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MICRO ORGANISMS 8.

Which of the following is not true for eukaryotic


1. The phospholipids present in cytoplasm membrane cells?
of the archaeo-bacteria is A. Nucleus is bounded by nuclear membrane
A. phosphoglycerides B. Chromosomes contain histones
B. polyisoprenoid C. Chloroplasts and mitochondria contains 70S
C. polyisoprenoid branched chain lipids ribosomes
D. none of the above D. Gas vacuoles are present
Answer: Option C Answer: Option D

2. The oldest eukaryotic organisms are considered to 9. Which of the following is not true for prokaryotic
be organism?
A. diplomonads like Giardia A. Nucleus is not bounded by nuclear membrane
B. archaea B. Chromosomes does not contain histones
C. fungi C. 80S ribosomes are distributed in cytoplasm
D.animals D. Cell wall contains peptidoglycan as one of the major
Answer: Option B component
Answer: Option C
3. The phospholipids present in cytoplasm membrane
of eubacteria is mainly 10. Gram staining was introduced by
A. phosphoglycerides A. Christian gram
B. polyisoprenoid B. Alfred Gram
C. phospholipoprotein C. Robertcook
D. none of these D.Louis Pasteur
Answer: Option A Answer: Option A

4. Which were the investigators lived at the same 11. Which of the following is considered the most
time? unifying concept in biology?
A. Koch and Pasteur A. Taxonomy
B. Darwin and Woese B. Anatomy
C. Van Leeuenhoek and Ricketts C. Genetics
D. Berg and Hooke D. Evolution
Answer: Option A Answer: Option D

5. The unifying feature of the archaea that 12. Various bacterial species can be subdivided into
distinguishes them from the bacteria is A. subspecies
A. habitats which are extreme environments with B. biovarieties
regard to acidity C. serovarieties
B. absence of a nuclear membrane temperature D. all of these
C. presence of a cell wall containing a characteristic Answer: Option D
outer membrane
D. cytoplasmic ribosomes that are 70S 13. Living organisms have many complex
Answer: Option B characteristics. Which one of the following is shared by
non-living matter as well?
6. Mycoplasmas are different from the other A. Homeostasis
prokaryotes by B. Tissues
A. presence of chitin in cell walls C. Reproduction
B. presence of murrain in cell walls D. Molecules
C. presence of proteins in cell walls Answer: Option D
D. absence of cell wall itself
Answer: Option D 14. A newly discovered microscopic structure is
hypothesized to be a living organism. Which of the
7. Evolutionary relationships between groups of following lines of evidence would support the
organisms are determined using which of the following contention that this organism may be alive?
type of information? A. It contains DNA
A. Comparisons of nucleotide sequences B. It is made of a single cell
B. Comparisons of biochemical pathways C. It utilizes energy
C. Comparisons of structural features D. All of these
D. All of the above Answer: Option C
Answer: Option D
15. Mycoplasmas, rickettsiae, and chlamydiae are
A. types of fungi
B. small bacteria
C. species of protozoa
D. forms of viruses
Answer: Option B
16. Which of the following structure is absent in 24. All membranes of free-living organisms have
eukaryotic cells? phospholipid bilayers, but exception is
A. Mitochondria A. bacteria
B. Chloroplasts B. fungi
C. Golgi structure C. archaea
D. Mesosome D. protozoa
Answer: Option D Answer: Option C

17. Who was the inventor of the Petri dish?


A. R.J. Petri, an assistant of R. Koch 25. All of the following are features of prokaryotes
B. A famous French cook except
C. Italian glass blower from Petri, Italy A. nitrogen fixation
D. None of the above B. photosynthesis
Answer: Option A C. sexual reproduction
D. locomotion
18. Which one is not studied in microbiology? Answer: Option C
A. Bacteria
B. Animal behaviour 26. Which of the following structures is the smallest?
C. Fungi A. Viriod
D. Algae B. Hydrogen atom
Answer: Option B C. Bacterium
D. Mitochondrion
19. A characteristic of protein synthesis in both the Answer: Option B
archaea and eukarya is
A. transcription and translation are coupled 27. Which of the following is/are included in Kingdom
B. translation is inhibited by diphtheria toxin Prokaryotae?
C. proteins are synthesized from D-, rather than L-, A. Bacteria
isomers of amino acids B. Protozoa
D. the initiator tRNA is charged with N-formyl- C. Fungi
methionine D. All of these
Answer: Option C Answer: Option A

20. Cell theory includes all of the following except 28. Which of the following may account for the small
A. all organisms are composed of one or more cells size of the cells?
B. the cell is the most primitive form of life A. The rate of diffusion
C. the cell is the structural unit of life B. The surface area/volume ratio
D. cells arise by division of preexisting cells C. The number of mRNAs that can be produced by the
Answer: Option B nucleus
D. All of the above
21. The five-kingdom system of classification was set Answer: Option D
up by
A. Louis Pasteur 29. Genetic and biochemical similarities between
B. Robert Whittaker contemporary cyanobacteria and eukaryotic
C. Robert Koch chloroplasts are accepted to mean that
D. Masaki Ogata A. eukaryotes evolved from bacteria
Answer: Option B B. eukaryotes evolved from archaea
C. oxygenic photosynthesis first evolved in eukaryotes
22. The membranes of which domains are chemically D. cyanobacteria arose from chloroplasts which
the most similar? escaped from plant cells
A. Archaea and Bacteria Answer: Option B
B. Bacteria and Eukarya
C. Eukarya and Archaea 30. Which of the following best represents the
D. membranes of all three domains are chemically hierarchy of levels of biological classification?
identical A. Phylum, kingdom, class, order, genus, species,
Answer: Option B family
B. Kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus,
23. Primary differences between cilia and flagella are species
A. arrangement of microtubules C. Kingdom, phylum, family, class, order, genus,
B. length and location of basal bodies species
C. how the microtubules are fused to each other D. Class, order, kingdom, phylum, family, genus,
D. number, length and direction of force species
Answer: Option D Answer: Option B
31. The three domain version of life on earth is based 38. Eukaryotic cell organelles first emerged
on the A. from a specialized lineage of cells within the
A. nucleic acid sequence data kingdom Protista
B. morphological traits B. when prokaryotes engulfed each other and became
C. metabolic traits interdependent
D. characteristics of the cell wall C. when bacteria made their first attempts at
Answer: Option A reproduction
D. just before the origin of the animal and fungal
32. The foundation for the germ theory of disease was kingdoms
set down by Answer: Option B
A. Robert Koch
B. Ronald Ross 39. Who discovered the bacteria that cause cholera?
C. Louis Pasteur A. Pierre Berthelot
D. Walter Reed B. Robert Koch
Answer: Option C C. Louis Pasteur
D. Rudolf Virchow
33. Most microbial structures and enzymes are Answer: Option B
composed of
A. lipids 40. Prokaryotic microorganism include
B. proteins A. protozoa
C. carbohydrates B. fungi
D. lipids and carbohydrates C. bacteria
Answer: Option B D. all of these
Answer: Option C
34. The individual best remembered for bringing
microbes to the world is 41. All the following are basic properties of cells except
A. Robert Hooke A. cells have nuclei and mitochondria
B. Antony Van Leeuenhoek B. cells have a genetic programme and the means to
C. Robert Koch use it
D. Masaki Ogata C. cells are capable of producing more of themselves
Answer: Option B D. cells are able to respond to stimuli
Answer: Option A
35.Micro organisms are found in which of the following
kingdom of five kingdom concept (Whittaker's 42. Which of the following microorganisms is classified
classification)? as a member of archaebacteria?
A. Monera A. Gyanobacteria
B. Protista B. Methanobacteria
C. Fungi C. Trichomonads
D. All of these D. Mycoplasma
Answer: Option D Answer: Option B

36. The first organism in most natural food chains is 43. The idea of selective toxicity was first proposed by
A. a herbivore A. Antony van Leeuwenhoek
B. a decomposer B. Paul Ehrlich
C. photosynthetic C. Louis Pasteur
D. carnivorous D. Alexander Fleming
Answer: Option A Answer: Option B

37. The third kingdom, protista, as suggested by E.H. 44. Which of the following sequences has helped in
Haeckel includes identifying eukaryotes, eubacteria and archeabacterial
A. bacteria cell types?
B. algae A. Signature sequence
C. fungi B. Signal sequence
D. all of these C. Shine-Dalgarno sequence
Answer: Option D D. Amino acid sequence
Answer: Option A

45. Archeal cells usually do not contain peptidoglycan,


rather contain pseudo-peptidoglycan which is mainly
composed of
A. N-acetylmuramic acid and L-amino acids
B. N-acetylmuramic acid and D-amino acids
C. N-acetyltalosaminuronic acid and D-amino acids
D. N-acetyltalosaminuronic acid and L-amino acids
Answer: Option D
46. In the three domain system of classification, the 54. Which of the following organelles contain DNA,
traditional bacteria are placed in the divides and possesses some degree of autonomy?
A. eukarya A. Golgi apparatus
B. archaea B. Ribosome
C. eubacteria C. Chloroplast
D. none of these D. Peroxisomes
Answer: Option C Answer: Option C

47. One of the reasons for the evolutionary success of 55. All of the following individuals contributed to cell
the kingdom Monera is that its members are theory except
nutritionally diverse. Which of the following(s) is/are A. Robert Hooke
the way(s) of obtaining energy? B. Matthias Schleiden
A. Photoautotrophy C. Theodor Schwann
B. Photoheterotrophy D. Rudolf Virchow
C. Chemoheterotrophy Answer: Option A
D. All of the above
Answer: Option D 56. Eukaryotic micro organisms include
A. protozoa
48. Carl Woese and his colleague are best known for B. fungi
establishing C. algae
A. the five kingdom system D. all of these
B. the three domain system Answer: Option D
C. the prokaryote-eukaryote system
D. the plant-animal system 57. The binomial name of a microbe is composed of
Answer: Option B A. its kingdom and genus names
B. its genus name and a species modifier
49. Which of the following is not found in the kingdom C. its family and class names
Monera? D. its genus and species names
A. Organelles Answer: Option B
B. Organized cell structure
C. Ability to reproduce 58. Which of the following is a characteristic unique to
D. Ability to use energy the ciliates?
Answer: Option A A. Use of cilia as a sensory function
B. Presence of both a macronucleus and several
50. Which of the following is the most primitive? micronuclei
A. Virus C. Both (a) and (b)
B. Eukaryote D. Possess a light-detecting eye spot
C. Archaeon Answer: Option C
D. Mitochondria
Answer: Option C 59. Which of the following structure is present in
prokaryotic cells?
51. All the following are considered eukaryotes except A. Mitochondria
A. archaea B. Chloroplasts
B. fungi C. Golgi structure
C. protozoa D. Mesosome
D. humans Answer: Option D
Answer: Option A
60. The word cell was first used by
52. Which cell type is considered to have the oldest A. Robert Hooke
ancestor? B. Theodor Schwann
A. Archaea C. Louis Pasteur
B. Bacteria D. Ronald Ross
C. Eukarya Answer: Option A
D. they all share the same ancestor
Answer: Option D 61. What are Blue-Green bacteria called?
A. Acquaobacteria
53. What is Mycology? B. Cyanobacteria
A. Study of viruses C. Protozoa
B. Study of nucleic acid D. None of the above
C. Study of bacteria Answer: Option B
D. Study of fungi
Answer: Option D
62. The endosymbiosis hypothesis provides an
explanation for how
A. eukaryotes developed from prokayotes
B. prokaryotes developed from eukaryotes
C. algae developed from protozoa
D. protozoa developed from algae
Answer: Option A

63. The Archaea include all of the following except


A. methanogens
B. halophiles
C. thermoacidophiles
D. cyanobacteria
Answer: Option D
BACTERIAL MORPHOLOGY 9. Which of the following is true about cell wall of
1. Which of the following bacteria lack a cell wall and gram-positive bacteria?
are therefore resistant to penicillin? A. It consists of multiple layers
A. Cyanobacteria B. It is thicker than that associated with gram-negative
B. Mycoplasmas bacteria
C. Bdellovibrios C. It contains teichoic acids
D. Spirochetes D. All of these
Answer: Option B Answer: Option D

2. A cluster of polar flagella is called 10. The cell walls of many gram positive bacteria can
A. lophotrichous be easily destroyed by the enzyme known as
B. amphitrichous A. lipase
C. monotrichous B. lysozyme
D. petritrichous C. pectinase
Answer: Option A D. peroxidase
Answer: Option B
3. Flagella move the cell by
A. many flagella beating in a synchronous, whip-like 11. The cell wall of
motion A. gram-positive bacteria are thicker than gram-
B. an individual flagellum beating in a whip-like motion negative bacteria
C. spinning like a propeller B. gram-negative bacteria are thicker than gram-
D. attaching to nearby particles and contracting positive bacteria
Answer: Option C C. both have same thickness but composition is
different
4. The protein from which hook and filaments of D. none of these
flagella are composed of, is Answer: Option A
A. keratin
B. flagellin 12. Peptidoglycan is also known as
C. gelatin A. N-acetyl muramic acid
D. casein B. murein mucopeptide
Answer: Option B C. N acetylglucosamine
D. mesodiaminopimetic acid
5. The cooci which mostly occur in single or pairs are Answer: Option B
A. Streptococci
B. Diplococci 13. Genetic system is located in the prokaryotes in
C. Tetracocci A. nucleoid
D. None of these B. chromatin
Answer: Option B C. nuclear material
D. all of these
6. Which of the following may contain fimbriae? Answer: Option D
A. Gram-positive bacteria
B. Gram-negative bacteria 14. Which is most likely to be exposed on the surface
C. Both (a) and (b) of a gram-negative bacterium?
D. None of these A. Pore protein (porin)
Answer: Option B B. Protein involved in energy generation
C. Lipoteichoic acid
7. Peptidoglycan accounts for __________ of the dry D. Phospholipids
weight of cell wall in many gram positive bacteria Answer: Option A
A. 50% or more
B. About 10% 15. The last step in synthesis of peptidoglycan is
C. 11%+ 0.22% A. attachment of a peptide to muramic acid
D. About 20% B. attaching two amino acids to form a cross-link
Answer: Option A C. attachment of a portion of peptidoglycan to a
membrane lipid
8. Bacteria having no flagella are unable to D. binding of penicillin to a membrane protein
A. move Answer: Option B
B. reproduce
C. stick to tissue surfaces 16. Cytoplasmic inclusions include
D. grow in nutrient agar A. ribosomes
Answer: Option A B. mesosomes
C. fat globules
D. all of these
Answer: Option D
17. The cocci which forms a bunch and irregular 25. The common word for bacteria which are helically
pattern are curved rods is
A. Staphylococci A. cooci
B. diplococci B. pleomorphic
C. Tetracocci C. bacillus
D. Streptococci D. spirilla
Answer: Option A Answer: Option D

18. Chemotaxis is a phenomenon of 26. The bacteria deficient in cell wall is


A. swimming away of bacteria A. Treponema
B. swimming towards a bacteria B. Mycoplasma
C. swimming away or towards of bacteria in presence C. Staphylococcus
of chemical compound D. Klebsiella
D. none of the above Answer: Option B
Answer: Option C
27. Which of the following is not true about
19. The structure responsible for motility of bacteria is peptidoglycan?
A. pilli A. It is a polymer consisting of N-acetyl glucosamine,
B. flagella N-acetyl muramic acid and amino acids (alanine,
C. sheath lysine, etc.)
D. capsules B. It is present in prokaryotic cell wall
Answer: Option B C. It occurs in the form of a bag shaped macro
molecule surrounding the cytoplasm membrane
20. The next to last step in peptidoglycan biosynthesis D. None of the above
is Answer: Option D
A. synthesis of the NAM-peptide subunit
B. removal of the subunit from bactoprenol 28. The common word for bacteria which are spherical
C. linking the sugar of the disaccharide-peptide unit to in shape is
the growing peptidoglycan chain A. cocci
D. cross-linking the peptide side chains of B. bacilli
peptidoglycan C. spirilla
Answer: Option C D. pleomorphic
Answer: Option A
21. The cocci which forms a chain is
A. Streptococci 29. Single or clusters of flagella at both poles is known
B. diplococci as
C. Staphylococci A. monotrichous
D. Tetracocci B. petritrichous
Answer: Option A C. amphitrichous
D. none of these
22. The arrangement, in which flagella are distributed Answer: Option C
all round the bacterial cell, is known as
A. lophotrichous 30. Which of the following bacterial genera (that
B. amphitrichous produces endospore) have medical importance?
C. peritrichous A. Clostridium
D. monotrichous B. Bacillus
Answer: Option C C. Both (a) and (b)
D. None of these
23. Periplasm is Answer: Option C
A. the area between the inner and outer membranes of
gram-negative bacteria 31. Microcapsules are composed of
B. the area between the inner and outer membranes of A. proteins
Gram-positive bacteria B. polysaccharides
C. the interior portion of mitochondria C. lipids
D. the area outside the cell membrane that is D. all of these
influenced by the polymers Answer: Option D
Answer: Option A
32. Gram positive cells have a
24. Which of the following has peptidoglycan as a A. second outer membrane that helps to retain the
major constituent of cell wall? crytal violet stain
A. Gram-negative bacteria B. multiple layer of peptidoglycan that helps to retain
B. Gram-positive bacteria the crystal violet stain
C. Fungi C. thick capsule that traps the crystal violet stain
D. None of these D. periplasmic space that traps the crystal violet
Answer: Option B Answer: Option B
33. The common word for bacteria which are straight 41. Chemically the capsule may be
rod in shape is A. polypeptide
A. cooci B. polysaccharide
B. bacilli C. either (a) or (b)
C. spirilla D. none of these
D. pleomorphic Answer: Option C
Answer: Option B
42. Peptidoglycan is found only in the bacterial
34. A single polar flagella is known as A. cell membrane
A. monotrichous B. glycocalyx
B. lophotrichous C. cell wall
C. amphitrichous D. spore
D. none of these Answer: Option C
Answer: Option A
43. The cell walls of Gram positive bacteria contain two
35. Teichoic acids are typically found in modified sugar, viz. N- acetylgucosamine (NAG) and
A. cell walls of gram positive bacteria N- acetylmuramic acid (NAM). They are covalently
B. outer membranes of gram positive bacteria linked by
C. cell walls of gram negative bacteria A. α- 1,4-glycosidic bond
D. outer membranes of gram negative bacteria B. β-1,6-glycosidic bond
Answer: Option A C. α- 1,6-glycosidic bond
D. β- 1,4-glycosidic bond
36. In eukaryotic cells, ribosomes are Answer: Option D
A. 70S
B. 60S 44. Which of the following organism has sterols in their
C. 80S cytoplasmic membrane?
D. Not specific A. Clostridum
Answer: Option C B. Proteus
C. Mycoplasma
37. Porins are located in D. Bacillius
A. the outer membrane of gram-negative bacteria Answer: Option C
B. the peptidoglycan layer of gram-positive bacteria
C. the cytoplasmic membrane of both gram-negative 45. Name the component of flagellum.
and gram-positive bacteria A. Filament
D. the periplasmic space of gram-negative bacteria B. Hook
Answer: Option A C. Basal body
D. All of these
38. Which of the following is exposed on the outer Answer: Option D
surface of a gram-negative bacterium?
A. O-antigen of lipopolysaccharide (LPS) 46. The location where the bacterial chromosome
B. Polysaccharide portion of lipoteichoic acid (LTA) concentrates is called
C. Braun lipoprotein A. nucleus
D. Electron transport system components B. nuclein
Answer: Option A C. nucleoid
D. nucleose
39. Which of the following does not contain protein? Answer: Option C
A. Pili
B. Flagellum 47. Which of the following is analogous to mesosomes
C. Lipoteichoic acid of bacteria?
D. Porin A. Mitochondria of eukaryotes
Answer: Option C B. Golgi apparatus of eukaryotes
C. Lysosomes of eukaryotes
40. Swimming towards a chemical of bacteria is D. None of these
termed as Answer: Option A
A. positive chemotaxis
B. negative chemotaxis 48. Which of the following has Chinese letter
C. phototaxis arrangement?
D. magnetotaxis A. Bacillus anthracis
Answer: Option A B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C. Clostridium tetani
D. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
Answer: Option D
49. The other name for peptidoglycan is
A. mucopeptide
B. murein
C. both (a) & (b)
D. none of these
Answer: Option C

50. Cyanobacteria have


A. a gram-positive cell wall
B. a gram-negative cell wall
C. Neither (a) nor (b)
D. No cell wall
Answer: Option B

51. In which of the following, lipo-polysaccharide is a


major constituent of outer membrane of the cellwall?
A. Gram-positive bacteria
B. Gram-negative bacteria
C. Fungi
D. None of these
Answer: Option B

52. Which of the following structure(s) is /are external


to cell wall?
A. Flagella
B. Stalks
C. Sheath
D. All of these
Answer: Option D

53. Which of the following may be most likely to be


missing from a gram-positive bacterium?
A. Penicillin binding protein
B. Peptidoglycan
C. Lipopolysaccharide
D. Phospholipid bilayer membrane
Answer: Option C
CELL CULTURES AND CHARACTERISTICS 9. The concentration of agar to obtain semi solid media
1. Which of the following bacteria can grow in acidic is
pH? A. 1.5-20%
A. Vibrio cholerae B. 0.5% or less
B. Lactobacilli C. >10%
C. Shigella D. >10%but<20%
D. Salmonella Answer: Option B
Answer: Option B
10. Which of the following bacteria dies quickly after
2. Cell size and cell number can be measured using drying?
A. hemocytometer A. Treponema pallidium
B. coulter counter B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C. petroff-hausser counting chamber C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. none of these D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Answer: Option B Answer: Option A

3. Which of the following is used for the proper 11. Mac-Conkey medium is an example of
maintenance and preservation of pure cultures? A. transport medium
A. Periodic transfer to fresh media B. enrichment medium
B. Preservation by overlaying cultures with mineral oil C. differential medium
C. Preservation by lyophilization D. all of these
D. All of the above Answer: Option C
Answer: Option D
12. Pseudomonas aeruginosa forms a blue water
4. In the process of freeze drying, a dense cell soluble pigment called
suspension is placed in small vials and is frozen at A. pyocyanin
A. -60 to -78°C B. chlororaphin
B. -20 to -30°C C. pyoverdin
C. -30 to -48°C D. β-carotene
D. -48 to -58°C Answer: Option A
Answer: Option A
13. Agar is used for solidifying culture media because
5. The solidifying agent commonly used in preparation A. it does not affect by the growth of bacteria
of media is/are B. it does not add to the nutritive properties of the
A. agar medium
B. silica gel C. the melting and solidifying points of agar solution
C. both (a) and (b) are not the same
D. none of these D. all of the above
Answer: Option C Answer: Option D

6. Which of the following chemotherapeutic agents 14. For the selection of lactobacilli present in cheddar
may affect the growth of Campylobacter jejuni? cheese, the pH of the medium is maintained at
A. Vacomycin A. 6.35
B. Polymyxin B. 5.35
C. Trimethoprim C. 4.35
D. None of these D. 5.75
Answer: Option D Answer: Option B

7. To select cholera-causing bacterium, Vibrio 15. A disease producing species occurring in a mixed
cholerae, the pH of the medium is maintained at a pH culture can often be selected on the basis of its
of A. pathogenic properties
A. 8.5 B. special carbon source
B. 8.90 C. special nitrogen source
C. 6.79 D. none of these
D. 3.5 Answer: Option A
Answer: Option A
16. Important example(s) of enriched medium/media
8. For the selection of endospore-forming bacteria, a is/ are
mixed culture can be heated at A. Loeffler's serum slope
A. 80°C for 10 minutes B. Bordet-gengou medium
B. 70°C for 10 minutes C. Blood agar
C. 60°C for 10 minutes D.All of these
D. 90°C for 10 minutes Answer: Option D
Answer: Option A
17. Cell counting can be carried out by 24. When a substance is added to a liquid medium
A. direct microscopic count using petroffhansser which inhibits the growth of unwanted bacteria and
counting chamber favors the growth of wanted bacteria, it is known as
B. plate counting A. differential medium
C. membrane filter count B. enriched medium
D. all of the above C. enrichment medium
Answer: Option D D. selective medium
Answer: Option C
18. Which of the following techniques may be
performed quantitatively to determine the number of 25. Which of the following methods is most likely to be
bacteria of a particular type? quantitative?
A. Pour plate A. Dilution and plating
B. Spread plate B. Gram staining
C. Both (a) and (b) C. Wet mount
D. Streak plate technique D. None of these
Answer: Option C Answer: Option A

