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2. The oldest eukaryotic organisms are considered to 9. Which of the following is not true for prokaryotic
be organism?
A. diplomonads like Giardia A. Nucleus is not bounded by nuclear membrane
B. archaea B. Chromosomes does not contain histones
C. fungi C. 80S ribosomes are distributed in cytoplasm
D.animals D. Cell wall contains peptidoglycan as one of the major
Answer: Option B component
Answer: Option C
3. The phospholipids present in cytoplasm membrane
of eubacteria is mainly 10. Gram staining was introduced by
A. phosphoglycerides A. Christian gram
B. polyisoprenoid B. Alfred Gram
C. phospholipoprotein C. Robertcook
D. none of these D.Louis Pasteur
Answer: Option A Answer: Option A
4. Which were the investigators lived at the same 11. Which of the following is considered the most
time? unifying concept in biology?
A. Koch and Pasteur A. Taxonomy
B. Darwin and Woese B. Anatomy
C. Van Leeuenhoek and Ricketts C. Genetics
D. Berg and Hooke D. Evolution
Answer: Option A Answer: Option D
5. The unifying feature of the archaea that 12. Various bacterial species can be subdivided into
distinguishes them from the bacteria is A. subspecies
A. habitats which are extreme environments with B. biovarieties
regard to acidity C. serovarieties
B. absence of a nuclear membrane temperature D. all of these
C. presence of a cell wall containing a characteristic Answer: Option D
outer membrane
D. cytoplasmic ribosomes that are 70S 13. Living organisms have many complex
Answer: Option B characteristics. Which one of the following is shared by
non-living matter as well?
6. Mycoplasmas are different from the other A. Homeostasis
prokaryotes by B. Tissues
A. presence of chitin in cell walls C. Reproduction
B. presence of murrain in cell walls D. Molecules
C. presence of proteins in cell walls Answer: Option D
D. absence of cell wall itself
Answer: Option D 14. A newly discovered microscopic structure is
hypothesized to be a living organism. Which of the
7. Evolutionary relationships between groups of following lines of evidence would support the
organisms are determined using which of the following contention that this organism may be alive?
type of information? A. It contains DNA
A. Comparisons of nucleotide sequences B. It is made of a single cell
B. Comparisons of biochemical pathways C. It utilizes energy
C. Comparisons of structural features D. All of these
D. All of the above Answer: Option C
Answer: Option D
15. Mycoplasmas, rickettsiae, and chlamydiae are
A. types of fungi
B. small bacteria
C. species of protozoa
D. forms of viruses
Answer: Option B
16. Which of the following structure is absent in 24. All membranes of free-living organisms have
eukaryotic cells? phospholipid bilayers, but exception is
A. Mitochondria A. bacteria
B. Chloroplasts B. fungi
C. Golgi structure C. archaea
D. Mesosome D. protozoa
Answer: Option D Answer: Option C
20. Cell theory includes all of the following except 28. Which of the following may account for the small
A. all organisms are composed of one or more cells size of the cells?
B. the cell is the most primitive form of life A. The rate of diffusion
C. the cell is the structural unit of life B. The surface area/volume ratio
D. cells arise by division of preexisting cells C. The number of mRNAs that can be produced by the
Answer: Option B nucleus
D. All of the above
21. The five-kingdom system of classification was set Answer: Option D
up by
A. Louis Pasteur 29. Genetic and biochemical similarities between
B. Robert Whittaker contemporary cyanobacteria and eukaryotic
C. Robert Koch chloroplasts are accepted to mean that
D. Masaki Ogata A. eukaryotes evolved from bacteria
Answer: Option B B. eukaryotes evolved from archaea
C. oxygenic photosynthesis first evolved in eukaryotes
22. The membranes of which domains are chemically D. cyanobacteria arose from chloroplasts which
the most similar? escaped from plant cells
A. Archaea and Bacteria Answer: Option B
B. Bacteria and Eukarya
C. Eukarya and Archaea 30. Which of the following best represents the
D. membranes of all three domains are chemically hierarchy of levels of biological classification?
identical A. Phylum, kingdom, class, order, genus, species,
Answer: Option B family
B. Kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus,
23. Primary differences between cilia and flagella are species
A. arrangement of microtubules C. Kingdom, phylum, family, class, order, genus,
B. length and location of basal bodies species
C. how the microtubules are fused to each other D. Class, order, kingdom, phylum, family, genus,
D. number, length and direction of force species
Answer: Option D Answer: Option B
31. The three domain version of life on earth is based 38. Eukaryotic cell organelles first emerged
on the A. from a specialized lineage of cells within the
A. nucleic acid sequence data kingdom Protista
B. morphological traits B. when prokaryotes engulfed each other and became
C. metabolic traits interdependent
D. characteristics of the cell wall C. when bacteria made their first attempts at
Answer: Option A reproduction
D. just before the origin of the animal and fungal
32. The foundation for the germ theory of disease was kingdoms
set down by Answer: Option B
A. Robert Koch
B. Ronald Ross 39. Who discovered the bacteria that cause cholera?
C. Louis Pasteur A. Pierre Berthelot
D. Walter Reed B. Robert Koch
Answer: Option C C. Louis Pasteur
D. Rudolf Virchow
33. Most microbial structures and enzymes are Answer: Option B
composed of
A. lipids 40. Prokaryotic microorganism include
B. proteins A. protozoa
C. carbohydrates B. fungi
D. lipids and carbohydrates C. bacteria
Answer: Option B D. all of these
Answer: Option C
34. The individual best remembered for bringing
microbes to the world is 41. All the following are basic properties of cells except
A. Robert Hooke A. cells have nuclei and mitochondria
B. Antony Van Leeuenhoek B. cells have a genetic programme and the means to
C. Robert Koch use it
D. Masaki Ogata C. cells are capable of producing more of themselves
Answer: Option B D. cells are able to respond to stimuli
Answer: Option A
35.Micro organisms are found in which of the following
kingdom of five kingdom concept (Whittaker's 42. Which of the following microorganisms is classified
classification)? as a member of archaebacteria?
A. Monera A. Gyanobacteria
B. Protista B. Methanobacteria
C. Fungi C. Trichomonads
D. All of these D. Mycoplasma
Answer: Option D Answer: Option B
36. The first organism in most natural food chains is 43. The idea of selective toxicity was first proposed by
A. a herbivore A. Antony van Leeuwenhoek
B. a decomposer B. Paul Ehrlich
C. photosynthetic C. Louis Pasteur
D. carnivorous D. Alexander Fleming
Answer: Option A Answer: Option B
37. The third kingdom, protista, as suggested by E.H. 44. Which of the following sequences has helped in
Haeckel includes identifying eukaryotes, eubacteria and archeabacterial
A. bacteria cell types?
B. algae A. Signature sequence
C. fungi B. Signal sequence
D. all of these C. Shine-Dalgarno sequence
Answer: Option D D. Amino acid sequence
Answer: Option A
47. One of the reasons for the evolutionary success of 55. All of the following individuals contributed to cell
the kingdom Monera is that its members are theory except
nutritionally diverse. Which of the following(s) is/are A. Robert Hooke
the way(s) of obtaining energy? B. Matthias Schleiden
A. Photoautotrophy C. Theodor Schwann
B. Photoheterotrophy D. Rudolf Virchow
C. Chemoheterotrophy Answer: Option A
D. All of the above
Answer: Option D 56. Eukaryotic micro organisms include
A. protozoa
48. Carl Woese and his colleague are best known for B. fungi
establishing C. algae
A. the five kingdom system D. all of these
B. the three domain system Answer: Option D
C. the prokaryote-eukaryote system
D. the plant-animal system 57. The binomial name of a microbe is composed of
Answer: Option B A. its kingdom and genus names
B. its genus name and a species modifier
49. Which of the following is not found in the kingdom C. its family and class names
Monera? D. its genus and species names
A. Organelles Answer: Option B
B. Organized cell structure
C. Ability to reproduce 58. Which of the following is a characteristic unique to
D. Ability to use energy the ciliates?
Answer: Option A A. Use of cilia as a sensory function
B. Presence of both a macronucleus and several
50. Which of the following is the most primitive? micronuclei
A. Virus C. Both (a) and (b)
B. Eukaryote D. Possess a light-detecting eye spot
C. Archaeon Answer: Option C
D. Mitochondria
Answer: Option C 59. Which of the following structure is present in
prokaryotic cells?
51. All the following are considered eukaryotes except A. Mitochondria
A. archaea B. Chloroplasts
B. fungi C. Golgi structure
C. protozoa D. Mesosome
D. humans Answer: Option D
Answer: Option A
60. The word cell was first used by
52. Which cell type is considered to have the oldest A. Robert Hooke
ancestor? B. Theodor Schwann
A. Archaea C. Louis Pasteur
B. Bacteria D. Ronald Ross
C. Eukarya Answer: Option A
D. they all share the same ancestor
Answer: Option D 61. What are Blue-Green bacteria called?
