Eng 10701 14 1920b

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NOTIFICATION
AIR FORCE COMMON ADMISSION ONLINE TEST (AFCAT- 02/2019) FOR FLYING BRANCH
AND GROUND DUTIES (TECHNICAL AND NON-TECHNICAL)/ NCC SPECIAL ENTRY/
METEOROLOGY ENTRY
FOR COURSES COMMENCING IN JUL 2020
Date for submission of Online Applications: 01 JUN 19 to 30 JUN 19
(Indian Air Force career website https://careerindianairforce.cdac.in or https://afcat.cdac.in)
1. Indian Air Force invites Indian citizens (Men and Women) to be part of this elite force as
Group A Gazetted Officers in Flying and Ground Duty (Technical and Non-Technical) branches.
Online examination will be conducted on 24 Aug 19 and 25 Aug 19 for AFCAT exam.
2. Candidates are to ensure their eligibility for the examination, as follows:-
(a) Candidates applying for the examination should ensure that they fulfill all the
eligibility conditions for admission to the examination. Their admission at all the stages of
examination viz. Written examination and SSB test will be purely provisional, subject to their
satisfying the prescribed eligibility conditions. If on verification at any time before or after the
written examination or AFSB Testing, it is found that they do not fulfil any of the eligibility
conditions, their candidature will be cancelled by the IAF.
(b) Mere issue of Admit card/Call up letter to the candidate will not imply that
his/her candidature has been finally accepted by Indian Air Force.
3. Entry, Branch, Course Number and Vacancies.
Entry Branch PC/SSC Course Number Vacancies*
AFCAT Entry Flying SSC for Men & 208/20F/SSC/M & W SSC - 60
Women
Ground Duty PC for Men and 207/20T/PC/M AE(L)
(Technical) SSC for Men & 207/20T/SSC/M & W PC- 28, SSC- 42
{Aeronautical Engineer Women
AE(M)
Electronics and
PC- 12, SSC- 20
Aeronautical Engineer
Mechanical}
Ground Duty (Non- PC for Men & SSC 207/20G/PC/M Admin: PC- 16, SSC-24
Technical) for Men & Women 207/20G/SSC/M & W
{Administration, Edn: PC- 6, SSC-10
Education}
NCC Special Flying PC for Men & SSC 208/20F/PC/M 10% seats out of CDSE
Entry for Men & Women 208/20F/SSC/M & W vacancies for PC and
10% seats out of
AFCAT vacancies for
SSC
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Meteorology Ground Duty (Non- PC for Men & SSC 207/20G/PC/M Meteorology:
Entry Technical) for Men & Women 207/20G/SSC/M & W
PC-10, SSC-14
*Disclaimer. Vacancies indicated are tentative and subject to change without notice. Actual intake would
depend on organisational requirements, various cadre control mechanisms, availability of training slots
and actual number of vacancies accruing in Jan 2020. No representation in this regard will be
entertained.
Note: There is no intake conducted for Logistics and Accounts branches for AFCAT 02/2019 for
course commencing in July 2020.
4. Type of Commission.
(a) Permanent Commission (PC) for Men. Candidates joining as PC officers would
continue to serve till the age of superannuation in their respective branches as per their rank.
(b) Short Service Commission (SSC) for Men & Women.
(i) The engagement period for Flying Branch (Men and Women) SSC Officers
is fourteen years from the date of Commissioning (Non extendable).
(ii) The initial tenure for Ground Duty (Technical & Non-Technical) SSC
Officers would be for a period of ten years. An extension of four years may be
granted subject to service requirements, availability of vacancies, willingness,
suitability and merit.
5. Eligibility Conditions.
(a) Nationality. Candidate must be a citizen of India.
(b) Age.
(i) Flying Branch through AFCAT and NCC Special Entry: 20 to 24 years as
on 01 Jul 2020 i.e. born between 02 July 1996 to 01 July 2000 (both dates
inclusive).Upper age limit for candidates holding valid and current Commercial Pilot
License issued by DGCA (India) is relaxable upto 26 years i.e. born between
02 July 1994 to 01 July 2000 (both dates inclusive).
(ii) Ground Duty (Technical & Non-Technical) Branch: 20 to 26 years as on

01 Jul 2020 i.e. born between 02 July 1994 to 01 July 2000 (both dates inclusive).
(iii) Marital Status: Candidates below 25 years of age must be unmarried at the
time of commencement of course. Widows/Widowers and divorcees (with or without
encumbrances) below 25 years of age are also not eligible. A candidate who marries
subsequent to the date of his application though successful at SSB or medical will
not be eligible for training. A candidate who marries during the period of training shall
be discharged and will be liable to refund all expenditure incurred on him by the
Government. Married candidates above 25 years of age are eligible to apply but
during training period they will neither be provided married accommodation nor can
they live out with family.
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(iv) The date of birth accepted by the IAF is that entered in the Matriculation or
Secondary School Leaving Certificate or in a certificate recognised by an Indian
University as equivalent to Matriculation or in an extract from a Register of
Matriculates maintained by a University, which extract must be certified by the proper
authority of the University or in the Higher Secondary or an equivalent examination
certificate. No other document related to age like horoscopes, affidavits, birth
extracts from Municipal Corporation, service records and likewise will be accepted.
(v) Sometimes the Matriculation/ Higher Secondary Examination Certificate does

not show the date of birth, or only shows the age by completed years or completed
years and months. In such cases a candidate must possess a self-attested/ certified
copy of a certificate from the Headmaster/ Principal of the Institution from where
he/she passed the Matriculation/ Higher Secondary Examination showing the date of
his/her birth or exact age as recorded in the Admission Register of the Institution.
(vi) Candidates should note that only the Date of Birth as recorded in the
Matriculation/Higher Secondary Examination Certificate or an equivalent certificate
on the date of submission of application will be accepted by the IAF and no
subsequent request for its change will be considered or granted.
(vii) The candidates should exercise due care while entering their Date of
Birth. If on verification at any subsequent stage, variation is found in their date
of birth from the one entered in their Matriculation or equivalent examination
certificate, will render them disqualified.
(c) Educational Qualifications.
(i) Flying Branch. Candidates should have mandatorily passed with a minimum
of 60% marks each in Maths and Physics at 10+2 level and
(a) Graduation with minimum three years degree course in any discipline
from a recognized University with a minimum of 60% marks or equivalent.
OR
(b) BE/B Tech degree (Four years course) from a recognised University with
a minimum of 60% marks or equivalent.
OR
(c) Candidates who have cleared Section A & B examination of Associate
Membership of Institution of Engineers (India) or Aeronautical Society of India
from a recognised University with a minimum of 60% marks or equivalent.
(ii) Ground Duty (Technical) Branch.
(aa) Aeronautical Engineer (Electronics) {AE (L)}. Candidates with a

minimum of 60% marks each in Physics and Mathematics at 10+2 level and a
minimum of four years degree graduation/integrated post-graduation
qualification in Engineering/ Technology from recognized University OR
cleared Sections A and B examination of Associate Membership of Institution
of Engineers (India) or Aeronautical Society of India or Graduate membership
examination of the Institution of Electronics and Telecommunication Engineers
by actual studies with a minimum of 60% marks or equivalent in the following
disciplines:-
(aaa) Communication Engineering.

(aab) Computer Engineering/Technology.
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(aac) Computer Engineering & Application.

(aad) Computer Science and Engineering/Technology.
(aae) Electrical and Computer Engineering.
(aaf) Electrical and Electronics Engineering.
(aag) Electrical Engineering.
(aah) Electronics Engineering/ Technology.
(aaj) Electronics Science and Engineering.
(aak) Electronics.
(aal) Electronics and Communication Engineering.
(aam) Electronics and Computer Science.
(aan) Electronics and/or Telecommunication Engineering.
(aao) Electronics and/or Telecommunication Engineering (Microwave).
(aap) Electronics and Computer Engineering.
(aaq) Electronics Communication and Instrumentation Engineering.
(aar) Electronics Instrument & Control.
(aas) Electronics Instrument & Control Engineering.
(aat) Instrumentation & Control Engineering.
(aau) Instrument & Control Engineering.
(aav) Information Technology.
(ab) Aeronautical Engineer (Mechanical) {AE (M)}. Candidates with a

minimum of 60% marks each in Physics and Mathematics at 10+2 level and a
minimum of four years degree graduation/integrated post-graduation
qualification in Engineering/Technology from recognised University OR
cleared Sections A & B examination of Associate Membership of Institution of
Engineers (India) or Aeronautical Society of India by actual studies with a
minimum of 60% marks or equivalent in the following disciplines:-
(aaa) Aerospace Engineering.

(aab) Aeronautical Engineering.
(aac) Aircraft Maintenance Engineering.
(aad) Mechanical Engineering.
(aae) Mechanical Engineering and Automation.
(aaf) Mechanical Engineering (Production).
(aag) Mechanical Engineering (Repair and Maintenance).
(aah) Mechatronics.
(aaj) Industrial Engineering.
(iii) Ground Duty (Non-Technical) Branches.
(aa) Administration. Graduate Degree (Minimum three years degree

course) in any discipline from a recognised university with a minimum of 60%
marks or equivalent or cleared section A & B examination of Associate
Membership of Institution of Engineers (India) or Aeronautical Society of India
from a recognised university with a minimum of 60% marks or equivalent.
(ab) Education. MBA/ MCA or MA/ MSc degree in English/ Physics/

Mathematics/ Chemistry/ Statistics/ International relations/ International
Studies/ Defence Studies/ Psychology/ Computer Science/ IT/ Management/
Mass Communication/ Journalism/ Public Relation with a minimum of 50%
marks in aggregate of all papers put together in Post-Graduation (Minimum
two years programme) and 60% marks in graduation, (both recognized by
UGC/ Competent Accreditation Authority). For integrated courses (single
degree without permission to exit and lateral entry), the minimum duration
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must be as per prevailing UGC guidelines with a minimum of 50% marks in

aggregate of all papers put together.
(iv) NCC Special Entry (Flying Branch). NCC Air Wing Senior Division ‘C’
certificate acquired on or after 02 Jun 17 is mandatory. Candidates should have
mandatorily passed with a minimum of 60% marks each in Maths and Physics at
10+2. Graduates with minimum three years degree course in any discipline from a
recognized University with a minimum of 60% marks or equivalent. OR BE/B Tech
degree (Four years course) from a recognised University with a minimum of 60%
marks or equivalent OR Candidates who have cleared Section A & B examination of
Associate Membership of Institution of Engineers (India) or Aeronautical Society of
India from a recognised University with a minimum of 60% marks or equivalent.
(v) Meteorology. Post Graduate Degree in any Science stream/ Mathematics/

Statistics/Geography/Computer Applications/Environmental Science/ Applied
Physics/ Oceanography/Meteorology/Agricultural Meteorology/Ecology &
Environment /Geo-physics/Environmental Biology with minimum of 50% marks in
aggregate of all papers put together (Provided Maths and Physics were
studied at Graduation Level with a minimum of 55% marks in each).
(vi) Note.
(aa) LLB qualified and integrated/ dual degree candidates may get an
opportunity to be employed on legal duties of the IAF (after
commissioning).
(ab) In case the candidates are awarded grades/ CGPA instead of marks,
the conversion of grades/ CGPA to percentage of marks would be based
on the procedure certified by the University from where they have obtained the
degree. In case the University does not have any scheme for converting
CGPA to percentage conversion certificate, CGPA will be converted into 10
points scale and multiplied by 10 to get equivalent percentage.
(ac) Candidates who are studying in the final year/ semester Degree course
and are yet to pass the final year degree examination can also apply provided
candidate should not have any present backlog and should have secured a
minimum of 60% marks up to the last semester/year for which results have
been declared up to the time of submission of application. They are required
to submit proof of passing the Degree Examination by 30 May 2020 and no
request for extending this date will be entertained on the grounds of late
conduct of basic qualifying University Examination, delay in declaration of
results or any other ground whatsoever.
(ad) Candidates who have failed the Computerised Pilot Selection System
(CPSS)/ Pilot Aptitude Battery Test (PABT) in an earlier attempt or a Flight
Cadet suspended from flying training at Air Force Academy will not be eligible
to apply in Flying Branch.
(d) Candidates who were admitted to an earlier course at the National Defence
Academy, Indian Military Academy, Air Force Academy, Indian Naval Academy, Officers’
Training Academy, Chennai and Officer’s Training Academy Gaya but were removed on
grounds of indiscipline are ineligible to apply.
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(e) Candidates who are debarred by the Ministry of Defence from holding any type of
commission in the Defence Services shall not be eligible for AFCAT and if admitted, their
candidature will be cancelled.
(f) Candidates who have been convicted on criminal charges and those who are still
stuck in a criminal case are not eligible to apply.
6. Physical and Medical Standards. Guidelines with regard to physical and medical
standards for candidates are as provided in the Appendix ‘A’ to the notification.
7. How to Apply. Aspirants for IAF are required to apply online by using the link
https://careerindianairforce.cdac.in, or https://afcat.cdac.in. Aadhaar Card is mandatory for
online registration. Detailed instructions for filling in the online application form are appended
below:-
(a) Applicants need to exercise utmost care while filling in the online application. In case
any information is found to be incorrect, the candidature is liable to be cancelled at any
stage of the selection process. Please verify the correctness of information entered in
all the fields before proceeding with the “Make Payment” option. Applicants will not
be able to edit the previous details entered after the selection of “Course
Preferences” step and after the “Make Payment” step.
(b) If an applicant has submitted more than one application, only the latest
submitted application form against a particular Aadhaar Number, will be considered
for issue of Admit Card. However, the fee deposited while filling additional
applications will not be refundable.
(c) Applicants will be required to complete the process of Online Application form which
will have the following sequences. Details in tabular form are given in Para 7 (h) below:-
(i) Click “CANDIDATE LOGIN’’ on the Home page- leads to AFCAT Sign-in.
(ii) In the next page, applicants to click “NOT YET REGISTERED? REGISTER
HERE”.
(iii) Sign Up: Creation of Log-in ID and applicant will receive a password in his/her
registered email id.
(iv) After successful registration, sign-in with registered email id and system
generated password.
(v) Reset Password- Log-Out (candidates must remember their login ID and
password for future use during the examination process).
(vi) Fresh Log-in.
(vii) Selection of Entry: “AFCAT”; “NCC SPECIAL ENTRY FOR FLYING

