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D 2. Alkaline salts like potassium penicillin when placed in an acidic solution can result in:
a. conversion into free acid c. insolubility
b. precipitation of penicillin d. all of the above
B 7. Anaphylaxis is a:
a. Type A ADR c. Type E ADR
b. Type B ADR d. Type F ADR
A 9. Any drug reaction which does not necessarily have a casual relationahip with the treatment is called an:
a. adverse drug reaction c. adverse drug event
b. therapeutic incompatibility d. none of the above
B 13. The precipitation of an organic substance from a saturated solution when highly soluble salts are added is known
as:
a. polymorphism c. racemization
b. salting-out d. eutexia
D 14. Acacia in the presence of Bismuth salts can form a “cake” at the bottom of the container. This manifestation is
known as:
a. gelatinization c. emulsification
b. hydrolysis d. cementation
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D 18. Chloramphenicol palmitate exists in 3 different polymorphs, each differ in the ff. properties, except:
a. solubility c. melting point
b. free energy d. none of the above
D 19. The following are the physiologic effects of food on drug reaction, except:
a. reducing gastric emptying rate
b. milk reduces absorption of tetracycline
c. tea increases absortion of paracetamol
d. vegetables potentiate anticoagulants
D 21. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAO inhibitors) and foods rich in tyramine like cheese will lead to:
a. accumulation of pressor amines c. non-metabolism of tyramine
b. increase in blood pressure d. all of the above
C 22. The following condition/s will amplify the activity of cardiac glycosides:
a. hypercalcemia c. both a & b
b. hypokalemia d. none of the above
A 23. Drug-drug interactions that occur when one drug alters the absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion of
the other drug.
a. pharmacokinetic interactions c. pharmacodynamic interaction
b. pharmacologic interactions d. all of the above
D 24. Displacement of a plasma-protein bound drug such as in Warfarin-phenylbutazone interaction, results in:
a. hemorrhage c. decreased activity of warfarin
b. increase concentration of warfarin d. both A & B
D 27. The following are true regarding excretion of acidic drugs except:
a. exist in the ionized state in alkaline urine
b. exist in the non-ionized form in acidic urine
c. acidic urine increases drug action
d. none of the above
A 31. A fever response to antibiotic therapy caused by the sudden release of endotoxins from various killed
microorganisms is called:
a. Herxheimer reaction c. skin reaction
b. Lyell’s syndrome d. anaphylactic reaction
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B 34. The most important protein to which drugs can bind in the plasma:
a. lipoprotein c. glycoprotein
b. albumin d. none of the above
B 39. The transport of a substance from one part of the body to another by means of blood:
a. absorption c. metabolism
b. distribution d. excretion
D 40. The following are possible remedies for liquefaction of solid substances except:
a. triturate separately and mix by tumbling
b. add adsorbents to liquid combination
c. dispense powders separately
d. incorporate cotton in packaging
B 42. The conversion of an optically active form to an optically inactive form is called:
a. polymorphism c. polymerization
b. racemization d. enantiomorphism
C 45. Enzyme induction of Phenobarbital with oral contraceptives can lead to:
a. decreased Phenobarbital action c. unreliable contraception
b. increased oral contraceptives action d. none of the above
A 46. Characterizes the first exposure of the fraction of the drug metabolized in the liver:
a. first pass effect c. biotransformation
b. drug-receptorinteraction d. pharmacokinetics
B 49. An ADR experienced as a consequence of receiving an inappropriately high dose of the drug due to patient
characteristics:
a. idiosyncracy c. side effect
b. extension effect d. Type B
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C 54. The supply of medicine to an individual patient in accordance to the prescription given by the physician:
a. compounding c. dispensing
b. formulation d. none of the above
C 59. Which of the ff. correctly applies to this group of drug products? Paracetamol 325 mg. Tab, Cortal 325 mg Tab,
Alvedon 325 mg Tab
a. all are generically equivalent c. all are non-prescription drugs
b. all are in brand names d. all are prescription drugs
C 60. Because it is the language of medical science throughout the world, this language is still used in Rx writing:
a. English c. Latin
b. German d. Spanish
B 62. For dispensing thick viscous liquids, the container should be:
a. standard prescription c. collapsible tubes
b. wide-mouthed bottles d. dropper bottles
A 63. When the generic name is preceded by the brand name, the prescription is:
a. erroneous prescription c. impossible prescription
b. violative prescription d. none of the above
D 65. When dispensing a compounded prescription, these information must be written on the label except:
a. indications c. name of manufacturer
b. name and strength of actives d. name of physician
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B 67. How many mL will you dispense for a prescription calling for a 100 g of a liquid substance with a sp.gr. of 1.25?
