Exam

Name___________________________________

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

Figure 18.1

1) Which component in Figure 18.1 came from the patient in this ELISA test? 1)
A) a B) b C) c D) d E) e
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

2) A DNA plasmid encoding a protein antigen from West Nile virus is injected into muscle cells of a 2)
horse. This is an example of a(n)
A) subunit vaccine.
B) attenuated whole-agent vaccine.
C) conjugated vaccine.
D) live whole-agent vaccine.
E) nucleic acid vaccine.
Answer: E
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

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3) Which of the following is a pregnancy test used to find the fetal hormone HCG in a woman's urine 3)
using anti-HCG and latex spheres?
A) direct agglutination reaction
B) indirect agglutination reaction
C) immunofluorescence
D) neutralization reaction
E) precipitation reaction
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

Table 18.1

Antibody Titer
Day 1 Day 7 Day 14 Day 21
Patient A 0 0 256 512
Patient B 128 256 512 1024
Patient C 0 0 0 0
Patient D 128 128 128 128

4) In Table 18.1, who is most likely protected from the disease? 4)

A) Patient A B) Patient B C) Patient C D) Patient D
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)

5) Which of the following is NOT an advantage of live attenuated vaccine agents? 5)

A) They require few or no booster immunizations.
B) They stimulate by cell-mediated and humoral immune responses.
C) They occasionally revert to virulent forms.
D) They elicit lifelong immunity.
E) The immune response generated by the vaccine closely mimics a real infection.
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

2
6) What type of vaccine is the live measles virus? 6)
A) subunit vaccine
B) toxoid vaccine
C) attenuated whole-agent vaccine
D) conjugated vaccine
E) nucleic acid vaccine
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

7) Dead Bordetella pertussis can be used in a(n) 7)

A) inactivated whole-agent vaccine.
B) attenuated whole-agent vaccine.
C) conjugated vaccine.
D) subunit vaccine.
E) toxoid vaccine.
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

8) A patient’s serum, Mycobacterium, guinea pig complement, sheep red blood cells, and anti-sheep 8)
red blood cell antibodies are mixed in a test tube. What happens if the patient has antibodies to
Mycobacterium?
A) Bacteria fluoresce.
B) No hemolysis occurs.
C) Hemagglutination occurs.
D) Hemolysis occurs.
E) Hemagglutination-inhibition occurs.
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

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 9) In an immunodiffusion test to diagnose histoplasmosis, a patient's serum is placed in a well in an 9)
agar plate. In a positive test, a precipitate forms as the serum diffuses from the well and meets
material diffusing from a second well. In this test process, what is in the second well?
A) mycelia
B) red blood cells
C) antibodies
D) fungal cells
E) a fungal antigen
Answer: E
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

10) Which of the following uses fluorescent-labeled antibodies? 10)

A) flow cytometry
B) neutralization
C) agglutination
D) complement fixation
E) precipitation
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

11) Haemophilus capsule polysaccharide plus diphtheria toxoid is a(n) 11)

A) inactivated whole-agent vaccine.
B) attenuated whole-agent vaccine.
C) conjugated vaccine.
D) subunit vaccine.
E) toxoid vaccine.
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

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12) Purified protein from Bordetella pertussis is used in a(n) 12)
A) conjugated vaccine.
B) attenuated whole-agent vaccine.
C) toxoid vaccine.
D) nucleic acid vaccine.
E) subunit vaccine.
Answer: E
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

13) All of the following are generally used in vaccines EXCEPT 13)
A) parts of bacterial cells.
B) toxoids.
C) inactivated viruses.
D) antibodies.
E) live, attenuated bacteria.
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

Table 18.1

Antibody Titer
Day 1 Day 7 Day 14 Day 21
Patient A 0 0 256 512
Patient B 128 256 512 1024
Patient C 0 0 0 0
Patient D 128 128 128 128

14) In Table 18.1, who showed seroconversion during these observations? 14)
A) Patient A B) Patient B C) Patient C D) Patient D
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)

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15) In a direct ELISA test to screen for drugs in a patient’s urine, what is the third step in the test 15)
process?
A) the patient’s urine sample
B) substrate for the enzyme
C) antibody against the drug being tested
D) enzyme-labeled antibodies against the drug being tested
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)

16) In an agglutination test, eight serial dilutions to determine antibody titer were set up. Tube #1 16)
contained a 1:2 dilution; tube #2, a 1:4, etc. If tube #6 is the last tube showing agglutination, what is
the antibody titer?
A) 6 B) 64 C) 1:6 D) 1:32 E) 32
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

17) Which of the following statments about measles is FALSE? 17)

A) It is a serious disease.
B) Complications include pneumonia, encephalitis, and death.
C) It is preventable by vaccination.
D) The disease has been eradicated in the United States.
E) Annually, it kills thousands of children worldwide.
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

18) Inactivated tetanus toxin is a(n) 18)