A. Acquaobacteria
53. What is Mycology? B. Cyanobacteria
A. Study of viruses C. Protozoa
B. Study of nucleic acid D. None of the above
C. Study of bacteria Answer: Option B
D. Study of fungi
Answer: Option D
62. The endosymbiosis hypothesis provides an
explanation for how
A. eukaryotes developed from prokayotes
B. prokaryotes developed from eukaryotes
C. algae developed from protozoa
D. protozoa developed from algae
Answer: Option A
2. A cluster of polar flagella is called 10. The cell walls of many gram positive bacteria can
A. lophotrichous be easily destroyed by the enzyme known as
B. amphitrichous A. lipase
C. monotrichous B. lysozyme
D. petritrichous C. pectinase
Answer: Option A D. peroxidase
Answer: Option B
3. Flagella move the cell by
A. many flagella beating in a synchronous, whip-like 11. The cell wall of
motion A. gram-positive bacteria are thicker than gram-
B. an individual flagellum beating in a whip-like motion negative bacteria
C. spinning like a propeller B. gram-negative bacteria are thicker than gram-
D. attaching to nearby particles and contracting positive bacteria
Answer: Option C C. both have same thickness but composition is
different
4. The protein from which hook and filaments of D. none of these
flagella are composed of, is Answer: Option A
A. keratin
B. flagellin 12. Peptidoglycan is also known as
C. gelatin A. N-acetyl muramic acid
D. casein B. murein mucopeptide
Answer: Option B C. N acetylglucosamine
D. mesodiaminopimetic acid
5. The cooci which mostly occur in single or pairs are Answer: Option B
A. Streptococci
B. Diplococci 13. Genetic system is located in the prokaryotes in
C. Tetracocci A. nucleoid
D. None of these B. chromatin
Answer: Option B C. nuclear material
D. all of these
6. Which of the following may contain fimbriae? Answer: Option D
A. Gram-positive bacteria
B. Gram-negative bacteria 14. Which is most likely to be exposed on the surface
C. Both (a) and (b) of a gram-negative bacterium?
D. None of these A. Pore protein (porin)
Answer: Option B B. Protein involved in energy generation
C. Lipoteichoic acid
7. Peptidoglycan accounts for __________ of the dry D. Phospholipids
weight of cell wall in many gram positive bacteria Answer: Option A
A. 50% or more
B. About 10% 15. The last step in synthesis of peptidoglycan is
C. 11%+ 0.22% A. attachment of a peptide to muramic acid
D. About 20% B. attaching two amino acids to form a cross-link
Answer: Option A C. attachment of a portion of peptidoglycan to a
membrane lipid
8. Bacteria having no flagella are unable to D. binding of penicillin to a membrane protein
A. move Answer: Option B
B. reproduce
C. stick to tissue surfaces 16. Cytoplasmic inclusions include
D. grow in nutrient agar A. ribosomes
Answer: Option A B. mesosomes
C. fat globules
D. all of these
Answer: Option D
17. The cocci which forms a bunch and irregular 25. The common word for bacteria which are helically
pattern are curved rods is
A. Staphylococci A. cooci
B. diplococci B. pleomorphic
C. Tetracocci C. bacillus
D. Streptococci D. spirilla
Answer: Option A Answer: Option D
3. Which of the following is used for the proper 11. Mac-Conkey medium is an example of
maintenance and preservation of pure cultures? A. transport medium
A. Periodic transfer to fresh media B. enrichment medium
B. Preservation by overlaying cultures with mineral oil C. differential medium
C. Preservation by lyophilization D. all of these
D. All of the above Answer: Option C
Answer: Option D
12. Pseudomonas aeruginosa forms a blue water
4. In the process of freeze drying, a dense cell soluble pigment called
suspension is placed in small vials and is frozen at A. pyocyanin
A. -60 to -78°C B. chlororaphin
B. -20 to -30°C C. pyoverdin
C. -30 to -48°C D. β-carotene
D. -48 to -58°C Answer: Option A
Answer: Option A
13. Agar is used for solidifying culture media because
5. The solidifying agent commonly used in preparation A. it does not affect by the growth of bacteria
of media is/are B. it does not add to the nutritive properties of the
A. agar medium
B. silica gel C. the melting and solidifying points of agar solution
C. both (a) and (b) are not the same
D. none of these D. all of the above
Answer: Option C Answer: Option D
6. Which of the following chemotherapeutic agents 14. For the selection of lactobacilli present in cheddar
may affect the growth of Campylobacter jejuni? cheese, the pH of the medium is maintained at
A. Vacomycin A. 6.35
B. Polymyxin B. 5.35
C. Trimethoprim C. 4.35
D. None of these D. 5.75
Answer: Option D Answer: Option B
7. To select cholera-causing bacterium, Vibrio 15. A disease producing species occurring in a mixed
cholerae, the pH of the medium is maintained at a pH culture can often be selected on the basis of its
of A. pathogenic properties
A. 8.5 B. special carbon source
B. 8.90 C. special nitrogen source
C. 6.79 D. none of these
D. 3.5 Answer: Option A
Answer: Option A
16. Important example(s) of enriched medium/media
8. For the selection of endospore-forming bacteria, a is/ are
mixed culture can be heated at A. Loeffler's serum slope
A. 80°C for 10 minutes B. Bordet-gengou medium
B. 70°C for 10 minutes C. Blood agar
C. 60°C for 10 minutes D.All of these
D. 90°C for 10 minutes Answer: Option D
Answer: Option A
17. Cell counting can be carried out by 24. When a substance is added to a liquid medium
A. direct microscopic count using petroffhansser which inhibits the growth of unwanted bacteria and
counting chamber favors the growth of wanted bacteria, it is known as
B. plate counting A. differential medium
C. membrane filter count B. enriched medium
D. all of the above C. enrichment medium
Answer: Option D D. selective medium
Answer: Option C
18. Which of the following techniques may be
performed quantitatively to determine the number of 25. Which of the following methods is most likely to be
bacteria of a particular type? quantitative?
A. Pour plate A. Dilution and plating
B. Spread plate B. Gram staining
C. Both (a) and (b) C. Wet mount
D. Streak plate technique D. None of these
Answer: Option C Answer: Option A
19. Intestinal bacteria can grow in the presence of 26. Which of the following hint(s) suggest/s that a
__________ whereas nonintestinal bacteria are usually given specimen is likely to contain anaerobic bacteria?
inhibited. A. Gas in specimen
A. bile salts B. Foul odour
B. low concentration of various dyes C. Presence of sulphur granules
C. sugars D. All of these
D. low levels of nitrogen Answer: Option D
Answer: Option A
27. Viable plate count can be obtained using
20. Which of the following problem makes it impossible A. Spread plate method
to satisfy all of Koch's postulates? B. Pour plate method
A. Microorganism causes serious symptoms in humans C. both (a) and (b)
B. Microorganism cannot be isolated in pure culture D. Hemocytometer
C. Species of microorganism is in question Answer: Option C
D. Genes from the microorganism cannot be amplified
by PCR 28. In the pour plate method, the mixed culture is
Answer: Option B diluted directly in tubes of
A. liquid agar medium
21. A medium containing crystal violet dye plus sodium B. sterile liquid usually water
deoxycholate will allow C. both (a) and (b)
A. gram (-)ve intestinal bacteria to grow D. none of these
B. gram (+)ve intestinal bacteria to grow Answer: Option A
C. aquatic bacteria to grow
D. none of these 29. Treponema species from human oral cavity can be
Answer: Option A selected by using
A. pH of the medium
22. Which of the following bacteria can grow in alkaline B. incubation temperature
pH? C. cell size and motility
A. Shigella D. all of these
B. Lactobacilli Answer: Option C
C. Salmonella
D. Vibrio cholerae 30. When a substance is added to a solid medium
Answer: Option D which inhibits the growth of unwanted bacteria but
permits the growth of wanted bacteria, it is known as
23. All bacteria that inhabit the human body are A. differential medium
A. heterotrophs B. enriched medium
B. chemolithotrophs C. enrichment medium
C. autotrophs D. selective medium
D. phototroph Answer: Option D
Answer: Option A
31. Peptone water and nutrient broth are
A. selective media
B. enriched media
C. basal media
D. none of these
Answer: Option C
32. Stuart's transport medium is used for transport of
specimen containing
A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
B. Salmonella
C. Vibrio cholerae
D. Shigella
Answer: Option A
4. Isozymes or iso enzymes are those enzyme which 12. Protein portion of an enzyme when it is combined
A. have same structural forms with organic molecule is termed as
B. have different structural forms but identical catalytic A. apoenzyme
properties B. co-enzyme
C. catalyses oxidation reactions C. holoenzyme
D. none of these D. co-factors
Answer: Option B Answer: Option A
7. The chlorophyll molecules used by eucaryotes and 14. In establishing proton gradient for chemiosmotic
cyanobacteria absorb radiant energy in ATP generation by aerobic respiration the terminal
the____________portion(s) of the visible spectrum. electron acceptor is
A. red A. nitrate
B. green B. oxygen
C. red and blue C. sulfate
D. green and ultraviolet D. CO2
Answer: Option C Answer: Option B
15. If ΔG of a chemical reaction is positive in value 23. Hexose monophosphate pathway is also known as
and keq is less than 1 then the chemical reaction will A. phosphogluconate pathway
A. proceed in reverse direction B. oxaloacetate pathway
B. proceeed in forward direction C. malate pathway
C. not take place in any of the direction D. fumerate pathway
D. none of these Answer: Option A
Answer: Option A
24. If radioactive bicarbonate was supplied to bacterial
16. The reaction, where small precursor molecules are cells, which were actively synthesizing fatty acids, it is
assembled into larger organic molecules is referred as expected to find the bulk of the radioactivity in
