NUCLEUS SCHOLARSHIP EXAM.

(NSE) 2018-19
CLASS – VI
SCHOLARSHIP TEST C
Time : 2 Hrs. Max. Marks : 320

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
1. The Test Booklet consists of 80 questions. The maximum marks are 320.
2. This question paper consisting of 80 questions as follows:
Single Choice Question (Only one correct response) :
Physics Q.1-10, Chemistry 11-20, Biology 21-30, Mathematics 31-45 and Mental Ability 46-60.
Integer Type (One or two digit response) : For example answer 1 should be written as 01.

DO NOT BREAK THE SEAL WITHOUT BEING INSTRUCTED TO DO SO BY THE INVIGILATOR.

Physics Q.61-65, Chemistry 66-70, Mathematics 71-80.
3. Each question is allotted 4 (Four) marks for correct response. No mark will be deducted for indicating incorrect
response.
4. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, mobile phone, any
electronic device (calculator) etc. except the Admit Card inside the examination room/hall.
5. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only. This space is given at
the bottom of each page.
6. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet (ORS) to the Invigilator on duty in the
Room/Hall.
7. NSE answer key will be displayed on www.nucleuseducation.in on 14 th August, 2018 at 5 pm IST.
8. Please match the answer key with the correct paper code from the nucleus website.
OPTICAL RESPONSE SHEET
9. Darken the appropriate bubbles on the ORS by applying sufficient pressure. This will leave an impression at the
corresponding place on the Candidate’s Sheet.
10. The ORS will be collected by the invigilator at the end of the examination.
11. Do not tamper with or mutilate the ORS and Question Paper. Do not use the ORS for rough work.
12. Write your name, roll number and paper code and sign with pen in the space provided for this purpose on the ORS.
Do not write any of these details anywhere else on the ORS. Darken the appropriate bubble under each digit of
your roll number.
DARKENING THE BUBBLES ON THE ORS
13. Use a BLACK or BLUE BALL POINT PEN to darken the bubbles on the ORS.
14. Darken the bubble COMPLETELY.
15. The correct way of darkening a bubble is:
16. The ORS is machine-gradable. Ensure that the bubbles are darkened in the correct way.
17. Response like this : will be considered incorrect.
18. Darken the bubbles ONLY IF you are sure of the answer. There is NO WAY to erase or “un-darken” a darkened bubble.

Name of the Candidate Roll Number

I have read all the instructions and shall abide by them. I have verified all the information filled in by the Candidate.

Signature of the Candidate Signature of the invigilator

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 Scholarship Test (Class-VI – Code-C) PCCP

SINGLE CHOICE QUESTION

Physics (Q.1 to 10)

1. Which of the following shows movements without changing their place?

(i) The pivoted point of a clock hand
(ii) The opening and closing of flowers
(iii) A flying bird in sky
(A) Only (i) and (ii) (B) Only (ii) and (iii) (C) Only (i) and (iii) (D) All the three

2. Which of the following options is correct for the object having a straight line motion represented by the
following graph?
D
C

B
t

A
O
s

(A) The object moves with constantly increasing velocity from O to A and then it moves with constant
velocity.
(B) Velocity of the object increases uniformly
(C) Average velocity is zero
(D) The graph shown is impossible

3. Sonali moves on a straight road from point A to point C. She takes 20 minutes to cover a certain distance AB
and 30 minutes to cover the rest of distance BC. She then turns back and takes 30 minutes to cover the
distance CB and 20 minutes to cover the rest of the distance to her starting point. She makes 5 rounds on the
road the same way. Sonali concludes that her motion is
(A) only rectilinear motion (B) only periodic motion
(C) rectilinear and periodic both (D) neither rectilinear nor periodic

4. Which of the following is not equal to watt?

(A) Joule/second (B) Ampere  volt (C) (Ampere)2  ohm (D) Ampere/volt

5. An inclined plane allows you to apply _______.

(A) a greater force (B) the same force (C) no force (D) a lesser force
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 Scholarship Test (Class-VI – Code-C) PCCP
6. If u1 and u2 are the units selected in two systems of measurement and n1 and n2 their numerical values, then
(A) n1u1 = n2u2 (B) n1u1 + n2u2 = 0
(C) n1n2 = u1u2 (D) (n1 + u1) = (n 2 + u2)

7. The numerical ratio of displacement to the distance covered in one complete circular path is always
(A) Less than one (B) Equal to one
(C) Equal to or less than one (D) Equal to zero

8. Which of the following is not a unit of time?

(A) Leap year (B) Micro second
(C) Lunar month (D) Light year

9. Density of wood is 0 .5 gm / cc in the CGS system of units. The corresponding value in MKS system of units is
(A) 500 (B) 50 (C) 0.5 (D) 5000