19. Intestinal bacteria can grow in the presence of 26. Which of the following hint(s) suggest/s that a
__________ whereas nonintestinal bacteria are usually given specimen is likely to contain anaerobic bacteria?
inhibited. A. Gas in specimen
A. bile salts B. Foul odour
B. low concentration of various dyes C. Presence of sulphur granules
C. sugars D. All of these
D. low levels of nitrogen Answer: Option D
Answer: Option A
27. Viable plate count can be obtained using
20. Which of the following problem makes it impossible A. Spread plate method
to satisfy all of Koch's postulates? B. Pour plate method
A. Microorganism causes serious symptoms in humans C. both (a) and (b)
B. Microorganism cannot be isolated in pure culture D. Hemocytometer
C. Species of microorganism is in question Answer: Option C
D. Genes from the microorganism cannot be amplified
by PCR 28. In the pour plate method, the mixed culture is
Answer: Option B diluted directly in tubes of
A. liquid agar medium
21. A medium containing crystal violet dye plus sodium B. sterile liquid usually water
deoxycholate will allow C. both (a) and (b)
A. gram (-)ve intestinal bacteria to grow D. none of these
B. gram (+)ve intestinal bacteria to grow Answer: Option A
C. aquatic bacteria to grow
D. none of these 29. Treponema species from human oral cavity can be
Answer: Option A selected by using
A. pH of the medium
22. Which of the following bacteria can grow in alkaline B. incubation temperature
pH? C. cell size and motility
A. Shigella D. all of these
B. Lactobacilli Answer: Option C
C. Salmonella
D. Vibrio cholerae 30. When a substance is added to a solid medium
Answer: Option D which inhibits the growth of unwanted bacteria but
permits the growth of wanted bacteria, it is known as
23. All bacteria that inhabit the human body are A. differential medium
A. heterotrophs B. enriched medium
B. chemolithotrophs C. enrichment medium
C. autotrophs D. selective medium
D. phototroph Answer: Option D
Answer: Option A
31. Peptone water and nutrient broth are
A. selective media
B. enriched media
C. basal media
D. none of these
Answer: Option C
32. Stuart's transport medium is used for transport of
specimen containing
A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
B. Salmonella
C. Vibrio cholerae
D. Shigella
Answer: Option A

33. Plate counts are often reported as


A. cfu
B. cfu/ml
C. Both (a) and (b)
D. thousands/ml
Answer: Option B

34. The medium which allows the growth of more than


one microorganisms of interest but with
morphologically distinguishable colonies is known as
A. selective medium
B. enrichment medium
C. differential medium
D. none of these
Answer: Option C

35. Selective media facilitate growth of only one kind


of organism. Saboraud medium is used to selectively
isolate
A. coliform bacteria
B. gram positive bacteria
C. yeasts
D. acid fast organisms
Answer: Option C
ENZYMES REGULATION 9. The inactive organic molecular portion of enzyme is
1. Allosteric enzymes are A. apoenzyme
A. larger than simple enzyme B. coenzyme
B. smaller than simple enzyme C. holoenzyme
C. larger and more complex than simple enzyme D. none of these
D. smaller than simple enzyme but not complex Answer: Option B
Answer: Option C
10. Many enzymes consists of a protein combined with
2. Intracellular enzymes low molecular weight organic molecule called as
A. synthesize cellular material only A. apoenzyme
B. synthesize cellular material and perform catabolic B. co-enzyme
reaction C. holoenzyme
C. synthesize cellular material and perform anabolic D. co-factors
reaction Answer: Option B
D. only provide energy to the cell
Answer: Option B 11. Organic molecules that increase the rate of
metabolic reactions with themselves changing are
3. Enzyme catalase has non-protein metal as known as
A. magnesium A. coenzymes
B. manganese B. enzymes
C. iron C. substrates
D. zinc D. reactants
Answer: Option C Answer: Option B

4. Isozymes or iso enzymes are those enzyme which 12. Protein portion of an enzyme when it is combined
A. have same structural forms with organic molecule is termed as
B. have different structural forms but identical catalytic A. apoenzyme
properties B. co-enzyme
C. catalyses oxidation reactions C. holoenzyme
D. none of these D. co-factors
Answer: Option B Answer: Option A

5. Enzymes are 13. The active form of enzyme is


A. organic compounds produced by living organism A. apoenzyme
B. inorganic compounds B. coenzyme
C. organic as well as inorganic compounds C. holoenzyme
D. all of these D. none of these
Answer: Option A Answer: Option C

6. Main function of an enzyme is to 14. Enzymes can


A. increase the activation energy A. not pass through semipermeable membrane
B. decrease the activation energy B. pass through semipermeable membrane
C. maintain constant activation energy C. dissolve semipermeable membrane
D. none of these D. none of these
Answer: Option B Answer: Option A

7. Who coined the word enzyme first?


A. Kuhne
B. Pasteur
C. Liebig
D. Buchner
Answer: Option A

8. The inactive protein from of enzyme is


A. apoenzyme
B. enzyme
C. haloenzyme
D. cofactor
Answer: Option A
MICROBIAL METABOLISM 8. In aerobic respiration, the terminal electron
1. During the carboxylation phase of the Calvin cycle, acceptor is
CO2 combines with A. oxygen
A. ribulose 1,5 - bisphosphate B. nitrogen
B. phosphoglyceraldehyde C. hydrogen
C. pyruvic acid D. nitrate
D. oxaloacetic acid Answer: Option A
Answer: Option A
9. Which of the following statement is correct?
2. Which of the following groups contain(s) many A. Phosphate repression can not be eliminated by
unique coenzymes, such as coenzyme M and coenzyme optimization of nutrient medium, deregulated medium
F420? must be used as production strains
A. Sulfate-reducing bacteria B. Phosphate repression can be eliminated by
B. Methanotrophs (methane-oxidizing microbes) optimization of nutrient medium, deregulated medium
C. Methanogens (methane-producing microbes) must be used as production strains
D. Acetogens (acetigens; acetate-producing microbes) C. Phosphate repression can be eliminated by
Answer: Option C optimization of nutrient medium, regulated medium
must be used as production strains
3. In the passive diffusion, solute molecules cross the D. Phosphate repression can not be eliminated by
membrane as a result of optimization of nutrient medium, regulated medium
A. concentration difference must be used as production strains
B. pressure difference Answer: Option A
C. ionic difference
D. all of these 10. The acquisition energy by glucose fermentation
Answer: Option A requires
A. substrate-level phosphorylation
4. In an oxygenic photosynthesis, the green and the B. electron transport of electrons from NADH
purple bacteria do not use which of the following one C. long-chain fatty acid oxidation
as an electron source? D. the enzyme formic-hydrogen lyase
A. H2O Answer: Option A
B. H2
C. H2S 11. High energy transfer compounds are capable of
D. S (elemental sulphur) A. accepting large amounts of free energy
Answer: Option A B. transferring large amounts of free energy
C. measuring free energy
5. Radioisotopes are frequently used in the study of D. none of the above
cells. Assume a culture of E. coli is grown in a culture Answer: Option B
medium containing radioactive phosphorous. At the
end of 48 hours, it is expected to find the radioactive 12. Dolichol phosphate is
label located in A. a complex lipid involved in docking vesicles with the
A. enzymes plasma membrane
B. RNA B. the anchor on which sugars assemble before
C. phospholipids transfer to proteins
D. all of these C. a chaperone used in protein folding
Answer: Option D D. a product of phospholipase C activation
Answer: Option B
6. Assimilatory sulfate reduction involves the
nucleotide __________ during the incorporation of 13. The reactions of the cell that are carried out for
H2S in the production of __________ . capturing energy are called
A. ATP; methionine A. catabolism
B. ATP; cytosine B. metabolism
C. UTP; cytosine C. anabolism
D. GTP; cytosine D. activation energy
Answer: Option B Answer: Option A

7. The chlorophyll molecules used by eucaryotes and 14. In establishing proton gradient for chemiosmotic
cyanobacteria absorb radiant energy in ATP generation by aerobic respiration the terminal
the____________portion(s) of the visible spectrum. electron acceptor is
A. red A. nitrate
B. green B. oxygen
C. red and blue C. sulfate
D. green and ultraviolet D. CO2
Answer: Option C Answer: Option B
15. If ΔG of a chemical reaction is positive in value 23. Hexose monophosphate pathway is also known as
and keq is less than 1 then the chemical reaction will A. phosphogluconate pathway
A. proceed in reverse direction B. oxaloacetate pathway
B. proceeed in forward direction C. malate pathway
C. not take place in any of the direction D. fumerate pathway
D. none of these Answer: Option A
Answer: Option A
24. If radioactive bicarbonate was supplied to bacterial
16. The reaction, where small precursor molecules are cells, which were actively synthesizing fatty acids, it is
assembled into larger organic molecules is referred as expected to find the bulk of the radioactivity in
A. anabolism A. cellular bicarbonate
B. catabolism B. the fatty acids
C. metabolism C. the cytoplasmic membrane
D. any of these D. nucleic acids
Answer: Option A Answer: Option A

17. Which of the following nucleoside diphosphates is 25. Standard free energy change (ΔG) can be
used most often in carbohydrate anabolism? expressed as
A. Uridine diphosphate A. ΔG° = -RTlnkeq
B. Adenosine diphosphate B. ΔG° = RTlnkeq
C. Guanine diphosphate C. ΔG° = R/Tlnkeq
D. Thymine diphosphate D. ΔG° = -RT/lnkeq
Answer: Option A Answer: Option A

18. DAHP synthetase catalyzes the condensation of 26. The glyoxylate cycle is used by some
A. erythrose-4-phosphate microorganisms when___________ is the sole carbon
B. phosphoenol pyruvate source.
C. both (a) and (b) A. acetate
D. phenylalanine B. nitrate
Answer: Option C C. carbon dioxide
D. all of these
19. Phosphate is considered to restrict the induction of Answer: Option A
A. primary metabolites
B. secondary metabolites 27. Incorporation of atmospheric N2to NH4+ occurs
C. both (a) and (b) via the process of
D. none of these A. assimilatory nitrate reduction
Answer: Option B B. transamination
C. deamination
20. Free energy change (ΔG) of a reaction is referred D. nitrogen fixation
as the amount of energy Answer: Option D
A. liberated during reaction
B. taken up during reaction 28. The role of bacteriophyll in an oxygenic
C. liberated or taken up during reaction photosynthesis is to
D. none of these A. reduce ferridoxin directly
Answer: Option C B. reduce NADP directly
C. use light energy to energize an electron
21. Which of the following does not produce oxygen as D. transfer electrons to an intermediate in the sulfide
a product of photosynthesis? oxidation pathway
A. Oak trees Answer: Option C
B. Purple sulfur bacteria
C. Cyanobacteria 29. TCA cycle functions in
D. Phytoplankton A. catabolic reactions
Answer: Option B B. anabolic reactions
C. amphibolic reactions
22. When acetate is the sole source of carbon for some D. none of these
microorganisms, the cycle which is used, is called Answer: Option C
A. pentose phosphate pathway
B. glycolyic pathway 30. Entner-Doudoroff pathway is found in
C. glyoxylate pathway A. aerobic prokaryotes
D. oxaloacetate pathway B. anaerobic prokaryotes
Answer: Option C C. both (a) and (b)
D. aerobic eukaryotes
Answer: Option C
31. Anoxygenic photosynthetic bacteria oxidize 39. During the reduction phase of the Calvin cycle,
A. water phosphoglyceric acid is reduced
B. oxgyen to______utilizing________as the reduction source.
C. sulfide A. phosphoglyceraldehyde; NADPH+H+
D. ammonia B. phosphoglyceraldehyde; NADH+H+
Answer: Option C C. ribulose 1,5 - bisphosphate; NADH+H+
D. pyruvic acid; NADPH+H+
32. Which of the following(s) is/are the products of the Answer: Option A
light reactions of photosynthesis?
A. ATP only 40. In order to get inorganic phosphorous into organic
B. NADPH only compounds, the phosphate ion is incorporated via
C. ATP and O2 only A. substrate level phosphorylation
D. ATP, NADPH, and O2 B. oxidative phosphorylation
Answer: Option D C. both (a) and (b)
D. DNA
33. Which of the following catalyze liberation of Answer: Option C
orthophosphate from organic P compounds and
inorganic pyrophosphate ? 41. The phosphate inhibition in the clavine formation
A. Alkaline phosphates with Claviceps SD58, can be counteracted by the
B. Oxidoreductase addition of
C. Protease A. alanine
D. Hydrogenase B. methionine
Answer: Option A C. tryptophan
D. lysine
34. For each glucose molecule broken down, there Answer: Option C
are______________number of reduced coenzymes to
be oxidized. 42. The major route for incorporation of ammonia
A. 12 (NH4+) into organic compounds is via
B. 8 A. reduction of pyruvate or alpha-ketoglutarate by
C. 6 enzymes
D. 4 B. atmospheric nitrogen fixation
Answer: Option A C. oxidation of pyruvate
D. all of these
35. As the electron flow through the chains, much of Answer: Option A
their free energy is conserved in the form of ATP. This
process is called 43. The specific enzyme/(s) of the glyoxylate cycle
A. oxidative phosphorylation is/are
B. electromotive potential A. isocitrate lyase
C. dehydrogenations B. malate synthase
D. none of these C. both (a) and (b)
Answer: Option A D. anaplerotic
Answer: Option C
36. Digestive reactions where large molecules are
broken down into smaller ones are referred as 44. If ΔG of a chemical reaction has a negative value,
A. anabolism the reaction
B. catabolism A. releases energy
C. metabolism B. requires energy
D. biosynthesis C. both (a) and (b)
Answer: Option B D. none of these
Answer: Option A
37. Phosphate regulation has been observed in the
production of 45. The catabolic reaction, pentose-phosphate exists in
A. alkaloids A. prokaryotic cells
B. antibiotics B. eukaryotic cells
C. gibberelins C. prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells both
D. all of these D. none of these
Answer: Option D Answer: Option C

38. Most of the energy in aerobic respiration of glucose 46. Entner - Doudoroff pathway is not found in
is captured by A. aerobic prokaryotes
A. substrate-level phosphorylation B. anaerobic prokaryotes
B. electron transport of electrons from NADH C. Both (a) and (b)
C. long-chain fatty acid oxidation D. eukaryotes
D. the enzyme formic-hydrogen lyase Answer: Option D
Answer: Option B
47. Aerobic catabolism of glucose yields how much 54. Nitrogen fixation is a process that requires
energy (ATP synthesized) relative to glucose A. energy
fermentation? B. an anaerobic environment
A. Slightly less C. both (a) and (b)
B. About the same D. an aerobic environment
C. Twice as much Answer: Option C
D. More than 10 times as much
Answer: Option D 55. Bacteriochlorophyll differs from chlorophyll in what
way?
48. The bacteriochlorophylls used by the anoxygenic A. The chelated metal in bacteriochlorophyll is not Mg
bacteria have absorbance maxima located in B. There are chemical differences between the two
the_____portion(s) of the spectrum. chlorophyll in their side (R) groups
A. green C. They have different absorption spectra
B. blue D. Both (b) and (c)
C. ultraviolet Answer: Option D
D. infrared
Answer: Option D 56. Radioisotopes are frequently used in the study of
cells. Assume a culture of E. coli is grown in a culture
49. The relationship between an oxidation-reduction medium containing radioactive sulphur. At the end of
potential difference and the standard free energy 48 hours, it is expected to find the radioactive label
change is (where n is the number of moles of electron located in
transferred, F= Faraday's constant and E°= standard A. DNA
oxidation-reduction potential difference) B. enzymes
A. ΔG° = -nFE° C. RNA
B. ΔG° = nFE° D. all of these
C. ΔG° = -nFlnE° Answer: Option B
D. ΔG° = nFlnE°
Answer: Option A

50. ATPase
A. synthesizes ATP, coupled to transfer of extracellular
protons into the cell
B. extrudes protons from the cell coupled to the
hydrolysis of ATP to ADP
C. is the enzyme that incorporates ATP into messenger
RNA
D. carries out each of the reactions indicated in (a) and
(b)
Answer: Option D

51. Which of the following is responsible for phosphate


solubilization?
A. Streptococcus
B. Streptomyces
C. Bacillus
D. Clostridium
Answer: Option C

52. Phosphate deregulated mutants are


A. less sensitive to phosphate regulation
B. moderately sensitive to phosphate regulation
C. highly sensitive to phosphate regulation
D. none of these
Answer: Option A

53. The mechanism of passive or facilitated diffusion


require
A. metabolic energy
B. concentration of solute against an electrochemical
gradient
C. accumulation of solute against an electrochemical
gradient
D. accumulation or concentration of solute against an
electrochemical gradient
Answer: Option A
MICROBIAL GENETICS 8. Which of the following is used for determining the
1. In the time since E. coli and Salmonella diverged location of specific genes within the genome?
evolutionarily A. Genomics
A. there has been little change in either genome B. Annotation
B. E. coli has acquired many genes via horizontal C. Cloning
transfer D. Proteomics
C. E, coli has lost approximately 50% of its genome Answer: Option B
D. none of these
Answer: Option C 9. Proteomics is
A. the study of algal genomes
2. Which of the following theory is supported by the B. a branch of quantum physics dealing with proteins
genomic sequence of the obligate intracellular parasite C. the study of formation of lipo-protein in animals
Rickettsia prowazekii ? D. the study of the entire collection of proteins
A. Parasitic bacteria have very large genomes expressed by an organism
B. Parasites have a definite genomic sequence similar Answer: Option D
to viruses
C. Mitochondria have evolved from endosymbiotic 10. Which of the following is concerned with the
bacteria management and analysis of biological data using
D. All bacteria evolved from viruses computers?
Answer: Option C A. Bio-physics
B. Bioinformatics
3. The physical nature of genomes is studied under C. Genomics
A. structural genomics D. Biomechanics
B. comparative genomics Answer: Option B
C. proteo genomics
D. functional genomics 11. Which type of genomics studies the transcripts and
Answer: Option A proteins expressed by a genome?
A. Comparative genomics
4. The species of bacteria, which possesses 250 genes B. Structural genomics
for lipid biosynthesis is C. Proteo genomics
A. M. genitalium D. Functional genomics
B. M. tuberculosis Answer: Option D
C. E. coli
D. H. influenzae 12. Which of the following is the study of the molecular
Answer: Option B organization of genomes, their information content and
the gene products they encode?
5. Why the bacterium Treponema pallidum is difficult A. Genetics
to culture? B. Ergonomics
A. Because it requires a great deal of water to C. Genomics
reproduce D. Bioinformatics
B. Because it is unable to use carbohydrates as an Answer: Option C
energy source
C. Because it lacks the genes needed for TCA cycle and 13. The word, used for the small solid supports onto
oxidative phosphorylation which are spotted hundreds of thousands of tiny drops
D. Because it requires extremely low temperature at of DNA that can be used to screen gene expression, is
which water freezes A. southern blot
Answer: Option C B. cloning library
C. DNA microarrays
6. What is the range of minimum set of genes required D. northern blot
for life? Answer: Option C
A. 50-100 genes
B. 250-350 genes 14. Which of the following organisms has the smallest
C. 1000-1500 genes genome?
D. 1500-2000 genes A. H. influenzae
Answer: Option B B. M. genitalium
C. M. tuberculosis
7. The flow of genetic material in microbial cells usually D. None of these
takes place from Answer: Option B
A. RNA through DNA to proteins
B. proteins through RNA to DNA
C. DNA through RNA to proteins
D. none of these
Answer: Option C
15. Studies of similarities and differences among the
genomes of multiple organisms is carried out in
A. comparative genomics
B. proteomics
C. functional genomics
D. structural genomics
Answer: Option A

16. Why Deinococcus radiodurans is able to survive


massive exposure to radiation?
A. Because it produces a thick shell which acts as a
shield from the radiation
B. Because it has unique DNA repair mechanisms
C. Because its cellwall contains radioactive elements
D. Because it has many copies of genes encoding DNA
repair
Answer: Option D
DNA REPLICATION 8. In E.coli, which enzyme synthesizes the RNA primer
1. Both strands of DNA serve as templates for Okazaki fragments?
concurrently in A. DnaA
A. replication B. DnaC
B. excision repair C. DnaG
C. mismatch repair D. all of these
D. none of these Answer: Option C
Answer: Option A
9. During which of the following process a new copy of
2. Proofreading activity to maintain the fidelity of DNA a DNA molecule is precisely synthesized?
synthesis A. Trasformation
A. occurs after the synthesis has been completed B. Transcription
B. is a function of the 3'-5' exonuclease activity of the C. Translation
DNA polymerases D. Replication
C. requires the presence of an enzyme separate from Answer: Option D
the DNA polymerases
D. occurs in prokaryotes but not eukaryotes 10. DNA gyrase is inhibited by
Answer: Option B A. tetracycline
B. nalidixic acid
3. Which of the following repairs nicked DNA by C. both (a) and (b)
forming a phosphodiester bond between adjacent D. cephalosporin
nucleotides? Answer: Option B
A. Helicase
B. DNA gyrase 11. Which of the following enzymes unwind short
C. Topoisomerases stretches of DNA helix immediately ahead of a
D. DNA ligase replication fork?
Answer: Option D A. DNA polymerases
B. Helicases
4. The enzyme that catalyzes the synthesis of DNA is C. Single-stranded binding proteins
called D. Topoisomerases
A. DNA polymerase Answer: Option B
B. DNA gyrase
C. DNA ligase 12. During DNA replication in prokaryotes, synthesis
D. helicase begins on the circular chromosome
Answer: Option A A. always at the same place
B. at any stretch of DNA that is high in AT pairs
5. Which of the following possesses both 5'-3' and 3'-5' C. randomly on the chromosome
exonuclease activity? D. at the promoter
A. Kornberg enzyme Answer: Option A
B. DNA polymerase III
C. Taq DNA polymerase 13. DNA replication rates in prokaryotes are
D. None of these approximately of the order of
Answer: Option A A. 10 bases per second
B. 1,00 bases per second
6. Which of the following statements on replication in C. 1,000 bases per second
E.coli is correct? D. 10,000 bases per second
A. It occurs in a unidirectional manner Answer: Option C
B. It occurs in bidirectional manner
C. Always uses T7 DNA polymerase when infected by 14. Which of the following lacks 3'-5' exonuclease
T7 phage activity?
D. Occurs only when λ phase has infected E. coli A. Short fragment of DNA polymerase I
Answer: Option B B. Taq DNA polymerase
C. T4 DNA ligase
7. The replication of chromosomes by eukaryotes D. All of the above
occurs in a relatively short period of time because Answer: Option D
A. the eukaryotes have more amount of DNA for
replication 15. The synthesis of DNA by DNA polymerase occurs in
B. the eukaryotic replication machinery is 1000 times the
faster than the prokaryotes A. 3' to 5' direction
C. each chromosome contains multiple replicons B. 5' to 5' direction
D. eukaryotic DNA is always single stranded C. 5' to 3' direction
Answer: Option C D. 3' to 3' direction
Answer: Option C
TRANSLATION AND REGULATION 9. The final step of gene expression is protein
1. Which binding is inhibited by pactamycin? synthesis, which is also known as
A. Aminoacyl-tRNA to the A-site of 30S subunit A. replication
B. Initiator-tRNA to 30S/40S initiation complexes B. translation
C. Peptidyl t-RNA to the 50S subunit C. transcription
D. Formation of peptide bond in P site D. none of these
Answer: Option B Answer: Option B

2. Which of the following act as the blueprint or 10. What is the maximum number of different amino
template for the process of protein synthesis that acids in a polypeptide chain coded by the synthetic
takes place on ribosomes? polyribonucleotides (UCAG)5?
A. rRNA A. One
B. DNA B. Two
C. tRNA C. Three
D. mRNA D. Four
Answer: Option D Answer: Option C

3. Negative regulation of protein synthesis is 11. What is the direct cause of cell death by diphtheria
accomplished by toxin?
A. allosteric inhibition A. Formation of an ion channel in the cell membrane
B. the binding of RNA polymerase to the promoter B. Inactivation of a translational elongation factor
C. the binding of a repressor to the DNA C. Induction of apoptosis
D. the binding of a repressor to the RNA polymerase D. None of the above
Answer: Option C Answer: Option B