A. anabolism A. cellular bicarbonate
B. catabolism B. the fatty acids
C. metabolism C. the cytoplasmic membrane
D. any of these D. nucleic acids
Answer: Option A Answer: Option A
17. Which of the following nucleoside diphosphates is 25. Standard free energy change (ΔG) can be
used most often in carbohydrate anabolism? expressed as
A. Uridine diphosphate A. ΔG° = -RTlnkeq
B. Adenosine diphosphate B. ΔG° = RTlnkeq
C. Guanine diphosphate C. ΔG° = R/Tlnkeq
D. Thymine diphosphate D. ΔG° = -RT/lnkeq
Answer: Option A Answer: Option A
18. DAHP synthetase catalyzes the condensation of 26. The glyoxylate cycle is used by some
A. erythrose-4-phosphate microorganisms when___________ is the sole carbon
B. phosphoenol pyruvate source.
C. both (a) and (b) A. acetate
D. phenylalanine B. nitrate
Answer: Option C C. carbon dioxide
D. all of these
19. Phosphate is considered to restrict the induction of Answer: Option A
A. primary metabolites
B. secondary metabolites 27. Incorporation of atmospheric N2to NH4+ occurs
C. both (a) and (b) via the process of
D. none of these A. assimilatory nitrate reduction
Answer: Option B B. transamination
C. deamination
20. Free energy change (ΔG) of a reaction is referred D. nitrogen fixation
as the amount of energy Answer: Option D
A. liberated during reaction
B. taken up during reaction 28. The role of bacteriophyll in an oxygenic
C. liberated or taken up during reaction photosynthesis is to
D. none of these A. reduce ferridoxin directly
Answer: Option C B. reduce NADP directly
C. use light energy to energize an electron
21. Which of the following does not produce oxygen as D. transfer electrons to an intermediate in the sulfide
a product of photosynthesis? oxidation pathway
A. Oak trees Answer: Option C
B. Purple sulfur bacteria
C. Cyanobacteria 29. TCA cycle functions in
D. Phytoplankton A. catabolic reactions
Answer: Option B B. anabolic reactions
C. amphibolic reactions
22. When acetate is the sole source of carbon for some D. none of these
microorganisms, the cycle which is used, is called Answer: Option C
A. pentose phosphate pathway
B. glycolyic pathway 30. Entner-Doudoroff pathway is found in
C. glyoxylate pathway A. aerobic prokaryotes
D. oxaloacetate pathway B. anaerobic prokaryotes
Answer: Option C C. both (a) and (b)
D. aerobic eukaryotes
Answer: Option C
31. Anoxygenic photosynthetic bacteria oxidize 39. During the reduction phase of the Calvin cycle,
A. water phosphoglyceric acid is reduced
B. oxgyen to______utilizing________as the reduction source.
C. sulfide A. phosphoglyceraldehyde; NADPH+H+
D. ammonia B. phosphoglyceraldehyde; NADH+H+
Answer: Option C C. ribulose 1,5 - bisphosphate; NADH+H+
D. pyruvic acid; NADPH+H+
32. Which of the following(s) is/are the products of the Answer: Option A
light reactions of photosynthesis?
A. ATP only 40. In order to get inorganic phosphorous into organic
B. NADPH only compounds, the phosphate ion is incorporated via
C. ATP and O2 only A. substrate level phosphorylation
D. ATP, NADPH, and O2 B. oxidative phosphorylation
Answer: Option D C. both (a) and (b)
D. DNA
33. Which of the following catalyze liberation of Answer: Option C
orthophosphate from organic P compounds and
inorganic pyrophosphate ? 41. The phosphate inhibition in the clavine formation
A. Alkaline phosphates with Claviceps SD58, can be counteracted by the
B. Oxidoreductase addition of
C. Protease A. alanine
D. Hydrogenase B. methionine
Answer: Option A C. tryptophan
D. lysine
34. For each glucose molecule broken down, there Answer: Option C
are______________number of reduced coenzymes to
be oxidized. 42. The major route for incorporation of ammonia
A. 12 (NH4+) into organic compounds is via
B. 8 A. reduction of pyruvate or alpha-ketoglutarate by
C. 6 enzymes
D. 4 B. atmospheric nitrogen fixation
Answer: Option A C. oxidation of pyruvate
D. all of these
35. As the electron flow through the chains, much of Answer: Option A
their free energy is conserved in the form of ATP. This
process is called 43. The specific enzyme/(s) of the glyoxylate cycle
A. oxidative phosphorylation is/are
B. electromotive potential A. isocitrate lyase
C. dehydrogenations B. malate synthase
D. none of these C. both (a) and (b)
Answer: Option A D. anaplerotic
Answer: Option C
36. Digestive reactions where large molecules are
broken down into smaller ones are referred as 44. If ΔG of a chemical reaction has a negative value,
A. anabolism the reaction
B. catabolism A. releases energy
C. metabolism B. requires energy
D. biosynthesis C. both (a) and (b)
Answer: Option B D. none of these
Answer: Option A
37. Phosphate regulation has been observed in the
production of 45. The catabolic reaction, pentose-phosphate exists in
A. alkaloids A. prokaryotic cells
B. antibiotics B. eukaryotic cells
C. gibberelins C. prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells both
D. all of these D. none of these
Answer: Option D Answer: Option C
38. Most of the energy in aerobic respiration of glucose 46. Entner - Doudoroff pathway is not found in
is captured by A. aerobic prokaryotes
A. substrate-level phosphorylation B. anaerobic prokaryotes
B. electron transport of electrons from NADH C. Both (a) and (b)
C. long-chain fatty acid oxidation D. eukaryotes
D. the enzyme formic-hydrogen lyase Answer: Option D
Answer: Option B
47. Aerobic catabolism of glucose yields how much 54. Nitrogen fixation is a process that requires
energy (ATP synthesized) relative to glucose A. energy
fermentation? B. an anaerobic environment
A. Slightly less C. both (a) and (b)
B. About the same D. an aerobic environment
C. Twice as much Answer: Option C
D. More than 10 times as much
Answer: Option D 55. Bacteriochlorophyll differs from chlorophyll in what
way?
48. The bacteriochlorophylls used by the anoxygenic A. The chelated metal in bacteriochlorophyll is not Mg
bacteria have absorbance maxima located in B. There are chemical differences between the two
the_____portion(s) of the spectrum. chlorophyll in their side (R) groups
A. green C. They have different absorption spectra
B. blue D. Both (b) and (c)
C. ultraviolet Answer: Option D
D. infrared
Answer: Option D 56. Radioisotopes are frequently used in the study of
cells. Assume a culture of E. coli is grown in a culture
49. The relationship between an oxidation-reduction medium containing radioactive sulphur. At the end of
potential difference and the standard free energy 48 hours, it is expected to find the radioactive label
change is (where n is the number of moles of electron located in
transferred, F= Faraday's constant and E°= standard A. DNA
oxidation-reduction potential difference) B. enzymes
A. ΔG° = -nFE° C. RNA
B. ΔG° = nFE° D. all of these
C. ΔG° = -nFlnE° Answer: Option B
D. ΔG° = nFlnE°
Answer: Option A
50. ATPase
A. synthesizes ATP, coupled to transfer of extracellular
protons into the cell
B. extrudes protons from the cell coupled to the
hydrolysis of ATP to ADP
C. is the enzyme that incorporates ATP into messenger
RNA
D. carries out each of the reactions indicated in (a) and
(b)
Answer: Option D
2. Which of the following act as the blueprint or 10. What is the maximum number of different amino
template for the process of protein synthesis that acids in a polypeptide chain coded by the synthetic
takes place on ribosomes? polyribonucleotides (UCAG)5?
A. rRNA A. One
B. DNA B. Two
C. tRNA C. Three
D. mRNA D. Four
Answer: Option D Answer: Option C
3. Negative regulation of protein synthesis is 11. What is the direct cause of cell death by diphtheria
accomplished by toxin?
A. allosteric inhibition A. Formation of an ion channel in the cell membrane
B. the binding of RNA polymerase to the promoter B. Inactivation of a translational elongation factor
C. the binding of a repressor to the DNA C. Induction of apoptosis
D. the binding of a repressor to the RNA polymerase D. None of the above
Answer: Option C Answer: Option B
4. Site in the ribosome from which the tRNA donates 12. The development of global regulatory systems in
amino acids to the growing polypeptide chain is prokaryotes
A. P site A. determines the exact location of the cell on the
B. O site globe
C. T site B. aids in DNA replication
D. A site C. determines the exact location of the replication site
Answer: Option A D. regulates many genes under varying environmental
conditions
5. When was the genetic code completed? Answer: Option D
A. 1958
B. 1952 13. The interaction between the mRNA and tRNA
C. 1966 determined the position of amino acid in a polypeptide
D. 1968 sequence. This is called the
Answer: Option C A. stagerivity
B. Wobble hypothesis
6. Which stop codon has been found to encode C. promiscuity
selenocysteine? D. adaptor hypothesis
A. UAA Answer: Option D
B. UAG
C. UGA 14. What are the Svedberg values for the subunits of
D. AGA the 70S ribosomes of E. colli?
Answer: Option C A. 40S and 30S
B. 50S and 20S
7. Which of the following is a nontranslated sequence C. 50S and 30S
located between the transcription and the translation D. 40S and 20S
start site? Answer: Option C
A. Ending frame
B. Leader sequence 15. Which of the following three codons translate as
C. Trailer sequence serine (Ser)?
D. Reading frame A. AGU
Answer: Option B B. CGA
C. CAU
8. Which phage always carries a small piece of E.coli D. AUG
genome? Answer: Option A
A. Lambda
B. Mu
C. T4
D. T3
Answer: Option B
16. The role of molecular chaperones is to 23. During amino acid activation a(n)
A. facilitate binding of ribosomes to mRNA A. amino acid is bound to tRNA
B. degrade newly synthesized polypeptides that B. amino acid is bound to mRNA
contain inaccurate sequences C. methyl group is attached to rRNA
C. facilitate binding of RNA polymerase to DNA D. methyl group is attached to an amino acid
D. aid a newly synthesized polypeptide in folding to its Answer: Option A
proper shape
Answer: Option D 24. The nonsense codon(s) is/are
A. UAG
17. What is the action of tetracycline in prokaryotes? B. UAA
A. It blocks translocation reaction on ribosomes C. UGA
B. It blocks peptidyl transferase reaction on ribosomes D. all of these
C. It blocks the binding of amino-acyl tRNA to the A Answer: Option D
site of ribosomes
D. Not known with certainity 25. Which of the following defines an open reading
Answer: Option C frame (ORF)?