10. What happens to the total amount of work done when you use a machine compared to not using a machine?
(A) It increases (B) It goes to zero
(C) It stays the same (D) It decreases

Chemistry (Q.11 to 20)

11.
Change

P Q R S
 Original substance  Molecular composition  Formation of idli from  Tearing of paper.
Can be obtained. of substance changes. batter.  Melting of butter.
 Water is boiled  Curdling of milk.  Boiling of an egg.  Drying of clothes.
To form steam.  Original substance
Can’t be obtained.
Identify the correct match.
P Q R S
(A) Irreversible change Chemical change Physical change Irreversible change
(B) Physical change Chemical change Irreversible change Physical change
(C) Reversible change Reversible change Temporary change Reversible change
(D) Temporary change Reversible change Physical change Chemical change

Space for rough work

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 Scholarship Test (Class-VI – Code-C) PCCP
12.

K
L

Salt Water Solution

In the above diagram, a salt solution was prepared by Raghu. K & L respectively are :
(A) Water, Water (B) Salt, Water (C) Water, Salt (D) Can not be determined
13.
Process – I Process – III
Very Little Molecules can move Molecules are separated
Free space Process – II or slide past Process – IV
with no regular
between molecules one another arrangement

Physical State X Physical State Y Physical State Z

Identify the correct option from the following based on the diagram given above :
I II II IV
(A) Melting Freezing Boiling Condensation
(B) Freezing Melting Condensation Boiling
(C) Boiling Melting Freezing Condensation
(D) Melting Freezing Condensation Boiling
14.
Component of air

Yes
Form micelles with dust Yes
particles P

No

Moderately soluble in Yes

water Q

No
Essential for growth Yes
of living beings R

Chose the correct options that state names of P, Q, R respectively :

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 Scholarship Test (Class-VI – Code-C) PCCP
(A) P–Carbon dioxide, Q– Nitrogen, R– Oxygen
(B) P– Carbon dioxide, Q– Argon, R– Oxygen
(C) P–Water vapour, Q– Carbon dioxide, R– Nitrogen
(D) P– Water vapour, Q – Oxygen, R– Nitrogen
15. Statement I : Syringe used by doctors work on the principle that air exerts pressure.
Statement II : Air has mass.
(A) Both statements I and II are true and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I.
(B) Both statements I and II are true but statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I.
(C) Statement I is true but statement II is false.
(D) Statement I is false but statement II is true.

Made up of Made up of
16. Matter   I   II,
I & II respectively are :
(A) Compounds, Atoms (B) Molecules, Compounds
(C) Molecules, Atoms (D) Atoms, Elements

17. Statement I : Matter made up of different atoms joined together in fixed ratio is called a compound.
Statement II : Mass depends upon volume.
(A) Both statements I and II are true and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I.
(B) Both statements I and II are true but statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I.
(C) Statement I is true but statement II is false.
(D) Statement I is false but statement II is true.

18. Aditya went for swimming one day. When he reached there, he observed that level of water was so high for
him. So, he got afraid & suddenly, he observed that there were tubes available which may help him to float on
water.
For this, he started blowing air into the tube. What conclusion can he made from the above incidence?
(A) Air has mass (B) Air occupy space
(C) Air is a matter (D) Both (B) & (C)

19. 
heating
Solid wax  Liquid wax.
Cooling

What can you infer from the above data?

(A) This shows chemical change (B) This shows physical change
(C) This shows reversible change (D) Both (B) and (C)

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 Scholarship Test (Class-VI – Code-C) PCCP
20. Shikha, on one day was helping her mother in the kitchen. Suddenly, she saw that a power cut has taken
place. So, she lit the candle nearby the place they were working. Now, she observed that when her mother
opened a bottle of cold drink near the candle, the candle blew off.
What can you infer from the above situation?
(A) Cold drink contains O2 gas (B) Cold drink is liquid
(C) Cold drink contains N2 gas (D) Cold drink contains CO2 gas in the form of fizz

Biology (Q.21 to 30)

21. A typical brain weights how much?
(A) 1300 gram (B) 1200 gram (C) 1000 gram (D) 50 gram
22. All the function and control of our body is performed by
(A) Nervous system (B) Brain (C) Endocrine system (D) All of these
23. The unit of nervous system is
(A) Neuron (B) Cell (C) Mitochondria (D) Nephron
24. The attachment of pollen from anther to the stigma of flower is called:
(A) Fertilization (B) Pollination (C) Adhesion (D) Syngany
a b
25. Ovary & Ovule always produce and
a b
(A) Endosperm Seed
(B) Seed Fruit
(C) Fruit Seed
(D) Seed Endosperm
26. A thing is living thing if it performs which of the following process :
(A) Growth, Respire and Movement (B) Respire, Reproduce and Listening
(C) Movement, Singing and Dancing (D) Digestion, Absorption and Assimilation
27. The essential organs in a flower are
(A) The sepal and stamen (B) The petal and pistil
(C) The stamen and pistil (D) The sepal and petal
28. The colour of corolla part of flower is to :
(A) Look beautiful (B) For photosynthesis
(C) To attract insects for pollination (D) No function