4. Site in the ribosome from which the tRNA donates 12. The development of global regulatory systems in
amino acids to the growing polypeptide chain is prokaryotes
A. P site A. determines the exact location of the cell on the
B. O site globe
C. T site B. aids in DNA replication
D. A site C. determines the exact location of the replication site
Answer: Option A D. regulates many genes under varying environmental
conditions
5. When was the genetic code completed? Answer: Option D
A. 1958
B. 1952 13. The interaction between the mRNA and tRNA
C. 1966 determined the position of amino acid in a polypeptide
D. 1968 sequence. This is called the
Answer: Option C A. stagerivity
B. Wobble hypothesis
6. Which stop codon has been found to encode C. promiscuity
selenocysteine? D. adaptor hypothesis
A. UAA Answer: Option D
B. UAG
C. UGA 14. What are the Svedberg values for the subunits of
D. AGA the 70S ribosomes of E. colli?
Answer: Option C A. 40S and 30S
B. 50S and 20S
7. Which of the following is a nontranslated sequence C. 50S and 30S
located between the transcription and the translation D. 40S and 20S
start site? Answer: Option C
A. Ending frame
B. Leader sequence 15. Which of the following three codons translate as
C. Trailer sequence serine (Ser)?
D. Reading frame A. AGU
Answer: Option B B. CGA
C. CAU
8. Which phage always carries a small piece of E.coli D. AUG
genome? Answer: Option A
A. Lambda
B. Mu
C. T4
D. T3
Answer: Option B
16. The role of molecular chaperones is to 23. During amino acid activation a(n)
A. facilitate binding of ribosomes to mRNA A. amino acid is bound to tRNA
B. degrade newly synthesized polypeptides that B. amino acid is bound to mRNA
contain inaccurate sequences C. methyl group is attached to rRNA
C. facilitate binding of RNA polymerase to DNA D. methyl group is attached to an amino acid
D. aid a newly synthesized polypeptide in folding to its Answer: Option A
proper shape
Answer: Option D 24. The nonsense codon(s) is/are
A. UAG
17. What is the action of tetracycline in prokaryotes? B. UAA
A. It blocks translocation reaction on ribosomes C. UGA
B. It blocks peptidyl transferase reaction on ribosomes D. all of these
C. It blocks the binding of amino-acyl tRNA to the A Answer: Option D
site of ribosomes
D. Not known with certainity 25. Which of the following defines an open reading
Answer: Option C frame (ORF)?
A. A sequence of genome in bacteriophage
18. A quorum sensing system B. The sequence of a complete genome
A. detects a signal from the external environment C. A plasmid vector used in genome sequencing
B. senses a compound produced by the bacterium D. A possible gene predicted by DNA sequencing
itself Answer: Option D
C. consists of a sensor component that phosphorylates
a regulatory protein 26. Three stop codons, which aids in termination of
D. controls the activity of ribosomes directly translation are also known as
Answer: Option B A. pause codons
B. nonsense codons
19. The Shine-Dalgarno sequence is C. missense codons
A. trailer sequence D. antisense codons
B. a stop codon Answer: Option B
C. the reading frame of a gene
D. a short sequence that acts as a ribosomal binding 27. The ribosome binding site
site A. forms a stem-loop structure in the RNA
Answer: Option D B. is located upstream of the promoter sequence
C. is located immediately upstream of the start codon
20. Which of the following statement is correct? D. is more likely to be associated with an operon than
A. The size and sequence of introns can be deduced with a gene encoding a single protein
from the cDNA sequence Answer: Option C
B. Restriction endonuclease can cleave ss and dsDNA
both 28. Which of the following molecule catalyzes the
C. Restriction fragment length polymorphism (RFLP) is transpeptidation reaction?
usually formed in coding sequence of a gene A. RNA polymerase
D. Amino acid sequence of a protein can be deduced B. Peptidyl transferase
from corresponding cDNA nucleotide C. DNA ligase
Answer: Option D D. DNA polymerase
Answer: Option B
21. What was the first bacterial genome to be
sequenced and made public? 29. Which of the termination codon is called amber?
A. Bacillus subtilis A. UAA
B. Escherichia coli B. UAG
C. Haemophilus influenzae C. UGA
D. No bacterial genome has been sequenced yet D. AUG
Answer: Option C Answer: Option B

22. Which of the following modified amino acid is used


at the starting of most prokaryotic proteins?
A. N-formylserine
B. N-formylmethionine
C. N-formylleucine
D. N-formylalanine
Answer: Option B
MICROBIAL RECOMBINATION AND GENE 8. In lysogeny,
TRANSFER A. a bacteriophage transfers bacterial DNA
1. The plasmid-mediated properties is/are B. bacteria take up double stranded DNA from the
A. fermentation of lactose environment
B. production of enterotoxin C. DNA-degrading enzymes in the extracellular
C. resistance to antibiotics medium would stop the process
D. all of these D. a bacteriophage genome is integrated into the
Answer: Option D bacterial genome
Answer: Option D
2. In the extracellular medium, DNA-degrading
enzymes would likely be to prevent transfer of DNA by 9. A microarray differs from a gene fusion in that, it
A. conjugal transfer by a self-transmissible plasmid A. carries DNA segments from many different genes
B. generalized phage transduction B. is not constructed by cloning
C. natural transformation C. gives direct measurement of mRNA level
D. none of the above D. all of the above
Answer: Option C Answer: Option D

3. What is the term used for a segment of DNA with 10. Who discovered transposons (jumping genes)?
one or more genes in the centre and the two ends A. Abelson
carrying inverted repeat sequences of nucleotides? B. Harvey
A. Plasmid C. McClintock
B. Transposon D. Griffith
C. Insertion sequence Answer: Option C
D. None of these
Answer: Option B 11. Which type of plasmid can exist with or without
being integrated into the host's chromosome?
4. The plasmids can be eliminated from a cell by the A. Medisome
process known as B. Lisosome
A. curing C. Lysogen
B. breaking D. Episome
C. fixing Answer: Option D
D. expulsion
Answer: Option A 12. The main difference between a self-transmissible
and a mobilizable plasmid is that the self-transmissible
5. Recombination of virus genomes occurs plasmid
A. by transduction A. transfers both strands of the plasmid DNA
B. by transription B. carries genes encoding the mating apparatus
C. simultaneous infection of a host cell by two viruses C. transfers antibiotic resistance genes
with homologous chromosomes D. usually has a transposon inserted into it
D. by transformation Answer: Option B
Answer: Option C

6. The type of recombination that commonly occurs 13. Which of the following is the cause for drug
between a pair of homologous DNA sequences is, resistance in tuberculosis?
A. mutagenic recombination A. Mutation
B. site-specific recombination B. Transduction
C. replicative recombination C. Transformation
D. general recombination D. Conjugation
Answer: Option D Answer: Option A

7. Which of the following statement describes 14. The transposase gene encodes an enzyme that
plasmids? facilitate
A. Another name for a protoplast A. viral replication within a genome
B. A complex membrane structure that covers the B. general recombination
chromosome of bacteria C. site-specific integration of transposable elements
C. Small, circular DNA molecules that can exist D. none of the above
independently of chromosomes commonly found in Answer: Option C
bacteria
D. None of the above 15. The term used for plasmids possessing both RTF
Answer: Option C and r determinants is
A. non self-transmissible plasmids
B. non conjugative plasmids
C. conjugative plasmids
D. none of the above
Answer: Option C
16. Diagnostic DNA probes have been developed for 23. The term used for acquisition of naked DNA from
A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis its environment and its incorporation in their genome
B. Hepatitis B virus by a bacterium is
C. Human immunodeficiency virus A. transformation
D. all of the above B. lysogenic conversion
Answer: Option D C. conjugation
D. transduction
17. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true in Answer: Option A
regards to F+ x F- mating events?
A. DNA is transferred from F- to F+ cells 24. What is term used for a bacterial cell that is able to
B. DNA is transferred from F+ to F- cells take up naked DNA?
C. No DNA is transferred because F- cells are unable to A. Complementary
perform conjugation B. Liable
D. No DNA is transferred because F+ cells are unable C. Competent
to perform conjugation D. Infected
Answer: Option B Answer: Option C

18. Which of the following type of recombination does 25. Penicillin resistance in staphylococci is acquired
not require homologous sequences and is important for due to
the integration of viral genomes into bacterial A. conjugation
chromosomes? B. mutation
A. Mutagenic recombimation C. transformation
B. Site-specific recombination D. transduction
C. Replicative recombination Answer: Option D
D. General recombination
Answer: Option B 26. The plasmid which makes the host more
pathogenic is
19. What information can be generated by interrupted A. F factors
mating experiments? B. Metabolic plasmid
A. Levels of DNA homology C. Virulence plasmid
B. Bacterial genome maps D. None of these
C. DNA nucleotide sequences Answer: Option C
D. Proteomics of the bacteria
Answer: Option B 27. The expression of gene X (which has promoter Px)
is to be monitored. A gene fusion construction for
20. Which of the following transport bacterial DNA to carrying this work will
other bacteria via bacteriophages? A. have Px but not the rest of the X coding region
A. Conjugation B. have the promoter of lacZ or some other reporter
B. Transduction gene
C. Transformation C. allow to monitor the expression of all genes with a
D. Translation promoter similar in sequence to Px
Answer: Option B D. give the same information as from a microarray
Answer: Option A
21. When composite transposons are formed
A. a small deletion occurs in the transposase gene of 28. The transducing particles carry only specific
an IS element portions of the bacterial genome in which of the
B. a small deletion occurs in the transposase gene of following transduction?
an IS element and plasmid is integrated A. Specialized transduction
C. an IS element integrates with another IS element B. General transduction
with the help of a plasmid C. Abortive transduction
D. two IS elements integrate into a chromosome with D. None of these
only a small distance separating them Answer: Option A
Answer: Option D
29. The correct term for the transfer of genetic
22. Which of the following plamids do not possess material between bacteria in direct physical contact is
information for self transfer to another cell? A. conjugation
A. Cryptic plasmids B. transformation
B. Conjugative plasmids C. replication
C. Non-conjugative plasmids D. transduction
D. None of these Answer: Option A
Answer: Option C
30. Plasmid that carries genes encoding enzymes, 37. Which of the following genetic elements carry the
which degrade substances such as aromatic genes required for integration into host chromosomes?
compounds, pesticides or sugar are A. Replicon
A. F factors B. Plasmids
B. metabolic plasmid C. Transposons
C. virulence plasmid D. Tandons
D. none of these Answer: Option C
Answer: Option B
38. The chromosomal genes, possessing fertility factor
31. R factors involved in plant-microbe interactions are is known as
A. plant proteins A. R factor
B. bacterial proteins B. F prime factor
C. essential for transfer of DNA to plant cells C. HFr
D. also called opines D. F factor
Answer: Option A Answer: Option B

32. Which of the following is used by microbial 39. Which of the following statement can describe
genetisists as a tool? horizontal transfer?
A. Bacteriophage A. The synthesis of protein in RNA
B. Plasmids B. The transmission of genetic information from one
C. Transposable elements independent, mature organism to another
D. All of these C. The transmission of genetic information from parent
Answer: Option D to offspring
D. The synthesis of RNA from a DNA template
33. Which of the following type of recombination does Answer: Option B
not require homologous sequences and is utilized by
mobile genetic elements that move about
chromosomes?
A. Mutagenic recombimation
B. Site-specific recombination
C. Replicative recombination
D. General recombination
Answer: Option C

34. Which of the following term describes the


relationship between a virus and host where no new
viral particles are produced and the viral genome is
replicated along with host chromosome?
A. Lysogeny
B. Lysis
C. Transformation
D. Conjugation
Answer: Option A

35. Inverted repeat sequences at each end and a gene


encoding transposase is contained in which of the
following transposable element?
A. Composite transposon
B. Insertion element
C. Virus
D. Plasmid
Answer: Option B

36. F factor plasmids play a major role in


A. conjugation
B. replication
C. transduction
D. trasnscription
Answer: Option A
IMMUNE SYSTEM 8. Major Histo Compatibility Complex (MHC) is a
1. Large parasites such as helminthes may be killed collection of genes arrayed on
extracellularly by the action of A. chromosome 21 in man, chromosome 6 in mice
A. basophils B. chromosome 6 in man, chromosone 21 in mice
B. monocytes C. chromosome 17in man, chromosome 6 in mice
C. eosinophils D. chromosome 6 in man, chromosome 17 in mice
D. neutrophils Answer: Option D
Answer: Option C
9. CD8 surface antigen is present in
2. Which of the following is correct for CD8 T cells? A. cytotoxic T cells
A. CD8 T cells only recognize virus-infected cells B. suppresssor T cells
B. CD8 T cell receptor recognizes epitopes that are also C. both (a) and (b)
commonly recognized by B cells D. none of these
C. In the thymus, CD8 T cells undergo positive Answer: Option C
selection only, whereas CD4 T cells undergo negative
selection only 10. Treatment with bacterial endotoxins results blast
D. CD8 T cells can kill individual virus-infected cells in formation in
a contact dependent fashion A. B cells
Answer: Option D B. T cells
C. monocytes
3. Passive immunization is done for D. none of these
A. tuberculosis Answer: Option A
B. diphtheria
C. enteric fever 11. Cytotoxic T-cells can be recognized by which of the
D. all of these following cell surface marker?
Answer: Option B A. CD4
B. CD7
4. Which of the following is correct for isoantigens? C. CD8
A. They are antigens found in all members of different D. CD9
species Answer: Option C
B. They are antigens found in some members of a
species 12. Which is not an antigen-presenting cell (or APC)?
C. They are antigens found in all members of a species A. B cell
D. They are antigens found in some members of B. Polymorphonuclear leukocyte (or PMN)
different species C. Dendritic cell
Answer: Option B D. All of the above
Answer: Option B
5. Numerous antibodies can be prepared, against one
antigen, each binds to unique epitopes. How is this 13. Chemically an antigen may be
antibody diversity generated? A. lipid
A. By rearrangements of the DNA encoding the B. protein
variable regions of the heavy and light chains C. polysaccharide
B. By the combination of different heavy and light D. any of these
chains that form the antigen binding site Answer: Option D
C. Antibody proteins can physically change their shape
to bind different epitopes 14. T cell receptors (or TCR) on CD4+ T cells
D. Both (a) and (b) A. recognize peptides not associated with MHC
Answer: Option D molecules
B. recognize peptides associated with MHC class I
6. Which of the following expresses CD3 surface molecules
antigen? C. recognize peptides associated with MHC class II
A. Granulocytes molecules
B. T cells D. are secreted out into the environment to bind
C. Monocytes antigens
D. B cells Answer: Option C
Answer: Option B
15. Which of the following proteins would not need
7. Polymorphonuclear leukocytes (or PMNs) localization signal?
A. can be attracted to the site of an infection following A. A nuclear protein
activation of complement B. A cytosolic protein
B. are derived from bone marrow stem cells C. A protein bound to the endoplasmic reticulum (ER)
C. are a type of phagocyte that can engulf and kill membrane
bacteria D. A cell surface protein
D. all of the above Answer: Option B
Answer: Option D
16. Following are the defenses of the colon except 24. Which of the following statements is false
A. sIgA regarding B cells?
B. fast flow rate A. B cells can undergo class switching and produce a
C. dense resident microbiota different antibody type
D. mucus B. B one marrow stem cells migrate to the thymus and
Answer: Option B develop into B cells
C. B cells synthesize antibodies and put them on their
17. Natural killer cells are involved in cell surface
A. tumour rejection D. B cells that recognize high concentrations of
B. allograft rejection antigens (self) in the absence of other signals undergo
C. non-specific killing of virus transformed target cells apoptosis in the bone marrow
D. all of these Answer: Option B
Answer: Option D

18. Which of the following(s) is/are the determinants


of antigenicity?
A. Chemical nature
B. Size of the antigen
C. Foreignness
D. All of these
Answer: Option D

19. Which of the following is correct?


A. All T Cells are CD4+
B. An epitope can have multiple antigens
C. T Cell receptors are generated by random
assortment of gene cassettes
D. MHC Class II molecules are generated by random
assortment of gene cassettes
Answer: Option C

20. Immunity is not long lasting to


A. influenza
B. whooping cough
C. diphtheria
D. mumps
Answer: Option A

21. Lysozyme is present in


A. sweat
B. Cerebro spinal fluid (CSF)
C. urine
D. saliva
Answer: Option D

22. Macrophages are professional antigen- presenting


cells. The protein molecule through which they present
antigen in human is
A. actin
B. interleukin
C. HLA
D. CD8
Answer: Option D

23. The role of the M cell is to


A. trap virus in mucus and prevent entry
B. induce apoptosis in virus-infected small intestinal
epithelia cells
C. pass bacteria or virus to underlying macrophages
for processing and presentation of antigen
D. they use their cilia to propel mucus out of the small
intestine
Answer: Option C
ANTIGEN ANTIBODY REACTION 9. Monoclonal antibody production requires
1. VDRL test is an example of A. mouse splenic lymphocytes
A. Tube test B. mouse myeloma cells
B. Ring test C. both (a) and (b)
C. Slide test D. none of these
D. none of these Answer: Option C
Answer: Option C
10. Quellung reaction is used for typing of
2. Weil-Felix reaction is based on sharing of antigens A. Klebsiella pneumoniae
between B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
A. sheep RBCs and EB virus C. Both (a) and (b)
B. mycoplasma and human O group RBCs D. None of these
C. rickettsial antigens and antigens of certain strains of Answer: Option C
Proteus
D. none of these 11. Fluorescent treponemal antibody test is an
Answer: Option C example of
A. indirect immunofluorescence
3. Agglutination reaction is more sensitive than B. direct immunofluorescence
precipitation for the detection of C. both (a) and (b)
A. antigens D. none of these
B. antibodies Answer: Option A
C. complement
D. antigen-antibody complexes 12. Counter-immunoelectrophoresis is used for the
Answer: Option A detection of
A. Meningococcal antigen
4. Precipitation reaction is relatively less sensitive for B. Hepatitis B surface antigen
the detection of C. Alpha-fetoprotein
A. antigens D. All of these
B. antigen-antibody complexes Answer: Option D
C. antibodies
D. complement 13. The test (s) based on the principle of toxin
Answer: Option C neutralization is/are
A. Nagler's reaction
5. In which of the following case a large lattice is B. Schick test
formed? C. both (a) and (b)
A. Antibody is in excess D. none of these
B. Antigens and antibodies are in optimal proportion Answer: Option C
C. Antigen is in excess
D. None of these 14. Slide agglutination reaction is/are useful for the
Answer: Option B identification of the culture(s) of
A. Shigella
6. Ring test is used for B. Vibrio cholerae
A. C-reactive protein test C. Salmonella
B. Ascoli's thermoprecipitation test D. All of these
C. typing of streptococci and pneumococci Answer: Option D
D. all of the above
Answer: Option D 15. Amount of various immunoglobulin classes can be
measured by
7. Precipitation reaction can be converted into A. double diffusion in one dimension
agglutination reaction by coating soluble antigen onto B. single diffusion in two dimensions
A. bentonite particles C. single diffusion in one dimension
B. RBCs D. double diffusion in two dimensions
C. latex particles Answer: Option B
D. all of these
Answer: Option D

8. Commercially available ELISA kits are used for the


detection of
A. rotavirus
B. hepatitis B surface antigen
C. anti-HIV antibodies
D. all of these
Answer: Option D
BACTERIA A. Salmonella
1. Which of the following is/are not a gram-positive B. Pseudomonas
bacteria? C. Clostridia
A. Streptococci D. None of these
B. Pseudomonas Answer: Option A
C. Mycobacteria
D. None of these 10. Coliform bacteria on fermentation of carbohydrates
Answer: Option B yields
A. lactic acid
2. Gram-positive bacteria, responsible for food B. acetic acid
poisoning, is/are C. formic acid
A. Mycoplasmas D. all of these
B. Pseudomonas Answer: Option D
C. Clostridia
D. all of these 11. Gram-negative bacterium is/are
Answer: Option C A. Escherichia
B. Clostridia
3. The gram-positive bacteria lack __________ C. Staphylococci
structure/component? D. All of these
A. outer membrane Answer: Option A
B. murein
C. teichoic acid 12. Thermus thermopiles is a
D. plasma membrane A. gram negative eubacteria
Answer: Option A B. gram positive eubacteria
C. gram negative archebacteria
4. Which of the following gram-positive bacteria causes D. gram positive archebacteria
pharyngitis (sore throat)? Answer: Option A
A. Neisseria
B. Streptococcus 13. Which of the following is a gram-positive bacteria?
C. Staphylococcus A. Lactobacillus
D. Mycobacterium B. Staphylococci
Answer: Option B C. Streptococci
D. All of these
5. Which of the following gram-negative bacteria is/are Answer: Option D
not aerobic?
A. Pseudomonas
B. Neisseria
C. Escherichia
D. None of these
Answer: Option C

6. The enzyme, which hydrolyses the murein is


A. perxoidase
B. tannase
C. lysozyme
D. none of these
Answer: Option C

7. Bacterial spoilage is identified by which of the


following morphological characteristics?
A. Encapsulation
B. Endospores
C. Cell aggregation
D. All of these
Answer: Option D

8. Bacteria are
A. saprophytic
B. symbiotic
C. hyper parasitic
D. all of these
Answer: Option A

9. Gram-negative bacteria, responsible for food


poisoning, is/are
STREPTOCOCCUS 9. Which of the following test(s) may establish
1. The bacteria involved in the production of dental retrospective diagnosis of streptococcal infection?
caries is/are A. Anti-DNase B test
A. Streptococcus mutans B. ASO test
B. S sanguis C. Streptozyme test
C. Both (a) and (b) D. All of these
D. Streptococcus pyogenes Answer: Option D
Answer: Option C
10. The bacterial sore throat is caused by
2. Which of the following test indicates the A. Staphylococcus aureus
susceptibility to streptococcal pyrogenic exotoxin? B. Haemophilus spp
A. Schick test C. Streptococcus pyogenes
B. Disk test D. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
C. ASO test Answer: Option C
D. Precipitation test
Answer: Option B 11. Crystal violet blood agar is a selective medium for
A. β-haemolytic streptococci
3. Which of the following condition is non-suppurative B. Staphylococcus aureus
sequelae of Streptococcus pyogenes infections? C. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
A. Acute rheumatic fever D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B. Acute glomerulonephritis Answer: Option A
C. Erythema nodosum
D. All of these
Answer: Option D

4. Which of the following cross-reacts with cell wall


carbohydrate of Streptococcus pyogenes?
A. Cardiac valves
B. Synovial fluid
C. Myocardium
D. Vascular intima
Answer: Option A

5. Streptococcus pyogenes can be differentiated from


other haemolytic Streptococci on the basis of
A. Bacitracin sensitivity
B. Erythromycin sensitivity
C. Aminoglycosides sensitivity
D. Penicillin sensitivity
Answer: Option A

6. Streptolysin O is
A. antigenic
B. oxygen-labile
C. heat-labile
D. all of these
Answer: Option D

7. Cell wall protein of Streptococcus pyogenes


crossreacts with human
A. synovial fluid
B. cardiac valves
C. myocardium
D. vascular intima
Answer: Option C

8. Individuals suffering from primary atypical


pneumonia have agglutinins to
A. Streptococcus MG
B. S avium
C. S mutans
D. Enterococcus faecalis
Answer: Option A
CLOSTRIDIUM 9. Food poisoning strains of Clostridium perfringens
1. Which of the following types of Clostridium belong to
perfringens produces alpha toxin most abundantly? A. type A
A. Type A B. type B
B. Type B C. type C
C. Type C D. type D
D. Type D Answer: Option A
Answer: Option A
10. Reddening of meat in cooked meat broth is
2. Which of the following is predominantly proteolytic? produced by
A. C. sporogenes A. C tetani
B. C. histolyticum B. C histolyticum
C. Both (a) and (b) C. Clostridium perfringens
D. C. speticum D. C sporogenes
Answer: Option C Answer: Option C

