sin 45°)
4π ⎛ L ⎞
⎜2⎟
⎝ ⎠
μ0 2 2i
B1 =
π L
2 2μ0 i 2
φ2 = B1S2 = .
π L
μ0 M 2
2 B2 = ×
φ2 2 2μ0  4π r 32
M= =
i π L
–7 1
2 = 10 × 3
2 2μ0  1
M=
π L –7
= 1×10 T.
15. Answer (1) Now B = B12 + B22
Hint : Use properties of diamagnetic substance.
Sol. : For diamagnetic subtance, susceptibility is = B = (22 + 12 )10 –14
independent on temperature.
16. Answer (3) B = 5 × 10 –7 T
  
Hint : F = i (ieff × B ) 18. Answer (2)

Sol. : V2 V2
Hint : PS = and PP =
RS RP

V2 V V2
Sol. : PP = = 2 = n. ...(i)
Req (R/n ) R

V2 V2 1 V2
PS = = ⇒ . ...(ii)
Req nR n R
Since x² = 5y.
x = 5 × 5 = 5 m. V2
PP n
Now = R = n2
Now i (ieff ) = i (2 × iˆ) = (2i x )iˆ PS V2
i (ieff) = (2×2.5)×5 iˆ nR

= 25 iˆ 19. Answer (1)

  R1
Now F = i (ieff ) × B = 25 iˆ × 2 × 10–3 k Hint : Use voltage divider rule. V1 = V
R1 + R2
= 0.050 (iˆ × kˆ )
R1R2
 And RP =
F = − 0.05 ˆj N R1 + R2

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Open Mock Test - 4 (Code-B) (Hints and Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2019

3R 3 V
Sol. : When S1 → closed ⇒ V1 = .E Sol. : ΔV = –3 × 10 × (0.6) m.
4R m
= –3 × 0.6 × 103 V
3
V1 = E = 0.75E VA – VB = –1800 V
4
23. Answer (1)
6R 6 Hint : F = qE and Fv = 6πηrv
When S2 → closed ⇒ V2 = 6R + R E = 7 E Sol. : v = constant ⇒ Fnet = 0
Hence neE = 6πrηv
V2  0.85 E
6 × 3.14 × 1.6 × 10 –5 × 5 × 10 –7 × 0.01
When S1 & S2 are closed n=
1.6 × 10–19 × 3.14 × 105
2R 2 = 6×5×10–19×10+19
V3 = ×E = E
R + 2R 3
n = 30 electrons
V3 = 0.67E
24. Answer (3)
Hence V3 < V1 < V2
20. Answer (2) ⎛ I ⎞
Hint : Intensity L = 10 log ⎜ ⎟
C1 C2 ⎝ I0 ⎠
Hint : Use CP = C1 + C2 and CS =
C1 + C2 Sol. : When I2 = 2I1
⇒ Intensity in dB → increased by 3 dB.
Hence number of years required = 3 years.
25. Answer (2)
Sol. : g
Hint : For angular SHM, θ = θ0 sin ωt and ω =
L
Sol. : Since φ < θ ⇒ ball hit the wall before
extreme position

T L
Now t1 = =π ...(i)
2 g
φ = θ sin ωt.
φ 1 ⎛φ⎞
sin ωt = ⇒ t = sin–1 ⎜ ⎟ ...(ii)
θ ω ⎝θ⎠
5 T
CAB = + 9 || 9 Now time period T ' =
+ 2t .
2 2
L L⎡ ⎛ φ ⎞⎤
5 9 T'=π + ⎢ 2sin–1 ⎜ ⎟ ⎥
= + = 7 μF g g⎣ ⎝ θ ⎠⎦
2 2
C AB = 7 μ F L⎡ ⎛ φ ⎞⎤
T'= ⎢ π + 2 sin–1 ⎜ ⎟ ⎥
21. Answer (2) g⎣ ⎝ θ ⎠⎦
1 26. Answer (3)
2
Hint : U = CV = msΔT
2 Hint : Vrms ∝ T
1 Vrms 1 300
Sol. : CV 2 = ms ΔT =
2 Sol. : V 273 + t
rms 2

2ms ΔT 2
V = ⎛ Vrms ⎞ 300
C ⎜ ⎟ =
⎝ 2Vrms ⎠ 273 + t
22. Answer (4) 273 + t = 1200
 
Hint : ΔV = – E. Δr and VA < VB. t = 927°C

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All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2019 Open Mock Test - 4 (Code-B) (Hints and Solutions)
27. Answer (2) Sol. :
W T2
Hint : Q = 1– T
1

T2 1 T2 4 T 5
Sol. : 1– = ⇒ = or 1 = ...(i)
T1 5 T1 5 T2 4

T2 2 T2 3
1– = ⇒ = ...(ii) For translational motion
T1 + 100 5 T1 + 100 5 mg sinθ – Ff = ma ..(i)
T1 100 5 For rotational motion
+ =
T2 T2 3 2 a
Ff R = . mR² .
On solving (i) & (ii) 5 R

