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Code: 15A01601 R15

B.Tech III Year II Semester (R15) Regular Examinations May/June 2018


CONCRETE TECHNOLOGY
(Civil Engineering)
Time: 3 hours Max. Marks: 70
PART – A
(Compulsory Question)
*****
1 Answer the following: (10 X 02 = 20 Marks)
(a) What do you understand by initial setting time and final setting time of cement?
(b) What are the factors governing the use of maximum size of aggregate in reinforced concrete?
(c) Why is curing necessary?
(d) What is bleeding and segregation in concrete?
(e) What is meant by high performance concrete?
(f) What is the principle of bacterial concrete?
(g) What is creep?
(h) Why is elastic moduli important for concrete?
(i) Explain the significance of quality control of concrete.
(j) Distinguish nominal and designed mixes?

PART – B
(Answer all five units, 5 X 10 = 50 Marks)
UNIT – I
2 (a) Describe ‘bulking’ of aggregates and method to determine it.
(b) What is the optimum dosage of super plasticizer? How do you determine the same?
OR
3 (a) Discuss in brief the alkali-aggregate reaction. What precautions are necessary to minimize?
(b) Describe the hydration reaction of important Bogue’s compounds indicating the products of hydration.
UNIT – II
4 (a) Discuss various methods of curing concrete and their suitability.
(b) Explain the rheology of the concrete in terms of Bingham’s parameter.
OR
5 (a) Determine the capillary porosity, total porosity and gel/space ratio for a cement paste with w/c ratio 0.5
and degree of hydration 90%.
(b) What are the various factors which affect the workability of concrete?
UNIT – III
6 (a) Explain the effect of volume, aspect ratio and orientation of fibres on fibre reinforced concrete.
(b) Discuss in brief the properties of high performance concrete in fresh and hardened state.
OR
7 (a) Explain the behavior of SFRC under compression, tension and flexure.
(b) What are the different aggregates that would be used in light weight aggregate? Mention the demerits of
light weight aggregate.
UNIT – IV
8 (a) List the most important factors that affect drying shrinkage and creep.
(b) What are the principles behind the following test procedures: Schmidt hammer test, Windsor probe test,
pullout test and ultra sonic pulse velocity test?
OR
9 (a) Why are shrinkage and creep treated together?
(b) Explain how to determine the static and dynamic modulus of elasticity of concrete.
UNIT – V
10 Design the concrete mix of M25 grade by BIS method with following data:
Specific gravities of cement, fine aggregate and coarse aggregates as 3.12, 2.90 and 2.60 respectively.
Water absorption values for fine and coarse aggregates as 0.80 and 0.50 respectively. No Free moisture
in both the aggregates. Slump to be 100 mm. Degree of quality control is good. Exposure condition is
moderate. Determine the quantities of ingredients in kg/m3 of concrete.
OR
11 (a) Explain the factors affecting the mix design of concrete.
(b) Describe the procedure in adopting ACI method of concrete mix design.
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Code: 15A01602 R15
B.Tech III Year II Semester (R15) Regular Examinations May/June 2018
DESIGN & DRAWING OF STEEL STRUCTURES
(Civil Engineering)
Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 70
Use of IS 800:2007, IS:875 (Part III)-1987, structural steel tables are to be permitted in the examination hall
PART – A
(Answer any one question, 1 × 28 marks)
*****
1 A simply supported welded plate girder has an effective span of 30 m with a u.d.l of 30 kN/m and a two
concentrated load of 150 kN each acting at 10 m from both ends. It is fully restrained against lateral
buckling throughout the span. Design the central section using thin web with K = 100 and end bearing
stiffener. Also design the welded connection between flange and web. Take fy = 250 MPa, fu = 415 MPa
and ultimate stress of weld = 410 MPa. Also design curtailment of plate.

2 Design a gantry girder to be used in an industrial building carrying a manually operated overhead travelling
crane, for the following data:
(i) Crane capacity 200 kN.
(ii) Self-weight of the crane girder excluding trolley 200 kN.
(iii) Self-weight of the trolley, electric motor, hook, etc. 40 kN
(iv) Approximate minimum approach of the crane hook to the gantry girder 1.20 m.
(v) Wheel base 3.5 m.
(vi) c/c distance between gantry rails 16 m.
(vii) c/c distance between columns (span of gantry girder) 8 m.
(viii) Self-weight of rail section 300 N/m.
(ix) Diameter of crane wheels 150 mm.
(x) Steel is of grade Fe410.
Design also the field welded connection if required. The support bracket connection need not be designed.
Draw cross section of gantry girder.

PART – B
(Answer any three questions, 3 × 14 marks)

3 (a) Explain various modes of failure (behavior) of bolted connections with neat sketches.
(b) Design a single angle tension member to carry a design tensile load of 400 kN. Gusset plate is of 8 mm
thickness. Adopt 20 mm diameter black bolts for connection.

4 (a) Design a slab base for a column ISHB 300@577 N/m carrying an axial load of 1000 kN. Adopt M20
concrete and welded connection between column and base plate.
(b) Discuss general requirement for battening system as per IS 800.

5 (a) A simply supported beam of span 5 m is subjected to a superimposed load of 30 kN/m over entire span
and a concentrated load of 200 kN at mid span. Design the beam and check for deflection and shear. The
beam is laterally supported throughout.
(b) Differentiate between laterally supported beam and laterally unsupported beam with neat sketches.

6 (a) An ISMB 300@433.6 N/m beam has to be connected to the flange of an ISHB 200@392.4 N/m column
with 20 mm dia. bolt. Design unstiffened seated connection for a factored beam reaction of 120 kN.
Consider seat angle 150 x 75 x 12 mm and clearance between the beam end and column = 3 mm.
(b) How are the building connections classified based on their moment rotation characteristics?

7 Design a hand operated travelling crane simply supported by gantry girder for the given data: Span of
gantry girder = 5 m, span of crane girder = 15 m, crane capacity = 200 kN, self-weight of crane girder
excluding trolley = 200 kN, self –weight of trolley = 30 kN, minimum hook approach = 1 m, distance
between wheels = 3.5 m c/c, self-weight of rails = 0.3 kN/m. Checks for buckling and deflections are not
required.
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*****
Code: 15A01603 R15
B.Tech III Year II Semester (R15) Regular Examinations May/June 2018
GEOTECHNICAL ENGINEERING – II
(Civil Engineering)
Time: 3 hours Max. Marks: 70
PART – A
(Compulsory Question)
*****
1 Answer the following: (10 X 02 = 20 Marks)
(a) What are the purposes of site investigations?
(b) What are the factors that affect the sample disturbance?
(c) What are different types of slope failures?
(d) What is a stability number?
(e) What are the factors affecting the magnitude of lateral earth pressure?
(f) What are the assumptions in Coulomb’s theory?
(g) Define ‘ultimate bearing capacity’.
(h) What is factor controlling the allowable soil pressure for foundation in cohesive soils?
(i) What are the conditions where a pile foundation is more suitable than a shallow foundation?
(j) What do you understand by grip length?