BRANCH”.
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(viii) Click “INSTRUCTIONS”. Read Instructions carefully.
(ix) Acknowledgement of having read and understood instructions- Check box to

proceed to next stage.
(x) Click “APPLICATION FORM FILLING”

(aa) Personal Information. Fill in details.
Click “SAVE AND CONTINUE” to proceed to next stage
(ab) Qualification Details. Fill in details.
(ac) Course Preference. Fill in details.
(ad) Communication Details. Fill in details.
(ae) Upload Documents. Upload Photo, Signature & Thumb Impression
(size of each jpg/ jpeg file to be between 10 and 50 kb). Application with
inappropriate images will be considered invalid and the candidature will be
rejected along with other counterfeit entries, whenever detected at any stage
of the selection process.
(af) Exam City Selection. Select from drop-down menu
(ag) Declaration
(xi) Click “MAKE PAYMENT”- Online (applicable only for AFCAT)
(xii) Click “PAYMENT STATUS” to view whether payment is successful. If
Registration Number is displayed, it implies that the payment is successful.
(xiii) For AFCAT Candidates Only: After 02 Aug 2019 click “DOWNLOAD
ADMIT CARD” to download your Admit Card from the website https://afcat.cdac.in
and you will also receive admit card on your registered email ID. If the candidate
does not receive his/her admit card in their registered email id or is not able to
download the same from the mentioned website, he/she is required to enquire from
AFCAT Query Cell at C-DAC, Pune. (Phone Nos: 020-25503105 or 020-25503106).
E-Mail queries may be addressed to afcatcell@cdac.in.
(d) While filling in the online application, the applicant must ensure that he/ she meets all
the eligibility conditions including the educational qualification which must conform to the
guidelines/ norms of the relevant educational board/ UGC, as reviewed and updated from
time to time. The applicants are advised to keep the relevant documents ready, as details
are to be filled in as per matriculation and other educational certificates. The educational
qualifications filled by the applicant should correspond to the Entry Level Qualification
(ELQ) as given in Para 5 (c) (i) to (iii) of this notification. If any of the eligibility conditions is
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not met, the candidature is liable to be rejected at any stage during the selection process
and the onus of the same would be on the candidate himself/ herself. With regard to
Integrated degree programmes, the following are the prevailing UGC guidelines:-
(i) Integrated/ Dual Degree. As per the guiding principles laid down by UGC, if
the Integrated/ Dual Degree Programmes intend to offer two separate degrees with
an option for interim exit or lateral entry, the duration of the Integrated/ Dual Degree
Programme must not be less than the duration equal to the sum total of the
prescribed duration of the two degrees that are being combined in the programme.
All such programmes should carry the nomenclature of Integrated/ Dual Degree
(Name of the first degree) - (Name of the final degree); both the degrees awarded
under the programme should be individually and separately recognised as equivalent
to corresponding degrees and not as one single integrated degree).
(ii) Integrated Single Degree. If the Integrated Programme intends to offer a

single degree without permission to exit and lateral entry, the programme duration
may be relaxed by not more than 25% of the sum total of the prescribed duration of
the two degrees that are being combined to make the single integrated degree.
(e) Before filling in the online application, an applicant should have the following
scanned images saved as jpg/ jpeg files (size of each file to be between 10 and 50 kb)
(i) Recent passport size colour photograph
(ii) Signature
(iii) Thumb impression (left thumb for male applicants and right thumb for female
applicants) - created by pressing on ink stamp pad and then on plain blank paper
(f) While filling in the online application form, applicants are required to click “SAVE
AND CONTINUE” to complete the process of each part. If the mandatory fields (marked by
a red asterisk (*)) are not filled, the “SUBMIT” button would not be enabled for the
applicants to click and proceed to the next part of the application form.
(g) Once the “Course Preference” stage is saved, applicants will not be able to edit/
modify previous data in the “Personal Information” and “Qualification details” pages. Only
the “Communication Details” page can be edited, if an applicant wishes to do so. After the
“Make Payment” step, applicants will be able to check the “Payment Status” as well as
“Preview Application”. However, no further changes or correction is possible in the online
application form. Thereafter, the only option for an applicant, if an application is to be
amended, is to re-register with a different email id and fill the online application form a new.
The fee paid, including on any additional online application form(s), will not be refundable.
(h) Examination fee for AFCAT Entry. After filling in the online application form,
the examination fee of Rs. 250/- (non-refundable) for AFCAT entry (not applicable for
NCC special entry and Meteorology) may be paid online through the ‘Make Payment’
step on the main menu of the online application. No cash or cheque or demand draft (DD)
will be accepted towards payment of examination fee. The examination fee can be paid
using credit/ debit cards/ net banking through the payment gateway. Applicants are advised
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to follow the instructions/ steps given on the payment gateway, and also print/keep the
transaction details for their records. After confirmation from bank that the payment is
received, the “Payment Status” will display “Registration Number” which the candidate may
note down for future correspondence. Simultaneously, the candidate will receive a
confirmatory sms/ e-mail. This will be followed by Admit Card (with the Hall Ticket Number)
which a candidate will receive on his/her registered email ID and which is also
downloadable from his/her registered email ID.
(j) Detailed instructions on filling in the online application form:
S. No Description
1. Sign up Format
As per 10th Matriculation Passing
Full Name Certificate- all in alphabet of max 50
characters
Father’s Name In alphabet of maximum 50 characters
Mother’s Name In alphabet of maximum 50 characters
Email id email id (to be used for Sign-in)
Nationality Indian
Mobile Number 10 digits
Secret Question Select one from options
Secret Answer In alphabet of maximum 50 characters
CAPTCHA Enter alphanumeric text shown
2. Personal Information
Applicant has to choose entry to IAF
through one of the options
(i) AFCAT
(a) Type of Entry (ii) NCC SPECIAL ENTRY FOR
FLYING BRANCH
(iii) METEOROLOGY BRANCH
Candidate’s Name (As
(b) per 10th/matriculation
passing certificate)
Candidate’s Father’s
Name (As per
(c) These fields will be auto filled from the
10th/matriculation
signup data entered by the applicant.
Candidate’s Mother’s
Name (As per
(d) th
10 /matriculation
(e) Email Address
Secondary Email Email id other than which the applicant
(f)
Address has signed-up with
(g) Nationality
(h) Mobile Number
Candidate’s Visible
(i) In alphabet of maximum 50 characters
Identification Mark
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Applicant has to choose Passed/ Failed/

(j) CPSS/PABT Status Not appeared;
If passed fill the details from (i) to (iv)
CPSS/PABT Batch
(i) Numeric Value
Number
CPSS/PABT Date of
(ii) DD/MMM/YYYY
Passing
CPSS/PABT Chest
(iii) Numeric Value
No.
CPSS/PABT attended
Choose one from the list Dehradun,
(iv) at which Air Force
Gandhinagar, Mysore, Varanasi
Selection Board
Do you have a current
valid Commercial Pilot
(k) Select ‘Yes’ or ‘No’
License issued by
DGCA?
Are you serving Select ‘Yes’ or ‘No’
(l)
Airman of IAF? If Yes, fill the details from (i) to (iv)
(i) Select Rank in IAF Choose one from the list
(ii) Service Number Alphanumeric
(iii) Current Posted Unit Alphanumeric
(iv) Select Command Choose one from the list
(m) Select Gender Male or Female
(n) Select Marital Status Married or Unmarried
(o) Date of Birth DD/MMM/YYYY
Confirm your Date of
(p) DD/MMM/YYYY
Birth
3. Qualification Details
Choose one from the list
10 + 2 + Graduation
10 + 2 + Graduation + Post Graduation
Diploma + Graduation
(a) Education Level
10 + 2 + Integrated Post Graduation
Diploma + Integrated Post Graduation
Diploma + Graduation + Post
Graduation
Choose one from the list, based on
above selection
Select Graduation Graduate Options A
(b)
Level Graduate Options B
Graduate Options C
Graduate Options D
For Group ‘A’, ‘B’, ‘D’ Choose from
- AMIE / ASI / IETE
Select Qualification
(c) - Bachelor of Engineering
Degree
- Bachelor of Technology
For Option ‘C’ enter B.Com etc.
Numeric (4) four years for ‘A’, ‘B’, ‘D’
Course Duration (in
(d) Numeric (3) three years for ‘C’
years)
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Name of College/
(e) In alphabet of maximum 50 characters
Institute
(f) Name of University In alphabet of maximum 50 characters
Date/ Expected date
(g) of obtaining the DD/MMM/YYYY
Graduation
Enter Aggregate/
(h) Numeric 2 digit
Gross Percentage
Do you have Current
(i) Select ‘Yes’ or ‘No’
backlog?
(j) 10+2 / Higher Secondary School Details
Enter Aggregate/
Gross Percentage as
(i) per your 10+2 / Higher Numeric 2 digit
Secondary School
Mark Sheet
Enter Physics
Percentage as per
your 10+2 / Higher
(ii) Secondary School Numeric 2 digit
Mark Sheet. Enter 0
(Zero), if not
applicable.
Enter Mathematics
Percentage as per
your 10+2 / Higher
(iii) Secondary School Numeric 2 digit
Mark Sheet. Enter 0
(Zero), if not
applicable.
4. Course Preference
Applicant to select from the list of
courses
- Flying
- Ground Duty (Technical)
- Ground Duty (Non Technical)
Candidates in possession of
Graduation/Post Graduation degree
qualification in Engineering/equivalent
Technical qualification from recognised
(a) Courses university would mandatorily appear in
EKT and if selected, would also be
considered for Ground Duty (Technical)
branch.
Note: IAF reserves the right to allocate
branches as per their suitability and
availability of vacancies irrespective of
the choices/options applied for by the
candidates.
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5. NCC
NCC Air Wing “C”
(a) If applicant is joining through NCC
Certificate
(i) Serial No. Number
(ii) Name of NCC Unit In alphabet of maximum 50 characters
(iii) Year Numeric 4 digit (YYYY)
Applicant has to choose Passed/ Failed/
6. AFSB/ SSB appeared
Not appeared;
Candidates
If Passed fill details from (a) to (e)
(a) Batch No. Number
Enter Place Of
(b) Alphabets
Appearing
(c) No of Days at AFSB From (DD/MMM/YYYY) to (DD/MMM/YYYY)
7. Source of AFCAT information
List of information Newspaper
(a) Source
Employment News
8. GATE
(a) Year of appearing Numeric 4 digit
(b) GATE Score Numeric 2 digit
9. Communication Details
(a) Permanent Address
Alphabet and Numbers of maximum 100
(i) Enter Full Address
characters
Select State/Union Choose any one from list of states
(ii)
Territories displayed
Choose any one from list of cities
(iii) Select City
displayed
(iv) Pin Code Numeric 6 digits
Nearest Railway
(v) Alphabet of maximum 50 characters
Station
STD code and Landline
(vi) Landline Number
Numeric 11 digit
12 digit numeric number of the applicant
Aadhaar Card
(vii) as appearing in Aadhaar card issued by
Number
UIDAI.
Check if Permanent
If ticked, the Permanent address details
Address is same as
(viii) are populated in the Correspondence
Correspondence
address.
Address.
(b) Correspondence Address
In alphabet and numbers of maximum
(i) Full Address
250 characters
(ii) State Choose any one from list displayed
(iii) City Choose any one from list displayed
(iv) Pin Code Numeric 6 digits
Nearest Railway
(v) Station In alphabet of maximum 50 characters
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Size of each file is to be between 10 KB