100 5 5 T2 = 240 K 2
= – ⇒ Ff = . ma ...(ii)
T2 3 4 T1 = 300 K 5

28. Answer (1) On solving (i) & (ii)

2 2
⎛R⎞ 4
Ff = mg sin θ
Hint : Solar constant S = ⎜ ⎟ σ T 7
⎝r ⎠ i.e θ → increases ⇒ sinθ ⇒ increases.
Sol. : S ∝ T4 Hence θ→ increases i.e. fr. increases.
ΔS ΔT There is no slipping for pure rolling. Hence no loss
= 4.
S T of energy in form of heat and frictional force supports
rotational motion.
ΔS ΔT
× 100 = 4 × 100 32. Answer (1)
S T
= 4 × 0.25 1 2 v
Hint : KERot = I ω and ω =
= 1% 2 R
29. Answer (2) v
Hint : Use ρVg = W Sol. : ω = and I = mR2
R
Sol. : ρ. A. (8 cm)g = 500×g ...(i)
ρ A. (9 cm)g = (500+m)g ...(ii)
1 v 2 mv 2
8 500 Now KERot = × m.R 2 × 2 =
(i/ii) = 2 R 2
9 500 + m
33. Answer (1)
On solving
Hint : Use T 2 ∝ R3 (Kepler’s third law)
m = 62.5 kg
30. Answer (4)
T2 r3
Sol. : =
FL ⎛T ⎞
2
r ′3
Hint : Δl = Δ1 + Δ2 + Δ3. , Δl =
AY ⎜3⎟
⎝ ⎠
Sol. : Since rods are in equilibrium. Then force in
each rod will be F. r
(3)2/3 =
F 1 F2 F3 r′
Now Δ1 = , Δ 2 = and Δ 3 =
A1Y1 A2Y2 A3Y3
r
r'=
1/3
⎡    ⎤ 9
Δl = F ⎢ 1 + 2 + 3 ⎥
⎣ A1Y1 A2Y2 A3Y3 ⎦ 34. Answer (1)
31. Answer (3) Gm1m2
Hint : Fg = and ΔP = 0
Hint : ΣFnet = ma and Στ = Iα r2

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Open Mock Test - 4 (Code-B) (Hints and Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2019
 
Sol. : 0 + 0 = m1v1 + m2v 2 2 × 10 × 2(4 – 0.5 × 6)
=
6+4
 m 
v 2 = − 1 v1 ...(i) 4 × 10 × 1
m2 = =2
10
v = 2 ms –1
37. Answer (2)
m12 2 2 Gm1 m2 Hint : Concept of static friction.
m1v12 + v1 =
m2 r Sol. :
2Gm22
(m2+m1)v12 =
r

⎛ 2G ⎞ 2
v1 = ⎜ ⎟ m2
⎝ r (m1 + m2 ) ⎠
From equation (i)
Maximum static friction
2G fs = μN
v 2 = m1 N = mg cos45° + T sin45°
r(m1 + m2 )
= 100 2 + 50 2 = 150 2 N
2G Now μN ≥ mg sin 45° – Tcos45°
v ap = v1 +v 2 = (m1 + m2 )
r(m1 + m2 )
= 100 2 – 50 2 ≤ μ(150 2)

2G(m1+m2 ) 50 2 ≤ μ × 150 2
v ap =
r
1
35. Answer (3) μmin =
3
Hint : Work energy theorem.
38. Answer (1)
Sol. : When work is done on body by the field then 
kinetic energy of body increases and P.E of the  ΔP
Hint : Favg =
body decreases. Δt
Sol. :
36. Answer (1)
Hint : Use work energy theorem
Sol. :

  
ΔP = P2 − P1
= mviˆ − ( −mviˆ)

ΔP = 2mv

πR
Δt =
v
1
m2 gL = (m1 + m2 )u ² + μm1gL. 
2  ΔP 2mv 2
Fav = =
2gL(m2 – μm1) Δt πR
v=
m1 + m2 39. Answer (2)
Hint : ΣF = m.a

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All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2019 Open Mock Test - 4 (Code-B) (Hints and Solutions)

Sol. : F1 = 60 N 1
sin(θ – 30°) = ⇒ sin(θ – 30°) = sin30°
2

30 N θ = 30° + 30°
F2
θ = 60º
37° 40 N 41. Answer (1)
45° 25 N Hint : Horizontal components of velocity of stone
w.r.t ground observer must be zero.

F3 Sol. :

25 N
ΣFx = 40+25 = 65 N
ΣFy = 60+30–25 = 65 N
Fnet = 65² + 65² = 65 2 N

Fnet 65 2
ablock = = ms–2
mblock 40 Now 20 iˆ + (–30.cosα) iˆ = 0
2
13 2 cos α =
ablock = ms –2 3
8
40. Answer (2) ⎛2⎞
α = cos –1 ⎜ ⎟ in opposite direction of motion of
⎝3⎠
1 2
Hint : ux.t = x & v y t – gt = y truck.
2
Sol. : 42. Answer (3)
x2
Hint : ∫ x1 dx = ∫ vdt = area under v – t curve

Sol. :

