GIMARNI 362-542

362. This pattern of rapid population growth expressed by the formula Pt = Poert is "seemingly without bounds" and is
called "Malthusian," but is premised on the widespread abundance of food, which is not true in all places.

(A) polynomial growth rate (B) parabolic growth rate (C) logistic growth rate (D) exponential growth rate

363. 'Baby Boomers' refers to those born in the period 1946-1964. Generation X refers to those born in the years 1965TT 1976,
and Generation "Y" or "Echo Boomers" refers to those born in the years

(A) 1980-2000 (B) 2001-2010 (C) 1977-2000 (D) 1975-2015

364. The main difference between the economic method of projecting population growth and the "mathematical
methods" (arithmetic, geometric formulae, etc.) is that

(A) The former takes into account movement of people while the latter only considers reproduction and deaths.
(B) The former forecasts varying rates of growth of local economic output and creates alternative scenarios.
(C) The latter does not consider force majeure or recurrent natural disasters.
(D) The latter is based upon the assumption of do nothing while the former ignores historic patterns.

365. According to NSO 2009, heart diseases, cerebrovascular diseases, stroke, cancer, and malignant neoplasms which are
degenerative disorders due to lifestyle, together account for 50% of total deaths, and are called leading causes of

(A) Fatality (B) Terminality (C) Corporeality (D) Mortality

366. Morbidity essentially refers to

(A) mental insanity cases per 1000 population (C) rate of contagion of epidemic every 72 hours
(B) incidence of disease per 1000 population (D) outbreak of plagues and pandemics every 3 years

367. The whole country has a population growth rate of 2.04% per annum while Town FGHIJ has growth rate of 1.4% per
annum. Using the crude assumption method of computing migration flows, which of following is likely true?

(A) there is more out-migration from Town FGHIJ (C) Immigration and Emigration cancel out each other.
(B) there is more inmigration to Town FGHIJ (D) Poor transport to Town FGHIJ makes movement difficult.

368. Between census years 1990 and 2007, the lowest population growth rates per annum in Metro Manila occurred in
San Juan, -0.03%; City of Manila, 0.09%; Pasay, 0.22%; Makati, 0.3%; Mandaluyong, 0.53% (versus highest
rate at 2.12% in Taguig City). Which of the following statements, all valid, most considers sustainable capacity and
livability?

(A)These NCR areas have higher daytime population than nighttime population.
(B) These NCR areas are likely approaching their viable population limits.
(C) These NCR areas tend to physically decay with population density beyond a tolerable range.
(D) New or young families in these NCR areas are likely to settle somewhere else.

369. The central difference between 'birth rate' and 'fertility rate' is

(A) 'birth rate' pertains to fecundity of a woman while 'fertility rate' pertains to quantity & intensity of her sexual activity
(B) 'birth rate' pertains to babies who survive while 'fertility rate' includes pregnancies which mayor may not succeed
(C) 'birth rate' refers to births in relation to total population while 'fertility rate' is in relation to average childbearing woman
(D) 'birth rate' pertains to live births while 'fertility rate' includes still births, premature deliveries, abortions & miscarriages

370 17% of surveyed women wanted 2.7 average births in contrast to aggregate fertility rate of 3.5 births per woman;
50% of women don't want any more children; % of women wanted to space births but could not do so, and nearly
50% of women between ages 15 and 24 have had premarital sex and have experienced unwanted pregnancies.
Which rational conclusion is supported by above data from ESCAP study1998?

(A) Filipinos' fondness for babies is waning.

(B) Government and social institutions like family, church, and school need to be stricter about people's sexual behavior
(C) the women in the survey do not accurately represent the overall picture of Filipino womenfolk
 (D) there is apparently an unmet need for contraception and family planning among Filipino women
(E) Filipino women are more burdened compared to men when it comes to birth control

371. 'Sex ratio' is defined as

(A) the average number that men and women have sex per week within a marital relationship ”
(B) the average number of boys versus girls in a typical family
(C) the number of males in total population divided by the number of females multiplied by 100
( D) the number of females in total population divided by the number of males times 100

372. The declared population policy of the Philippine government 2001-2010 aimed to

(A) uplift reproductive health of women as basis of population management

(B) support couples in making decisions on the timing, spacing, and the number of children they
want in accordance with their cultural and religious beliefs
(C) encourage use of contraception among married couples
(D) enforce one-child rule for all couples

373. The historic shift of birth and death rates from high to low levels, signaling the tendency of total population to decline after
replacement-level fertility (1.1% to 1.5%) has been attained, is called

(A) Population Reversal (B) Demographic Transition (C) Population Shift (D) Demographic Deceleration

374. The central difference between a census and a survey is that

(A) census makes use of questionnaires while (C) census is done every 10 years while survey can
surveys make use of telephone interviews be done by anyone anytime anywhere
(B) census involves complete enumeration while (D) only qualified demographers and statisticians
survey involves sampling ought to conduct a census

375. Because census age-groupings do not coincide with school-going ages for primary, secondary and tertiary schools,
this method is used to disaggregate school-age population within a bracket into workable components.

(A) sprague multiplier (B) sprengler multiplier (C) survival and dropout rate (D) disambiguation

376. This demographic concept refers to any age-group that is observed through time as its members are assumed,
for the purpose of analysis, to go through roughly similar experiences.

(A) consort (B) cohort (C) connivance (D) array (E) bracket

377. Which method uses population of larger geographic area to interpolate population of a smaller geographic area?

(A) step down or area ratio method (B) logistic method (C) component method (D) shift share

378. All of the following are of productive age, but only one is strictly counted as part of the 'Labor Force.'

(A) 16-year-old who dropped Out of School and became a houseboy .

(B) 67-year-old BSC degree-holder who owns and operates a neighborhood variety of sari-sari store
(C) 20 year old on his third year of the course, Bachelor of Science in Information Technology Management
(D) 32-year old virgin entering the nunnery as a religious novice.

379. The following reasons underlie locational motivation of urban poor to live in slum Colonies and shantytowns. Which
reason is socio-cultural in nature and serves to compensate for the lack of livelihood and employment opportunities
in cities?

(A) proximity to low-skill jobs and sources of income in the urban services Sector, both formal and informal
(B) zero to low land rents and occupancy fees in marginal lands, residual public lands, easements, and danger zones
(C) kinship-based, ethnic-related personal networks serving as safety nets that provide social solidarity and reciprocity
(D) alternative modes of access to squatter areas by water through rivers, canals, and coasts
(E) ease of disposal of solid wastes and liquid wastes into esteros, creeks, and ditches.
(F) coddling by traditional patronage politicians because of voting power of large concentrations of urban poor
380. Commonwealth Act 383 of 1938 punishes the dumping of any refuse, Waste matter, or pollutive substances into
rivers with at least 6-months imprisonment, while PD 296 of 1973 penalizes illegal encroachment, improvement
upon, occupation, or reclamation of any portion of rivers, creeks, esteros, and drainage channels, that result in the
constriction, partial or complete closure of said waterways, with a prison term of

(A) at least 2 to at most 10 years (B) at least 1 year (C) 3 to 5 years (D)5 to 7 years

381. Of the following solutions to address urban slums, which one adopts an 'as is, where is' approach and hence not
conducive to 'land assembly' for an integrated holistic settlement?

