CDI

Final Coaching

1. What is an art which deals with the identity and location of the offender and provide
evidence of his guilt in criminal proceedings?
a) Criminal Investigation c. Preliminary Investigation
b) Custodial Investigation d. Undercover Investigation
ORIGIN: Investigation was derived from the Latin word “Investigatus” meaning to trace or
track.
2. The person who is charged in carrying the task to accomplished the three-aim fold of investigation.
A. Investigator B. Criminal investigation C. Criminal acquaintances D. Judge
Note: only two of the choices are persons: (a) Investigator and (d) judge.
3. Which of the following is not the function of criminal investigation?
A. Identify, locate and arrest the persons who commits crime
B. Prosecute and convict the criminal
C. Identify, collect and preserve evidence
D. Bring the offender to justice
4. He is once a hireling, brothel operator, buckle maker and a master criminal, who became London’s
most effective criminal investigator for pioneering the logic of “Employing a thief to catch a thief”.
a. Henry Feilding b. Jonathan Wild c. Eugene ‘Francois’ Vidocg d. Sir Robert Peel
Henry Fielding = formed the group uniform thief catchers attached to the Bow street Court.
Eugene ‘Francois’ Vidocg = a former convict who became a Paris Investigator who introduced the
“trade Protection Policy” which became the forerunner of the credit card system.
Sir Robert Peel = founded the London Metropolitan Police Force & Father of Modern Policing
System.
5. The first law enforcement agency with statewide investigative authority, the forerunner of the FBI.
a. Texas Ranger c. New York Police Department
b. Los Angeles Police Department d. Bow Street Runner
Bow street runner = the first privately paid group to follow-up investigation of crime….
6. It refers to the application of instruments and methods of physical science in the detection of crime
such as fingerprints, photography, polygraphy, ballistics etc.
a) Inquiry b. Instrumentation c) Interrogation d. Interview
Three (3) Tools or I’s of Investigation:
1. Information 2. Interview & Interrogation 3. Instrumentation/Criminalistics
7. Company files, Police files and records from civic spirited citizens are classified as:
A. Information C. Information from cultivated sources
B. Information from regular sources D. Confidential information
Sources of Information:
Regular source is acquired from open sources, records, files.
Cultivated source are information furnished by informants/informers.
Grapevine source are information given by the underworld characters such as prisoners or
criminals.
8. Considered as the “cardinal points” to be answered in the course of investigation.
A. 6 W’s and 1H B. 5W and 2H C. 5 W’s and 1H D. 4 W’s and 1H
(What, When, Where, Who, Why and How)
9. It is an institution that trains uniformed personnel of the PNP to become a certified investigator.
a. National Forensic Science Training Institute (NFSTI)
b. Philippine Public Safety College (PPSC)
c. NCR Training Center
d. National Police Training center
Phil. Public Safety College = the prime institution for training, schooling of members of the PNP,
BJMP and BFP. Under its umbrella are NFSTI, PNPA, Regional Training Center etc.
10. The forceful and intelligent questioning of one who is reluctant to divulge information.
A. Interview B. Interrogation C. Information D. Persuasion
Interview Interrogation
= simple, sympathetic approach in = force, rigid or vigorous questioning of
questioning involving victim/s, witness who suspect, hostile witness or uncooperative
are cooperative to divulge information. witness.
11. Who among the following is a target or subject of police interrogation?
A. Complainant B. Hostile witness C. Ready witness D. Demented person
12. These type of subjects are persons who are reluctant to become witnesses and particularly true
among uneducated persons.
A. Know nothing type C. Boasting type
B. Timid witness D. Drunken type.
13. A case investigated by police investigator is considered solved, EXCEPT when____.
A. Suspect is identified
B. Suspect is apprehended
C. Evidence are gathered for successful prosecution of the accused
D. The suspect has fled
14. This type of interview is being done upon a willing and cooperative persons or witnesses to fully
narrate their accounts without intervention form investigation.
A. Cognitive interview B. Interrogation C. Humility D. Neither of the forgoing
15. RA 7438 defines immediate members of the family are as follows, EXCEPT.
A. Spouse, fiancé / fiancée, parents, child, brother or sister
B. Grandparents, grandson/ daughter, great granddaughter/ grandson.
C. Uncle, aunt, guardian
D. Friends, countrymen, lovers and paramour
16. What type of witness must be permitted to tell lies until he is well enmeshed with falsehood and
inconsistencies?
A. Deceitful witness B. Timid witness C. Boasting type D. Honest witness
17. A person who provides the police a for your eyes only information.
A. Intelligence officer C. Detective
B. Confidential informant D. Confidential informer
18. It literally means “body of the crime” or the existence of a fact that the specific loss or injury was
sustained as a result of the crime.
a) Corpus Delicti b. In Flagrante Delicto c) Mens Rea d)Res Ipsa Loquitor
a) Mens Rea = evil intent
b) Res Ipsa Loquitor = the thing speaks of itself.
c) In Flagrante Delicto = caught in the act.
Kinds of Physical Evidence:
1. Corpus Delicti = the existence of facts and circumstances which would prove that a
crime was committed.
2. Associative Evidence= evidence that would link or connect the subject to the crime.
3. Tracing Evidence= evidence which will locate the perpetrator.
19. In crime of theft the corpus delicti is.
A. The fact that the crime was committed C. The property taken
B. Anything of value D. A and B are correct
20. Who stated the principle “Every contact leaves a trace”?
A. Edmond Locard C. Serlock holmes
B. Francis Galton D. Hans Gross E. Leone Lattes
Locard’s principle = in every crime scene there leaves traces, traces that would lead to the identity
of its author”
21. It is the process of identifying by witnesses of the unknown criminal who is mixed with innocent
persons queued before witness.
A. Police line-up B. Portrait parle C. Physical show-up D. Rogue’s gallery
Rogue’s gallery = compilation of photographs of known criminals, utilized in investigation for
identifying suspects in a crime.
Portrait Parle = based on the verbal description of the witness describing the perpetrator.
22. It is the composite representation of a drawing of the suspect’s face.
A. General photographs C. Cartographic sketch
B. Human’s sketch D. Face sketch
23. It is what induces the criminal to act and not necessary to be shown in order to obtain conviction.
A. Intent B. Desire C. Motive D. Opportunity
• Intent- the result or accomplishment of the act
• Opportunity- the physical possibility that the suspect could have committed the crime
• Desire = yearning, longing
24. Whose stories about a fictional detective who used science to help solve are credited-with
increasing public awareness of forensic science?
A. Arthur Conan Doyle B. Hans Gross C. Henry Faulds D. Mark Twain
25. Assisting lawyer to the subject must be.
A. Competent lawyer of the suspect choice C. Lawyer from PAO
B. Choice of the investigation D. Choice of his parents
26. Famous U.S Supreme Court decision wherein the accused confessed without counsel to assists
him and neither he request for one nor was he provided with counsel. Therefore, the evidence
obtained was inadmissible.
A. Crooker vs. California C. Miranda vs. state of Arizona
B. Willis vs. state of Texas D. Escobida vs. Illinois
 • Mapp vs. Ohio (1961) = “Exclusionary rule” = excludes from trial any evidence obtained
illegally. (Under the 4th Amendments of the U.S. Constitution, Bill of Rights). “Exclusionary
Rule of Evidence”.
• Terry vs. Ohio (1968) = legality of “Stop & Frisk” and the concept of “Search incident to the
arrest” (Chimel vs. California, 1969)
• “Fruits of the Poisonous Tree” doctrine= evidence generated by or directly obtained from an
illegal search also be excluded.
• Miranda vs. Arizona (1966) = A case of an 18y/o girl abducted and forcibly rape in Phoenix,
Arizona by Ernesto Miranda which sensationalized the “Rights of the accused”
27. Custodial investigation shall include the practice of issuing an invitation to a person who is
investigated in connection with the offense he is committed. Hence, the investigator must inform the
suspect of his constitutional rights to.
A. Remain silent C. Right to bail
B. Counsel of his own choice D. All of these except letter C
28. As a rule, it would not be sufficient for police officers just to recite Section 12, Art 3 of the
constitution. He also be duty bound to __________.
A. Communicate what the person under interrogation may or may not do
B. Tell the person of the rights to which he is detained
C. Explain the effect of some rights in practical terms
D. None of them
29. A promise of hope, reward, favor and use of force or intimidation, threats or fear, and other
analogous acts make confession or admission …….. Therefore…..
A. Voluntary ……. Admissible in court C. Involuntary …… Not admissible in court
B. Involuntary …..Inadmissible in court D. Voluntary ….. not admissible in court
30. Mr. Juan dela Cruz went to the police station and Confessed to PO1 Pedro that he killed a certain
man and that the murder weapon that he used is in their house in Bulacan. Juan even offer to escort
the police going to their house to seize the deadly weapon in his house to which the Police Officer
acceded. During such extra-judicial confession no counsel was present. Will the confession be
admissible in court?
a. Yes, because it is voluntary
b. No, because it was given in the absence of a counsel.
c. Yes, because all are consented and not against the will of the confessant.
d. No, because there was no written waiver executed.
In the above scenario what principle of law will you apply as regards the extra-judicial confession?
a. Exclusionary rule of Evidence c. Double Jeopardy
b. Fruits of the Poisonous tree d. Relevancy rule
Is the deadly weapon admissible in evidence?
a. Yes since the search and seizure is consented.
b. No, Because that is illegally obtained evidence.
c. Yes, For there was no coercion, torture nor duress in the taking of the weapon.
d. NO, for it is the fruit of the poisonous tree being a result of illegal obtained confession.
31. Circumstantial evidence may produce conviction if the following requisites are present, EXCEPT.
A. When there are more than one circumstance present
B. When the facts from which the inference are derived are proven
C. When the quantum of substantiality of evidence are proven
D. When the combination of all circumstances is such as the produce a conviction beyond a
reasonable doubt.
32. Ms. Jessica told that police that the night when the body of Jona was found dead, she saw Pedro
running away from the house carrying a knife. What kind of evidence will the testimony of Jessica be?
a. Direct Evidence b. Indirect Evidence c. Associative Evidence d. Tracing Evidence
Two Kinds of Evidence:
1. Direct evidence = evidence that would directly prove the fact in issue without need of
inferences. Evidence which would be sufficient in itself.
2. Indirect Evidence or Circumstantial evidence = evidence which would indirectly prove the
fact in issue based on certain inferences derived from experimentation or examination and which
requires to be corroborated and be proved in order to suffice a conviction.
33. What is the distinct pattern of how the crime was committed and established by a series of crimes
under more than one classification?
A. Associative evidence B. Confession C. Modus operandi D. Tracing evidence
34. These are evidence which would tend to locate (trace) the perpetrator such as the stolen property
in the case of robbery or theft.
A. Corpus delicti C. Tracing evidence
B. Associative evidence D. Modus operandi
35. Latent fingerprints and shoe impression left by the suspect at the crime scene are examples of
____________________.
A. circumstantial evidence C. tracing evidence
B. associative evidence D. real evidence
36. What is the first thing that an investigator must do before interviewing, citizens, and victims?
A. Place interviewee at ease C. Conduct interview in private
B. Develop plan of action D. Ask the right question
37. What should be the investigator attitude upon the end of the interview?
A. Leave the subject as if nothing’s happened C. Stare at the subject from head to foot
B. Thanks the subject for his cooperation D. Vacate the place of interview
38. Accurate investigations help to insure that only criminal is punished, and the innocent parties will
not be subjected to prosecution.
A. Protection of innocent C. Deterrent to others
B. Community safety D. Future deterrence of offenses
39. One of the major tasks of this department is the qualitative and quantitative analysis of unknown
substance.
A. Crime scene B. Crime laboratory C. Criminalistics D. Instrumentation
40. An Autopsy is performed by a doctor trained in _________.
a. Medico—Legal Officer b. Biology c. Forensic Pathology d. Physiology
41. A direct acknowledgement by the accused in criminal case of the truth of his guilt as to the crime
charged.
A. Confession B. Admission C. Deposition D. Acknowledgement
42. Self-incriminatory statement made by the suspect falling short of an acknowledgement of guilt is
called:
A. admission B. confession` C. information D. deposition
• Judicial Confession
Made by the suspect/accused in open court
• Extra-Judicial Confession
This kind of confession is inadmissible unless corroborated by proof of corpus
delicti. The confession to be admissible, it must be voluntary, in writing and made with the assistance
of a counsel of his own choice with full understanding of the consequence of such confession. (get
separate for separate crimes).
• Admission
An admission is a self-incriminatory statement by the subject falling short of an
acknowledgement of guilt. It is an acknowledgement of a fact or circumstances from which guilt
maybe inferred.
43. Ordinarily, the identity of the criminals could be discovered in one or more of the following
circumstances, EXCEPT.
A. Confession and admission C. Surveillance and undercover assignment
B. Eyewitness testimony D. Circumstantial evidence
Methods of Identifying Criminal:
1. By Confession or Admission
2. Identification by eye witness (Portrait Parle, Carthographic Sketch, Rogues Galary, Police
Line-up/Physical Show-up).
3. By Circumstantial evidence
4. By Associative / Tracing Evidence
44. Summary of the habits, techniques and peculiarities of behavior characterizing the operational
procedure employed by certain criminals.
A. Criminal tactics B. Sketch C. Modus operandi D. Mannerism
Insp. Thomas Byrnes = introduced the MODUS OPERANDI FILE in New york police Department.
45. The person who provides the investigation with confidential information concerning a past crime or
a projected/planned crime and does not wish to be known.
A. Informer B. Confidential Informant C. Surviellant D. Confederates