PART – B
(Answer all five units, 5 X 10 = 50 Marks)
UNIT – I
2 Explain in detail about plate load test in detail.
OR
3 Describe various methods of drilling holes for sub-surface investigations.
UNIT – II
4 Describe Bishop’s simplified method. What are the advantages over Swedish circle method.
OR
5 A dam of homogeneous section is 25 m high with upstream slope of 2.5 to 1.0 and downstream slope of
2 to 1. There is a 12 m long horizontal filter at the downstream end. Taking a free board of 3 m,
determine: (i) Factor of safety of downstream slope under steady seepage condition. (ii) Factor of safety
of upstream slope under sudden drawdown conditions.
UNIT – III
6 Discuss Culmann’s method for the determination of active earth pressure.
OR
7 Determine the passive pressure by Rankine’s theory per unit run for a retaining wall 4 m high, with
i = 15 , and . The backface of the wall is smooth and vertical.
UNIT – IV
8 How would you estimate the settlements of a foundation on cohesion less soils?
OR
9 A strip footing 2 m wide is to be laid at a depth of 4 m in a purely cohesive soil
. Determine the ultimate bearing capacity from: (i) Terzaghi’s theory. (ii) Skempton’s
theory.
UNIT – V
10 A group of nine piles, 8 m long, is used for a column. The piles are 30 cm diameter with centre to centre
spacing of 90 cm. The subsoil consists of clay with unconfined compression strength of 180 kN/m2.
Estimate the safe load. Take factor of safety as 3.0.
OR
11 Explain the various forces acting on a well foundation.

*****

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Code: 15A01604 R15
B.Tech III Year II Semester (R15) Regular Examinations May/June 2018
TRANSPORTATION ENGINEERING – I
(Civil Engineering)
Time: 3 hours Max. Marks: 70
PART – A
(Compulsory Question)
*****
1 Answer the following: (10 X 02 = 20 Marks)
(a) Explain briefly about star and grid pattern of road network.
(b) What are the different phases of highway engineering?
(c) What are the factors to be considered for providing camber?
(d) Discuss about grade compensation and critical length of grade in highways.
(e) Explain the use of 30th hourly volume.
(f) The time for covering a stretch of 200 m by ten vehicles in seconds are 12, 11, 13, 14.3, 15.5, 12.5, 12,
1.2, 14.1 and 13.6. Compute time mean speed and space mean speeds.
(g) What should be the criteria for selecting width of weaving section in rotary design as per IRC?
(h) What are the advantages of one way traffic?
(i) Explain the functionality of dowel bars in rigid pavements.
(j) List out the parameters required for computing Group Index of a soil.

PART – B
(Answer all five units, 5 X 10 = 50 Marks)
UNIT – I
2 (a) Explain the functional classification of highways.
(b) Explain the role of reconnaissance survey in finalizing highway alignment.
OR
3 What are the guide lines given by third road development plan for finalizing different types of highways?
UNIT – II
4 Design the length of a horizontal transition curve for a two lane National highway having a radius of
300 m and for a design speed of 100 kmph for a rolling terrain. The average length of rigid base of
vehicle is considered as 6 m. Take coefficient of lateral friction 0.38.
OR
5 Derive an expression for extra widening on highway curves and also explain method of introducing extra
widening.
UNIT – III
6 Explain briefly about various O-D studies and the importance of desire lines.
OR
7 What is level of service and give the factors influencing level of service?
UNIT – IV
8 Explain the advantages and disadvantages of grade separated intersection.
OR
9 What are the different corrections to be applied in estimating rotary capacity?
UNIT – V
10 Explain the functionality of various layers in flexible pavements.
OR
11 Discuss about the critical combination of stresses to be considered in the design of rigid pavements.

*****

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Code: 15A01605 R15
B.Tech III Year II Semester (R15) Regular Examinations May/June 2018
WATER RESOURCES ENGINEERING – I
(Civil Engineering)
Time: 3 hours Max. Marks: 70
PART – A
(Compulsory Question)
*****
1 Answer the following: (10 X 02 = 20 Marks)
(a) Distinguish between scientific hydrology and engineering hydrology. State one example under each
case.
(b) Enumerate various methods of field evaporation.
(c) State any two merits and demerits of unit hydrograph.
(d) Distinguish between confined, unconfined and leaky aquifers.
(e) Enumerate methods of improving duty.
(f) Enlist functions of irrigation water.
(g) State any two merits of Lacey’s theory over Kennedy’s theory.
(h) Enumerate causes of water logging.
(i) Distinguish between weir and barrage.
(j) Enlist the requirements to be fulfilled by canal outlets.
PART – B
(Answer all five units, 5 X 10 = 50 Marks)
UNIT – I
2 The shape of a catchment approximately resembles a square of side 8 km. With reference to an x-y
coordinate frame whose origin is coinciding with one of the corners of the catchment then locations of the
four corners of the catchment are (0, 0), (8, 0), (8, 8) and (0, 8). There are four rain gauges A, B, C and D
within this catchment whose position with reference to the same coordinate frame are (2, 2), (6, 2), (6, 6)
and (2, 6) respectively. The rainfall recorded by the rain gauges A, B, C and D during a storm are 8, 6, 9
and 11 cm respectively. Determine the average depths of rainfall over the catchment by Arithmetic mean
and Thiessen methods.
OR
3 A reservoir with a surface area of 250 hectares had the following average values of parameters during a
week: Water temperature = 20°C, relative humidity = 40%, wind velocity at 1.0 m above ground =
16 km/h. Estimate the average daily evaporation from the lake using Mayer’s formula and the volume of
water evaporated from the lake during that one week.
UNIT – II
4 The ordinates of a 6-h unit hydrograph for a catchment are given below. Derive and plot a 12-h unit
hydrograph for the catchment.
Ordinates of 6-h
Time (h)
UH (m3/S)
0 0
6 20
12 60
18 150
24 120
30 90
36 66
42 50
48 32
54 20
60 10
66 0
OR
5 An unconfined aquifer has a thickness of 30 m. A fully penetrating 20 cm diameter well in this aquifer is
pumped at a rate of 35 lit/s. The drawdown measured in two observation wells located at distance of
10 m and 100 m from the well are 7.5 m and 0.5 m respectively. Determine the average hydraulic
conductivity of the aquifer. At what distance from the well the drawdown is insignificant
Contd. in page 2

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Code: 15A01605 R15

UNIT – III
6 Define the terms: Duty and Delta. Drive the relationship between Duty and Delta
OR
7 A watercourse has a culturable commanded area of 1500 hectares. The intensity of Irrigation for crop A
is 45% and for B is 40%, both the crops being rabi crops. Crop A has a kor period of 20 days and crop B
has kor period of 15 days. Calculate the discharge of watercourse if the kor depth for crop A is 10cm and
for B it is 16 cm
UNIT – IV
8 Design an irrigation channel using Lacey’s theory for the data given below:
Discharge, Q = 50 cumecs
Silt factor, f =1
Side slops =½:1
OR
9 Explain briefly the various types of canal lining with examples.
UNIT – V
10 Draw a neat sketch of Diversion head work and name various components in it. Also state function of
each component.
OR
11 Design a submerged pipe outlet for the following data:
Discharge through outlet = 0.06 m3/s
F.S.L. of distributing canal = 100.00 m
F.S.L. of water course = 99.90m
Full supply depth of distributing canal = 1.1 m
Assume an average value of coefficient of discharge = 0.75.