A. A sequence of genome in bacteriophage
18. A quorum sensing system B. The sequence of a complete genome
A. detects a signal from the external environment C. A plasmid vector used in genome sequencing
B. senses a compound produced by the bacterium D. A possible gene predicted by DNA sequencing
itself Answer: Option D
C. consists of a sensor component that phosphorylates
a regulatory protein 26. Three stop codons, which aids in termination of
D. controls the activity of ribosomes directly translation are also known as
Answer: Option B A. pause codons
B. nonsense codons
19. The Shine-Dalgarno sequence is C. missense codons
A. trailer sequence D. antisense codons
B. a stop codon Answer: Option B
C. the reading frame of a gene
D. a short sequence that acts as a ribosomal binding 27. The ribosome binding site
site A. forms a stem-loop structure in the RNA
Answer: Option D B. is located upstream of the promoter sequence
C. is located immediately upstream of the start codon
20. Which of the following statement is correct? D. is more likely to be associated with an operon than
A. The size and sequence of introns can be deduced with a gene encoding a single protein
from the cDNA sequence Answer: Option C
B. Restriction endonuclease can cleave ss and dsDNA
both 28. Which of the following molecule catalyzes the
C. Restriction fragment length polymorphism (RFLP) is transpeptidation reaction?
usually formed in coding sequence of a gene A. RNA polymerase
D. Amino acid sequence of a protein can be deduced B. Peptidyl transferase
from corresponding cDNA nucleotide C. DNA ligase
Answer: Option D D. DNA polymerase
Answer: Option B
21. What was the first bacterial genome to be
sequenced and made public? 29. Which of the termination codon is called amber?
A. Bacillus subtilis A. UAA
B. Escherichia coli B. UAG
C. Haemophilus influenzae C. UGA
D. No bacterial genome has been sequenced yet D. AUG
Answer: Option C Answer: Option B
3. What is the term used for a segment of DNA with 10. Who discovered transposons (jumping genes)?
one or more genes in the centre and the two ends A. Abelson
carrying inverted repeat sequences of nucleotides? B. Harvey
A. Plasmid C. McClintock
B. Transposon D. Griffith
C. Insertion sequence Answer: Option C
D. None of these
Answer: Option B 11. Which type of plasmid can exist with or without
being integrated into the host's chromosome?
4. The plasmids can be eliminated from a cell by the A. Medisome
process known as B. Lisosome
A. curing C. Lysogen
B. breaking D. Episome
C. fixing Answer: Option D
D. expulsion
Answer: Option A 12. The main difference between a self-transmissible
and a mobilizable plasmid is that the self-transmissible
5. Recombination of virus genomes occurs plasmid
A. by transduction A. transfers both strands of the plasmid DNA
B. by transription B. carries genes encoding the mating apparatus
C. simultaneous infection of a host cell by two viruses C. transfers antibiotic resistance genes
with homologous chromosomes D. usually has a transposon inserted into it
D. by transformation Answer: Option B
Answer: Option C
6. The type of recombination that commonly occurs 13. Which of the following is the cause for drug
between a pair of homologous DNA sequences is, resistance in tuberculosis?
A. mutagenic recombination A. Mutation
B. site-specific recombination B. Transduction
C. replicative recombination C. Transformation
D. general recombination D. Conjugation
Answer: Option D Answer: Option A
7. Which of the following statement describes 14. The transposase gene encodes an enzyme that
plasmids? facilitate
A. Another name for a protoplast A. viral replication within a genome
B. A complex membrane structure that covers the B. general recombination
chromosome of bacteria C. site-specific integration of transposable elements
C. Small, circular DNA molecules that can exist D. none of the above
independently of chromosomes commonly found in Answer: Option C
bacteria
D. None of the above 15. The term used for plasmids possessing both RTF
Answer: Option C and r determinants is
A. non self-transmissible plasmids
B. non conjugative plasmids
C. conjugative plasmids
D. none of the above
Answer: Option C
16. Diagnostic DNA probes have been developed for 23. The term used for acquisition of naked DNA from
A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis its environment and its incorporation in their genome
B. Hepatitis B virus by a bacterium is
C. Human immunodeficiency virus A. transformation
D. all of the above B. lysogenic conversion
Answer: Option D C. conjugation
D. transduction
17. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true in Answer: Option A
regards to F+ x F- mating events?
A. DNA is transferred from F- to F+ cells 24. What is term used for a bacterial cell that is able to
B. DNA is transferred from F+ to F- cells take up naked DNA?
C. No DNA is transferred because F- cells are unable to A. Complementary
perform conjugation B. Liable
D. No DNA is transferred because F+ cells are unable C. Competent
to perform conjugation D. Infected
Answer: Option B Answer: Option C
18. Which of the following type of recombination does 25. Penicillin resistance in staphylococci is acquired
not require homologous sequences and is important for due to
the integration of viral genomes into bacterial A. conjugation
chromosomes? B. mutation
A. Mutagenic recombimation C. transformation
B. Site-specific recombination D. transduction
C. Replicative recombination Answer: Option D
D. General recombination
Answer: Option B 26. The plasmid which makes the host more
pathogenic is
19. What information can be generated by interrupted A. F factors
mating experiments? B. Metabolic plasmid
A. Levels of DNA homology C. Virulence plasmid
B. Bacterial genome maps D. None of these
C. DNA nucleotide sequences Answer: Option C
D. Proteomics of the bacteria
Answer: Option B 27. The expression of gene X (which has promoter Px)
is to be monitored. A gene fusion construction for
20. Which of the following transport bacterial DNA to carrying this work will
other bacteria via bacteriophages? A. have Px but not the rest of the X coding region
A. Conjugation B. have the promoter of lacZ or some other reporter
B. Transduction gene
C. Transformation C. allow to monitor the expression of all genes with a
D. Translation promoter similar in sequence to Px
Answer: Option B D. give the same information as from a microarray
Answer: Option A
21. When composite transposons are formed
A. a small deletion occurs in the transposase gene of 28. The transducing particles carry only specific
an IS element portions of the bacterial genome in which of the
B. a small deletion occurs in the transposase gene of following transduction?
an IS element and plasmid is integrated A. Specialized transduction
C. an IS element integrates with another IS element B. General transduction
with the help of a plasmid C. Abortive transduction
D. two IS elements integrate into a chromosome with D. None of these
only a small distance separating them Answer: Option A
Answer: Option D
29. The correct term for the transfer of genetic
22. Which of the following plamids do not possess material between bacteria in direct physical contact is
information for self transfer to another cell? A. conjugation
A. Cryptic plasmids B. transformation
B. Conjugative plasmids C. replication
C. Non-conjugative plasmids D. transduction
D. None of these Answer: Option A
Answer: Option C
30. Plasmid that carries genes encoding enzymes, 37. Which of the following genetic elements carry the
which degrade substances such as aromatic genes required for integration into host chromosomes?
compounds, pesticides or sugar are A. Replicon
A. F factors B. Plasmids
B. metabolic plasmid C. Transposons
C. virulence plasmid D. Tandons
D. none of these Answer: Option C
Answer: Option B
38. The chromosomal genes, possessing fertility factor
31. R factors involved in plant-microbe interactions are is known as
A. plant proteins A. R factor
B. bacterial proteins B. F prime factor
C. essential for transfer of DNA to plant cells C. HFr
D. also called opines D. F factor
Answer: Option A Answer: Option B
32. Which of the following is used by microbial 39. Which of the following statement can describe
genetisists as a tool? horizontal transfer?
A. Bacteriophage A. The synthesis of protein in RNA
B. Plasmids B. The transmission of genetic information from one
C. Transposable elements independent, mature organism to another
D. All of these C. The transmission of genetic information from parent
Answer: Option D to offspring
D. The synthesis of RNA from a DNA template
33. Which of the following type of recombination does Answer: Option B
not require homologous sequences and is utilized by
mobile genetic elements that move about
chromosomes?