a. 75 mL c. 85 mL
b. 80 mL d. 90 mL
B 68. Providing the correct medicines at the right time at the right dose and using the right route of administration to the
right patient is:
a. primary care c. osteopathy
b. rational drug therapy d. homeopathy
B 75. A suspension with the f. ingredients (FeCl3, Fe(OH)3, acacia, FD&C #5 (orange color) and methyl paraben will
reveal this manifestation:
a. polymerization c. cementation
b. gelatinization d. precipitation
C 78. Citric acid, atropine sulfate and ferrous sulfate are classified as:
a. eutectic mixtures c. efflorescent substances
b. deliquescent substs. d. polymorphs
D 81. The conversion of an optically active drug with one chiral center into an optically inactive isomer:
a. polymorphism c. epimerization
b. enatiomerism d. racemization
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D 85. The date after which the product is not intended to be used:
a. beyond-use date c. stop date
b. expiry date d. both A & B
D 87. Poor patient compliance with prescription instruction is usually due to the ff. except:
a. patient understood pharmacists instructions poorly
b. pharmacist has poor communication skills
c. inadequate time of pharmacist for patient counseling
d. any of the above
D 96. When dispensing prepared dosage forms, the pharmacist may use which of the ff dose equivalents?
a. exact equivalent c. approximate dose
b. exact dose d. a and b
B 97. Indicates the quantitative range or amounts of drug that maybe prescribed within the guidelines of usual medical
practice.
a. divided dose c. loading dose
b. usual dosage range d. total dose
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b. sedation d. nausea
D 102. An anionic exchange resin intended to bind bile acids, cholesterol metabolites and co-administered drugs:
a. chloramphenicol c. tetracycline
b. cholesterol precursor d. colestyramine
C 104. This container is impervious to air and other gases under ordinary conditions of handling storage and transport:
a. airtight container c. hermitically sealed
b. security closed d. child-resistant container
A 106. All of the following untoward effects are commonly associated with cancer chemotherapy EXCEPT:
a. exfoliative dermatitis
b. teratogenesis
c. nausea
d. alocepia & leukemia
A 107. Glass is a traditional packaging material which has been widely used for both liquid and solid dose forms. All of
the following are types of glass containers, except:
a. closures c. ear and nasal dropper bottles
b. bottles d. containers for semi-solid preparation
C 108. Used as pharmaceutical packaging materials include aluminum, tin and tin-coated lead
a. glass c. metals
b. plastics d. paperboards
C 110. How many doses of teaspoonful each are there in a 4-fl. Oz. bottle of medication?
a. 10 b. 20 c. 24 d. 30
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A 116. Route of administration where drugs are applied to the skin surface to be absorbed slowly into the systemic
circulation
a. transdermal route c. buccal route
b. inhalation route d. rectal route
A 117. Involves the degradation of the drug or excipients through reaction with the solvents present in the formulations:
a. solvolysis c. photolysis
b. oxidation d. polymerization
C 118. Degradationof drugs or excipient molecules can be brought about by light, either room lights or sunlight.
a. solvolysis c. photolysis
b. oxidation d. polymerization
C 120. Occurs immediately upon compounding like presence of precipitate; Effervescene of color changes.
a. minor incompatibility c. immediate incompatibility
b. delayed incompatibility d. major incompatibility
D 121. Combinations liable to produce therapeutic incompatibilities when administered at the same time except:
a. sedatives and stimulants c. caffeine and chloral hydrate
b. tannins and aloins d. aspirin and warfarin
C 122. Water is most likely to cause instability on the following drugs, except:
a. Penicillins c. Alkaloids
b. Cephalosporins d. Benzodiazepines
C 124. During drug interaction, the affected drug may become more active resulting to the following except:
a. increase drug activity c. less effective
b. longer therapeutic action d. toxicity
B 125. It occurs when drugs are mixed inappropriately in syringes or infusion fluids prior to administration.