Let at time t cannon gun will destroy the bomb. Then

(400+400cosθ)t = 2000 3
x = –10 m at t = 0
(1+cosθ)t = 5 3 ...(i)
Δx = area (v – t) curve
1 1 2
gt² + (400 sinθ) t – gt = 2000 Now at t = 24 s displacement is maximum.
2 2
x+10 = 20+32+18
sinθ. t = 5 ...(ii)
From eqn (i) & (ii) x = 60 m
Hence maximum value of position co-ordinate is
sin θ 1
= ⇒ 3 sin θ = 1+cosθ x = 60 m
1 + cos θ 3
3 sin θ – cos θ = 1 43. Answer (1)
On solving Hint : S = area under v – t curve

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Open Mock Test - 4 (Code-B) (Hints and Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2019

Sol. : CHEMISTRY
46. Answer (2)
Hint : Gabriel's phthalimide synthesis

Sol. :

vm
vm = 20 t1 ⇒ t1 =
20

vm = 10t2 ⇒ t2 = v m
10
vm
Now h= (t1 + t2 )
2
vm ⎛ vm vm ⎞
=
2 ⎜ 20 + 10 ⎟
⎝ ⎠
vm = 40 ms–1
44. Answer (3) 47. Answer (2)
2 Hint : On adding inert gas at constant pressure,
d x
Hint : Use a = volume increases, therefore the reaction moves in a
dt ²
Sol. : x² = t – 4x direction where the number of moles of the gas
x² + 4x = t molecules increases.
dx dx 48. Answer (2)
2 x. +4 =1
dt dt Hint : Intermolecular forces of attraction are
dx 1 negligible in H2
(2 x + 4) = 1 ⇒ v =
dt 2x + 4 49. Answer (3)
2
⎛ dx ⎞ d ²x d ²x Hint : Cloud is the colloidal solution of liquid in gas.
Now, 2 ⎜ ⎟ + 2 x. +4 =0
⎝ dt ⎠ dt ² dt ² 50. Answer (4)
1 Hint : For a complex reaction, order is given by
a(2 x + 4) = –2
(2x + 4)² slowest step of the reaction.
1 51. Answer (2)
a=–
4( x + 2)³ Hint : On addition of catalyst in a reaction the
1 activation energy of reaction decreases.
Hence Retardation =
4( x + 2)3 52. Answer (2)
45. Answer (2)
1000 × k
Hint : Same dimensional quantities can be added, Hint : ΛM =
subtracted or equated C

A s
Sol. : U (s )= 1000 × 1.5 × 10 −2
B+s 3 Sol. : ΛM = = 75 S cm2 mol–1
0.2
A U
= 53. Answer (2)
B s
⎡ML2 T −2 ⎤ Hint : MnO4− + 8H+ + 5e− ⎯⎯
→ Mn2+ + 4H2O
=⎣ ⎦
⎡L1/2 ⎤ Sol. : n-factor = 5
⎣ ⎦
Number of Faraday required = 0.5 × 5 = 2.5 F
= ⎡ML3/2 T −2 ⎤
⎣ ⎦ Electricity required = 2.5 × 96500 C

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All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2019 Open Mock Test - 4 (Code-B) (Hints and Solutions)

54. Answer (3) 61. Answer (1)

Hint : Reductive ozonolysis of cyclic alkene will Hint : Nylon–6 is a polyamide
give acyclic dicarbonyl compound.

Sol. : 62. Answer (3)

Hint : La3+ has electronic configuration of Xe [54],
55. Answer (2)
so La3+ is diamagnetic in nature.
Hint : Electron withdrawing group present at o/p 63. Answer (2)
position enhances acidity of phenol or benzoic acid. Hint :  In [XeF5]+, Xe is sp3d2 hybridised with one
Sol. : Compounds pKa lone pair and
COOH  In [ICl4]–, I is sp3d2 hybridised with two lone pairs
NO2 +
2.17
F F
Xe Square pyramidal
COOH Sol. : F F
F

3.43
NO2
OH
O2N NO2
64. Answer (3)
1.02
Hint : NH4NO3 Δ 2H2O + N2O↑
NO2
65. Answer (1)
56. Answer (4)
Hint : 2a = 4r
Hint : In Swarts reaction alkyl fluorides are made
from alkyl bromide/iodide. Sol. : 2r = 200 2

r = 100 2
Sol. : CH3 − Br + AgF ⎯⎯
→ CH3 − F + AgBr
4r 4 × 100 2
57. Answer (4) a= =
2 2
Hint : In Ni(CO)4, the d-orbitals of Ni are completely a = 400 pm
filled and four CO group will form bond with the sp3 66. Answer (2)
hybridised orbitals of Ni.
Hint : In negative deviation average interaction of
58. Answer (2) A–B molecules is more than average interactions of
A–A or B–B molecules. Therefore, ΔH will be
Hint : Oxygen connected with sp 2 hybridised negative.
carbon will not be cleaved by HI. 67. Answer (2)
59. Answer (1) Hint : 4.45 m means 1 kg water contains 4.45 mole
of urea.
Hint : Sugar units present in DNA is β-D-2-
Sol. : Mole of urea = 4.45
deoxyribose.
1000
60. Answer (3) Mole of water = = 55.55
18
Hint : Salvarsan is an antibiotic and used in the
4.45
treatment of syphilis. Mole fraction of urea = = 0.074
4.45 + 55.55