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 Scholarship Test (Class-VI – Code-C) PCCP
29. The nervous system is made up of these three parts :
(A) Brain, heart, and spinal cord (B) Brain, spinal cord and nervous
(C) Nervous, arteries and veins (D) Nervous, lever and heart
30. In the following diagram A, B, C, D are :

A
B

C
D

A B C D
(A) Stigma Style Ovary Ovule
(B) Stigma Ovary Ovule Style
(C) Style Ovary Stigma Ovule
(D) Style Ovary Ovule Stigma

Mathematics (Q.31 to 45)

31. Meena is pasting pieces of square coloured paper of equal size onto a board measuring 72 cm by 90 cm. If
only whole square pieces are used, and the board is to be completely covered, find the largest possible length
of the side of each square coloured paper.
(A) 14 cm (B) 18 cm (C) 20 cm (D) 16 cm
32. Which of the following is obtained when 1690 is rounded to nearest thousand?
(A) 1700 (B) 2000 (C) 1600 (D) 1000
33. The number which is neither prime nor composite is :
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 5 (D) None of these
34. Find the place value of 0 in 78091.
(A) 100 (B) 10 (C) 1000 (D) 0

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35. A tea stall owner consumes in his shop 2 litres of milk in the morning and 1 litres of milk in the evening.
2 2
The total amount of milk he consumes in his stall is
(A) 4 litres (B) 6 litres (C) 7 litres (D) 8 litres
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 Scholarship Test (Class-VI – Code-C) PCCP
36. Round 5792 to the nearest hundred
(A) 5700 (B) 5790 (C) 5730 (D) 5800

37. 60 + 40000 + 700 + 9000 + 5 + 800000 = ____

(A) 849706 (B) 874960 (C) 849765 (D) 890000

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38. Equivalent fraction of with denominator 162 is
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117 107 94 69
(A) (B) (C) (D)
162 162 162 162

39. If divisor =135, quotient = 78 and remainder = 28, then dividend is ________
(A) 10558 (B) 10586 (C) 105.58 (D) 10.558

40. Rohit exercised for 3/6 of an hour, while Manu exercised for 3/4 of an hour. Then the longest time will taken
by
(A) Rohit (B) Manu
(C) Rohit will take 15 minutes only (D) Manu will take 1 hour only

41. 123123 ÷ 123 = 100 + ______

(A) 1 (B) 91 (C) 901 (D) 11

42. Which pair of operations will make the equation below true when inserted into the blank spaces in the order
shown?
3
2 _____ 1.5 ______ 2 = 1.8
10
(A) – and + (B) × and + (C) + and – (D) × and –

43. An example for twin primes is .......

(A) 11, 17 (B) 5, 11 (C) 5, 7 (D) 3, 7

44. The product of four consecutive natural numbers plus one is?
(A) a non-square
(B) always sum of two square numbers
(C) a square
(D) None of the above

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 Scholarship Test (Class-VI – Code-C) PCCP
45. Teja picked 6 of the balls shown below.

He correctly wrote two fractions to represent the part of the group of balls he picked .Which two fractions
could Teja have written?
1 6 6 1 1 4 6 2
(A) and (B) and (C) and (D) and
2 12 12 6 2 6 12 3

Mental Ability (Q.46 to 60)

46. 1, 4, 27, 16, 125, 36, ?

(A) 216 (B) 343 (C) 64 (D) 49

47. Look at the given series: 1, 9, 1, 11, 1, 13, 1, __ . What number should come next?
(A) 14 (B) 15 (C) 21 (D) 23

48.

(A) 15 (B) 5 (C) 21 (D) 1

49. What is the value of 10 × 10 – 10 + 20 ÷ 10 ?
(A) 29 (B) 78 (C) 92 (D) 97
50. Vishal walked 15 metre in South, then he turned to the left and walked 15 metre. He again turned to his left
and walked 15 metre. How far is he from his original position?
(A) 45 metre (B) 15 metre (C) 30 metre (D) 35 metre
51. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters ERTU using each letter only once in each
word?
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) More than two

52. If REASON is coded as 5 and BELIEVED as 7, what is the code number for GOVERNMENT?
(A) 6 (B) 8 (C) 9 (D) 10

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 Scholarship Test (Class-VI – Code-C) PCCP
53. Which of the following letter is fifteenth to the right of the sixth letter from the left end of the given
arrangement?
DUBCABEDCABUDCBAEDBCADEBAUCDAEB
(A) D (B) B (C) E (D) A