a. pharmacodynamic interaction c. pharmacokinetic interaction
b. pharmaceutical interaction d. all of the above
B 127. Delay in gastric-emptying time for the drug to reach the duodenum will ______, thereby prolonging the onset of
time for the drug.
a. slow the rate and extent of drug distribution
b. slow the rate and extent of drug absorption
c. increase the rate and extent of drug absorption
d. increase the rate and extent of drug metabolism
D 128. Factors that tend to reduce stomach contraction and gastric emptying rate except:
a. consumption of meals high in fat c. depression
b. patient lying on left side d. hyperthyroidism
C 129. This drug inhibits the Vit. K dependent synthesis of clotting factors II, VII, IX and X
a. Tetracycle c. Warfarin
b. Diphenhydraime d. Aspirin
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D 137. Major pathway of excretion are via the kidney into the urine and via the liver into the
a. bile c. alveolar air
b. urine d. feces
D 143. Which statement is incorrect regarding interaction involving tyramine containing substance and MAO inhibitor?
a. inhibition of MAO result in the accumulation of large amounts of norepinephrine
b. decrease in the rate of intracellular metabolism
c. large amount of norephinephrine can cause severe headache and hypertension
d. large amount of stored norepinephrine can cause hypotensive crisis
C 144. Acidic group of amino acids responsible for binding basic drugs, expect
a. glutamic c. lysine
b. aspartic d. tyrosine
B 145. Interactions that arise with drug acting on the receptors, sites of action or physiological system
a. pharmaceutical interactions c. pharmacokinetic interactions
b. pharmacodynamic interactions d. change in body fluids and electrolyte balances
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A 148. Petition for favor of healing and warning from great care and precaution.
a. Rx c. Magistral Pharmacy
b. Signa d. Mark thou
D 149. The approved clinical use of the product based on substantial evidence of the efficacy and safety of the drug
a. warning c. pharmacologic category
b. formulation d. indication
B 150. Instruction and special care to avoid undesired effects and to ensure the safe and effective use of the product
a. warnings c. contraindications
b. precautions d. indications
B 151. Generic equivalent drugs are finished pharmaceutical products having same ingredients, same dosage form, and
the same strength. They differ only in
a. generic name c. international non-proprietary
b. brand name d. active constituents
A 157. Official name of drug products containing 2 or more active ingredients with single INN
a. INN of the combination products
b. generic names of 2 or more active ingredients
c. based on the nomenclature used by the PNDF
d. products with standards formulations included in the current PNDF
A 159. This parchment scroll found in Egypt mentioned 700 drugs with formulas for more than 800 remedies
a. Papyrus Ebers c. Remington
b. De Materia Medica d. USP NF
B 162. Part of a label that is most likely to be presented, shown or examined under customary conditions for display for
retail sale.
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A 164. Combination of salt substitute and potassium sparing drugs will result to
a. hyperkalemia c. alkalosis
b. tachycardia d. calcemia
B 165. A written order signed by a licensed medical practitioner for medicine to be compounded by a pharmacist to
meet the needs of a certain person at a particular time
a. letter c. recommendation
b. prescription d. receipt
B 166. It forms the beginning of a direct order from the prescriber to the compounder
a. inscription c. subscription
b. superscription d. errors in the written order
A 169. The part of the prescription which directs the patient what to do is:
a. signa c. subscription
b. inscription d. superscription
C 170. A prescription where the generic name does not correspond to the brand name
a. violative Rx c. impossible Rx
b. erroneous Rx d. yellow DDB Rx
A 172. Complimentary list is a list of ________ drug used when there in no response to the core essential list
a. alternative c. additional
b. substitute d. supplementary
B 173. When suppositories containing phenol causes the vehicle to soften the melting point may be raised by adding:
a. lanolin c. fixed oil
b. petrolatum d. vehicle
C 174. Which one of the following antacid products is a chemical combination of aluminum and magnesium hydroxides?