3. Which of the following properties are the 11. Clostridium botulinum food poisoning is due to
characteristics of tetanospasmin? A. invasion of bacteria in the intestine
A. It is a heat-labile protein B. preformed toxin
B. It is a neurotoxin C. both (a) and (b)
C. It can be toxoided D. none of the above
D. All of these Answer: Option B
Answer: Option D
12. Drumstick appearance is characteristic of
4. Types of exotoxin, most commonly associated with A. C tetanomorphum
botulism in man, is/are? B. C tetani
A. Type A C. C sphenoides
B. Type B D. all of these
C. Type E Answer: Option D
D. All of these
Answer: Option D 13. Blackening of meat in cooked meat broth is
through
5. Nagler's reaction is useful for the identification of A. C histolyticum
A. C tetani B. C perfringens
B. C perfringens C. C tetani
C. C botulinum D. all of these
D. C difficile Answer: Option A
Answer: Option B
14. Typical drumstick appearance of bacilli is generally
6. The most toxic exotoxin is seen in
A. tetanus toxin A. C perfringens
B. diphtheria toxin B. C botulinum
C. botulinum toxin C. C tetani
D. cholera toxin D. C histolyticum
Answer: Option C Answer: Option C

7. Which of the following species of Clostridium is 15. Which of the following(s) is/are obligate
predominantly sacchrolytic? anaeorbes?
A. C septicum A. C septicum
B. C perfringens B. C novyi
C. C novyi C. C tetani
D. All of these D. All of these
Answer: Option D Answer: Option D

8. Stormy clot reaction is useful in identification of


A. C tetani
B. C botulinum
C. C perfringens
D. C difficile
Answer: Option C
ACTINOMYCETES AND NON SPORING 9. Which of the following bacteria is gram-negative
ANAEROBES cocci?
1. Lactobacilli grow best under A. Veillonella
A. strict anaerobic conditions B. Peptococcus
B. microaerophilic conditions in presence of 5% CO2 C. Peptostreptococcus
and PH6 D. Sporosarcina
C. microaerophilic conditions in presence of 3% CO2 Answer: Option A
and PH5
D. microaerophilic conditions in presence of 2% CO2 10. The commonest species of Bacteroides in fragilis
and PH4 group, which causes human infection, is
Answer: Option B A. B vulgatus
B. B fragilis
2. Which of the following genera is included in the C. B ovatus
family Bacteroi-daceae? D. B merdae
A. Bacteroides Answer: Option B
B. Fusobacterium
C. Leptotrichia 11. The commonest bacterial cause of cervicofacial
D. All of these actinomycosis is
Answer: Option D A. A. naeslundii
B. A. viscosus
3. The bacteria which is predominant flora of the C. A. israelii
human gut is D. A. meyeri
A. Escherichia coli Answer: Option C
B. Clostridium perfringens
C. Bacteroides 12. Which of the following bacteria is moderately
D. Actinomyces saccharolytic?
Answer: Option B A. Bacteriodes fragilis
B. B gingivalis
4. The current genus name of a saccharolytic group of C. B melaninogenicus
Bacteroides is D. B levii
A. Porphyromonas Answer: Option C
B. Bacteroides
C. Prevotella
D. None of these
Answer: Option A

5. Colonies resembling molar teeth are produced by


A. Nocardia brasiliensis
B. N. asteroids
C. Actinomyces israelii
D. Actinomadura madurae
Answer: Option C

6. Which of the following bacterial colonies fluoresce


brick-red in UV light?
A. B gingivalis
B. B melaninogenicus
C. Bacteroides fragilis
D. B levii
Answer: Option B

7. Which of the following bacteria is acid-fast?


A. Actinomyces
B. Nocardia
C. Streptomyces
D. Corynebacterium
Answer: Option B

8. Lactobacilli constitute the normal flora of


A. prepubertal vagina
B. adult vagina
C. post-menopausal vagina
D. none of these
Answer: Option B
BRUCELLA
1. Which of the following can be identified by milk ring
test?
A. Brucellosis
B. Salmonellosis
C. Bovine tuberculosis
D. All of these
Answer: Option A

2. For brucellosis, 2 ME agglutination test is used to


identify
A. IgG
B. IgM
C. IgA
D. IgE
Answer: Option A

3. Human transmission of Brucellae occurs by


A. ingestion of contaminated meat
B. direct contact with animal tissues
C. ingestion of infected milk
D. all of these

4. Agglutination test for Brucella mainly identifies


which class of antibodies?
A. IgG
B. IgM
C. IgA
D. IgE
Answer: Option B

5. The most pathogenic Brucella spp for man is


A. B melitensis
B. B abortus
C. B suis
D. B canis
Answer: Option A

6. Brucella are
A. Cocci
B. Rods
C. Cocobacilli
D. Very short rods
Answer: Option D
VIBRIO, AEROMONAS AND PLESIOMONAS 8. Which of the following does not cause wound
1. Which of the following medium are used to infection following exposure to sea water or infected
differentiate the colonies of Vibrio cholerae and V shellfish?
parahaemolyticus? A. Vibrio vulnificus
A. Alkaline bile salt B. V. alginolyticus
B. Thiosulphate-citrate-bile-sucrose C. V. cholerae
C. MacConkey D. Aeromonas
D. All of the above Answer: Option C
Answer: Option B
9. The test(s) used for the assay of cholera toxin is/are
2. Which of the followings can be used to differentiate A. Radioimmunoassay
between classical and El Tor biotypes of Vibrio B. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay
cholerae? C. Morphological changes in Chinese hamster ovary
A. Sensitivity to Mukerjee's group IV phage cells
B. Agglutination of fowl RBCs D. All of the above
C. Sensitivity to polymyxin B Answer: Option D
D. All of these
Answer: Option D 10. The DNA coding for the production of cholera toxin
in Vibrio cholerae is on the
3. Which of the following biotypes of Vibrio cholerae A. phage
are prevalent in India? B. plasmid
A. EI Tor C. chromosome
B. Classical D. transposon
C. Both (a) and (b) Answer: Option C
D. None of these
Answer: Option A 11. The halophilic bacteria is/are
A. V. alginolyticus
4. Which of the following bacteria is associated with B. V. vulnificus
food poisoning due to consumption of sea fish? C. Vibrio parahaemolyticus
A. Vibrio parahaemolyticus D. All of these
B. V alginolyticus Answer: Option D
C. V vulnificus
D. All of these 12. Which of the following toxin resembles cholera
Answer: Option A toxin?
A. Stable toxin of E. coli
5. Which of the following conditions can be caused by B. Diphtheria toxin
Plesiomonas? C. Labile toxin of Escherichia coli
A. Septicaemia D. Tetanus toxin
B. Gastroenteritis Answer: Option C
C. Cellulites
D. All of these
Answer: Option D

6. Acute diarrhoeal disease resembling cholera can be


caused due to
A. Aeromonas hydrophila
B. Vibrio vulnificus
C. V. alginolyticus
D. All of these
Answer: Option A

7. The transport medium for Vibrio cholerae can be


A. Venkatraman-Ramakrishnan medium
B. Selenite F broth
C. Tetrathionate broth
D. Nutrient broth
Answer: Option A
PROTOZON 8. Sexual reproduction in the Protozoa occurs most
1. Holozoic nutrition is characterized by commonly by
A. phagocytosis of solid nutrients and subsequent A. conjugation
formation of phagocytic vacuoles B. gametangial contact
B. pinocytosis of solid nutrients and subsequent C. binary fission
formation of phagocytic vacuoles D. binary fusion
C. phagocytosis of soluble nutrients and subsequent Answer: Option A
formation of phagocytic vacuoles
D. photosynthesis 9. Organisms with complex life cycles which include a
Answer: Option A mammalian host and an insect host and involves
schizogony as part of the cycle belong to which phylum
2. Organisms with amoeboid cells that move within a of Protozoa?
network of mucous tracks using a typical gliding A. Sarcomastigophora
motion belong to which phylum of Protozoa? B. Microspora
A. Labyinthomorpha C. Apicomplexa
B. Microspora D. Myxozoa
C. Apicomplexa Answer: Option C
D. Myxozoa
Answer: Option A 10. A protozoan is defined as
A. motile prokaryotic unicellular protist
3. Saprozoic nutrition is characterized by B. motile eukaryotic unicellular protist
A. phagocytosis of solid nutrients and subsequent C. motile eukaryotic unicellular photosynthetic protist
formation of phagocytic vacuoles D. motile eukaryotic multicellular protist
B. pinocytosis of solid nutrients and subsequent Answer: Option C
formation of phagocytic vacuoles
C. encystment of solid nutrients and subsequent 11. Organisms which have spore-forming stage in their
formation of secretory vacuoles life cycle and lack special locomotory organelles belong
D. pinocytosis of soluble nutrients and subsequent to which phylum of Protozoa?
formation of phagocytic vacuoles A. Microspora
Answer: Option D B. Myxozoa
C. Ciliophora
4. Which of the following is least likely to have a rigid D. Apicomplexa
cell wall? Answer: Option D
A. Bacterium
B. Archaean 12. Members of the Protozoa may motile by all of the
C. Fungus following methods except
D. Protozoan A. flagella
Answer: Option D B. gliding by slime secretion
C. cilia
5. The numbers of nuclear divisions involved in a D. pseudopodia
ciliate undergoing binary fission is Answer: Option B
A. greater than conjugation
B. lesser than conjugation 13. Most commonly asexual reproduction in the
C. equal to conjugation Protozoa is by
D. none of these A. conjugation
Answer: Option B B. gametangial contact
C. binary fission
6. Which of the following is not a function of cysts for D. binary fusion
Protozoa? Answer: Option C
A. Protect against adverse environments
B. Sites for nuclear reorganization and cell division 14. Which of the following describes the function of a
C. Serve as a means of transfer between hosts in phagocytic vacuole?
parasitic species A. Contain specific enzymes that perform various
D. All of the above functions
Answer: Option D B. Maintain osmotic balance by continuous water
expulsion
7. Which of the following is not true of protozoa? C. Structures that accept male gametes during sexual
A. Lack cell wall reproduction
B. Produce no sporebearing structures D. Sites of food digestion
C. Comprise the microbial population known as Answer: Option D
phytoplankton
D. Form active feeding forms called trophozoites
Answer: Option C
15. Which of the following describes the function of a
secretory vacuole?
A. Sites of food digestion
B. Maintain osmotic balance by continuous water
expulsion
C. Contain specific enzymes that perform various
functions
D. Structures that accept male gametes during sexual
reproduction
Answer: Option C

16. Organisms are parasitic and have a resistant spore


with one to six coiled polar filaments belong to which
phylum of Protozoa?
A. Labyinthomorpha
B. Sarcomastigophora
C. Apicomplexa
D. Myxozoa
Answer: Option D

17. Which of the following is least likely to get in or on


a protozoan such as a diplomonad or trichomonad?
A. Flagella
B. More than one nucleus
C. Genes to produce a cyst form
D. Rigid polysaccharide cell wall
Answer: Option D

18. Members of which phylum of Protozoa are being


considered as biological control agents for certain
insects?
A. Microspora
B. Sarcomastigophora
C. Apicomplexa
D. all of these
Answer: Option A

19. Protozoa are generally not


A. multicellular
B. microscopic
C. lacking cell walls
D. eukaryotic
Answer: Option A

20. Number of motility structures on flagellated cells is


A. greater than ciliated cells
B. lesser than ciliated cells
C. equal to ciliated cells
D. none of these
Answer: Option B

21. Protozoa have several types of vacuoles.The


function of a contractile vacuole is to
A. maintain osmotic balance by continuous water
expulsion
B. creates sites of food digestion
C. contain specific enzymes that perform various
functions
D. have sites for photosynthesis
Answer: Option A
VIRUSES – Sec 1 8. The first step in infection of a host bacterial cells by
1. Which of the following disinfectant is effective a phage is
against viruses? A. adsorption
A. Hydrogen peroxide B. absorption
B. Hypochlorite C. penetration
C. Formaldehyde D. replication
D. All of these Answer: Option A
Answer: Option D
9. Which of the following viruses has not been
2. Viruses largely lack metabolic machinery of their associated with human cancer?
own to generate energy or to synthesize A. Hepatitis C virus
A. protein B. Hepatitis B virus
B. carbohydrate C. Varicella-Zoster virus
C. alcohol D. Herpes simplex virus type 2
D. all of these Answer: Option C
Answer: Option A
10. The viral nucleocapsid is the combination of
3. Viruses require __________ for growth. A. genome and capsid
A. bacteria B. capsid and spikes
B. plants C. envelope and capsid
C. animals D. capsomere and genome
D. living cells Answer: Option A
Answer: Option D
11. Edward Jenner began inoculating humans with
4. Reverse transcriptase is a useful enzyme to have material from __________ lesions.
when A. Smallpox
A. an RNA virus converts its RNA to DNA B. Avianpox
B. there are no host cells present C. Cowpox
C. nutrients are scarce D. Chickenpox
D. spikes are forming in the new virus Answer: Option C
Answer: Option A
12. The viruses in an attenuated vaccine
5. The sequence of nucleic acid in a variety of viruses A. have no genome
and viral host, will find more similarities B. continue to replicate
A. among different viruses than between viruses and C. are usually larger than bacteria
their hosts D. is altered with chemicals
B. among different viral hosts than among different Answer: Option B
viruses
C. among different viral hosts than between viruses 13. Enveloped viruses have a __________ shape.
and their hosts A. icosahedral
D. between viruses and their hosts than among B. helical
different viruses C. roughly spherical
Answer: Option D D. complex
Answer: Option C
6. When a virus enters a cell but does not replicate
immediately, the situation is called 14. The envelope of which of the following viruses is
A. lysogeny derived from the host cell nucleus?
B. fermentation A. Paramyxoviruses
C. symbiosis B. Retroviruses
D. synergism C. Orthomyxoviruses
Answer: Option A D. Herpesviruses
Answer: Option D
7. Usually viruses are separated into several large
groups based primarily on 15. Which of the following is semi-continuous (diploid)
A. nature of the host cell line?
B. nucleic acid characteristics A. HeLa
C. capsid symmetry B. HEp-2
D. diameter of the viroin or nucleocapsid C. WI-38
Answer: Option A D. KB
Answer: Option C
16. Plant viruses may be cultivated in 24. Which of the following viruses belong to family
A. tissue culture Flaviviridae?
B. cultures of separated cells A. Rubella virus
C. whole plants B. Yellow fever virus
D. all of these C. Hepatitis C virus
Answer: Option D D. All of these
Answer: Option D
17. The oncogene theory refers to
A. how chemicals inactivate viruses when applied 25. Which of the following viruses show/s
B. how viruses replicate in host cells transformation of infected cells?
C. how viruses transform normal cells into tumor cells A. Hepatitis B virus
D. none of these B. Human T cell lymphotronic virus type I
Answer: Option C C. Epstein-Barr virus
D. All of these
18. In cell culture, measles virus may lead to Answer: Option D
A. nuclear pyknosis
B. transformation of cells 26. Which of the following may affect proteins and
C. syncytium formation nucleic acids, but not viruses?
D. rounding and aggregation of cells A. Denaturation
Answer: Option C B. Enzyme treatment
C. Pressure
19. A change from lysogeny to lysis is generally D. All of these
induced by Answer: Option D
A. ultraviolet light
B. chemicals 27. The viral DNA of the temperate phage, instead of
C. irradiation taking over the functions of the cell's genes, is
D. all of these incorporated into the host DNA and becomes a
Answer: Option A prophage in the bacterial chromosome, acting as a
gene. This happens in
20. The viral DNA is removed from the host's A. lysogeny
chromosomes and the lytic cycle occurs. The process is B. spontaneous induction
called C. lytic phase
A. spontaneous induction D. none of these
B. inductive infection Answer: Option A
C. resultant induction
D. spontaneous infection 28. Which of the following statements is not true of
Answer: Option A viruses?
A. Viruses have been successfully grown in pure
21. The lysogenic state is governed by the activity of cultures in test tubes
the regulatory region of the lambda phage genomes; B. All viruses are obligatory intracellular parasites
this region is termed as C. All viruses have either DNA or RNA as their genetic
A. immunity repressor material
B. immunity operon D. Viruses probably arose from small fragments of
C. operon repressor cellular chromosomes
D. none of these Answer: Option A
Answer: Option B
29. Which of the following viruses belong/s to family
22. The capsomeres consist of a number of proteins caliciviridae?
subunits or molecules called A. Hepatitis B virus
A. protomers B. Hepatitis D virus
B. caproprotein C. Hepatitis E virus
C. procapsid D. All of these
D. none of these Answer: Option C
Answer: Option A
30. In the simplest capsid, there is a capsomere at
23. In order for a virus to replicate each of the 12 vertices; this capsomere, which is
A. the capsid must enter the host cell cytoplasm surrounded by five other capsomeres, is termed a
B. the host cell must be undergoing mitosis A. penton
C. the genome must be released in the cytoplasm B. polyhedra
D. the host cell must lack a cell membrane C. icosahedral
Answer: Option C D. helical
Answer: Option A
31. The size of viruses is usually measured in 39. The temperate phage possesses a gene that codes
A. centimeters for a repressor protein which makes the cell resistant
B. micrometers to lysis initiated by
C. nanometers A. the prophage
D. millimeters B. lytic infection by other viruses
Answer: Option C C. Both (a) and (b)
D. none of these
32. The temperate phage that have no site specificity Answer: Option C
for insertion and may even be able to insert multiple
copies of their DNA into a single bacterial chromosome 40. The bacterial viruses having head made up of large
is capsomeres, but no tail is morphologically classified as
A. λ phage enzyme A. A
B. λ DNA B. B
C. Phage Mu C. C
D. Phage Mn D. D
Answer: Option C Answer: Option D

33. Enzyme neuraminidase is carried by which of the


following viruses?
A. Human immunodeficiency virus
B. Epstein-Barr virus
C. Influenza virus
D. Adenovirus
Answer: Option C

34. Lysozyme (an endolysin) which will lyse the


bacterial cell, releasing the mature virions is present in
A. immediate early phage genes
B. late genes
C. delayed early genes
D. all of these
Answer: Option B

35. Which of the following is continuous cell line?


A. HeLa
B. HEp-2
C. KB
D. All of these
Answer: Option D

36. The repressor protein, since the cell is resistant to


lysis from externally infecting phage, is also called
A. immunity repressor
B. immunity operon
C. operon repressor
D. none of these
Answer: Option A

37. Which of the following virus is susceptible to


chloroform?
A. Herpes
B. Influenza
C. Measles
D. All of these
Answer: Option D

38. Group E phages have


A. single stranded DNA
B. double stranded DNA
C. single stranded RNA
D. double stranded DNA
Answer: Option C
VIRUSES – Sec 2 8. The envelope of an enveloped virus is derived from
1. The most complex type of bacterial viruses having A. the mitochondrion of the cell
hexagonal head, a rigid tail with a contractile sheath B. the cell membrane
and tall fibers is morphologically classified as C. the endoplasmic reticulum of the cell
A. A D. none of these
B. B Answer: Option B
C. C
D. D 9. The most popular indirect method of counting virus
Answer: Option A particles is by
A. hemagglutination assay
2. Which of the following is not true of virions? B. plaque-assay
A. Reproduce independently C. counting plaque-forming units
B. Contain DNA D. colony counting
C. Contain RNA Answer: Option A
D. Are extracellular
Answer: Option A 10. Which of the following viruses belong to family
Hepadnaviridae?
3. Bacteriophages have been used widely in genetic A. Hepatitis A virus
research, since they are the smallest and simplest B. Hepatitis B virus
biological entities capable of C. Hepatitis D virus
A. self-replication D. All of these
B. duplication Answer: Option B
C. self-duplication
D. multiplication 11. Inclusion bodies of measles virus are
Answer: Option A A. intracytoplasmic
B. intranuclear
4. Lesions on chorioallantoic membrane are produced C. both (a) and (b)
by D. none of these
A. Herpes B virus Answer: Option C
B. Vaccinia virus
C. Herpes simplex virus 12. The most efficient way to enclose a space is within
D. all of these a/an
Answer: Option D A. sphere
B. cube
5. Which one is not useful in the treatment of viruses C. icosahedron
except D. helix
A. acyclovir Answer: Option C
B. interferon
C. penicillin 13. Which of the following is an example of rod-shaped
D. antibodies viruses having their capsomeres arranged helically and
Answer: Option C not in the stacked ring?
A. Bateriophage M13
6. The infected cells continue to reproduce themselves B. Bateriophage MV-L2
as well as the virus, and the mature virions are C. Bateriophage T2
extruded from the cell surface continuously over a long D. Bateriophage T4
period of time. This type of release mechanism is Answer: Option A
called a
A. productive infection 14. During the first 10 minutes after injection of phage
B. inductive infection DNA, no phage can be recovered by disrupting the
C. resultant infection infected bacterium. This is termed as
D. all of these A. eclipse period
Answer: Option A B. rise period
C. latent period
7. What kind of embryo is often used for viral assays? D. burst size
A. Mouse Answer: Option A
B. Rat
C. Cat 15. The function of a viral capsid is
D. Chicken A. protection against the viral genome from physical
Answer: Option D and enzymatic destruction
B. providing binding sites that enable the virus to
attach to specific receptor sites on the host cell
C. serving as a vehicle of transmission from one host
to another
D. all of the above
Answer: Option D
16. Which of the following oncogenic viruses was first 24. Which of the following bacteriophage is said to
detected? have banal symmetry?
A. Rous sarcoma virus. A. T2
B. Epstein-Barr virus B. T4
C. Herpes simplex virus type 2 C. T6
D. Human T cell leukaemia virus D. all of these
Answer: Option A Answer: Option D

17. The yield of phage per bacterium is called the 25. Which of the following statements is correct?
A. eclipse size A. Up to 10% of human tumours have a viral risk
B. latent size factor
C. burst size B. Up to 40% of human tumours have a viral risk
D. none of these factor
Answer: Option C C. Up to 30% of human tumours have a viral risk
factor
18. Which of the following viruses are relatively D. Up to 20% of human tumours have a viral risk
thermostable? factor
A. Human immunodeficiency virus Answer: Option D
B. Rubella virus
C. Hepatits A virus 26. Which of the following are obligate intracellular
D. Influenza virus parasites?
Answer: Option C A. Chlamydia
B. Viruses
19. The time from infection until lysis is called as C. Rickettsia
A. eclipse period D. All of these
B. rise period Answer: Option D
C. latent period
D. burst size 27. Viruses can be purified based on their size and
Answer: Option C density by using
A. gradient centrifugation
20. Virus reproduces in living cells by B. differential centrifugation
A. replication C. precipitation
B. duplication D. none of these
C. multiplication Answer: Option A
D. all of these
Answer: Option A 28. The extracellular phage number increases until a
constant titer at the end of the multiplication cycle.
21. Which of the following virus is enveloped? This time interval is termed as
A. Adeno A. eclipse period
B. Herpes B. rise period
C. Polio C. latent period
D. None of these D. burst size
Answer: Option B Answer: Option B

22. Which of the following viruses can rescue


adenovirus in simian cells?
A. Rabies
B. Vaccinia
C. Simian virus 40
D. Cytomegalovirus
Answer: Option C

23. The phage components begin to assemble into


mature phages only after the synthesis of
A. structural protein
B. nucleic acid
C. Both (a) and (b)
D. amino acids
Answer: Option C
VIRUSES IN EUKARYOTES D. Human herpes virus 8
1. Which of the following is the agent associated with Answer: Option D
the development of neurodegenerative disease in
livestock and humans? 9. Virulent and nonvirulent viruses may not
A. Prions A. inhibit host cell DNA synthesis
B. Viroids B. inhibit host cell RNA synthesis
C. virions C. stimulate host cell macromolecule synthesis
D. Virinos D. degrade host cell DNA
Answer: Option A Answer: Option D

2. __________is probably the most important 10. The hepadnaviruses such as hepatitis B virus are
characteristic for classification of viruses in eukaryotes. quite different from other DNA viruses with respect to
A. Host preference genome replication. These replicate their DNA using
B. Morphology A. DNA-dependent DNA polymerase
C. Physical nature of virion constituents B. reverse transcriptase
D. Chemical nature of virion constituents C. Rnase H
Answer: Option A D. DNA ligase
Answer: Option B
3. The __________ of the influenza-enveloped virus
appear to be involved in attachment to the host cell 11. Which of the following virus is always detectable
receptor site. after infections?
A. fimbriae A. Hepatitis B virus
B. flagellae B. Herpes simplex virus
C. hemagluttinin C. Varicella-zoster virus
D. neuraminidase D. Cytomegalovirus
Answer: Option C Answer: Option A

4. Intracellular structures formed during many viral 12. Viroids are composed of
infections, called __________ , which can directly A. single-stranded DNA
disrupt cell structure. B. double-stranded DNA
A. prokaryotes C. single-stranded RNA
B. chromosomal disruptions D. double-stranded RNA
C. inclusion bodies Answer: Option C
D. cytocidal bodies
Answer: Option C

