ANESTHESIA-QUSTN

Q.1 All the following cause decrease in MAC except pseudocholinesterase.

a) Hypercalcemia D) a normal response.
b) Young age
c) Pregnancy Q. 9 Which of the following is NOT a trigger for
d) Anemia malignant hyperthermia?
A) succinylcholine
Q. 2 The following is correct about scoline B) halothane
a) Is stored under refrigeration at 2-8 C C) sevoflurane
b) Used within 3 days once removed and exposed to D) ketamine
room temperature
c) Dosage requirement per kilogram in children are Q.10 Which of the following does not affect the ASA
less than that of adult grading
d) Decreases potassium levels by .5meq/ml a) Smoking
b) Blood loss during surgery
Q.3 Regarding paedritic anaesthesia not true is c) Hypertension
a) Lyrangospasm is caused in children due to d) Chronic renal failure
stimulation of recurrent laryngeal nerve
b) Lyrangospasm is a immediate postoperative event Q.11 Neuroaxial anaesthesia does not block
rd
c) Cricoid cartilage is narrowest part of child airway a) 3 cranial nerve
th
d) Slight gas leak of 10-25 cm of water is allowed b) 6 cranial nerve
th
with endotracheal tubes c) 8 cranial nerve
th
d) 10 cranial nerve
Q.4 In children induction most commonly done with
a. Desflurane b. Nitrous oxide Q.12 True statement is
c. Sevoflurane d. Isoflurane a) Sympathetic outflow of spinal cord is craniosacral
b) Parasympathetic outflow of spinal cord is
Q.5 Cervicothoracic block is given at the level of throcolumbar
a. C5 b. C6 c) Principal site of action for neuroaxial blockade is
c. T1 d. T4 nerve roots
d) Sympathetic blockade is judged by pain sensitivity
Q.6 Fluids used for initial resustication in patients
with hemorrhagic and septic shock is Q.13 Longest acting NDMR is
a. Colloids b. Crystalloids a) Gantacurium
c. Albumin d. 3% saline b) Atracurium
c) Vecuronium
Q.7 Not a spinal needle is d) Doxacurium
a. Crawford b. Sprotte
c. Whitacre d. Quincke Q. 14 Massive blood transfusion results in
a) Metabolic acidosis
Q. 8 Incomplete jaw relaxation after halothane b) Metabolic alkalosis
induction and succinylcholine administration in c) Metabolic acidosis followed by metabolic alkalosis
children is MOST likely d) Metabolic alkalosis followed by metabolic acidosis
a) harbinger of malignant hyperthermia.
b) Due to an overdose of succinylcholine. Q. 15 Which of the following is not done routinely
C) Found only in patients with atypical during cpr
a) Use of cricoid pressure to prevent regurgitation

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ANESTHESIA-QUSTN

b) Epinephrine 1 mg every 3 to 5 min d) Size is often displayed on pilot balloon

c) Chest compressions to begin prior to intial breaths
d) In adults 2 breaths are administered every 30 Q. 22 All the following lead to inaccurate pulse
compressions oximeter readings except
a) Bilirubinemia
Q. 16 In adult patients solids should not be given b) Carboxyhaemoglobin
................... hours before surgery c) Methemoglobin
a. 2-4 b. 4-6 d) Dyes
c. 6-8 d. >8
Q. 23 Earlier symptom of L.A toxicity is
Q.17 The high pressure system of anaesthesia a) Nervousness
machine includes b) Muscle twitching
a. The vaporizres b. Flowmeters c) Circumoral numbness
c. The pipeline inlet d. The hanger yokes d) Tinnitus

