YOUR LBP ASSESSMENT PAPER 5/1

EASA MODULE 5 CATEGORY B1 B2

DIGITAL TECHNIQUES
To be completed after studying the module.
If the module has more than one assessment paper then is to be
completed after studying the appropriate part of the module.

After completion mark your paper using the marking guide attached.

It is recommended that you sit this assessment as

if you are doing an actual CAA examination. After-all,
it is more a learning tool than an examination. In this
way it gets you used to the examination environment
and helps in the learning process.

The CAA allow 1.3 minutes per question so you can gauge the
approximate time in which to complete this paper.
Licence By Post EASA 66 5/1

MODULE 5 – DIGITAL TECHNIQUES & ELECTRONIC SYSTEMS ISSUE 9

MULTIPLE CHOICE PAPER

Questions marked * are for B2 students only.

1. The binary for 27 is:

a) 11011.
b) 11010.
c) 10101.

2. The decimal equivalent of 1011012 is:

a) 42.
b) 45.
c) 43.

3. * Convert 11010112 to Octal:

a) 1538.
b) 6118.
c) 538.

4. Convert 3248 to Binary:

a) 1101100.
b) 0110110.
c) 11010100.

5. The Octal System has a base of:

a) 12.
b) 8.
c) 16.

6. * Convert 1110110112 to hexadecimal:

a) 7AD16.
b) 1DB16.
c) 1BD16.

7. * Convert AE16 to binary:

a) 10101110.
b) 11000001.
c) 10101010.
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8. * Convert 8710 to BCD:

a) 0001 1110.
b) 0111 1000.
c) 1000 0111.

9. * Convert the BCD number 0110011001 to decimal:

a) 84410.
b) 17710.
c) 19910.

10. A B S
0 0 1
1 0 1
0 1 1
1 1 0

The truth table is for a:

a) NAND gate.
b) NOR gate.
c) XOR gate.

11. The Boolean expression A B + A B = S represents the output of:

a) NAND gate.
b) XOR gate.
d) NOR gate.

12. The Boolean expression A + B represents the output of an:

a) OR gate.
b) NOR gate.
c) AND gate.

13. Two switches in parallel can be represented by an:

a) OR gate.
b) AND gate.
c) XOR gate.

14.

The equivalent of the gate shown is a:

a) AND gate.
b) OR gate.
c) NOR gate.
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15. * VLSI means that the number of gates in a single I C package is:

a) Up to 1000.
b) Up to 100.
c) Over 1000.

16. * Fan-in of a gate is the:

a) Number of outputs from a gate.

b) Number of inputs to a gate.
c) The number of inputs and outputs to a gate.

17.

The gates above represent:

a) A NOT gate.
b) An AND gate.
c) An OR gate.

18. * An SR Flip-Flop is set when:

a) Q = 1.
b) Q = 1.
c) Q = 0.

19. * In a JK flip flop assuming Q = 0 Q = 1 and logic 1 is applied to J and K

inputs the result will be:

a) Q = 0 Q = 1.
b) Q = 1 Q = 1.
c) Q = 1 Q = 0.

20. * An encoder is used to:

a) Convert the output signal from binary to a signal for operation of

component or indicator.
b) Convert the input signal into binary signal necessary for operation of
the system.
c) Convert a digital signal to an analogue signal.

21. * A Multiplexer:

a) Takes many signals in and puts these signals in a serial transmission

on the output.
b) Takes one signal in and puts this signal in parallel transmission to a
number of outputs.
c) Takes many signals in and puts these in a parallel transmission on
the output.
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22. The software element of a computer is the:

a) The CPU.
b) The programme.
c) The control bus.

23. The CPU in a computer system is the:

a) Central Position Unit.

b) Central Power Unit
c) Central Processing Unit.

24. * The CPU consist of:

a) Register, arithmetic logic unit only.

b) Arithmetic logic unit, timing and control section, register.
c) Register, timing and control section only.

25. A RAM is:

a) Read/write memory.
b) Read only memory.
c) Random access microprocessor.