5. Viral RNA is replicated in the host cell


A. cytoplasmic matrix
B. nucleus
C. mitochondria
D. lysozomes
Answer: Option A

6. Which family has received most interest in their


development as a biological control agent against
insects?
A. Reoviridae
B. Baculoviridae
C. Iridoviridae
D. Poxviridae
Answer: Option B

7. In cancer, the reversion of cells to a more primitive


or less differentiated state is called
A. neoplasia
B. anaplasia
C. metastasis
D. oncogenic
Answer: Option B

8. Which of the following has been linked to Kaposi's


sarcoma?
A. Epstein-Barr virus
B. Human T-cell lymphotropic virus
C. Human papilloma virus
POXVIRIDAE AND PICRONAVIRIDAE A. Human amnion
1. The disease(s) caused by genus Orthopoxvirus B. Monkey kidney
is/are C. HeLa
A. Vaccinia D. All of these
B. Smallpox Answer: Option D
C. Cowpox
D. All of these
Answer: Option D

2. The virus(es) which can cause aseptic meningitis


is/are
A. Polioviruses
B. Coxsackieviruses
C. Echo viruses
D. All of these
Answer: Option D

3. Which of the following genera can cause disease in


humans?
A. Orthopoxvirus
B. Parapoxvirus
C. Molluscipoxvirus
D. All of these
Answer: Option D

4. Which of the coxsackieviruses can cause


herpangina?
A. Group A
B. Group B
C. Both (a) and (b)
D. None of these
Answer: Option A

5. Which of the following genera is included in the


family Picorna-viridae?
A. Enterovirus
B. Rhinovirus
C. Hepatovirus
D. All of these
Answer: Option D

6. Transmission of Molluscum contagiosum virus is


through
A. direct contact
B. sexual contact
C. both (a) and (b)
D. none of these
Answer: Option C

7. Which of the following viruses are acid-labile?


A. Rhinoviruses
B. Echoviruses
C. Polioviruses
D. Coxsackieviruses
Answer: Option A

8. The symmetry of nucleocapsid of poxvirusps is/are


A. complex
B. icosahedral
C. helical
D. all of these
Answer: Option A

9. The cell lines which can support the growth of


polioviruses is/are
HEPATITIS VIRUSES C. HDV
1. Which of the following hepatitis viruses is not RNA D. All of these
virus? Answer: Option D
A. Hepatitis A virus
B. Hepatitis B virus 10. Most reliable test for detection of hepatitis E
C. Hepatitis E virus infection is
D. Hepatitis G virus A. ELISA test for IgM anti-HEV
Answer: Option B B. Western blot assay for IgM anti-HEV
C. Polymerase chain reaction for detection of HEV RNA
2. Which of the following nucleic acid is present in D. ELISA test for IgG anti-HEV
hepatitis B virus? Answer: Option C
A. dsDNA
B. ssRNA 11. Hepatocellular carcinoma (Hepatoma) may be
C. ssDNA caused by
D. dsRNA A. Hepatitis A virus
Answer: Option A B. Hepatitis C virus
C. Both (a) and (b)
3. The agent representing an isolate of hepatitis G D. None of these
virus is Answer: Option C
A. GBA-A
B. GBV-B 12. The defective satellite virus is
C. GBV-C A. hepatitis B
D. none of these B. hepatitis C
Answer: Option C C. hepatitis D
D. hepatitis A
4. Hepatitis G virus belongs to the family Answer: Option C
A. Caliciviridae
B. Flaviviridae 13. All of the following viruses are enveloped except
C. Hepadnaviridae A. Hepatitis A virus
D. Coronaviridae B. Hepatitis B virus
Answer: Option B C. Hepatitis C virus
D. Hepatitis D virus
5. Transmission of hepatitis G virus is Answer: Option A
A. Parenterally
B. Sexually 14. The diagnosis of hepatitis A virus infection is
C. Both (a) and (b) carried out from the method based on
D. None of these A. aminotransferase levels
Answer: Option C B. detection of faecal HAV by immunoelectron
microscopy
6. The most serious infection is C. both (a) and (b)
A. superinfection of an HBsAg carrier by HDV D. detection of IgM anti-HAV by ELISA
B. infection with HBV alone Answer: Option D
C. coinfection of HBVand HDV
D. none of the above 15. Which of the following is not correct for hepatitis A
Answer: Option A virus?
A. It can be grown in cell cultures of primate and
7. Which of the following specimens contain/s hepatitis human cells
B virus in an infected person? B. It is one of the most stable viruses infecting humans
A. Blood C. It may cause hepatocellular carcinoma
B. Semen D. None of the above
C. Saliva Answer: Option C
D. All of these
Answer: Option D 11. Hepatocellular carcinoma (Hepatoma) may be
caused by
8. Vertical transmission may be seen in A. Hepatitis A virus
A. Hepatitis B virus B. Hepatitis C virus
B. Hepatitis C virus C. Both (a) and (b)
C. Hepatitis D virus D. None of these
D. All of these Answer: Option C
Answer: Option D
12. The defective satellite virus is
9. Which of the following viral infections can result in A. hepatitis B
chronic carrier state? B. hepatitis C
A. HBV C. hepatitis D
B. HCV D. hepatitis A
Answer: Option C

13. All of the following viruses are enveloped except


A. Hepatitis A virus
B. Hepatitis B virus
C. Hepatitis C virus
D. Hepatitis D virus
Answer: Option A

14. The diagnosis of hepatitis A virus infection is


carried out from the method based on
A. aminotransferase levels
B. detection of faecal HAV by immunoelectron
microscopy
C. both (a) and (b)
D. detection of IgM anti-HAV by ELISA
Answer: Option D

15. Which of the following is not correct for hepatitis A


virus?
A. It can be grown in cell cultures of primate and
human cells
B. It is one of the most stable viruses infecting humans
C. It may cause hepatocellular carcinoma
D. None of the above
Answer: Option C
MICROORGANISMS AND DISEASE 8. Both Mycobacterium tuberculosis and Streptococcus
1. Which of the following characteristic of the Rotavirus pneumoniae
was important for the construction of the Rotashield A. are acquired by inhalation
vaccine? B. have cell walls that contain a high content of
A. The possession of a segmented RNA genome mycolic acids
B. A limited number of capsule types C. have polysaccharide capsules
C. The ability of monkey Rotavirus strains to cause D. stay in the lung and rarely, if ever, enter the
serious illness (diarrhea) in human beings bloodstream
D. The ability of the Rotavirus to be transmitted faster Answer: Option A
Answer: Option A
9. Cholera toxin is an A-B type toxin in which the B
2. Plastic implants can pose a serious nosocomial portions bind to a receptor on a host cell and the A
infection problem because portion enters the cell to cause
A. phagocytes have trouble moving on the plastic A. ADP ribosylation of adenylate cyclase that stops
surface production of cAMP
B. phagocytes have trouble engulfing bacteria B. ADP ribosylation of a G protein that locks it into an
embedded in a biofilm active form that stimulates adenylate cyclase to make
C. infected implants usually have to be surgically cAMP
removed C. cleavage of rRNA that results in disruption of
D. all of the above ribosome function
Answer: Option D D. ADP ribosylation of guanylate cyclase that
stimulates production of cGMP
3. A major difference between EHEC and EPEC is Answer: Option B
A. EHEC secretes a Shiga-like toxin and EPEC does not
B. EHEC possesses a type III secretion system and 10. Mucus helps in protecting against pathogens by
EPEC does not A. lowering the pH
C. EPEC rearranges host cell actin and EHEC does not B. facilitating the growth of normal flora
D. EPEC passes through the placenta to infect the C. blocking access and attachment of pathogens to
fetus and EHEC does not mucosal surfaces
Answer: Option A D. sequestering Iron
Answer: Option C
4. The nature of the poliovirus gives for oral
vaccination (satin vaccine) as part of the eradication 11. Type III secretion systems are used to inject
programme is "effector" proteins directly into a host cell. Salmonella
A. heat killed virus uses a type III secretion system to help the pathogen
B. live attenuated strains of all three immunological to
types A. survive the acid pH of the stomach
C. small dosage of wild-type live viruses B. secrete LT (heat labile toxin) and ST (heat stable
D. formalin-inactivated viruses toxin) into the lumen of the intestine
Answer: Option B C. survive within macrophages
D. activate T cells to proliferate and secrete cytokines
5. Which of the following is true regarding anthrax? Answer: Option C
A. Anthrax is caused by a virus
B. Anthrax is highly contagious 12. Which of these cytokines is also known under the
C. Inhalation anthrax and cutaneous anthrax are name cachectin?
caused by separate strains of Bacillus anthracis A. Interferon gamma
D. Inhalation Anthrax requires infection with a large B. Interleukin 2
number of spores C. Tumor necrosis factor (TNF)
Answer: Option D D. None of the above
Answer: Option C
6. The toxins produced by bacteria
A. kill viruses 13. Which is not a major defense mechanism in the
B. encourage bacterial reproduction stomach?
C. interfere with physiological processes in the body A. Proteolytic enzymes
D. all of the above B. Low pH
Answer: Option C C. Dense normal flora
D. All of these
7. Pseudomembraneous colitis is Answer: Option C
A. precipitated by the use of certain antibiotics
B. caused by a gram-positive bacterium
C. caused by a spore-forming bacterium
D. all of the above
Answer: Option D
14. The agent responsible for causing mad cow 21. What is common in catheters and ventilators?
disease is thought to be a A. They bypass important defenses of the body
A. fungus B. Bacteria responsible for associated infections are
B. protozoan usually susceptible to antibiotics
C. prion C. They predispose patients to viral rather than
D. virus bacterial infections
Answer: Option C D. They are used primarily in neonatal intensive care
units
15. The "A" subunit of diphtheria toxin Answer: Option A
A. binds host cell receptors found on heart cells
B. cause ADP ribosylation of a factor involved in 22. An important host defense of human beings is a
protein synthesis dense resident microbiota associated with
C. forms cAMP that leads to fluid accumulation A. lungs
D. lysis macrophages with the release of cytokines B. bladder
Answer: Option B C. uterus
D. vagina
16. Coxsackie virus B3, a subgroup of enteroviruses, Answer: Option D
commonly causes
A. acute hemorrhagic conjunctivitis 23. Lactoferrin helps to protect against pathogens by
B. muscular dystrophy A. sequestering Iron
C. myocarditis B. blocking sebum production
D. gastroenteritis C. lowering the pH
Answer: Option C D. facilitating the growth of normal flora
Answer: Option A
17. Prontosil is
A. an effective antibacterial when used in animals 24. The influenza vaccine is administered each year
B. an effective antibacterial when used in in-vitro because
cultures A. mutations in the viral hemagglutinin may allow the
C. an effective antibacterial both in animals as well as virus to evade the immune response elicited by
in in-vitro cultures previous vaccines
D. not used as an antibacterial agent B. it is a polysaccharide vaccine that does not confer
Answer: Option C long-term protection
C. the vaccine is sufficiently toxic to make it necessary
18. All infections do not cause fever and all fevers are to administer only a small amount at any one time
not due to infections which of the following is an D. none of the above
example of non-infections cause of fever? Answer: Option A
A. Typhoid
B. Chicken pox 25. Which of the following disease is caused by DNA
C. Rheumatic disease viruses?
D. Malaria A. Poliomyelitis
Answer: Option C B. Yellow fever
C. Measles
19. Immunization with which of the following toxoid D. Small pox
induces high titer serum antibody, but does not protect Answer: Option D
from the corresponding disease?
A. Tetanus 26. Which of the following is common in the disease
B. Botulism caused by Coryne-bacterium diphtheriae and Bacillus
C. Diphtheria anthracis?
D. Shigellosis A. Both organisms are gram-positive spore formers
Answer: Option B B. Diphtheria toxin and edema toxin are ADP
ribosylating toxins
20. Which of the following statements is not true C. The most serious disease symptoms are the direct
regarding Mycobacterium tuberculosis and/or the result of toxin action
disease it causes? D. Both organisms cause skin and respiratory tract
A. The pathogen contains mycolic acid in its cell wall infections
B. The pathogen can live inside macrophages Answer: Option C
C. Antibodies to the pathogen are protective
D. None of these 27. Fatalities following influenza infection are usually
Answer: Option C due to the
A. dehydration
B. bacterial superinfection
C. damage to the heart muscle
D. formation of granulomas in the lung
Answer: Option B
28. Which of the following disease is not caused by
microbial protein toxin?
A. Botulism
B. Diphtheria
C. Shigella dysentery
D. Tuberculosis
Answer: Option D

29. In the human disease cholera, what is it that


actually ends up killing the victim?
A. Faulty carrier proteins
B. Dehydration and loss of nutrients
C. Too little water in the food stream
D. the toxin produced by the bacterium
Answer: Option B

30. Each of the 3 virulence factors of Bacillus anthracis


i.e. the capsule, edema toxin and lethal toxin can
affect the activity of
A. B cells
B. macrophages
C. ciliated epithelial cells
D. M cells
Answer: Option B
IDENTIFICATION OF BACTERIA 9. Production of acetoin can be detected by which of
1. The gram-negative organisms is the following tests?
A. Actinomyces A. Citrate test
B. Bacillus B. Voges-Proskauer test
C. Clostridium C. Methyl red test
D. None of these D. Indole test
Answer: Option D Answer: Option B

2. Catalase production is negative in which of the 10. The production of sufficient acid by fermentation of
following? glucose leads to decrease in pH such that pH of the
A. Streptococcus medium falls below 4.5. Which of the following test can
B. Salmonella detect it?
C. Proteus A. Indole test
D. Staphylococcus B. Methyl red test
Answer: Option A C. Citrate utilization test
D. Voges-Proskauer test
3. Which of the following is a substitute for crystal Answer: Option B
violet used in gram-staining procedure?
A. Methylene blue 11. What is the colour of gram -postive bacteria on a
B. Bromocresol green gram staining?
C. Safranin A. Purple
D. Phenolpthalene B. Pink
Answer: Option A C. Colourless
D. Green
4. Which of the following inference(s) indicate(s) the Answer: Option A
ability of an organism to utilize citrate as a sole source
of carbon in Simmon's citrate medium? 12. What is the colour of gram-negative bacteria on a
A. Blue colour gram staining?
B. Appearance of growth A. Purple
C. Both (a) and (b) B. Pink
D. None of these C. Green
Answer: Option C D. Colourless
Answer: Option B
5. The organisms that can be acid-fast stained is
A. Nocardia 13. Which of the following is a primary stain for acid
B. Tubercle bacilli fast staining of mycobacteria?
C. Lepra bacilli A. Crystal violet
D. all of these B. Carbol fuchsin
Answer: Option D C. Geimsa
D. Methylene blue
6. The primary stain of Gram's method is Answer: Option B
A. safranin
B. phenolpthalene 14. The deinococci are gram-positive cocci and rods
C. crystal violet that are distinctive in their unusually great resistance
D. methyl red to
Answer: Option C A. radiation
B. desiccation
7. At what concentration of sulphuric acid, Nocardia C. both (a) and (b)
resists decolourization? D. extreme temperatures
A. 0.5% sulphuric acid Answer: Option C
B. 5% sulphuric acid
C. 10% sulphuric acid 15. Which of the following shows a positive urease
D. 8% sulphuric acid test?
Answer: Option A A. Proteus
B. Klebsiella
8. Which of the following is commonly used as Gram's C. Both (a) and (b)
decolouriser? D. None of these
A. Ethyl alcohol Answer: Option C
B. Methyl alcohol
C. Acetone
D. A mixture of ethyl alcohol and acetone
Answer: Option D
16. Which of the following(s) is/ are oxidase-positive
bacteria?
A. Vibrio
B. Neisseria
C. Pseudomonas
D. All of these
Answer: Option D

17. What is the order of reagents used in the Gram


stain?
A. Crystal violet, iodine, safranin, decolorizer
B. Crystal violet, iodine, decolorizer, safranin
C. Safranin, crystal violet, decolorizer, iodine
D. Crystal violet, safranin, iodine, decolorizer
Answer: Option B

18. Gram staining was developed accidentally in 1884


by
A. Alexander Fleming
B. Hans Christian Gram
C. Joseph Christian Gram
D. Robert Gram
Answer: Option B

19. Which of the following organisms can be


demonstrated with silver impregnation method?
A. Vibrios
B. Salmonella
C. Spirochaetes
D. Shigella
Answer: Option C

20. Which of the following(s) show(s) positive results


for phenylalanine deaminase test?
A. Providencia
B. Proteus
C. Morganella
D. All of these
Answer: Option D

21. The process of Gram staining is based on the


ability of bacterial cell wall
A. to retain the safranin dye
B. to retain the crystal violet dye during solvent
treatment.
C. to retain part of both dyes
D. none of above
Answer: Option B
CELL CULTIVATIONS A. 300-400nm
1. Which of the following is the necessary step for B. 400-500nm
cultivating the microorganisms? C. 500-600nm
A. Preparing a culture medium for the growth of D. 600-700nm
microorganisms Answer: Option D
B. Sterilizing in order to eliminate all living
microorganisms in vessel 9. Which of the following is not an indirect method for
C. Inoculating the microorganisms in the prepared the measurement of cell mass?
medium A. Nutrient composition
D. All of the above B. Cell dry weight
Answer: Option D C. Viscosity
D. Heat evolution
2. For most bacteria, the optimum pH for growth lies Answer: Option B
between
A. 6.5-7.5 10. Callus cultures are amorphous cell aggregates
B. 3.5-4.5 arising from the unorganized growth of explants on an
C. 4.5-5.5 A. liquid medium
D. 5.5-6.5 B. solid nutrient medium
Answer: Option A C. aseptic solid nutrient medium
D. solid or liquid medium
3. Which of the following is an abiotic elicitors? Answer: Option C
A. UV irradiation
B. Osmotic shock 11. The protoplast can be used to
C. Heavy metal ions A. modify genetic information
D. All of these B. create plant hybrid
Answer: Option D C. study plant viral infections
D. all of these
4. Suspension cultures consist of cells and cell Answer: Option D
aggregates, growing dispersed in
A. liquid medium 12. Which of the following is incorrect?
B. solid nutrient medium A. Mammalian cells are larger and more complex than
C. solid or liquid medium microorganisms
D. none of these B. Their growth rate is very fast compared to
Answer: Option A microorganisms
C. Mammalian cells are fragile
5. Thiobacillus thiooxidans has an optimum pH of D. Most animal cells only grow when attached to
A. 2.0-3.5 surface
B. 0.5-6.0 Answer: Option B
C. 6.5-7.5
D. 9.0-9.5 13. The size of a single plant cell is usually within the
Answer: Option A range of
A. 10-20μm in diameter and 25-100μm long
6. Balanced growth is defined as B. 20-40μm in diameter and 100-200μm long
A. cultures undergoing balanced growth while C. 40-60μm in diameter and 200-300μm long
maintaining a constant chemical composition D. 60-80μm in diameter and 300-400μm long
B. balancing the growth while controlling the pH Answer: Option B
C. balancing the growth while controlling the
temperature 14. Which of the following is incorrect?
D. balancing the growth while changing the nutrient A. Plant cells are larger than the bacterial or fungus
composition cells
Answer: Option A B. Plant cells tend to grow in clumps
C. Plant cells are less sensitive to shear than microbial
7. Semi-solid media, prepared with agar at cells
concentrations of 0.5% or less are useful for the D. Plant cells are more genetically unstable than
cultivation of microbial cells
A. Microaerophillic bacteria Answer: Option C
B. Lactobacilli
C. E.coli 15. The archaebacterium Halobacterium, an extreme
D. all of these halophile, and Sulfolobus, a thermoacidophile, can be
Answer: Option A cultured in the presence of antibiotics such as
streptomycin and chloramphenicol because
8. The cell mass can be measured optically by A. they contain ether-linked isoprenoids in their
determining the amount of light scattered by a plasma membrane
suspension of cells. The measurements are usually at a B. they lack murein in their cell wall
wavelength of C. they contain 80S, as opposed to 70S, ribosomes
D. all of the above
Answer: Option B

16. The isolation of the gonorrhoea - causing


organisms, Neisseria gonorrhoeae,from a clinical
specimen is facilitated by the use of media containing
A. cellulose
B. certain antibiotics
C. succinate
D. none of these
Answer: Option B

17. Anchorage -dependent cells require


A. wettable surface for growth
B. dry surface for growth
C. either (a) or (b)
D. nothing to do with the surface
Answer: Option A

18. Stringent anaerobes can be grown in a media by


taking special measure as
A. boiling the media for several minutes
B. addition of cysteine
C. passing through oxygen-free nitrogen
D. any of these
Answer: Option D

19. Radical shifts in pH can be prevented by


incorporating
A. a buffer
B. an oxidizing agent
C. a reducing agent
D. any of these
Answer: Option A
FUNGI - MOLDS AND YEASTS 9. Water molds belong to which division?
1. The evolutionary record suggests that the first A. Ascomycota
occurrence of multicellularity was in the kingdom B. Basidiomycota
A. Monera C. Chytridiomycota
B. Protista D. Oomycota
C. Fungi Answer: Option D
D. Plantae
Answer: Option B 10. __________ produce basidiospores.
A. Slime molds
2. The number of sets of chromosomes in a dikaryotic B. Dimorphic fungi
cell C. Club fungi
A. is greater than diploid cell D. Sac fungi
B. is lesser than diploid cell Answer: Option C
C. is equal to diploid cell
D. none of these 11. Which of these spores are characteristic of the
Answer: Option C black bread mold Rhizopus?
A. Arthrospore and Ascospore
3. Slime molds differ from the moldy fungi B. Ascospore and Zygospore
A. in their mode of nutrition: phagocytosis for the C. Arthrospore and Blastospore
slime molds; absorptive heterotroph for moldy fungi D. Sporangiospore and Zygospore
B. in that the moldy fungi produce amoeboid or Answer: Option D
flagellated cells and the slime molds do not
C. Both (a) and (b) 12. Which of the following is correct?
D. none of the above A. All members of Sac fungus are also members of
Answer: Option A chemo-lithotrophic autotroph, but not all members of
chemolithotrophic autotroph are members of Sac
4. Which spore is on a club and results from the fusion fungus.
of two nuclei from different strains of the same fungi? B. All members of chemolithotrophic autotroph are also
A. Ascospore members of Sac fungus, but not all members of Sac
B. Basidiospore fungus are members of chemolithotrophic autotroph.
C. Blastospore C. All members of Sac fungus are members of
D. Conidiospore chemolithotrophic autotroph, and all members of
Answer: Option B chemolithotrophic autotroph are members of Sac
fungus.
5. The bread mold Rhizopus stolonifer belongs to which D. none of the above
of the following fungal divisions? Answer: Option C
A. Ascomycota
B. Deuteromycota 13. Which of the following does not represent a human
C. Oomycota disease caused by fungi?
D. Zygomycota A. Ringworm
Answer: Option D B. Cryptococcosis
C. Malaria
6. Saprophytic fungi D. Jock itch
A. engulf their food in order to break it down. Answer: Option C
B. secure their food from dead organic materials
C. both (a) and (b) 14. Fungi that lack partitions (septa) are called
D. none of the above A. ahyphae
Answer: Option B B. coenocytic
C. yeast
7. The fruiting body of a mushroom is called D. conidia
A. sorocarps Answer: Option B
B. basidiocarps
C. ascocarps 15. Select the statement that does not apply to the
D. plasmodiocarps kingdom Fungi
Answer: Option B A. The fungi are eukaryotic, multicellular, ingestive
heterotrophs
8. The amount of phagocytosis done by the B. Some fungi form beneficial interrelationships with
Plasmodium plants
A. is greater than by the water mold mycelium C. The fungal life cycle typically includes a spore stage
B. is lesser than by the water mold mycelium D. Certain fungi are natural sources of antibiotic
C. is equal to by the water mold mycelium substances
D. none of the above Answer: Option A
Answer: Option A
16. The amount of peptidoglycan in the cell walls of a 23. Why are slime molds considered to resemble
mushroom plants?
A. is greater than the amount of chitin in the cell walls A. They can photosynthesize
of a mushroom B. They have cell walls composed largely of cellulose
B. is lesser than the amount of chitin in the cell walls C. They form a threadlike structure
of a mushroom D. They form structures that resemble leaves
C. is exactly or approximately equal to the amount of Answer: Option B
chitin in the cell walls of a mushroom
D. none of the above 24. The most significant reason why fungi are not in
Answer: Option B the kingdom Plantae is that fungi
A. are chemoorganotrophic heterotrophs
17. Fungi are important to food webs because B. have unicellular and multi-cellular forms
A. they are photoautotrophs C. are prokaryotes
B. they have prokaryotic cell structure D. are eukaryotes
C. they serve as key decomposers of dead organic Answer: Option A
matter
D. they generate antibiotics that kill competing plants 25. __________ produce ascospores in an ascus.
and animals A. Slime molds
Answer: Option C B. Dimorphic fungi
C. Club fungi
18. __________ exhibit yeast-like growth at human D. Sac fungi
body temperatures and mold-like growth at room Answer: Option D
temperature.
A. Dimorphic fungi 26. Ecologically fungi are important because
B. Black bread molds A. they act as decomposers and aid in nutrient cycling
C. Sac fungi B. they are a major cause of plant diseases
D. Water molds C. Both (a) and (b)
Answer: Option A D. none of the above
Answer: Option C
19. __________ produce motile sexual and asexual
spores. 27. The basidiomycetes include plant parasites that
A. Slime molds can cause
B. Dimorphic fungi A. rust and smut diseases
C. Club fungi B. candidiasis
D. Water molds C. ergot disease
Answer: Option D D. Dutch elm disease & chestnut blight
Answer: Option A
20. Fungi
A. are photosynthetic 28. A mutualistic association made up of a fungus and
B. are prokaryotic cells a cyanobacterium is called
C. have cell walls of peptidoglycan A. a saprobe
D. secrete extracellular enzymes to breakdown B. a gamete
nutrients C. lichen
Answer: Option D D. dimorphic
Answer: Option C
21. The fungus responsible for ergotism belongs to
which of the following fungal divisions? 29. The thallus of a mold consists of
A. Deuteromycota A. mycelium
B. Oomycota B. spores
C. Zygomycota C. both (a) and (b)
D. Ascomycota D. none of these
Answer: Option D Answer: Option C