10. Upload Documents
and 50KB
Upload un-attested recent passport size
(a) Photograph colour photograph (front portrait without
headgear, expect for Sikhs)
Upload scanned image of own signature
(b) Signature
in JPEG/ JPG format
Upload scanned impression of the
(c) Thumb Impression
thumb in JPEG/ JPG format
Declaration by the
(d) Check
candidate
5 choices based on preference from the
11. Select Exam City list of exam cities as mentioned in Para
8 (f)
(k) Applicants are strongly advised to apply online well in time to avoid the last
minute rush leading to website/ server slowdown.
(l) Serving Airmen. Serving Airmen are required to apply like other applicants. In
addition, they would have to apply as per the service format given in AFO 11/ 2015 through
service channel.
(m) NOC for Government Employees. The applicants who are already in Government
Service including serving in the Armed Forces, Government-owned industrial undertakings
or other similar organizations or in private employment also need to apply only after
obtaining necessary permission from their departments concerned and they are required to
produce NOC at the time of AFSB testing, failing which they will be routed back without
being tested.
(n) Permission of Employer. Candidates should note that in case communication is
received from their employer to withhold permission to the candidates who have applied for/
appearing in the examination, their candidature is liable to be cancelled.
(o) Applicants are not required to submit any certificate, along with their applications, in
support of their claims regarding age, educational qualifications, etc. However, certain
mandatory documents are required to be carried in original at exam centres, the details of
which is enumerated in para 8(e).
(p) Contact/ Reference Details during Registration & Communication. While filling
in the application form, the applicants must ensure that they provide their valid and active
e-mail IDs as the IAF would use electronic mode of communication while contacting them at
different stages throughout the selection process. On successful submission of online
application form, the candidate will receive a confirmatory e-mail on their registered e-mail
ID. As such, all communication to the IAF should invariably contain the following particulars
without which no request would be entertained.
(i) Branch, Course Number and Year of Examination.
(ii) Transaction Number (for queries on payment).
(ii) Registration Number (as given in Payment Status & Admit Card).
(iii) Hall Ticket Number (as given in Admit Card).
(iv) Name of Applicant (in full and in block letters).
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8. AFCAT.
(a) Scheme of Online Examination. All applicants whose applications are submitted
by due date will be called for AFCAT at one of the examination centres on either 24
August 2019 (Saturday) or 25 August 2019 (Sunday). It is mandatory for the
candidates opting for Ground Duty (Technical) branch to appear in both AFCAT as
well as Engineering Knowledge Test (EKT).
(i) Exam Schedule. The AFCAT (and EKT) will be conducted in two days as
per the following schedule:-
24 Aug19 (Day 1) 25 Aug 19 (Day 2)

Activity 1st Shift 2nd Shift 1st Shift 2nd Shift
(AFCAT) (AFCAT+EKT) (AFCAT) (AFCAT+EKT)
Candidate
Reporting Time 08:00 hrs 12:30 hrs 08:00 hrs 12:30 hrs
Verification of
Admit Card & ID
Proof, Biometrics,
Photo/ Thumb
08:00- 09:30 12:30- 14:00 08:00- 09:30 12:30-14:00 hrs
Impression/ Sign
hrs hrs hrs
on Attendance
Sheet &
Candidate Seating
in Exam Hall
Reading of
09:30- 09:45 14:00- 14:15 09:30- 09:45
Instructions by 14:00- 14:15 hrs
hrs hrs hrs
Candidates
AFCAT 09:45- 11:45 14:15 -16:15 09:45- 11:45 14:15 -16:15 hrs
hrs hrs hrs
Reading of
Instructions by 16:15 -16:30
NA NA 16:15 -16:30 hrs
Candidates for hrs
EKT
EKT 16:30 -17:15 16:30 -17:15 hrs
NA NA
hrs
Note: Candidates will not be permitted to enter the exam centre, under any circumstance, after
the pre-exam verification process has commenced at 08:00 hrs for shift-I and 1230 hrs for
shift-II.
(ii) Syllabus. The subjects, the time allowed and the maximum marks allotted to
each subject will be as follows:-
No. of Max
Exam Subject Duration
Questions Marks
General Awareness, Verbal
AFCAT 02 Hours 100 300
Ability in English, Numerical
15
Ability and Reasoning and

Military Aptitude Test
EKT [For
Candidates
Mechanical, Computer
with one of 45
Science and Electrical & 50 150
the choices Minutes
Electronics
as (Technical)
Branch]
(iii) The Online examination will consist of objective type questions and will be in
English only for both AFCAT and EKT
(iv) Marking Scheme is as follows:-
(aa) Three marks will be awarded for every correct answer.
(ab) One mark will be deducted for every incorrect answer.
(ac) No marks for unattempted questions.
(v) Questions will be based on the metric system of Weights & Measures
wherever applicable.
(vi) Candidates are required to appear for the Online AFCAT in person. Under no
circumstance will any scribe or another candidate be allowed to appear/ assist in the
exam.
(vii) Air Force has the discretion to fix qualifying marks in any or all the subjects of
the examination.
(b) Standard and Syllabus of the Examination:
(i) Syllabus.
(aa) English. Comprehension, Error Detection, Sentence Completion/

Filling in of correct word, Synonyms, Antonyms and Testing of Vocabulary,
Idioms and Phrases.
(ab) General Awareness. History, Geography, Civics, Politics, Current

Affairs, Environment, Basic Science, Defence, Art, Culture, Sports, etc.
(ac) Numerical Ability. Decimal Fraction, Time and Work, Average, Profit
& Loss, Percentage, Ratio & Proportion and Simple Interest, Time & Distance
(Trains/Boats & Streams).
16
(ad) Reasoning and Military Aptitude Test. Verbal Skills and Spatial
Ability.
(ii) Standard. The standard of Numerical Ability Questions will be of Matriculation

level. The standard of questions in other subjects will be of graduation level (Indian
University).
(c) Practice Test. An online Practice Test (for AFCAT & EKT) is available on the IAF
website https://careerindianairforce.cdac.in or https://afcat.cdac.in.
(d) Instructions for e-Admit Card and AFCAT Written Examination.
(i) The eligible candidates shall be issued with an e-Admit Card three weeks
before the date of the examination. The e-Admit Card will be sent to the registered
email IDs and will also be available at the website www.careerindianairforce.cdac.in
for all candidates who successfully submitted their online application. No Admit Card
will be sent by post. To download the e-Admit Card, a candidate should have his/her
Username and Password. The candidate will be solely responsible for downloading
his/ her e-Admit Card.
(ii) If the candidate does not receive his/her admit card in their registered email
id or is not able to download the same from the mentioned website or if there is any
error / discrepancy / anomaly in the e-admit card, he/she must inquire from AFCAT
Query Cell at C-DAC, Pune immediately. (Phone Nos. 020-25503105 or 020-
25503106). E-Mail queries may be addressed to afcatcell@cdac.in . No candidate
will be allowed to appear in the examination unless he/ she holds a downloaded
e-Admit Card for the examination.
(iii) The courses to which the candidates are admitted will be according to their
eligibility as per age and educational qualifications and the course preferences given
by them. The candidates should note that their admission to the examination will be
purely provisional, based on the information given by them in the Application Form.
On verification, in case the IAF finds that the information disclosed by the candidate
is not correct or is false, his or her candidature will be treated as cancelled.
(iv) Candidates are to ensure that the personal information in the front side of the
e-Admit card are as per the details provided by them during the registration process.
They are also advised to read the instructions given at the rear of the e-Admit card
beforehand.
(v) The decision of the IAF shall be final with regard to the acceptance of a
candidate’s application, based on the given information.
(e) Special Instructions to Candidates for Online Examination.
(i) Items to be Brought Inside Examination Hall. The following items are to be
carried to the exam centre:-
17
(aa) e-Admit Card for AFCAT 02/2019.

(ab) Candidate’s Aadhaar Card.
(ac) Another valid photo identity card such as PAN card/ passport/ driving
licence/ voter identity card/ college identity card or any other valid photo
identity proof, with details of name, father’s name, date of birth and a clear
photograph.
(ad) Two passport size colour photographs- same as the photo uploaded
during online application (to be pasted, not stapled on Admit Card next to the
printed photo and on attendance sheet at the exam centre).
(ae) Ballpoint Pen (Blue or Black) for signing on the attendance sheet and
rough work.
(ii) Items not permitted inside Examination Hall. Candidates are not allowed
to carry any textual material, calculators, docupen, slide rulers, log tables, electronic
watches with facilities of calculator, mobile phones, blue tooth, pager or any other
digital device except the admit card, identity proof inside the AFCAT- C-DAC exam
centre premises. If the candidate is in possession of any of the above mentioned
items, it will be construed as an attempt to using unfair means and his/her
examination will be cancelled. The item will be confiscated and he/ she will also be
debarred from future AFCAT examinations. Candidates are advised not to bring any
valuable/costly items to the Examination Centres, as safe keeping of the same
cannot be assured. IAF will not be responsible for any loss in this regard.
(iii) Malpractice. If any candidate resorts to the use of unfair means during the
exam, he/she will be withdrawn from the examination and his/her candidature will be
cancelled.
(iv) Conduct in Examination Hall. The candidates are expected to conduct

themselves in a dignified manner during the examination or while interacting with the
staff on duty. If any candidate is involved in act(s) of indiscipline at the exam centre
(before, during or after the exam), he/ she will be withdrawn from the examination
and his/ her candidature will be cancelled.
(v) Instructions for examination. Question paper will be made available to

candidates only during the online examination. The request of candidates to provide
copies of question paper will not be entertained until the completion of entire process
and preparation of final merit list post AFSB testing and Medical examination.
(f) Locations for AFCAT 01/2019: Agartala, Agra, Ajmer, Ahmedabad, Aizawl,
Alwar, Aligarh, Allahabad, Ambala, Amritsar, Aurangabad, Bareilly, Behrampur
(Odisha), Belagavi, Bengaluru, Bhagalpur, Bhilai, Bhopal, Bhubaneswar, Bhuj,
Bikaner, Bilaspur, Chandigarh, Chhapra, Chennai, Coimbatore, Dehradun, Delhi and
NCR, Dhanbad, Diu, Dibrugarh, Durgapur, Faridabad, Ganganagar, Gaya, Ghaziabad,
Gorakhpur, Greater Noida, Guntur, Guwahati, Gwalior, Haldwani, Hisar, Hyderabad,
18
Imphal, Indore, Itanagar, Jabalpur, Jaipur, Jalandhar, Jalpaigudi, Jammu,

Jamshedpur, Jhansi, Jodhpur, Jorhat, Kakinada, Kannur, Kanpur, Kochi, Kohima,
Kolhapur, Kolkata, Kota, Kurukshetra, Leh, Lucknow, Ludhiana, Madurai, Mangalore,
Mathura, Meerut, Mumbai, Mysore, Nagpur, Nasik, Nizamabad, Noida, Panaji,
Pathankot, Patna, Port Blair, Puducherry, Pune, Purnea, Rajkot, Ranchi, Rohtak,
Rourkee, Rourkela, Sagar, Sambalpur, Shillong, Shimla, Silchar, Solapur, Sonipat,
Srinagar, Thane, Thiruvananthapuram, Thrissur, Tirunelveli,Tirupati, Udaipur, Ujjain,
Vadodara, Varanasi, Vellore, Vijayawada, Visakhapatnam, Warangal.
(g) Allotment of Centres. As far as possible, candidates will be allotted centres as

per their choice. Candidates should note that no request for change of centre will be
entertained. Therefore candidates should exercise due care before deciding his/her choice
for the centre for the examination before filling in the form.
9. Air Force Selection Board (AFSB).
(a) For AFCAT entry, IAF shall prepare a list of candidates who obtain the minimum
qualifying marks in the Online AFCAT as fixed by the IAF in their discretion. Candidates
who are declared successful in the Online AFCAT will be called at one of the Air Force
Selection Boards. Candidates who have applied for NCC Special Entry and Meteorology
Branch will be directly called for AFSB testing at one of the AFSB centres. The AFSB
centres are at Dehradun (1 AFSB), Mysuru (2 AFSB), Gandhinagar (3 AFSB) and Varanasi
(4 AFSB). Candidates who opt for flying branch can only opt for Dehradun, Mysore and
Varanasi. Candidates who have qualified in the written exam are required to choose
AFSB date and venue by themselves on the website
https://careerindianairforce.cdac.in or https://afcat.cdac.in in order to generate
call- up letter for AFSB interview.
(b) Physical Fitness. Candidates are advised to be physically fit when you report for
SSB in order to be able to undergo various tests at AFSB. You should aim to achieve an
ability to run 01 mile (1.6 kms) in 10 minutes, 10 push ups and 3 chin ups.
(c) Tattoos. Permanent body tattoos are only permitted on inner face of forearm
(from inside of elbow to the wrist) and on the reverse side of palm/ back (dorsal) side of
hand. Permanent body tattoos on any other part of the body are not acceptable. Tribes with
tattoo marks on the face or body as per their existing customs and traditions will be
permitted on a case to case basis.
(d) Narcotics. Use/possession of narcotics is banned. Candidate may be