(A) off-site resettlement (C) land readjustment

(B) in-city relocation (D) medium-rise tenements as temporary shelter
(C) on-site slum upgrading (E) collaborative models such as Gawad Kalingaand 'Habitat for Humanity'

382. The French urban theorist who first said that each individual, regardless of personal, occupational, or economic
ability of achievement, has a to live in the city in a rights-based approach to urban development ('Right to the
City,' 1968)

(A) Henri Lefebvre (B) Manuel Castells (C) Jean Jacques Costeau (D) Andre Gunder Frank

383. In welfare-oriented societies, this is a shelter program designed to help homeless individuals and families progress
toward self-sufficiency in an environment of security and support, serving as a middle point between emergency
shelter and permanent housing for a timeframe of six months to two years.

(A) Mass Housing (B) Transitional Housing (C) Public Row housing (D) Cooperative Housing

384. Specific principle contained in RA 7279 UDHA that 'developers of proposed subdivision projects shall be required to
develop an ares for socialzed housing equivalent to at least 20% of total subdivision area or total subdivision project
cost, at the option of developer, within the same city or municipality, whenever feasible,' so that both government
and market can jointly provide for the needs of lower socio-economic classes

(A) Public Private Resources Exchange (C) Balanced Housing Development

(B) Cooperative Housing Development (D) Corporate Social Responsibility

385. In RA 9397's amendment to expand socialized housing options of national local government under RA7279 UDHA,
which common model/program is being remedied for its uneven effectiveness in addressing homelessness

(A) transfer of homelot ownership in fee simple (C) usufruct or lease with option to purchase
(B) public rental housing (D) timeshare arrangements and communal shelter

386. A house financing program of the National Home Mortgage Finance Corporation which assists legally organized
associations of underprivileged and homeless citizens to purchase and develop a tract of land under the concept of
community ownership so that residents of blighted or depressed areas can own the lots they occupy, or where they
choose to relocate to, and eventually improve their homes to the extent of their affordability"

(A) Zonal Improvement Program (C) Unified Home Lending Program

(B) Slum Upgrading (D) Community Mortgage Program

387. In the absence of an operational Local Housing Board, which unit ought to prepare the local shelter plan of an LGU?

(A) Planning and Development Office (C) Subdivision Homeowners Association

(B) Local Development Council (D) Association of Barangay Captains

388. As per HUDCC circular dated September 27, 2006, a dwelling unit with total value of P300.000 or less is called

(A) Low-Cost Housing (B) Socialized Housing (C) Economic Housing (D) Gawad Kalinga

389. A condemned building is torn down to give way to an 'infill' housing project to keep labor force in the inner-city. Which
of following important HLURB parameters would have the least and most minor issues in comparative terms?

(A) past and present land use

(B) suitability of terrain, environmental thresholds and natural geohazards
 (C) demographic, socio-economic and political considerations
(D) locational motivation towards place or neighborhood

390. According to Batas Pambansa 220, the affordability level of housing is based on that portion of total gross family
încome that an average household would regularly allocate for shelter, which is

(A) 30% (B) 40% (C) 50% (D) 60%

391. What is minimum gross lot area of a row-house unit of socialized housing under Batas Pambansa 220?

(A) 32 sqm (B) 36 sqm (C) 18 sqm (D) 22 sqm

392. What is minimum gross lot area for single-detached family dwelling unit of open market housing under PD957?

(A) 90 sqm (B) 100 sqm (C) 110 sqm (D) 120 sqm

393. According to BP 220, at what scale or minimum number of family dwelling units would it be appropriate to allocate
space for an elementary school as part of a socialized housing project?

(A) 4,000-5,000 (B) 3,000-2,500 (C) 2,000-2,499 (D) 1,500-1,999

394. According to PD 1096 National Building Code of 1977 Sec 104, a residential dwelling unit or "Group A" building shall
have one side adjoin or have direct access to a public space, yard, street, or alley; shall not occupy more than 90%
of a corner lot or 80% of an inside lot; and be built in such a way that its exterior wall is at least ___________ from the
property line.

(A) 20 m (B) 40 m (C) 60 m (D) 80 m

395. If the sidewalk is 3 meters in width, what should be the total distance of the building exterior wall from the curb of
street?

(A) 5 m (B) 6 m (C) 7 m (D) 8 m

396. According to PD 1096 Nat Building Code of 1977 Sec 806, a habitable room in a residential dwelling unit should have a
minimum area of 6 sqm (14 m) and ceiling height or headroom clearance, as measured from floor to ceiling of at least

(A) 2.40 m (B) 2.80 sm (C) 3.40 m (D) 3.80 m

397. According to PD 1096 National Building Code of 1977 Sec 808, room ventilation in a dwelling unit without
airconditioning or mechanical ventilation is based on the ratio that area of window opening should be at least
__________ of floorspace.

(A) one-fifth (B) one-sixth (C) one-eighth (D) one-tenth

398. According to PD 1096 Natl Building Code of 1977 Sec 1003, projections such as balconies or appendages of a
dwelling unit should have this vertical distance between the established street/sidewalk grade and the lowest
undersurface of balcony

(A) 2 meters (B) 3 meters (C) 3.5 meters (D) 4 meters

399. According to PD 1096 National Building Code of 1977 Sec 1207, this is the maximum vertical distance between two
landings (not steps) of a stairway.

(A) 2.4 meters (B) 2.6 meters (C) 3.6 meters (D) 4.5 meters

400. According to BP 220, if the minimum distance between 2 two-storey houses is 4 meters, and the minimum horizontal
clearance between their respective roof eaves or overhang is 150 m, what would be the horizontal length of each
building's overhang from exterior wall up to the edge of roof

(A) 0.25 meters (B) 0.50 meters (C) 0.50 meters (D) 1.75 meters

401. According to RA 6541 National Building Code of 1972, the minimum parking requirement is 'one parking slot for
every...'
 (A) 100-125 m2 of floorspace (C) 100-125 m2 of titled property
(B) 100-125 m2 of business and customer service area (D) 100-125 m2 of frontyard

402. Lower than US standards by 10%, this is the ratio between saleable and non-saleable portions of an openmarket
subdivision as required under PD 957 or the Subdivision and Condominium Buyers Protection Act?

(A) minimum of 60% open space (C) 60% saleable and 40% non-saleable
(B) minimum of 50% open space (D) 70% saleable and 30% non-saleable

403. By Philippine standards, how far should a striptease joint, beerhouse, casa, or place of ill-repute be allowed to locate – in
relation to a school?

(A) 50 meters away or more (C) at least 200 meters away

(B) 100 meters away or more (D) at least 500 meters away

404. By Philippine standards, how much open space should an ideal elementary or high school campus have, out of its
total land area?

(A) 60% or more (B)50% or more (C) 40% or more (D) 30% or more

405. To compute for standard size of classroom, 140m2 (HLURB) or 3 cu.m 'bubble' per pupil (PD1096 NBC) is
multiplied by the ideal number of pupils per classroom as determined by DepEd. This use in design of average
measurements of body and bodily movements is an application of the field of

(A) biomechanics (B) bionics (C) physiometrics (D) anthropometics

406. University or Institution of Higher Learning with total enrolment of 10,000 or more, should have a campus area of
at least seven hectares. What would be the required open space?

(A) at least 2,500 m2 (B) at least 5,000m2 (C) at least 10,000m2 (D) at least 25,000m2

407. Philippine standards, the minimum total area for a tertiary-level general hospital with 300 beds is

(A) 4.5 hectares (B) 3.5 hectares (C) 2.5 hectares (D) 1.5 hectares

408. RA 8749 Clean Air Act, Sec. 20, generally bans burning which results in poisonous and toxic fumes, but with a few
exceptions. What agency oversees cremation and incineration of pathological, biological, and contagious wastes?