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Open Mock Test - 4 (Code-B) (Hints and Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2019
68. Answer (3)
Hint : Benzyne formation
Sol. :
CH3 CH3
–
Sol. : + NH2
Cl
H –
NH2
71. Answer (3)
CH3 CH3
Hint : Resonance stabilized carbonion is very
NH3 stable.
–NH2
–
Sol. : As the s-character in the hybrid orbital of
NH2 – NH2 carbon increases, the stability of negative charge on
P (Major) it increases
72. Answer (3)
69. Answer (2)
Hint : Dehydration of alcohol will generate
Hint : Cyclohexanone undergoes aldol condensation carbonium ion as an intermediate.
reaction on heating with aq. KOH.
Sol. : HO
Sol. : +
+ +
H –H
– H2O

OCH3 OCH3 OCH3

(A)
Methoxy group present at para position in (A)
stabilises the carbonium ion by resonance.
73. Answer (4)
Hint : O–2 and NO has one unpaired electron each
in their MO.
74. Answer (1)
Hint : Vacant d orbitals are present in chlorine.
Sol. : N N H
Cl Cl Cl + OH2 Cl Cl + Cl – O
H

NH3 + HOCl H2O Cl – NH + Cl – OH

Cl
75. Answer (2)
Step-III Hint : Thermal stability of group II carbonates
O O increases down the group.
H – 76. Answer (2)
OH –
Δ Hint : As the stability of the anion increases its
oxidising power decreases.
OH OH
77. Answer (3)
Hint : Ore Formula
O Barytes BaSO4
– Calamine ZnCO3
+ OH
Chile saltpetre NaNO3
Carnalite KCl.MgCl2.6H2O
70. Answer (2) 78. Answer (2)
Hint : Aromatic aldehydes do not give Fehling’s Hint : NaCN is used as depressant in the
test. concentration of PbS containing ZnS.

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All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2019 Open Mock Test - 4 (Code-B) (Hints and Solutions)
PbS(s) + NaCN → No reaction Sol. : To follow EAN rule V of V(CO)6 accepts one
ZnS(s) + 4NaCN → [Zn(CN)4]2– electron to form [V(CO)6]–.
79. Answer (4) 87. Answer (2)
Hint : An acid after losing proton forms its Hint : For Lyman series n1 = 1 and n2 = 2, 3, 4...
conjugate base. Sol. : Number of Lyman lines obtained = 6 – 1 = 5
80. Answer (2) 88. Answer (4)
Hint : Ksp of M(OH)2 = [M2+ ][OH– ]2 Hint : n = 3 and l = 2 represents 3d subshell.
Sol. : pH of M(OH)2 = 10 Sol. : There are five d orbitals.
pOH = 14–10 = 4 So, maximum number of electrons present in 3d
⎡⎣OH ⎤⎦ = 10
– –4
M orbitals = 5 × 2 = 10
89. Answer (3)

 2+
 M + 2OH
M(OH)2  –

Volume of CO2 at STP

Hint : Mole of CO2 =
−4
⎛ 10 ⎞ Molar volume at STP
⎜ ⎟ 10
−4
( )
⎝ 2 ⎠ 224
Sol. : Mole of CO2 =
22400
⎛ 10 −4 ⎞
( )
2
−4
Ksp = ⎜ ⎟ 10 = 5 × 10–13 224
⎝ 2 ⎠ Mole of O atoms = × 2 = 2 × 10–2
22400
81. Answer (2)
Number of O atoms = 2 × 10–2 × NA
ΔHvap
Hint : ΔS vap = 90. Answer (4)
Tfus
Hint : Dipole moment is a vector quantity.
Sol. : T = 273 + 127 = 400 K
ΔHfus. = 36200 J/mol BIOLOGY
36200 91. Answer (1)
ΔS = = 90.5 JK −1 mol−1
400 Hint : Jhum cultivation is also known as slash and
82. Answer (1) burn agriculture.
Hint : CS2 contains two σ and two π bonds. Sol. : Jhum cultivation causes deforestation.
S=C=S 92. Answer (3)
83. Answer (2) Hint : COP-22 was held in 2016.
Sol. : COP-22 was held at Marrakesh (Morocco) in
a a
year 2016.
Hint : Biphenyls of type are optically 93. Answer (3)
Hint : Loss of biodiversity increases by destruction of
b b the habitat.
active when a and b are bulky groups. Sol. : Habitat loss and fragmentation is the most
84. Answer (4) important cause of biodiversity loss.
Hint : Ketone which can exist in enol form will 94. Answer (1)
show tautomerism. Sol. : Alexander Von Humboldt described the
Sol. : Enol of compound (ii) will not be formed due species area relationship.
to the presence of α-hydrogen on bridge head 95. Answer (3)
carbon. Hint : In tree ecosystem, a single tree supports and
85. Answer (3) nourishes large number of frugivores.
1 Sol. : Pyramid of number of tree ecosystem may be
Hint : Rate of diffusion ∝ inverted.
M
Sol. : Lighter the gas, higher will the rate of Parasites
diffusion.
Birds
86. Answer (3)
Tree
Hint : EAN of V in V(CO)6 is 35