Informer = one who gives information in exchange for money/profit.
Informant = one who regularly gives information to the police.
46. One of the motives of an informant in providing the investigator necessary information solely for
material gain he is to receive.
A. Vanity B. Civic mindedness C. Repentance D. Remuneration
47. Types of informants that reveal information usually of no consequence or stuff conducted out of
thin air.
A. Mercenary informants C. False informants
B. Frightened informants D. Double-crosser informant
Types of Informant
• Anonymous- Do not wish to be identified
 • Rival- elimination- eliminate competition
• False- no value
• Frightened- motivated by anxiety
• Self aggrandizing- hangs about the fringes of the criminals
• Mercenary- sell information
• Double crosser- to get more information
• Woman- most dangerous species
• Legitimate- operators of legitimate business
48. An informant who is considered the weakest link in the criminal chain of the gang.
A. Frightened informant B. False informant C. Woman informant D. Mercenary informant
49. As a police investigator if you are dealing with a double-crosser informant, the best way to counter
this is.
A. Reveal information about facts already known
B. Use violence
C. Give him false information that will lead to his capture
D. Beg him to tell everything he knows
50. When people are considered as source of information, the experienced officer should:
A. Recognized that all persons from all walks of life represent potential investigative resources.
B. Developed his contacts only with law abiding citizens
C. Restricts his efforts to members of the department.
D. Concentrates all his efforts to acquire informants only from criminal types
51. Don’t “MAC” as used in investigation means?
I. move II. alter III. contaminate IV. cut V. change
a. I, II, III only b. I, II, and IV only c. I, II and V only d. All of these
“MAC” in investigation stands for Move, alter and cut. In Ballistics evidence in the word MAC means
“Mutilate, Alter and Contaminate”
52. Offers of help, kindness and friendliness in the conduct of interrogation that may win his
cooperation.
A. Sympathetic approach C. Emotional appeal
B. Friendly approach D. Stern approach
53. It is a method of interrogation that the first investigator appears to be rough, mean and dangerous
while the second intervene by stopping the former.
A. Mutt and Jeff B. Trick and Buffs C. Sweet and Sour D. A and C is correct
54. It is a signs of deceptions.
A. Sweating and color change C. Pulse & avoidance of eye contact
B. Dry mouth and breathing D. All of the above
55. The methods of identifying criminals, EXCEPT.
A. Confession and admission C. Circumstantial / Associative evidence
B. Accounts or testimonies of witnesses D. All of the above
56. Golden rule in the crime scene investigation.
A. Never touch any object unless photograph
B. Never touch any object unless analyzed
C. Never touch any object unless measured and indicated in the sketch
D. A and C is correct
57. A method of search typically used in outdoor scenes to cover large areas in which detailed
examination is necessary.
A. Strip method B. Line Method C. Cross method D. A and B is correct
Methods of Search
1. Strip Method
2. Double Strip =
3. Spiral or circular = searcher enter one after the other from the outside proceeding inside.
4. Wheel Method = searchers gathered at the center and spread outward.
5. Quadrant/Zone or Sector Search
58. It is a widening circle technique with the searching officer stating at the focal point of the crime
scene or at the center of the area, working outward by circling in a clockwise or counter clockwise
direction to the outside edges of the crime scene.
A. Spiral method B. Circular method C. Outward method D. A and B is correct
59. It is the graphic representation of the crime scene, which is a good supplementary evidence for
photograph.
A. measurement B. map C. sketch D. composite illustration
Sketch = the simplest and the most accurate way of showing actual measurements and of identifying
significant items of evidence and their location at the scene.
Note: it is supplementary to photography.
 60. The Elements of sketch are as follows:
A. Measurement and compass direction C. Legend and title
B. Essential items and scale of proportion D. All of the above
61. What kind of sketch is made by the investigator at the crime scene, which is full of important
details but without scale and proportion?
A. rough sketch B. finished sketch C. detailed sketch D. essential items
General Kinds of Sketch
1. Rough Sketch = made by investigator at the crime scene without scale and proportion and
everything is approximated. It will serve as the basis in making a finished sketch.
2. Finished Sketch = made primarily for courtroom presentation which requires consideration
over scale and proportion.
62. Which sketch gives the clear impression of the scene in cases where blood stains or bullet holes
are found?
A. sketch of locality B. ground sketch C. cross projection D. sketch in details
Specific Kinds of Sketch
1.Sketch of locality = gives picture of the over-all crime scene, its environment consisting of
roads leading to the location.
2.Sketch of grounds = pictures the scene with its nearest physical surroundings.
3. Sketch of details = describes immediate scene only. E.g. the very room where the crime
was committed and the details thereof.
63. What kind of sketch gives picture of the scene, the crime and its environs, including neighboring
buildings, and roads?
A. sketch of locality C. sketch in details
B. ground sketch D. area sketch
64. A sketching method that requires a protractor or some methods of measuring angles between two
lines.
A. Cross projection method C. Baseline method
B. Compass point method D. Triangulation method
Methods or System of locating points on sketch:
1. Rectangular coordinate = two right angles are drawn from the item being measured to the
nearest permanent object.
2. Straight line = commonly used to show location of items against a wall e.g. a piece of furniture.
3. Triangulation = commonly used to determine distance outdoors, (though it can easily be used
indoor) measurement each from two fixed objects as point of reference to the point or object
designed to plot to form an imaginary triangle.
4. Baseline = drawing a straight line either diagonal or parallel to either sides to serve as basis
for measurement or locating the object.
5. Compass = Using protractor, object is reference with the left bottom corner of the room then
locating the pieces of evidence by measuring degrees of location.
65. It is the number of persons who handled and possess the pieces of evidence the moments they
were collected.
A. Chain of collection B. Chain of custody C. Chain of delivery D. All of the above
Chain of Custody or Chain of Possession = the listing of the person who have handled the physical
evidence from the time of its recovery until its final disposition in court.
66. In marking the specific evidence such as revolver it must marked on the;
A. Separately on the frame, butt, cylinder, barrel and stock
B. The chamber facing the firing pin as soon as it is opened for examination
C. Either A and B is correct
D. A and B is correct
67. Fired empty shells and misfired cartridges must be marked on:
A. Inside the mouth of fired empty cartridge.
B. In case of .22 caliber shells side of the body of the shell
C. Misfired cartridge on the side of the body of the shell
D. All of the above
68. A reconstruction of the crime based on the physical reconstruction, could be formulated in taking
into account all available pieces of evidence.
A. Physical reconstruction C. Emotional reconstruction
B. Mental reconstruction D. Structural reconstruction
69. It is the imaginative contemplation of reality, direct intellectual apprehension, insight or body of
generalization and principles developed in association with the practice in a certain field of activity.
A. Assessment B. Conclusion C. Theory D. Finding
70. The Scene of the Crime Operation;
A. The statement is true C. The statement is always is true
B. The statement is simply true D. The statement is wrong
71. Planning the arrest and raid the following must be considered. EXCEPT
A. Always plan for the worst scenario
B. It must be accompanied by the elements of surprise.
C. More than one arresting officer must be employed
D. Entering parties should always wear bulletproof vest
72. What kind of filing with the office the prosecutor?
A. Inquest B. Ordinary filing C. Direct filing D. Regular filing
73. Violent crimes usually have their peak during summer.
A. The statement is true C. The statement is false
B. The statement may be true D. The statement is wrong
74. The purpose of an investigation report is, EXCEPT.
A. Record B. Leads C. Prosecution Action D. All of the above
75. The criteria of good investigation report.
A. It must be grammatically correct
B. Abbreviation must be used appropriately and correctly
C. Should avoid slang, colloquialism or unnecessary technical terms
D. All of the above
77. An immediate initial investigative report pertaining to the commission of the crime.
A. Advance information report C. Information report
B. Spot report D. Alarm report
78. The observation of persons, places and vehicles for the purpose of obtaining information
concerning the identities of criminals and their activities.
A. Investigation B. Surveillance C. Intelligence D. Patrol
79. A person who conduct the surveillance or perform the observations
A. Intelligence officer B. Subject C. Surveillant D. Follow up Investigator
Surveillance = it is the secret observation of places, persons, and vehicles for the purpose of
obtaining information concerning the identities or activities of the subject.
1. Tailing or Shadowing = observation of person
2. Casing= observation of building
3. Roping or undercover work = observation of activities.
80. Kinds of surveillance, EXCEPT.
A. Surveillance of places C. Undercover investigation or roping
B. Tailing or shadowing D. Follow up investigation
81. Types of surveillance, EXCEPT.
A. Fixed B. Moving C. Covert and Overt D. Open and Expose
82. Purpose of surveillance, EXCEPT.
A. to get information or criminal activities as a basis for future raid and to obtain evidence of a
crime or prevent the commission of thereof.
B. To discover the identities of person frequenting the place to establish their criminal activities
and to established legal ground for the application of a search warrant.
C. To arrest the criminal in flagrante delicto.
D. All of the above
83. It is a methods of foot surveillance, EXCEPT.
A. One on one B. One man shadow C. Two man shadow D. ABC Technique
Methods of Foot surveillance: One man shadow, Two man shadow and ABC techniques.
84. A person who is employed to detect if he is being tailed.
A. Surveillant B. Convoy C. VIP security D. Escort
85. Purpose of undercover operation.
A. Gathering Information and counter intelligence
B. Installation of surveillance equipment and loyalty check
C. Penetrating subversive organizations and basis for a successful raid
D. All of the above
86. The right of the person arrested, detained or under custodial investigation.
A. R.A. 7438 B. R.A. 9745 C. R.A. 8049 D. R.A 7834
87 An official inquiry undertaken by the police on the circumstances surrounding the death of a person
which is always presumed to be unlawful.
a. Criminal investigation c. Special crime investigation
b. Homicide Investigation d. Murder investigation
88. Stage where the law enforcer focus on a particular suspect who had been invited or taken into
custody or otherwise deprived of his/her freedom of action where a process of interrogation is
undertaken to illicit incriminating statements.
a.. investigation c. custodial investigation
b. inquest proceeding d. preliminary investigation
89. Which of the following is the most important duty or obligation of police officers in conducting
investigation?
a. preserve crime scene c. arrest
b. obtain evidence d. identify the suspect.
90.The first police officer who arrives at the crime scene before the investigator is called
_______________.
a. technical team b. arresting officer c. desk officer d. first responder
91. The desk officer upon receipt of the crime incident shall have the following duties, EXCEPT:
A. Inform the his superior officer or duty officer regarding the report
B. Record the date and time the report was made
C. Immediately respond to the crime scene
D. Made a synopsis of the incident
92. What is the area located adjacent to the crime scene where the briefing is to be conducted and
also the place where the evidence custodian receives the evidence collected during crime scene
investigation?
A. crime scene B. command post C. fixed post D. reception area
93. The Unit now charged with conducting field operation and technical investigation at the crime
scene is:
A. Criminal Investigation and Detection Group C. Crime Scene Investigation
B. Scene of the Crime Operation D. PNP Crime Laboratory
94. Which method of search may be applicable to crime scene which is approximately circular or oval
and the area is divided into quadrants in a pie-like fashion?
A. wheel method B. radial method C. spoke method D. all of the above
95. What type of pictorial view is taken from a distance of eight to ten feet:
A. general view B. mid-range view C. long range view D. close-up view
96. In preliminary survey of the crime scene, the team leader performs the following duties, EXCEPT:
A. Defines the extent of search area
B. Takes down note to document important factors
C. Makes a general assessment of the crime scene
D. Photograph the crime scene before walking through the crime scene
97. PO1 Rizal Ali, is the first officer to arrive at the scene of a shooting incident. He saw the victim
lying on the pavement sustaining multiple gunshot wounds, but still moving. What is the proper course
of action he should take?
A. Ask the desk officer to proceed to the crime scene and assist him with the
situation.
B. Call the investigator and inquire about his decision concerning the victim.
C. Evacuate the victim and bring him to the nearest hospital
D. Cordon the area and wait for the SOCO Team to arrive
98. After the conduct of final survey by the team leader, to whom will the crime scene be turned over?
A. Chief of Police C. PCP Commander
B. Investigator-on-case D. owner of the place
99. Who conducts the final survey of the crime scene?
A. Chief Investigator B. Chief of Police C. Team Leader D. Investigator-on-case
100. What is the final phase of crime scene investigation?
A. preliminary survey C. documentation of scene
B. collection of evidence D. release of crime scene
101. What is the purpose of conducting final survey of the crime scene?
A. To turn over the scene to the Chief of Police.
B. To check all evidence gathered from the crime scene.
C. To determine whether or not the processing has been completed.
D. To determine whether there is a need to request for additional personnel.
102. Which word nearly expresses the meaning of COLLUSION?
A. decision B. continuation C. connivance D. insinuation