(A) Bureau of Fire Protection (C) Philippine Hospitals Association

(B) Department of Interior and Local Government (D) Department of Health

409. As per PD 856 or Sanitation Code of 1975, What should be acquired individually by all food Workers, processors,
preparers, vendors, servers in all food establishments, whether formal or informal businesses?

(A) lung -ray & HIV-AIDS test from public hospital (C) food testing report from Bureau of Food and Drugs lab
(B) health Clearance from local health Office (D) face mask and hairnet from Department of Health

410. As per PD 856 or Sanitation Code of 1975 Sec.13a, Washing of clothes and bathing cannot take place within what
distance from any public well or public source of drinking water?

(A) 25 meters (B) 100 meters (C) 150 meters (D) 200 meters

411. The second law of thermodynamics states that no man-made or natural process operates with 100% efficiency and
therefore, waste is inherent in all nature, and waste will always be generated.

(A) Thermal Wasting (B) Atrophy (C) Entropy (D) Dissipation

412. Which 'environmental management' practice by households is broadest of the four enumerated below?

(A) Reuse (B) Reduce (C) Recycle (D) Reform lifestyles

413. Which 'environmental management' practice by firms is most encompassing of the four enumerated below

(A) Disperse and Dilute(B) End-of-Pipe Treatment (C) Product Life Cycle Assessment (D) factory waste-exchange

414. Apart from taxes, incentives, and property rights approaches, the major approach of the National Government to
the environment by means of policies, rules, and standards is called--

(A) Coerce and Compel (B) Contain and Constrain (C) Command and Control (D) Cash and Checks

415. Also called the 'cradle to grave' approach, this refers to the entire process of investigating and valuing the
environmental impacts of a given product or service, in particular, raw materials production, manufacture,
distribution, use and disposal as well as intervening transportation steps necessitated or caused by the product's
existence, in order to identify the options least burdensome to the natural environment.

(A) Carbon Footprinting (B) Zero Waste Management (C) Industrial Design (D) Product Life Cycle Assessment

416. Under International Standards Organization ISO 14001 (1996) for business organizations, the principle that no
money should be lent or extended to any firm that has not proven itself to be environmentally responsible, is
contained in which goal of a company's ISO 14001 Environmental Management System?
(A) To reduce overall costs (C)To gain or retain market share via a green corporate image
(B) To attract more ethical investment (D) To reduce prosecution risks and insurance risks

417. Under ISO 14001 Environmental Management System for business organizations, which component examines how
the implementing company observes government policies and standards relevant to regular firm operations?

(A) Power and Fuel Consumption (C) Financial Performance

(B) Waste Generation and Environmental Cost (D) Regulatory Compliance

418. RA 8371 lPRA grants to lndigenous Cultural Communities and lndigenous Peoples the right to own and possess | | | their
tribal lands as a limited form of private ownership that does notinclude the right to alienate the same lands.

(A) Regional Autonomy (B) Ancestral Domain (C) Self-Government (D) Tribal Ownership

419. Of the following forms of evidence that lndigenous Peoples can use to claim aboriginal land, which category of evidence
needs substantial assistance from a planner with extensive background in anthropology?

(A) Tax declarations and proof of payment of taxes; survey plans and/or sketch maps;
(B) Old improvements such as planted trees, stone walls, rice fields, water systems, orchards, farms,
monuments, houses and other old structures, or pictures thereof;
(C) Historical accounts, Spanish Documents, ancient documents;
(D) Genealogical surveys; written and oral testimonies of living witnesses made under oath; written records
of customs and traditions
(E) Burial grounds or pictures thereof religious sites and/or artifacts in the area

420. Conventional 'Euclidean' or exclusionary zoning is faulted for the following valid reasons. Which reason comes from
the feminist perspective of Jane Jacobs, et al?

(A) rigid segregation of land uses unnecessarily lengthens travel distance to meet other needs and discourages walking,
social interaction, and neighborly behavior favorable to local community-building
(B) self-contained, balanced, sociable communities deter crime, reduce anomie, lessen psychological distress caused by
movement to/from work or school, increase quality family time, and prevent other social problems.
(C) exclusionary land use encourages satellite bedroom communities where work and other needs are not available 3
(D) increased Vehicle Miles Traveled (VMT) correlates with traffic jams, accidents, labor productivity losses, greater
greenhouse gas emissions that aggravate air pollution, and huge external economic costs borne by society in general
(E) mothers with infants and young children are zoned of production as jobs in the CBD or in factory district are too far from
home to enable women to successfully carry out both domestic duties and formal employment

421. This is the first law that marked the mainstreaming of gender issues into the agenda of development by promoting
the Integration of Women as Full and Equal Partners of Men in Development and Nation Building."

(A) RA 1010 (B) RA7192 (C) RA 6969 (D) RA8010

 422. According to RA9710 Magna Carta of Women of 2009Sec. , this refers to policies, instruments, programs, services and
actions that address the disadvantaged position of women in society by providing preferential T/ treatment and affirmative
action such as measures aimed to accelerate de facto equality between men and women.

(A) Sexual Equality (B) Gender Equity (C) Women's Liberation (D) Gender Parity (E) Feminist Empowerment

423. The main economic theory that underlies both CBA and EA is that an economic activity or project should not make
one person better off by making someone else worse off, such that gains in producer surplus or consumer
satisfaction to some firms or individuals do not simultaneously impose losses on others.

(A) Theory of General Equilibrium (B) Classical Economics (C) David Ricardo's Theory of Value (D) Pareto Optimality

424. A school of thought that holds that the measure of efficiency is people's well-being and such is attained if the total
gains among those who benefit exceed the total losses of those adversely affected by any economic activity.

(A) Keynesian economics (B) Welfare economics (C) Neoclassical economics (D) Marxist economics

425. This refers to the collaborative process whereby governments, businesses, community organizations, etc at the local
level engage one another to improve economic well-being of their community, enhance business climate, increase income
opportunities, and sustainably utilize human, natural, infrastructural, and institutional resources.

(A) Project Development Planning (B) Investment Coordination (C) Economic Planning (D) Industrial Convergence

426. Of the following central features of Free Market as described by classical economics, which one has not been
proved to be universally true in open capitalist societies?

(A) Law of Supply and Demand (C) Broad Range of Consumer Choices Through Diversified Production
(B) Profit Motive (D) Perfect Competition

427. In Walt Rostow's Theory of Economic Modernization in Linear Stages (1960), the stage wherein techniques in
production improve, new industries diversify and accelerate output, local supply exceeds local demand, and the
national economy participates in international trade, is termed as

(A) NlChood or newly industrializing economy (C) takeoff period

(B) pre-conditions for takeoff (D) drive to maturity

428. This phenomenon in economics (Alfred Marshall, 1897) wherein profit-oriented firms try to locate close to each other
to save on utility costs, realize gains from increased business interaction, and enjoy benefits from sharing new
technologies, improved skills of local workforce, common infrastructure and amenities, is called

(A) Co-Location (B) Proximization (C) Aggrandization (D) Agglomeration

429. This economic phenomenon is internal to a firm, and refers to reduced marginal cost per unit and increased overalll
savings as volume or quantity of output is increased utilizing the same throughputs or production processes.

(A) Localization Economies (B) Economies of the Mill (C) Economies of Scale (D) Discounting

430 In 1897, he was the first to categorically state that knowledge, intellectual capital, and technology constitute the chief
engine of progress of the economy.