A) conjugated vaccine.
B) subunit vaccine.
C) nucleic acid vaccine.
D) inactivated whole-agent vaccine.
E) toxoid vaccine.
Answer: E
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

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19) A test used to identify Streptococcus pyogenes in a patient's throat swab is the 19)
A) hemagglutination test.
B) hemagglutination-inhibition test.
C) indirect ELISA test.
D) direct fluorescent-antibody test.
E) indirect fluorescent-antibody test.
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

20) Palivizumab is used to treat respiratory syncytial virus disease. This antiviral drug is a(n) 20)
A) vaccine.
B) nucleoside analog.
C) toxoid.
D) immunosuppressive.
E) monoclonal antibody.
Answer: E
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

21) The following steps are used to produce monoclonal antibodies. What is the fourth step? 21)
A) Culture the hybridoma.
B) Isolate antibody-producing B cells.
C) A B cell is activated to produce antibodies.
D) Fuse a B cell to a myeloma cell.
E) Vaccinate a mouse.
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

22) A vaccine against HIV proteins made by vaccinia virus is a(n) 22)
A) conjugated vaccine.
B) subunit vaccine.
C) nucleic acid vaccine.
D) inactivated whole-agent vaccine.
E) toxoid vaccine.
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

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23) The clumping of test cells indicates a negative test result in the 23)
A) direct agglutination test.
B) indirect agglutination test.
C) viral hemagglutination inhibition test.
D) precipitation test.
E) complement-fixation test.
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

24) Monoclonal antibodies are used in diagnostic tests and disease treatments because they 24)
A) are highly specific.
B) can be produced in large quantities.
C) contain a mixture of antibodies.
D) are highly specific and they can be produced in large quantities.
E) are highly specific, they can be produced in large quantities, and they contain a mixture of
antibodies.
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

25) In an immunodiffusion test to diagnose histoplasmosis, a patient's serum is placed in a well in an 25)
agar plate. In a positive test, a line forms as the serum diffuses from the well and meets material
diffusing from a second well. What type of test is this?
A) an ELISA test
B) an agglutination reaction
C) a complement-fixation test
D) a direct test
E) a precipitation reaction
Answer: E
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

8
26) A hybridoma results from the fusion of a(an) 26)
A) antigen with a B cell.
B) myeloma cell with a virus.
C) B cell with a myeloma cell.
D) B cell with a T cell.
E) antigen with an antibody.
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

27) Hepatitis B virus surface antigen can be used in a(n) 27)

A) inactivated whole-agent vaccine.
B) attenuated whole-agent vaccine.
C) conjugated vaccine.
D) subunit vaccine.
E) toxoid vaccine.
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

28) A reaction that uses the absence of hemolysis of red blood cells to indicate an antigen antibody 28)
reaction is called a(n)
A) complement fixation.
B) agglutination reaction.
C) precipitation reaction.
D) neutralization reaction.
E) immunofluorescence.
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

29) Which of the following is a test to determine the presence of soluble antigens in a patient's saliva? 29)
A) direct agglutination reaction
B) passive agglutination reaction
C) immunofluorescence
D) neutralization reaction
E) precipitation reaction
Answer: E
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

9
30) Which of the following is a test to determine a patient's blood type by mixing the patient's red 30)
blood cells with antisera?
A) direct agglutination reaction
B) passive agglutination reaction
C) immunofluorescence
D) neutralization reaction
E) precipitation reaction
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

31) A patient shows the presence of antibodies against diphtheria toxin. Which of the following 31)
statements is FALSE?
A) The patient may have the disease.
B) The patient was near someone who had the disease.
C) A recent transfusion may have passively introduced the antibodies.
D) The patient may have been vaccinated.
E) The patient may have had the disease and has recovered.
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

Figure 18.1

32) Figure 18.1 is an illustration of a(an) 32)

A) indirect ELISA test.
B) direct ELISA test.
C) hemagglutination test.
D) precipitation test.
E) complement fixation test.
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

10
33) Which of the following tests is MOST useful in determining the presence of AIDS antibodies? 33)
A) direct fluorescent-antibody
B) agglutination
C) indirect ELISA
D) neutralization
E) complement fixation
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

34) A reaction between antibody and particulate antigen is called a(n) 34)
A) agglutination reaction.
B) complement fixation.
C) precipitation reaction.
D) immunofluorescence.
E) neutralization reaction.
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

35) Toxoid vaccines, such as the vaccines against diphtheria and tetanus, elicit a(n) 35)
A) immune complex.
B) antibody response against these bacterial toxins.
C) TC cell response.
D) dendritic cell proliferation.
E) antibody response against gram-positive bacteria.
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

11
 Table 18.1

Antibody Titer
Day 1 Day 7 Day 14 Day 21
Patient A 0 0 256 512
Patient B 128 256 512 1024
Patient C 0 0 0 0
Patient D 128 128 128 128

36) In Table 18.1, who probably has the disease? 36)