tested for presence of drugs in the body during Medicals and subsequently
during training/ service career as an officer. If candidate is found to be using/ in
possession of narcotics during any time of training/service career, candidate would be
debarred from joining the Indian Air Force or be removed from service if already joined.
(e) The testing at AFSB would consist of three stages as given below:-
(i) Stage-I. Officer Intelligence Rating Test along with Picture Perception and
discussion test will be conducted on the first day. Stage-I test is a screening test and
only those who qualify would undergo subsequent testing. All Stage-I qualified
candidates would be subjected to document check to ascertain their eligibility for the
19
branches applied for. Candidates who either do not qualify in Stage-I or do not meet
the required eligibility criteria would be sent back on the first day itself.
(ii) Stage-II. Psychological test will be conducted on Day 1(Afternoon) and the
Group Tests and Interview would commence after document check for the next five
days.
(iii) For Flying Branch. Computerised Pilot Selection System (CPSS) would be
administered to recommended candidates only. This is once in a lifetime test.
Candidates who have failed the CPSS/PABT in an earlier attempt or a Flight
Cadet suspended from flying training at Air Force Academy will not be eligible.
(f) Change of Interview Dates. Request for change of AFSB interview date should be
avoided. Requests for postponing interview may be considered under genuine
circumstances and that too if it is administratively convenient for which Air Headquarters
will be the sole deciding authority. Such requests should be sent to AFSB Centre from
where the call for AFSB interview has been received through e-mail only.
(g) Candidates will appear before the AFSB and undergo the test at their own risk and
will not be entitled to claim any compensation or other relief from Government in the event
of any injury which they may sustain in the course of or as a result of any of the tests given
to them at the Selection Board whether due to the negligence of any person or otherwise.
Candidates will be required to sign an indemnity bond to this effect on the form appended to
the application.
(h) Travel Allowance (TA). To and fro travelling fare by the shortest route of AC-III
Tier/AC Chair Car or actual normal bus fare will be re-imbursed to the candidates appearing
in AFSB for the first time. Change of address, if any, must be intimated to the Board well
before arrival. You shall furnish the railway ticket/ bus ticket (hard copy) to the Board, failing
which no TA will be paid. For all other modes of travel, TA will be admissible as per the
government authorized rules. No TA is admissible, if you have already appeared for the
same type of entry at any of the Selection Boards. Candidates are to carry cancelled
Cheque for Online Payment.
(j) Documents for AFSB. Candidates are required to bring the following relevant
documents, which will be checked during AFSB testing:-
(i) AFCAT Admit Card.
(ii) Original Matriculation/ Secondary School Certificate and Mark sheets issued
by CBSE/ ICSE/ State Board. No other certificate will be accepted for verification of
Date of Birth.
(iii) Original Marks Sheet & Certificate of 10+2 (issued by the relevant Board).
(iv) Original/ Provisional Graduation Degree/ Post Graduation Degree Certificates

and Mark Sheet of each year/ semester issued by University - only for verification of
educational qualifications to check eligibility for the course. Provisional Certificate
issued by college Principal is not acceptable. However, Provisional Degree
Certificate issued by the University is acceptable.
(v) In case of final year/ semester students, a Certificate from the College Principal,
clearly mentioning the following aspects annotated with proper stamp and seal of the
Institution is required:-
20
(aa) Name of the College.

(ab) Name of the University.
(ac) Discipline in which Graduation/ Post Graduation obtained.
(ad) Aggregate Percentage.
(ae) Likely Date of Declaration of Final Result (in DD/MM/YYYY Format).
(vi) Two attested photocopies of each of the above mentioned certificates.
(vii) Original NCC Certificate (if applicable).
(viii) NOC from employers for candidates working in Central/ State Govt. or Public
Sector Undertakings.
(ix) Original valid Commercial Pilots’ License, issued by DGCA, if applicable.
(x) Inbound Railway Ticket/ Bus Tickets. (For refund of Travelling Allowance)
(xi) Candidates are also advised to bring twenty copies of recent passport size
colour photographs taken in light coloured clothes against white background for
documentation.
(k) Candidates not in possession of the above documents or those who do not
meet the eligibility conditions, should not report to the AFSB, as they will not be
accepted for the tests and will be routed back without travelling allowances.
(l) Candidates recommended by the IAF for interview by the Air Force Selection Board
(AFSB) who have changed their addresses subsequent to the submission of their
application for the examination should immediately after announcement of the result of the
written part of the examination notify the changed address, along with an unstamped self-
addressed envelope, also to JDPO-3 (A) Air HQS. 'J' Block, Room No. 17, Opp. Vayu
Bhawan, Motilal Nehru Marg, New Delhi-110 106. Failure to comply with this instruction will
deprive the candidate of any claim to consideration in the event of his/her not receiving the
letter for interview by the AFSB.
10. Final Merit List. To be acceptable, candidates should secure the minimum qualifying
marks separately in written examination and AFSB test as fixed by the IAF. Candidates will be
placed in the order of merit on the basis of the total marks secured by them in the written
examination and in the AFSB tests. The form and manner of communication of the result of the
examination to individual candidates shall be decided by the IAF in their discretion.10% of the
vacancies are reserved for NCC Air Wing Senior Division 'C' certificate holders in Ground
Duty (Technical and Non-technical) Branches. Allotment of PC/ SSC in Ground Duty (Technical
and Non-technical) Branches would be based on number of vacancies, performance in the
selection process and the choice given by the candidates.
11. Training. Candidates recommended by the AFSBs and found medically fit by
appropriate medical establishment are detailed for training strictly on the basis of merit and
availability of vacancies in various branches/ sub branches.
(a) Date and Duration of Training. Training is scheduled to commence in the first
week of Jul 2020 for all courses. The approximate duration of training for Flying and
Ground Duty (Technical) Branches is 74 weeks and that of Ground Duty (Non-technical)
Branches is 52 weeks at Air Force Training Establishments.
21
(b) Physical Conditioning. Prospective candidates are advised to keep themselves in

good physical condition to adapt to physical training at AFA which encompasses running,
swimming, rope climbing and other forms of physical training/conditioning in which they
would undergo mandatory tests during training. Candidates are advised to keep themselves
in good physical condition by following the under mentioned routine:-
(i) Running: up to 4 Km. in 15 minutes.

(ii) Skipping.
(iii) Push ups & Sit-ups: Minimum 20 each.
(iv) Chin ups: 08.
(v) Rope Climbing: 3 to 4 metres.
(vi) Swimming (25 m).
(c) After admission to Air Force Academy, candidates will not be considered for any
other commission. They will not be permitted to appear for any interview or examination
after they have been finally selected for training in AFA. No request for withdrawal of
candidature received from a candidate after he/she has submitted his/her application will be
entertained under any circumstance. PAN Card, Aadhaar card and account in SBI/
Nationalized Bank is mandatory at the time of joining Air Force Academy (AFA).
12. Facilitation Counter for Guidance of Candidates.
(i) For any Query related to Conduct of Online Examination, registration process, admit
cards, candidates may contact AFCAT Cell on 020-25503105 or 020-25503106. E-Mail
queries may be addressed to afcatcell@cdac.in.
(ii) For all queries regarding Eligibility, allotment of AFSB centres, date of AFSB
interview, merit list, Joining Instructions, and any other relevant information regarding
selection process, candidates may contact on 011-23010231 Extn: 7610 or visit website
https://careerindianairforce.cdac.in or https://afcat.cdac.in or Toll free number 1800-
11-2448
(iii) Timings. Telephonic query timings are from 0930 hrs to 1300 hrs and 1400 hrs
to 1700 hrs (Monday to Friday, except closed holidays).
13. Disclaimer. Information given in the notification and on the websites are guidelines only. In
case of any ambiguity, the existing policies, rules and regulations of IAF/ Govt. of India will be
final. Terms and conditions for selection given in the notification are guidelines only and
are subject to change without notice.
14. Statutory Warning. Selection in the Indian Air Force is fair and merit based. Attempt to
influence the selection process at any stage is liable to lead to termination of candidature or
initiation of service and legal action against the concerned individual.
22
Appendix A to Notification
[Refers to para 6]
MEDICAL STANDARDS FOR

AIR FORCE COMMON ADMISSION ONLINE TEST (AFCAT- 02/2019) FOR FLYING BRANCH
AND GROUND DUTIES (TECHNICAL AND NON-TECHNICAL)/ NCC SPECIAL ENTRY/
METEOROLOGY ENTRY
General Instructions
1. In this section the assessment of candidates for commissioning through AFCAT for flying
and ground duty branches /NCC special entry/meteorology into in the IAF is considered.
2. The basic requirements of medical fitness are essentially the same for all branches, except
for aircrew in whom the parameters for visual acuity, anthropometry and certain other physical
standards are more stringent. A candidate will not be assessed physically fit unless the
examination as a whole shows that he is physically and mentally capable of withstanding severe
physical and mental strain for prolonged periods in any climate in any part of the world.
3. The medical standards spelt out pertain to initial entry medical standards. If, however, any
disease or disability is detected during the training phase, which will have a bearing on the flight
cadets subsequent physical fitness and medical category; such cases will be referred
expeditiously to IAM (for aircrew)/ specialists of MH (for non-aircrew) under intimation to the office
of DGMS (Air)-Med-7. At IAM, if the disease or disability is considered of a permanent nature, an
early decision for the cadet to continue in the service/ branch/ stream is to be taken. Specific
waivers of DGMS (Air), if asked for, must carry full justification in accordance with relevant Para of
IAP 4303 4th edition (revised).
General Medical and Surgical Assessment
4. Every candidate to be fit for the Air Force must conform to the minimum standards laid
down in the succeeding paragraphs. The general build should be well developed and
proportionate.
5. The residual effects of fractures/ old injuries are to be assessed for any functional limitation.
If there is no effect on function, the candidate can be assessed fit. Cases of old fractures of spine
are unfit. Any residual deformity of spine or compression of a vertebra will be cause for rejection.
Injuries involving the trunks of the larger nerves, resulting in loss of function, or scarring, which
cause pain or cramps, indicate unsuitability for employment in flying duties. The presence of large
or multiple keloids will be a cause for rejection.
23
6. Minor scars and Birth Marks for e.g. as resulting from the removal of tuberculous glands do
not, per se, indicate unsuitability for employment on flying duties. Extensive scarring of a limb or
torso that may cause functional limitation or unsightly appearance should be considered unfit.
7. Cervical rib without any neurovascular compromise will be accepted. This will be recorded
in the medical board proceedings.
8. Asymmetry of the face and head, which will interfere with proper fitting of oxygen mask and
helmet, will be a cause for rejection for flying duties.
9. A candidate who has undergone an abdominal operation, other than a simple

appendicectomy, involving extensive surgical intervention or partial or total excision of any organ
is unsuitable for flying duties. Operation involving the cranial vault (e.g. trephining), or extensive
thoracic operations make the candidate unfit for flying.
10. The chest should be well proportioned and well developed with the minimum range of
expansion of 5 cm.
11. Height, Sitting Height, Leg Length and Thigh Length
(a) The minimum height for entry into ground duty branches will be 157.5 cm. Gorkhas
and individuals belonging to North Eastern regions of India and hilly regions of Uttarakhand,
the minimum acceptable height will be 5 cm less (152.5 cm). In case of candidates from
Lakshadweep, the minimum acceptable height can be reduced by 2 cm (155.5 cm).
(b) Minimum height for Flying Branch will be 162.5 cm. Acceptable measurements of leg
length, thigh length and sitting height for such aircrew will be as under: -
(i) Sitting height: Minimum- 81.5 cm Maximum- 96.0 cm
(ii) Leg Length: Minimum- 99.0 cm Maximum- 120.0 cm
(iii) Thigh Length: Maximum- 64.0 cm
12. The height and weight chart prescribed is placed at Appendix B to the draft rules will be
applicable.
13. Cardiovascular System
(a) History of chest pain, breathlessness, palpitation, fainting attacks, giddiness,

rheumatic fever, chorea, frequent sore throats and tonsillitis will be given due consideration
in assessment of the cardiovascular system.
(b) The normal pulse rate varies from 60-100 bpm. Persistent sinus tachycardia (> 100
bpm), after emotional factors and fever are excluded as causes, as well as persistent sinus
bradycardia (< 60 bpm), will be referred for specialist opinion to exclude organic causes.
Sinus arrhythmia and vagotonia will also be excluded.
24
(c) Candidates are quite prone to develop White Coat Hypertension, which is a transient
rise of BP, due to the stress of medical examination. Every effort must be made to
eliminate the White Coat effect by repeated recordings under basal conditions. When
indicated, ambulatory BP recording must be carried out or the candidate be admitted to
hospital for observation before final fitness is certified. An individual with BP consistently
greater than or equal to 140/90 mm of Hg will be rejected.
(d) Evidence of organic cardiovascular disease will be cause for rejection. Diastolic
murmurs are invariably organic. Short systolic murmurs of ejection systolic nature and not
associated with thrill and which diminish on standing, especially if associated with a normal
ECG and chest radiograph, are most often functional. However, an echocardiogram will be
done to exclude organic heart disease. In case of any doubt the case will be referred to
cardiologist for opinion.
(e) Electrocardiogram. Assessment of a properly recorded ECG (resting – 14 lead) will