22. Fungi in the division Deuteromycota are 30. __________ produce zygospores.
characterized by the fact that A. Slime molds
A. they only reproduce sexually B. Dimorphic fungi
B. they form sexual spores called deuterospores C. Club fungi
C. they are incapable of sexual reproduction D. Black bread molds
D. a method of sexual reproduction has not been Answer: Option D
identified
Answer: Option D
31. Which of the following is/are the sexual spore? 40. Which of the following is not a member of the
A. Ascospores division Ascomycota?
B. Basidiospores A. Aspergillus
C. Both (a) and (b) B. Claviceps
D. None of these C. Penicillium
Answer: Option C D. Rhizopus
Answer: Option D
32. Mushrooms are classified in which of the following
division? 41. Which of the following divisions of fungi produce
A. Ascomycota uniflagellated zoospores?
B. Basidiomycota A. Ascomycota
C. Zygomycota B. Chytridiomycota
D. Deuteromycota C. Oomycota
Answer: Option B D. Zygomycota
Answer: Option B
33. Name the asexual spore(s)?
A. Conidia 42. The number of nuclei per cell in a dikaryotic cell
B. Sporangiospore A. is greater than diploid cell
C. Arthospores B. is lesser than diploid cell
D. All of these C. is equal to diploid cell
Answer: Option D D. none of these
Answer: Option A
34. Water molds form flagellated spores are called
A. dinoflagellates 43. Fungi differ from the other eukaryotic microbes in
B. fruiting bodies having
C. zoospores A. flagella
D. trichocysts B. ergosterol
Answer: Option C C. chloroplasts
D. an undulating membrane
35. The Acrasiomycota differ from the Myxomycota Answer: Option B
A. in their mode of nutrition
B. in their cellular organization 44. Mycorrhizae are mutualistic associations between
C. Both (a) and (b) fungi and
D. none of the above A. bacteria
Answer: Option B B. protozoa
C. unicellular green algae
36. Ergotism is responsible for all of the following D. vascular plants
except Answer: Option D
A. hallucinations
B. Irish potato famine 45. Which of the following is correct?
C. both (a) and (b) A. All members of heterotrophic organisms are also
D. gangrene members of fungi, but not all members of fungi are
Answer: Option D members of heterotrophic organisms
B. All members of fungi are also members of
37. Molds are considered as heterotrophic organisms, but not all members of
A. mesophillic heterotrophic organisms are members of fungi
B. psychotropic C. All members of heterotrophic organisms are
C. thermophillic members of fungi and all members of fungi are
D. all of these members of heterotrophic organisms.
Answer: Option D D. none of the above
Answer: Option B
38. Yeasts may undergo
A. alcoholic fermentation 46. The organism that starts out as amoeboid,
B. homolactic fermentation phagocytic cells and converts to a sluglike
C. heterolactic fermentation pseudoplasmodium that migrates prior to development
D. all of these of a sorocarp belongs to which division?
Answer: Option D A. Ascomycota
B. Chytridiomycota
39. Fungi are important in the production of all of the C. Myxomycota
following commercial products except D. Oomycota
A. bread Answer: Option C
B. beer
C. cheese
D. rubber
Answer: Option D
47. Fungi are generally not 55. A mycelium describes
A. multicellular A. saclike structure where fungal spores are produced
B. containing cell walls B. single fungal strand made up of a long chain of cells
C. photosynthetic C. interwoven mass of numerous hyphae
D. spore-producing D. none of the above
Answer: Option C Answer: Option C

48. The hyphae of mold are 56. Yeast play an important role in the alcohol
A. submerged industry, converting pyruvic acid into carbon dioxide
B. aerial and ethyl alcohol by the process of
C. vegetative A. glycolysis
D. all of these B. respiration
Answer: Option D C. fermentation
D. Krebs cycle
49. The amount of chitin in the cell walls of the Answer: Option C
Plasmodium
A. is greater than the water mold mycelium 57. Ascospores located in asci are found in
B. is lesser than the water mold mycelium A. conidiocarps
C. is equal to the water mold mycelium B. sorocarps
D. none of the above C. ascocarps
Answer: Option C D. plasmodiocarps
Answer: Option C
50. Which of the following structures would not be
associated with fungi?
A. Mitochondria
B. Cell walls
C. Chloroplasts
D. Spores
Answer: Option C

51. Achlorophyllous means


A. leading in chlorophyll
B. lacking chlorophyll
C. unable to use CO2
D. none of these
Answer: Option B

52. An organism in the Deuteromycota has all the


following except
A. asexual spores
B. absorptive nutrition
C. ascospores, basidiospores or zygospores
D. a nucleus
Answer: Option C

53. Anaerobic degradation of proteins brought about


by bacteria and fungi give the products like
A. mercaptans and indole
B. H2S
C. both (a) and (b)
D. None of these
Answer: Option C

54. The terms mycelium and hyphae are associated


with
A. algae
B. fungi
C. protozoa
D. viruses
Answer: Option B
GROWTH AND NUTRITION OF BACTERIA 9. A microbe, which grows at temperatures above 95°
1. Which of the following is not the characteristic of a C is most likely to be
growth curve? A. an archaean
A. Shows development of microbial population under B. a fungus
relatively stable environmental conditions C. a protozoan
B. Plotted with logarithmic numbers D. none of these
C. Graphs numbers of microbes versus time Answer: Option A
D. Each growth curve consists of four distinct phases
Answer: Option D 10. Some organisms can use reduced inorganic
compounds as electron donors and are termed as
2. Generation time of Escherichia coli is A. lithotrophs
A. 20 minutes B. phototrophs
B. 20 hours C. chemotrophs
C. 20 days D. photo-organotrophs
D. 200 hours Answer: Option A
Answer: Option A
11. The total biomass of an organism will be
3. The organism which obtain their energy from determined by the nutrient present in the lowest
chemicals are designated as concentration relative to the organism's requirements
A. prototrophs is a statement of
B. chemotrophs A. Liebig's law of the minimum
C. organotrophs B. Shelford's law of tolerance
D. autotrophs C. quorum sensing
Answer: Option B D. Heisenberg's principle of uncertainty
Answer: Option A
4. Nutrient content and biological structures are
considered as 12. The growth is normally expressed as __________
A. implicit factor for microbial growth in turbidimetric measurement
B. intrinsic factor for microbial growth A. cells per ml
C. processing factor B. cfu/ml
D. none of the above C. optical density
Answer: Option B D. mg N2 /ml
Answer: Option C
5. The organism which grows best above 45°C are
called 13. Which of the following organisms typically get their
A. psychrophilic carbon for biosynthesis from carbon dioxide?
B. mesosphilic A. Glucose-fermenting bacteria (fermentation)
C. thermophilic B. Anaerobic, glucose-respiring bacteria (anaerobic
D. any of these respiration)
Answer: Option C C. Aerobic, glucose-respiring bacteria (aerobic
respiration)
6. Implicit factors D. Ammonia-oxidizing bacteria (chemolithotrophic
A. depend on developing microflora bacteria)
B. can be synergistic Answer: Option D
C. both (a) and (b)
D. none of the above 14. An organism that expends energy to grow in a
Answer: Option C habitat with a low water activity in order to maintain
internal solute concentrations to retain water is
7. Lag phase is also known as A. osmotolerant
A. period of initial adjustment B. acidophile
B. transitional period C. aerotolerant anaerobe
C. generation time D. alkalophile
D. none of these Answer: Option A
Answer: Option A
15. The straightforward method of binary fission
8. Which of the following is used to grow bacterial explains how bacteria
cultures continuously? A. grow in nutrient agar
A. Chemostat B. evolve
B. Coulter Counter C. move
C. Hemostat D. reproduce
D. Petroff-Hausser chamber Answer: Option D
Answer: Option A
16. The equation used to obtain bacterial population by 24. During exponential growth, the growth rate is
binary fission is A. number of generations per unit time
A. N = No2n B. reciprocal of generation time
B. log N/No = (0.3010) n C. both (a) and (b)
C. log(N/No) = nlog 2 D. none of these
D. All of these Answer: Option B
Answer: Option D
25. A spore differs from an actively replicating
17. Bacteria and fungi multiply best bacterium in that the spore
A. below 16°C A. is produced during a process involving asymmetric
B. between 16-38°C division
C. above 38°C B. is able to withstand more extreme conditions than
D. none of these the replicating cell
Answer: Option B C. is metabolically inactive
D. all of the above
18. An organism has an optimal growth rate when the Answer: Option D
hydrogen ion concentration is very high. This organism
is 26. Which of the following has more tolerance for
A. osmotolerant acidic pH (lower pH)?
B. acidophile A. Yeast and moulds
C. neutrophile B. Bacteria
D. aerotolerant anaerobe C. E. coli
Answer: Option B D. None of these
Answer: Option A
19. Which of the following procedures uses a photocell
to measure absorbance of a culture to regulate the 27. The ability of Vibrio fischeri to produce
flow of culture media? bioluminescence chemicals only when a certain
A. Coulter Counter population density has been reached is an example of
B. Hemostat A. Liebig's law of the minimum
C. Petroff-Hausser chamber B. Shelford's law of tolerance
D. Trubidostat C. quorum sensing
Answer: Option D D. Heisenberg's principle of uncertainty
Answer: Option C
20. Organisms, using organic compounds as electron
donors are called 28. Antimicrobial constituents for the microbial growth
A. lithotrophs in foods are
B. phototrophs A. intrinsic factor
C. chemotrophs B. extrinsic factor
D. organotrophs C. both (a) and (b)
Answer: Option D D. none of these
Answer: Option A
21. The reproduction by budding occur in
A. Rhodopseudomonas acidophila 29. The average size of cells during the exponential
B. Hyphomicrobium vulgare phase of growth is
C. Bacillus subtilis A. greater than the lag phase
D. Both (a) and (b) B. lesser than the lag phase
Answer: Option D C. equal to the lag phase
D. none of these
22. Starvation proteins are produced by a culture Answer: Option B
during which of the following segments of the growth
curve? 30. A culture broth tube was very turbid at the surface
A. Lag phase but clear throughout the rest of the tube indicating
B. Exponential phase that the
C. Stationary phase A. organism are aerobes
D. Death phase B. organism should be grown in an anaerobic chamber
Answer: Option C C. organism cannot produce superoxide dismutase
and/or catalase
23. The cell reproduction in bacteria may occur by D. organism cannot tolerate oxygen
A. binary fission Answer: Option A
B. budding
C. fragmentation
D. all of these
Answer: Option D
31. A synergistic effect is observed when 38. A culture broth tube was very turbid at the bottom
A. one organism removes an inhibitory substance for of the tube but clear at the top of the tube indicating
another that the
B. one organism produces a growth factor utilized by A. broth is sterile
another B. organism can tolerate oxygen
C. microbial alteration of pH, aw, Eh favours the C. organism cannot produce superoxide dismutase
growth of another and/or catalase
D. all of the above D. organism should be grown in an anaerobic chamber
Answer: Option D Answer: Option C

32. Generation time is 39. In the exponential phase, the cells and cell mass
A. time required for the population to double A. first increases then decreases
B. time required for the initial adjustment B. decreases
C. obtained by expression t/n, where t = time interval, C. are constant
n = number of generation D. double at a constant rate
D. both (a) and (c) Answer: Option D
Answer: Option D
40. What is the primary source of food for marine life?
33. The term facultative anaerobe refers to an A. Phytoplankton
organism that B. Zooplankton
A. doesn't use oxygen but tolerates it C. Sea weed
B. is killed by oxygen D. Grass
C. uses oxygen when present or grows without oxygen Answer: Option A
when absent
D. requires less oxygen than is present in air 41. Postgates assay technique is useful in determining
Answer: Option C if a cell is viable even though it is
A. incapable of cell division
34. The microorganisms that grow best in a low- B. too small to see
oxygen environment is called a (n) C. an obligate aerobe
A. aerobe D. a thermophile
B. anaerobe Answer: Option A
C. facultative
D. microaerophile 42. What are the extrinsic factors for the microbial
Answer: Option D growth?
A. humidity
35. Pseudomonas pseudoflava can grow as B. storage temperature
A. chemo-lithotrophs C. composition of gas phase
B. chemo-organotrophs D. all of these
C. both (a) and (b) Answer: Option D
D. none of these
Answer: Option C 43. Quantitative measurement of bacterial growth can
be carried out by measuring
36. Which of the following is the suitable temperature A. cell count
range for mesophiles? B. cell mass
A. 20-30°C C. cell activity
B. 25-40°C D. all of these
C. >40°C Answer: Option D
D. None of these
Answer: Option B 44. Organisms such as lactobacilli that have elaborate
requirements for specific nutrients i.e. vitamins and
37. Exponential phase of growth curve of bacteria is of other growth promoting substances, are generally
limited duration because of called as
A. rise in cell density A. fastidious hetrotrophs
B. accumulation of toxic metabolites B. chemo-lithotrophs
C. exhaustion of nutrients C. chemotrophs
D. all of these D. photo-organotrophs
Answer: Option D Answer: Option A
45. The combination of low levels of NaCl, NaNO3 52. Microaerophilic bacteria are those which require
(sodium nitrate), and slightly acid pH can prevent A. 21 % oxygen for growth
multiplication and toxin formation of B. low levels of oxygen for growth (lesser than O2
A. Salmonella present in atmosphere)
B. S. aureus C. oxygen for activation of enzymes
C. C. botulinum D. none of the above
D. all of these Answer: Option B
Answer: Option D
53. The period between inoculation of bacteria in a
46. Bacteria of genus Nitrosomonas use __________ culture medium and beginning of multiplication is
as their electron source. known as
A. ammonia A. stationary phase
B. H2S B. log phase
C. succinate C. lag phase
D. light D. decline phase
Answer: Option A Answer: Option C

47. All organisms require at least small amounts of 54. The term aerotolerant anaerobe refers to an
carbondioxide, However, some can use CO2 as their organism that
sole source of carbon. Such organisms are termed as A. doesn't use oxygen but can grow in the presence of
A. autotrophs oxygen
B. phototrophs B. is killed by oxygen
C. chemotrophs C. requires less oxygen than is present in air
D. photo-organotrophs D. prefers to grow without oxygen
Answer: Option A Answer: Option A

48. The generation time of a culture that produces two 55. The term obligate anaerobe refers to an organism
generations per hour is that
A. greater than that produces three generations per A. doesn't use oxygen but tolerates it
hour B. is killed by oxygen
B. lesser than that produces three generations per C. uses oxygen when present or grows without oxygen
hour when oxygen is absent
C. equal to that produces three generations per hour D. prefers to grow without oxygen
D. none of the above Answer: Option B
Answer: Option A
56. The fragmentation occurs in
49. Autotrophic bacteria are those which A. Streptomyces species
A. make their own food B. Nocardia species
B. form a long chain glycocalyx C. Bacillus subtilis
C. are highly susceptible to penicillin D. None of these
D. produce a blue-green pigment Answer: Option B
Answer: Option A

50. Which of the following organisms typically get their


carbon for biosynthesis from organic compounds?
A. Aerobic, glucose-respiring bacteria (aerobic
respiration)
B. Ammonia-oxidizing bacteria (chemolithotrophic
bacteria)
C. Photosynthetic cyanobacteria (phototrophic
metabolism)
D. None of the above
Answer: Option A

51. An organism is completely dependent on


atmospheric O2 for growth. This organism is
A. osmotolerant
B. acidophile
C. facultative anaerobe
D. obligate aerobe
Answer: Option D
SPIROCHACTER AND ENTEROBACTERIACEAC 9. The bacteria, which is more resistant to adverse
1. Which of the following serotypes of Salmonella does environmental conditions, is
not produce H2S? A. S sonnei
A. S choleraesuis B. S dysenteriae
B. S paratyphi A C. S flexneri
C. Both (a) and (b) D. S boydii
D. None of these Answer: Option A
Answer: Option C
10. The reaction(s) that is/are usually positive in
2. Which of the following is the commonest species of Escherichia coli, is/ are
Salmonella for causing zoonotic disease? A. Glucose fermentation
A. S Indiana B. Indole reaction
B. S newport C. Methyl red reaction
C. S typhimurium D. All of these
D. S enteritidis Answer: Option D
Answer: Option C
31. Which of the following disease is caused by
3. Which of the following media is selective for Yersinia enterocolitica in man?
Salmonella? A. Gastroenteritis
A. Thiosulphate citrate bile salt agar B. Mesenteric lymphadenitis
B. Wilson and Blair's brilliant-green bismuth sulphite C. Septicaemia
agar medium D. All of these
C. Bile salt agar Answer: Option D
D. All of the above
Answer: Option B 32. The most common cause of urinary tract infection
in the community is
4. Xylose lysine deoxycholate (XLD) agar is better A. Klebsiella pneumoniae
selective medium than the deoxycholate citrate agar B. Proteus vulgaris
(DCA) because C. Escherichia coli
A. it is selective D. Citrobacter freundii
B. it imparts better growth Answer: Option C
C. it contains high salt concentration
D. it is less inhibitory to S. Dysentriae and S. flexneri 33. Bipolar staining is characteristic of
Answer: Option D A. Yersinia pestis
B. Proteus mirabilis
5. Which of the following property(ies) is/are seen in C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
the members of family Enterobacteriaceae? D. all of these
A. They are catalase-positive Answer: Option A
B. They are oxidase-negative
C. They ferment glucose 34. Spirochaetes exhibit
D. They reduce nitrates to nitrites A. corkscrew-like rotatory movement
Answer: Option B B. flexion and extension motility
C. translatory motion
6. Dysentery may be caused by D. all of the above
A. enteropathogenic Escherichia coli Answer: Option D
B. enteroinvasive E. coli
C. enterotoxigenic E. coli 35. Species of Shigella which is predominant in India is
D. verotoxigenic E. coli A. S sonnei
Answer: Option C B. S dysenteriae
C. S boydii
7. Which of the following(s) bacteria belong to the D. S flexneri
family Entero-bacteriaceae? Answer: Option D
A. Yersinia
B. Shigella 36. Which of the following species/subspecies of
C. Salmonella Klebsiella produce indole?
D. All of these A. K pneumoniae subspecies rhinoscleromatis
Answer: Option D B. K pneumoniae subspecies aerogenes
C. K pneumoniae subspecies pneumoniae
8. Transmission of bubonic plague is by D. K oxytoca
A. rat flea Answer: Option D
B. inhalation
C. ingestion 37. Primarily human pathogenic bacteria is/are ,
D. all of these A. Salmonella typhi
Answer: Option A B. S paratyphi A
C. S paratyphi B
D. all of these
Answer: Option D

38. The bacteria which produce(s) β-galactosidase


is/are
A. Citrobacter
B. Enterohacter
C. Serratia
D. all of these
Answer: Option D

39. Which of the following property(ies), shown by the


organisms belong(s) to the family Enterobacteriaceae?
A. They are catalase-positive
B. They are oxidase-negative
C. They ferment glucose
D. All of these
Answer: Option D

40. In Widal test, the significant titre for O agglutinins


is generally
A. 1:50 or more
B. 1:100 or more
C. 1:150 or more
D. 1:2.00 or more
Answer: Option B

41. Selective media for the isolation of Shigella is


A. Hektoen enteric agar
B. Salmonella-Shigella agar
C. Xylose lysine deoxycholate agar
D. All of these
Answer: Option D

42. The technique(s), used for the assay of heat-labile


enterotoxin produced by Escherichia coli, is/are
A. Steroid production in Yl mouse adrenal cell culture
B. Morphological changes in Chinese hamster ovary
C. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay
D. All of these
Answer: Option D

43. Yersinia enterocolitica and Y. pestis can be


differentiated on the basis of which of the following
tests?
A. Decarboxylation of ornithine
B. Fermentation of sucrose and cellobiose
C. Motility at 22°C
D. All of these
Answer: Option D

44. Example of the pathogenic bacteria is/are


A. L biflexa
B. Lparva
C. Leptospira interrogans
D. All of these
Answer: Option C

45. The media which serve(s) as enrichment media for


Salmonella is/are
A. Tetrathionate broth
B. Brilliant green tetrathionate broth
C. Selenite-F broth
D. All of these
Answer: Option D
VIRUSES FROM ANIMAL AND PLANTS 7. The nucleocapsid is covered by an outer membrane
1. Animal viruses with capsids displaying helical like structure called
symmetry include A. envelope
A. measles and mumps B. covering
B. influenza C. membronocapsid
C. rabies D. all of these
D. all of these Answer: Option A
Answer: Option D
8. Which type of interferon is produced by virus-
2. Icosahedral viruses are generally infected cells?
A. polio viruses A. α
B. adeno viruses B. β
C. both (a) and (b) C. Both (a) and (b)
D. none of these D. None of these
Answer: Option C Answer: Option C