(A) Alfred Marshall (B) Albert Einstein (C) Frederick Taylor (D)Joseph Schumpeter

431. A ratio that measures output per worker is called

(A) labor intensity (B) work efficiency (C) labor productivity (D) work ethic

432. A measure that indicates the intensity of the factors of production is known as

(A) capital-labor ratio (B) liquid exposure (C) venture capital (D) operating expenditure

Economic Planning, Project Development Planning

433. According to Nobel laureate Simon Kuznets the three ways to determine national macro-economic accounts (GNP
 GDP, NNI) are "value-added" "income approach" and "expenditure approach" Which of the following is expenditure
approach?

(A) final output of Primary + Secondary + Tertiary + etc (C) Consumption + Investment + Govt + (Exp-
Import)
(B) National Income + (Taxes-Subsidies) + Depreciation etc (D) Consumption Taxes + FDI + BOP + NFIA

434. The Philippines' GDP totalled 8.32 trillion pesos at nominal prices in 2010, but P4.74 trillion was the consolidated
public sector debt stock of national government, LGUs, GOCCs, etc. The administration of President Gloria Arroyo
accumulated a debt stock of 2.57 trillion for 9 years. How much is the total debt stock of 2010 as percent of Gross
Domestic Product?

(A) 51% (B) 57% (C) 64% (D) 67%

435. An indicator of "Quality of Life" developed by Nobel Laureate Amartya Sen, this composite measure combines life
expectancy at birth, school enrolment rate, adult literacy rate, per capita income, and incidence of poverty.

(A) Millennium Development Goals (C) Human Development Index

(B) Index of Sustainability (D) GPI – Genuine Progress Indicator

436. Incidence of families below poverty line stood at 39,9% in 1990 and averaged 33% between 2001 and 2010. Did the
administration of President Gloria Macapagal Arroyo attain its Millennium Development Goal in poverty reduction?

(A) Yes (C) Answer depends on ones level of information, political bias, and personal loyalty
(B) No (D) Attainment would have been substantial had it not been for the global economic recession of 2008-2009

437. Millennium Development Goals, what is the official target of government in terms of reducing family poverty
below the food threshold or subsistence threshold by the year 2015?

(A) 0.3% (B) 5.4% (C) 10.2% (D) 15.6%

438. Under which of the following Millennium Development Goals has the Philippines achieved the greatest
accomplishment in the period 2000-2010, according to official UNDP reports?

(A) "Eradicate extreme poverty and hunger (E)"Combat HIV/AIDS, malaria and other diseases"
(B) "Promote gender equality and empower women (F) "Improve womens reproductive health"
(C) "Achieve universal primary education (G) "Reduce child mortality"
(D) "Ensure environmental sustainability (H) "develop global partnership for development"

439. 'It gets worse before it gets better.' According to Nobel Prize laureate Simon Kuznets, as an economy experiences
growth, income distribution first worsens before it gradually improves in the long run.

(A) wealth residual dichotomy (B) inverted 'U' hypothesis (C) the curve (D) Dismal Theory

440. The saying "the rich get richer and the poor get poorer" is related to concepts of spread and 'backwash' in a
regional economy that were first articulated by this Nobel Prize laureate for economics.

(A) Milton Friedman (B) Paul Krugmann (C) Robert Solow (D) Gunnar Myrdal

441. 'A gaugeof income inequality, it is measured graphically by dividing the area between the perfect equality line and
the Lorenz curve by the total area lying to the right of the equality line in a Lorenz curve diagram

(A) Absolute poverty barometer (B) Gini coefficient (C) Kuznets curve (D) human deprivation index

442. According to John Maynard Keynes, the 'income multiplier' with the formula "m = 1/ {1-(c-m)(1-t)}" is derived by
dividing 1" with the Marginal Propensity to Save (c-m) and the tax rate (1-t). For example, if the computed

denominator of entire equation is 0.40, what is the 'income multiplier' of each peso or dollar that enters the economy?

(A) 2 (B) 2.5 (C) 3 (D) 4

443. According to NEDA in MTPDP 2004-2010 chap 4, housing construction has a 'income multiplier' of 16.6, such that
 for every 10 million spent on housing in local economy, approximately ____ million is generated in income/domestic
product.

(A) 16.6 (B) 166.0 (C) 1060.6 (D) 1,666.0

444. This refers to the combination of talent, ambition, foresight, and skill of an innovative individual or group to efficiently
organize productive resources into a viable undertaking, ensure survival of business, create a secure market niche, and
sustain long-term growth.

(A) Risk-taking (B) Managerial Savvy (C) Pioneer or Angel Investment (D) Entrepreneurship (E) Intrapreneurship

445. This refers to any novel or improved product, process, gadget, or idea that adds utility to a previous or existing good
or service in the market beyond the usual expectations of consumers and often in response to a felt demand in society.

(A) ingenuity (B) invention (C) innovation (D) improvisation (E) high tech gadgetry

446. 'Consumer Demand' is also called

(A) derived demand (B) intermediate demand (C) final demand (D) sales revenues (E) output less taxes

447. Under RA 6930 of 1990, this is a duly registered association of persons, with a common bond of interest, voluntarily
joined together to achieve a common social or economic end, making equitable contributions to the capital required
and accepting a fair share of the risks & benefits of undertaking in accordance with universally accepted principles.

(A) People's Organization (B) Credit (C) Cooperative (D) Microfinance Grameen bank (E)
Union Paluwagan

448. Republic Act 9501 dated May 23, 2008 redefined "medium-scale" enterprise as follows:

(A) number of employees between 100 to 199 with a (C) number of employees between 10 to 99 with a
capitalization of 15 million to 100 million capitalization of 3 million to 15 million
(B) number of employees more than 200 with a (D) number of employees between 1 to 10 with a
capitalization of more than 100 million capitalization of 1.5 million to 3 million

449. A micro-scale or cottage-scale enterprise is normally exempted from nationally-legislated minimum daily wage because

(A) many barangay MSMEs cater to socio-economic classes D&E which have generally low purchasing power
(B) MSME usually has small profit margins, being more labor-intensive than capital-intensive or technology-intensive
(C) too high labor-wages undermine the viability of micro-scale operations and limited market range
(D) most micro-scale firms are start-ups or fledgling enterprises without secure or established market niche.
(E) all of the above

450. This is an economic strategy of government to invest in human capital by giving cash and/or food subsidies to poor (families
provided their children regularly go to public school, visit the health center for regular medical checkup, and participate in
community sanitation and environmental protection?

(A) Benevolent Assimilation (C) Conditional Cash Transfers (E) Food-for-Work

(B) Official Development Assistance (D) Emergency Relief (F) Developmental Alms-giving

451. In the 21st century, many economically-poor but naturally-endowed countries have focused on the "Pleasure
Economy" or the "Experience Economy" through such flagship programs as ecotourism, cultural tourism, medical
tourism, adventure & sports tourism, arts, 'high-touch' activities, high fashion design or haute couture, etc which are .
together called

(A) tertiary services sector (C) quinary services sector

(B) quaternary services sector (D) recreational and visitorial services sector

452. Under RA 9593 Tourism Act of 2009, ecotourist spots as well as historic, cultural, scenic and adventure sites are
subsumed under the new concept of
 (A) Sustainable Tourism Districts (B) Tourism Enterprise Zones (C) Bio-economic Regions (D) Ecozones

453. Under RA 9593 Tourism Act of 2009, Heritage Conservation in the Philippines shall be supported by not less than
5% of travel tax collections accruing to --

(A) Philippine Retirement Authority (C) Tourism Promotions Board

(B) Infrastructure & Enterprize Zone Authority (D) Philippine Conventions & Visitors Corp'n

454. Basic principle of Heritage Conservation which holds that historic structures and treasures should be utilized by
preserving as much of their exteriors as possible while adopting more modern uses in their interiors.