26. * The advantage of a DRAM over a SRAM is that it:

a) Operates slower.
b) Has a smaller storage capacity per chip area.
c) Is cheaper to manufacture.

27. The ROM:

a) Has no memory.
b) Is a non-volatile memory.
c) Is a volatile memory.

28. A BYTE is usually a:

a) 12 bit word.
b) 8 bit word.
c) 6 bit word.

29. * The highway structure for a computer has the following buses:

a) Address, data, control.

b) Control, data, memory.
c) Memory, address, control.

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30. The ARINC 429 SYSTEM uses the following system to transfer data:

a) Non-return to zero.
b) Harvard bi-phase.
c) Bipolar return to zero.

31. ARINC 429 system has a:

a) 26 bit word.
b) 32 bit word.
c) 18 bit word.

32. ARINC 429 uses:

a) Odd parity.
b) Even parity.
c) No parity.

33. Which of the following ARINC’s are bi-directional:

a) 429.
b) 629.
c) 573.

34. In the MIL-STD-1553B standard, transfer of data on the bus is achieved

by a:

a) Remote Controller.
b) Synch Controller.
c) Bus Controller

35. * Data is transferred on the MIL-STD-1553B by using:

a) Bi-polar return to zero.

b) Manchester bi-phase.
c) Non return to zero.

36. The general arrangement of ARINC 629 includes:

a) Current mode coupler, data bus cable only.

b) Data bus cable, stub cable, voltage mode coupler.
c) Data bus cable, current mode coupler, stub cables.

37. One of the advantages of fibre optic cables compared to “twisted pair”
cables is that they are:

a) Slower in operation.
b) Not suitable for multiplex signals.
c) Smaller in size and weight.

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38. * The fibre optic cable can be identified on the aircraft by its jacket colour
of:

a) Purple.
b) Red.
c) Yellow.

39. If three binary counters are connected in cascade the division is:

a) 9.
b) 8.
c) 3.

40. For a fibre optic connector that is not regularly connected or disconnected,
the connector to use would be a:

a) Ceramic lens type.

b) Ball lens type.
c) Butt type.

41. When removing a printed circuit board from an LRU you would:

a) Ensure dust caps are fitted.

b) Use a wrist strap with a low grounding lead resistance.
c) Use the extractors provided.

42. The light emitting diode is basically a:

a) N-P-N junction.
b) P-N junction.
c) Zener diode.

43. Control of brightness on a CRT is achieved by the:

a) Grid.
b) Anode.
c) Cathode.

44. To deflect the beam of a CRT horizontally, coils are placed on the neck of
the tube:

a) One on the side, one at the bottom.

b) Each side.
c) Top and bottom.

45. The waveform used to scan the screen of a CRT is:

a) Square waveform.
b) Sawtooth waveform.
c) Triangular waveform.

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46. The timebase in a CRT consists of:

a) Amplifier and oscillator.

b) Oscillator only.
c) Amplifier only.

47. The phosphor dots on the colour CRT screen are coated to individually
produce:

a) Red, green, yellow.

b) Blue, green, red.
c) Green, blue, yellow.

48. The third symbol generator used in an EFIS is for back-up of:

a) Both crew members systems.

b) The captain’s instruments only.
c) The first officer’s instruments only.

49. * The type of scanning used to produce the ground/sky colouring on an

EADI is:

a) Line.
b) Stroke.
c) Raster.

50. If the CRT in an EADI overheated, initially the CRT:

a) Blanks.
b) Goes monochromatic.
c) Raster is removed.

51. The EHSI has which of the following modes?

a) MAP, PLAN, VOR and ILS.

b) PLAN, MAP only.
c) VOR, ILS, MAP only.

52. The colour of failure indications on the EHSI is:

a) Red.
b) Yellow.
c) White.

53. In the layout of a modern aircraft flight-deck display the pilot would have
directly in front of him/her the:

a) Primary Flight Display and ECAM.

b) Navigation Display and ECAM.
c) Primary Flight Display and Navigation Display.

