Q1=Which is not a side effect of loop diuretics

A. Alkalosis B. Nausea C. Hypotension D. Potasium deficits !

Q2=Which is associated with reaction of extreme photosensitivity ? !
A. Digitalis B. Niacin C. Tetracycline D. Flouroquinolone!
Q3=Which anesthetic is beneficial in ischemic heart patients?
A- enflurane B- isoflurane C- halothane
Q4=To prevent mountain sickness which diuretic is used?
A- furosemide B- acetazolamide C- hydrochlorthiazide D- spironolactone
Q5=One of the following is given once daily:
a- Amorphous Insulin b- Protamine Zinc Insulin c- Neutral insulin d- Regular Insulin
Q6=Which of following drug is related to tendon dysfunction?
A- Niacin B- flouroquinolones C- aminoglycosides D- chloramphenicol
Q7=Triazolam comes in which class of benzodiazepines?
A- short acting B- long acting C- intermediate acting
Q8=In which stage of anesthesia surgery is performed?
A- stage 1 B- stage 4 C- stage 3 D- stage 2
Q9=pentoxifylline use as :-
a-peripheral vasoconstriction b-dry cough c-......................
Q10=Hepatitis Vaccine dose is :
a- Once / year b- Twice / Year c- Three times / Year d-None of the above
Q11=Sterility through .22 m filter, do not remove:-
A)bacteria b)virus c)fungi d) a+c e)b+c
Q12=In poisoning of Calcium channel blockers, we give
A- ethanol B- glucagon C- calcium gluconate D- methanol
Q13=Which is not side effect of vasodilator (NIFEDIPINE)
A. Nausea B. Flush appearance C. Vertigo D. Sexual dysfunction
Q14=Red man syndrome is caused by
A. Isoniazid B. Vancomycin C. Cyclobenxaprine D. None
Q15=Which increase the action of morphine:-
a ) vit k b)carbazepine c)amidarone d)contraceptive
Q16=Desired action of a medication is its
A. Medication reaction B. Saftey action C. Therapeutic action D. None
Q17=A drug ending in suffix Navir is
A. Antidepresant B. Protease inhibitor C. Beta antagonist D. H 2 antagonist
Q18=Which one is nephrotoxic?
A- desflurane B- sevoflurane C- halothane
Q19=Which Aminoglycoside antibiotic can be taken orally ?
a- Gentamycin b- Neomycin c- Amikacin d- Tobramycin
Q20=Insulin which can be given I.V. is :-
a- Regular type b- 30/70 type c- NPH type d- None of the above
Q21=All of the following for prophylaxis of asthma except :-
a- Ketotifen b- Nedocromil Sod. c- Sod. Cromoglycate d- Salbutamol
Q22=The drug of choice to control pain during acute myocardial infarction is :
a-naloxone b-bethidine c-morphine d-celecoxib
Q23=if a drug has the same active ingredient like other drug but not contain the same
inactiveingredient this mean :-
a- Bioequivalent b-pharmaceutical equivalent c- pharmaceutical alternative d- A,B
Q24=The United States Pharmacopoeia(USP) Content uniformity test for tablets is used to ensure
which quality???
A-dissulution B-potency C-purity D-toxicity
Q25=Rifampicin is indicated for treatment of :
a-impaired fat absorption b-pulmonary emboli c-tuberculosis d-neoplastic disorders
Q26=solubility enhanced through :-
a- reduce particle size b- increase surface area c- increase particle size
d- decrease surface area e- A&B
Q27=Chiral molecule mean:-
a-dipole moment b- solubility c- chelating prep. d-optical activity
Q28=sustained release dosage form is used to
a-increase half life b- drug have low therapeutic index c- .............................
Q29=in order to avoid the rate related ADR all of the following drugz shud b given slow IV except.
A.meropenem B.ceftrixone C.ceftizidine D.atropine E.calithromycin
Q30=Inderal is :
a-similar in action to ergotamine b-similar in action to tubocurarine
c-used as an antihistamine d-pure b -adrenergic receptor blocker
Q31=The ability of a liquid to dissolve is :
a-hydrophilicity b-miscibility c-immiscibility d-solubility equilibrium
Q32=Very small molecule(1 part ) soluble in 10,000 part of water..
a- fairly soluble b- slightly soluble C-immiscible
d- miscible e- insoluble
Q33=Normal water can be used in:-
a- parentral prep. b-ophthalmic prep. c- oral susp. d-external prep.
Q34=Which of the following monochlonal antibodies is prescribed for patients with non-Hodgkin's
Lymphoma?
a.Infiximab b.Abciximab c.Gemetuzumab d.Rituximab
Q35=For the treatment of anaphylactic shock use :
a-salbutamol b-diphenhydramine c-acetazolamide d-epinephrine
Q36=------- are known as 100 % tinctures?
A- elixirs B- spirits C- fluid extracts D- aromatic oils
Q37=analgesic frm opium poppy
1-diezepam 2-morphine 3-aspirin4-diclofenac
Q38=all are characteristics of amphotericin B except:
A.used for systemic mycosis
B.poor absorption from GIT
C.no nephrotoxicity
D.influence the permeability of fungus cell membrane
Q39=gloves sterlzed bi
1-ethylene oxide 2-hot air oven method 3-dry heat 4-radient heat
Q40=Which of the following is the first choice in acute gout?
a-allopurinol b-indomethacin c-colchicine d-probencid
Q41=Insulin syringes:
A are calibrated in mL B are calibrated in units
C a large gauge needle is required D maximum volume is 5 Ml
Q42=The Latin abbreviation for " After Meals " is :
a- a.c. b- a.a. c- p.c. d- i.c. e- c.c.
Q43=pencillinase resistant penicillin
1-benzyl penicillin 2-cloxacillin 3-amoxycillin 4-ampicillin
Q44=The Latin abbreviation P.r.n means
A- if necessary B- to be used C- when required D- as directed
Q45=Which route of administration would provide the most rapid onset of action response to
morphine ?
a-oral b-S.C. c-I.V. d-I.M. e-rectal
Q46=The action of histamine is :
a-capillary constriction b-elevation of blood pressure
c-stimulation of gastric secretion d-skeletal muscle paralysise-slowing the heart rate
Q47=Which of the following is the Bacterial Disease?
A. Measles B. Tuberculosis C. Diphtheria D. Malaria
Q48=Which one is the FAT SPLITTING ENZYME?
A.Intestinal lipase B.Enterokinase C.Sucrase D.Lactase
Q49=All of the following are viral infections Except..
(A) influenza (B) measles (C) mumps (D) hepatitis (E) typhoid fever