(A)Total Makeover (B) Reconfigurative Renovation (C) Converted Property (D) Adaptive Reuse

455. According to RA 9072 National Caves and Cave Resources Protection and Management Act of 2002, this "refers to
a cave which contains materials and possesses features that have archaeological, cultural, ecological, historical or
scientific value as determined by the DENR in coordination with the scientific community and the Academe."

(A) Neolithic Cave (B) Speleothem & Speleogem (C) Mesolithic Stalactite (D) Significant Cave

456. 'Taxation based on carbon produced' by 2007 Nobel Prize Laureate Albert Arnold Gore seeks to compel companies
to internalize the externalities and to plan and design production with Nature in mind it will also tax rich,
conspicuous consumers more than low-consumption groups. This tax scheme is described by economists as

(A)aggressive (B) regressive (C) proactive D) progressive 5 repulsive

457. Under RA 8435 AFMA, what kind of cropland management by farmers is envisioned by the Strategic Agricultural
and Fisheries Development Zone in its effort to be compatible with DAR's Agrarian Reform Communities?

(A) Corporatist (B) uniform/homogenous (C) competitive (D) convergent

458. Which declared component of RA8435 AFMA most directly concerns the health and wellness of all citizens?

(A) credit and micro-finance (D) product standards and consumer safety
(B) irrigation and farm-to-market roads (E) farm technology extension services and technical assistance
(C) post-harvest and storage facilities (F) product information and marketing

459. Which of the following would be part of an integrated food systems planning?

(A) Develop farm protection policies and zoning
provisions to encourage community gardening
(B) build wharves and fish landing ports for
subsistence fishermen
(C) Promote producers' markets to help local farmers
(D) produce organic compost and farm soil
conditioners from municipal solid waste
(E) Study transportation network used by food
suppliers to bring goods to end-users
(F) all of the above

460. SUpply chain management in economic planning and in transport planning concerns the logistics or timely,
seamless movement of goods and commodities to end-users. It is credited to

(A)Michael Porter (B) Peter Drucker (C) Frederick Taylor (D) Hideo Teriyaki

461. According to Philippine Agriculture 2020by the National Academy of Science and Technology, Filipinos need to
diversify their diet, eat nutritious alternatives to grains, and reduce average per capita consumption of rice to

(A) 50 kg per year (B) 100 kg per year (C) 150 kg per year (D) 200 kg per year

462. Under RA 6657 as amended by RA 9700 CARP Extension of 2009, which of following considerations in undertaking
agrarian reform pertains most directly to economies of scaleand the financial viability of small farm production?

(A) "ecological needs of the nation" (D) "landowners' just compensation and retention rights E
(B) "tillers' rights and quality of life" (E) "national food security and self-sufficiency in grains
(C) "economic-size" (F) "social justice and emancipation of farmer from bondage to the soil
 463. Under RA 9700 CARP Extension of 2009, all of the following are covered by Agrarian Reform, except one?

(A) agricultural lands in the public domain still not alienated/disposed (C) agricultural estates and haciendas
(B) farms planted to cash crops such as sugar, tobacco, coconut palm (D) family farms of 5 hectares and below

464. Land use conversion is limited by reclassification ceilings under various legal issuances. Under AFMA, only 5% of
the SAFDZ areas may be converted to other uses, while RA 7160 Local Government Code Sec. 20 limits it to

(A) 15% of the agricultural land in highly urbanized (C) 10% of total cultivable land in any city
and independent chartered cities
(B) 20% of total arable land in any LGU (D) 25% of total alienable and disposable land

465. Under RA 7160 Local Government Code Section 20, reclassification of agricultural land in component cities and first
to third class municipalities is limited to ___ of farm land.

(A) 5% (B) 10% (C) 15% (D) 20%

466. Of the five correct criteria for conversion of farmland into non-agricultural uses, which criterion is within the control of
the investor or project proponent, in terms of production activity, design, selection and mobilization of men, money,
materials, and machines?

(A) The reclassification of land use must be consistent with the natural expansion of the municipality or city, as contained in
their approved land use plan;
(B) The area to be reclassified in use is not the only remaining food production area of the community;
(C) Areas with lower crop productivity will be accorded priority for land use conversion;
(D) The land use reclassification shall not hamper the availability of irrigation or the productivity of nearby farms;
(E) The proposed project is supportive of agro-industrial development, and will generate alternative livelihood opportunities
for the affected community.

467. Richard Klostermann's Economic Base (also called Export Base) Model argues that

(A) economic base or relations of production can lead to exploitation between a person with property and one without it
(B) economic growth of a regionl/ocality is dependent on the growth of its exporting sector
(C) the primary export of any region/locality is its mobile labor force as represented by migrant-workers and expatriates
(D) expor-toriented industrialization (EOI) can take place even without abundant raw materials as in the case of Singapore

468. Under Economic Base Model, if San Miguel Corporation has an exporting agribusiness plant in a specific baranġay
with basic employment of 500 and an employment multiplier of 26, what would be the probable number of nonbasic
employment in retail, local services, and residentiary activities?

(A)800 (B) 1300 (C) 1,600 (D) 1800

469. If the barangay in the immediately-preceding question has a total population of ,000, active labor force of 55%,
unemployment rate of %, and combined San Miguel Corporation and registered MSME employment of 1,800 persons, what
is the approximate size of the combined informal sector and visibly-underemployed sector?

(A) 950 (B) 1,050 (C) 2050 (D) 3050

470. If fiberglass boat production" represents 028 of the local economy of Ternate while it represents 0.02 of the entire economy
(GDP) of the country, what would be the location quotient (LO) of said industry in Ternate?

(A) 0.0056 (B) 0.071 (C) 1.26 (D) 14

471. If the location quotient (LO) of an industry in the town of OPQR is greater than one, it suggests that

(A) the distribution of industry in the territory is very (C) the distribution of industry in the territory does not
concentrated deviate much from the distribution of other industries
(B) the distribution of industry in the territory is (D) the territory has a larger share of the industry relative
dispersed to its reference region or larger territory

472. The town of STUV has 2 times more people engaged in agriculture as percent of total labor force and 25 times
more output per hectare of rice-land than the national average. This means that
 (A) the towns people are better-fed because of food (C) the town has more farm-workers and hence lower
surplus level of education and lower level of literacy
(B) town has backward economy but blessed with soil (D) the town is more agriculturally developed than the
fertility and hard-working labor average municipality.

473. This refers to a set of accounts, usually in monetary figures, widely used in the analysis of inter-industry relationships and the
extent of importing/exporting among industries within an economy – whether local, regional, or national.

(A) value added chain (B) input/output model (C) discounted cash flow tables (D) inter-area analysis

474. Using Wassily Leontief's matrices referred to in immediately-preceding question, supposing the "Bread and Baked
Products industry" in a municipality has the following direct coefficients: agriculture (dairy, poultry, fruits, firewood),
0.25; manufacture (flour, sugar, butter etc) 0.35; utilities 0.10; households 0.30, approximately how much of industry
output is directly paid as labor wages and salaries?

(A) 30% (B) 35% (C) 25% (D) PhP404 daily minimum wage as per RWPB

475. This refers to a "set of specific activities carried out by a team of an executing agency for a fixed/limited period of
time in a defined area of operation using limited resources in order to achieve specific outputs/objectives for a
particular target group."