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Open Mock Test - 4 (Code-B) (Hints and Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2019
96. Answer (3) 105. Answer (1)
Sol. : The most limiting nutrient of marine Hint : Dystrophin has 2.4 million bases.
ecosystem is nitrogen as fixed nitrogen rapidly
converts into nitrogen gas by marine micro- Sol. : Dystrophin is the largest human gene. TDF is
organisms. smallest gene with 14 bases.
97. Answer (4) 106. Answer (2)
Hint : In mutualism, both the species are benefitted. Sol. : On discontinuous strand, Okazaki fragments
Sol. : In interaction of cattle egrets and cattles, only are joined by the action of DNA ligase.
egrets are benefitted as they obtain their food during 107. Answer (2)
grazing of cattles. It is an example of
commensalism. Hint : In test cross, organism with the dominant
phenotype is crossed with the recessive one.
98. Answer (2)
Sol. : Fruit colour genes of Cucurbita pepo show
Hint : In population ‘X’ number of pre-reproductive
dominant epistasis.
individuals is less than reproductive individuals which
shows negative growth. WwYy × wwyy
Sol. : Such population, is unstable and will decline
with time and is represented by Urn-shaped age
pyramid.
99. Answer (3)
Hint : Xerophytic plants are adapted to minimise
water loss.
Sol. : Xerophytes may have thick cuticle, sunken
stomata and succulent stems.
Phenotypic ratio – Yellow : White : Green
Pneumatophores or respiratory roots are found in
halophytes of marshy areas. 1:2:1
100. Answer (3) 108. Answer (4)
Hint : Flocs are found in aeration tanks of sewage Hint : Colour blindness is an X linked recessive trait
treatment plants. and it shows criss-cross inheritance.

Sol. : Flocs are masses of aerobic, heterotrophic

bacteria and fungi that act on organic matter present
in sewage. Sol. :
101. Answer (2)
Hint : Statin is a blood-cholesterol lowering agent
obtained from a yeast.
Sol. : Statin is obtained from Monascus purpureus.
102. Answer (4)
Sol. : Jaya is a high yielding variety of rice
developed in India.
103. Answer (2) 109. Answer (1)
Sol. : Mendel worked with 14 true-breeding pea plant
Hint : 5-methyl uracil is thymine.
varieties (7 pairs of varieties) and 7 characters during
Sol. : RNA lacks thymine that provides additional his experiments.
stability to DNA. 110. Answer (3)
104. Answer (1) Hint : Phenylketonuria is an autosomal recessive
Hint : Those genes which are continuously disorder.
expressing themselves in a cell are called Sol. : Gene responsible for phenylketonuria is a
constitutive genes. pleiotropic gene that produces multiple phenotypic
Sol. : ‘i’ gene of lac operon is a constitutive gene expressions.
that always keeps on expressing in E.coli. In humans, AB blood group shows co-dominance.