A. Mutagenic recombimation
B. Site-specific recombination
C. Replicative recombination
D. General recombination
Answer: Option C
8. Bacteria are
A. saprophytic
B. symbiotic
C. hyper parasitic
D. all of these
Answer: Option A
6. Streptolysin O is
A. antigenic
B. oxygen-labile
C. heat-labile
D. all of these
Answer: Option D
3. Which of the following properties are the 11. Clostridium botulinum food poisoning is due to
characteristics of tetanospasmin? A. invasion of bacteria in the intestine
A. It is a heat-labile protein B. preformed toxin
B. It is a neurotoxin C. both (a) and (b)
C. It can be toxoided D. none of the above
D. All of these Answer: Option B
Answer: Option D
12. Drumstick appearance is characteristic of
4. Types of exotoxin, most commonly associated with A. C tetanomorphum
botulism in man, is/are? B. C tetani
A. Type A C. C sphenoides
B. Type B D. all of these
C. Type E Answer: Option D
D. All of these
Answer: Option D 13. Blackening of meat in cooked meat broth is
through
5. Nagler's reaction is useful for the identification of A. C histolyticum
A. C tetani B. C perfringens
B. C perfringens C. C tetani
C. C botulinum D. all of these
D. C difficile Answer: Option A
Answer: Option B
14. Typical drumstick appearance of bacilli is generally
6. The most toxic exotoxin is seen in
A. tetanus toxin A. C perfringens
B. diphtheria toxin B. C botulinum
C. botulinum toxin C. C tetani
D. cholera toxin D. C histolyticum
Answer: Option C Answer: Option C
7. Which of the following species of Clostridium is 15. Which of the following(s) is/are obligate
predominantly sacchrolytic? anaeorbes?
A. C septicum A. C septicum
B. C perfringens B. C novyi
C. C novyi C. C tetani
D. All of these D. All of these
Answer: Option D Answer: Option D
6. Brucella are
A. Cocci
B. Rods
C. Cocobacilli
D. Very short rods
Answer: Option D
VIBRIO, AEROMONAS AND PLESIOMONAS 8. Which of the following does not cause wound
1. Which of the following medium are used to infection following exposure to sea water or infected
differentiate the colonies of Vibrio cholerae and V shellfish?
parahaemolyticus? A. Vibrio vulnificus
A. Alkaline bile salt B. V. alginolyticus
B. Thiosulphate-citrate-bile-sucrose C. V. cholerae
C. MacConkey D. Aeromonas
D. All of the above Answer: Option C
Answer: Option B
9. The test(s) used for the assay of cholera toxin is/are
2. Which of the followings can be used to differentiate A. Radioimmunoassay
between classical and El Tor biotypes of Vibrio B. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay
cholerae? C. Morphological changes in Chinese hamster ovary
A. Sensitivity to Mukerjee's group IV phage cells
B. Agglutination of fowl RBCs D. All of the above
C. Sensitivity to polymyxin B Answer: Option D
D. All of these
Answer: Option D 10. The DNA coding for the production of cholera toxin
in Vibrio cholerae is on the
3. Which of the following biotypes of Vibrio cholerae A. phage
are prevalent in India? B. plasmid
A. EI Tor C. chromosome
B. Classical D. transposon
C. Both (a) and (b) Answer: Option C
D. None of these
Answer: Option A 11. The halophilic bacteria is/are
A. V. alginolyticus
4. Which of the following bacteria is associated with B. V. vulnificus
food poisoning due to consumption of sea fish? C. Vibrio parahaemolyticus
A. Vibrio parahaemolyticus D. All of these
B. V alginolyticus Answer: Option D
C. V vulnificus
D. All of these 12. Which of the following toxin resembles cholera
Answer: Option A toxin?
A. Stable toxin of E. coli
5. Which of the following conditions can be caused by B. Diphtheria toxin
Plesiomonas? C. Labile toxin of Escherichia coli
A. Septicaemia D. Tetanus toxin
B. Gastroenteritis Answer: Option C
C. Cellulites
D. All of these
Answer: Option D
17. The yield of phage per bacterium is called the 25. Which of the following statements is correct?
A. eclipse size A. Up to 10% of human tumours have a viral risk
B. latent size factor
C. burst size B. Up to 40% of human tumours have a viral risk
D. none of these factor
Answer: Option C C. Up to 30% of human tumours have a viral risk
factor
18. Which of the following viruses are relatively D. Up to 20% of human tumours have a viral risk
thermostable? factor
A. Human immunodeficiency virus Answer: Option D
B. Rubella virus
C. Hepatits A virus 26. Which of the following are obligate intracellular
D. Influenza virus parasites?
Answer: Option C A. Chlamydia
B. Viruses
19. The time from infection until lysis is called as C. Rickettsia
A. eclipse period D. All of these
B. rise period Answer: Option D
C. latent period
D. burst size 27. Viruses can be purified based on their size and
Answer: Option C density by using
A. gradient centrifugation
20. Virus reproduces in living cells by B. differential centrifugation
A. replication C. precipitation
B. duplication D. none of these
C. multiplication Answer: Option A
D. all of these
Answer: Option A 28. The extracellular phage number increases until a
constant titer at the end of the multiplication cycle.
21. Which of the following virus is enveloped? This time interval is termed as
A. Adeno A. eclipse period
B. Herpes B. rise period
C. Polio C. latent period
D. None of these D. burst size
Answer: Option B Answer: Option B
2. __________is probably the most important 10. The hepadnaviruses such as hepatitis B virus are
characteristic for classification of viruses in eukaryotes. quite different from other DNA viruses with respect to
A. Host preference genome replication. These replicate their DNA using
B. Morphology A. DNA-dependent DNA polymerase
C. Physical nature of virion constituents B. reverse transcriptase
D. Chemical nature of virion constituents C. Rnase H
Answer: Option A D. DNA ligase
Answer: Option B
3. The __________ of the influenza-enveloped virus
appear to be involved in attachment to the host cell 11. Which of the following virus is always detectable
receptor site. after infections?
A. fimbriae A. Hepatitis B virus
B. flagellae B. Herpes simplex virus
C. hemagluttinin C. Varicella-zoster virus
D. neuraminidase D. Cytomegalovirus
Answer: Option C Answer: Option A
4. Intracellular structures formed during many viral 12. Viroids are composed of
infections, called __________ , which can directly A. single-stranded DNA
disrupt cell structure. B. double-stranded DNA
A. prokaryotes C. single-stranded RNA
B. chromosomal disruptions D. double-stranded RNA
C. inclusion bodies Answer: Option C
D. cytocidal bodies
Answer: Option C
2. Catalase production is negative in which of the 10. The production of sufficient acid by fermentation of
following? glucose leads to decrease in pH such that pH of the
A. Streptococcus medium falls below 4.5. Which of the following test can
B. Salmonella detect it?
C. Proteus A. Indole test
D. Staphylococcus B. Methyl red test
Answer: Option A C. Citrate utilization test
D. Voges-Proskauer test
3. Which of the following is a substitute for crystal Answer: Option B
violet used in gram-staining procedure?
A. Methylene blue 11. What is the colour of gram -postive bacteria on a
B. Bromocresol green gram staining?
C. Safranin A. Purple
D. Phenolpthalene B. Pink
Answer: Option A C. Colourless
D. Green
4. Which of the following inference(s) indicate(s) the Answer: Option A
ability of an organism to utilize citrate as a sole source
of carbon in Simmon's citrate medium? 12. What is the colour of gram-negative bacteria on a
A. Blue colour gram staining?
B. Appearance of growth A. Purple
C. Both (a) and (b) B. Pink
D. None of these C. Green
Answer: Option C D. Colourless
Answer: Option B
5. The organisms that can be acid-fast stained is
A. Nocardia 13. Which of the following is a primary stain for acid
B. Tubercle bacilli fast staining of mycobacteria?
C. Lepra bacilli A. Crystal violet
D. all of these B. Carbol fuchsin
Answer: Option D C. Geimsa
D. Methylene blue
6. The primary stain of Gram's method is Answer: Option B
A. safranin
B. phenolpthalene 14. The deinococci are gram-positive cocci and rods
C. crystal violet that are distinctive in their unusually great resistance
D. methyl red to
Answer: Option C A. radiation
B. desiccation
7. At what concentration of sulphuric acid, Nocardia C. both (a) and (b)
resists decolourization? D. extreme temperatures
A. 0.5% sulphuric acid Answer: Option C
B. 5% sulphuric acid
C. 10% sulphuric acid 15. Which of the following shows a positive urease
D. 8% sulphuric acid test?
Answer: Option A A. Proteus
B. Klebsiella
8. Which of the following is commonly used as Gram's C. Both (a) and (b)
decolouriser? D. None of these
A. Ethyl alcohol Answer: Option C
B. Methyl alcohol
C. Acetone
D. A mixture of ethyl alcohol and acetone
Answer: Option D
16. Which of the following(s) is/ are oxidase-positive
bacteria?