(A) Module (B) Concordat (C) Endeavor (D) Project (E) Capital Venture

476. 'Financial Analysis' uses fair market prices while 'Economic Analysis' uses

(A) factory prices (B) shadow prices (C) nominal prices (D) deflationary and inflationary prices

477. Which concept refers to the value of potential output foregone by not putting resources to their best alternative use?

(A) Fixed Costs (B) Variable Costs (C) Sunk Costs (D) Opportunity Costs

478. These are costs of business not assumed by the firm and not reflected in the internal financial accounting of the
business but such costs are unwittingly shouldered by other people, by government, or by society-at-large.

(A) extraordinary costs (B) incidental costs (C) externalities (D) collateral costs

479. Which part of the project cycle seeks to determine whether an indepth environmental study is needed?

(A) pre-feasibility phase (B) project screening (C) project appraisal (D) technical feasibility

480. Which part of the feasibility study aims to determine a projects desirability in terms of its net contribution to the
overall welfare of the locality, region, or country as a whole?

(A) sensitivity analysis (B) discriminant analysis (C) stakeholder or distributive analysis (D) economic analysis

481. Related to time value of money (v) this refers to the rate used to adjust the future streams of costs and benefits U into their
present value, taking into account time preference, opportunity cost of capital, externalities from currency and
exchange, risk, and uncertainty.

(A)inflation rate (B) discount rate (C) investment rate (D) depreciation rate

482. Also called 'subscription money,' this is a deposit given to the seller to show that the potential buyer has serious
intentions about the transaction.

(A) mobilization fund (B) subornment (C) marked money (D) earnest money (E) grease money

483. This is a provision made in advance for the gradual liquidation of a future obligation by periodic charges against
the capital account.
 (A) downpayment (B) reservation (C) amortization (D) equity (E) surcharge (F) pay-off

484. Which tool is used to extrapolate the demand for a projects product-output, assuming present conditions or
current trends continue?

(A) demand curve (B) agent-based modeling (C) cost-revenue analysis (D) linear regression analysis

485. A tool of 'aggregative' analysis and rational decision-making that is used to choose among alternatives or
planning options by ensuring the optimum allocation of available resources and maximum welfare to the
community.

(A) econometrics (B) cost-benefit analysis (C) fiscal impact analysis (D) welfare policy analysis

486. Which measure of profitability places emphasis on the number of years it takes to recover all the capital
invested on a project?

(A) assets turnover (B) breakeven point (C) accounting profit before taxes (D) payback period

487. What does it mean if the net present value (NPV) is negative?

(A) discount rate is higher than IRR (C) sales or revenues are much lower than product usefulness
(B) borrowings are much higher than cash equity (D) discounted benefit-cost ratio of whole project is less than 1

488. The rule of thumb for deciding projects to pursue based on the benefit-cost (B/C) ratio criterion?

(A) accept projects with B/C ratio less than zero (C) accept projects with BC equal or greater than one
(B) accept projects with B/C ratio equal or above zero (D) accept only projects with B/C ratio above five

489. It is the measure of the earning power of investment from the perspective of owner, investor, borrower or lender and is
defined as the discount rate that equates the present values of the projects benefits and costs such that the NP is equal to
zero

(A) internal rate of return (B) return on equity (C) return on investment (D) accounting profit before taxes

490. The best measure of a projects economic worthiness from the perspective of the public/society/government which serves as
basis for determining project acceptability is called

(A) net present value (B) dividends (C) surfeit (D) internal rate of return (E) surplus value

491. According to NEDA, the economic rate of return" (ERR) is usually:

(A) the same as the Accounting Return on Investment (C) interpolated from IRR and Net Present Value
(B) calculated with Taxes, Natural Losses, Depreciation (D) discounted Total Benefits minus Total Costs

492. The following are elements of the "Control" function in project management, except one.

(A) surveillance and inspection (C) performance monitoring and compliance monitoring
(B) aftersales care (D) process adjustment and Corrective measures

493. The following are elements of the "Control" function in project management, except one.

(A) monitoring (B) Surveillance (C) process adjustment and Corrective measure (D) aftersales care

494. Among the earliest models of environmental economics is the 1968 formula "I = P x A x T" (where l'=environmental
impact,' 'P=population,' 'A=affluence,' 'T=technology') which States that simultaneous growth in population, affluence,
consumer behavior, technology are jointly responsible for environmental problems.

(A) Ehrlich Dr. Barry Commoner (C) Dr. Francis Stuart Chapin Jr. (D) Dr. Eugene Pleasants Odum

495. Under this method of environmental economics, the qualitative value of an environmental amenity such as a
scenic lake is measured by analyzing the value of alternatives, substitutes or replacements that people would
likely resort to if said environmental amenity were absent.
 (A) Surrogate Market Approach (B) Hedonic Pricing (C) Contingent Valuation (D) Willingness to Pay

496. In ecological economics, the 'intrinsic non-use values' of the elements of Nature can never be quantified
nor given a price tag, hence they are better left untouched and untampered with. Which one is not the
same as the others?

(A) Bequeath Value (B) Existence Value (C) Vicarious Value (D) Fair Market Value

Planning Law, Plan Implementation & EIA

497. Which is not a main branch of government?

(A) Executive (B) Legislative (C) Judiciary (D) Constitutional Commission

498. Which of the following is a constitutional body?

(A) Council of State (C) National Security Council

(B) Civil Service Commission (D) National Peace and Order Council

499. Which of the following does not head a major branch of government?

(A) Chief Justice (B) Chief of Staff (C) Speaker of the House (D) Senate President

500. Which of the following is not under the legislative branch of government?

(A) House of Representatives (C) National Development Council

(B) Senate (D) Commission on Appointments

501. Which of the following describes the current political-administrative setup of the Philippine government?

(A) federal, presidential, bicameral legislature, two-party system

(B) federal, parliamentary, meritocracy, regional party system
(C) unitary, presidential, bicameral legislature, multi-party system
(D) unitary, presidential, unicameral legislature, party-list system for 11 basic sectors

502. In a parliamentary system, the legislature normally appoints some of its members as heads of line ministries
(Cabinet) and exacts accountability through of a vote of confidence or noconfidence. By requiring ministers
to report periodically to Parliament, the check-and-balance mechanism essential to democracy is operationalized.

(A) True (B) False (C) partially true, partially false (D) totally irrelevant to Philippine governance

503. What do you call the head of the Commission on Audit?

(A) Honorable Commissioner (B) Constitutional Commissioner (C) Chairperson (D) Director-General

504. Which constitutional agency handles the implementation of direct citizen powers (plebiscite, recall, or local
initiative?

(A) Commission on Human Rights (C) Commission on Elections (B) Tanodbayan and Sandiganbayan (D) Ombudsman

505. Where can we find the highest level policy statements on environmental protection?

(A) Cosmic Law of Karma (B) Republic Acts (C) Constitution (D) 2009 World Summit in Copenhagen

506. One of the four Great Powers of the State, this concept refers to its authority to regulate private actions to promote public
health, public safety, public morals, and general welfare of all its citizens.
 (A) Power of Persuasion (B) Eminent Domain (C) Police Power (D) Escheat (E) Estoppel (F) Taxation

507. A democratic state performs the following core functions in a pluralistic society, except one.

(A) Regulate and facilitate the operations of the Market (C) Provide public services to all
(B) Hire the poorest citizens as employer of last resort (D) Arbitrate contending social groups

508. 1987 Philippine Constitution Article Xlll Sec. 1 defines it as "preferential treatment for the least advantaged groups
and areas" through the "enactment of measures that protect and enhance the right of all the people to human dignity,
reduce social, economic, and political inequalities, and remove cultural inequities by equitably diffusing wealth and
political power..."