Special Crime Investigation

1. It is an official and initial inquiry concerning death cases under investigation?
a. Homicidal b. Parricidal c. Infanticidal d. Murder
2. A man who killed his live-in or the woman to whom he had dating relationship with has committed
what crime?
a. Homicide b. Murder c. Parricide d. Infanticide
Abortion= killing of unborn fetus (it may either be intentional or unintentional abortion)
Infanticide = killing an infant less than 3 days (less than 72 hrs.) old
Parricide = killing of one’s (1) Father, Mother and Child (legitimate or illegitimate); (2) Other
Legitimate Direct Ascendants (Grandparents) and Direct Descendants (Grandsons or grand-
daughter); and (3) Legitimate Spouse.
Murder = killing with the attendant of any of the aggravating circumstances mentioned in Art 248,
RPC.
Homicide = simple killing.
3. Peter while under the influence of drugs threw away the three days old son of his sister causing the
dead of the infant can be liable for what crime?
a. Homicide b. Murder c. Parricide d. Infanticide
** It would be a murder since the infant is already 3 days old which is beyond the age limit
under infanticide. It would not be parricide since uncle and auntie are not included in the crime
of parricide.
4. Peter snatched the bag of a lady walking along Avenida Rizal committed what crime?
a. Theft b. Estafa c. Robbery d. Malicious mischief
5. A man who took the wall of the house from the outside and used the same can be liable for what
crime?
a. Theft b. Estafa c. Robbery d. Malicious mischief
Robbery and Theft both involve an element of “Animus Lucrandi” or intent to gain. What
makes the difference is the manner by which property was taken.
Malicious mischief is the unlawful damaging of others property for purposes of damaging and
not gaining.
Estafa or Swindling is the crime of causing damage to others through deceit or abuse of
confidence or false pretense.
6. A man who accidentally killed his wife is liable for what crime?
a. Reckless imprudence resulting in parricide c. No crime
b. parricide d. Homicide
** There can be crime of infanticide, parricide, homicide or abortion as a result of reckless
imprudence.
7. A man who inserted his penis to the mouth or anus of another person commits what crime?
a. Rape c. Physical Injury
b. Sexual harassment d. Rape by Sexual Assault
Kinds of Rape:
1. Statutory Rape = sexual intercourse with a woman less than 12 years old even with her
consent.
2. Rape by sexual intercourse= committed against the will of a woman 12 years and above.
3. Rape by Sexual Assault = when penis is inserted to the Mouth, Anus or When an object is
inserted to another’s vagina or anus against the will of the latter.
4. Marital Rape = when the husband had carnal knowledge against the will of his wife.
8. It is a crime committee by a stranger who board or fired upon a vessel in order to size the same or
any of its cargo while the said vessel is in the high seas.
a. Piracy in the High seas c. Piracy in the Philippine water
b. Qualified Piracy d. Robbery
Piracy in the High seas = committed by a stranger. If committed by a passenger or members of the
crew ship the crime would be robbery.
Piracy in the Philippine Water = committed by anybody while the vessel is in the Philippine Waters.
9. Presidential Decree Number 532 is otherwise known as the:
a. Anti-Piracy and Anti-Highway Robbery Law b. Anti-Wire Tapping Law
c. Anti-Cattle Rustling Law d. Anti-Fencing Law
P.D. 533 – Anti-Cattle Rustling Law P.D. 1612 – Anti-fencing law
R.A. 6539 – Anti-Carnapping Law P.D. 1613 – Law on Arson
R.A. 6235 – Anti Hijacking law

Piracy Highway Anti – Cattle Rustling Carnapping

Robbery

RPC – RPC – there Includes: cow, carabao, Involves: Motor vehicle.