3. Negative strand ssRNA viruses need to have a 9. Fluorescence microscopy can be used for the
preformed replicase when they invade a mammalian diagnosis of
cell because they A. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
A. use it to terminate transcripts when they copy host B. Herpes simplex encephalitis
cell mRNA C. Rabies
B. have to make a positive strand copy that can be D. All of these
translated Answer: Option D
C. use it to modify host enzymes that are recruited for
viral replication 10. Viral matrix proteins are
D. none of the above A. exposed on the surface of the virus
Answer: Option B B. found mainly on naked viruses
C. anchor the envelope of enveloped viruses
4. Which of the following reflects the correct order of D. part of the nucleoprotein core of viruses
events that take place during the multiplication of a Answer: Option C
virus?
A. Attachment, penetration, maturation, biosynthesis, 11. Mumps vaccine is prepared from the cultures of
release A. chick fibroblasts
B. Penetration, attachment, biosynthesis, maturation, B. African green monkey cells
release C. healthy calves
C. Attachment, penetration, biosynthesis, maturation, D. sheep
release Answer: Option A
D. Attachment, release, biosynthesis, maturation,
penetration 12. The microbes which are most likely to be
Answer: Option C completely dependent on a plant or animal host are
A. viruses
5. What can be coated to the plastic dish if an ELISA is B. bacteria
performed to directly detect polio virus? C. fungi
A. Patient serum D. algae
B. Anti-polio antibody Answer: Option A
C. Polio capsid protein
D. Colored substrate 13. The two major components of viruses are
Answer: Option B A. fat and protein
B. nucleic acid and protein
6. Influenza virus undergoes antigenic shift resulting in C. carbohydrate and nucleic acid
major antigenic changes by which of the following D. fat and carbohydrate
mechanisms? Answer: Option B
A. Somatic recombination of heavy and light chains
B. Expression of several different capsule types 14. The transcription of the viral nucleic acid into
C. Changing the receptor binding canyon that docks mRNA is not necessary in case of
with the host receptor A. RNA viruses
D. Reassortment of RNA segments from different B. ds DNA viruses
influenza viruses C. ss DNA viruses
Answer: Option D D. all of these
Answer: Option A
15. West Nile virus can cause a disease in human 22. Intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies are found in cells
beings that may be transmitted from an infected bird infected with
to a person by a mosquito. This is an example of A. Rabies virus
A. endogenous infection B. Vaccinia virus
B. fomite borne disease C. Fowlpox virus
C. arthropod borne disease D. all of these
D. nosocomial infection Answer: Option D
Answer: Option C
23. What is the function of positive strand in double
16. What does the positive strand in double stranded stranded RNA viruses?
RNA viruses stands for? A. Synthesis of protein
A. rRNA B. Production of ribosomes
B. tRNA C. Both (a) and (b)
C. mRNA D. None of these
D. None of these Answer: Option A
Answer: Option C
24. Which of the following virus is transmitted by the
17. Which of the following characteristics would not be respiratory route?
used to classify viruses? A. Rhinovirus
A. Type of cell wall structure B. Coronavirus
B. Type of nucleic acid C. Measles virus
C. Presence of an envelope D. All of these
D. Symmetry Answer: Option D
Answer: Option A
25. The predominant lipid substance found in the viral
18. Interanuclear inclusion bodies are found in cells envelope is
infected with A. phospholipids
A. Parvoviruses B. glycolipids
B. Herpesviruses C. neutral fat
C. Adenoviruses D. all of these
D. all of these Answer: Option A
Answer: Option D
26. Supercoiling refers to the extra turns in the
19. The reovirus and influenza virus contain structure of ds DNA due to the action of
A. 10 different segments of dsRNA and 8 different A. DNA gyrase
segments of ssRNA respectively B. DNA pyrase
B. 8 different segments of dsRNA and 10 different C. RNA gyrase
segments of ssRNA respectively D. RNA pyrase
C. 5 different segments of dsRNA and 7 different Answer: Option A
segments of ssRNA respectively
D. 7 different segments of dsRNA and 5different 27. The tissue structure deteriorates as the virus
segments of ssRNA respectively multiplies. This deterioration is called
Answer: Option A A. aneuploidy
B. protopathic effect
20. Which type of interferon is produced by T C. cytopathic effect
lymphocytes? D. none of these
A. α Answer: Option C
B. β
C. γ 28. The structural abnormality of cells is termed as
D. γ and β A. hyperplasia
Answer: Option C B. anaplasia
C. metastasis
21. Transfer of infection from cell to cell occurs mainly D. all of these
by direct transfer of virions via Answer: Option B
A. plasmodesmata
B. cytodesmata 29. The penetration of animal viruses into attached
C. protodesmata cells occur by mechanisms consisting of engulfment of
D. none of these whole virions by the cells in a phagocytic process
Answer: Option A called
A. vitropexis
B. viropexis
C. ectodesmata
D. vivopexis
Answer: Option B
30. Viropexis takes place in the phagocytic vacuoles
and is due to the action of enzymes
A. DNA gyrase
B. lysosomal protease
C. lysosomal lipase
D. all of these
Answer: Option B

31. Negri bodies are found in cells infected with


A. Paramyxoviruses
B. Vaccinia virus
C. Fowlpox virus
D. Rabies virus
Answer: Option D

32. The uncontrolled proliferation of cells is termed as


A. hyperplasia
B. anaplasia
C. metastasis
D. all of these
Answer: Option A

33. Which of the following virus is transmitted by


genital route?
A. Papillomaviruses
B. Herpes simplex virus type 2
C. Hepatitis B virus
D. All of these
Answer: Option D

34. The RNA sarcoma viruses, the most strongly


transforming viruses may transform which of the
following cells in a culture?
A. fibroblasts
B. myoblasts
C. iris epithelial
D. all of these
Answer: Option D

35. Plant viruses penetrate host cells through transient


ores called
A. ectodesmata
B. endodesmata
C. cytodesmata
D. protodesmata
Answer: Option A
ENERGY RELEASE AND CONSERVATION 8. The amount of energy (cal/mole) in an ATP molecule
1. Organisms can synthesize ATP by oxidative produced by a cell from glucose by fermentation is
phosphorylation when they A. greater than aerobic metabolism
A. ferment B. less than aerobic metabolism
B. oxidize glucose to pyruvate C. exactly or approximately equal to aerobic
C. pass electrons from the oxidation of chlorophyll metabolism
through an electron transport system D. none of the above
D. pass electrons to oxygen through an electron Answer: Option C
transport system containing cytochromes
Answer: Option D 9. The enzymes for glycolysis are located
A. on the inner surface of the cell membrane
2. How many molecules of carbon dioxide will be given B. on the inner membrane of the mitochondrion
off during ten turns of the Krebs cycle? C. on the outer membrane of the chloroplast
A. 10 D. in the cytoplasm
B. 20 Answer: Option D
C. 30
D. 40 10. Glucose can be broken down to pyruvate by
Answer: Option B A. Entner-Doudoroff pathway
B. tricarboxylic acid cycle
3. In cellular metabolism, O2 is used C. both (a) and (b)
A. to provide electrons for photophosphorylation D. none of these
B. in glycolysis Answer: Option A
C. as a terminal electron acceptor
D. in the Krebs cycle 11. In lactic acid fermentation, the final electron
Answer: Option C acceptor would be
A. fructose
4. In glycolysis, ATP is created by B. pyruvate
A. photophosphorylation C. glucose
B. the chemiosmotic mechanism D. acetyl-CoA
C. substrate level phosphorylation Answer: Option B
D. the pentose phosphate pathway
Answer: Option C 12. The amount of ATP that can be obtained by
complete oxidation of a glucose by a bacterium is
5. Suppose a eukaryotic cell had a mutation that A. greater than by a yeast cell
prevented the production of cytochrome c. As a result B. lesser than by a yeast cell
of this mutation, which of the following processes C. exactly or approximately equal to by a yeast cell
would not occur? D. none of these
A. Cellular respiration Answer: Option A
B. Photosynthesis
C. Mitosis 13. Which of the following is accomplished in
D. Cell wall synthesis chemiosmosis?
Answer: Option A A. The oxidation of ATP
B. The oxidation of water
6. Which of the following best explains about the C. The oxidation of NADH
usefulness of the production of ethanol in yeast cells D. The oxidation of CO2
under anaerobic conditions? Answer: Option C
A. Ethanol keeps the electron transport system
functioning 14. A yeast or fungal cell produces how many net ATP
B. Yeast would be unable to activate the enzymes of molecules per molecule of glucose when completely
the Krebs cycle without ethanol oxidized?
C. The process generates oxygen, which is required for A. 32
glycolysis B. 34
D. The process regenerates NAD+, which is required C. 36
for glycolysis D. 38
Answer: Option D Answer: Option C

7. The final electron acceptor in the electron transport 15. Before most molecules can enter the Krebs citric
chain is acid cycle, they must be converted to
A. CoQ A. citric acid
B. a cytochrome B. oxaloacetic acid
C. FMN C. NADH or FADH
D. oxygen D. acetyl-CoA
Answer: Option D Answer: Option D
16. How many oxygen molecules are required in the 23. Which one of the following is not produced in any
fermentation of one molecule of glucose to ethanol and of the steps of glycolysis?
CO2? A. NAD+
A. 0 B. NADH
B. 1 C. ADP
C. 2 D. ATP
D. 36 Answer: Option A
Answer: Option A
24. The number of ATP molecules produced from one
17. Most bacterial fermentations yield how many net glucose molecule by a bacterium producing lactic acid
ATP molecules per molecule of glucose? is
A. 1 A. greater than producing ethanol
B. 2 B. lesser than producing ethanol
C. 4 C. approximately equal to producing ethanol
D. 6 D. none of these
Answer: Option B Answer: Option C

18. The amount of ATP produced by a cell from glucose 25. Which of the following is the most complete
when metabolizing it by fermentation means is definition of fermentation?
A. greater than by aerobic metabolism A. Oxidation of glucose with organic molecules serving
B. lesser than by aerobic metabolism as electron acceptors
C. exactly or approximately equal to by aerobic B. Complete catabolism of glucose to CO2 and HO2
metabolism C. Production of energy by substrate-level
D. none of these phosphorylation
Answer: Option B D. Production of ethyl alcohol from glucose
Answer: Option A
19. Which one of the following is produced in the
greatest numbers during one turn of the Krebs cycle? 26. The enzymes that catalyze the reactions of the
A. NADH Krebs cycle are found in which subcellular organelle of
B. Acetyl-CoA eukaryotes?
C. FADH2 A. Mitochondrion
D. ATP B. Chloroplast
Answer: Option A C. Ribosome
D. Endoplasmic reticulum
20. Aerobic respiration differs from anaerobic Answer: Option A
respiration in which of the following respects?
A. Anaerobic respiration is glycolysis 27. Fatty acids are oxidized to acetyl-CoA by which of
B. Aerobic respiration requires the electron transport the following pathways?
chain A. β-oxidation
C. The final electron acceptors are different B. Entner-Doudoroff
D. Aerobic respiration produces less ATP C. pentose phosphate pathway
Answer: Option C D. Embden-Meyerhof pathway
Answer: Option A
21. For each pair of electrons passing from NADH
located inside the mitochondria to oxygen, how many
ATP molecules can be generated?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: Option C

22. In anaerobic respiration, the final electron acceptor


can be
A. oxygen
B. nitrate
C. pyruvate
D. acetyl-CoA
Answer: Option B
ENZYME REACTION 9. To a living organism, which of the following has the
1. The ability of Vibrio fischeri to convert chemical greatest amount of available energy per molecule?
energy directly into radiant energy in bioluminescence A. ATP
is an example of __________ at work. B. ADP
A. Shelford's law of tolerance C. AMP
B. Leibig's law of the minimum D. H2O
C. the first law of thermodynamics Answer: Option A
D. the third law of thermodynamics
Answer: Option C 10. Which of the following is the best evidence for the
lock and key theory of enzyme action?
2. The ability of a competitive inhibitor to bind to an A. Compounds similar in structure to the substrate
active site in an allosterically controlled enzyme is inhibit enzyme activity
__________ than the ability of a non-competitive B. Enzymes are found in living organisms and speed up
inhibitor to bind to an active site in the same certain reactions
allosterically controlled enzyme. C. Enzymes speed up reactions by definite amounts
A. greater D. Enzymes determine the direction of a reaction
B. lesser Answer: Option A
C. approximately equal
D. half 11. In the reaction, C6H12O6+ 6O2 → 6CO2 + 6H2O
Answer: Option A + energy, which component is being oxidized?
A. C6H12O6
3. The ability of FADH to be oxidized is __________ B. O2
than the ability of FAD to be oxidized. C. CO2
A. greater D. H2O
B. lesser Answer: Option A
C. approximately equal
D. half 12. The fact that β-oxidation of fatty acids, occurs in
Answer: Option A the mitochondria whereas fatty acid synthesis occurs
in the cytoplasmic matrix, is an example of regulation
4. An endergonic reaction is one that of enzymatic activity by the __________ mechanism.
A. requires energy in order to proceed A. compartmentation
B. releases energy for work B. induction
C. gives off much heat C. competitive inhibition
D. looses energy D. repression
Answer: Option A Answer: Option D

5. Reduction is the 13. In the reaction, C6H12O6 + 6O2 → 6CO2 + 6H2O


A. loss of proton + energy, which component is being reduced?
B. gain of electron A. O2
C. loss of electron B. CO2
D. gain of protons C. H2O
Answer: Option B D. Energy
Answer: Option A
6. If the Keq for an enzymatic reaction is greater than
1, the reaction 14. The affinity of an enzyme for its substrate, when
A. will be endergonic the enzyme has a Km of 0.50 M will be __________
B. can not occur without the input of energy than the affinity of an enzyme for its substrate when
C. both (a) and (b) the enzyme has a Km of 0.05 M.
D. none of these A. greater
Answer: Option D B. lesser
C. approximately equal
7. An exergonic reaction is one that D. half
A. requires energy to proceed Answer: Option B
B. releases energy for work
C. gives off much heat 15. Anthranilate synthase, the first enzyme of
D. looses energy tryptophan biosynthesis after the branch point shows
Answer: Option B feedback inhibition and repression due to
A. L-tryptophan
8. If the free energy change (ΔG) in a reaction is a B. D-L-tryptophan hydantoin
negative value, it indicates that the C. L-serine
A. reaction releases energy D. pyruvate
B. reaction absorbs energy Answer: Option A
C. reaction is in negative direction
D. reaction is in positive direction
Answer: Option A
16. A substrate binds to its enzyme at a location called 23. Denaturation of an enzyme refers to the
the __________ site. A. improper arrangement of the enzyme in a metabolic
A. coenzyme pathway
B. substrate B. loss of the enzymes proper shape
C. active C. formation of the enzymes proper shape
D. polypeptide D. formation of a new isozyme for that enzyme
Answer: Option C Answer: Option B

17. Hydrogen and oxygen release enormous amounts


of energy when they react. Yet, hydrogen and oxygen
can be mixed together in a balloon and nothing will
happen. Why?
A. Competitive inhibitors are blocking the reaction from
occurring in the active site
B. There must be contaminating elements in the
balloon that prohibit the reaction from occurring
C. The energy of activation to form the transition-state
complex is too high to allow the reaction to occur
without assistance
D. all of the above
Answer: Option A

18. Adenosine triphosphate is a type of


A. fatty acid
B. amino acid
C. nucleotide
D. steroid
Answer: Option C

19. An enzyme that is always produced, regardless of


the presence of substrates or the end products, is
called
A. a constitutive enzyme
B. an isoenzyme
C. a repressible enzyme
D. an allosteric enzyme
Answer: Option A

20. About 7.3 kcal/mole are released when


A. glucose is converted to CO2 and H2O
B. NAD+ is reduced to NADH
C. ATP hydrolysis is coupled to sucrose synthesis
D. the terminal phosphate bond of ATP is broken by
hydrolysis
Answer: Option A

21. The ability of CTP to bind to aspartate


carbamoyltransferase and shut down the synthesis of
more CTP is an example of
A. enzyme induction
B. enzyme repression
C. feedback inhibition of enzyme activity
D. none of these
Answer: Option C

22. Oxidation is the


A. loss of proton
B. gain of electron
C. loss of electron
D. gain of protons
Answer: Option C
ALGAE 7. All algae possess
1. The number of members of the division Phaeophyta A. nuclei
that live in freshwater habitats B. chloroplasts
A. is greater than the number of members of the C. Both (a) and (b)
division Chloro-phyta that live in freshwater habitats D. none of these
B. is lesser than the number of members of the Answer: Option C
division Chlorophyta that live in freshwater habitats
C. is equal to the number of members of the division 8. Algae is a nonvalid taxinomic term that refers to
Chlorophyta that live in freshwater habitats A. eukaryotic organisms that have chlorophyll a and
D. none of the above produce O2
Answer: Option B B. well developed cellular structure including a
conducting system
2. Which of the following is correct? C. Both (a) and (b)
A. All members of photolithotrophic autotrophs are also D. none of the above
members of algae, but not all members of algae are Answer: Option A
members of photolithotrophic autotrophs
B. All members of algae are also members of 9. Which of the following algal divisions is
photolithotrophic autotrophs, but not all members of characterized by possession of chlorophylls A and B,
photolithotrophic autotrophs are members of algae paramylon as the energy storage material, and the
C. All members of photolithotrophic autotrophs are presence of a pellical instead of a cell wall?
members of algae, and all members of algae are A. Chlorophyta
members of photolithotrophic autotrophs B. Euglenophyta
D. No member of photolithotrophic autotrophs is a C. Pyrrophyta
member of algae D. Chrysophyta
Answer: Option B Answer: Option B

3. Bioluminescence is a phenomenon associated with 10. Laminarin is an energy storage material


A. chrysophyta characteristic of
B. phaeophyta A. chlorophyta
C. pyrrophyta B. chrysophyta
D. chlorophyta C. phaeophyta
Answer: Option C D. pyrrophyta
Answer: Option C
4. Which of the following algal divisions is
characterized by possession of chlorophylls A and B, 11. Chlamydomonas and Volvox are similar because
starch as the energy storage material, cellulosic cell A. they both are motile
walls and live in freshwater and marine habitats? B. they are members of the Chlorophyta
A. Chlorophyta C. Both (a) and (b)
B. Chrysophyta D. none of these
C. Phaeophyta Answer: Option C
D. Pyrrophyta
Answer: Option A 12. Characteristics used to place algae into divisions
include all of the following except
5. Which algal division is divided up into three main A. form of storage material
groups consisting of the golden-brown algae, the B. flagella number and location
yellow-green algae and the diatoms? C. accessor pigments used in photosynthesis
A. Chlorophyta D. all of the above
B. Chrysophyta Answer: Option D
C. Phaeophyta
D. Pyrrophyta 13. Which algal division never produces motile,
Answer: Option B flagellated cells among any of its members?
A. Chlorophyta
6. Zooxanthellae are algal symbiont that live within B. Chrysophyta
coral reef animals. These algae belong to C. Phaeophyta
A. chlorophyta D. Rhodophyta
B. chrysophyta Answer: Option D
C. pyrrophyta
D. rhodophyta 14. Starch is an energy storage material characteristic
Answer: Option C of
A. chlorophyta
B. chrysophyta
C. phaeophyta
D. rhodophyta
Answer: Option D
15. Number of flagella produced by motile cells in 23. Algae are found in all of the following places except
A. members of the phaeophyta is greater than A. oceans
members of the Oomycota B. soils
B. members of the Oomycota is greater than members C. lakes and streams
of the Phaeophyta D. associates with fungi
C. members of the Phaeophyta is approximately equal Answer: Option B
to members of the Oomycota
D. none of the above 24. Which of the following best describes the algae
Answer: Option C known as diatoms?
A. Cells have intricate shells of silicon dioxide with two
16. The algae Chlamydomonas demonstrates a halves
complex life cycle that switches between haploid and B. Cells are encased in rigid walls composed of
diploid forms. This life cycle is called cellulose coated with silicon
A. the sexual-asexual exchange C. Cells have flagella and a light-detecting eye spot
B. the transposition cycle D. Cells contain carotenoid pigments as well as
C. an alternation of generations chlorophyll A and B
D. algal transformation Answer: Option A
Answer: Option C
25. Chrysolaminarin is an energy storage material
17. The number of flagella produced by motile cells in characteristic of
A. members of the Rhodophyta is greater than A. chlorophyta
members of the Phaeophyta B. chrysophyta
B. members of the Phaeophyta is greater than C. phaeophyta
members of the Rhodophyta D. rhodophyta
C. members of the Rhodophyta is exactly or Answer: Option B
approximately equal to members of the Phaeophyta
D. none of the above
Answer: Option B

18. Algae are classified into 6 groups, technically


known as
A. categories
B. divisions
C. genera
D. domains
Answer: Option B

19. The __________ is the vegetative body of algae.


A. mycelium
B. plasmodium
C. pseudoplasmodium
D. thallus
Answer: Option D

20. Agar, which is the solidifying agent in many


bacterial culture media, is part of the cell wall of
A. chlorophyta
B. chrysophyta
C. pyrrophyta
D. rhodophyta
Answer: Option D

21. The kelps are algae found in


A. chlorophyta
B. chrysophyta
C. phaeophyta
D. pyrrophyta
Answer: Option C

22. Frustules made of silica are characteristic of


A. euglenoids
B. diatoms
C. desmids
D. seaweeds
Answer: Option B
TRANSCRIPTION 8. The sigma factor
1. Which of the following enzyme is used for synthesis A. is responsible for recognizing the termination
of RNA under the direction of DNA? sequence
A. RNA polymerase B. provides the catalytic function of cleaving off
B. DNA ligase pyrophosphates during mRNA synthesis
C. DNA polymerase C. recognizes the promotor
D. RNA ligase D. accomplishes DNA restriction
Answer: Option A Answer: Option C

2. What is the usual sequence of a Pribnow box? 9. The synthesis of mRNA based on a DNA template is
A. AUAUA called
B. TATAAT A. DNA replication
C. UUUUU B. transcription
D. TTGACA C. translation
Answer: Option B D. DNA restriction
Answer: Option B
3. Which of the following component of RNA
polymerase facilitates the recognition of promoter 10. Recognition/binding site of RNA polymerase is
sequences? called
A. a subunit A. receptor
B. b subunit B. promoter
C. s subunit C. facilitator
D. c subunit D. terminator
Answer: Option C Answer: Option B

4. Which of the following statement defines a replicon? 11. Which of the following enzyme(s) is/are required
A. A DNA molecule that encodes pili for conjugation for lactose fermentation?
B. A DNA molecule that is able to replicate and be A. Transacetylase
maintained B. β-galactosidase
C. A DNA template which is used in transcription C. Galactoside permease
D. The enzyme responsible for transposition D. All of these
Answer: Option B Answer: Option D

5. Which eukaryotic RNA polymerase makes tRNA's? 12. Which of these catalyzes the synthesis of RNA from
A. RNA polymerase 1 a DNA template?
B. RNA polymerase 2 A. DNA gyrase
C. RNA polymerase 3 B. DNA ligase
D. Any of these C. DNA polymerase
Answer: Option C D. RNA polymerase
Answer: Option D
6. The location of first hexameric sequence typically
found in pro-karyotic promoters is 13. A level of regulation, demonstrated by the
A. at the transcription start site termination of transcription if tryptophan is abundant,
B. approximately 35 bases upstream of the by the tryptophan operon in E.coli cells is called
transcription start site A. activation
C. approximately 10 bases upstream of the B. attenuation
transcription start site C. corepression
D. approximately 25 bases upstream of the D. desiccation
transcription start site Answer: Option B
Answer: Option B
14. An mRNA transcript of a gene contains
7. Which of the following is a product of transcription? A. a start codon
A. mRNA B. a stop codon
B. tRNA C. a terminator
C. rRNA D. all of these
D. all of these Answer: Option D
Answer: Option D
15. Which of the following proteins first binds to TATA
box during transcription?
A. TF II A
B. TF II D
C. TF II B
D. RNA polymerase
Answer: Option B
16. The components found in all prokaryotic
transcription terminators is
A. a poly-U region
B. Rho factor
C. a hairpin structure
D. none of these
Answer: Option C

17. A specific __________ factor helps RNA


polymerase bind to late promoters and transcribe late
genes.
A. sigma
B. beta
C. delta
D. gamma
Answer: Option A
DNA SEQUENCING, MUTATION AND REPAIR C. Old strands are methylated while new strands are
1. Genetic variations are not
A. temporary D. New strands are methylated while old strands are
B. influenced by the environment not
C. stable Answer: Option C
D. not heritable
Answer: Option C 9. Which of the following bacterial genome was
sequenced first?
2. The mutation which will not affect the length of a A. E. coli
protein is, B. S. pneumoniae
A. nonsense mutation C. H. influenzae
B. missense mutation D. S. thermophilus
C. frameshift mutation Answer: Option C
D. all of these
Answer: Option B 10. A nonsense mutation may result into
A. an abnormal elongation of a polypeptide
3. Changes in which of the following characterizes B. a large deletion within the reading frame of a gene
mutations? C. a premature termination of the synthesis of a
A. Phenotype polypeptide
B. Genotype D. modification of mRNA
C. Both (a) and (b) Answer: Option C
D. None of these
Answer: Option C 11. Which of the following mutation affects only a
single nucleotide?
4. Which of the following(s) is/are steps in excision A. Aerial mutation
repair mechanisms? B. Site mutation
A. Excision C. Point mutation
B. Incision D. Regional mutation
C. Ligation Answer: Option C
D. All of these
Answer: Option D 12. When mutations involve vital functions so that the
mutants are nonviable, it is a
5. The whole-genome shotgun sequencing approach A. nonsense mutation
depends primarily on B. lethal mutation
A. rapidly sequencing thousands of small randomly C. transversion
cloned fragments D. none of these
B. methodical sequencing a few large cloned fragments Answer: Option B
of DNA
C. sequencing the bacterial chromosome while it is still 13. A mutagen is defined as
intact A. an enzyme that repairs mutations
D. all of the above B. a chemical or physical agent that induces mutations
Answer: Option A C. an inhibitor of gene modification
D. a molecule which stabilizes DNA thus prevents
6. What was the first eukaryotic chromosome to be mutations from occurring
sequenced? Answer: Option B
A. Yeast chromosome III
B. Yeast chromosome XI 14. The DNA sequences of rRNA genes can be used to
C. Arabidopsis chromosome IV A. assess relatedness of eukaryotes but not
D. None of these prokaryotes
Answer: Option A B. obtain a tentative identification of a new
microorganism
7. Which of the following mutations arise without C. predict the pulsed field gel pattern of a
exposure to external agents? microorganism
A. Spontaneous mutations D. predict whether a bacteria will be gram-positive or
B. Analogous mutations gram-negative
C. Induced mutations Answer: Option B
D. None of these
Answer: Option A 15. A nonsense mutation introduced into the DNA
sequence of a gene may
8. Due to which of the following DNA repair A. cause premature termination of the mRNA
mechanisms, one is able to distinguish newly B. shorten the length of the protein encoded by the
synthesized DNA strands from older one? gene
A. New strands do not contain cytosine bases C. have no effect on the transcript or protein made
B. New strands are lower in molecular size D. cause a shift in reading frame
Answer: Option B
16. Which of these mechanisms for thymine dimers
repair lead to mutations?
A. Excision repair
B. Photoreactivation
C. SOS repair
D. Never leads to mutation
Answer: Option C