A. Vibrio
B. Neisseria
C. Pseudomonas
D. All of these
Answer: Option D
22. Fungi in the division Deuteromycota are 30. __________ produce zygospores.
characterized by the fact that A. Slime molds
A. they only reproduce sexually B. Dimorphic fungi
B. they form sexual spores called deuterospores C. Club fungi
C. they are incapable of sexual reproduction D. Black bread molds
D. a method of sexual reproduction has not been Answer: Option D
identified
Answer: Option D
31. Which of the following is/are the sexual spore? 40. Which of the following is not a member of the
A. Ascospores division Ascomycota?
B. Basidiospores A. Aspergillus
C. Both (a) and (b) B. Claviceps
D. None of these C. Penicillium
Answer: Option C D. Rhizopus
Answer: Option D
32. Mushrooms are classified in which of the following
division? 41. Which of the following divisions of fungi produce
A. Ascomycota uniflagellated zoospores?
B. Basidiomycota A. Ascomycota
C. Zygomycota B. Chytridiomycota
D. Deuteromycota C. Oomycota
Answer: Option B D. Zygomycota
Answer: Option B
33. Name the asexual spore(s)?
A. Conidia 42. The number of nuclei per cell in a dikaryotic cell
B. Sporangiospore A. is greater than diploid cell
C. Arthospores B. is lesser than diploid cell
D. All of these C. is equal to diploid cell
Answer: Option D D. none of these
Answer: Option A
34. Water molds form flagellated spores are called
A. dinoflagellates 43. Fungi differ from the other eukaryotic microbes in
B. fruiting bodies having
C. zoospores A. flagella
D. trichocysts B. ergosterol
Answer: Option C C. chloroplasts
D. an undulating membrane
35. The Acrasiomycota differ from the Myxomycota Answer: Option B
A. in their mode of nutrition
B. in their cellular organization 44. Mycorrhizae are mutualistic associations between
C. Both (a) and (b) fungi and
D. none of the above A. bacteria
Answer: Option B B. protozoa
C. unicellular green algae
36. Ergotism is responsible for all of the following D. vascular plants
except Answer: Option D
A. hallucinations
B. Irish potato famine 45. Which of the following is correct?
C. both (a) and (b) A. All members of heterotrophic organisms are also
D. gangrene members of fungi, but not all members of fungi are
Answer: Option D members of heterotrophic organisms
B. All members of fungi are also members of
37. Molds are considered as heterotrophic organisms, but not all members of
A. mesophillic heterotrophic organisms are members of fungi
B. psychotropic C. All members of heterotrophic organisms are
C. thermophillic members of fungi and all members of fungi are
D. all of these members of heterotrophic organisms.
Answer: Option D D. none of the above
Answer: Option B
38. Yeasts may undergo
A. alcoholic fermentation 46. The organism that starts out as amoeboid,
B. homolactic fermentation phagocytic cells and converts to a sluglike
C. heterolactic fermentation pseudoplasmodium that migrates prior to development
D. all of these of a sorocarp belongs to which division?
Answer: Option D A. Ascomycota
B. Chytridiomycota
39. Fungi are important in the production of all of the C. Myxomycota
following commercial products except D. Oomycota
A. bread Answer: Option C
B. beer
C. cheese
D. rubber
Answer: Option D
47. Fungi are generally not 55. A mycelium describes
A. multicellular A. saclike structure where fungal spores are produced
B. containing cell walls B. single fungal strand made up of a long chain of cells
C. photosynthetic C. interwoven mass of numerous hyphae
D. spore-producing D. none of the above
Answer: Option C Answer: Option C
48. The hyphae of mold are 56. Yeast play an important role in the alcohol
A. submerged industry, converting pyruvic acid into carbon dioxide
B. aerial and ethyl alcohol by the process of
C. vegetative A. glycolysis
D. all of these B. respiration
Answer: Option D C. fermentation
D. Krebs cycle
49. The amount of chitin in the cell walls of the Answer: Option C
Plasmodium
A. is greater than the water mold mycelium 57. Ascospores located in asci are found in
B. is lesser than the water mold mycelium A. conidiocarps
C. is equal to the water mold mycelium B. sorocarps
D. none of the above C. ascocarps
Answer: Option C D. plasmodiocarps
Answer: Option C
50. Which of the following structures would not be
associated with fungi?
A. Mitochondria
B. Cell walls
C. Chloroplasts
D. Spores
Answer: Option C
32. Generation time is 39. In the exponential phase, the cells and cell mass
A. time required for the population to double A. first increases then decreases
B. time required for the initial adjustment B. decreases
C. obtained by expression t/n, where t = time interval, C. are constant
n = number of generation D. double at a constant rate
D. both (a) and (c) Answer: Option D
Answer: Option D
40. What is the primary source of food for marine life?
33. The term facultative anaerobe refers to an A. Phytoplankton
organism that B. Zooplankton
A. doesn't use oxygen but tolerates it C. Sea weed
B. is killed by oxygen D. Grass
C. uses oxygen when present or grows without oxygen Answer: Option A
when absent
D. requires less oxygen than is present in air 41. Postgates assay technique is useful in determining
Answer: Option C if a cell is viable even though it is
A. incapable of cell division
34. The microorganisms that grow best in a low- B. too small to see
oxygen environment is called a (n) C. an obligate aerobe
A. aerobe D. a thermophile
B. anaerobe Answer: Option A
C. facultative
D. microaerophile 42. What are the extrinsic factors for the microbial
Answer: Option D growth?
A. humidity
35. Pseudomonas pseudoflava can grow as B. storage temperature
A. chemo-lithotrophs C. composition of gas phase
B. chemo-organotrophs D. all of these
C. both (a) and (b) Answer: Option D
D. none of these
Answer: Option C 43. Quantitative measurement of bacterial growth can
be carried out by measuring
36. Which of the following is the suitable temperature A. cell count
range for mesophiles? B. cell mass
A. 20-30°C C. cell activity
B. 25-40°C D. all of these
C. >40°C Answer: Option D
D. None of these
Answer: Option B 44. Organisms such as lactobacilli that have elaborate
requirements for specific nutrients i.e. vitamins and
37. Exponential phase of growth curve of bacteria is of other growth promoting substances, are generally
limited duration because of called as
A. rise in cell density A. fastidious hetrotrophs
B. accumulation of toxic metabolites B. chemo-lithotrophs
C. exhaustion of nutrients C. chemotrophs
D. all of these D. photo-organotrophs
Answer: Option D Answer: Option A
45. The combination of low levels of NaCl, NaNO3 52. Microaerophilic bacteria are those which require
(sodium nitrate), and slightly acid pH can prevent A. 21 % oxygen for growth
multiplication and toxin formation of B. low levels of oxygen for growth (lesser than O2
A. Salmonella present in atmosphere)
B. S. aureus C. oxygen for activation of enzymes
C. C. botulinum D. none of the above
D. all of these Answer: Option B
Answer: Option D
53. The period between inoculation of bacteria in a
46. Bacteria of genus Nitrosomonas use __________ culture medium and beginning of multiplication is
as their electron source. known as
A. ammonia A. stationary phase
B. H2S B. log phase
C. succinate C. lag phase
D. light D. decline phase
Answer: Option A Answer: Option C
47. All organisms require at least small amounts of 54. The term aerotolerant anaerobe refers to an
carbondioxide, However, some can use CO2 as their organism that
sole source of carbon. Such organisms are termed as A. doesn't use oxygen but can grow in the presence of
A. autotrophs oxygen
B. phototrophs B. is killed by oxygen
C. chemotrophs C. requires less oxygen than is present in air
D. photo-organotrophs D. prefers to grow without oxygen
Answer: Option A Answer: Option A
48. The generation time of a culture that produces two 55. The term obligate anaerobe refers to an organism
generations per hour is that
A. greater than that produces three generations per A. doesn't use oxygen but tolerates it
hour B. is killed by oxygen
B. lesser than that produces three generations per C. uses oxygen when present or grows without oxygen
hour when oxygen is absent
C. equal to that produces three generations per hour D. prefers to grow without oxygen
D. none of the above Answer: Option B
Answer: Option A
56. The fragmentation occurs in
49. Autotrophic bacteria are those which A. Streptomyces species
A. make their own food B. Nocardia species
B. form a long chain glycocalyx C. Bacillus subtilis
C. are highly susceptible to penicillin D. None of these
D. produce a blue-green pigment Answer: Option B
Answer: Option A
3. Negative strand ssRNA viruses need to have a 9. Fluorescence microscopy can be used for the
preformed replicase when they invade a mammalian diagnosis of
cell because they A. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
A. use it to terminate transcripts when they copy host B. Herpes simplex encephalitis
cell mRNA C. Rabies
B. have to make a positive strand copy that can be D. All of these
translated Answer: Option D
C. use it to modify host enzymes that are recruited for
viral replication 10. Viral matrix proteins are
D. none of the above A. exposed on the surface of the virus
Answer: Option B B. found mainly on naked viruses
C. anchor the envelope of enveloped viruses
4. Which of the following reflects the correct order of D. part of the nucleoprotein core of viruses
events that take place during the multiplication of a Answer: Option C
virus?