committed in is definite mule, ass & other Excludes: road rollers, trollery
the highseas target. domesticated member cars, street-sweepers,
(by a stranger) P.D. 532 – of the bovine family. sprinklers, lawn mower,
P.D. 532 – indiscriminate Acts: taking away, killing bulldozers, graders, forklifts,
committed in robbery in the of large cattle, or taking amphibian trucks etc. when not
the Philippine highway. its meat or hide w/o the used in highways and those
Water (any consent of O/R exclusively used for
person) agriculture.
10. Fiona and Shrek are husband and wife. But Shrek had an illicit sexual relation with another
woman. One night while Shrek is deeply asleep, Fiona cut the genital organ of Sherk using a scissor
causing him to be hospitalized for 30 days. For what crime can Fiona be charged for?
a. Serious physical injury c. Attempted parricide
b. Mutilation d. Less Serious Physical Injury
11. John and James are father and son, while Peter is a friend of James. One time James made a
plan to kill John and successfully did it with some assistance from Peter. What was the crime
committed by Peter.
a. Parricide b. Murder c. Homicide d. Infanticide
12. In which of the following cases entrance to an establishment is important?
a. Theft b. Robbery c. Trespass to dwelling d. Homicide
13. Also known as Electronic Commerce Act 0f 2000:
A. RA 8792 B. RA 10167 C. RA 10168 D. RA 6235
14. A person undergoing criminal investigation enjoys his three constitutional rights.
A. The right to plead guilty and not guilty
B. The right to oppose whatever the accusation on him
C. The right to oppose whatever accusation on him based on his constitutional rights
D. The right to remain silent, the right to counsel, and the right to be informed of the nature of
the accusation
15. The essential element in parricide is:
A. age B. blood C. relationship D. status
16. The following are the primary jobs of an investigator, EXCEPT:
A. to discover how it was committed
B. to determine the guilt of the offender
C. to discover why the crime was committed
D. to discover whether an offense has been committed under the law
17. It is an art which deals with the identity and location of the offender and provide evidence of guilt
in criminal proceedings.
A. criminal research C. criminal prosecution
B. court proceedings D. criminal investigation
18. Special Crime Investigation deals with the study of:
A. major crimes C. violation of special laws
B. infraction of law D. violation of ordinances
19. What injury would a person sustain once he is hit in the head with hard object?
A. lacerated wound C. hematoma
B. incised wound D. abrasions
Lacerated wound= blunt instrument hematoma = large extravasation of blood.
Incised wound= sharp edge abrasion = contact with rough surface.
20. Suspect smashed the window of a car, opened the same and got inside then took and carted
away personal belongings of the owner. The suspect committed:
A. theft C. robbery with force upon things
B. robbery D. theft and malicious mischief
21. How many hours does it usually take to empty the stomach of a person?
A. 3 to 4 hours C. 12 to 16 hours
B. 6 to 12 hours D. 16 to 24 hours
22. What injury is produced by the forcible application and penetration of sharp instrument?
A. stab wound C. punctured wound
B. incised wound D. gunshot wound
23. Presence of defense wound in the body of the victim who is found hanged is:
A. accidental C. homicidal
B. suicidal D. all of the above
24. The following are evidence to show that the gunshot wound is accidental, EXCEPT:
A. there is no special area of the body involved
B. victim sustained more than one shot
C. usually there is but one shot
D. testimony of the witnesses
25. A dead body under normal condition would start to decompose in approximately:
A. 12 to 16 hours C. 1 to 2 days
B. 16 to 24 hours D. 2 to 4 days
26. Which type of death by hanging is considered not common?
A. Accidental C. Suicidal
B. Homicidal D. Both B and C
27. What qualifying circumstance is present when the offended party was not given the opportunity to
make a defense?
A. employing means to weaken the defense
B. taking advantage of superior strength
C. means to afford impunity
D. treachery
28. A husband who killed his live-in partner and their daughter is liable for:
A. 2 counts of Parricide C. homicide and parricide
B. 2 counts of homicide D. murder and parricide
29. The following are the means of committing robbery, EXCEPT:
A. by intimidating the victim
B. by using force upon things
C. by employing violence against the victim
D. by taking consideration of the value of the stolen item
30. What is the best proof of relationship between spouses?
A. marriage license C. joint affidavit of the spouses
B. marriage certificate D. testimony of disinterested person
32. What is the penalty to be imposed upon a parent who inflicted less serious physical injuries upon
his young daughter and her seducer after surprising the two in the act of committing sexual
intercourse?
A. arrest menor C. destierro
B. arresto mayor D. none
33. Signs of struggle and defense are usually present in:
A. violent killing C. suicide cases
B. accidental killing D. reckless imprudence
34. How many hours will the ova eggs hatch to form maggots?
A. within 12 hours C. more than 1day
B. within 24 hours D. 2 to 3 days
35. Which physical evidence is most likely to be found in robbery cases?
A. footprints C. DNA evidence
B. fingerprints D. blood stains
36. Determining the point of entrance is important in which type of investigation?
A. theft C. trespass to dwelling
B. robbery case D. homicide investigation
37. The following are the bridges that investigators should not cross, EXCEPT:
A. the dead person has been autopsied
B. the dead person has been moved
C. the body is burned or cremated
D. the cadaver is embalmed
38. The cooling of the body after death is called:
A. livor mortis B. algor mortis C. rigor mortis D. post-mortem rigidity
39. What injury is caused by the penetration of a sharp pointed weapon like icepick?
A. incised wound C. stab wound
B. abrasions D. punctured wound
40. It is the state of injury or death of the body whereby the ligature tightened around the neck by
suspension of the body.
A. hanging B. suicide C. strangulation D. asphyxia
41. Y left the key of his house underneath a plant vase. He was seen by Z and later took it and
opened Y’s house then took some of his personal belongings. What crime did Z commit?
A. two different cases of theft C. robbery only
B. theft and robbery D. theft only
42. In accidental electrocution, presence of ____________________ can be found at the scene.
A. electric post B. electric meter C. low voltage wire D. high voltage wire
43. The perpetrator in kidnapping shall suffer the penalty of reclusion perpetua if:
A. the kidnapping or detention shall have lasted for more than five days
B. committed simulating public authority
C. the person kidnapped is a minor
D. all of the above
44. Which of the following is NOT a purpose of investigation?
A. Prosecute and convict the criminal
B. Bring the criminal offender to justice
C. Identify, locate, and arrest a person who commits crime
D. Identify, collect, preserve, and evaluate physical evidence
45. What is the most common way of committing suicide?
 A. by cut-throat B. by drowning C. by gunshot D. by hanging
46. If the investigator interprets a criminal death accidental or natural, the guilty person
_________________.
A. is properly identified C. can be prosecuted
B. is set free D. can be arrested
47. If the person killed his spouse after surprising the latter sleeping with another person, is he entitled
to the benefits provided for death under exceptional circumstances?
A. no B. yes C. it depends D. B and C are correct
48. What post-mortem change determines the original position of the body after death?
A. rigor mortis C. algor mortis
B. livor mortis D. changes in stomach
Algor Mortis Cooling of the body ---- a conclusive sign of death
Livor Mortis or post- Changes in blood condition --- determine position maintained by the body
mortem lividity after death ( starts at 20-30 minutes, complestes at 12 hours)
Rigor Mortis or post Stiffening of muscles after death (starts at the lower jaw and neck) starts
mortem rigidity at about 3- 6 hours and completes at about 12 hours. – approximate the
time of death.
49. What injury is sustained by the tearing of skin due to the forcible contact of a blunt instrument?
A. contusion B. hematoma C. lacerated wound D. abrasions
50. When the gunshot wound of the victim is located in the area of the body that is relatively
inaccessible to the victim, it is an indication of:
A. homicidal death B. accidental death C. suicide D. natural death
51. What is the liability of the offender who, on the occasion of the crime of robbery, killed his cohort
while trying to flee from the scene?
A. robbery with homicide C. robbery with murder
B. robbery and homicide D. robbery and murder
52. Pelvic bones of the victim are excellent indicator of the victim’s:
A. race B. age C. sex D. habit
53. What is the liability of a person who takes the personal property of another by employing violence
upon the victim, but the person has no intention to gain?
A. still robbery C. robbery and grave coercion
B. theft only D. grave coercion only
54. This type of robber is motivated by greed, the desire for a thrill, and self-testing.
A. amateurs B. professional C. thrill seeker D. none of the above
55. Fingerprints may be found in the following areas, EXCEPT:
A. ceiling B. walls C. dressers D. closets
56. The killing is murder when the offender after killing the victim cut off the head and limbs and
opened up of the body to remove the intestines of the deceased. What circumstance qualified the
killing?
A. by inhumanly augmenting the suffering of the victim
B. by employing means to weaken the defense
C. by outraging at the corpse of the victim
D. by scoffing at the corpse of the victim
57. What type of death occurs beyond the sway of one’s will and although it comes about through
some act of will, lies beyond the bounds of human forceable consequences?
A. accidental death C. negligent death
B. suicidal death D. reckless imprudence death
58. Which of the following is NOT an item normally being used as ligature:
A. masking tape B. chain C. rope D. rolled clothing
59. A stranger who killed a child less than three days of age shall suffer the penalty for:
A. infanticide B. parricide C. murder D. homicide
60. What kind of criminals are those not yet known to the witnesses by names and other personal
circumstances before the commission of the crime?
A. unknown criminals C. known criminals
B. unidentified criminals D. none of the above
61. Time element is material in which felony under the Revised Penal Code?
A. Robbery B. Infanticide C. Homicide D. Kidnapping
62. Mere invitation for questioning of a person who is considered by the investigator as a possible
suspect of a crime is already considered_______________________.
A. beginning of arrest C. beginning of detention
B. beginning of custody D. beginning of informing of his rights
63. Case investigated by the police is considered solved if:
A. Suspect is arrested and evidence against him are gathered
B. Suspect is charged with appropriated case
 C. Suspect is identified
D. All of the above
64. Which method requires the sketcher to measure the distance of an object along a straight line
from two widely separated fixed reference points?
A. line method C. radial method
B. baseline method D. triangulation method
65. What sketching method is used by the sketcher when he measures the distance of an object from
two fixed lines at right angles to each other?
A. baseline method B. triangulation method
C. compass Point method D. rectangular coordinates method
66. During custodial investigation in the police station, Mr. X confessed that he was the one who
killed Mr. Y because the latter killed his brother a week ago. He voluntarily signed a statement
containing his confession, but he refused the assistance of a lawyer claiming that he is not capable of
paying the services of a private counsel. Is the confession admissible in evidence?
A. Yes, because the confession is in writing.
B. Yes, because it was voluntary given by the suspect
C. No, because it is not a confession but an admission.
D. No, because he made the confession without the assistance of a counsel.
67. The informal and summary inquiry conducted by a public prosecutor in criminal cases involving
persons arrested and detained without the benefit of a warrant issued by the court for purposes of
determining whether or not said persons should remain under custody and correspondingly be
charged in court is:
A. Preliminary Investigation C. Inquest proceeding
B. Criminal Investigation D. Arraignment
68. What interrogation technique may be applied to calm and nervous subjects by constantly
observing their behavior and then the investigator chooses the right moment to shout a pertinent
question?
A. emotional appeal C. sympathetic appeal
B. jolting D. extenuation
69. Interrogation technique which indicates that the investigator does not consider his subject to have
committed a grave offense is called:
A. jolting B. kindness C. extenuation D. Mutt and Jeff
70. Investigators should avoid asking leading questions because:
A. it will curtail the flow of information
B. witnesses will not divulge relevant information
C. the question is not clear since it is answerable by yes or no
D. it is the easiest way to acquire information from person being interviewed
71. What element of sketch is considered an essential element of finished sketch representing the
actual size or measurement of the crime scene?
A. scale of proportion B. measurement C. compass direction D. all of the above
72. Are all physical evidence found and collected at the crime scene to be transported to the Crime
Laboratory?
A. Yes, because they were collected for examination.
B. Yes, because the investigator is not allowed to take custody of evidence.
C. No, only those which require further laboratory examination will be
transported.
D. No, because the SOCO Team has no authority to bring the evidence to the
Crime Laboratory if the investigator did not request.
73. Inspector Pura went to the house of Mr. Z and asked the latter directly about his possible
involvement in a Robbery case that transpired a day ago. This is already considered
_____________________.
A. interrogation B. interview C. custodial investigation D. follow-up investigation
74. What investigative technique is employed by investigator when he conceals his official identity
accomplish an investigative mission?
A. undercover B. false cover C. eliciting D. artificial cover
75. Is the city or provincial prosecutor allowed to release a respondent during inquest proceedings
without furnishing a bail?
A. Yes B. No C. It depends D. A and C are incorrect
76. Following a person to acquire information about the identity and activities of the subject is a
technique in investigation called:
A. casing B. stakeout C. shadowing D. roping
77. In taking the photograph of crime scene it should be from the general view to____________?
A. major B. captain C. specific D. inspector
78. While a policeman was patrolling, he heard a scream from a house. He immediately ran towards
the house and saw a man coming out the house carrying a bloody knife. He arrested the man and
subsequently entered the house where he discovered a female victim lying on the floor sustaining
stab wound to the chest. This scenario is an example of _________________________.
A. circumstantial evidence C. arrest in flagrante delicto
B. associative evidence D. direct evidence
79. When a police officer arrives in a crime scene, what is his fundamental duty?
A. cordon the area C. apprehend the criminal
B. preserve human life D. summon emergency vehicle
80. This elements of sketch that explains any symbol that used to identify objects?
A. legend B. scale C. title D. proportion
81. These are object evidence that should be taken photograph individually, EXCEPT?
A. Knife B. Semen C. Stone D. Gun
82. Events that witnesses see, smell, hear, taste and touch and are described to the investigator are
referred to as?
A. documentary evidence C. parole evidence
B. testimonial evidence D. real evidence
83. One of the elements of sketch wherein the graphical representation must indicate the _________
direction for proper orientation of the scene.
A. North B. East C. West D. South
84. What is best applied to a clumsy and nervous person, where the investigators choosing propitious
moments to shout out a pertinent question and appears as though they themselves are in rage?
A. Pretense B. Bolt C. Bluff D. Jolt
85. Which among the following data concerning photographs as evidence is LEAST essential?
A. date and hour when each photograph was taken C. proof of ownership of the camera
B. identification of the police photographer D. focal length of the lens
86. When taking a photograph with the purpose of showing a view that a witness might have seen the
camera, position would normally be ____________.
A. Parallel to the subject matter C. At eyes level
B. In its normal position D. Overhead
87. The following are the rules to be observed when interviewing a witness, EXCEPT:
A. saving faces C. one question at a time
B. allow implied answer D. avoid leading questions
88. SPO4 Malou Wang, prepared a rough sketched of a homicide scene and is now at her district. At
this point it is important that_____________?
A. the proper scale be used C. no changes be made on the sketch
B. this sketch be refined and improved D. a high grade of paper and ink are used
89. When a person is caught in the act of committing an offense, he is said to have been arrested
________________.
A. arbitrarily C. in flagranti delicto
B. during hot pursuit operation D. legally
90. Evidence to be presented in court must be presented in the same substantial condition as it is at
the time the crime was committed. Thus, protection must be made from ____________.
A. accidental alteration C. all of these
B. natural alteration D. intentional alteration
91. What is that imposition of restriction on physical behavior such as prolonged interrogation,
deprivation of water, food or sleep?
A. duress B. third degree C. contempt D. coercion
92. The issues of confidentiality of police report hinges on the reason that __________.
A. The suspect may be identified and assisted by friends
B. The victim might be put to bad light and may drop the case
C. On-going investigation may be compromised if the police report is open to the
public.
D. The investigator might free superior over his associates.
93. The procedure of identifying a suspect wherein only one person is shown to the witness usually at
the scene of the crime and made immediately after the arrest, is a police procedure called:
A. police line-up C. confrontation
B. positive identification D. physical show-up
94. Alibi is considered the weakest defense in criminal prosecution, which means that the accused
claims he was:
A. somewhere else when the incident took place
B. near the place of incident
C. not the perpetrator
D. innocent
95. Once the crime scene has been thoroughly documented and locations of evidence was noted, the
collection process begins and will usually starts with:
A. point of exit B. large objects C. fragile evidence D. removal of cadaver
96. The purpose of going back to the crime scene when the incident took place during nighttime, but
the investigation was conducted at day time is:
A. to arrest the suspect
B. to gather evidence not collected by the SOCO Team
C. to persuade witnesses to cooperate with the investigation
D. to see the condition of the scene at day time relevant to his investigation
97. How do you handle Interviews of suspicious type informants?
A. Employ physical influence C. Lead subject to relevant matters
B. His fears must first be allayed D. Transform him into an ideal witness
98. In order to introduce physical evidence in court, the following factors must be considered,
EXCEPT:
A. chain of custody must be proved
B. the article must be properly identified
C. the evidence must be material and relevant
D. the evidence must be examined by competent examiner
99. The purpose of interrogation is to:
A. extract information from uncooperative witness C. extract confession or admission
B. identify the other suspects in the crime D. all of the above
100. The act of placing a distinctive mark on all specimens gathered at the crime scene or to be
submitted evidence.
A. marking B. tagging C. labeling D. packing
101. The amateur criminal usually commits crimes because of ______
A. High capability C. Any of these
B. Exceptional opportunity D. Incessant desire
102. As a basic guide to investigators, he should look upon the evidences as serving to established
________________
A. Method of operation of the perpetrator C. The corpus delicti
B. Identification of the guilty person D. Any of these
103. What is called of that threat of using illegal physical methods to induce a suspect to make
admission or confession?
A. Coercion B. Third degree C. Duress D. All of these
104. Once the crime scene has been thoroughly documented and locations of evidence was noted,
the collection process begins and will usually starts with:
A. point of exit C. fragile evidence
B. large objects D. removal of cadaver
105. Which of the following is an investigative deficiency in evidence collection?
A. Clue materials usually found in the presence of foreign substance
B. Sub-standard samples
C. Inadequate sampling
D. Any of these
106. It is considered to be the most reliable source of information:
A. witnesses’ testimony B. suspect’s confession
C. complainants testimony D. physical evidence
107. When people are considered as source of information, the experienced officer:
A. Recognizes that all persons from all walks of life represent potential
investigate resources
B. Develops his contacts only with law abiding citizens
C. Restricts his efforts to members of the departments
D. Concentrates all his efforts to acquire informants only from criminal types