a. Maalox c. Riopan
b. Mylanta d. Gelusil
B 176. The label text outside the principal display panel on the immediate container of pharmaceutical products as
specified by RA 3720 contains the following information except:
a. formulation c. batch and/or lot number
b. contraindication d. mode of administration
B 177. The ophylline when taken with high fat breakfast will result to the ff:
a. combination reduces the amount of theophylline
b. action of theophylline is enhanced by the fat present
c. combination increases the metabolism of theophylline
d. both have synergistic effects
D 178. Valium and Tagamet combination will not result to one from the ff:
a. Tagamet delay elimination of anti-anxiety agent
b. Increased sedation and dizziness
c. Blood levels of anti-anxiety drug increased
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B 183. Providing the correct medicine at the correct time, in the correct dose and the correct route of administration is
called:
a. primary care c. osteopathy
b. rational drug therapy d. homeopathy
B 184. When the word otic appears on the label of the drug, the patient should be informed that the drug is applied on th
a. mouth c. eyes
b. ear d. nose
A 186. Salt of zinc that is valuable as an eyewash for the treatment of conjunctivitis
a. zinc sulfate c. zinc oxide
b. zinc chloride d. all of these answers
B 189. Failure to mix or dissolve when two or more ingredients are combined may be termed as:
a. adverse reactions c. drug precipitation
b. physical incompatability d. complexation
D 191. Mixture of phenolic, aldehyde, ketonic compounds and alcohols are examples of
a. insoluble substances c. delinquent substances
b. hydroscopic substances d. eutectic mixtures
B 192. Substances which absorb moisture from the air are called:
a. effervescent powders c. anhydrous powders
b. hygroscopic powders d. efflorescent powders
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B 196. Drugs that can be dispensed only through a yellow prescription pad:
a. essential drugs c. OTC products
b. dangerous drugs d. prescription drugs
D 200. The combination of NaHCO3 with an organic acid (citric or tartaric acid) will result in:
a. precipitation c. oxidation
b. color changes d. effervescence
C 201. When an oxidizing agent is triturated in a mortar with a reducing agent, this would likely result to:
a. formation of damp mass c. violent explosion
b. discoloration of powders d. volatilization of some of the ingredients
B 202. The reaction between sodium bicarbonate and aspirin would result to:
a. formation of precipitate c. hydrolytic changes
b. evolution of gas d. invisible changes
C 205. When the response of a patient to one or more drugs is different in nature than that intended by the prescriber is
called:
a. antagonistic incompatibility b. threrapeutic incompatibility
b. chemical incompatibility d. physical incompatibility
C 206. Adverse drug reactions characterized by exaggerated or inordinate response to normal doses of a drug:
a. idiosyncrasy c. hypersensitivity
b. allergy d. potentiation
A 207. Occurs when one drug increases the action of another drug:
a. potentiation c. summation
b. antagonism d. cummation/potentiation
B 208. Isotonic solution of this substance will still cause hemolysis of RBC
a. benzoic acid c. sodium bicarbonate
b. boric acid d. sodium benzoate
D 209. Substance used as a test for liver function by measuring the amount of hippuric acid in urine
a. sodium borate c. sodium salicylate
b. aspirin d. all of the above
B 210. The risk of aspirin in children with fever due to viral infection:
a. Gray baby syndrome c. bone fraction
b. Reye’s syndrome d. all of the above
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B 216. Reactions which are noxious, unintended and which occur at doses normally used in man for prophylaxis,
diagnosis or therapy:
a. drug interaction c. pharmacodynamic
b. adverse drug reactions d. therapeutic incompatibilities
D 217. The ingestion of alcoholic drinks while on analgesic or sedative therapy represents a commonly encountered
drug interaction that may result in:
a. tolerance c. excessive CNS stimulaton
b. antagonism d. excessive CNS depression
A 218. Biological half life of many drugs is often prolonged in newborn infants because of:
a. incompletely developed enzyme system
b. microsomal enzyme inhibition
c. higher protein binding
d. well developed renal function
B 222. Drugs that should not be given to children with chicken pox of flu symptoms:
a. acetaminophen c. ibuprofen
b. aspirin d. all of these answers
A 223. Drug that should not be given to patients who have undergone surgery including dental surgery
a. aspirin c. ibuprofen
b. acetaminophen d. all of these answers
A 226. The most clinically significant adverse drug reaction affecting the upper gastrointestinal tract results from the use
of:
a. NSAIDS c. phenobarbital
b. antabuse d. aspirin
B 228. A reaction that is noxious and unintended, which occurs in doses used in man for prophylaxis, diagnosis and
therapy:
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B 230. A type of synergism in which the combined effect is equal to the additive effect of the combined drugs is termed:
a. potentiation c. metabolism
b. summation d. hyperactivity
D 231. Which of the following factors influence drug metabolism and metabolic pathway?