be carried out by a medical specialist. Note will be taken of wave patterns, the amplitude,
duration and time relationship. At initial entry no abnormalities are acceptable except
incomplete RBBB in the absence of structural heart disease, which must be excluded. In
such cases, opinion of Senior Adviser (Medicine) or Cardiologist will be obtained.
14. Respiratory System
(a) Any residual scarring in pulmonary parenchyma or pleura, as evidenced by a

demonstrable opacity on chest radiogram will be a ground for rejection. Old treated cases
of Pulmonary Tuberculosis with no significant residual abnormality can be accepted if the
diagnosis and treatment was completed more than two year earlier. In these cases, a CT
scan chest and fibreoptic bronchoscopy with bronchial lavage will be done alongwith USG,
ESR, PCR, Immunological tests and Mantoux test as decided by the Physician. If all the
tests are normal the candidate may be considered fit. However, in such cases fitness will
only be decided at Appeal/ Review Medical Board.
(b) Pleurisy with Effusion. Any evidence of significant residual pleural thickening will be
a cause for rejection.
(c) History of repeated attacks of cough/ wheezing/ bronchitis may be manifestations of

chronic bronchitis or other chronic pathology of the respiratory tract. Such cases will be
assessed unfit. Pulmonary Function Tests will be carried out, if available.
(d) History of repeated attacks of bronchial asthma/ wheezing/ allergic rhinitis will be a
cause for rejection.
(e) Radiographs of the Chest. Definite radiological evidence of disease of the lungs,
mediastinum and pleurae indicates unsuitability for employment in Air Force. If required,
investigations as outlined in Para 14 (a) above will be carried out under the advice of a
Chest Physician.
25
15. Gastrointestinal System
(a) Any past history of ulceration or infection of the mouth, tongue, gums or throat will be
taken note of including any major dental alteration.
(b) The following dental standards will be followed:-
(i) Candidate must have 14 dental points and the following teeth must be present
in the upper jaw in good functional opposition with the corresponding teeth in the
lower jaw, and these must be sound or repairable:-
(aa) Any four of the six anteriors
(ab) Any six of the ten posteriors
(ac) They should be balancing on both sides. Unilateral mastication is not

allowed.
(ad) Any removable or wired prosthesis are not permitted.
(ii) Candidate whose dental standard does not conform to the laid down standard
will be rejected.
(iii) Candidate with dental arches affected by advanced stage of generalised

active lesions of pyorrhoea, acute ulcerative gingivitis, and gross abnormality of the
teeth or jaws or with numerous caries or septic teeth will be rejected.
(c) Gastro-Duodenal Disabilities. Candidates who are suffering or have suffered, during
the previous two years, from symptoms suggestive of chronic indigestion, including proven
peptic ulceration, are not to be accepted, in view of the exceedingly high risk of recurrence
of symptoms and potential for incapacitation. Any past surgical procedure involving partial
or total loss of an organ (other than vestigial organs/gall bladder) will entail rejection.
(d) If past history of jaundice is noted or any abnormality of the liver function is
suspected, full investigation is required for assessment. Candidates suffering from viral
hepatitis or any other form of jaundice will be rejected. Such candidates can be declared fit
after a minimum period of 6 months has elapsed provided there is full clinical recovery;
HBV and HCV status are both negative and liver functions are within normal limits.
(e) Candidates who have undergone splenectomy are unfit, irrespective of the cause for
operation. Splenomegaly of any degree is a cause for rejection.
(f) A candidate with a well-healed hernia scar, after successful surgery, will be
considered fit six months after surgery, provided there is no potential for any recurrence
and the abdominal wall musculature is good.
26
(g) Abdominal Surgery
(i) A candidate with well-healed scar after conventional abdominal surgery will be
considered fit after one year of successful surgery provided there is no potential for
any recurrence of the underlying pathology and the abdominal wall musculature is
good.
(ii) A candidate after laparoscopic cholecystectomy will be considered fit if 08

weeks have passed since surgery provided they are free from signs and symptoms
and their evaluation including LFT and USG abdomen are normal and there is total
absence of gall bladder with no intra-abdominal collection. Other abdominal
laproscopic procedures can also be considered fit after 08 weeks of surgery provided
the individual is asymptomatic, recovery is complete and there is no residual
complication or evidence of recurrence.
(h) Disposal of cases with incidental ultrasonographic (USG) findings like fatty liver,
small cysts, haemangiomas, septate gall bladder etc., will be based on clinical significance
and functional limitation. A methodically conducted USG examination should look for the
following areas during the examination. The findings as listed in the succeeding paragraphs
and other incidental USG findings reported will be evaluated on clinical significance and
functional capacity by the concerned specialist.
(j) Liver
(i) Fit
(aa) Normal echoanatomy of the liver, CBD, IHBR, portal and hepatic veins
with liver span not exceeding 15 cm in the mid- clavicular line.
(ab) Solitary simple cyst (thin wall, anechoic) upto 2.5 cm diameter.
(ii) Unfit
(aa) Hepatomegaly more than 15 cm in mid-clavicular line.
(ab) Fatty liver
(ac) Solitary cyst > 2.5 cm
(ad) Solitary cyst of any size with thick walls, septations and debris
(ae) Any calcifications more than 03 mm in size.
(af) More than three calcifications even if each is less than 03 mm in size.
(ag) Multiple hepatic cysts of any size.

27
(ah) Hemangioma > 02cm.
(aj) Portal vein thrombosis.
(ak) Evidence of portal hypertension (PV >13 mm, collaterals, ascites).
(iii) During Appeal Medical Board/ Review Medical Board unfit candidates will be
subjected to specific investigations and detailed clinical examination. Fitness for
specific conditions will be decided as given below:-
(aa) Fatty Liver may be considered fit in non-obese individual with normal
LFT, no metabolic abnormality and negative HBsAg and Anti-HCV serology.
(ab) Solitary simple cyst 2.5 - 05 cm will be further evaluated with LFT,
CECT abdomen, and hydatid serology. Will be considered fit if LFT is normal,
hydatid serology is negative and CECT confirms USG findings.
(ac) Any liver calcifications, irrespective of size and number be considered

fit provided after due investigations it is revealed that there is no evidence of
active disease like tuberculosis, sarcoidosis, hydatid disease, metastatic
tumour or liver abscess based on relevant clinical examination and
investigations (LFT, hydatid serology, etc.).
(k) Gall Bladder
(i) Fit
(aa) Normal echoanatomy of the gall bladder.
(ab) Post laparoscopic Cholecystectomy. Candiates having undergone lap-

cholecystectomy may be considered fit if 08 weeks have passed since
surgery and there is total absence of gall bladder with no intraabdominal
collection. Wound should have healed well without incisional hernia.
(ac) Open Cholecystectomy. Candidates having undergone open

Cholecystectomy may be considered fit if one year has passed since surgery,
the scar is healthy with no incisional hernia and there is total absence of gall
bladder with no intraabdominal collection.
(ii) Unfit.
(aa) Cholelithiasis or biliary sludge.
(ab) Choledocolithiasis.
28
(ac) Polyp of any size and number.
(ad) Choledochal cyst.
(ae) Gall bladder mass.
(af) Gall bladder wall thickness > 05 mm.
(ag) Septate gall bladder.
(ah) Persistently contracted gall bladder on repeat USG.
(aj) Incomplete Cholecystectomy.
(l) Spleen more than 13 cm in longitudinal axis (or if clinically palpable), any Space
Occupying Lesion and Asplenia will be considered Unfit.
(m) Any structural abnormality of the Pancreas, Space Occupying Lesion/ Mass Lesion,
Features of chronic pancreatitis (calcification, ductular abnormality, atrophy) will be
considered Unfit.
(n) Peritoneal Cavity. Ascites, Solitary mesenteric or retroperitoneal lymph node >1
cm and Two or more lymph nodes of any size will be considered Unfit.
(o) Urogenital System.
(i) A simple non obstructive renal cyst of less than 2.5 cm size in one kidney will
be considered fit.
(ii) The following congenital structural abnormalities of kidneys will be declared

unfit.
(aa) Unilateral renal agenesis.
(ab) Unilateral or bilateral hypoplastic/ contracted kidney of size less than

08 cm.
(ac) Malrotation.
(ad) Horseshoe kidney.
(ae) Ptosed kidney.
(af) Crossed fused/ ectopic kidney.
(iii) Simple single renal cyst of more than 2.5 cm size in one kidney.
29
(iv) Single cyst of any size in both kidneys or multiple cysts in one kidney.
(v) Renal/ ureteric/ vesical mass.
(vi) Hydronephrosis, Hydroureteronephrosis.
(vii) Calculi - Renal/ Ureteric/ Vesical.
(viii) During Appeal Medical Board/ Review Medical Board, unfit candidates will be
subjected to specific investigations and detailed clinical examination. Fitness for
specific conditions will be decided as given below:-
(aa) Candidates having isolated abnormality of echo texture of Kidney may

be considered fit if Renal Function, DTPA scan and CECT kidney is normal.
(p) Major Abdominal Vasculature (Aorta/ IVC). Any structural abnormality, focal
ectasia, aneurysm and calcification will be considered Unfit.
(q) Scrotum and Testis
(i) Unlilateral intraabdominal testes, provided the other testes is completely

descended will be declared fit.
(ii) Bilateral undescended testes or bilateral atrophied testis will be declared unfit.
(iii) Unilateral undescended testis if it lies in the inguinal canal, at the external ring
or in the abdominal wall will be declared unfit.
(iv) Varicocele will be unfit.
16. Urogenital System
(a) Any alteration in micturition, e.g. dysuria or frequency will be noted. Recurrent
attacks of cystitis; pyelonephritis and haematuria must be excluded. Any history of renal
colic, attacks of acute nephritis, any operation on the renal tract including loss of a kidney,
passing of stones or urethral discharges will be enquired in detail. If there is any history of
enuresis, past or present, full details must be obtained.
(b) Urine Examination
(i) Proteinuria will be a cause for rejection, unless it proves to be orthostatic.
(ii) When glycosuria is detected, a blood sugar examination (fasting and after 75
g glucose) and glycosylated Hb is to be carried out, and fitness decided as per
results. Renal glycosuria is not a cause for rejection.
30
(iii) When the candidate has history or evidence of urinary infection it will entail full
renal investigation. Persistent evidence of urinary infection will entail rejection.
(iv) Candidates with history of haematuria will be subjected to full renal

investigation.
(c) Glomerulonephritis
(i) There is a high rate of recovery in the acute phase, particularly in childhood.
A candidate who has made a complete recovery and has no proteinuria may be
assessed fit, after a minimum period of one year after full recovery.
(ii) Candidate with chronic glomerulonephritis will be rejected.
(d) Renal Colic and Renal Calculi. Complete renal and metabolic evaluation is required.
Candidates with renal calculi will be rejected.
(e) All candidates found to have congenital absence of one kidney or who have
undergone unilateral nephrectomy will be rejected. Presence of horseshoe kidney will entail
rejection. Solitary functioning kidney with diseased, non-functional contralateral kidney will
entail rejection. Crossed ectopia, unascended or malrotated kidney(s), unilateral congenital
hypoplasia will be a cause for rejection.
(f) Bilateral undescended testis /atrophied testis will be a cause for rejection. Unilateral
undescended testis, if entirely retained in the abdomen, is acceptable. If it lies in the
inguinal canal, at the external ring or in the abdominal wall, such cases may be accepted
after either orchidectomy or orchipexy operation. In all doubtful cases, surgical opinion must
be obtained regarding fitness.
(g) Hydrocele or Varicocele should be properly treated before fitness is considered.