Organized Crime
1. Which of these acts is not punishable under E-commerce Act of 2000?
A. Denial of service attack C. Cracking
B. Internet gambling D. Hacking
2. It refers to an individual who employed unlawful use of force or violence of against persons or
property to intimidate or coerce a government, the civilian population, or any segment thereof, in
furtherance of political or social objectives:
A. Taliban B.Terrorism C. Terrorist D. Mujahideen
3. This legislation is also known as the Anti-Money Laundering Act of 2001.
A. Ra 9160 B. RA 8551 C. RA 10054 D. RA 10168
Stages in money Laundering : (1) Placement, (2) Layering, (3) Integration
4. It is a term used to describe a massive weapon with the capacity to indiscriminately kill large
numbers of people.
A. Nuclear B. Anthrax C. Weapon of mass destruction D. Chemical weapons
5. It is an act known as the Access Devices Act of 1998:
A. RA 8551 B. RA 9160 C. RA 8484 D. RA 10158
6. It refers to all activities done with criminal intent in cyberspace:
A. Hacking B. Cyber Crime C. Cracking D. Website defacement
7. This refers to unauthorized access into or interference in a computer system or server or
information and communication system; or any access in order to corrupt, alter, steal or destroy using
a computer:
A. Hacking C. Website Defacement
B. Denial of Service Attack D. Cracking
8. These are examples of cybercrimes as violation of E-commerce Act of 2000, EXCEPT:
A. Hacking C. Internet Pornography
B. Web defacement D. Distributed denial of service attack
9. It is an illegal intrusion into a computer system without the permission of the computer owner/ user:
A. Cracking C. Online gambling
B. website defacement D. Cyber terrorism
10. It is an act of intruding into a server and changing without permission all the aspect of a website
which the public can see:
A. Web defacement C. Internet gambling
B. cyber stalking D. all of these
11. It is a higher form of hacking in which the unauthorized access culminates with the process of
defeating the security system for the purpose of acquiring money or information and/ or availing free
services.
A. Cracking C. Malicious E-mail sending
B. on-line auction fraud D. Website Defacement
12. This terrorist organization in the Philippines is known as “Al-Harakat Al-Islamiyyah”:
A. Abu Sayyaf C. Rajah Solaiman Movement
B. Jemaah Islamiya D. Moro Islamic Liberation Front
13. The first important step to take in combating trafficking in women from the human rights
perspective would be:
A. When public officials awareness, understanding has been raised and their commitment to
uphold and protect women’s rights
B. Raise the officials’ awareness and understanding
C. Raise the public officials’ awareness
D. All of these
14. It is a crime whereby the proceeds of unlawful activity are transacted or attempted to be
transacted, to make them appear to have originated from legitimate sources:
A. Estafa C. Money Laundering
B. Swindling D. Anti Money Laundering
15. It is the attribute of organized crime having a vertical power structure with at least three permanent
ranks-not just leader and followers- each with authority over the level beneath:
A. hierarchical C. constitutes a unique subculture
B. no political goals D. limited or exclusive membership
16. For an organized crime to work, these are people tasked to bribe, buy, intimidate and negotiates
with the police, public officials or anyone else who might help the member and maintain immunity from
arrest, prosecution and punishment:
A. corruptors B. Enforcers C. corruptees D. neither of these
17. RA 9208 is otherwise known as the:
A. Anti- Trafficking in Persons Act of 2003 C. Human Trafficking of 2003
B. Anti Trafficking in Persons of 2004 D. Human Trafficking of 2003
18. It is a form of modern-day slavery:
A. Human Trafficking B. Prostitution C. Drug Trafficking D. Sex tourism
19. These countries are major cultivators of opium and referred to as the golden crescent:
A. Iran, Iraq and Thailand C. Burma, Laos and Thailand
B. Iran, Afghanistan and Pakistan D. Iran, Thailand and Philippines
Golden Triangle == Burma/Myanmar, Laos and Thailand.
Silver Triangle == Columbia, Peru and Bolivia
21. The organizational structure of Mafia is:
A. Bureaucratic B. patrimonial
C. either of the above D. neither of the above
22. An organized crime which literally means protection against the arrogance of the powerful, remedy
to any damage, sturdiness of body, strength and serenity of spirit, and the best and most exquisite of
life:
A. Cosa Nostra B. Mafia C. Triad D. Yakuza
23. This is the country which is believed to be the origin of Mafia and Cosa Nostra:
A. United States of America B. Italy C. Japan D. China
24. An Asian organized crime that represents mystical symbol in the form of an equilateral triangle
representing the heaven, earth and man:
A. Yakuza B. Triad C. Tongs D. Born To Kill of Vietnam
25. Arch-terrorist who used to be the most wanted terrorist in the world who issued a “fatwa” that calls
all Muslims around the world to slay Americans and their allies:
A. Abu-Abbas B. Ramzi Ahmed Yousef
C. Ahmed Yassin D. Osama bin-Laden
26. The use or threatened use of force design to bring about political change:
A. terrorist B. terrorism C. organized crime D. Mafia
27. This is also known as the Human Security Act of 2007:
A. RA 9372 B. RA 6955 C. RA 9165 D. RA 8551
28. It refers to the body of ideas affecting the social needs and aspirations of an individual or group,
class or a culture:
A. Customs B. Ideology C. Belief D. Traditions
29. These group of individual plan, participate in and execute acts of terrorism and known as
“ISLAMIC COMMUNITY”:
A. Hezbullah B. Jemaah Islamiya C. Terrorist D. Hamas
30. It is the Anti-Wire Tapping law:
A. RA 4200 B. RA 6235 C. RA 8294 D. RA 8043
31. This refers to illegal activity of a criminal organization that provides illegal goods or services:
A. Entrepreneurship B. Parasitic C. Reciprocal D. Patrimonial
32. It refers to the code of silence and secrecy that forbids Mafiosi from betraying their comrades to
the authorities:
A. Ideal of manliness B. Omerta C. Vendetta D. Capo
33. It was an event said to be the origin of conflict in Mindanao and for the establishment of Moro
National Liberation Front (MNLF):
A. Rizal Day Bombing B. Black September
C. Ninoy assassination D. Jabbidah Massacre
34. Mujahideen is also known as:
A. Freedom fighter B. Jihad C. Holy warriors D. Terrorist
35. It is the Latin term meaning to frighten:
A. Terrorisme B. Terrere C. Hashashin D. Terrorism
36. This terrorist organization is known as “THE BASE”:
A. Jemaah Islamiya B. Al Qaeda C. Taliban D. Abu Sayyaf Group
37. A massacre transpired in Corregidor which involved soldiers trained to invade Sabah and believed
to be the catalyst for the foundation of Moro National Liberation Front. What was the name of the
operation of the massacred soldiers to invade Sabah?
A. Jabbidah B. Merdeka C. Neptune Spear D. Geronimo
38. It is the English meaning of Abu Sayyaf:
A. Back to Islam B. Islamic congregation
C. Father of the swordsman D. The base
39. He is now considered as the new leader of al Qaeda:
A. Osama Bin Laden B. Hanna Santos
C. Ahmed Santos D. Ayman Mohammed Rabie al-Zawahiri
40. Republic Act 8293 is also known as:
A. Mail Order Bride C. Intellectual property Code of the Philippines
B. Anti Cam-cording act of 2010 D. Wildlife Resources Conversation and Protection Act
41. Economic crime is known as:
A. Blue Collar Crime B. White Collar Crime
C. Wildlife Smuggling D. Wildlife trafficking
42. It is a set of doctrines or beliefs that form the basis of political, economic and other systems:
A. Jihad B. Culture C. Ideology D. Tradition
43. This is also known as borderless crime:
A. cyber crime B. terrorism C. transnational crime D. human trafficking
44. In Mafia, “omerta” means:
A. code of silence C. Noncooperation with authorities
B. Ideal of manliness D. all of the above
45. These are Italian Organized Crime, EXCEPT?
 A. The Neopolitan Camora C. Cali Cartel
B. Sicilian Mafia D. Sacra Corona Unita
46. A computer or computer network can be a target, tool or incidental to the commission of a crime.
Which of these acts make use of a computer only as a tool for an offense?
A. Hacking B. Cracking C. gambling D. denial of service
47. What is the name of the operation launched by US Navy Seals that killed Osama Bin Laden?
A. Operation Geronimo B. Operation Neptune Spear
C. Operation Jabbidah D. Operation Merdeka
48. This terrorist organization is responsible for the bombing of the World Trade Center:
A. Abu Sayyaf B. Hamas C. Al Qaeda D. Taliban