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54. * An ADIRU is a combination of:

a) Inertial Radio Unit and Air Data Computer.

b) Air Data Computer and Instrument Reference Unit.
c) Air Data Computer and Inertial Reference Unit.

55. On EICAS the three levels of warning are:

a) Level A, B and C
b) Level 1, 2 and 3.
c) Level 1, 2, 3 and advisory.

56. On EICAS, if caution and advisories are displayed advisories are identified
by being:

a) Red in colour.
b) Yellow in colour.
c) Yellow in colour and indented by one space.

57. Pressing the CANCEL button on EICAS causes:

a) All messages to be removed.

b) Advisory messages only are removed.
c) Advisory and caution messages to be removed.

58. During flight (non fault conditions) the ECAM system displays on the lower
CRT the:

a) Secondary engine parameters.

b) Flight phase page.
c) Synoptic display.

59. Under fault conditions the lower display unit on ECAM shows the:

a) Status page.
b) Synoptic display of the faulty system.
c) Secondary engine parameters.

60. If the lower display unit fails on ECAM it can be transferred to:

a) Primary Flight Display.

b) Navigation Display.
c) Cannot be transferred.

61. The ARINC used in Flight Data Recording is:

a) 537.
b) 429.
c) 573.

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62. The method of data transfer from the DFDAU to the DFDR (Flight Data
Recording System) is:

a) Bipolar return to zero.

b) Harvard bi-phase.
c) Non return to zero.

63. What are the resistance values of an ESDS wrist strap?

a) 250kΩ to 1.5mΩ.
b) 20MΩ to 50MΩ.
c) 10kΩ to 150kΩ.

64. The flight data recorder is switched on in a helicopter when the:

a) Busbar is live.
b) Weight switch is made.
c) Engine is started.

65. A modern air data computer will feed information to:

a) Altimeter, mach/airspeed, ground proximity computer.

b) Inertial reference unit, altimeter, EHSI.
c) EADI, altimeter, mach/airspeed indicator.

66. Who can sign for a software update?

a) An appropriately authorised aircraft engineer.

b) A category “C” engineer only.
c) A CAA surveyor only.

67. Who can design new software?

a) A BCAR section A8 approved company.

b) A BCAR section A1 approved company.
c) The CAA.

68.

The flight director bars are displayed as shown, to respond the pilot would:

a) Fly down and right.

b) Fly up and left.
c) Fly up and right.

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69.

The glideslope indicator on the ADI is displayed as shown above. To regain

the glidepath the pilot would:

a) Fly up.
b) Fly down.
c) Stay on course.

70. The engine information to the flight data recorder is fed:

a) From dedicated transmitters.

b) From normal transmitters with isolation between the transmitters
and FDR.
c) Direct.

71. In ARINC 629 is the terminal gap the same for all LRU’s:

a) Yes.
b) No.
c) Half have the same, the other half have a different gap.

72. Which display has an extended runway symbol?

a) EHSI.
b) EADI.
c) VSI.

73. Which display gives engine indications?

a) EFIS.
b) FMS.
c) ECAM.

74. HIRF protection of LRU’s is provided by:

a) Built in filters and over-voltage protection circuits.

b) Internally shielded cables.
c) Built in filters only.

75. If the inputs to a NAND gate are inverted the output will be:

a) An AND gate.
b) An OR gate.
c) A NOR gate.

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76. Using ARINC 429 BCD the data bits are:

a) 11 – 28.
b) 11 – 29.
c) 1 – 8.

77. Which of the following is an opto-electronic device?

a) A laser diode.
b) A triac.
c) A thyristor.

78. What is the advantage of a single mode fibre optic over ordinary electrical
wire?

a) Can pass one signal.

b) Smaller bandwidth.
c) Larger bandwidth.

79. 15 in hexadecimal is:

a) E.
b) F.
c) G.

80. In a CRT, if the magnetic field is parallel to the Y plates, what will be the
direction of the electronic beam movement?

a) Vertical.
b) Horizontal.
c) Vertical and horizontal.