54. AH, DL, GP, JT, ?

(A) MY (B) NX (C) MX (D) NY

55. In a telephone directory, which of the following names will appear in the last?
(A) Sajewat (B) Segvan (C) Sajevar (D) Sajewet

56. Count the number of squares in the following figure :

(A) 15 (B) 21 (C) 26 (D) 24

57. In each of the following questions, four words are given, out of which three are same in one way and the
fourth one is different from others. Select the odd one.
(A) July (B) May (C) June (D) March

58. In a certain code if "pen" is called "pencil", "pencil" is called "eraser" and "eraser" is called "book", then
what will be used to erase something done wrong?
(A) Pen (B) Pencil (C) Eraser (D) Book

Directions : (Q.59) Out of the four figures (A), (B), (C) & (D), given in problem, three are similar in a certain way.
However, one figure is not like the other four. Choose the figure which is different from the rest

59. (A) (B) (C) (D)

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 Scholarship Test (Class-VI – Code-C) PCCP
Directions : (Q.60) In following problem, a related pair of figures is followed by five numbered pairs of figures.
Select the pair that has a relationship similar to that in the original pair.

60.
(X)

(A) (B) (C) (D)

INTEGER TYPE (ANSWER IN TWO DIGITS)

Physics (Q.61 to 65)

61. Bholu and Golu are playing in a ground. They start running from the same point A on the ground and reach
point B at the same time by following the paths (in meter) respectively as shown in figure below. If the
velocity ratio (R1) and speed ratio (R2) of Bholu and Golu? Calculate R1+R2. (write only integer part)

25

25
35.35

62. A 100-m long ski lift carries skiers from a station at the foot of a slope to a second station 50m above. What is
the IMA of the lift?

63. A 100 m long train is moving with a uniform velocity of 45 km/hr. The time taken by the train to cross a
bridge of length 1 km is (in sec.)?

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 Scholarship Test (Class-VI – Code-C) PCCP
64. In C.G.S. system the magnitude of the force is 100 dynes. In another system where the fundamental physical
quantities are kilogram, metre and minute, the magnitude of the force is (write only integer part).

65. The distance between fulcrum and dead weights is 100 mm. Dead weights are of 2945.2N. An effort of
294.52N acts on the other hand. Find the distance between the fulcrum and other end of the lever (in m).

Chemistry (Q.66 to 70)

66. I. The blanket of air, which surrounds earth’s surface is known as atmosphere.
II. The percentage of oxygen gas in air is 21.5%.
III. Air is a mixture of gases.
IV. Air pollution can be prevented by planting more & more trees.
How many sentences among the above given sentences are correct.

67. Naphthalene balls, cotton, iodine, odonil, moth balls, bromine, dry ice, paper.
How many substances given above sublime.

68. CaO, O2, CaCO3, He, N2, NO 2, H2, Ca(OH)2

How many substances given above are compounds?

69. N2, O2, Cl2, Fe, Cu, H2, NO 2, Al, Au, CO2, CO.
How many substances given above have their molecules loosely packed

70. A living thing can live for some days without food. We can live for a fewer number of days without water.
One cannot stay alive for even a few minutes without air. Air is a mixture of gases. How many gases present
in the air have greater than 20% of total composition?

Mathematics (Q.71 to 80)

71. If Reeta has 12 chocolates and She gave 5 to you, then what fraction of chocolates was Reeta left with.

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72. The product of two numbers is 5 . One of the 11. Find the other. (Give your answer multiplying by 10)
2

73. A rectangular courtyard 3.78 metres long and 5.25 metres wide is to be paved exactly with square tiles, all of
the same size. What is the largest size of the tile which could be used for the purpose?

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 Scholarship Test (Class-VI – Code-C) PCCP
74. Write the sum of last two digits of the 6-digit greatest number by using the digits 1, 9, 3, 0, 4

75. Raju is 22 years old and Ramu is 19 years old. Write the difference of their ages.

76. 623 boys are playing cricket. They play in groups of 7. How many groups are there?

77. The least number to be subtracted from 13,601 to get a number exactly divisible by 87 is

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78. The population of the village is 1,80,810. of the population are males. What is the sum of digit of the
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female population of the village?

79. A can can hold 12.5 litres of mixed fruit juice. 4.035 litres of apple juice and 6 litres 15 ml of orange juice
have been poured in the can. What would be the amount of grape juice that can still be added in the can?
(Give your answer multiplying by 100 ÷ 5)

80. A king had 45750 kg of wheat grains in his store house. Total consumption of wheat required by people is
5790 kg. Rest are to be consumed by soldiers. There are 111 soldiers and each soldier consumes 6 kg wheat
per day. The duration for which wheat will last for the soldiers is

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