A. Attachment, penetration, maturation, biosynthesis, 11. Mumps vaccine is prepared from the cultures of
release A. chick fibroblasts
B. Penetration, attachment, biosynthesis, maturation, B. African green monkey cells
release C. healthy calves
C. Attachment, penetration, biosynthesis, maturation, D. sheep
release Answer: Option A
D. Attachment, release, biosynthesis, maturation,
penetration 12. The microbes which are most likely to be
Answer: Option C completely dependent on a plant or animal host are
A. viruses
5. What can be coated to the plastic dish if an ELISA is B. bacteria
performed to directly detect polio virus? C. fungi
A. Patient serum D. algae
B. Anti-polio antibody Answer: Option A
C. Polio capsid protein
D. Colored substrate 13. The two major components of viruses are
Answer: Option B A. fat and protein
B. nucleic acid and protein
6. Influenza virus undergoes antigenic shift resulting in C. carbohydrate and nucleic acid
major antigenic changes by which of the following D. fat and carbohydrate
mechanisms? Answer: Option B
A. Somatic recombination of heavy and light chains
B. Expression of several different capsule types 14. The transcription of the viral nucleic acid into
C. Changing the receptor binding canyon that docks mRNA is not necessary in case of
with the host receptor A. RNA viruses
D. Reassortment of RNA segments from different B. ds DNA viruses
influenza viruses C. ss DNA viruses
Answer: Option D D. all of these
Answer: Option A
15. West Nile virus can cause a disease in human 22. Intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies are found in cells
beings that may be transmitted from an infected bird infected with
to a person by a mosquito. This is an example of A. Rabies virus
A. endogenous infection B. Vaccinia virus
B. fomite borne disease C. Fowlpox virus
C. arthropod borne disease D. all of these
D. nosocomial infection Answer: Option D
Answer: Option C
23. What is the function of positive strand in double
16. What does the positive strand in double stranded stranded RNA viruses?
RNA viruses stands for? A. Synthesis of protein
A. rRNA B. Production of ribosomes
B. tRNA C. Both (a) and (b)
C. mRNA D. None of these
D. None of these Answer: Option A
Answer: Option C
24. Which of the following virus is transmitted by the
17. Which of the following characteristics would not be respiratory route?
used to classify viruses? A. Rhinovirus
A. Type of cell wall structure B. Coronavirus
B. Type of nucleic acid C. Measles virus
C. Presence of an envelope D. All of these
D. Symmetry Answer: Option D
Answer: Option A
25. The predominant lipid substance found in the viral
18. Interanuclear inclusion bodies are found in cells envelope is
infected with A. phospholipids
A. Parvoviruses B. glycolipids
B. Herpesviruses C. neutral fat
C. Adenoviruses D. all of these
D. all of these Answer: Option A
Answer: Option D
26. Supercoiling refers to the extra turns in the
19. The reovirus and influenza virus contain structure of ds DNA due to the action of
A. 10 different segments of dsRNA and 8 different A. DNA gyrase
segments of ssRNA respectively B. DNA pyrase
B. 8 different segments of dsRNA and 10 different C. RNA gyrase
segments of ssRNA respectively D. RNA pyrase
C. 5 different segments of dsRNA and 7 different Answer: Option A
segments of ssRNA respectively
D. 7 different segments of dsRNA and 5different 27. The tissue structure deteriorates as the virus
segments of ssRNA respectively multiplies. This deterioration is called
Answer: Option A A. aneuploidy
B. protopathic effect
20. Which type of interferon is produced by T C. cytopathic effect
lymphocytes? D. none of these
A. α Answer: Option C
B. β
C. γ 28. The structural abnormality of cells is termed as
D. γ and β A. hyperplasia
Answer: Option C B. anaplasia
C. metastasis
21. Transfer of infection from cell to cell occurs mainly D. all of these
by direct transfer of virions via Answer: Option B
A. plasmodesmata
B. cytodesmata 29. The penetration of animal viruses into attached
C. protodesmata cells occur by mechanisms consisting of engulfment of
D. none of these whole virions by the cells in a phagocytic process
Answer: Option A called
A. vitropexis
B. viropexis
C. ectodesmata
D. vivopexis
Answer: Option B
30. Viropexis takes place in the phagocytic vacuoles
and is due to the action of enzymes
A. DNA gyrase
B. lysosomal protease
C. lysosomal lipase
D. all of these
Answer: Option B
7. The final electron acceptor in the electron transport 15. Before most molecules can enter the Krebs citric
chain is acid cycle, they must be converted to
A. CoQ A. citric acid
B. a cytochrome B. oxaloacetic acid
C. FMN C. NADH or FADH
D. oxygen D. acetyl-CoA
Answer: Option D Answer: Option D
16. How many oxygen molecules are required in the 23. Which one of the following is not produced in any
fermentation of one molecule of glucose to ethanol and of the steps of glycolysis?
CO2? A. NAD+
A. 0 B. NADH
B. 1 C. ADP
C. 2 D. ATP
D. 36 Answer: Option A
Answer: Option A
24. The number of ATP molecules produced from one
17. Most bacterial fermentations yield how many net glucose molecule by a bacterium producing lactic acid
ATP molecules per molecule of glucose? is
A. 1 A. greater than producing ethanol
B. 2 B. lesser than producing ethanol
C. 4 C. approximately equal to producing ethanol
D. 6 D. none of these
Answer: Option B Answer: Option C
18. The amount of ATP produced by a cell from glucose 25. Which of the following is the most complete
when metabolizing it by fermentation means is definition of fermentation?
A. greater than by aerobic metabolism A. Oxidation of glucose with organic molecules serving
B. lesser than by aerobic metabolism as electron acceptors
C. exactly or approximately equal to by aerobic B. Complete catabolism of glucose to CO2 and HO2
metabolism C. Production of energy by substrate-level
D. none of these phosphorylation
Answer: Option B D. Production of ethyl alcohol from glucose
Answer: Option A
19. Which one of the following is produced in the
greatest numbers during one turn of the Krebs cycle? 26. The enzymes that catalyze the reactions of the
A. NADH Krebs cycle are found in which subcellular organelle of
B. Acetyl-CoA eukaryotes?
C. FADH2 A. Mitochondrion
D. ATP B. Chloroplast
Answer: Option A C. Ribosome
D. Endoplasmic reticulum
20. Aerobic respiration differs from anaerobic Answer: Option A
respiration in which of the following respects?
A. Anaerobic respiration is glycolysis 27. Fatty acids are oxidized to acetyl-CoA by which of
B. Aerobic respiration requires the electron transport the following pathways?
chain A. β-oxidation
C. The final electron acceptors are different B. Entner-Doudoroff
D. Aerobic respiration produces less ATP C. pentose phosphate pathway
Answer: Option C D. Embden-Meyerhof pathway
Answer: Option A
21. For each pair of electrons passing from NADH
located inside the mitochondria to oxygen, how many
ATP molecules can be generated?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: Option C
2. What is the usual sequence of a Pribnow box? 9. The synthesis of mRNA based on a DNA template is
A. AUAUA called
B. TATAAT A. DNA replication
C. UUUUU B. transcription
D. TTGACA C. translation
Answer: Option B D. DNA restriction
Answer: Option B
3. Which of the following component of RNA
polymerase facilitates the recognition of promoter 10. Recognition/binding site of RNA polymerase is
sequences? called
A. a subunit A. receptor
B. b subunit B. promoter
C. s subunit C. facilitator
D. c subunit D. terminator
Answer: Option C Answer: Option B
4. Which of the following statement defines a replicon? 11. Which of the following enzyme(s) is/are required
A. A DNA molecule that encodes pili for conjugation for lactose fermentation?
B. A DNA molecule that is able to replicate and be A. Transacetylase
maintained B. β-galactosidase
C. A DNA template which is used in transcription C. Galactoside permease
D. The enzyme responsible for transposition D. All of these
Answer: Option B Answer: Option D
5. Which eukaryotic RNA polymerase makes tRNA's? 12. Which of these catalyzes the synthesis of RNA from
A. RNA polymerase 1 a DNA template?
B. RNA polymerase 2 A. DNA gyrase
C. RNA polymerase 3 B. DNA ligase
D. Any of these C. DNA polymerase
Answer: Option C D. RNA polymerase
Answer: Option D
6. The location of first hexameric sequence typically
found in pro-karyotic promoters is 13. A level of regulation, demonstrated by the
A. at the transcription start site termination of transcription if tryptophan is abundant,
B. approximately 35 bases upstream of the by the tryptophan operon in E.coli cells is called
transcription start site A. activation
C. approximately 10 bases upstream of the B. attenuation
transcription start site C. corepression
D. approximately 25 bases upstream of the D. desiccation
transcription start site Answer: Option B
Answer: Option B
14. An mRNA transcript of a gene contains
7. Which of the following is a product of transcription? A. a start codon
A. mRNA B. a stop codon
B. tRNA C. a terminator
C. rRNA D. all of these
D. all of these Answer: Option D
Answer: Option D
15. Which of the following proteins first binds to TATA
box during transcription?