Minor degree of varicocele will not entail rejection.
(h) Sexual Transmitted Diseases and Human Immuno Deficiency Virus (HIV).
Seropositive HIV status and/ or evidence of STD will entail rejection.
17. Endocrine System
(a) Generally any history suggestive of endocrine disorders will be a cause for rejection.
(b) All cases of thyroid swelling having abnormal iodine uptake and abnormal thyroid
hormone levels will be rejected. Cases of simple goitre with minimal thyroid swelling, who
are clinically euthyroid and have normal iodine uptake and normal thyroid functions may be
accepted.
(c) Candidates detected to have diabetes mellitus will be rejected. A candidate with a
family history of diabetes mellitus will be subjected to blood sugar (fasting and after glucose
load) and Glycosylated Hb/ HbA1c evaluation, which will be recorded.
31
-11-
18. Dermatological System
(a) Borderline skin conditions will be referred to a dermatologist. Candidates who give
history of sexual exposure to a Commercial Sex Worker (CSW), or have evidence of healed
penile sore in the form of a scar will be declared permanently unfit, even in absence of an
overt STD, as these candidates are likely ‘repeaters’ with similar indulgent promiscuous
behavior.
(b) Acute non-exanthematous and non-communicable diseases, which ordinarily run a

temporary course, need not be a cause of rejection. Diseases of a trivial nature, and those,
which do not interfere with general health or cause incapacity, do not entail rejection.
(c) Certain skin conditions are apt to become active and incapacitating under tropical
conditions. An individual is unsuitable for service if he has a definite history or signs of
chronic or recurrent skin disease. Some such conditions are described below:-
(i) Some amount of Palmoplantar Hyperhydrosis is physiological, considering the

situation that recruits face during medical examination. However, candidates with
significant Palmoplantar Hyperhydrosis will be considered unfit.
(ii) Mild (Grade I) Acne Vulgaris consisting of few comedones or papules,

localized only to the face may be acceptable. However, moderate to severe degree
of acne (nodulocystic type with or without keloidal scarring) or involving the back will
be considered unfit.
(iii) Any degree of Palmoplantar Keratoderma manifesting with hyperkeratotic and

fissured skin over the palms, soles and heels will be considered unfit.
(iv) Ichthyosis Vulgaris involving the upper and lower limbs, with evident dry,
scaly, fissured skin will be considered unfit. Mild xerosis (dry skin) may be
considered fit.
(v) Candidates having any keloids will be considered unfit.
(vi) Clinically evident onychomycosis of finger and toe-nails should be declared

unfit, especially if associated with nail dystrophy. Mild degree of distal discolouration
involving single nail without any dystrophy may be acceptable.
(vii) Giant congenital melanocytic naevi, greater than 10 cm will be considered

unfit, as there is a malignant potential in such large sized naevi.
(viii) Small sized callosities, corns and warts may be considered acceptable after
treatment. However candidates with multiple common warts or diffuse palmoplantar
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mosaic warts, large callosities on pressure areas of palms and soles and multiple
corns will be rejected.
(ix) Psoriasis is a chronic skin condition known to relapse and/or recur and hence
will be considered unfit.
(x) Candidates suffering from minor degree of Leukoderma affecting the covered
parts may be accepted. Vitiligo limited only to glans and prepuce may be considered
fit. Those having extensive degree of skin involvement and especially, when the
exposed parts are affected, even to a minor degree, will not be accepted.
(d) A history of chronic or recurrent attacks of skin infections will be cause for rejection.
A simple attack of boils or sycosis from which there has been complete recovery may be
considered for acceptance.
(e) Individuals who have chronic or frequently recurring attacks of a skin disease of a
serious or incapacitating nature e.g. eczema will be assessed as permanently unfit and
rejected.
(f) Any sign of Leprosy will be a cause for rejection.
(g) Naevus depigmentosus and Beckers naevus may be considered fit. Intradermal
naevus, vascular naevi may be considered unfit.
(h) Mild Pityriasis Versicolor may be considered fit after treatment. Extensive Pityriasis
Versicolor may be considered unfit.
(j) Tinea Cruris and Tinea Corporis may be considered fit on recovery.
(k) Scrotal Eczema may be considered fit on recovery.
(l) Canities (premature graying stain) may be considered fit if mild in nature and no
systemic association is seen.
(m) Intertrigo may be considered fit on recovery.
(n) Sexually Transmitted Diseases including Genital Ulcers will be considered unfit.
(o) Scabies may be considered fit only on recovery.
19. Musculoskeletal System and Physical Capacity
(a) Assessment of the candidate‘s physique is to be based upon careful observation of

such general parameters as apparent muscular development, age, height, weight and the
correlation of this i.e. potential ability to acquire physical stamina with training. The
candidate‘s physical capacity is affected by general physical development or by any
constitutional or pathological condition.
33
(b) Past medical history of disease or injury of the spine or sacroiliac joints, either with or
without objective signs, which has prevented the candidate from successfully following a
physically active life, is a cause for rejection for commissioning. History of spinal
fracture/prolapsed intervertebral disc and surgical treatment for these conditions will entail
rejection.
(c) Mild kyphosis or lordosis where deformity is barely noticeable and not associated
with pain or restriction of movement may be accepted. When scoliosis is noticeable or any
pathological condition of the spine is suspected, radiographic examination of the
appropriate part of the spine needs to be carried out.
(d) For flying duties, radiograph (AP and lateral views) of cervical, thoracic and
lumbosacral spine will be carried out. For ground duties, radiographic examination of spine
may be carried out, if deemed necessary.
(e) The following conditions detected radiologically will disqualify a candidate for Air
Force Service:-
(i) Granulomatous disease of spine
(ii) Arthritis/Spondylosis
(aa) Rheumatoid arthritis and allied disorders.
(ab) Ankylosing Spondylitis.
(ac) Osteoarthrosis, spondylosis and degenerative joint disease.
(ad) Non-articular rheumatism (e.g. lesions of the rotator cuff, tennis elbow,
recurrent lumbago etc.).
(ae) Misc disorders including SLE, Polymyositis, and Vasculitis.
(af) Spondylolisthesis/ Spondylolysis.
(ag) Compression fracture of vertebra.
(ah) Scheuerman‘s Disease (Adolescent Kyphosis).
(aj) Loss of cervical lordosis when associated with clinically restricted

movements of cervical spine.
(ak) Unilateral/Bilateral cervical ribs with demonstrable neurological or

circulatory deficit.
(iii) Any other abnormality as so considered by the specialist.

34
(f) The deformities/ diseases contained in the above para will be cause for rejection for
all branches in IAF. In addition for candidates for flying branches, the under mentioned
rules will also apply:-
(i) Spinal Anomalies acceptable for Flying Duties.
(aa) Bilateral complete sacralisation of LV5 and bilateral complete

lumbarisation of SV1.
(ab) Spina bifida in sacrum and in LV5, if completely sacralised.
(ac) Complete block (fused) vertebrae in cervical and/or dorsal spine at a

single level.
(ii) Spinal Conditions not acceptable for Flying Duties.
(aa) Scoliosis more than 15 degree as measured by Cobb‘s method.
(ab) Degenerative Disc Disease.
(ac) Atlanto - occipital and atlanto-axial anomalies
(ad) Hemi vertebra and/or incomplete block (fused) vertebra at any level in
cervical, dorsal or lumbar spine and complete block (fused) vertebra at more
than one level in cervical or dorsal spine.
(ae) Unilateral sacralisation or lumbarisation (complete or incomplete) at all

levels and bilateral incomplete sacralisation or lumbarisation.
(g) Conditions Affecting the Assessment of Upper Limbs
(i) Candidate with an amputation of a limb will not be accepted for entry.
Amputation of terminal phalanx of little finger on both sides is, however, acceptable.
(ii) Deformities of the upper limbs or their parts will be cause for rejection.
Syndactyly and polydactyly will be assessed as unfit except when polydactyly is
excised.
(iii) Painless limitation of movement of the wrist will be graded according to the
degree of stiffness. Loss of dorsiflexion is more serious than loss of palmar flexion.
(iv) Slight limitation of movement of the elbow does not bar acceptance provided
functional capacity is adequate. Ankylosis will entail rejection. Cubitus Valgus is said
to be present when the carrying angle (angle between arm and forearm in
anatomical posture) is exaggerated. In absence of functional disability and obvious
cause like a fracture mal-union, fibrosis or the like, a carrying angle of upto 15º in
male and 180 in female candidates would be acceptable.
35
(v) History of recurrent dislocation of shoulder will entail rejection.
(vi) Malunion/non-union of an old fracture clavicle will entail rejection.
(h) Conditions affecting the Assessment of Lower Limbs
(i) Mild cases of Hallux Valgus (less than 20 degrees), asymptomatic, without
any associated corn /callosities/ bunion are acceptable. Other cases will entail
rejection. Shortening of first metatarsal is also considered unfit.
(ii) Hallux Rigidus is not acceptable.
(iii) Isolated single flexible mild hammer toe without symptoms may be accepted.
Fixed (rigid) deformity or hammer toe associated with corns, callosities, mallet toes
or hyperextension at metatarsophalangeal joint (claw toe deformity) will be rejected.
(iv) Loss of any digit of the toes entails rejection.
(v) Extra digits will entail rejection if there is bony continuity with adjacent digits.
Cases of syndactyly or loss of toes/fingers will be rejected.
(vi) Feet may look apparent flat. If the arches of the feet reappear on standing
on toes, if the candidate can skip and run well on the toes and if the feet are supple,
mobile and painless, the candidate is acceptable. Restriction of the movements of
the foot will also be a cause for rejection. Rigidity of the foot, whatever may be the
shape of the foot, is a cause for rejection.
(vii) Mild degree of idiopathic pes cavus is acceptable. Moderate and severe pes
cavus and pes cavus due to organic disease will entail rejection. All cases of Talipes
(Club Foot) will be rejected.
(viii) Any significant limitation of movement of the ankle joints following previous
injuries will not be accepted. However, cases with no history of recurrent trouble and
having plantar and dorsiflexion movement of at least 20 degree may be assessed fit
for ground duties. Fitness for aircrew duties will be based on functional evaluation.
(ix) History or clinical signs suggestive of internal derangement of knee joint will
need careful consideration. Fitness in such cases will be based on functional
evaluation and possibility/progression/recurrence of the treated pathology. Any
ligamentous laxity is not accepted. ACL reconstruction surgery is to be considered
unfit
(x) If the distance between the internal malleoli is less than 5 cm, without any
other deformity, the candidate will be considered fit for Genu Valgum (Knock Knee).
If the distance between the two internal malleoli is more than 5 cm, candidate will be
declared unfit.
36
(xi) If the distance between the femoral condyles is within 10 cm the candidate
will be considered fit for Genu Varum (Bow Legs).
(xii) If the hyperextension of the knee is within 10 degrees and is unaccompanied

by any other deformity, the candidate will be accepted as fit for Genu Recurvatum.
(xiii) True lesions of the hip joint will entail rejection.
20. Central Nervous System
(a) A candidate giving a history of mental illness/ psychological afflictions requires

detailed investigation and psychiatric referral. Such cases will be rejected. Family history
and prior history of using medication is also relevant.
(b) History of insomnia, nightmares or frequent sleepwalking or bed-wetting, when

recurrent or persistent, will be a cause for rejection.
(c) Severe or ‘throbbing’ Headache and Migraine. Common types of recurrent

headaches are those due to former head injury or migraine. Other forms of occasional
headache must be considered in relation to their probable cause. A candidate with
migraine, which was severe enough to make him consult a doctor, will be a cause for
rejection. Even a single attack of migraine with visual disturbance or ‘Migrainous epilepsy’
is a bar to acceptance.
(d) History of epilepsy in a candidate is a cause for rejection. Convulsions/ fits after the
age of five are also a cause for rejection. Convulsions in infancy may not be of ominous
nature provided it appears that the convulsions were febrile convulsions and were not
associated with any overt neurological deficit. Causes of epilepsy include genetic factors,
traumatic brain injury, stroke, infection, demyelinating and degenerative disorders, birth
defects, substance abuse and withdrawal seizures. Seizures may masquerade as “faints”
and therefore the frequency and the conditions under which “faints” took place must be
elicited. Seizure attacks indicate unsuitability for flying, whatever their apparent nature.
(e) History of repeated attacks of heat stroke, hyperpyrexia or heat exhaustion bars
employment for Air Force duties, as it is an evidence of a faulty heat regulating mechanism.
A single severe attack of heat effects, provided the history of exposure was severe, and no
permanent sequelae were evident is, by itself, not a reason for rejecting the candidate.
(f) A history of severe head injury or Concussion is a cause for rejection. The degree of
severity may be gauged from the history of duration of Post Traumatic Amnesia (PTA).
Other sequelae of head injury are post concussion syndrome which has subjective
symptoms of headache, giddiness, insomnia, restlessness, irritability, poor concentration
and attention deficits; focal neurological deficit, and post traumatic epilepsy. Post traumatic
neuropsychological impairment can also occur which includes deficits in attention
concentration, information processing speeds, mental flexibility and frontal lobe executive
functions and psychosocial functioning. Fracture of the skull will not be a cause for
37
rejection unless there is a history of associated intracranial damage or of depressed

fracture or loss of bone. When there is a history of severe injury or an associated
convulsive attack, an electroencephalogram will be carried out which must be normal.
Presence of burr holes will be cause for rejection for flying duties, but not for ground duties.
Each case is to be judged on individual merits. Opinion of Neurosurgeon and Psychiatrist
must be obtained before acceptance.
(g) When a family history of Psychological Disorders like nervous breakdown, mental
disease, or suicide of a near relative is obtained, a careful investigation of the personal past
history from a psychological point of view is to be obtained. While such a history per se is
not a bar to Air Force duties, any evidence of even the slightest psychological instability in
the personal history or present condition, will entail rejection.
(h) If a family history of epilepsy is admitted an attempt should be made to determine its
type. When the condition has occurred in a near (first degree) relative, the candidate may
be accepted, if he has no history of associated disturbance of consciousness, neurological
deficit or higher mental functions and his electroencephalogram is completely normal.
(j) The assessment of emotional stability must include family and personal history, any
indication of emotional instability under stress as evidenced by the occurrence of undue
emotionalism as a child or of any previous nervous illness or breakdown. The presence of
stammering, tic, nail biting, excessive hyperhydrosis or restlessness during examination is
indicative of emotional instability.
(k) Candidates who are suffering from psychosis will be rejected. Drug dependence in
any form will also be a cause for rejection.
(l) Mentally unstable and neurotic individuals are unfit for commissioning. Juvenile and
adult delinquency, history of nervous breakdown or chronic ill health will be causes for
rejection. Particular attention will be paid to such factors as unhappy childhood, poor family
background, truancy, juvenile and adult delinquency, poor employment and social
maladjustment records, history of nervous breakdown or chronic ill-health, particularly if
these have interfered with employment in the past.
(m) Any evident neurological deficit (Organic Nervous Conditions) will call for rejection.
(n) Tremors are rhythmic oscillatory movements of reciprocally innervated muscle