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Code: 15A02601 R15
B.Tech III Year II Semester (R15) Regular Examinations May/June 2018
POWER SEMICONDUCTOR DRIVES
(Electrical & Electronics Engineering)
Time: 3 hours Max. Marks: 70
PART – A
(Compulsory Question)
*****
1 Answer the following: (10 X 02 = 20 Marks)
(a) How do you classify electric drives?
(b) What are the basic elements of electric drive?
(c) What is the principle of regenerative braking mode?
(d) If a dual converter is used as a drive, how do you set the firing angles to operate in the third quadrant?
(e) What are the differences between chopper fed DC motor and converter fed DC motor?
(f) In chopper fed DC motor, how can you achieve continuous current operation?
(g) What are the advantages of AC drives?
(h) In stator frequency control of a 3-phase induction motor, why the ratio V/F is maintained constant for
speeds below base speed.
(i) What do you mean by self control of synchronous motor?
(j) Name some applications of synchronous motors.
PART – B
(Answer all five units, 5 X 10 = 50 Marks)
UNIT – I
2 Describe the working of a single-phase semi converter fed separately-excited DC motor with relevant
waveforms and expressions. State the assumptions made.
OR
3 Derive the expression for torque of a DC series motor. Also draw and explain its speed-torque
characteristics.
UNIT – II
4 (a) Draw neatly the block diagram of closed loop operation of DC motor.
(b) Write short note on plugging.
OR
5 A 200 V, 1000 rpm, 10A separately-excited DC motor is fed from a single phase full converter with AC
source voltage of 230 V, 50 Hz. Armature circuit resistance is 1 . Armature current is continuous. The
motor is controlled in regenerative braking mode. For a firing angle of 120 determine: (i) The power
returned to the supply. (ii) Speed during regenerative braking.
UNIT – III
6 A dc series motor, fed from 40 V dc source through a chopper, has the following parameters: -

The average armature current of 200 A is ripple free. For a chopper duty cycle of 60%, determine:
(i) The input power from the source. (ii) Motor speed. (iii) Motor toque.
OR
7 With neat circuit diagram and waveforms, explain the four quadrant chopper fed DC separately excited
motor.
UNIT – IV
8 What is slip power recovery scheme? What are its types? Explain any one with neat diagram.
OR
9 Write short on the following: (i) PWM control of inverter. (ii) V/F control of induction motor.
UNIT – V
10 With neat circuit diagram, explain the operation of load commutated CSi fed synchronous motor.
OR
11 (a) Briefly explain about variable frequency control of synchronous motor.
(b) List some of the applications of synchronous motors.
*****
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Code: 15A02602 R15
B.Tech III Year II Semester (R15) Regular Examinations May/June 2018
POWER SYSTEM PROTECTION
(Electrical and Electronics Engineering)
Time: 3 hours Max. Marks: 70
PART – A
(Compulsory Question)
*****
1 Answer the following: (10 X 02 = 20 Marks)
(a) What are the functions of protective relays?
(b) Define the operating time of a relay.
(c) List out the types of relays.
(d) What are the uses of Buchholz’s relay?
(e) What are the merits of carrier current protection?
(f) What are the causes of bus zone faults?
(g) What do you mean by current chopping?
(h) Define protected zone.
(i) What is circuit breaker?
(j) What are the characteristics of SF6 gas?

PART – B
(Answer all five units, 5 X 10 = 50 Marks)
UNIT – I
2 (a) Explain the significance of primary and backup protection.
(b) What is the role of backup protection and what are the various methods of providing backup protection?
OR
3 Explain the nature and causes of faults. Discuss the consequences of fault on a power system.
UNIT – II
4 What is Buchholz relay? Which equipment is protected by it? For what type of faults it is employed?
Discuss its working principle with neat sketch.
OR
5 (a) Explain the protection of generators against stator faults with neat sketch.
(b) Explain the inter-turn fault protection with neat block diagram.
UNIT – III
6 Explain the radial feeder protection using over current relay with neat block diagram and list out its
advantages.
OR
7 (a) Explain the significance of over current relays in protection system.
(b) Explain the protection of ring main feeder using over current relays.
UNIT – IV
8 Discuss the recovery rate theory and energy balance theory of Arc interruption in a circuit breaker. With
the help of diagram.
OR
9 What is resistance switching and derive the expression for critical resistance in terms of system
inductance and capacitance which gives no transient oscillation?
UNIT – V
10 What are the causes of over voltages arising on power system? Why is it necessary to protect the lines
and other equipment of the power system against over voltages?
OR
11 (a) List out the types of lightning arresters and write its advantages in a protection system.
(b) Describe the construction & principle of operation of valve type lightning arrester.

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*****
Code: 15A02603 R15
B.Tech III Year II Semester (R15) Regular Examinations May/June 2018
POWER SYSTEM ANALYSIS
(Electrical & Electronics Engineering)
Time: 3 hours Max. Marks: 70
PART – A
(Compulsory Question)
*****
1 Answer the following: (10 X 02 = 20 Marks)
(a) Write the most important mode of operation of power system and mention the major problems
encountered with it.
(b) Define node and branch.
(c) What is bus admittance matrix?
(d) What is the need for short circuit studies or fault analysis?
(e) What is power flow study or load flow study?
(f) Why do we go for iterative methods to solve load flow problems?
(g) Mention (any) three advantages of N-R method over G-S method.
(h) Mention the advantages of bus admittance matrix.
(i) Define steady state stability.
(j) What are the assumptions made in solving swing equation?

PART – B
(Answer all five units, 5 X 10 = 50 Marks)
UNIT – I
2 Derive self and mutual impedances for addition of link between two old buses and between reference
bus and old bus with mutual coupling.
OR
3 Define the following and explain with suitable examples.
(i) Oriented graph. (ii) Tree. (iii) Link. (iv) Loop. (v) Cut set.
UNIT – II
4 (a) What is reactor? Explain the importance of reactors in power system and list out its advantages.
(b) Obtain the reactance diagram of the given power system network. Choose base quantities has 5 MVA,
33 KV.
Generator : 30 MVA, 10.5 KV, X” = 1.6 Ω
Transformers T1 & T2 : 15 MVA, 33/11 KV, X = 15 Ω referred to HV
Transmission line : 20 Ω/Ph
Load : 40 MW, 6.6 KV, 0.85 lag.
OR
5 (a) What are the assumptions made in short circuit studies of a large power system network and explain
briefly?
(b) Explain the need for current limiting reactors and their location in a power system.
UNIT – III
6 (a) Explain the load flow solution with P-V buses using G-S method (both algorithm and flow chart).
(b) Derive the static load flow equations in a power system.
OR
7 (a) Explain the determination of bus voltages, injected active and reactive power that can be computed in
load flow studies.
(b) Explain the use of acceleration factors in G-S method.
Contd. in page 2

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Code: 15A02603 R15

UNIT – IV
8 (a) Explain the step by step computational procedure for the Newton-Raphson method of load flow studies.
(b) Distinguish between Newton-Raphson and Gauss-Seidel methods of load flow analysis.
OR
9 (a) Explain the significance of slack bus. How voltage controlled bus is handled in N-R method in polar form.
(b) List out the types of buses in load flow studies and what are P.V busses. How they are handled in
Newton Raphson method.
UNIT – V
10 (a) Briefly explain the power system stability considerations and its classification.
(b) What is Swing equation and derive the Swing equation of a synchronous machine.
OR
11 (a) What is equal area criterion and explain its effect on stability with neat sketch?
(b) A generator operating at 50 Hz delivers 1 pu power to an infinite bus through a transmission circuit in
which resistance is ignored. A fault takes place reducing the maximum power transferable to 0.5 pu
whereas before the fault, this power was 2.0 pu and after the clearance of the fault, it is 1.5 pu. By the
use of equal area criterion, determine the critical clearing angle.