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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2019
111. Answer (3)
Hint : Insect pollinated flowers are colourful and have
nectaries.
Sol. : Some aquatic plants such as water lily show
entomophily i.e., pollination by biotic agents.
112. Answer (1)
Hint : Cell wall of pollen grain (male gametophyte) is
called sporoderm.
Sol. : Sporoderm is bilayered i.e., differentiated into
exine and intine in angiosperms.
113. Answer (3)
Sol. : Papaver has multicarpellary, syncarpous
ovary.
114. Answer (4)
Hint : When fusing gametes are morphologically
similar they are known as homogametes.
Sol. : Cladophora, Synchytrium and Rhizopus all are
homogametic.
Fucus – Produces morphologically distinct
heterogametes.
115. Answer (3)
Hint : Ethylene can be used to increase number of
fruits in a plant.
Sol. : Ethylene increases number of female flowers
which in turn increase number of fruits e.g.
cucumber.
116. Answer (2)
Hint : The NADH2 and FADH2 synthesised during
glycolysis, link reaction and Krebs cycle give
electrons to complexes present in ETS.
Sol. : During aerobic respiration, 1 glucose molecule
gives total 10 molecules of NADH2 and 2 molecules
of FADH2.
10 molecules of NADH2 form 10 × 3 = 30 ATP
2 molecules of FADH2 form 2 × 2 = 4 ATP
Thus total ATP produced are 34 ATP.
117. Answer (1)
Hint : Increase in yield in CO2 enriched atmosphere
is known as CO2 fertilization effect.
Sol. : CO2 enrichment effect is seen in C3 plants
inside greenhouse and maize is a C4 plant.
118. Answer (3)
Hint : Light saturation occurs at 10% of the total
sunlight available to plants, except those found in
shade or dense forest.
Sol. : For such plants light intensity along with CO2
concentration and chlorophyll content act as limiting
factor for rate of photosynthesis. Duration of light
affects overall photosynthesis not rate of
photosynthesis.
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Open Mock Test - 4 (Code-B) (Hints and Solutions)
119. Answer (1)
Hint : Manganese plays a major role in liberation of
oxygen during photosynthesis.
Sol. : Calcium – Involved in mitotic spindle formation
Manganese – Involved in splitting of water
Zinc – Involved in synthesis of auxin.
120. Answer (2)
Hint : Gymnosperms produce seeds but lack
flowers.
Sol. : Cycas, Cedrus, Pinus and Ginkgo are
gymnosperms whereas pea, orchids and Acacia are
angiosperms.
121. Answer (4)
Hint : All gymnosperms, angiosperms and some
pteridophytes are heterosporous.
Sol. : Sphagnum is a bryophyte and all bryophytes
are homosporous.
Salvinia – A pteridophyte, (heterosporous)
Sequoia – A gymnosperm, (heterosporous)
Sunflower – An angiosperm, (heterosporous)
122. Answer (3)
Hint : Both Porphyra and Spirogyra produce non
flagellated gametes.
Sol. : In Spirogyra – Both the gametes are similar in
size (Isogamy)
In Prophyra – Male gamete is smaller and female is
larger i.e., Oogamy.
123. Answer (2)
Hint : Coconut is a drupe.
Sol. : Drupe is a fleshy or succulent fruit
characterised by
– Differentiated pericarp
– Mostly one seeded.
In coconut mesocarp is not edible. It is used in
making coir.
124. Answer (4)
Hint : Stamens are united in two bundles in the
members of family Fabaceae.
Sol. : Union of stamens into two bundles is called
diadelphous condition which is found in pea.
China rose – monoadelphous condition.
125. Answer (4)
Hint : Tendrils can be formed by the modification of
leaf or stem.
Sol. : In sweet pea, tendril is a modification of entire
leaf whereas in cucumber they are modifications of
axillary buds.
Open Mock Test - 4 (Code-B) (Hints and Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2019
126. Answer (2) Sol. : Crossing over initiates at pachytene stage
Hint : Prions mostly affect the brain and nervous whereas it gets completed at diplotene stage of
tissue system. meiosis I.
Sol. : Bovine spongiform encephalopathy or madcow 134. Answer (3)
disease is caused by prions. Hint : Cytoskeleton is found in eukaryotes only.
Potato spindle tuber disease – Viroids Sol. : Microtubules help in formation of cilia and
flagella in eukaryotes.
Potato leaf roll ⎫ Formation of cleavage furrow during cell division and
⎪
and ⎬ – Caused by viruses pseudopodia formation are functions of
Bunchy top of banana ⎪
⎭ microfilaments.
135. Answer (4)
127. Answer (2)
Hint : Maximum volume of a plant cell is occupied
Hint : Morels and truffles belong to class
by vacuole.
ascomycetes of fungi.
Sol. : In plants, vacuole can occupy upto 90%
Sol. : Members of ascomycetes asexually volume of the cell.
reproduce by conidia.
These are characterised by presence of tonoplast
They have shorter dikaryophase as compared to club and water soluble pigments such as anthocyanin.
fungi in their sexual cycle.
136. Answer (3)
128. Answer (3)
Hint : Identify a pancreatic enzyme.
Hint : Diatoms have cell wall impregnated with
silica. Sol. : Amino acids are produced by hydrolysis of
proteins and polypeptides with the help of
Sol. : Diatoms lack flagella except in their
reproductive stage. aminopeptidase and carboxypeptidase. Amino acids
cannot be produced by hydrolysis with the help of
129. Answer (3)
trypsin.
Hint : Both early and late wood are formed by the
activity of cambium ring. 137. Answer (3)
Sol. : Early wood is lighter in colour and has a lower Hint : Wine flask shaped cells.
density than the late wood. Its vessels also have Sol. : Mucus is alkaline in nature.
wider lumen. Both early wood as well as late wood
138. Answer (2)
are formed during secondary growth hence they are
secondary in origin. Hint : FRC = ERV + RV
130. Answer (2) Sol. : IC = TV + IRV
Hint : In monocot stem, secondary growth is absent. TLC = RV + ERV + TV + IRV; TLC = IC + FRC
Sol. : Wheat is a monocot plant. Since monocots TLC = 5800 ml ≅ 6 L
lack vascular cambium therefore secondary phloem
will be absent in wheat. Phloem parenchyma is also 139. Answer (2)
absent in monocots. Hint : Haldane’s effect.
131. Answer (4) Sol. : Oxyhaemoglobin dissociation curve will shift
Hint : Minerals are transported via xylem tissue. to left when pO2 increases pCO2 decreases, pH
Sol. : Nitrogen travels in both organic as well as increases and body temperature decreases.
inorganic forms via xylem. 140. Answer (4)
Phloem transports only organic form of nitrogen e.g., Hint : Cells of connective tissue which perform
amino acids. function similar to basophils.
132. Answer (2) Sol. : Mast cells release heparin, histamine and
Hint : Magnitude of root pressure is 1-2 atm. which serotonin. Heparin is anticoagulant, serotonin is a
can raise water upto certain height of the plant. vasoconstrictor and histamine is a potent vasodilator.
Sol. : Root pressure is a weak force to account for It causes inflammation characterised by redness,
movement of water to the top of tall trees. pain and swelling. Macrophages are phagocytic cells.
133. Answer (1) 141. Answer (4)
Hint : Crossing over gets completed at the stage Hint : Brush border appearance increases surface
which is also characterised by chiasmata formation. area for absorption.