Q. 18 The pin index safety system Q. 24 First anaesthesia machine was used in
a) Consists of 2 pins on cylinder valve that fit two a. 1917 b. 1942
corresponding holes in the yoke c. 1846 d. 1934
b) Is located above nipple on the yoke
c) Makes it impossible to place an incorrect cylinder Q. 25 Train of four ratio ,best utilized reversal is
in a yoke a. .6 b. .7
d) Has specific locations for pins and holes for each c. .9 d. 1
gas
Q. 26 Mapleson circut without breathing bag used is
Q. 19 The best position for intubating an adult a. Mapleson A b. Mapleson C
patient when using rigid lyrangoscope is c. Mapleson D d. Mapleson E
a) Shoulders elevated
b) Flexion of lower cervical spine and extension of Q. 27 Agent with fastest onset is
head a. Procaine b. Chloroprocaine
c) Flat on the bed c. Lignocaine d. Dibucaine
d) Pressure exerted on the mandible
Q. 28 False statement is
Q. 20 The best way to detect an oesophageal a) Local anaesthetic solutions containing adrenaline
intubation is are more alkaline
a) Seeing the tube pass through the vocal cords b) Potency of inhational agents is in MAC
b) Observing chest wall movement during inspiration c) Alkalinezation decreases pain during subcutenous
and expiration infiltration
c) Hearing breath sounds during controlled d) Prilocaine is metabolised to O toludine
ventilation
d) Monitoring CO2 in exhaled gases Q. 29 Golden site for core body temperature
monitoring is
Q. 21 With respect to tracheal tube size a. Tympanic membrane b. Pulmonary artery
a) Paedritic tubes are sized by OD c. Oesophagus d. Rectum
b) Tubes larger than size 6 must have OD marked on
them Q. 30 Which of the following statement is not correct
c) The French scale is required to be marked on tube

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ANESTHESIA-QUSTN

a) Sevoflurane is non pungent and has low blood gas c) Between oxygen flush and breathing system
cofficent d) Between flowmeters and machine outlet
b) Desflurane and isoflurane has similar structure
c) Desflurane causes emergence delirium in children Q. 38 The concentration of volatile anaesthetic may
d) Sevoflurane is not related to immune mediated be expressed as
anaesthetic hepatotoxicity a) Volumes percent
b) Number of units of the vapour in relation to total
Q. 31 LMA designed to facilitate endotracheal of 100 units
intubation is c) The partial pressure
a. Classical LMA b. Fastrach LMA d) All of the above
c. Proseal LMA d. I Gel LMA
Q. 39 Advantages of mapleson system include all the
Q. 32 Smoking should be discontinued to decrease following except
secretions and to reduce complications a) Buffering effect of end tidal CO2
a. 2-4 weeks b. 4-6 weeks b) Simple inexpensive equipment
c. 6-8 weeks d. 8-10 weeks c) Useful in treating malignant hyperthermia
d) Light weight
Q. 33 During laproscopic surgery the insufflation
pressures should not rise above ........... to prevent Q. 40 All the following are present in sodalime
adverse cardiac effects except
a. 10 mmHg b. 14 mmHg a) Calcium hydroxide
c. 18mm Hg d. 20mm Hg b) Potassium hydroxide
c) Barium hydroxide
Q. 34 Wong Baker FACES scale is used for d) Hardening agent
assessment of
a) Difficult airway Q. 41 Which anaesthetic agent is associated with
b) Pain highest level of carbon monoxide formation
c) Psychological evaluation a) Halothane
d) Icu mortality b) Isoflurane
c) Desflurane
Q. 35 Which of the following can be used d) Sevoflurane
transdermally
a. Fentanyl b. Morphine Q. 42 Lacrimation decreases in which stage of
c. Remifentanil d. Sufentanil anaesthesia
a) Stage 2
Q. 36 Most common cause of anaphylaxis during b) Stage 3 plane 1
anaesthesia is c) Stage 3 plane 3
a) Opoids d) Stage 4
b) Intrvenous anaesthetic agents
c) Antibiotics Q. 43 EEG activation during anaesthesia is seen with
d) Muscle relaxants a) Nitrous oxide
b) Hypocapnia
Q. 37 Acceptable locations for a vaporizer on c) Late hypoxia
anaesthesia machine include d) Etomidate
a) Between the check valve and common gas outlet
b) Between common gas outlet and breathing system Q. 44 Electrical silence on EEG is seen with