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Code: 15A03601 R15
B.Tech III Year II Semester (R15) Regular Examinations May/June 2018
OPERATIONS RESEARCH
(Mechanical Engineering)
Time: 3 hours Max. Marks: 70
PART – A
(Compulsory Question)
*****
1 Answer the following: (10 X 02 = 20 Marks)
(a) What is the purpose of a mathematical model?
(b) What is an artificial variable?
(c) What are the differences between transportation and assignment problems?
(d) What is the principle of optimality?
(e) Define Pure and mixed strategies.
(f) Explain (M | M | 1) : (∞| FCFS) model.
(g) What are the rules to be followed in the construction of a net work?
(h) What is dummy arrow in net work?
(i) State the applications of dynamic programming.
(j) What is replacement?

PART – B
(Answer all five units, 5 X 10 = 50 Marks)
UNIT – I
2 Solve the following LPP by using Big M method:
Maximize z = -2x1-x2
Subjected to 3x1+ x2 = 3
4x1 + 3x2 ≥ 6
x1 + 2x2 ≤ 4
x1, x2 ≥ 0
OR
3 A Toy company manufactures two types of dolls, a basic version doll `A’ and a deluxe version doll `B’.
Each doll of type B takes twice as long to produce as one of type A and the company would have time to
make a maximum of 2,000 per day if it produced only the basic version. The supply of plastic is sufficient
to produce 1,500 dolls per day (both A and B combined). The deluxe version requires a fancy dress of
which there are 600 per day available. If the company makes profit of Rs. 3/- and Rs.5/- per doll
respectively on doll A and B, graphically determine, how many of each should be produced per day in
order to maximize profit.
UNIT – II
4 Using dual simplex method, solve the following L.P.P.
Minimize Z = 2x1 + 2x2 + 4x3
subject to: 2x1 + 3x2 + 5x3 ≥ 2
3x1 + x2 + 7x3 ≤ 3
x1 + 4x2 + 6x3 ≤ 5
x1, x2, x3 ≥ 0
OR
5 Following is the unit cost matrix of a transportation problem. Use MODI method to obtain the optimum
basic feasible solution.
D1 D2 D3 Available

S1 50 30 220 1
S2 90 45 170 3
S3 250 200 50 4
Requirement 4 2 2
Contd. in page 2

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Code: 15A03601 R15

UNIT – III
6 The following matrix represents the pay-off to P1 in a rectangular game between two persons P1 and P2.
P2
8 15 -4 -2
P1 19 15 17 16
0 20 15 5
By the notation of dominance, reduce the game to a (2 × 4) game and solve it.
OR
7 The mean arrival rate to a service center is 3 per hour. The mean service time is 10 minutes. Assuming
Poisson arrival rate and exponential servicing time, determine the following.
(i) Utilization factor. (ii) Probability of two units in the system. (iii) Expected number of units in the system.
(iv) Expected number of units in the queue. (v) Expected time in minute’s customer has to wait in the
system.
UNIT – IV
8 There are four jobs 1, 2, 3 & 4 are to be processed on each of the five machines A, B, C, D and E in the
order ABCDE. The processing times in minutes are given in the table. Find the minimum elapsed time if
no passing of jobs is permitted.
M/C
A B C D E
Job
1 7 5 2 3 9
2 6 6 4 5 10
3 5 4 5 6 8
4 8 3 3 2 6
OR
9 A project consists of eight activities. The precedence relationships and the activity durations are given
below:
Activity A B C D E F G H
Immediate predecessor - A A B C C D, E F, G
Duration 8 5 6 10 9 7 3 6
(i) Construct the activity network of the project. (ii) Find the critical path. (iii) Calculate the total float and
free float for each activity.
UNIT – V
10 Solve the L.P.P. using dynamic programming:
Maximize z = 4x1 + 14x2
Subject to constraints: 2x1 + 7x2 ≤ 21
7x1 + 2x2 ≤ 21
x1, x2 ≥ 0
OR
11 Fleet of cars have increased their costs as they continue in service due to increased direct operating cost
(gas and oil) and increased maintenance (repairs, tyres, batteries, etc..).The initial cost is Rs.3500 and
the trade in value drop as time passes until it reaches a constant value of Rs.500. Given the cost of
operating, maintaining and the trade in value, determine the proper length of service before cars should
be replaced.
Year of service 1 2 3 4 5
Year end trade in value (Rs.) 1900 1050 600 500 500
Annual operating cost (Rs.) 1500 1800 2100 24,000 2700
Annual maintaining (Rs) 300 400 600 800 1000

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Page 2 of 2
Code: 15A03602 R15
B.Tech III Year II Semester (R15) Regular Examinations May/June 2018
DESIGN OF MACHINE MEMBERS – II
(Mechanical Engineering)
Time: 3 hours Max. Marks: 70
PART – A
(Compulsory Question)
*****
1 Answer the following: (10 X 02 = 20 Marks)
(a) How does the curvature of the beam affect the stress distribution across its cross-section under bending?
(b) What is the selection criterion for rope drives?
(c) State the importance of following:
(i) Spring index in coil spring.
(ii) Nipping in leaf spring.
(d) What is a self-locking screw? (OR) In what condition, a power screw will become a self-locking screw.
(e) List the important physical characteristics of a good bearing material.
(f) Explain the following terms as applied to journal bearing:
(i) Bearing modulus and
(ii) Bearing characteristic number.
(g) Write expressions for static limiting wear load, dynamic load for gear tooth of spur gear. Explain various
terms used there in.
(h) Explain the following terms used in helical gears:
(i) Helix angle. (ii) Axial pitch.
(i) State the function of the following for an IC engine piston:
(i) Piston rings. (ii) Piston skirt.
(j) Explain the various types of cylinder liners.