Fire Technology and Arson Investigation

1. What is the measure of the degree of thermal agitation of molecules?
A. Ignition point B. Flash point C. Temperature D. Boiling point
2. A metric unit measure of degree temperature is known as:
A. Fahrenheit B. Celsius C. B + U D. Calorie
3. Heat energy transmitted from the sun in the form of electromagnetic radiation is known as:
A. Electrical Heat Energy C. Mechanical Heat Energy
B. Solar Heat Energy D. Chemical Heat Energy
4. It is the minimum temperature to which the substance in the air must be heated in order to initiate
combustion (or cause self-contained combustion) without the addition of heat from outside
sources.
a. Boiling point b. Fire point c. Kindling Temperature d. Flash point
Ignition point = the minimum temperature to which the substance in the air must be heated in
order to initiate or cause a self-contained combustion without addition of heat from outside sources.
Also known as Kindling point (the lowest temperature at which it will spontaneously ignite in a normal
atmosphere without an external source of ignition, such as flame, compression or spark).
5. What is the minimum temperature at which any material gives off vapor in sufficient concentration
to form an ignitable mixture with air?
a. fire point b. ignition point c. boiling point d. flash point
Fire point = is the temperature at which it will continue to burn for at least 5 seconds after
ignition by an open flame.
6. Heat transfer thru the medium of space or atmosphere is known as:
A. Conduction B. Convection C. Reaction D. Radiation
Conduction = direct contact with solid object.
Convection = through space or atmosphere.
Radiation = through electromagnetic energy.
7. Fire can leapfrog across wide malls and shopping centers through electromagnetic waves. This
heat transfer is:
A. Conduction B. Convection C. Reaction D. Radiation
8. What moves rapidly by convection and can spread laterally along the ceiling?
A. heat B. fire C. smoke D. temperature
9. What is the constant temperature at which the vapor pressure of the liquid is equal to the
atmospheric pressure?
A. vapor density B. boiling point C. fire point D. vapor pressure
10.The ratio of the weight of a solid or liquid substance to the weight of an equal volume of water.
A. vapor density B. molecular weight C. specific gravity D. vapor pressure
Vapor pressure = is the force exerted by the molecules on the surface of the liquid at the
equilibrium (also known as equilibrium vapor pressure)
Volatile substance has high vapor pressure.
11 What is a material that easily yields oxygen in quantities sufficient to stimulate or support
combustion?
A. Smoke B. oxidizing material C. carbon D. ember
Oxidizing agents = are substance which contains in itself oxygen thus if heated at certain
degree would supports combustion process such as gun powders or propellants.
12. Which of the following is a strong oxidizing organic compound which releases oxygen readily?
A. organic peroxide B. blasting agent C. corrosive liquid D. combustible fiber
13. What kind of gas exists solely in the gaseous state under pressure and at normal atmospheric
temperature inside its container?
A. cryogenic gas B. compressed gas C. liquefied gas D. nuclear gas
14. What is the process of raising the temperature to separate the non- volatile from the less volatile
parts and then cooling and condensing the resulting vapor so as to produce a nearly purified
substance?
A. combustion B. distillation C. evaporation D. condensation
15. What is referred to as partial distillation and electrolysis?
A. Fulminating B. refining C. smelting D. oxidizing
Refining (affining) = is the process of purification of a substance or a form. In liquids it is done by
distillation or fractional (to separate the component parts of a mixture e.g. petroleum refineries.
16. A chemical process by which a liquid is transformed into its gaseous state is known as:
A. Vaporization B. Condensation C. Pyrolysis D. Melting
17. The gaseous state of any matter or substance which is transformed into _______ when heated is
known as:
A. Smoke B. Vapor C. Soot D. Charcoal
18. A by-product of fire in the form of fine particles of unburned carbon or soot is known as:
A. Smoke B. Vapor C. Soot D. Charcoal
19. A chemical reaction that occurs when any matter or substance combines with oxygen and
undergoes a physical change is known as:
A. Dehydration B. Oxidation C. Fission D. Fusion
20. Decomposition of a compound substance which release heat is an example of heat energy
derived from:
A. Electrical energy B. Chemical energy C. Mechanical energy D. Solar energy
21. Heat energy derived from nuclear energy by the splitting of atoms is known as:
A. Fusion B. Fission C. Radiation D. Ignition
Nuclear = energy which is generated when atoms either split apart or combine:
Fusion = Heat energy derived from nuclear energy by the combining of atoms is known as:
22. Heat created by friction thru the movement of two surfaces against its other is an example of heat
energy derived from.
A. Chemical energy B. Electrical energy C. Mechanical energy D. Solar energy
23. Under normal condition the composition of oxygen in air is about:
A. 15% B. 19% C. 21% D. 32%
15% = the percentage of oxygen in order to sustain combustion.
24. Materials which spontaneously ignite when exposed to air are called:
A. Oxidizer B. Fuel C. A source of ignition D. Pyrophoric substances
25. It is a chemical property of fire which refers to the changes whereby energy is absorbed or is
added before the reaction takes place:
A. exothermic reaction C. ectothermic reaction
B. endothermic reaction D. mesothermic reaction
exothermic reaction = It is a chemical property of fire which refers to reactions or changes
that release or give off energy thus they produce substances with less energy than the reactants:
26. The proper proportion in which fuel vapor and oxygen in air must be mixed for the fuel to ignite
within its vapor to air ration is known as:
A. Expansion range C. Explosive range
B. Flammable range D. Boiling range
27. Any liquid fuel with specific gravity of less than one (1) will:
A. Float in water C. Sink in water
B. Dissolve D. Mix with water
28. The weight of a vapor compared to the weight of an equal volume of air is known as:
A. Vapor density C. Specific gravity
B. Vapor pressure D. Flammable range
29. The weight of a liquid compared to the weight of an equal volume of water is known as:
A. Vapor density C. Specific gravity
B. Vapor pressure D. Flammable range
30. A liquid fuel with specific gravity of less than one (1) is:
A. Heavier than air C. Heavier than water
B. Lighter than air D. Neither of the above
31. Fires are classified by the:
A. Intensity of heat C. Fuel burning
B. Size or area covered D. Length of the flame
Fire =rapid combustion often results in a flame. It is an active chemical reaction that takes
place between fuel, heat and oxygen in the form of light and noticeable heat.
32. Class A fires involves:
A. Ordinary combustion C. Electrical energy
B. Liquid or gas D. Metals
33. A burning flammable liquid is classified as:
A. Class A fire B. Class B fire C. Class C fire D. Class D fire
34. A burning magnesium is classified as:
A. Class A fire B. Class B fire C. Class C fire D. Class D fire
Class A = Ordinary Combustible
 Class B = Flammable liquid
Class C = Electrical
Class D = Metal
35. If a burning transformer is electrically de energized the fire may either be:
A. Class A or B fire B. Class B or C fire C. Class C or A fire D. Class D or C fire
36. What kind of gas exists solely in the gaseous state under pressure and at normal atmospheric
temperature inside its container?
A. cryogenic gas B. compressed gas C. liquefied gas D. nuclear gas
Liquefied gas = partly liquid and partly gas state.
Cryogenic gas = a kind of liquefied gas.
37. Any liquid fuel with flash point below 37.80C (1000F) is a:
A. Combustible liquid B. Flammable liquid C. Corrosive liquid D. Volatile liquid
Stages of Fire
1. Overheating (Insipient Stage) – by friction or increase in temperature, beginning of fire, temp
400 degrees Fahrenheit to 800 degrees Fahrenheit.
2. Flaming (Free Burning Stage) – bursting into flames, the peak of the fire, everything is
burning, oxygen is 21%.
3. Smoldering Stage – presence of smoke and smolders, when oxygen in the surrounding drops
at 13%.
38. There are ____ stages of fire:
A. five B. two C. seven D. three
38. The earliest phase of a fire beginning with the actual ignition is:
A. Safety-state or free burning C. Roll over phase
B. Incipient phase D. Flash over phase
39. The phase of the fire which occurs when flames have affected and covered the entire surface of a
room or area due to the buildup of heat from the fire itself is the:
A. Hot-smoldering phase C. Flash over phase
B. Free-burning phase D. Roll-over phase
40. The phase of fire which occurs when the area involved is sufficiently confined and burning is
reduced to glowing embers, flames may have ceased to exist and intense heat liberated is the:
A. Roll-over phase C. Hot—smoldering phase
B. Flash-over phase D. Back draft
41. The phase of the fire which occurs when air is not properly introduced into the area involved
where unburned carbon particles and other flammable products of combustion are still available is
known as:
A. Roll-over phase C. Hot—smoldering phase
B. Flash-over phase D. Back draft
42. What is the upper section of an extension ladder?
A. top B. butt C. fly D. extension
43. The lowest section of an extension ladder is known as:
A. heel B. bed ladder C. butt D. fly ladder
heel = is the lowest section of the ladder touching the ground.
44. What do you call to the part of an extension ladder that touches the ground?
A. rung B. butt C. bed ladder D. heel
45. What is the enclosed space of passage that extends from floor to floor as well as from the base to
the top of the building?
A. vertical shaft B. sprinkler system C. standpipe D. flash point
46. What is a vertical panel of non- combustible or fire resistant materials attached to and extending
below the bottom chord of roof trusses to divide the underside of the roof into separate compartments
so that heat and smoke will be directed upwards to a roof vent?
A. fire door B. electric arc C. fire trap D. curtain board
47. An enclosed vertical space of passage that extends from floor to floor, as well as from the base to
the top of the building.
A. sprinkler system B. flash point C. vertical shaft D. standpipe system
48. A wall designed to prevent the spread of fire, having a fire resistance rating of not less than four
hours with sufficient structural stability to remain standing even if construction on either side collapses
under fire condition:
A. firewood B. fire wall C. post wall D. fire trap
49. Mechanical device strategically located in an installation or street where fire hose is connected so
that water with pressure will be available to extinguish fire.
A. fire hose box B. hose reel C. fire truck D. fire hydrant
50. Which of the following is considered as the most effective fixed installation for controlling fire
which will discharge water into incipient fire from heads located near the ceiling?
A. fire hydrant C. standpipe
 B. automatic water sprinkler D. fire extinguisher
51. What is the instrument used to open and close a fire hydrant?
A. hydrant key B. fire hose C. key board D. jumper
52. What is a portable metal device used to put out fires of limited size?
A. fire hose B. fire hydrant C. fire extinguisher D. fire truck
53. What type of ladder is best suited for firefighting operation involving high-rise building?
A. attic B. aerial C. extension D. hook
54. What is a normally open device installed inside an air duct system which automatically closes to
restrict the passage of smoke or fire?
A. fire exit B. damper C. fire trap D. fire alarm
55. What is an act which removes or neutralizes a fire hazard?
A. distillation B. abatement C. allotment D. combustion
56. Which of the following restrict the spread of fire to the point of origin or atleast to the area
involved?
A. extinguishments B. confinement C. suppression D. control
57. The clearing of smoke and heated gases at the highest point of the roof is referred to as:
A. vertical ventilation C. cross ventilation
B. forced ventilation D. horizontal ventilation
58. Which of the following occur when a room is heated enough that flame sweep over the entire
surface?
A. oxidation B. back draft C. flash over D. combustion
59. Which of the following is “prima facie” existence of arson?
A. inflammable substance found in the premises
B. simultaneous fire in more than one part of the building
C. building insurance
D. any of these
60. Aware of the common modus operandi of arson cases in our midst, which of the following facilities
should you check?
A. Gift-wrapped packages C. Telephones
B. Electric switch system D. All of these
61. The cause of the majority of fire deaths is ________.
A. Infection B. burns C. shock D. asphyxiation
62. The use of one or more electrical appliances or devices which draw or consumes electrical current
beyond the designed capacity of the existing electrical system.
A. self- closing door B. overloading C. jumper D. oxidizing material
63. If a high wind has an extinguishing effect on a fire, the most probable extinguishing method is:
A. smothering B. cooling C. fuel removal D. dilution
64. Which causes the greatest number of fire?
A. electrical wiring C. smoking and matches
B. leaking gas pipes D. spontaneous combustion
65. Which of the following best illustrate arson?
A. simultaneous fire C. thick reddish smoke
B. faulty electric wiring D. unexplained explosion
66. When firemen are working at the nozzle of a hose they usually lean forward on the hose. What is
the most likely reason for taking this position?
A. The stream is projected farther
B. The firemen can see better where the stream strikes
C. The surrounding air is cool making the firemen comfortable
D. A backward force is developed which must be counter acted
67. The vehicle is the “extension” of the owner’s house. Is the intentional burning of a car by another
constitute arson?
A. no B. yes C. it depends D. sometimes
68. If arson is only the means of killing the victim, the crime that you have to file is:
A. murder with arson B. arson with murder C. murder D. arson
69. Is the existence of two fires involving the same building with insurance and with the same owner
constitute arson?
A. yes B. sometimes C. no D. it depends
70. After the fire fighting operation and fire out has been declared, what is the first thing that a fire
prober must determine?
A. look for survivors C. locate the point of origin
B. search for debris D. established corpus delicti
71. What is the most effective cooling agent for firefighting operation?
A. CO2 B. H20 C. dry powder D. NaCl
72. Unrelated fire in different places of the same structure is an indication of:
 A. accidental fire B. consummated fire C. arson D. explosion
73. When fire occurs in a confirmed area the oxygen then oxygen content of air in the area.
A. Remain constant B. Increases C. Decreases D. Multiplies
74. When a fire occur in a confined room or building there is:
A. A limited amount of oxygen C. Enough room for gases to dissipate
B. An unlimited amount of oxygen D. Enough ventilation for heat to be reduced
75. Aside from heat, another product of combustion is:
A. Light B. Smoke C. Gases D. Any of the above
76. Aside from burns, heat as product of combustion may endanger life by:
A. Dehydration B. Exhaustion C. Respiratory injury D. Any of the above
77. A person trapped inside confined area involved by a fire may die of asphyxia due to:
A. Gas poisoning C. Injury of respiratory tract
B. Lack of oxygen D. Dehydration
78. Aside from reducing the temperature fire in the flaming mode of combination may be extinguished
by:
A. Inhibition of chain reaction C. Any of the above
B. Exclusion of oxygen D. Removal of fuel
79. Extinguishing a fire by cooling is also known as:
A. Smothering C. Starring
B. Quenching D. Inhibiting
80. Cooling or quenching is effective in reducing the temperature of the burning material:
A. Below its flash point C. Below its ignition temperature
B. Above it flash point D. Above its ignition temperature
81. Cooling is the best and practical way of extinguishing a:
A. Class A fire B. Class B fire C. Class C fire D. Class D fire
82. The term ___________ is the manner in which fuel ignites, flame develops and fire spreads.
A. fire technology B. fire starter C. fire behavior D. fire triangle
83. This deals with the knowledge and study that guide in proving some aspects, causes and the point
of origin of the fire:
A. arson investigation B. fire investigation C. arson detection D. fire detection
84. It is a series of events that occur in sequence with the results of each individual reaction being
added to the rest:
A. oxidation B. combustion C. chemical reaction D. chain reaction
85. Extinguishing a fire by excluding or depriving it of oxygen is known as:
A. Smothering B. Quenching C. Starring D. Inhibiting
86. Extinguishing a fire by interruption the flame producing chemical reaction is known as:
A. Smothering B. Quenching C. Starring D. Inhibiting
87. It is the movement of two surfaces against each other:
A. heat of friction C. heat of compression
B. heat of oxidation D. heat of combustion
88. Extinguishing a fire by excluding or depriving it of oxygen is known as:
A. Smothering B. Quenching C. Starring D. Inhibiting
89. It is the visible product of incomplete combustion, usually a mixture of oxygen, nitrogen, carbon
dioxide, carbon monoxide, finely divided particles of soot and carbon and miscellaneous assortment
of product released from the burning material:
A. vapor B. steam C. smoke D. gas
90. Which of the following restricts the spread of the fire to the point of origin or at least to the area
involved?
A. Extinguishments B. Suppression C. Confinement D. Control
91. The technique used in clearing a building of smoke and with the use of smoke ejector is:
A. Smoke Ejector C. Horizontal Ventilation
B. Forced Ventilation D. Vertical Ventilation
92. A person who burns a building and pretends to discover it or turn the alarm or make some works
to appear as the center of attraction is form of pyromania called:
A. alcoholics and addicts B. pyromania C. sexual perverts D. hero types
93. The proper proportion in which fuel vapor and oxygen in air must be mixed for the fuel to ignite
within its vapor to air ration is known as:
A. Expansion range C. Explosive range
B. Flammable range D. Boiling range
94. Fire cannot occur unless the fuel vapor and oxygen in air mix in:
A. Unequal volume C. Proper proportions
B. Same volume D. Improper ratio
95. It is the stage in development of a contained fire wherein all exposed surfaces reach ignition
temperature, either simultaneously or not, and caused the rapid spread of fire.
 A. Spalling B. Backdraft C. flashover D. kindling
96. Heat energy can be derived from electrical energy by any of the following, EXCEPT:
A. Arcing B. Short circuit C. Friction D. Overloading
97. What is known as the Fire Code of the Philippines?
a. Presidential Decree No 448 c. Presidential Decree No 421
b. Presidential Decree No 1184 d. Presidential Decree No 1185
R.A. 9514 – Revised Fire Code of the Philippines
98. In order for arson to be deemed committed by a syndicate, how many person must be involved?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
99. This phase of fire operations is equivalent to the “reconnaissance” phase of military operations.
A. salvage B. overhaul C. protection of exposure D. size- up
100. The three sides of the fire triangle are:
A. Fuel, heat and a reactor C. Fuel, heat and oxygen
B. Heat, oxygen and reactor D. A reactor, oxygen and fuel
101. The burning of low-grade heavy oils or resinous or tarry materials with sufficient air forms lamp
black commonly known as:
A. Black bone B. Used petroleum C. soot D. black iron