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ANESTHESIA-QUSTN

a) >1.2 MAC of desflurane c) Nitrogen

b) >1-2 MAC of isoflurane d) EDTA
c) >1.5MAC of sevoflurane Q. 51 EDTA is added to which of the following
d) Nitrous oxide a) Thiopentone
b) Propofol
Q. 45 Which of the following facial nerve block c) Etomidate
techniques not used for eye surgery d) Ketamine
a) Van lint
b) Nadbath Q.52 Most common hypoxia seen during anaesthesia
c) Atkinson is
d) O Brien a) Hypoxic hypoxia
b) Diffusion hypoxia
Q. 46 Strategies to prevent aspiration pneumonia in c) Histotoxic hypoxia
full stomach child are all except d) Anaemic hypoxia
a) Regional anaesthesia with minimal sedation
b) Premedication with metoclopromide Q. 53 Touch and pressure modalities are served by
c) Rapid sequence induction with positive pressure a) A alpha
ventilation b) A beta
d) Awake extubation c) A delta
d) C fibres
Q. 47 Epinephrine for neonatal resustication is used
in concentration of Q. 54 Predictors of difficult lyrangoscopy are all
a) 1:1000 except
b) 1:10000 a) Long upper incisors
c) 1:100000 b) History of head and neck radiation
d) 1:200000 c) Mallampati 3 and 4
d) Prominent overbite
Q.48 A patient anaesthetized for surgery of
carcinoma oesophagus is put on ventilator. The best Q. 55 Minimum inspired oxygen tension which
monitor to evaluate disconnection is prevent hypoxemia during general anaesthesia is
a) ECG a) 21%
b) Pulse oximeter b) 25%
c) EtCO2 c) 30%
d) FIO2 d) 40%

Q. 49 All the following are indications for central Q. 56 Capnograph is either normal or absent in all
venous cannulation ,except the conditions except
a) CVP monitoring a) Stopped ventilator
b) Parentral nutrition b) Convulsions
c) Anaesthesia induction c) Rebreathing
d) Non accessibility of peripheral veins d) Oesophageal intubation

Q. 50 Which of the following is added to thiopentone Q. 57 Measures to minimize the risk of tracheal tube
to improve its solubility fire from laser include all except
a) Sodium carbonate a) Filling cuff with saline
b) Sodium bi carbonate b) Using high concentration of oxygen

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ANESTHESIA-QUSTN

c) Using laser resistant tube

d) Minimising laser power density and duration Q. 65 Delayed induction is due to
a) Low blood gas solubility coefficient
Q. 58 EO false is b) Increased cardiac output
a) Is non flammable in concentration >5% c) Low output states
b) Is not useful for items containing petroleum based d) High inspired concentration of anaesthetic
lubricant
c) Is odourless Q. 66 Best agent for outpatient anaesthesia is
d) Should not be used on items that are wet a) Propofol
b) Remifentanil
Q. 59 Not used for epidural anaesthesia is c) Thiopentone
a) Chloroprocaine d) Etomidate
b) Benzocaine
c) Bupivacaine Q. 67 L cysteine is related to
d) Lidocaine a) Rocuronium
b) Mivacurium
Q. 60 Test dose of epidural anaesthesia consists of c) Gantacurium
a) Lignocaine with adrenaline 1:100000 d) Atracurium
b) Bupivacaine with adrenaline 1:100000
c) Lignocaine with adrenaline 1:200000 Q. 68 Central anticholinergic syndrome is not seen
d) Lignocaine without adrenaline with
Q. 61 Apnea during spinal anaesthesia occurs most a) Atropine
commonly due to b) Scopolamine
a) Blockade of phrenic nerve C3-C5 c) Both of the above
b) Total spinal d) None of the above
c) Hypotension with medullary hypoperfusion
d) Local anaesthetic toxicity Q. 69 Head injury patient with eye opening to
pain,decorticate flexion,incomprehensible sounds
Q. 62 Autonomic effects are not seen with has a GCS score of
a) Rocuronium a) 5
b) Pancuronium b) 7
c) Gallamine c) 8
d) Tubocurarine d) 10

Q. 63 Which statement is not true Q. 70 Adequate fluid resustication is indicated best

a) Pancuronium should be used with caution in CAD by
pts a) CVP
b) Rocuronium is analogue of vecuronium b) Urine output
c) Cisatracurium causes histamine release c) Heart rate
d) Atracurium should be avoided in asthamatic pts d) Correction of previous hypotension