PART – B
(Answer all five units, 5 X 10 = 50 Marks)
UNIT – I
2 The horizontal section of crane hook is symmetrical trapezium 120 mm deep, the inner width being
90 mm and outer width being 30 mm. The hook is made of plain carbon steel 45𝐶𝐶8 (𝑆𝑆𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦 = 380 𝑁𝑁/𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚2 )
and the factor of safety is 3.5. Determine the load carrying capacity of the hook. Also draw the crane
hook and show the location at which maximum stress is acting.
OR
3 Design a flat belt drive for a fan running at 360 rpm which is driven by a 10 kW, 1440 rpm motor. The belt
drive is open type and space available for centre distance is 2 m approximately.
UNIT – II
4 It is required to design a helical compression spring with plain ends, made of cold drawn plain carbon
steel, for carrying a maximum pure static force of 1000 N. The ultimate tensile strength and modulus of
rigidity for spring material are 1430 N/mm2 and 85 N/mm2 respectively. The spring rate is 48 N/mm. If the
spring index is 5, determine: (i) Wire diameter. (ii) Total number of coils. (iii) Free length. (iv) Pitch. Draw
a neat sketch of spring with necessary dimensions.
OR
5 A lead screw of a lathe has Acme threads of 50 mm outside diameter and 8 mm pitch. It drives the tool
carriage and exerts an axial pressure of 2500 N. A collar bearing with outside diameter 110 mm, and
inside diameter 55 mm is provided to take up the thrust. If the lead screw rotates at 30 rpm. Find:
(i) The power required to drive screw.
(ii) The efficiency of the power screw. Assume a coefficient of friction of 0.15 for power screw and 0.12
for the collar.
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Code: 15A03602 R15
UNIT – III
6 Select a ball bearing to carry satisfactorily a 65 kN radial load together with 10 kN of thrust load. The
journal supported by the bearing rotates at 1400 rpm for an estimated 0.1 million hours of life. The journal
diameter is 100 mm.
OR
7 A journal bearing, 100 mm in diameter and 150 mm long, carries a radial load of 7 kN at 1200 rpm. The
diametral clearance is 0.075 mm. Find the viscosity of the oil being used at the operating temp, if 1.2 kW
power is wasted in friction.
UNIT – IV
8 A pair of spur gears transmitted power from motor to pump impeller shaft is to be designed with as small
centre distance as possible. The forged steel pinion (𝑆𝑆0 = 160 𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀/𝑚𝑚2 ) is to transmit 45 kW at 600 rpm
to a cast steel gear (𝑆𝑆0 = 100 𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀/𝑚𝑚2 ) with a transmission ratio 9/2 to 1, and 20° full depth involute teeth
are to be used. Determine the necessary face width and module.
OR
9 A pair of helical gears with a 23° helix angle is to transmit 2.5 kW at 100000 rpm of the pinion. The
velocity ratio of 4:1. Both the gears are made of hardened steel with an allowable stress
(𝑆𝑆0 = 100 𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀/𝑚𝑚2 ) for each gear. The gears are 20° stub and the pinion is to have 24 teeth. Determine
the minimum-diameter gear that may be used, and the required BHN.
UNIT – V
10 Design the cylinder and cylinder liner of a four stroke diesel engine which has the following
specifications: Maximum gas pressure = 3500 kN/m2, break power = 6.5 kW at 800 rpm, average 1 MEP
= 525 kN/m2, mechanical efficiency = 78%, allowable strength of cylinder material = 75 N/mm2, allowable
strength of cylinder liner material = 130 N/mm2, allowable strength of bolt material = 75 N/mm2, increase
in temperature = 130℃.
OR
11 Design an over hung crank for the following data maximum load on the crank pin when the crank and the
connecting rod are at right angle is 44000 N. The crank radius is 16 mm and the distance between
centers of crank pin and main bearing is 24 cm. The crank pin is hydraulically pressed in the position and
web is keyed to the crank shaft. Design the crank pin and the web makes a tension of 5000 N/mm2 in
shear, bearing pressure of the crank pin 700 N/mm2.

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Code: 15A03603 R15
B.Tech III Year II Semester (R15) Regular Examinations May/June 2018
HEAT TRANSFER
(Mechanical Engineering)
Use of heat transfer data book is allowed.
Time: 3 hours Max. Marks: 70
PART – A
(Compulsory Question)
*****
1 Answer the following: (10 X 02 = 20 Marks)
(a) Write the basic assumptions of Fourier’s law of heat conduction.
(b) Write the application of concept of critical radius of insulation.
(c) What is fin effectiveness?
(d) Write the limitations of LHCA.
(e) Define Reynolds number and Nusselt number.
(f) Define thermal entrance length in internal flow through a pipe.
(g) What is critical heat flux in a pool boiling?
(h) Write the significance of fowling factor in heat exchanger analysis.
(i) Write important features from Planck distribution law of black body radiation.
(j) What is the importance of radiation shields?

PART – B
(Answer all five units, 5 X 10 = 50 Marks)
UNIT – I
2 Derive the 3D steady state generalized heat conduction equation in Cartesian coordinates. Write its
different forms.
OR
3 The walls of a refrigerator are typically constructed by sandwiching a layer of insulation between sheet
𝑤𝑤
metal panels. Consider a wall made from fiberglass insulation of thermal conductivity 𝐾𝐾1 = 0.046 and
𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚
𝑤𝑤
thickness 𝐿𝐿1 = 52 𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 and steel panels, each of thermal conductivity 𝐾𝐾2 = 65 and thickness,
𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚
𝐿𝐿2 = 4.5 𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚. If the wall separates refrigerated air at 𝑇𝑇∞𝑖𝑖 = 4.2℃ from ambient air at 𝑇𝑇∞𝑜𝑜 = 26℃, what is
heat gain per unit surface area. Coefficients associated with natural convection at the inner and outer
surfaces may be approximated as ℎ𝑖𝑖 = ℎ0 = 5.4 𝑊𝑊/𝑚𝑚2 𝐾𝐾.
UNIT – II
4 Calculate the percentage increase in heat transfer associated with attaching aluminum fins of rectangular
profile to a plane wall. The fins are 58 mm long 0.46 mm thick, and are equally spaced at a distance of
4 mm (250 fins/m). The convection coefficient associated with bare wall is 41 W/m2K, while that resulting
from attachment of the fins is 32 W/m2.K.
OR
5 Derive the expression for temperature distribution and heat transfer in a transient heat conduction of a
material with negligible internal resistance.
UNIT – III
6 Explain the concept of boundary layer theory for forced convection flow through a circular pipe.
OR
7 A circular pipe of 28 mm outside diameter is placed in an air stream at 30℃ and 1 atm pressure. The air
moves in cross flow over the pipe at 16 m/s, while the outer surface of the pipe is maintained at 110℃.
What is the drag force exerted on the pipe per unit length? What is the rate of heat transfer from the pipe
per unit length?
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Code: 15A03603 R15
UNIT – IV
8 Estimate the nucleate pool boiling heat transfer coefficient for water boiling at atmospheric pressure on
the outer surface of a platinum plated 10 mm diameter tube maintained 12℃ above the saturation
temperature.
OR
9 Water at a rate of 45,640 kg/h is heated from 70℃ to 145℃ in a heating exchanger having two shell
passes and eight tube passes with a total surface area of 950 m2. Hot exhaust gases having
approximately the same thermo physical properties as air enter at 350℃ and exit at 180℃. Determine the
overall heat transfer coefficient.
UNIT – V
10 Explain the following:
(i) View factor.
(ii) Kirchoff’s law.
(iii) Wien’s displacement law.
(iv) Stefan-Boltzman’s law.
OR
11 Consider two large, diffuse, gray parallel surfaces separated by a small distance. If the surface
emissivities are 0.8 and 0.65 respectively; surface temperatures are 600 K and 450 K what is the
radiation heat exchange between the two surfaces. If they are separated by a radiation shield of
emissivity 0.25, what is the percentage reduction in heat transfer?