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All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2019
Sol. : Inner lining of fallopian tube, ventricles of the
brain and central canal of spinal cord, all are
internally lined by simple ciliated columnar epithilium
but inner lining of intestinal mucosa has simple
columnar epithelium containing microvilli giving brush
border appearance.
142. Answer (3)
Hint : Blood cells which participate in allergic
reactions of the body.
Sol. : Neutrophils – 60-65%
Monocytes – 6-8%
Eosinophils – 2-3%
Lymphocytes – 20-25%
Basophils – 0.5-1%
143. Answer (1)
Hint : Artery is thick walled in which blood flows
under high pressure.
Sol. : Blood pressure in our body in circulation is
listed as follows:
Aorta → main arteries → arterioles
↓
Vena cava ← veins ← venules ← capillaries
144. Answer (1)
Hint : Kidneys are situated near the posterior wall
of abdominal cavity.
Sol. : One pair of kidneys are situated between T12
to L3 vertebrae.
145. Answer (1)
Hint : Fresh water fishes live in hypotonic medium.
Sol. : Fresh water has osmolarity of 50 mOsm/L
and that of body of organisms is 300 mOsm/L. So,
Na+ from body diffuses to exterior and water from
outside enters in the body. For osmoregulation
ionocytes regularly pump Na+ from outside to inside.
Water is balanced by formation of dilute urine.
146. Answer (4)
Hint : Joints which are present in skull.
Sol. : Fibrous joints are immovable joints in which
two bones remain fixed due to collagen fibres hence
they never participate in locomotion and movement.
147. Answer (3)
Hint : A type of arthritis.
Sol. : Inflammation in joints due to deposition of
urate crystals is known as gout/gouty arthritis. It is
caused due to altered secretion of enzyme xanthine
oxidase. As a result purine metabolism is impaired.
Tetany is rapid spasm in muscles fibres due to low
Ca2+ in body fluids. Bone mass decreases during
osteoporosis, which is an age related fibres disorder.
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Open Mock Test - 4 (Code-B) (Hints and Solutions)
148. Answer (4)
Hint : Iris surrounds the pupil.
Sol. : Iris has involuntary and unstriated muscle
fibres which are under control of ANS. Sympathetic
stimulation causes dilation of pupil and
parasympathetic stimulation causes constriction of
pupil.
149. Answer (4)
Hint : Sympathetic nervous system is a part of
autonomic nervous system.
Sol. : Sympathetic nervous system is activated
during emergency conditions. It relaxes the smooth
muscles of the body to decrease peristalsis. It
inhibits salivation and micturition.
150. Answer (2)
Hint : Aldosterone is a salt retaining hormone.
Sol. : Aldosterone increases absorption of Na+ and
Cl– from filtrate and promotes secretion of K+ and
phosphate ions. So, it decreases Na+ but increases
K+ in urine.
151. Answer (2)
Hint : It is also called Grave’s disease.
Sol. : Cretinism is a special type of malgrowth of
body caused due to hyposecretion of thyroxine
during gestation period. Exopthalmic goitre/Grave’s
disease are caused in case of hyperthyroidism.
Gull’s disease occurs due to hypothyroidism in
adults. Simple goitre occurs due to the deficiency of
iodine in diet and results in low secretion of thyroid
hormone.
152. Answer (3)
Hint : Taxon gnathostomata includes true fishes.
Sol. : Petromyzon is a false fish having circular
mouth and cartilaginous endoskeleton. They lack
jaws and paired fins which are the characters of a
true fish.
153. Answer (1)
Hint : Identify the animal which belongs to phylum
hemichordata.
Sol. : Hookworm is a pseudocoelomate while
sandworm and earthworm are coelomates with
closed circulatory system.
154. Answer (1)
Hint : Structure related to locomotion in arthropods.
Sol. : Arthropods have jointed appendages
(outgrowths) such as legs, antennae and mouth
parts. They are unisexual or dioecious, having
balancing organ statocyst in aquatic form.
Exoskeleton is chitinous.
Open Mock Test - 4 (Code-B) (Hints and Solutions)
155. Answer (1)
Hint : Chargaff’s rule.
Sol. : [A] = [T]
[G] = [C]
A = 30%, since adenine always combines with
thymine, so percentage of thymine = 30%
Therefore, [G + C] = 100% – 60% = 40%
So % of cytosine = 40 – 20 = 20%
% of purine = [G] + [A] = 50%
156. Answer (4)
Hint : Eucoelomates are of two types: Protostomes
and deuterostomes.
Sol. : On the basis of fate of blastopore arthropods
are protostomic eucoelomates because blastopore
forms mouth whereas birds are deuterostomic
because blastopore forms anus. Metameric
segmentation can be seen in aves as well
arthropods.
157. Answer (3)
Hint : Vertebrates having creeping habit and scales
on body surface.
Sol. : Reptiles have epidermal scales on the body
surface and it is not unique property as it is also
found in birds and mammals.
158. Answer (4)
Hint : Accessory reproductive duct in male frog is
present in its kidney.
Sol. : In frog, Bidder’s canal is present in kidney
and is responsible for passage of sperms.
159. Answer (4)
Hint : This structure is also known as renal
corpuscle.
Sol. : Nephrocytes, fat body and Malpighian tubules
are excretory structures in cockroach. Glomerulus
surrounded by Bowman’s capsule together form
Malpighian body.
160. Answer (2)
Hint : Meiocytes are diploid cells.
Sol. : Meiocytes are diploid cells of germinal
epithelium of testes and ovary which participate in
gametogenesis. Gametes are haploid, hence number
of chromosomes in a meiocyte is 39 × 2 = 78.
161. Answer (1)
Hint : Identify the structure form due to fusion of
gametes.
Sol. : Gametogenesis and gamete transfer are
included in pre-fertilization event while zygote is
formed during fertilization event.
All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2019
162. Answer (3)
Hint : Gonadotrophic hormones increase in
preovulatory phase whereas level of progesterone
remain unaffected.
Sol. : A - Progesterone
B - Estrogen
C - LH
D - FSH
163. Answer (2)
Hint : It is observed during second trimester.
Sol. : First foetal movement is known as
quickening, occurs at 5th month of pregnancy in
human female. Hair on head also appear at 5th month
of gestation.
164. Answer (1)
Hint : Hormone commonly known as pregnancy
hormone.
Sol. : Parturition starts with decrease in
progesterone and increase in estrogen, progesterone
ratio. Other hormones such as oxytocin and cortisol
are increased during parturition.
165. Answer (3)
Hint : Identify the structure formed during
oogenesis.
Sol. : Primary oocyte is diploid structure while
secondary oocyte, secondary spermatocyte and
spermatid are haploid structures.
166. Answer (4)
Hint : Contraceptives which are placed in uterus.
Sol. : IUT, GIFT and ZIFT are assisted reproductive
technologies but IUDs are used to prevent pregnancy
so they are birth control methods e.g., CuT,
Multiload 375, LNG-20, progestasert etc.
167. Answer (3)
Hint : Embryological evidences.
Sol. : Homologous structures show divergent
evolution. Analogous structures show convergent
evolution. Atavism is sudden reappearance of
ancestral characters.
168. Answer (1)
Hint : British economist who wrote “An essay on
the principle of population”.
Sol. : Darwin was influenced by Malthusian theory
of human population growth. Hugo de Vries gave the
mutation theory.
169. Answer (2)
Hint : Interferons are released from virus infected
cells.
Sol. : Physiological barriers include acid in
stomach, saliva in mouth and tears from eyes.
Ruptured RBCs release haemozoin which is
responsible for chills and high fever recurring every
three to four days.
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All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2019
170. Answer (3)
Hint : Cancer is uncontrolled and rapid
multiplication of cells due to failure of contact
inhibition.
Sol. : Malignant tumors are invasive, metastatic, fast
growing without limited boundaries and without
contact inhibition.
171. Answer (4)
Hint : Anabolic steriods are misused by sports
person.
Sol. : Anabolic steroids are similar to testosterone
that result in increased protein synthesis in body
builders. In females, it causes masculinisation and
enlargement of clitoris but not enlargement of
breasts. But in males testosterone is converted into
estrogen by enzyme aromatase causing enlarged
breasts as a side effect.
172. Answer (3)
Hint : Rearing of aquatic plants and animals in
controlled habitats for human welfare.
Sol. : Rearing of all types of aquatic animals and
plants in controlled condition to increase their yield
is called aquaculture. Rearing of only fishes is known
as pisciculture. Rearing honey bee at commercial
level is called apiculture.
173. Answer (3)
Hint : This is a method of outbreeding.
Sol. : Hisardale is a product of mating Bikaneri
ewe and Merino ram.
174. Answer (3)
Hint : It is programme for herd improvement.
Sol. : MOET abbreviation stands for “Multiple
Ovulation Embryo Transfer”.
175. Answer (2)
Hint : The first alphabet of an RE respresents the
genus of bacteria.
 