Q. 64 Megaloblastic anaemia is related to Q. 71 In burn pt choice of fluid for resuscitation is

a) Xenon a) Ringer lactate
b) Nitrous oxide b) Albumin
c) Thiopentone c) Hypertonic saline
d) Sevoflurane d) Blood

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ANESTHESIA-QUSTN

Q. 78 a pt is to undergo posterior fossa surgery in

Q. 72 Pain relief during first stage of labour requires sitting position, he is most likely to have following
sensory blockade level of complication
a) L2 a) Hypo tension
b) S234 b) Stretch injury to brachial plexus
c) T10 c) Air embolism
d) T4 d) Severe tongue swelling

Q. 73 Spinal opoid causing motor blokcade is Q. 79 In pt with upper airway obstruction inhalation
a) Morphine of the following benefits
b) Mepredine a) Xenon
c) Fentanyl b) Carbon dioxide
d) Sufentanil c) Helium
d) Medical air

Q. 74 Which of the following does not affect the Q. 80 Which combination is correct
spread of spinal anaesthesia a) Black with white shoulder, 2000 psi, 2,5
a) Baricity of anaesthetic solution b) Blue cylinder,750 psi,1,5
b) Dose c) Orange, 75 psi,3,5
c) Speed of injection d) Blue body with blue and white shoulder,750 psi,7
d) Site of injection
Q. 75 During epidural anesthesia with 10ml of 2%
xylocaine, the patient developed respiratory Q.81 Identify the instrument
depression and hypotension . Which of the
following is the cause for the same :
a. Anaphylaxis
b. Drug gone into the subarachnoid space
c. Anaphylaxis
d. Systemic toxicity of the drug

Q. 76 Duchenne mascular dystrophy, all are true

except a) Guedel airway
a) Suxamethonium is agent of choice b) LMA
b) I.V induction should be preffered c) Nasophyrnrgeal airway
c) Use of volatile anesthetics not recommended d) Uncuffed endotracheal tube
d) Duration of action of NDMR is prolonged
Q. 82 The arrow shows
Q. 77 All are true about nitrous oxide except
a) It is an analgesic
b) Prepared by heating ammonium nitrate
c) Stored in liquefied form
d) The amount in cylinder is ascertained by pressure
gauge

a) Drain tube

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ANESTHESIA-QUSTN

b) Bite block Q. 87 The arrow corresponds to

c) Airway tube
d) Cuff

Q. 83 Identify the tube

a) Laser tube
b) Laryngectomy tube
c) Preformed tube
d) Microlyngeal tube
a) High pressure system
b) Intermediate pressure system
Q. 84 Tracheal tubes not having Murphy eye is
known as c) Pressure gauge
a) Cole tube d) Low pressure system
b) Magill tube
c) Spiral embedded tube Q. 88 In severe facial trauma airway is secured best
d) Double lumen tube by
a) Tracheal intubation
Q. 85 All the following conditions show this except b) Nasotracheal intubation
c) LMA
d) Cricothyrotomy

Q. 89 Which of the following can alternatively to

a) Oesophageal intubation epinephrine be used for resustication
b) Bronchospasm a) Vasopressin
c) Partially kinked endotracheal tube b) Noradrenaline
d) Foreign body in airway c) Atropine
d) Amiodarone

Q.86 The following circut is Q. 90 Adequacy of chest compression can be

assessed by all except
a) ETCO2 of greater than 10 mmHg
b) Arterial pulsation during resustication
c) Coronary perfusion pressure
d) Scvo2
a) Maplson A
b) Waters to and fro circut Q. 91 Arrythimia most commonly developing in
cardiac arrest is
c) Bain
a) VT
d) Jackson rees
b) VF
c) Bradycardia

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ANESTHESIA-QUSTN

d) Asytole
Q98.Muscle relaxation is not associated with
Q. 92 Which of these anesthetics lacks sufficient potency to a. Halothane b. Desflurane
produce surgical anesthesia by itself and is commonly c. Sevoflurane d. Nitrous oxide
used with another anesthetic?
a)Halothane Q. 99 Prior hyperventilationto prevent rise in ICP is
b)Sevoflurane related to
c)Nitrous oxide a. Sevoflrane b. Halothane
d)Desflurane c. Desflurane d. Isoflurane