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Code: 15A03604 R15
B.Tech III Year II Semester (R15) Regular Examinations May/June 2018
FINITE ELEMENT METHOD
(Mechanical Engineering)
Time: 3 hours Max. Marks: 70
PART – A
(Compulsory Question)
*****
1 Answer the following: (10 X 02 = 20 Marks)
(a) What is the difference between the residual method and weighted residual method?
(b) State the principle of minimum potential energy.
(c) Give the properties of stiffness matrix in FEM.
(d) Suggest one example involving multipoint constraints.
(e) Define cubic element in FEM.
(f) Sketch tetrahedral element.
(g) When do you adopt 2D formulation in FEM?
(h) Compare the axi-symmetric triangular element with 2D triangular element.
(i) Specify various boundary conditions imposed on one dimensional fin element.
(j) List the approaches followed to derive finite element formulation of two dimensional fluid flow.

PART – B
(Answer all five units, 5 X 10 = 50 Marks)
UNIT – I
2 An axial bar of length L and uniform cross section A is fixed at one end and free at the other end. It is
subjected to a uniformly distributed load of intensity over the entire length. Making use of Galerkin’s
method, solve for axial displacement and stress developed. Take young’s modulus as E.
OR
3 With the help of principle of minimum potential energy, derive stiffness matrix and load vector for a
tapered axial bar element subjected to a uniform distributed axial load. Use appropriate symbols.
UNIT – II
4 Compute the transformation matrix and stiffness matrix for truss element whose cross section is 1 cm2
young’s modulus 210 GPa and coordinates are (1, 2) and (4, 4) cm. If the axial nodal loads are 1 kN and
1.5 kN, find the load vector and nodal displacement vector.
OR
5 Determine the displacement at the midpoint of a fixed beam of length 1 m with uniformly distributed load
of 6 kN/m through the span. Use two beam elements. Take E = 200 GPa and El = 2 X 104 N.m2.
UNIT – III
6 Consider a nine node quadrilateral element in natural square coordinate system. Develop expressions for
shape functions and transformation relation between CCS and NCS.
OR
7 Sketch an iso-parametric hexahedral element and derive its shape functions in natural coordinate
system.
Contd. in page 2

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Code: 15A03604 R15

UNIT – IV
8 The coordinates of triangular element are 1(4.3), 2(8, 6) and 3(6, 9) cm. Its load vector is
[-2, 3, 1, -4, 5, 3]T kN , modulus of elasticity is 200 GPa and Poisson’s ratio is 0.25. Compute nodal
displacement vector and stress vector.
OR
9 Develop strain displacement relations in case of axi-symmetrical elastic body in coordinate system.
UNIT – V
10 Compute the nodal temperatures across the thickness of a slab of thickness 15 cm and thermal
conductivity 1.5 Watt/cm- . The temperature on left surface is 150°C and right surface is exposed to air
flow with h = 10 W/m2- and temperature 45°C. Assume the slab has square cross section area as
104cm2. Discretize the slab in to two linear elements.
OR
11 Write down the governing partial differential equation for a two dimensional potential flow and evaluate
element matrices with the help of triangular element. Use usual notations.

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Code: 15A03605 R15
B.Tech III Year II Semester (R15) Regular Examinations May/June 2018
METAL FORMING PROCESS
(Mechanical Engineering)
Time: 3 hours Max. Marks: 70
PART – A
(Compulsory Question)
*****
1 Answer the following: (10 X 02 = 20 Marks)
(a) Define stress.
(b) What is meant by true strain?
(c) Give the theory of rolling.
(d) Write a short note on smith forging.
(e) Write about basic extrusion process.
(f) Give a short note wire drawing.
(g) Write about stamping.
(h) List the types of defects in sheet metal operation.
(i) Give a short note on thermo forming.
(j) What is meant by rapid prototyping?

PART – B
(Answer all five units, 5 X 10 = 50 Marks)
UNIT – I
2 With a proper sketch, explain hot working process with its merits and demerits.
OR
3 Describe cold working process and compare it with hot working process.
UNIT – II
4 Describe and classify the types of rolling mills with the necessary sketches.
OR
5 Define forging and explain any two types of forging process with the necessary sketches.
UNIT – III
6 Explain forward and backward extrusion process with the proper sketches.
OR
7 Describe the wire drawing process with a neat sketch.
UNIT – IV
8 Explain blanking and piercing process with the proper sketches.
OR
9 Define drawing and explain cup and tube drawing process with proper sketches.
UNIT – V
10 Explain fused deposition modeling process with a neat sketch.
OR
11 Explain high energy rate forming methods with the proper sketches.

*****

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Code: 15A04601 R15
B.Tech III Year II Semester (R15) Regular Examinations May/June 2018
MICROPROCESSORS & MICROCONTROLLERS
(Common to EEE, ECE & EIE)
Time: 3 hours Max. Marks: 70
PART – A
(Compulsory Question)
*****
1 Answer the following: (10 X 02 = 20 Marks)
(a) What does the pin MN/MX do in 8086 processor?
(b) Give the format of the flag register in 8086 processor.
(c) What is the use of PUSH in 8086?
(d) Define immediate addressing mode of 8086 microprocessor with example.
(e) Differentiate between RISC and CISC processors.
(f) Which are the low power operating modes of MSP430?
(g) List clock circuit and registers used to control function of clock module of MSP430.
(h) Write an ALP to check whether the content of the register R4 of MSP430 is even/odd.
(i) Give the format of asynchronous serial data communication.
(j) Mention the purpose of CC3100.

PART – B
(Answer all five units, 5 X 10 = 50 Marks)
UNIT – I
2 Explain the functional block diagram of 8086 microprocessor with neat diagram.
OR
3 Draw the complete schematic of 8086 processor memory interface in minimum mode with the following
specifications.
(i) 16 k of EPROM.
(ii) 32 k OF RAM.
UNIT – II
4 Clearly explain the addressing modes of the 8086 processor with suitable instruction examples.
OR
5 Write an 8086 program to perform unpacked BCD division. (e.g 75/2) (operands are stored in the
memory).
UNIT – III
6 Sketch the functional block diagram of MSP430 microcontroller and briefly explain its architecture.
OR
7 (a) Show the memory map of F2013 MSP430 and explain it briefly.
(b) Briefly explain about the 16 registers of MSP430 CPU.
UNIT – IV
8 Explain the clock system of MSP430 with the help of its simplified block diagram.
OR
9 Interface a push button switch and a simple LED to MSP430 and write a C program to switch on the LED
whenever the button is pressed.
UNIT – V
10 Explain briefly about the communication peripherals that are available in MSP430.
OR
11 (a) Explain serial communication SCI & SPI, compare the same.
(b) Explain CAN features and protocols.