81. What is the meaning of software criticality level A?

a) Minor Effect.
b) Major Effect.
c) Catastrophic Effect.

82. What is the maximum bonding resistance for an electro-static device which
has an operating voltage of 50 volts or higher?

a) 500,000 ohms
b) 1 ohm.
c) 0.05 ohm.

83. HF aerials are protected against lightning strikes by:

a) Double bonding.
b) A spark gap.
c) Screening.
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84. To stop earth-loops forming:

a) Both ends of the cable screen are earthed.

b) One end of the cable screen is earthed.
c) The cable screen is not earthed.

85. The maximum number of terminals that can be connected to ARINC 629 is:

a) 20.
b) 31.
c) 120.

86. In ARINC 429 the LABEL is in:

a) BINARY.
b) BCD.
c) OCTAL.

87. FMS alerting modes are:

a) OFST and FAIL.

b) FAIL and MSG.
c) MSG, FAIL and OFST.

88. The maximum number of terminals connected to ARINC 429 is:

a) 20.
b) 31.
c) 120.

89. What is the deflection field on a CRT if electromagnetic deflection is used?

a) Triangular.
b) Sawtooth.
c) Trapezoid.

90. What frequency is used to create the raster effect on a CRT?

a) 50/60Hz.
b) 20Hz.
c) 120Hz.

91. Earth rate is approximately:

a) 24°/hour.
b) 15°/hour.
c) 360°/hour.

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92. The IRS computes distance from acceleration by:

a) Two successive differentiation’s.

b) Two successive integration’s.
c) One integration and one differentiation.

93. Data bus cables are terminated using a:

a) 130Ω resistor.
b) 100Ω resistor.
c) 25Ω resistor.

94. In the IRS the accelerometers are mounted:

a) 45° to each other.

b) 60° to each other.
c) 90° to each other.

95. On the fly-by-wire system of the A320, the stabiliser trim is controlled by:

a) The ELAC.
b) The ELAC and SEC.
c) The SEC.

96. How many satellites are required in the GPS for accurate positioning?

a) 3.
b) 4.
c) 2.

97. A disadvantage of LCD is that it:

a) Requires no cooling.
b) Takes less power.
c) Has a narrow viewing angle.

98. How is software shown in a schematic diagram?

a) Hard lined box.

b) Dotted lined box.
c) Circled.

99. Parallel to series conversion is achieved by a:

a) Parallel to series converter.

b) Shift register.
c) Multiplexer/de-multiplexer.

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100. In ARINC 629 an LRU connection to the data bus requires a:

a) Current mode coupler, serial interface module and terminal

controller.
b) Current mode coupler, terminal controller and a production break.
c) Terminal controller and interface module.

101. The CMC (Central Maintenance Computer) is used to:

a) Perform in-flight and ground tests of aircraft systems, ie BITE.

b) Give red warning and amber cautions to displays IAW system
status.
c) Perform in-flight BITE only.

102. Fly-by-wire load alleviation function in turbulent conditions will result in:

a) Ailerons moving symmetrically upwards.

b) Ailerons and spoiler moving asymmetrically upwards.
c) Spoilers moving symmetrically.

103. * What is the function of the status register within a computer?

a) To indicate the status of the microprocessor.

b) To store a programme during interrupt.
c) To synchronise the clock pulse.

104. In a fibre optic system, different light frequencies are separated by:

a) An active filter.
b) A passive filter.
c) A star network.

105. Sensors in a fly-by-light control system:

a) Require power for processors.

b) Require no power.
c) Require processing to give an output.

106. * What type of operational amplifier is used in a decoder?

a) Integrator.
b) Comparator.
c) Differentiator.

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107. This circuit is:

a) A comparator.
b) A full adder.
c) A half adder.

108. The dot matrix LED construction is:

a) 4 x 7 or 5 x 9 rolling digit display.

b) 4 x 7 or 9 x 5 rolling digit display.
c) 5 x 9 or 7 x 4 rolling digit display.