Drug Education & Vice Control

1. It is any act of introducing any dangerous drug into the body of any person, with or without his
or her knowledge, by injection, inhalation, ingestion or other means, or of committing any act
of indispensable assistance to a person in administering a dangerous drug to himself or
herself unless administered by a duly licensed practitioner for purposes of medication:
A. Administer B. Deliver C. Dispense D. Use
Deliver = It is an act of knowingly passing a dangerous drug to another, personally or otherwise, and
by any means, with or without consideration.
Sell=It refers to any act of giving away any dangerous drug and/or controlled precursor and essential
chemical whether for money or any other consideration:

Dispense = It is an act of giving away, selling or distributing medicine or any dangerous drug with or
without the use of prescription.
2. It is any act of knowingly planting, growing, raising or permitting the planting, growing or
raising of any plant which is the source of a dangerous drug:
A. Cultivation B. Manufacture C. Administration D. Trafficking
Trafficking =It is the illegal cultivation, culture, delivery, administration, dispensation, manufacture,
sale, trading, transportation, distribution, importation, exportation and possession of any dangerous
drug and/or controlled precursor and essential chemical.
Manufacture = It refers to the production, preparation, compounding or processing of any dangerous
drug and/or controlled precursor and essential chemical, either directly or indirectly or by extraction
from substances of natural origin, or independently by means of chemical synthesis or by a
combination of extraction and chemical synthesis, and shall include any packaging or repackaging of
such substances, design or configuration of its form, or labeling or relabeling of its container.