17. Frame shift mutation may occur as a result of


A. formation of a thymine-dimer
B. deamination of cytosine to uracil
C. conversion of guanine to xanthine
D. none of the above
Answer: Option D

18. Thymine dimers are directly repaired with the help


of visible light by process known as
A. phosphorylation
B. excision repair
C. photosynthesis
D. photoreactivation
Answer: Option D

19. The promoter on an expression vector used to


overproduce proteins in bacteria is
A. a bacterial promoter
B. expressed both in bacteria and mammalian cells
C. not a regulated promoter
D. the natural promoter of the gene being cloned
Answer: Option A

20. Differentiation of four different bases in automated


sequencing systems is that each base has
A. different radioactive tag
B. cytosine at start
C. unique antibody bound to it
D. distinctive fluorescent tag
Answer: Option D
ANTIBODY C. IgG
1. The class of immunoglobulins which can cross the D. IgM
placenta is Answer: Option C
A. IgM
B. IgG 9. Which is not a function of IgG?
C. IgA A. Major antibody in serum
D. IgD B. First antibody type produced against an antigen
Answer: Option B during the primary antibody response
C. Activates or fixes complement
2. Self reactive antibodies are not found in significant D. Involved in opsonization
concentration in normal serum because Answer: Option B
A. it is impossible to generate a self-reactive antibody
B. self reactive B cells are killed by CD8 T cells 10. J chain is present in
C. B cells that are stimulated via their surface bound A. IgA
antibody in the absence of T cell help to commit B. IgM
suicide C. Both (a) and (b)
D. self reactive B cells switch to IgA which is all D. IgE
secreted and not present in serum Answer: Option C
Answer: Option C
11. Heat-labile class of immunoglobulins include
3. Simulation of which of the following will lead to A. IgA
appearance of first antibody to appear following B. IgE
stimulation by an antigen? C. IgG
A. IgM D. IgM
B. IgA Answer: Option B
C. IgE
D. IgG 12. Which of the following (s) is/are function (s) of Fc
Answer: Option A fragment of IgG?
A. It determines catabolic rate
4. Antigen binding sites of an immunoglobulin are B. It binds complement
located in C. It is related to passage of IgG across the placental
A. light chain alone barrier
B. heavy chain alone D. All of these
C. Fc region of the antibody Answer: Option D
D. Fab regions of the antibody
Answer: Option D 13. Which of the following is the phylogenetically
oldest immunoglobulin?
5. Which of the following mediates Type I A. IgE
hypersensitivity reaction? B. IgM
A. IgE C. IgG
B. IgG D. All are similar
C. IgM Answer: Option B
D. IgD
Answer: Option A 14. The secretary component of sIgA is
A. made by plasma cells that secrete dimeric IgA
6. Which of the following theory of antibody production B. added to dimeric IgA by the M cell
is most widely accepted? C. formed by cleavage of an epithelial cell receptor
A. Side chain theory used to transport the dimeric IgA across the epithelial
B. Clonal selection theory cell
C. Direct template theory D. made by T cells
D. Indirect template theory Answer: Option C
Answer: Option B
15. Anti-Rh antibodies are
7. Which is the most efficient complement fixing class A. IgG type
of antibody? B. IgA type
A. IgE C. IgE type
B. IgA D. IgD type
C. IgM Answer: Option A
D. IgG
Answer: Option C 16. Which is not a function of IgA?
A. Protect mucosal surfaces
8. The class of immunoglobulin, most abundant in B. Fix complement
body is C. Protect eyes
A. IgD D. Agglutinate antigen
B. IgE Answer: Option B
RETROVIRIDAE 9. Which of the following is transmembrane pedicle
1. HIV can infect antigen of HIV-I?
A. Microglial cells A. gp 41
B. M (membranous) cells B. gp 140
C. CD4 + T lymphocytes C. gp l20
D. All of these D. gp 36
Answer: Option D Answer: Option A

2. Parasitic infection/s frequently observed in HIV 10. The confirmatory test(s) for HIV infection is/are
disease is / are. A. virus isolation
A. cryptosporidiosis B. detection of p24 antigen
B. toxoplasmosis C. detection of viral nucleic acid
C. isosporiasis D. all of the above
D. all of these Answer: Option D
Answer: Option D
11. A viral load test detects the
3. What is the average incubation period for A. provirus of HIV in infected cells
development of AIDS? B. total amount of virus in the infected host
A. One year C. number of viruses being released by each infected
B. Five years cell
C. Ten years D. amount of bacteriophage being produced by E. coli
D. Twenty years cells
Answer: Option C Answer: Option A

4. The commonest bacterial infection in HIV disease 12. Fungal infection/s frequently observed in HIV
is/are disease is /are:
A. mycobacterial infection A. candidiasis
B. salmonella infection B. cryptococcosis
C. bartonella infection C. aspergillosis
D. all of these D. all of these
Answer: Option A Answer: Option D

5. Viral infections frequently observed in HIV disease is 13. The screening test/s for diagnosis of HIV infection
/are is/are
A. herpes simplex A. ELISA
B. varicella- zoster B. Latex agglutination
C. cytomegalo virus C. Dot blot assay
D. all of these D. all of these
Answer: Option D Answer: Option D

6. The commonest opportunistic infection in AIDS 14. The problem(s) associated with development of a
patient in India is vaccine against HIV is/are
A. cryptosporidiosis A. antibody alone may be insufficient
B. toxoplasmosis B. rapid mutation of HIV
C. tuberculosis C. virus can spread from cell to cell by fusion to
D. cryptococcosis produce syncytia
Answer: Option C D. all of these
Answer: Option D
7. HIV belongs to the family retroviridae and sub-
family 15. The commonest mode of transmission of HIV is
A. Oncovirinae A. parenteral
B. Lentivirinae B. perintal
C. Spumavirinae C. sexual
D. None of these D. oral
Answer: Option B Answer: Option C

8. HIV or Human Immunodeficiency Virus is considered 16. The cells most oftenly infected by HIV are
unique because each virus contains: A. Null cells
A. more than 100 copies of the viral genome B. CD8 + T lymphocytes
B. a genome made up of both DNA and RNA C. CD4 + T lymphocytes
components D. None of these
C. a viral enzyme known as reverse transcriptase Answer: Option C
D. sticky proteins that allow it to bind tightly to host
cells
Answer: Option C
17. Which of the following is the spike antigen of HIV-
I?
A. gp 120
B. gp 140
C. gp 36
D. gp 41
Answer: Option A
NUCLEIC ACID STRUCTURE C. Autoinducer
1. In DNA sequencing, the primer D. None of these
A. specifies where the sequence ends Answer: Option C
B. specifies where the sequence begins
C. both (a) and (b) 10. The DNA that actually codes for a protein's primary
D. generates variety of different sized fragments structure in eukaryotes is
Answer: Option B A. the entire gene
B. portions of the gene called introns
2. The chromosome of almost all bacteria is in the C. portions of the gene called exons
shape of D. the promoter
A. an open circle Answer: Option C
B. helix
C. a closed circle 11. Stem and loop structures are
D. a linear chromosome A. proteins that help partially denatured enzymes to
Answer: Option C recover their native configuration
B. structures in DNA caused by inverted repeats
3. In which of the following uracil is present? C. structures at the ends of linear eukaryotic DNA
A. RNA molecules
B. DNA D. the bonds between adjacent DNA nucleotides in the
C. Both (a) and (b) same strand
D. None of these Answer: Option B
Answer: Option A

4. To which of the following adenine always binds?


A. Guanine
B. Cytosine
C. Thymine
D. None of these
Answer: Option C

5. Guanine always binds to


A. cytosine
B. guanine
C. thymine
D. none of these
Answer: Option A

6. The function of ribosomes within the cell is


A. to produce ATP
B. to ferment carbohydrates
C. to synthesize proteins
D. all of these
Answer: Option C

7. According to base pairing rules the bases of one


strand match-up with the bases of the second strand
of DNA and the two strands are said to be
A. complementary
B. oppositely charged
C. identical
D. none of these
Answer: Option A

8. RNA that is complementary to a segment of another


RNA molecule to which it will bind is known as
A. missense RNA
B. antisense RNA
C. nonsense RNA
D. none of these
Answer: Option B

9. Which is not an essential part of a two-component


phosphorelay system?
A. Response regulator
B. Sensor kinase
STAPHYLOCOCCUS 9. Which of the following Staphylococcal haemolysins
1. The bacteria which is novobiocin resistant is does not cause lysis of human RBCs?
A. Staphylococcus aureus A. β haemolysin
B. S epidermidis B. γ haemolysin
C. S saprophyticus C. α haemolysin
D. None of these D. δ haemolysin
Answer: Option C Answer: Option C

2. The bacteria which are inhibited on crystal violet 10. The toxin of Staphylococcus aureus that may result
(1:500,000) blood agar, is/are into scalded skin syndrome is
A. Streptococci A. Enterotoxin
B. Staphylococci B. Leucocidin
C. Both (a) and (b) C. Epidermolytic toxin
D. None of these D. Haemolysin
Answer: Option B Answer: Option C

3. Which of the following Staphylococcal haemolysins 11. The bacteria which can ferment mannitol
does not possess leucocidal activity? anaerobically is
A. α haemolysin A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. γ haemolysin B. S epidermidis
C. β haemolysin C. S saprophyticus
D. δ haemolysin D. None of these
Answer: Option C Answer: Option A

4. The genus/genera that belongs to the family 12. Protein A is found in cell wall of
Micrococcaceae is A. coagulase-negative staphylococci
A. Micrococcus B. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Staphylococcus C. Micrococci
C. Planococcus D. none of these
D. All of these Answer: Option B
Answer: Option D
13. The most common cause of cystitis (after
5. Identify the bacteria which is oxidase-negative and Escherichia coli) in healthy sexually active women is
catalase-positive? A. Staphylococcus saprophyticus
A. Staphylococcus B. Proteus mirabilis
B. Streptococcus C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C. Neisseria D. Klebsiella pneumoniae
D. Pseudomonas Answer: Option A
Answer: Option A
14. Which of the following can be used to detect
6. Coagulase-reacting factor is necessary for clumping factor?
A. slide coagulase test A. tube coagulase test
B. tube coagulase test B. slide coagulase test
C. precipitation test C. precipitation test
D. none of these D. none of these
Answer: Option B Answer: Option B

7. Bacteria which produces coagulase is 15. Most strains of Staphylococcus aureus indicate
A. S epidermidis A. phosphatase production
B. S saprophyticus B. a golden-yellow pigment
C. S aureus C. β-haemolysis on sheep blood agar
D. S hominis D. all of the above
Answer: Option C Answer: Option D

8. Staphylococcal food poisoning usually manifests


itself following ingestion of contaminated food after
A. 2-6 hours
B. 8-12 hours
C. 12-18 hours
D. 18-36 hours
Answer: Option A
MYCOBACTERIUM 9. Which of the following species of Mycobacterium is
1. Which of the following bacteria is susceptible to positive for nitrate reduction test?
thiophen-2-carboxylic acid hydrazide? A. M chelonei
A. M bovis B. M fortuitum
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C. M chelonei D. All of these
D. M fortuitum Answer: Option D
Answer: Option A
10. The bacteria which is microaerophilic on primary
2. Culture of tubercle bacilli may be positive if number isolation, is
of bacteria in the specimen is A. M fortuitum
A. as few as 1-4 per ml B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B. as few as 5-9 per ml C. M bovis
C. as few as 10-100 per ml D. none of these
D. as few as 125-200 per ml Answer: Option C
Answer: Option C
11. Which of the following bacteria is sensitive to
3. Example of a Saprophytic bacteria is pyrazinamide?
A. M xenopi A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B. Msmegmatis B. M bovis
C. Mycobacterium chelonei C. M fortuitum
D. M marinum D. None of these
Answer: Option B Answer: Option A

4. Eugonic growth on Lowenstein-Jensen medium is 12. The bacteria which cause(s) tuberculosis in man
produced by is/are
A. M bovis A. M bovis
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C. Both (a) and (b) C. M africanum
D. None of the above D. All of these
Answer: Option B Answer: Option D

5. The causative agent of Buruli ulcer is 13. Which of the phage types of Mycobacterium
A. M chelonei tuberculosis occurs most frequently in India?
B. M marinum A. Type A
C. M fortuitum B. Type B
D. M ulcerarts C. Type C
Answer: Option D D. Type I
Answer: Option D
6. False negative Mantoux test is observed in
A. early tuberculosis 14. Members of the genus Mycobacterium are
B. Advanced tuberculosis A. gram-positive
C. Severe malnutrition B. acid-fast
D. All of these C. non-motile
Answer: Option D D. all of these
Answer: Option D
7. Humans become infected with Mycobacterium
tuberculosis most frequently by 15. A positive Mantoux test indicates an area of
A. inhalation induration of
B. ingestion A. 4-9 mm in diameter
C. contact B. 1-4 mm in diameter
D. inoculation C. 10 mm or more in diameter
Answer: Option A D. None of these
Answer: Option C
8. Rough and buff colonies on LJ medium are
characteristic of
A. M chelonei
B. M bovis
C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D. M fortuitum
Answer: Option C
BACTERIOPHAGES C. the envelope is coded by the viral nucleic acids, but
1. The process by which phage reproduction is initiated the proteins come from the host's membrane proteins
in lysogenized culture is called D. the envelope and its imbedded proteins are derived
A. infection from the host's membranes
B. integration Answer: Option B
C. repression
D. induction 9. Which of the following bacteria can be typed by
Answer: Option D phage typing method?
A. Staphylococcus aureus
2. Area of lysis on a bacterial lawn culture produced by B. Salmonella typhi
a phage is known as C. Vibrio cholerae
A. pock D. All of these
B. plaque Answer: Option D
C. pox
D. all of these 10. __________ protein keeps the prophage dormant
Answer: Option B and prevents virus reproduction.
A. Operator
3. The procapsid is assembled with the aid of B. Promotor
__________ proteins. C. Repressor
A. ladder D. Enhancer
B. framing Answer: Option C
C. scaffolding
D. form 11. __________ is specifically able to have a long-
Answer: Option C term relationship with the host known as lysogeny.
A. Temperate virus
4. Which of the following is/are synthesized from late B. Adsorbed virus
mRNA? C. RNA phage
A. Phage structural proteins D. DNA phage
B. Proteins that help with phage assembly without Answer: Option A
becoming part of the virion structure
C. Proteins involved in cell lysis and phage release 12. Which of the following properties is due to
D. All of the above lysogenic conversion by phages?
Answer: Option D A. Toxin production in Corynebacterium diphtheriae
B. Toxin production in Clostridium botulinum types C
5. Which capsid symmetry is exhibited by most of the and D
phages? C. Antigenic variation in Salmonella anatum
A. Helical D. All of the above
B. Icosahedral Answer: Option D
C. Complex
D. None of these 13. T-even phage binding to E. coli probably involves
Answer: Option B A. electrostatic interaction
B. hydrophobic interaction
6. Contractile sheath of the tail is present in which of C. covalent bonds
the following phages? D. all of these
A. T3 Answer: Option A
B. T2
C. P22 14. The filamentous bacteriopohage infect male E. coli
D. All of these cells by attaching to
Answer: Option B A. lipopolysaccharide
B. the cell wall
7. One of the first enzymes synthesized by many C. the tip of the pilus
bacteriophage is __________ , an RNA-dependent D. the cell membrane
RNA polymerase. Answer: Option C
A. RNA transcriptase
B. RNA polymerase 15. A bacterial defense mechanism against
C. RNA ligase bacteriophage is called
D. RNA replicase A. concatamerization
Answer: Option D B. polymerization
C. restriction
8. In viruses with envelopes D. lysogeny
A. the envelope and the embedded proteins are Answer: Option C
encoded by the viral nucleic acid
B. the envelope is derived from the host but it contains
embedded proteins coded by the viral nucleic acid
POLYMERASE CHAIN REACTION 8. The template for PCR is
1. Which of the following infection(s) can be diagnosed A. RNA
by the use of polymerase chain reaction? B. single stranded DNA
A. HIV-1 and HIV-2 viruses C. double stranded DNA
B. Hepatitis B virus D. none of these
C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis Answer: Option C
D. All of these
Answer: Option D

2. Polymerase chain reaction basically consists of


A. two steps
B. three steps
C. four steps
D. five steps
Answer: Option B

3. The PCR/sequencing approach to rRNA is most likely


to give information about
A. the species to which the bacteria are most closely
related
B. morphology of the bacterium
C. the type of energy metabolism the bacterium has
D. whether the bacterium is motile
Answer: Option A

4. The efficiency of amplification in PCR in later cycles


is reduced due to
A. reduction in substrate concentration
B. insufficient enzyme and time to synthesize mass
quantity of DNA
C. build up of PCR product which competes with
primers for hybrid formation
D. all of these
Answer: Option D

5. The original enzyme(s) used in PCR reaction is/are


known as
A. E. coli DNA polymerase
B. E. coli RNA polymerase
C. Taq polymerase
D. all of these
Answer: Option A

6. RNA populations can also be used as PCR templates


after reverse transcription into
A. c DNA
B. t RNA
C. m DNA
D. r RNA
Answer: Option A

7. The cloning step in PCR/sequencing analysis of


microbial communities is necessary for
A. the amplification process
B. preventing contamination by outside DNA
C. separating the different rRNA gene sequences in the
mixture
D. none of these
Answer: Option C
IMMUNE RESPONSE 9. Overactivity of Th cells may result into
1. Which of the following lymphokine(s) is secreted by A. autoimmunity
delayed-type-hypersensitivity cells? B. optimal antibody response
A. Macrophage stimulating factor C. optimal cell-mediated response
B. Migration inhibiting factor D. none of the above
C. Macrophage activating factor Answer: Option A
D. All of the above
Answer: Option D

2. Which of the following is an example of autoimmune


disease?
A. Rheumatoid arthritis
B. Systemic lupus erythematosus
C. Polyarteritis nodosa
D. All of the above
Answer: Option D

3. Immunosuppressive agent(s) is/are


A. Cyclosporine
B. Methotrexate
C. Anti-lymphocytic serum
D. All of these
Answer: Option D

4. Induction of tolerance mechanism(s) is/are


A. suppression
B. clonal deletion
C. clonal anergy
D. all of these
Answer: Option D

5. Lens antigens of the eye are


A. cross-reacting antigens
B. sequestrated antigens
C. neoantigens
D. none of these
Answer: Option B

6. Negative phase is observed in


A. secondary humoral response
B. primary humoral response
C. both (a) and (b)
D. none of the above
Answer: Option A

7. Method(s) that can be used to detect CMI is/are


A. migration inhibition
B. target cell destruction factor test
C. skin test for delayed hypersensitivity
D. all of the above
Answer: Option D

8. In which of the following cell mediated immunity


(CMI) participates?
A. Delayed hypersensitivity reaction
B. Graft versus host reaction
C. Allograft rejection
D. All of the above
Answer: Option D
BACILLUS
1. McFadyean's reaction is employed for the
presumptive diagnosis of
A. anthrax
B. tetanus
C. typhoid
D. all of these
Answer: Option A

2. The bacteria, used to examine the efficacy of


autoclave, is
A. B polymyxa
B. B brevis
C. Bacillus stearothermophilus
D. B megaterium
Answer: Option C

3. Antibodies to which of the following antigens of


Bacillus anthracis are protective?
A. Capsular polypeptide
B. Somatic polysaccharide
C. Anthrax toxin
D. None of these
Answer: Option C

4. The test(s) which can be used to differentiate


anthrax bacilli from anthracoid bacilli is/are
A. presence of medusa-head colony
B. presence of capsule
C. susceptibility to gamma phage
D. all of these
Answer: Option D

5. Medusa head appearance of the colonies may be


due to
A. Bacillus anthracis
B. Proteus mirabilis
C. Clostridium tetani
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Answer: Option A

6. Food most often associated with emetic type of food


poisoning caused by Bacillus cereus, is
A. Meat
B. Rice
C. Milk
D. Eggs
Answer: Option B

7. Koch's postulates were satisfied for the first time


with
A. Clostridium tetani
B. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
C. Bacillus anthracis
D. Salmonella typhi
Answer: Option C

8. Ascoli's thermoprecipition test helps in confirming


the laboratory diagnosis of
A. tetanus
B. anthrax
C. typhoid
D. cholera
Answer: Option B
PSEUDOMONAS AND BURKHOLDERIA
1. Human pathogenic bacteria is/are
A. B pseudomallei
B. Burkholderia mallei
C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D. All of these
Answer: Option D

2. Which of the following biochemical reaction is


characteristic of Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
A. Production of pyocyanin
B. Oxidative utilization of glucose
C. Oxidase production
D. All of these
Answer: Option D

3. Pseudomonas aeruginosa can be diagnosed from the


pigment, known as
A. Pyocyanin
B. Pyoverdin
C. Pyomelanin
D. Pyorubrin
Answer: Option A

4. The most popular method for typing of


Pseudomonas aeruginosa is
A. antibiogram
B. serotyping
C. bacteriophage
D. pyocin
Answer: Option D

5. Which of the following infection(s) can be caused by


Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
A. Urinary tract infection
B. Wound and burn infection
C. Respiratory tract infection
D. All of these
Answer: Option D

6. The substance(s) which can be produced by strains


of Pseudomonas aeruginosa is/are
A. Exotoxins A and S
B. Elastase
C. Haemolysins
D. All of these
Answer: Option D
RHABDOVIRIDAE, CALICIVIRIDAE AND
ASTROVIRIDAE
1. Which of the following viral infections is associated
with the development of hydrophobia?
A. Rabies
B. Influenza
C. Polio
D. Hepatitis
Answer: Option A

2. Which of the following viruses is star-shaped in


outline and transmitted by the faecal-oral route?
A. Astrovirus
B. Calicivirus
C. Hepatitis E virus
D. Hepatitis D virus
Answer: Option A

3. What is the shape of rabies virus?


A. Spherical
B. Polygonal
C. Bullet-shaped
D. Tubular
Answer: Option C

4. The species of animals which is most susceptible to


rabies infection is
A. dog
B. cat
C. fowl
D. cow
Answer: Option B

5. Which of the following clinical specimens can be


used for the demonstration of rabies antigen by direct
immunofluorescence antemortem?
A. Salivary smears
B. Corneal smears
C. Conjunctival smears
D. All of these
Answer: Option D

6. The mode of transmission of hepatitis E is through


A. infected syringes and needles
B. faecally contaminated drinking water
C. sexual intercourse
D. none of these
Answer: Option B

7. Which of the following viral agents can cause


diarrhea?
A. Rotaviruses
B. Norwalk virus
C. Astroviruses
D. All of these
Answer: Option D

8. The virus(es) which has club-shaped peplomers and


infects the respiratory tract is/are
A. Coronavirus
B. Astroviruses
C. Norwalk agent
D. All of these
Answer: Option A
Not Included:
Physical and Chemical Agents
Microbiology of Soils
Microbiology of Waste Water
Microbiology of Foods
Sauerkraut and Pickles
Fish and Sea Foods
Wine and Beer
Miscellaneous Foods
Antimicrobial Chemotherapeutic Agents
Microbes in Aquatic Environment
Industrially Useful Microbial Processes
Fruits and Vegetables
Milk and Milk Products
Poultry, Egg and Meat
Heated Canned Foods
Food Illness