A. TF II A
B. TF II D
C. TF II B
D. RNA polymerase
Answer: Option B
16. The components found in all prokaryotic
transcription terminators is
A. a poly-U region
B. Rho factor
C. a hairpin structure
D. none of these
Answer: Option C
2. Parasitic infection/s frequently observed in HIV 10. The confirmatory test(s) for HIV infection is/are
disease is / are. A. virus isolation
A. cryptosporidiosis B. detection of p24 antigen
B. toxoplasmosis C. detection of viral nucleic acid
C. isosporiasis D. all of the above
D. all of these Answer: Option D
Answer: Option D
11. A viral load test detects the
3. What is the average incubation period for A. provirus of HIV in infected cells
development of AIDS? B. total amount of virus in the infected host
A. One year C. number of viruses being released by each infected
B. Five years cell
C. Ten years D. amount of bacteriophage being produced by E. coli
D. Twenty years cells
Answer: Option C Answer: Option A
4. The commonest bacterial infection in HIV disease 12. Fungal infection/s frequently observed in HIV
is/are disease is /are:
A. mycobacterial infection A. candidiasis
B. salmonella infection B. cryptococcosis
C. bartonella infection C. aspergillosis
D. all of these D. all of these
Answer: Option A Answer: Option D
5. Viral infections frequently observed in HIV disease is 13. The screening test/s for diagnosis of HIV infection
/are is/are
A. herpes simplex A. ELISA
B. varicella- zoster B. Latex agglutination
C. cytomegalo virus C. Dot blot assay
D. all of these D. all of these
Answer: Option D Answer: Option D
6. The commonest opportunistic infection in AIDS 14. The problem(s) associated with development of a
patient in India is vaccine against HIV is/are
A. cryptosporidiosis A. antibody alone may be insufficient
B. toxoplasmosis B. rapid mutation of HIV
C. tuberculosis C. virus can spread from cell to cell by fusion to
D. cryptococcosis produce syncytia
Answer: Option C D. all of these
Answer: Option D
7. HIV belongs to the family retroviridae and sub-
family 15. The commonest mode of transmission of HIV is
A. Oncovirinae A. parenteral
B. Lentivirinae B. perintal
C. Spumavirinae C. sexual
D. None of these D. oral
Answer: Option B Answer: Option C
8. HIV or Human Immunodeficiency Virus is considered 16. The cells most oftenly infected by HIV are
unique because each virus contains: A. Null cells
A. more than 100 copies of the viral genome B. CD8 + T lymphocytes
B. a genome made up of both DNA and RNA C. CD4 + T lymphocytes
components D. None of these
C. a viral enzyme known as reverse transcriptase Answer: Option C
D. sticky proteins that allow it to bind tightly to host
cells
Answer: Option C
17. Which of the following is the spike antigen of HIV-
I?
A. gp 120
B. gp 140
C. gp 36
D. gp 41
Answer: Option A
NUCLEIC ACID STRUCTURE C. Autoinducer
1. In DNA sequencing, the primer D. None of these
A. specifies where the sequence ends Answer: Option C
B. specifies where the sequence begins
C. both (a) and (b) 10. The DNA that actually codes for a protein's primary
D. generates variety of different sized fragments structure in eukaryotes is
Answer: Option B A. the entire gene
B. portions of the gene called introns
2. The chromosome of almost all bacteria is in the C. portions of the gene called exons
shape of D. the promoter
A. an open circle Answer: Option C
B. helix
C. a closed circle 11. Stem and loop structures are
D. a linear chromosome A. proteins that help partially denatured enzymes to
Answer: Option C recover their native configuration
B. structures in DNA caused by inverted repeats
3. In which of the following uracil is present? C. structures at the ends of linear eukaryotic DNA
A. RNA molecules
B. DNA D. the bonds between adjacent DNA nucleotides in the
C. Both (a) and (b) same strand
D. None of these Answer: Option B
Answer: Option A
2. The bacteria which are inhibited on crystal violet 10. The toxin of Staphylococcus aureus that may result
(1:500,000) blood agar, is/are into scalded skin syndrome is
A. Streptococci A. Enterotoxin
B. Staphylococci B. Leucocidin
C. Both (a) and (b) C. Epidermolytic toxin
D. None of these D. Haemolysin
Answer: Option B Answer: Option C
3. Which of the following Staphylococcal haemolysins 11. The bacteria which can ferment mannitol
does not possess leucocidal activity? anaerobically is
A. α haemolysin A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. γ haemolysin B. S epidermidis
C. β haemolysin C. S saprophyticus
D. δ haemolysin D. None of these
Answer: Option C Answer: Option A
4. The genus/genera that belongs to the family 12. Protein A is found in cell wall of
Micrococcaceae is A. coagulase-negative staphylococci
A. Micrococcus B. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Staphylococcus C. Micrococci
C. Planococcus D. none of these
D. All of these Answer: Option B
Answer: Option D
13. The most common cause of cystitis (after
5. Identify the bacteria which is oxidase-negative and Escherichia coli) in healthy sexually active women is
catalase-positive? A. Staphylococcus saprophyticus
A. Staphylococcus B. Proteus mirabilis
B. Streptococcus C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C. Neisseria D. Klebsiella pneumoniae
D. Pseudomonas Answer: Option A
Answer: Option A
14. Which of the following can be used to detect
6. Coagulase-reacting factor is necessary for clumping factor?
A. slide coagulase test A. tube coagulase test
B. tube coagulase test B. slide coagulase test
C. precipitation test C. precipitation test
D. none of these D. none of these
Answer: Option B Answer: Option B
7. Bacteria which produces coagulase is 15. Most strains of Staphylococcus aureus indicate
A. S epidermidis A. phosphatase production
B. S saprophyticus B. a golden-yellow pigment
C. S aureus C. β-haemolysis on sheep blood agar
D. S hominis D. all of the above
Answer: Option C Answer: Option D
4. Eugonic growth on Lowenstein-Jensen medium is 12. The bacteria which cause(s) tuberculosis in man
produced by is/are
A. M bovis A. M bovis
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C. Both (a) and (b) C. M africanum
D. None of the above D. All of these
Answer: Option B Answer: Option D
5. The causative agent of Buruli ulcer is 13. Which of the phage types of Mycobacterium
A. M chelonei tuberculosis occurs most frequently in India?
B. M marinum A. Type A
C. M fortuitum B. Type B
D. M ulcerarts C. Type C
Answer: Option D D. Type I
Answer: Option D
6. False negative Mantoux test is observed in
A. early tuberculosis 14. Members of the genus Mycobacterium are
B. Advanced tuberculosis A. gram-positive
C. Severe malnutrition B. acid-fast
D. All of these C. non-motile
Answer: Option D D. all of these
Answer: Option D
7. Humans become infected with Mycobacterium
tuberculosis most frequently by 15. A positive Mantoux test indicates an area of
A. inhalation induration of
B. ingestion A. 4-9 mm in diameter
C. contact B. 1-4 mm in diameter
D. inoculation C. 10 mm or more in diameter
Answer: Option A D. None of these
Answer: Option C
8. Rough and buff colonies on LJ medium are
characteristic of
A. M chelonei
B. M bovis
C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D. M fortuitum
Answer: Option C
BACTERIOPHAGES C. the envelope is coded by the viral nucleic acids, but
1. The process by which phage reproduction is initiated the proteins come from the host's membrane proteins
in lysogenized culture is called D. the envelope and its imbedded proteins are derived
A. infection from the host's membranes
B. integration Answer: Option B
C. repression
D. induction 9. Which of the following bacteria can be typed by
Answer: Option D phage typing method?
A. Staphylococcus aureus
2. Area of lysis on a bacterial lawn culture produced by B. Salmonella typhi
a phage is known as C. Vibrio cholerae
A. pock D. All of these
B. plaque Answer: Option D
C. pox
D. all of these 10. __________ protein keeps the prophage dormant
Answer: Option B and prevents virus reproduction.
A. Operator
3. The procapsid is assembled with the aid of B. Promotor
__________ proteins. C. Repressor
A. ladder D. Enhancer
B. framing Answer: Option C
C. scaffolding
D. form 11. __________ is specifically able to have a long-
Answer: Option C term relationship with the host known as lysogeny.
A. Temperate virus
4. Which of the following is/are synthesized from late B. Adsorbed virus
mRNA? C. RNA phage
A. Phage structural proteins D. DNA phage
B. Proteins that help with phage assembly without Answer: Option A
becoming part of the virion structure
C. Proteins involved in cell lysis and phage release 12. Which of the following properties is due to
D. All of the above lysogenic conversion by phages?
Answer: Option D A. Toxin production in Corynebacterium diphtheriae
B. Toxin production in Clostridium botulinum types C
5. Which capsid symmetry is exhibited by most of the and D
phages? C. Antigenic variation in Salmonella anatum
A. Helical D. All of the above
B. Icosahedral Answer: Option D
C. Complex
D. None of these 13. T-even phage binding to E. coli probably involves
Answer: Option B A. electrostatic interaction
B. hydrophobic interaction
6. Contractile sheath of the tail is present in which of C. covalent bonds
the following phages? D. all of these
A. T3 Answer: Option A
B. T2
C. P22 14. The filamentous bacteriopohage infect male E. coli
D. All of these cells by attaching to
Answer: Option B A. lipopolysaccharide
B. the cell wall
7. One of the first enzymes synthesized by many C. the tip of the pilus
bacteriophage is __________ , an RNA-dependent D. the cell membrane
RNA polymerase. Answer: Option C
A. RNA transcriptase
B. RNA polymerase 15. A bacterial defense mechanism against
C. RNA ligase bacteriophage is called
D. RNA replicase A. concatamerization
Answer: Option D B. polymerization
C. restriction
8. In viruses with envelopes D. lysogeny
A. the envelope and the embedded proteins are Answer: Option C
encoded by the viral nucleic acid
B. the envelope is derived from the host but it contains
embedded proteins coded by the viral nucleic acid
POLYMERASE CHAIN REACTION 8. The template for PCR is
1. Which of the following infection(s) can be diagnosed A. RNA
by the use of polymerase chain reaction? B. single stranded DNA
A. HIV-1 and HIV-2 viruses C. double stranded DNA
B. Hepatitis B virus D. none of these
C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis Answer: Option C
D. All of these
Answer: Option D