groups. Tremors occur in cases of excessive fright, anger, anxiety, intense physical
exertion, metabolic disturbances including hyperthyroidism, alcohol withdrawl and toxic
effects of lithium, smoking (nicotine) and excessive tea, coffee. Other causes of coarse
tremor are Parkinsonism, cerebellar (intention) tremor, essential (familial) tremor, tremors of
neuropathy and postural or action tremors.
(o) Candidates with stammering will not be accepted for Air Force duties. Careful
assessment by ENT Specialist, Speech therapist, psychologist/ psychiatrist may be
obtained in doubtful cases.
38
(p) EEG will be recorded for candidates for aircrew duties only in case there is history of
epilepsy. Those with following EEG abnormalities in resting EEG or EEG under provocative
techniques will be rejected for aircrew duties:-
(i) Background Activity. Focal, excessive and high amplitude beta

activity/hemispherical asymmetry of more than 2.3 Hz/generalized and focal runs of
slow waves approaching background activity in amplitude.
(ii) Hyperventilation. Paroxysmal spikes and slow waves/spikes/focal spike

pattern.
(iii) Photo Stimulation. Bilaterally synchronous or focal paroxysmal spikes and

slow waves persisting in post-photic stimulation period/suppression or driving
response over one hemisphere.
(q) Non-specific EEG abnormality will be acceptable provided opinion of

Neuropsychiatrist/ Neurophysician is obtained. In case an EEG is reported as abnormal, the
candidate would be referred to CHAF (B) for a comprehensive evaluation by neurophysician
followed by review by a Board at IAM IAF.
21. Ear, Nose and Throat
(a) Nose and Paranasal Sinuses
(i) Obstruction to free breathing as a result of a marked septal deviation is a

cause for rejection. Post correction surgery with residual mild deviation with
adequate airway will be acceptable.
(ii) Any septal perforation will entail rejection.
(iii) Atrophic rhinitis will entail rejection.
(iv) Cases of allergic rhinitis will entail rejection for flying duties.
(v) Any infection of paranasal sinuses will be declared unfit. Such cases will be
accepted following successful treatment during Appeal Medical Board.
(vi) Multiple polyposis will be a cause for rejection.
(b) Oral Cavity and Throat
(i) Candidates where tonsillectomy is indicated will be rejected. Such candidates will
be accepted after successful surgery during Appeal Medical Board.
(ii) The presence of a cleft palate will be a cause for rejection.

39
(iii) Any disabling condition of the pharynx or larynx including persistent hoarseness
of voice will entail rejection.
(c) Obstruction or insufficiency of eustachian tube function will be a cause for rejection.
(d) The presence of tinnitus necessitates investigation of its duration, localization,

severity and possible causation. Persistent tinnitus is a cause for rejection, as it is liable to
become worse through exposure to noise and may be a precursor to Otosclerosis and
Meniere‘s disease.
(e) Specific enquiry will be made for any susceptibility to motion sickness. Such cases
will be fully evaluated and, if found susceptible to motion sickness, they will be rejected for
flying duties.
(f) A candidate with a history of dizziness needs to be investigated thoroughly.
(g) Hearing loss
(i) Free field hearing loss is a cause for rejection.
(ii) Audiometric loss should not be greater than 20 db, in frequencies between
250 and 8000 Hz. On the recommendation of an ENT Specialist, an isolated
unilateral hearing loss up to 30 db may be condoned provided ENT examination is
otherwise normal.
(h) A radical/modified radical mastoidectomy entails rejection even if completely

epithelialised and good hearing is preserved. Cases of cortical mastoidectomy in the past
with the tympanic membrane intact, normal hearing and presenting no evidence of disease
may be accepted.
(j) Cases of chronic otitis externa accompanied by exostoses or unduly narrow meatii
will be rejected. Exaggerated tortuosity of the canal, obliterating the anterior view of the
tympanic membrane will be a cause for rejection.
(k) Tympanoplasty Type I is acceptable twelve weeks after surgery, provided ear
clearance test in altitude chamber is normal. The following middle ear conditions will entail
rejection:-
(i) Attic, central or marginal perforation.
(ii) Tympanic membrane scar with marked retraction.
(iii) Tympanoplasty Type II onward but not Type I.
(iv) Calcareous plaques (tympanosclerosis) if occupying more than 1/3 of pars

tensa.
40
(v) Middle ear infections.
(vi) Granulation or polyp in external auditory canal.
(vii) Stapedectomy operation.
(l) Miscellaneous Ear Conditions. The following ear conditions will entail rejection:-
(i) Otosclerosis.
(ii) Meniere‘s disease.
(iii) Vestibular dysfunction including nystagmus of vestibular origin.
(iv) Bell‘s palsy following ear infection.
22. Ophthalmic System
(a) Visual defects and medical ophthalmic conditions are amongst the major causes of
rejection for flying duties.
(b) Personal and Family History and External Examination.
(i) Squint and the need for spectacles for other reasons are frequently hereditary
and a family history may give valuable information on the degree of deterioration to
be anticipated. Candidates, who are wearing spectacles or found to have defective
vision, will be properly assessed.
(ii) Ptosis interfering with vision or visual field is a cause for rejection till surgical
correction remains successful for a period of six months. Candidates with
uncontrollable blepharitis, particularly with loss of eyelashes, are generally
unsuitable and will be rejected. Severe cases of blepharitis and chronic conjunctivitis
will be assessed as temporarily unfit until the response to treatment can be
assessed.
(iii) Naso-lacrymal occlusion producing epiphora or a mucocele entails rejection,

unless surgery produces relief lasting for a minimum of six months.
(iv) Uveitis (iritis, cyclitis, and choroiditis) is frequently recurrent, and candidates
giving a history of or exhibiting this condition will be carefully assessed. When there
is evidence of permanent lesions such candidates will be rejected.
(v) Corneal scars, opacities will be cause for rejection unless it does not interfere
with vision. Such cases will be carefully assessed before acceptance, as many
conditions are recurrent.
41
(vi) Cases with Lenticular opacities will be assessed carefully. As a guideline any
opacity causing visual deterioration, or is in the visual axis or is present in an area of
7 mm around the pupil, which may cause glare phenomena, will not be considered
fit. The propensity of the opacities not
to increase in number or size will also be a consideration when deciding fitness.
(vii) Visual disturbances associated with headaches of a migrainous type are not a
strictly ocular problem, and will be assessed accordingly. Presence of diplopia or
detection of nystagmus requires proper examination, as they can be due to
physiological reasons.
(viii) Night blindness is largely congenital but certain diseases of the eye exhibit
night blindness as an early symptom and hence, proper investigations are necessary
before final assessment. As tests for night blindness are not routinely performed, a
certificate to this effect that the individual does not suffer from night blindness will be
obtained in every case. Certificate will be as per Appendix- D to the draft rules.
(ix) Restriction of movements of the eyeball in any direction and undue

depression/ prominence of the eyeball requires proper assessment.
(c) The visual acuity and colour vision requirements are detailed in Appendix- C to this
rule. Those who do not meet these requirements will be rejected.
(d) If there is a strong family history of Myopia, particularly if it is established that the
visual defect is recent, if physical growth is still expected, or if the fundus appearance is
suggestive of progressive myopia, even if the visual acuity is within the limit prescribed, the
candidate will be declared unfit.
(e) Refractive Surgeries. Candidates who have undergone PRK (Photo Refractive
Keractectomy)/ LASIK (LASER In Situ Keratomileusis) may be considered fit for
commissioning in the Air Force all branches.
(f) The following criteria must be satisfied prior to selecting post PRK/ LASIK
candidates:-
(i) PRK/ LASIK surgery should not have been carried out before the age of 20
years.
(ii) The axial length of the eye should not be more than 25.5 mm as measured by
IOL master.
(iii) Atleast 12 months should have elapsed post uncomplicated stable PRK/
LASIK with no history or evidence of any complication.
(iv) The post PRK/ LASIK corneal thickness as measured by a corneal

pachymeter should not be less than 450 microns.
42
(v) Individuals with high refractive errors (>6D) prior to PRK/ LASIK are to be
excluded.
(g) Radial keratotomy (RK) surgery for correction of refractive errors is not permitted for
any Air Force duties. Candidates having undergone cataract surgery with or without IOL
implants will also be declared unfit.
(h) Ocular Muscle Balance
(i) Individuals with manifest squint are not acceptable for commissioning.
(ii) The assessment of latent squint or heterophoria in the case of aircrew will be
mainly based on the assessment of the fusion capacity. A strong fusion sense
ensures the maintenance of binocular vision in the face of stress and fatigue. Hence,
it is the main criterion for acceptability.
(aa) Convergence.
(aaa) Objective Convergence. Average is from 6.5 to 8 cm. It is

poor at 10 cm and above.
(aab) Subjective Convergence (SC). This indicates the end point of

binocular vision under the stress of convergence. If the subjective
convergence is more than 10 cm beyond the limit of objective
convergence, the fusion capacity is poor. This is specially so when the
objective convergence is 10 cm and above.
(ab) Accommodation. In the case of myopes, accommodation should be

assessed with corrective glasses in position. The acceptable values for
accommodation in various age groups are given in table below:-
Age in Yrs 17-20 21-25 26-30 31-35 36-40 41-45

Accommodation 10-11 11-12 12.5- 14-16 16- 18.5-
(in cm) 13.5 18.5 27
(j) Ocular muscle balance is dynamic and varies with concentration, anxiety, fatigue,
hypoxia, drugs and alcohol. The above tests will be considered together for the final
assessment. For example, cases just beyond the maximum limits of the Maddox Rod test,
but who show a good binocular response, a good objective convergence with little
difference from subjective convergence, and full and rapid recovery on the cover tests may
be accepted. On the other hand, cases well within Maddox Rod test limits, but who show
little or no fusion capacity, incomplete or no recovery on the cover tests, and poor
subjective convergence will be rejected. Standards for assessment of Ocular Muscle
Balance are mentioned in Appendix- C to the draft rules.
43
(k) Any clinical findings in the media (cornea, lens, vitreous) or fundus, which is of
pathological nature and likely to progress will be a cause for rejection. This examination will
be done by slit lamp and ophthalmoscopy under mydriasis.
23. Haemopoietic System
(a) All candidates will be examined for clinical evidence of pallor (anaemia), malnutrition,
icterus, peripheral lymphadenopathy, purpura, petechiae/ ecchymoses and
hepatosplenomegaly.
(b) In the event of laboratory confirmation of anaemia (<13g/dl in males), further

evaluation to ascertain type of anaemia and aetiology will be carried out. This will include a
complete haemogram (to include the PCV MCV, MCH, MCHC, TRBC, TWBC, DLC,
Platelet count, reticulocyte count and ESR) and a peripheral blood smear. All the other tests
to establish the aetiology will be carried out, as required. Ultrasonography of abdomen for
gallstones, upper GI Endoscopy/ proctoscopy and hemoglobin electrophoresis etc. will be
done, as indicated, and the fitness of the candidate, decided on the merit of each case.
(c) Candidates with mild microcytic hypochromic (Iron deficiency anaemia) or dimorphic
anaemia (Hb < 11.5g/dl in males), in the first instance, will be made temporarily unfit for a
period of 04 to 06 weeks followed by review thereafter. These candidates can be accepted,
if the complete haemogram and PCV, peripheral smear results are within the normal range.
Candidates with macrocytic/ megaloblastic anaemia will be assessed unfit.
(d) All candidates with evidence of hereditary haemolytic anaemias (due to red cell
membrane defect or due to red cell enzyme deficiencies) and haemoglobinopathies (Sickle
cell disease, Beta Thalassaemia: Major, Intermedia, Minor, Trait and Alpha Thalassaemia
etc.) will be considered unfit for service.
(e) In the presence of history of haemorrhage into the skin like ecchymosis / petechiae,
epistaxis, bleeding from gums and alimentary tract, persistent bleeding after minor trauma
or lacerations / tooth extraction and any family history of haemophilia or other bleeding
disorders a full evaluation will be carried out. These cases will not be acceptable for entry to
service. All candidates with clinical evidence of purpura or evidence of thrombocytopenia
will be considered unfit for service. Cases of purpura simplex (simple easy bruising), a
benign disorder seen in otherwise healthy women may be accepted.
(f) Candidates with history of haemophilia, von Willebrand‘s disease, on evaluation, will
be declared unfit for service at entry level.
24. Assessment for women candidates-
(a) Any lump in the breast will be a cause for rejection. Cases of Fibroadenoma breast
after successful surgical removal may be considered fit with the opinion of a surgical
specialist and a normal histopathological report.
44
(b) Galactorrhoea will be cause for temporary unfitness. Fitness after

investigation/treatment may be considered based on merits of the case and opinion of the
concerned specialist.
(c) Any abnormality of external genitalia will be considered on merits of each case.
Significant hirsutism especially with male pattern of hair growth will be a cause for rejection.
Following conditions will not be a cause for rejection:-
(i) Small fibroid uterus (3 cm or less in diameter) without symptoms.