(A) distributive justice (B) commutative justice (C) transitive justice (D) social justice

509. 1987 Constitution Art. Xll Sec2. "All lands of the public domain, waters, minerals, coal, petroleum, and other mineral
oils, all forces of potential energy, fisheries, forests or timber, wildlife, flora and fauna, and other natural resources
are owned by the State. With the exception of agricultural lands, all other natural resources shall not be alienated."

(A) 'Dominion and Supremacy' (B) 'Regalian Doctrine' (C) 'Res Judicata' (D) 'Parens Patriae'

510. In the language of Philippine Constitution 1987, agricultural land is synonymous with

(A) prime cropland (B) arable and cultivable (C) alienable and disposable (D) irrigated and irrigable

511. As defined by PD1517 IRR Sec2p, this refers to the overall right of the State to classify, guide, and regulate the
acquisition, use, and disposition of land in the interest of public welfare"

(A) land classification (B) land management (C) land registration (D) land consolidation

512. Which of the following Roman, French, and British legal concepts refers to ones right to inherit real property?

(A) chattel (B) fee simple (C) feetail (D) freehold (E) leasehold (F)ultra vires

513. A written legal document used to transfer property from one private person to another, is known as

(A) CLOA (B) Transfer Certificate Title (C) Deed (D) Special Power of Attorney (E) Fiat

514. Philippine Constitution Article Xll sec 3 classifies land into four specific categories, namely;

(A) arable land, arid land, cropland, and marginal land or wasteland
(B) land for production, land for protection, land for settlements, and land for infrastructure
(C) public domain, ancestral domain, eminent domain, alienable and disposable land
(D) forestland, agricultural land, mineral land, and national parks

515. In the absence of a national land use code from the Congress of the Philippines since 1987, PD 1152 Title III
Sections 22 to 24 Serves as the

(A) National Land Use Statute (C) National Land Use Scheme
(B) National Land Use Decree (D) National Land Use Framework

516. According to President Bill Clinton's Executive Order 12898 (1994), this refers to the principle that all people -
regardless of skin color, national origin, education, income level, or creed - are able to enjoy an equal level of
environmental protection, fair treatment, and meaningful involvement with respect to the development,
implementation, and enforcement of environmental laws, regulations, and policies.

(A) "Preferential Option for the Poor" (B) "Affirmative Action" (C) "Bio-geographic Equity" (D) "Environmental Justice"

517. In international environmental law, the principle that the burden of proof in demonstrating that a particular
technology, practice or product is clean and safe lies with the developer and not with the general public
and that the producer must answer for any environmental damage such technology has created" is called

(A) Extended Producer Responsibility (B) Polluter Pays Principle (C) Principle of Externalities (D) Precautionary Principle
 518. In international environmental law, it refers to "ones action or lack thereof amounting to breach of duty to care" that
results in material damage to others; duty to care is one's legal obligation to avoid causing physical harm which
arises where harm is foreseeable if due care is not taken.

(A) malpractice (B) negligence (C) omission (D) lapse of judgment

519. According to Supreme Court Rules of Procedure for Environmental Cases 2010, this principle states that when
human activities may lead to threats of serious and irreversible damage to the environment that is scientifically
plausible but uncertain, actions shall be taken to avoid or diminish that threat.

(A) preventive suspension (B) restraining order (C) precautionary principle (D) principle of proactive restraint

520. According to Supreme Court Rules of Procedure for Environmental Cases 2010, this is a remedy available to a
natural or juridical person, entity or any public interest group registered with any government agency, on behalf of persons
whose constitutional right to a balanced and healthful ecology is violated, or threatened with violation by an
unlawful actor omission of a public official or employee, or private individual or entity, involving environmental damage of
such magnitude as to prejudice the life, health or property of inhabitants in two or more cities or provinces.

(A) Writ of amparo (B) Writ of kalikasan (C) Writ of kalinga (D) Writ of continuing mandamus (E) habeas corpus

521. This refers to an activity such as storing of manure, cleaning of guts, use of lead, arsenic, mercury, phosphorous,
and the like, which can injure health, endanger safety, offend the Senses, produce inconvenience and discomfort to the
public, cause damage to land by means of waterborne or airborne emissions -- all interfering unreasonably with
the use and enjoyment by an owner of his/her rights to land.

(A) filth (B) noxious environment (C) nuisance (D) public annoyance

522. As the national economic planning agency, the NEDA bureaucracy performs secretariat functions to the NEDA
Board, the latter serves as National Development Counciland is headed by

(A) The Director General of NEDA (C) The Secretary of the Cabinet
(B) Chair of the Congressional Planning and Budget Office (D) The President of the Philippines

523. Which part of NEDA organization does not, in most cases, correspond to an actual level of elected government?

(A) The NEDA Governing Board (C) Provincial Development Council

(B) Regional Development Council (D) Municipal Development Council

524. The Medium Term Philippine Development Plan, 2004-2010, is often summarized as Ten-Point Agenda BEAT THE
ODDS, by former Sec. Romulo Neri. Which of the following national goals has the least evident spatial focus?

(A) Power supply and water supply in all barangays throughout the country
(B) Development of Clark and Subic Freeport as major logistics center in South East Asia
(C) Decentralization of development and decongestion of Metro Manila
(D) Education for all
(E) Closure of Wounds from EDSA 1, 2, and 3

525. Which of the following is not a declared goal of physical planning under MTPDP 2004-2010 chapter 3 on ENR?

(A) Complete land classification by December 2010 by validating and verifying forestland boundaries covering a
total of 78,450 kms within 79 provinces
(B) Provide easier access to markets at home and abroad to alleviate poverty in the countryside; thus enhancing
peace and order in isolated conflict-affected regions through efficient transport and trade; -
(C) Ensure integrity of land titling system in order to promote development of a mortgage market for lands,
prevent illegal titling, by strengthening registration and monitoring of land titles through digitization of land records
(D) Accelerate distribution/titling of 1.1 million hectares of alienable and disposable public land below 18%
slope by completing survey on 3.8 million hectares in 361 cities/towns

526. Under PD 933, Executive Order 90, and EO 648, this is the independent agency that implements the laws, policies,
rules, and regulations of government with regard to optimizing the use of land as a resource.
 (A) National Land Use Committee (C) Land Management Bureau
(B) Land Registration Authority (D) Housing and Land Use Regulatory Board

527. Which function of the agency referred to in immediately-preceding question is considered 'quasi-judicial' or 'adjudicative'?

(A)Formulate a multi-year integrated national plan on human settlements and identify and develop the spatial
. implications and components of national and regional development plans, policies and programs
(B) Conduct public hearings on all human settlements plans for submission to NEDA and on all other plans
prepared by it
(C) Require all persons, corporations or other entities to furnish it with such physical and operational plans, maps and
other relevant information as it may need to discharge its duties
(D) Act as appellate body in case of conflicting decisions and actions arising from the exercise of the physical
planning functions of the regional and/or local planning agencies.

528. In the Philippines, this is historically the most commonly used tool of LGUs to implement land use plans

(A) legal expropriation (B) seizure and closure (C) capital investment program (D) zoning

529. In the absence of a Department of Housing, which public official chairs the governing boards of government agencies
that have direct operational functions related Land Use, Urban Planning, and Mass Shelter?