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Open Mock Test - 4 (Code-B) (Hints and Solutions)
Sol. : Restriction endonucleases may cut DNA
strands away from centre of palindromic sequence
to produce two different sticky ends or blunt ends.
Different restriction endonucleases cut strands of
DNA to produce different kinds of sticky ends.
176. Answer (4)
Hint : The enzyme present in pancreatic juice to
digest nucleic acids.
Sol. : Deoxyribonuclease is responsible for
hydrolysis of DNA into its nucleotides. So it cannot
be used in isolation of DNA.
Cellulase can digest cellulose, protease can digest
proteins and ribonuclease can digest RNA. These
are used for isolation of DNA of a plant cell.
177. Answer (1)
Hint : It is an intercalating dye which is used to
visualise DNA.
Sol. : After gel electrophoresis, DNA fragments are
visualised on staining with ethidium bromide under
UV light. Bromophenol blue is a tracking dye.
178. Answer (1)
Hint : Plasmids act as a vehicle for gene transfer.
Sol. : As plasmid is used as a vehicle that delivers
a foreign piece of DNA into the host organism, so
they are considered as gene taxi. Meloidogyne is a
nematode of plants whose growth can be controlled
by RNA interference. Rosie is a transgenic cow
which yield protein rich milk. Deficiency of α-1-
antitrypsin causes emphysema.
179. Answer (1)
Hint : An enzyme which participates in purine
metabolism.
Sol. : Adenosine deaminase participates in purine
metabolism and is helpful in maintaining immune
response of the body. In its absence, number of
lymphocytes decrease.
180. Answer (3)
Hint : This toxin generally acts at pH around 8.
Sol. : Bt toxin is proteinaceous in nature and it
exists in inactive form but gets activated in midgut
of various insects in alkaline medium.