A) Patients C and D
B) Patients A and C
C) Patients A and D
D) Patients A and B
E) Patients B and C
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

37) An ELISA for Hepatitis C has 95 percent sensitivity and 90 percent specificity. This means that the 37)
test
A) detects 90 percent of the true positive samples and has 5 percent false positive results.
B) detects 5 percent of the true positive samples and has 90 percent false positive results.
C) detects 5 percent of the true positive samples and has 10 percent false positive results.
D) detects 95 percent of the true positive samples and has 10 percent false positive results.
E) detects 95 percent of the true positive samples and has 90 percent false positive results.
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

38) Live polio virus can be used in a(n) 38)

A) inactivated whole-agent vaccine.
B) attenuated whole-agent vaccine.
C) conjugated vaccine.
D) subunit vaccine.
E) toxoid vaccine.
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

12
39) A test used to detect anti-Rickettsia antibodies in a patient's serum is the 39)
A) indirect fluorescent-antibody test. B) direct fluorescent-antibody test.
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)

40) A reaction between an antibody and soluble antigen-forming lattices is called a(n) 40)
A) agglutination reaction.
B) immunofluorescence.
C) neutralization reaction.
D) precipitation reaction.
E) complement fixation.
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

41) What type of vaccine involves host synthesis of viral antigens? 41)
A) subunit vaccine
B) toxoid vaccine
C) nucleic acid vaccine
D) attenuated whole-agent vaccine
E) conjugated vaccine
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

42) Which item is from the patient in a direct ELISA test? 42)
A) substrate for the enzyme B) antibodies against the antigen
C) antihuman immune serum D) antigen
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)

13
 43) Which of the following are sources of antibodies for serological testing? 43)
A) vaccinated animals
B) monoclonal antibodies
C) viral cultures
D) vaccinated animals and monoclonal antibodies
E) vaccinated animals, monoclonal antibodies, and viral cultures
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

44) Patient's serum, influenza virus, and red blood cells are mixed in a tube. What happens if the 44)
patient has antibodies against influenza virus?
A) hemolysis
B) hemagglutination
C) complement fixation
D) agglutination
E) hemagglutination-inhibition
Answer: E
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

45) A test used to identify antibodies against Treponema pallidum in a patient's serum is the 45)
A) hemagglutination-inhibition test.
B) direct fluorescent-antibody test.
C) indirect fluorescent-antibody test.
D) direct ELISA test.
E) direct agglutination test.
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

46) A positive complement-fixation test in indicated by the lysis of the sheep red blood cells added in 46)
the indicator phase of the test.
Answer: True False
Explanation:

47) Blood typing tests are examples of hemagglutination reactions. 47)

Answer: True False
Explanation:

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 48) Western blotting uses antibodies to detect specific proteins in a mixture of proteins. 48)
Answer: True False
Explanation:

49) An injection of “naked” DNA into muscle cells to induce an immune response against the proteins 49)
encoded by the DNA is an example of a subunit vaccine.
Answer: True False
Explanation:

50) A highly specific diagnostic test will have very few false negative reactions. 50)
Answer: True False
Explanation:

51) The home pregnancy test kit is an example of a direct ELISA. 51)
Answer: True False
Explanation:

52) Agglutination tests use particulate antigens while precipitation tests use soluble antigens. 52)
Answer: True False
Explanation:

53) Vaccines are preparations of organisms or fractions of organisms that are used to induce protective 53)
immune responses.
Answer: True False
Explanation:

54) In a vaccine preparation, the term “attenuated” means that the agent does NOT replicate. 54)
Answer: True False
Explanation:

55) Adjuvants such as aluminum salts are used as additives in vaccines to enhance immune responses. 55)
Answer: True False
Explanation:

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

56) Describe an ELISA test to detect the presence of HIV antibodies in a patient.
Answer:

57) Design a serological test to detect botulinum toxin in food.

Answer:

58) In your work in a county public health clinic, you encounter parents of a three-month-old who are considering
not vaccinating their child. What concerns might the parents raise regarding vaccine safety? As a microbiology
student and public health care worker, what do you say to these parents regarding the risks of not vaccinating
their child?
Answer:

15
Answer Key
Testname: C18

1) B
2) E
3) B
4) D
5) C
6) C
7) A
8) B
9) E
10) A
11) C
12) E
13) D
14) A
15) D
16) B
17) D
18) E
19) D
20) E
21) D
22) B
23) C
24) D
25) E
26) C
27) D
28) A
29) E
30) A
31) B
32) A
33) C
34) A
35) B
36) D
37) D
38) B
39) A
40) D
41) C
42) D
43) D
44) E
45) C
46) FALSE
47) TRUE
48) TRUE
49) FALSE
50) FALSE
16
Answer Key
Testname: C18

51) TRUE
52) TRUE
53) TRUE
54) FALSE
55) TRUE
56)
57)
58)

17