109. If a sine wave voltage is applied to a circular time base circuit, the voltages
on the X and Y plates are:

a) 90° out of phase.

b) 180° out of phase.
c) In phase

110. To allow for high speed signals in a fibre optic data bus system to be
coupled to many fibre stubs a:

a) Star coupler for each fibre stub is used.

b) Only one star coupler is required.
c) Two star couplers are required.

’’’’’’’’’’’’’’’’’’

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Licence By Post EASA 66 5/1

MULTI CHOICE ANSWER PAPER ISSUE 9

Name ………………………………….. Student number ………… Date ………….

Subject Digital Techniques & Electronic Systems

Assessment number 1 of 1 sheet 1 of 2

A B C A B C A B C A B C A B C
1 21 41 61 81

2 22 42 62 82

3 23 43 63 83

4 24 44 64 84

5 25 45 65 85

6 26 46 66 86

7 27 47 67 87

8 28 48 68 88

9 29 49 69 89

10 30 50 70 90

11 31 51 71 91

12 32 52 72 92

13 33 53 73 93

14 34 54 74 94

15 35 55 75 95

16 36 56 76 96

17 37 57 77 97

18 38 58 78 98

19 39 59 79 99

20 40 60 80 100

ON COMPLETION OF THE PAPER CHECK YOUR ANSWERS AGAINST THE MARKING GUIDE ATTACHED.
DOUBLE CHECK ANY CORRECTED ANSWERS. PASS MARK IS 75%.
Licence By Post EASA 66 5/1

MULTI CHOICE ANSWER PAPER ISSUE 9

Name ……………………………….. Student number ………… Date ………….

Subject Digital techniques & electronic systems

Assessment number 1 of 1 sheet 2 of 2

A B C A B C A B C A B C A B C
101 121 141 161 181

102 122 142 162 182

103 123 143 163 183

104 124 144 164 184

105 125 145 165 185

106 126 146 166 186

107 127 147 167 187

108 128 148 168 188

109 129 149 169 189

110 130 150 170 190

111 131 151 171 191

112 132 152 172 192

113 133 153 173 193

114 134 154 174 194

115 135 155 175 195

116 136 156 176 196

117 137 157 177 197

118 138 158 178 198

119 139 159 179 199

120 140 160 180 200

ON COMPLETION OF THE PAPER CHECK YOUR ANSWERS AGAINST THE MARKING GUIDE ATTACHED.
DOUBLE CHECK ANY CORRECTED ANSWERS. PASS MARK IS 75%.
LBP Multiple choice answers (answers should be checked)

EASA Part 66 B1/B2 licence module 5 Digital Techniques Assessment 5/1

Q1 a Q51 a Q101 a
Q2 b Q52 b Q102 b
Q3 a Q53 c Q103 a
Q4 c Q54 c Q104 b
Q5 b Q55 a Q105 b
Q6 b Q56 c Q106 b
Q7 a Q57 c Q107 c
Q8 c Q58 b Q108 b
Q9 c Q59 b Q109 a
Q10 a Q60 b Q110 b
Q11 b Q61 c
Q12 a Q62 b
Q13 a Q63 b
Q14 a Q64 a
Q15 c Q65 a
Q16 b Q66 a
Q17 b Q67 a
Q18 a Q68 b
Q19 c Q69 a
Q20 b Q70 b
Q21 a Q71 b
Q22 b Q72 b
Q23 c Q73 b
Q24 b Q74 a
Q25 a Q75 b
Q26 c Q76 b
Q27 b Q77 a
Q28 b Q78 c
Q29 a Q79 b
Q30 c Q80 a
Q31 b Q81 c
Q32 a Q82 c
Q33 b Q83 b
Q34 c Q84 b
Q35 a Q85 c
Q36 c Q86 c
Q37 c Q87 c
Q38 a Q88 a
Q39 b Q89 c
Q40 c Q90 a
Q41 c Q91 b
Q42 b Q92 b
Q43 a Q93 a
Q44 c Q94 c
Q45 b Q95 b
Q46 a Q96 b
Q47 b Q97 c
Q48 a Q98 b
Q49 c Q99 b
Q50 c Q100 a