a. genetic variation c. physiologic or disease state
b. antioxidant d. none ofthese answers
D 233. Which of the following factors may make it necessary to give lower doses of drugs to geriatric patients?
a. reduced enzyme activity c. enhanced absorption
b. reduced kidney function d. a and b
A 239. Increases serum levels and prolongs agent the activity of penicillin derivatives by blocking the latter’s tubular
excretion:
a. probeneid c. propranolol
b. indomethacin d. methyldopa
C 242. A drug that increases the anticoagulant action of warfarin because its metabolite competes with the
anticoagulant for plasma protein binding sites:
a. tolbutamide c. chloral hydrate
b. aspirin d. diazepam
A 243. Allopurinol inhibits xanthine oxidase and thus increases the plasma levels of:
a. mercaptopurine c. disulfiram
b. chloral hydrate d. aspirin
A 245. A formulation of FeSO4 Suspension cannot use Acacia as a suspending agent, because the final product may
exhibit:
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a. gelatinization c. cementation
b. prescipitation d. oxidation
D 246. Cold preparations when taken in large doses may interact with:
a. sedatives c. MAOIs
b. guaiafenisin d. a and c
A 247. Which of the following properties would characterize a drug when it is bound to plasma albumin?
a. it is biologically inactive c. it is promptly metabolized
b. it can pass through the glomerulus d. a and b
C 250. The ff. drugs often precipitate an interaction when administered with a second drug, except:
a. sedation c. hemolytic anemia
b. headache d. hypokalemia
C 251. The following response belong to Type B adverse drug reactions, except:
a. allergy of Cefotaxime
b. aplastic anemia in patients taking chloramphenicol
c. facial abnormalities in babies born to alcoholic mothers
d. peripheral neuritis in a british missionary ill with tuberculosis
D 258. Activated charcoal is used in some antidotes because of which of its properties?
a. neutralizing d. adsorptive
b. emetic e. stabilizing
c. absorptive
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a. Chloramphenicol d. Lincomycin
b. Tobramycin e. It is unique in spectrum
c. Kanamycin
B 262. The dose of a drug is 5 mg/kg of body weight. What dose should be a given to a 100-lb female patient?
a. 2500 mg d. 44 mg
b. 250mg e. 440 mg
c. 25 mg
A 263. How many grains of a drug is needed to make 4 fluid ounces of a 5% w/v solution?
a. 91 grains d. 100 grains
b. 96 grains e. 24 grains
c. 48 grains
E 267. The two major properties of drug that are usually modified by
Complexation are:
a. odor and taste d. chemical structure and stability
b. taste and solubility e. stability and solubility
c. chemical structure and solubility
E 268. What will result if the distribution of drugs is slower than the process of biotransformation and elimination?
a. high blood levels of drug d. potentiation
b. low blood levels of drug e. failure to attain diffusion equilibrium
c. synergism
B 270. pH is:
a. not termperature d. high for acids
b. a measure of acidity e. none of the above
c. the same as pOH
B 272. Which of the following drugs undergoes marked hydrolysis in the GI Tract?
a. Aspirin d. Hydrocortisone
b. Penicillin G e. Chlortetracycline
c. Acetaminophen
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A 275. A solution contains 3 gr of a drug per fluid ounce. What is the percentage
w/v of the solution?
a. 0.66% d. 1.0%
b. 0.59% e. 6.5%
c. 10.0%
C 279. The dose of a drug is 0.5 mg/kg. What dose should be given a 6-year-old child who weights 44 lb?
a. 0.003 g d. 0.100 g
b. 0.033 g e. 0.05 g
c. 0.010 g
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D 288. Pharmacists should caution patients whoare taking niacin that this drug:
a. stains the urine bright red c. causes muscular weakness
b. causes ringing in the ears d. should be taken with meals
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