*****

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Code: 15A04602 R15
B.Tech III Year II Semester (R15) Regular Examinations May/June 2018
ELECTRONIC MEASUREMENTS & INSTRUMENTATION
(Electronics & Communication Engineering)
Time: 3 hours Max. Marks: 70
PART – A
(Compulsory Question)
*****
1 Answer the following: (10 X 02 = 20 Marks)
(a) What are dynamic characteristics of instruments?
(b) What are differential voltmeters?
(c) What is sync selector circuit?
(d) What are active probes?
(e) What is logic analyzer?
(f) What is random noise in signal generators?
(g) List all precautions in using bridges.
(h) Draw the circuit diagram of Kelvin bridge.
(i) What is signal conditioning circuit?
(j) Compare active and passive transducers.

PART – B
(Answer all five units, 5 X 10 = 50 Marks)
UNIT – I
2 (a) Explain different types of errors along with their sources and precautions to minimize them.
(b) The accuracy of five digital voltmeters is checked by using each of them to measure a standard 1.0000 V
from a calibration in instrument. The voltmeter readings are as follows:
V1 = 1.001 v, V2 = 1.002 v, V3 = 0.999 v, V4 = 0.998v and V5 = 1.0000v.
Calculate the average measured voltage and the average deviation.
OR
3 (a) Explain the basic principle of a shunt type ohmmeter.
(b) Calculate the maximum percentage error in the sum and difference of two voltage measurements when
V1 = 100v±1% and V2 = 80v±5%.
UNIT – II
4 (a) Derive an expression for electrostatic deflection sensitivity of a CRO.
(b) A sinusoidal voltage of 83.3 kHz from a standard signal generator gave nine free waves on the screen
starting from the X-axis when connected to ‘y’-terminal of a CRO, while the tenth wave was slightly short
of being a full wave, the end of the trace being at a position that was half the amplitude away from X-axis.
If the time base is internally synchronized, determine the rise and decay time of the saw tooth time base
voltage.
OR
5 (a) Explain the measurement of frequency, time and phase difference using CRO.
(b) An electro statically deflected CRT has plates which are 2.5 cm long and 0.5 cm apart and the distance
from their centre to the screen is 20 cm. The electron beam is accelerated by a potential difference of
2500 volts and is projected centrally between the plates. Calculate the deflecting voltage required to
cause the beam to strike a deflecting voltage and find the corresponding deflection of the screen.
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Code: 15A04602 R15

UNIT – III
6 Draw the block diagram of function generator and explain its operation.
OR
7 (a) With a neat sketch of the block diagram, explain the principle of operation of Heterodyne wave analyzer.
Explain what makes its performance better than a resonant type wave analyzer.
(b) What is the minimum detectable signal (MDS) of a spectrum analyzer with a (i) N.F of 25 dB using/KHz
3-dB filter? (ii) If N.F is increased to 40 dB using same filter as above, estimate MDS and write the
inference from the above two cases.
UNIT – IV
8 Draw the circuit Wheatstone bridge and explain its operation. Also write about errors occur in DC
bridges.
OR
9 (a) Explain the working principle of a Q-meter and state the factors that causes errors during
Q measurement.
(b) What is interference and discuss about its reduction techniques.
UNIT – V
10 Explain any two methods to measure displacement using suitable circuit diagrams.
OR
11 Write about:
(a) pH measurement.
(b) Velocity measurement.

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Code: 15A04603 R15
B.Tech III Year II Semester (R15) Regular Examinations May/June 2018
DIGITAL SIGNAL PROCESSING
(Common to ECE & EIE)
Time: 3 hours Max. Marks: 70
PART – A
(Compulsory Question)
*****
1 Answer the following: (10 X 02 = 20 Marks)
(a) What is the DFT of ?
(b) What is the relation between DFT and Z transform?
(c) What is meant by radix 4 FFT?
(d) Mention the advantage of FFT algorithms.
(e) What is the main disadvantage of direct form realization?
(f) Sketch the signal flow graph for a first order IIR digital filter.
(g) Mention two advantages of FIR filter.
(h) What is the relation between S and Z plane per Bilinear transformation?
(i) Mention few applications of multi rate sampling.
(j) What is the use of anti imaging filter in the interpolator?
PART – B
(Answer all five units, 5 X 10 = 50 Marks)
UNIT – I
2 Compute the 4 point DFT of the sequence x(n) = {1, 1, -1, -1}.
OR
3 State and prove the linearity and circular frequency shift property of DFT.
UNIT – II
4 Compute the 8 point DFT of the sequence x(n) = {5, 0, 1-j, 0, 1, 0, 1+j, 0} using DIT-FFT algorithm.
OR
5 Explain the Chirp Z transform algorithm for computation of DFT.
UNIT – III
6 A FIR filter is given by the difference equation:

Determine its lattice form.


OR
7 Obtain the parallel form of realization for the IIR system:

UNIT – IV
8 Design a low pass FIR filter using the Hanning window for which the desired frequency response is:

The length of filter is 7 and


OR
9 Design a digital low pass Chebyshev filter with an acceptable passband ripple of 2dB, cut off frequency
of 1 rad/sec and stop band attenuation of 20dB or greater beyond 1.3 rad/sec. Use bilinear
transformation and assume T = 1 sec.
UNIT – V
10 Describe the process of decimation. With necessary equations, explain the spectrum of the decimated
signal.
OR
11 (a) Explain with block diagram for sampling rate conversion by an arbitrary factor.
(b) Explain sampling rate conversion of bandpass signals.
*****
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Code: 15A04604 R15
B.Tech III Year II Semester (R15) Regular Examinations May/June 2018
VLSI DESIGN
(Electronics and Communication Engineering)
Time: 3 hours Max. Marks: 70
PART – A
(Compulsory Question)
*****
1 Answer the following: (10 X 02 = 20 Marks)
(a) MOSFETs are said to be more efficient than BJTs. Justify the answer.
(b) Define the terms: (i) Body effect. (ii) Channel length modulation.
(c) How to evaluate routing capacitance of MOS device?
(d) What are the importance of CMOS design rules?
(e) What is the power delay product for the load capacitance CL = 3.5𝜇𝜇𝜇𝜇, given the input voltage VDD = 5 V?
(f) List out the steps in physical design layout.
(g) Mention about various Multiplier architectures followed for VLSI Design.
(h) Give the difference between Full-custom and Semi-custom devices.
(i) What are the special features of design verification tools?
(j) What is Built-in-self-test?

PART – B
(Answer all five units, 5 X 10 = 50 Marks)
UNIT – I
2 Explain in detail about the steps involved in CMOS IC fabrication process with essential diagrams.
OR
3 Draw the Ids-Vds relationship curve and discuss in detail about its role in the MOS design equations.
UNIT – II
4 (a) Derive the expression for resistance estimation in VLSI circuits.
(b) Write short notes on driving large capacitive loads.
OR
5 (a) Explain the 2μm CMOS design rules for contacts and transistors.
(b) Briefly discuss about scaling of MOS circuits and its limitations.
UNIT – III
6 With a detailed step by step process, design and draw the AND-OR-INVERT form complex gates in
CMOS logic for the output equation Y = (𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴 + 𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶).
OR
7 Give a detailed note on floor-planning and placement in the physical design flow of a CMOS circuit
design.
UNIT – IV
8 Explain about any one multiplier architecture in VLSI design. What are the challenging issues to be
considered for the same?
OR
9 Illustrate with neat architecture diagram and explain about various functional blocks of Field
Programmable Gate Array (FPGAs).
UNIT – V
10 (a) Write a short note on circuit synthesis.
(b) Give comparison of design capture tools and design verification tools.
OR
11 Explain in detail about design for testability.