(A) Secretary of Socio-Economic Planning (C) Chairperson of Metropolitan Manila Development Authority
(B) Chairperson of HUDCC (D) Secretary of Department of Environment and Natural Resources

530. Which of the following tends to have the least public accountability at the local level?

(A) Peace and Order Council (C) DlLG – Local Government Operations Officer
(B) Fisheries & Aquaculture Resources Management Council (D) National Housing Authority

531. What are the tools or levers of authority of city/town Local Government Units to implement their local plans?

(A) clearance, non-conformance, variance, exemptions, licenses, and permits

(B) condemnation, legal expropriation, seizure, confiscation, closure and takeover of property
(C) zoning and regulation, subdivision controls, taxation, public investment, incentives to private investment
(D) levies, duties, charges, tolls, and tariffs

532. If a Masterplan such as NFPP and RPPF has a timeframe of one generation or 30 years, a City/Town land use plan
may adopt either the timeframe of population doubling time (dt0693) as suggested by Professor Ernesto Serote
or the shorter timeframe of _____ to cover maximum three terms of locally elected officials.

(A) 10 years (B) 15 years (B) 20 years (C) 25 years

533. If a medium-term National Development Plan has a timeframe of 6 years, what would be the sensible timeframe of
a multi-sectoral Regional Development Plan inorder to be compatible with the National Development Plan?

(A) 3 years (B) 5 years (B) 12 years (C) 20 years

534. Which is not a component of the multi-sectoral Regional Development Plan?

(A) Regional Economic Production (agriculture, industry, services) (D) Regional Land Use Code
(B) Regional Infrastructure Development Plan (E) Regional Settlements Plan
(C) Environmental Protection, Conservation, and Management

535 What are the administrative levels of government that RA 7160 LGC describes and makes provisions for?

(A) national, regional, district, city/town, village (C) local, supra-local, inter-local, sub-local
(B) provincial, city/municipal, barangay (D) macro, meso, mela, and micro
Practice Questions for EnP Licensure Examinations.......................................................................Page 60
Instruction: Write the letter of best answer on box provided.

536. Which one describes the types of positions and employment in a Local GOVernment Unitas per RA 7160 LGC?

(A) executive, legislative, judiciary, protective (police)

(B) elective office, appointive office, rank and file (career Service and temporarycasual employment)
(C) top management, middle management, Supervisorial, clerical, field position, meniallutility boys
(D) policy-makers, coterminous political appointees, technical specialists, bureaucratic employees

537. What is the role of Sangguniang Panlalawigan in the planning process?

(A) formulation of plans

(B) approval of plans of highly urbanized cities
(C) review of ordinances and resolutions approving municipal development plans .
(D) approval of residential subdivision projects

538. Which is nota goal of the Provincial Physical Framework Plan?

(A) enhance the integration of the national economy through the balanced distribution of population, natural resources, and
economic activities
(B) guide government agencies and private developers on proper location of large scale infrastructure projects as well as
other sectoral plans and activities that have to do with land, environment, and natural resources
(C) reconcile and rationalize land use proposals of component territories in relation to higher level framework plans
(D) provide basis for adjudicating conflicts arising from the implementation of land use plans and development projects that
straddle the boundaries of two or more municipalities

539. Which statement is true about Executive Legislative Agenda?

(A) it is a political compromise between quarreling executive and legislative officials from rival parties
(B) it is an integrated holistic plan that can serve as physical framework in the absence of CLUP
(C) it is a harmonized enumeration of LGU ordinances that stipulate criminal penalties and civil sanctions.
(D) it highlights the common vision and reconciled priorities of elected officials for their -year term of office

540. What percentage of composition of Local Development Councils is allocated to NGOSPOs by RA 7160?

(A) 20% (B)40% (C) 35% (D) 25%

541. Which statement is false?

(A) RLUC approves CLUPs of autonomous regions

(B) NLUC prepares national physical framework.
(C) HLURB approves PPFPs of all provinces and CLUPs of Metro Manila cities and municipalities.
(D) PLUC approves CLUPs of component cities and municipalities

542. Which of the following is not a specific responsibility of the Provincial Government?

(A) conservation of public lands through the Provincial Physical Framework Plan
(B) preparation of development programs such as reforestation, Small-scale mining, fisheries development
and managed pastures,
(C) enforcement of uniform urban design for all component municipalities
(D) adjudication of conflicts which arise from the implementation of localzoning ordinances

543. According to RA7160 Sec. 451, a province should have a population of at least 250,000 and minimum territory of ?

(A) 1000 sq.km (B) 1500 sq.km (C) 2000 sq.km (D) 2500 sq.km
 Practice Questions for EnP Licensure Examinations.......................................................................Page 61
Instruction: Write the letter of best answer on box provided.

544. According to RA 7160 Sec. 441, a municipality should have a population of at least 25,000, income of at least 25
million based on 1991 Constant prices, and a minimum territory of ____?

(A) 50sq.m. (B) 100 sq.m (C) 150 sq.m (D) 200 sq.m

545. Under RA 7160 Local Government Code Sec 16, the overall goals of an LGU need to be compatible with:

(A) Declaration of Policies (B) Corporate Nature & Goals (C) Sustainable Development (D) General Welfare clause

546. In preparing LGU plans of all kinds, a multi-disciplinary committee composed of local experts with specialized
knowledge of various sectors, assists the overall planning body in integrating wide-ranging, cross-sectoral issues.

(A) Independent study group (C) One-Stop Action Center

(B) Local Board of Zoning Appeals and Adjustments (D) Technical Working Group

547. Under RA7160 Local Government Code Sec. 443, the position of “Environment and Natural Resources Officer" is optional for
a rural municipality. Should a wealthy LGU decide to create it, such position would partially overlap with
what current field position of the national government?

(A) ARC Development Facilitator (B) DILGLGOO (C) DAR - MARO (D) DENRCENRO

548. Under RA 7160 Local Government Code Sec. 443, the position of Municipal Architect is optional, hence the
functions of a “Building Official" are essentially discharged by –

(A)Zoning Administrator (B) MPDC (C) Municipal Engineer (D) Municipal Administrator

549. Under RA 7160 Local Government Code Sec. 443d, who appoints the municipal treasurer subject to Civil
Servicelaw and professional standards?

(A) Local Sanggunian (B) Provincial Governor (C) Department ofFinance Secretary (D) Municipal Mayor

550. Under RA7160 Local Government Code Sec. 443d, who appoints the municipal budget officer subject to Civil
Service law and professional standards?

(A) Local Sanggunian (B) Provincial Governor (C) DILG Secretary (D) Municipal Mayor

551. Under RA 7160 Local Government Code Section 236, “a province, city, or a municipality in Metropolitan Manila Area,
may levy an annual tax on idle lands at the rate not exceeding____ of the assessed value of the property which
shall be in addition to the basic real property tax.”

(A) 5% (B) 7% (C) 8% (D) 10%

552. Municipalities as a group are entitled to 34% of total Internal Revenue Allotment, distributed based on formula adopted
since 3rdyear of RA7160 implementation-- 60% population, 40%land area. The practical implication of this scheme is
that

(A) Urbanization in already-populous towns is reinforced with bigger IRA allotments.

(B) There is ambivalent signal for towns to control population growth and succeed in family planning.
(C) The allocation does not consider ‘actual need’ such as poverty incidence or median family income.
(D) all of the above.

553. Because the value of ted property rises in direct relation to perceived progress, RA 7160 Sec. 235 allows LGUs to
capture part of privategains from “value added” by regular public spending on roads, infrastructure, and utilities by C
institutionalizing a special levy at one percent (1%) of assessed value of real property, which revenues are then
funneled to the local treasury as