(ii) Small ovarian cyst (6 cm or less in diameter) as such cysts are invariably
functional.
(iii) Congenital elongation of cervix (which comes up to introitus).
(d) Congenital uterine anomalies such as bicornuate uterus, uterus didelphys and
arcuate uterus. Acute or chronic pelvic infection and Endometriosis will be causes for
rejection.
(e) Severe menorrhagia will entail rejection.
(f) Complete prolapse of uterus will be a cause for rejection. Minor degree, after
surgical correction, may be considered for fitness on merits.
(g) Any other gynaecological condition not covered above will be considered on merits
of each case by gynecologist.
(h) Pregnancy will be a cause for rejection.
-x-x-x-x-x-x-x-
45
Appendix B
[Refers to Para 12]
HEIGHT AND WEIGHT PARAMETERS FOR AIR FORCE COMMON ADMISSION ONLINE
TEST (AFCAT- 02/2019) FOR FLYING BRANCH AND GROUND DUTIES (TECHNICAL AND
NON-TECHNICAL)/ NCC SPECIAL ENTRY/ METEOROLOGY ENTRY
CANDIDATES ON ENTRY
1. You will be screened for your height and weight at AFSB. In case you do
not meet the height criterion when you report to AFSB, you may not be tested.
Overweight/obese candidate would be issued with a letter of caution and
advised to reduce weight within the specified limits before reporting for
medicals. Maximum permissible weight deviation is 01 Standard Deviation (SD)
as per the height and weight standards for men and women, failing which the
above mentioned letters of caution would be issued.
2. The minimum acceptable height for men and women candidates in Flying
Branch is 162.5 cms, Leg Length: Min - 99 cms, Max -120 cms. Thigh Length: Max -
64 cms, Sitting Height: Min - 81.5 cms, Max - 96 cms (No concession for age/ sex/
region).
3. The minimum acceptable height for male candidates in Ground Duty

(Technical/Non-technical) Branch is 157.5 cms. For women candidates, minimum
acceptable height is 152 cms. (For Gorkhas and individual belonging to hills of North-
Eastern region of India, Garhwal and Kumaon, the minimum acceptable height will
be 5 cms less. In case of candidates from Lakshadweep, the minimum acceptable
height will be 2 cms less than what is applicable to men and women respectively).
4. Height and Weight standards for men and women are given below for Indian
Air Force. Interpolation for weights against height not mentioned may be done.
46
Height and Weight Standards for Male
Height in Age Range (Years)

cm
15-17 18-22 23-27 28-32 33-37
152 46 47 50 54 54
153 47 47 51 55 55
154 47 48 51 56 56
155 48 49 52 56 56
156 48 49 53 57 57
157 49 50 54 58 58
158 49 50 54 58 58
159 50 51 55 59 59
160 51 52 56 59 60
161 51 52 56 60 60
162 52 53 57 61 61
163 52 54 58 61 62
164 53 54 59 62 63
165 53 55 59 63 63
166 54 56 60 63 64
167 54 56 61 64 65
168 55 57 61 65 65
169 55 57 62 65 66
170 56 58 63 66 67
171 56 59 64 66 68
172 57 59 64 67 68
173 58 60 65 68 69
174 58 61 66 68 70
175 59 61 66 69 71
176 59 62 67 70 71
177 60 62 68 70 72
178 60 63 69 71 73
179 61 64 69 72 73
180 61 64 70 72 74
181 62 65 71 73 75
182 62 66 72 74 76
183 63 66 72 74 76
184 64 67 73 75 77
185 64 68 74 75 78
186 65 68 74 76 78
187 65 69 75 77 79
188 66 69 76 77 80
189 66 70 77 78 81
190 67 71 77 79 81
191 67 71 78 79 82
192 68 72 79 80 82
193 68 73 79 81 83
+SD 6.0 6.3 7.1 6.6 6.9
47
Height and Weight standards for Female
Height in cm Weight in Kg
20-25 years 26-30 years
148 43 46
149 44 47
150 45 48
151 45 48
152 46 49
153 47 50
154 47 50
155 48 51
156 49 52
157 49 53
158 50 53
159 51 54
160 51 55
161 52 55
162 52 56
163 53 57
164 54 57
165 54 58
166 55 59
167 56 60
168 56 60
169 57 61
170 58 62
171 58 62
172 59 63
173 59 64
174 60 64
175 61 65
176 61 66
177 62 67
178 63 67
+SD 5 5
48
Appendix C
[Refers to Para 22 (c)]
VISUAL STANDARDS FOR AIR FORCE COMMON ADMISSION ONLINE TEST (AFCAT-
02/2019) FOR FLYING BRANCH AND GROUND DUTIES (TECHNICAL AND NON-
TECHNICAL)/ NCC SPECIAL ENTRY/ METEOROLOGY ENTRY
CANDIDATES ON ENTRY
Sl Branch Maximum Limits of Refractive Visual Acuity ErrorsColour

No Error Vision
1 F(P) Hypermetropia: + 2.0D Sph 6/6 in one eye and CP-I
including Manifest Myopia: Nil 6/9 in other,
WSOs Retinoscopic myopia: - 0.5 in correctable to 6/6
any meridian permitted only for
Astigmatism: + 0.75D Cyl Hypermetropia
(within + 2.0D Max)
2 Aircrew Hypermetropia: +3.5D Sph 6/24 in one eye and CP-I
other Myopia: -2.0D Sph
6/36 in other,
than F(P) Astigmatism: + 0.75D Cyl correctable to 6/6
and 6/9
3 Adm/ Hypermetropia: + 3.5D Sph Corrected visual CP-II
Adm Myopia: -3.5D Sph acuity should be
(ATC)/ Astigmatism: + 2.5D Cyl in 6/9 in each eye.
Adm any meridian
(FC)
4 AE(M) Hypermetropia: + 3.5 D Sph Corrected visual CP-II
AE(L) Myopia: -3.50 D Sph acuity should be
Astigmatism: + 2.5D Cyl in 6/9 in each eye.
any meridian Wearing of glasses
will be compulsory
when advised
5 Met Hypermetropia: + 3.5 D Sph Corrected visual CP-II
Myopia: -3.50 D Sph acuity should be
Astigmatism: + 2.50 D Cyl 6/6 in the better eye
and 6/18 in the
worse eye. Wearing
of Glasses will be
compulsory.
6 Accts/ Hypermetropia: + 3.5 D Sph Corrected visual CP-III
Lgs/Edn Myopia: -3.50 D Sph acuity should be
Astigmatism: + 2.50 D Cyl 6/6 in the better eye
and 6/18 in the
worse eye. Wearing
of Glasses will be
compulsory.
49
Notes:
Note1. Ocular muscle balance for personnel covered in Sl. Nos. 1 and 2 should conform to
the table given below:-
Standard of Ocular Muscle Balance for Flying Duties
Sl Test Fit Temporary Unfit Permanently

No Unfit
1 Maddox Rod Exo- 6 Prism Exo- Greater than 6 Uniocular
Test at 6 D Eso- 6 prism D Eso- Greater suppression
meters Prism D than 6 prism D Hyper- Hyper/Hypo
Hyper- 1 Greater than 1 prism D more than 2
Prism D Hypo- Greater than 1 prism D
Hypo- 1 Prism prism D
D
2 Maddox Rod Exo-16 Prism Exo- Greater than 16 Uniocular
Test at 33 D Eso- 6 prism D Eso- Greater suppression
cm Prism D than 6 prism D Hyper- Hyper/Hypo
Hyper- 1 Greater than 1 prism D more than 2
Prism D Hypo- Greater than 1 prism D
Hypo- 1 Prism prism D
D
3 Hand held All of BSV Poor Fusional reserves Absence of
Stereoscope grades SMP, fusion
Stereopsis
4 Convergence Up to 10 cm Up to 15 cm with effort Greater than
15 cm with
effort
5 Cover Test Latent Compensated Compensated
for Distance divergence heterophoria/ trophia heterophoria
and Near /convergence likely to improve with
recovery rapid treatment /persisting
and complete even after treatment
Note 2. The Sph correction factors mentioned above will be inclusive of the specified
astigmatic correction factor. A minimum correction factor upto the specified visual acuity
standard can be accepted.
50
Appendix D
[Refers to para 22 (b) (viii)]
Certificate Regarding Night Blindness
Name with Initials __________________________________________________

Batch No. _____________________ Chest No __________________________
I hereby certify that to the best of my knowledge, there has not been any case of night
blindness in our family, and I do not suffer from it.
Date: ………………………………. (Signature of the candidate)
Countersigned by
(Name of Medical Officer)

Eng 10701 14 1920b

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1

2. Candidates are to ensure their eligibility for the examination, as follows:-

3. Entry, Branch, Course Number and Vacancies.

Entry Branch PC/SSC Course Number Vacancies*

(b) Short Service Commission (SSC) for Men & Women.

(a) Nationality. Candidate must be a citizen of India.

(ii) Ground Duty (Technical & Non-Technical) Branch: 20 to 26 years as on

(v) Sometimes the Matriculation/ Higher Secondary Examination Certificate does

(c) Educational Qualifications.

(ii) Ground Duty (Technical) Branch.

(aa) Aeronautical Engineer (Electronics) {AE (L)}. Candidates with a

(aaa) Communication Engineering.

(aac) Computer Engineering & Application.

(ab) Aeronautical Engineer (Mechanical) {AE (M)}. Candidates with a

(aaa) Aerospace Engineering.

(iii) Ground Duty (Non-Technical) Branches.

(aa) Administration. Graduate Degree (Minimum three years degree

(ab) Education. MBA/ MCA or MA/ MSc degree in English/ Physics/

must be as per prevailing UGC guidelines with a minimum of 50% marks in

(v) Meteorology. Post Graduate Degree in any Science stream/ Mathematics/

(vi) Fresh Log-in.

(vii) Selection of Entry: “AFCAT”; “NCC SPECIAL ENTRY FOR FLYING

(viii) Click “INSTRUCTIONS”. Read Instructions carefully.

(ix) Acknowledgement of having read and understood instructions- Check box to

(x) Click “APPLICATION FORM FILLING”

(ii) Integrated Single Degree. If the Integrated Programme intends to offer a

(j) Detailed instructions on filling in the online application form:

Applicant has to choose Passed/ Failed/

Size of each file is to be between 10 KB

24 Aug19 (Day 1) 25 Aug 19 (Day 2)

Ability and Reasoning and

(iv) Marking Scheme is as follows:-

(aa) Three marks will be awarded for every correct answer.

(ab) One mark will be deducted for every incorrect answer.

(ac) No marks for unattempted questions.

(b) Standard and Syllabus of the Examination:

(aa) English. Comprehension, Error Detection, Sentence Completion/

(ab) General Awareness. History, Geography, Civics, Politics, Current

(ii) Standard. The standard of Numerical Ability Questions will be of Matriculation

(d) Instructions for e-Admit Card and AFCAT Written Examination.

(e) Special Instructions to Candidates for Online Examination.

(aa) e-Admit Card for AFCAT 02/2019.

(iv) Conduct in Examination Hall. The candidates are expected to conduct

(v) Instructions for examination. Question paper will be made available to

Imphal, Indore, Itanagar, Jabalpur, Jaipur, Jalandhar, Jalpaigudi, Jammu,

(g) Allotment of Centres. As far as possible, candidates will be allotted centres as

9. Air Force Selection Board (AFSB).

(d) Narcotics. Use/possession of narcotics is banned. Candidate may be

(i) AFCAT Admit Card.

(iv) Original/ Provisional Graduation Degree/ Post Graduation Degree Certificates

(aa) Name of the College.

(vi) Two attested photocopies of each of the above mentioned certificates.

(vii) Original NCC Certificate (if applicable).

(ix) Original valid Commercial Pilots’ License, issued by DGCA, if applicable.

(b) Physical Conditioning. Prospective candidates are advised to keep themselves in

(i) Running: up to 4 Km. in 15 minutes.

12. Facilitation Counter for Guidance of Candidates.

MEDICAL STANDARDS FOR

General Medical and Surgical Assessment

9. A candidate who has undergone an abdominal operation, other than a simple

11. Height, Sitting Height, Leg Length and Thigh Length

(i) Sitting height: Minimum- 81.5 cm Maximum- 96.0 cm

(ii) Leg Length: Minimum- 99.0 cm Maximum- 120.0 cm