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Code: 15A05505 R15
B.Tech III Year II Semester (R15) Regular Examinations May/June 2018
SOFTWARE TESTING
(Information Technology)
Time: 3 hours Max. Marks: 70
PART – A
(Compulsory Question)
*****
1 Answer the following: (10 X 02 = 20 Marks)
(a) Define component testing.
(b) What is decision statement? Give an example.
(c) List the applications of transaction flows.
(d) What is conjugation? Give an example.
(e) What is domain testing? Give an example.
(f) What is domain closure?
(g) Why use complementary operators for path expression?
(h) What are the advantages of decision tables?
(i) What is unreachable state?
(j) State the properties of relation.

PART – B
(Answer all five units, 5 X 10 = 50 Marks)
UNIT – I
2 (a) Discuss about software architecture bugs.
(b) Explain different types of coding bugs.
OR
3 (a) Discuss about the path testing criteria.
(b) Explain single link marker instrumentation with neat flow diagram.
UNIT – II
4 (a) Explain about transaction flow structure.
(b) Describe the data-flow anomalies.
OR
5 (a) Write short notes on transaction control block.
(b) Define the following terms: (i) Slicing. (ii) Dicing. (iii) Debugging.
UNIT – III
6 (a) What is ugly domain? Discuss how programmers treat ugly domains.
(b) Explain about domain compatibility testing.
OR
7 (a) Briefly discuss about random testing.
(b) What is span compatibility? Explain it.
UNIT – IV
8 (a) Write short notes on distributive laws, absorption rule and loops.
(b) What is the looping probability of a path expression? Explain with an example.
OR
9 Explain regular expressions and flow anomaly detection.
UNIT – V
10 Explain with an example, how to convert specification into state-graph. Also, discuss how contradictions
can come out.
OR
11 (a) Discuss in detail about the properties of relations.
(b) Describe the basic principles of graph matrix.
*****
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Code: 15A05601 R15
B.Tech III Year II Semester (R15) Regular Examinations May/June 2018
COMPILER DESIGN
(Common to CSE & IT)
Time: 3 hours Max. Marks: 70
PART – A
(Compulsory Question)
*****
1 Answer the following: (10 X 02 = 20 Marks)
(a) What is the role of input buffering in lexical analyzer?
(b) Write a regular expression for a constant.
(c) What is ambiguous grammar? Give an example.
(d) Write a code segment for parser generator to generate a parse tree of an expression.
(e) Write syntax directed translation scheme for infix to postfix conversion.
(f) What is L-attributed definition?
(g) What are the operations required on a symbol table?
(h) What is the use of stack memory?
(i) What is basic block?
(j) Why loop optimization is so important than other code optimization?

PART – B
(Answer all five units, 5 X 10 = 50 Marks)
UNIT – I
2 (a) Show the sequence output of each phase of a compiler for the following code segment:
int x = 5, y = 10,z; z = x+ y*5; printf(“%d”, z);5.
(b) Write a LEX program for a C programming language.
OR
3 (a) Explain about state minimization of finite automata.
(b) Construct NFA and find DFA for a pattern recognition of (a/b)*abb.
UNIT – II
4 Construct CLR parsing for the following grammar:
S→ CC
C→ cC/d
OR
5 (a) What is unambiguous grammar? Give an example for ambiguous grammar.
(b) Write a code for parser generator of an assignment and if-then-else statement.
UNIT – III
6 (a) What is meant by back patching? Show back patching in a Boolean expression.
(b) Discuss various types of three address code representation for the following code segments:
x = x+y*10; z = x;
OR
7 Write SDT to generate intermediate code for assignment statement. Give an example.
UNIT – IV
8 (a) Describe about symbol table organization for block structured language.
(b) Explain how to allocate heap memory space for dynamic memory allocation.
OR
9 (a) Describe about various representations of symbol table.
(b) What is activation record? Explain the structure of an activation record.
UNIT – V
10 (a) What is direct acyclic graph? Explain how this is useful for dataflow analysis.
(b) Describe the following: (i) Common sub expression. (ii) Induction variable elimination.
OR
11 Describe about various peephole techniques with examples.

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Code: 15A05602 R15
B.Tech III Year II Semester (R15) Regular Examinations May/June 2018
DATA WAREHOUSING & MINING
(Computer Science & Engineering)
Time: 3 hours Max. Marks: 70
PART – A
(Compulsory Question)
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1 Answer the following: (10 X 02 = 20 Marks)
(a) Define data mining. On what kind of data, data mining can be performed?
(b) Why do we need to preprocess the data?
(c) Bring out the differences between ROLAP and MOLAP server.
(d) Define base and apex cuboid with appropriate example.
(e) Differentiate between prediction and classification.
(f) Define single and multidimensional association rule mining with appropriate example.
(g) What are binary variables? Provide appropriate examples.
(h) Which method is more robust among K-means and K-medoids clustering? Justify your answer.
(i) What is sequential pattern mining?
(j) What is spatial data mining?

PART – B
(Answer all five units, 5 X 10 = 50 Marks)
UNIT – I
2 Why do need to transform data? Explain the different approaches for data transformation. For the given
data normalize the data 400 using min max normalization and decimal scaling method to the range
0 to 1.
Data: 200, 300, 400, 600, 800, 1000
OR
3 Briefly describe the various data mining functionalities.
UNIT – II
4 (a) Compare data enterprise, data mart and virtual data warehouse.
(b) Suppose that a data warehouse consists of the three dimensions: time, doctor and patient and two
measures count and charges. Draw a star schema for the data warehouse.
OR
5 Describe the general optimization techniques for the efficient computation of data cubes.
UNIT – III
6 For the given transactional data, find the frequent item sets using Apriori algorithm. Given minimum
support = 2.
Tid List of item-ids
T1 p1, p2, p5, p8
T2 p2, p4, p7
T3 p2, p3
T4 p1, p2, p4
T5 p1, p3, p9
T6 p2, p3
T7 p1, p3
T8 p1, p2, p3, p5
T9 p1, p2, p3
T10 p10, p11
Given min confidence = 90%, find strong rules with 3 itemset.
OR
7 Describe back propagation algorithm.
Contd. in page 2

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Code: 15A05602 R15

UNIT – IV
8 Describe the major clustering methods.
OR
9 (a) Explain constraints based clustering.
(b) Given two objects represented by tuples (22, 1, 42, 10) and (20, 0, 36, 8), compute the distance between
the two objects using Euclidean, Manhattan and Minkowski distance (with q = 3).
UNIT – V
10 What is multi-relational data mining? Describe ILP approach for multi-relation classification.
OR
11 Describe multimedia data mining.

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