Q. 93 . K e t a m i n e a n e s t h e s i a i s n o t Q100 .Hypersensitivity to NDMR is not associated

associated with: with
a)intact upper airway reflexes a) Myasthenia gravis
b)Increased cerebral blood flow, oxygen b) Burn injury
consumption and intracranial pressure c) Duchenne mascular dystrophy
c)Disorientation, sensory and perceptual illusions, d) SLE
and vivid dreams following anesthesia
d)direct cardiovasular effects to patients with Q 101..pancuronium is detrimental in all except
acute shock a) Coronary artery disease
b) Acute shock
Q. 94 .taste sensation of garlic or pizza is c) Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
associated with d) Aortic stenosis
a) Etomidate
b) Thiopentone
c) Propofol
d) Ketamine

Q. 95 .True about thiopentone is:

a) Oxybarbiturates are more lipid soluble than
thiobarbiturates
b) Calcium salts of barbiturate are water soluble
c) It is unstable with shelf life of 2 weeks
d) pH of thiopentone is <10

Q.96 .topical anaesthetic spray causing

methmoglobenemia is
a) lignocaine
b) dibucaine
c) ‘benzocaine
d) Prilocaine

Q.97 .Not used for infiltration is

a) Chlorprocaine
b) Lignocaine
c) Tetracaine
d) Ropivacaine

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ANESTHESIA-EXPL

ANS.1 (B) ANS. 24 (A) ANS. 47 (B)

ANS.2 (A) ANS.25 (C) ANS. 48 (C)

ANS.3 (A) ANS.26 (D) ANS. 49 (C)

ANS.4 (C) ANS.27 (B) ANS. 50 (A)

ANS.5 (B) ANS.28 (A) ANS. 51 (B)

ANS,6 (B) ANS.29 (B) ANS. 52 (A)

ANS.7(A) ANS.30 (C) ANS. 53 (B)

ANS.8 (A) ANS.31 (B) ANS. 54 (B)

ANS,.9 (D) ANS. 32 (C) ANS. 55 (C)

ANS.10 (B) ANS. 33 (C) ANS. 56 (C)

ANS.11 (D) ANS.34 (B) ANS. 57 (B)

ANS.12 (C) ANS. 35 (A) ANS. 58 (C)

ANS.13 (D) ANS. 36(D) ANS. 59 (B)

ANS.14(C) ANS. 37 (D) ANS. 60 (C)

ANS.15 (A) ANS 38 (D) ANS. 61 (C)

ANS.16 (C) ANS. 39 (C) ANS. 62 (A)

ANS.17 (D) ANS. 40 (C) ANS. 63 (C)

ANS.18 (D) ANS. 41 (C) ANS. 64 (B)

ANS.19 (B) ANS. 42 (C) ANS. 65 (B)

ANS, 20 (D) ANS. 43 (A) ANS. 66 (A)

ANS. 21 (D) ANS. 44 (B) ANS. 67 (C)

ANS. 22 (A) ANS. 45 (B) ANS. 68 (C)

ANS. 23 (C) ANS. 46 (C) ANS. 69 (B)

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ANESTHESIA-EXPL

ANS. 70 (B) ANS. 93 (D)

ANS. 71 (A) ANS. 94 (B)

ANS. 72 (B) ANS. 95 (C)

ANS. 73 (B) ANS. 96 (C)

ANS. 74 (C) ANS. 97 (C)

ANS. 75 (B) ANS. 98 (D)

ANS. 76 (A) ANS. 99 (B)

ANS. 77 (D) ANS.100 (B)

ANS. 78 (C) ANS. 101 (B)

ANS. 79 (C)

ANS. 80 (A)

ANS. 81 (C)

ANS. 82 (B)

ANS. 83 (C)

ANS. 84 (B)

ANS. 85 (A)

ANS. 86(A)

ANS 87(D)

ANS. 88 (D)

ANS. 89 (A)

ANS. 90 (B)

ANS. 91 (B)

ANS. 92 (C)

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