3. It is an act of injecting, intravenously or intramuscularly, of consuming, either by chewing, smoking,

sniffing, eating, swallowing, drinking or otherwise introducing into the physiological system of the
body, any of the dangerous drugs:
A. Administer C. Dispense
B. Use D. Deliver
4. It is a facility used for the illegal manufacture of any dangerous drug and/or controlled precursor
and essential chemical.
A. Illegal drugs laboratory C. Shabu laboratory
B. Clandestine laboratory D. Drug laboratory
5. It is an analytical test using a device, tool or equipment with a different chemical or physical
principle that is more specific which will validate and confirm the result of the screening test:
A. Confirmatory test C. Preparatory test
B. Preliminary test D. Drug screening
Screening test = A rapid test performed to establish potential/presumptive positive result:
6. This term refers to a cluster of physiological, behavioral and cognitive phenomena of variable
intensity, in which the use of psychoactive drug takes on a high priority thereby involving, among
others, a strong desire or a sense of compulsion to take the substance and the difficulties in
controlling substance-taking behavior in terms of its onset, termination, or levels of use:
A. Drug Addiction C. Drug Tolerance
B. Drug Dependence D. Withdrawal
7. A drug syndicate is any organized group of _____ or more persons forming or joining together with
the intention of committing any offense enumerated by RA 9165:
A. three B. two C. four D. five
Three or more persons applied to other syndicated crimes and organized crime except drug
syndicate.
8. He is a person who sells, trades, administers, dispenses, delivers or gives away to another, on any
terms whatsoever, or distributes, dispatches in transit or transports dangerous drugs or who acts as a
broker in any of such transactions, in violation of RA 9165:
A. Practitioner B. Manufacturer C. Pusher D. Coddler
9. Any accused charged with violation of any of the provision of RA 9165 shall not be entitled to enter
into a plea bargaining agreement:
A. It depends on the penalty imposable C. False
B. It depends on the section violated D. True
10. A person apprehended or arrested, who is found to be positive for use of any dangerous drug,
after a confirmatory test, shall be imposed a penalty of a minimum of ________ rehabilitation for the
first offense:
A. One year B. Two years C. Eight months D. Six months
11. When the convicted offender is an alien, there is an additional penalty to the penalties prescribed
in the unlawful act committed, and that is the penalty of:
A. Perpetual disqualification B. Civil liability C. Payment of costs D. Deportation
12. This is the penalty for a convicted offender who is found guilty of “planting” any dangerous drugs
and/or controlled precursor and essential chemical, regardless of quantity and purity:
A. Reclusion perpetua C. Life imprisonment
B. Reclusion temporal D. Death
13. A person who is not authorized by law to make or issue prescription, but makes or issues such
prescription, or any other writing purporting to be a prescription for any dangerous drug is liable for:
A. Unnecessary administration of dangerous drugs
B. Unnecessary prescription of dangerous drugs
C. Unlawful dispensation of dangerous drugs
D. Unlawful prescription of dangerous drugs
14. This government agency shall take charge and have custody of all dangerous drugs, plant
sources of dangerous drugs, controlled precursors and essential chemicals, as well as instruments
and or paraphernalia and/or laboratory equipment so confiscated, seized and/or surrendered:
A. Philippine Drug Enforcement Agency C. Philippine National Police
B. Anti-Illegal Drugs Task Force D. Dangerous Drugs Board
15. The following are the accessory penalties for violation of RA 9165, EXCEPT:
A. Disqualification to exercise parental authority and guardianship
B. Disqualification to exercise the right to vote and be voted for
C. Disqualification to exercise the rights to dispose property
D. Disqualification to the right to contract marriage
16. Drug testing shall employ ____ testing methods:
A. Four B. Two C. Multiple D. Three
17. Drug test certificates shall be valid for ________ from the date of issue:
A. Six months B. One year C. Three years D. Two years
18. The following shall be subjected to undergo drug testing, EXCEPT:
A. Officers and employees of private companies C. Applicants for driver’s license
B. Applicants for firearms license D. Applicants for voter’s id
19. This is the policy-making and strategy-formulating body in the planning and formulation of policies
and programs on drug prevention and control:
A. Philippine Drug Enforcement Agency C. Department of Justice
B. Dangerous Drugs Board D. Anti-Narcotics Group
20. It is the highest position in the Philippine Drug Enforcement Agency (PDEA):
A. Director General B. Chief C. Director D. Head
21. The preliminary investigation of cases filed under RA 9165 shall be terminated within a period of
____ days from the date of their filing:
A. Sixty B. Thirty C. Forty-five D. Fifteen
22. Any person found possessing any dangerous drug during a party, or at a social gathering or
meeting, or in the proximate company of at least ____ persons, shall suffer the maximum penalty
provided:
A. Three B. Four C. Five D. Two
23. The possession of such equipment, instrument, apparatus and other paraphernalia fit or intended
for any of the purposes enumerated in RA 9165 shall be ______ that the possessor has smoked,
consumed, administered to himself or herself, injected, ingested or used a dangerous drug:
A. Disputable presumption C. Convincing evidence
 B. Circumstantial evidence D. Prima facie evidence
24. Confiscated or seized dangerous drugs, plant sources of dangerous drugs, controlled precursors
and essential chemicals must be submitted to the PDEA Forensic Laboratory for a qualitative and
quantitative examination within ____ hours:
A. Forty-eight B. Twenty-four C. Seventy-two D. Eight
24 hours = examination/ destruction/
72 hours = ocular inspection by the court/judge
25. The term custodia legis means:
A. Custody of the law enforcement C. Custody of the judge
B. Custody of the prosecutor D. Custody of the law
26. This shall serve as the implementing arm of the Dangerous Drugs Board:
A. Philippine Drug Enforcement Agency C. Philippine National Police
B. National Bureau of Investigation D. Department of Justice
27. It is the willful act by any person of maliciously and surreptitiously inserting, placing, adding or
attaching directly or indirectly, through any overt or covert act, of any dangerous drug in the person,
house, effects or in the immediate vicinity of an innocent individual for the purpose of implicating,
incriminating or imputing the commission of any violation of RA 9165:
A. Incriminatory machinations C. Instigation
B. Planting of evidence D. Entrapment
28. This refers to transactions involving the illegal trafficking of dangerous drugs and/or controlled
precursors and essential chemicals using electronic devices such as text messages, email, mobile or
landline, two-way radios, internet, instant messengers and chat rooms:
A. Online trafficking B. Cyber trafficking C. E-trafficking D. Trading
29. A certification of the forensic laboratory examination results must be issued within _____ hours
after the receipt of the subject items:
A. Forty-eight B. Twenty-four C. Seventy-two D. Eight
30. The court must conduct an ocular inspection of the confiscated, seized and/or surrendered
dangerous drugs within _____ hours after the filing of the criminal case:
A. Forty-eight B. Twenty-four C. Seventy-two D. Eight
31. Which of the following is called as “designer drugs”?
A. LSD B. marijuana C. MDMA (ecstasy) D. shabu
32. All samples of drugs used and presented as evidence in court must be turned over to PDEA for
proper disposition and destruction within ____ hours after receipt of such drugs:
A. Forty-eight B. Twenty-four C. Seventy-two D. Eight
33. Authorized drug testing shall be done by any government forensic laboratories or by any of the
drug testing laboratories accredited and monitored by the _______:
A. Philippine Drug Enforcement Agency C. Dangerous Drugs Board
B. Department of Justice D. Department of Health
34. It is the period of rehabilitation in a government-accredited center for a drug dependent who
voluntarily submitted to confinement, treatment and rehabilitation:
A. One year C. More than six month
B. Six months D. Not less than six months
35. An accused who is found to be a drug dependent and whose offense is punishable by ______
shall be ordered by the court to be committed and confined to a center for treatment and
rehabilitation:
A. At least six (6) years and one (1) day C. More than six (6) years and one (1) day
B. Less than six (6) years and one (1) day D. Not less than six (6) years and one (1) day
36. The Dangerous Drugs Board (DDB) is composed of ___ members:
A. Twelve B. Ten C. Seventeen D. Fifteen
3 permanent member, 12 ex-officio members and 2 regular members.
37. The __________ shall be the permanent consultants of the DDB:
A. Secretary of the DOJ and Director of the NBI
B. Director of the NBI and Chief of the PNP
C. Secretary of DOH and Secretary of DOJ
D. Head of PDEA and Chief of the PNP
38. It is a place where any dangerous drug and/or controlled precursor and essential chemical is
administered, delivered, stored for illegal purposes, distributed, sold or used in any form:
A. House of ill-repute C. Drug club
B. Discotheque D. Drug den
39. This refers to the onset of a predictable constellation of signs and symptoms involving altered
activity of the central nervous system after the abrupt discontinuation or rapid decrease in dosage of a
drug and is usually characterized by tremor or convulsion:
A. withdrawal symptoms B. withdrawal C. tolerance D. addiction
40. It is the chemical name for the designer drug, ecstasy:
 A. Methylene-Dioxymethamphetamine C. Papaver somniferum
B. Methamphetamine hydrochloride D. Cannabis sativa L
41. What group of drugs are used medically as pain killers?
A. opiates B. track C. shabu D. coke
42. The source of most analgesic narcotic is _________.
A. all of these B. morphine C. heroine D. Opium
43. Which law was repealed by the Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002?
A. RA 6452 B. RA 6425 C. RA 6542 D. RA 6245
44. It is a drug extracted from the leaves of coca that has the same effect as amphetamines:
A. Codeine B. Opium C. Marijuana D. Cocaine
45. It is a pharmacological classification of drugs which has the function of stimulating the central
nervous system:
A. Depressants B. Stimulants C. Hallucinogens D. Narcotics
46. This pharmacological classification of drugs is also called downers:
A. Depressants B. Stimulants C. Hallucinogens D. Narcotics
47. This pharmacological classification of drugs refers to group of drugs that are used medically to
relieve pain:
A. Depressants B. Stimulants C. Hallucinogens D. Narcotics
48. This is more commonly referred to as “poor man’s cocaine”:
A. Heroin C. Marijuana
B. Shabu D. Cocaine
49. The inadvertent or deliberate consumption of a much larger doses than the habitually used by the
individual in question and resulting in serious toxic reaction or death:
A. Tolerance C. Dependence
B. Overdose D. Addiction
50. It is a process of withdrawing a person from an addictive substance, in a safe and effective
manner, by the removal of the toxic or harmful effects of the addictive substance:
A. Withdrawal C. Detoxification
B. Tolerance D. Intoxication
51. It is the recurrence of alcohol or drug dependent behavior in an individual who has previously
achieved and maintained abstinence for a significant time beyond the period of detoxification:
A. Remission C. Tolerance
B. Relapse D. Withdrawal
52. The silver triangle is made up of these countries:
A. Peru, Columbia and Bolivia C. Venezuela, Brazil and Peru
B. Brazil, Argentina and Chile D. Bolivia, Columbia and Peru
53. These are drugs that are produced artificially or processed in the laboratory:
A. Artificial C. synthetic
B. Natural D. organic
54. What is the most popular legal form of gambling in the Philippines?
A. lotto C. jueteng
B. casino D. illegal horse racing
55. Which of the factors below is perceived to be the major cause of initial drug abuse?
A. poor environment C. domestic violence
B. experimental thrill D. peer pressure
56. What drugs are commonly referred as “downers” because they relax, create a feeling of well being
and produced sleep to the user?
A. opium C. LSD
B. barbiturates D. marijuana
57. Which of the following is NOT a reason for taking drugs?
A. accessibility of sources such as drug stores, medicine cabinets, etc.
B. personal reasons such as family problems and social pressure
C. influenced by friends and peers
D. high self esteemed and ego
58. Pedro cannot function without drugs in his system and if he does not take drugs, he develops
withdrawal signs such as restlessness, pain, or convulsions. Pedro is___________:
A. psychologically dependent on drugs C. mentally dependent on drugs
B. physically dependent on drugs D. socially dependent on drugs
59. This method of therapy is based on conversion and fellowship and emphasizes that alcoholics
should understand alcoholism better than anyone else.
A. Aversion Method C. Program for Alcoholics Anonymous
B. Alcoholic Treatment D. Psychotherapy Method
60. Principal alkaloid of opium constituting as much as 20% of opium:
A. Morphine C. Codeine
 B. Heroin D. Hashish
61. RA 9165 was approved on June 7, 2002 and took effect on:
A. June 19, 2002 C. August 7, 2002
B. July 4, 2002 D. July 14, 2002
62. The PDEA Academy is headed by a ___________ and appointed by the head of the PDEA:
A. Superintendent C. Chief
B. Director D. Dean
63. What classification would solvents, paints and gasoline which are examples of substances that
are sniffed to obtain intoxication fall?
A. Depressants C. energizers
B. Inhalants D. Tranquillizers
64. Street level pushing/ peddling is a problem addressed by which of the following police operational
strategy?
A. community oriented policing system
B. demand reduction
C. supply reduction
D. all of these
65. The ______________ shall designate special courts from among the existing RTC in each judicial
region to exclusively try and hear cases involving violation of RA 9165.
A. DOJ C. Supreme Court
B. DDB D. Sandiganbayan
66. Marijuana plant can easily be identified by:
A. Its stalk that grows up to 12 feet
B. Its pungent scent when matured or fully grown.
C. Its branches which occur at opposite points on the stalk
D. Its finger-like leaves broken into leaflets whose edges are serrated in shape.
67. What drugs produce sensations such as distortions of time, space, sound, color and other bizarre
effects?
A. opiates C. heroine
B. narcotics D. hallucinogens
68. What drug acts on the central nervous system, producing excitement, alertness and wakefulness?
A. barbiturates C. opiates
B. depressant D. stimulant
69. It is one of the strongest short-acting stimulants:
A. Cocaine C. Morphine
B. Marijuana D. Heroin
70.They are also commonly known as psychedelics:
A. Stimulants C. Hallucinogens
B. Narcotics D. Inhalants
71. This is the world’s oldest cultivated drugs:
A. Marijuana C. Magic mushrooms
B. Coca bush D. Opium poppy
72. It is the strongest component of marijuana:
A. Tetrahydrocannabinol (THC) C. Cannabinol
B. Cannabinoid D. Resin
73. These are known as performance-enhancing drugs:
A. Stimulants C. Steroids
B. Inhalants D. Narcotics
74. Narcotics are drugs that ____:
A. affect sensation, thinking, self-awareness and emotion
B. increase alertness and physical disposition
C. may reduce anxiety and excitement
D. relieve pain and often induce sleep
75. Marijuana has been one of the most abuse hallucinogens in the Philippines and its control
becomes difficult according to some authorities due to the fact that:
A. It is in demand C. It is sellable in the market
B. It is easy to cultivate D. It is easy to smoke it secretly
76. Drugs that affects sensation, thinking and self-awareness and emotion:
A. Hallucinogens C. Stimulants
B. Sedatives/Depressant D. Narcotics
77. These are examples of stimulant drugs, EXCEPT:
A. cocaine C. poor man’s cocaine
B. amphetamine D. Barbiturates
78. If a person devotes considerable time and effort in obtaining the drug, thinking and discussing
about it and using it to meet his problems and to escape from reality, he is _________.
A. Socially dependent on drugs C. Physically dependent on drugs
B. Mentally dependent on drugs D. Psychologically dependent on drugs
79. Which of the following is the commonly known as the “poorman’s cocaine”.
A. Amphethamine C. Methamphetamine
B. Ecstasy D. Shabu
80. The following prohibited drugs are examples of stimulants, EXCEPT.
A. LSD C. Amphetamine
B. Caffeine D. Methamphetamine hydrochloride
81. The term of office of the Chairman of the Dangerous Drug Board:
A. 2 years C. 6 years
B. 4 years D. co-terminus
82. In crime scene photography, the crime photographer should be interested only in ____________.
A. Portraying the facts of the case
B. Taking the pictures of relatives
C. Taking good photographs
D. Taking the view only
83. What is that act of injecting or that means of introducing the dangerous drug into the physiological
system of the body?
A. Consumption C. Use
B. Administration D. Abuse
84. The prevention of drug addiction is primarily a responsibility of what institution so as to prevent its
members from being hook to addiction?
A. Church C. Barangay
B. Family D. School
85. It is any immoral conduct or habit, the indulgence of which leads to depravity, wickedness and
corruption of the minds and body.
A. Prostitution B. Gambling C. Drug addiction D. Vice
86. A police problem in control of vices which results to the past favors extended by vice operators and
the expression of Filipino values of “Utang na Loob” is:
A. Lack of cooperation from players, customers, and victims of vices,
B. Enjoyment of goodwill by vice operators
C. Public apathy and indifference
D. Unwilling government officials to work against vice existence
87. A degree of intoxication when a drunken person does not know the intoxicating strength of the
beverage he has taken is:
A. Intentional intoxication C. Habitual intoxication
B. Involuntary intoxication D. Moderate intoxication
Intentional = the person deliberately take alcoholic beverage to get drunk.
88. It is the process of undergoing or producing gradual chemical change which later becomes sour in
taste. It is the breakdown of complex molecules in organic components caused by the influence of
yeast or other substance.
A. Distillation B. Intoxication C. Fermentation D. Adulteration
89. Is the degree of intoxication in which the person is argumentative and overconfident? There is
slight impairment of mental difficulties, difficulty of articulation, and loss of coordination of finer
movements.
A. Slight inebriation B. Drunk C. Moderate inebriation D. Very drunk
90. Within how many minutes after intake of alcoholic beverage is the absorption is faster?
A. 20 to 30 minutes B. 10 to 20 minutes C. 30 to 60 minutes D. 50 to 60 minutes
91. It is the percentage of alcohol blood which indicates that the person is under the influence of the
liquor (alcohol)?
A. 0.05 B. 0.15 C. 1.5 D. 0.50
.05 = not sufficient to determine whether or not the person is under the influence of liquor.
92. A method of therapy on alcoholism that is based on conversion and fellowship is called?
A. Aversion Method C. Psychotherapy method
B. Program of Alcoholic Anonymous D. None of the above
Aversion method = medical treatment of alcoholic
Psychotherapy = treatment by counseling.
PAA or Program of Alcoholic Anonymous = through fellowship.
93. A school of thoughts which originated in French which maintains the idea that we cannot do away
with prostitution unless we consider the problems and remove the causes of prostitution.
A. School of Total Repression C. School of Social Control
B. School of Regulatory Control D. School of Prostitution Anonymous
School of total repression = considered prostitution as both crime and vices, Thus they are not in
favor of legalization of prostitution.
94. Is the term or name used when referring to all kinds of prostitute:
A. Whores B. Call girl C. Knocker D. Pick-up girl
95. One who provides gratification for the lust of others? A male procurer of clients for a prostitute.
A. Pimps B. Bugaw C. Brothels D. Papasam
96. It is the oldest and the most common type of prostitute.
A. Streetwalker B. Factory girl C. Pick-up D. Call girl
97. Also known as Papaver Somniferum and considered as the mother drugs of other narcotics
substance.
A. Codeine B. Heroin C. Morphine D. Opium Poppy
98. Refers to a group of drugs that increase alertness also referred to as “uppers”.
A. Stimulants B. Caffeine C. Amphetamine D. Crack

Traffic Accident Investigation

1. Interviewing persons involved in a traffic accident what is the primary consideration to be taken
by the police investigator.
A. listen to both sides C. conduct each interview separately
B. conduct the interview jointly D. listen only to all witness because they are not bias
2. It is an accident, which is always accompanied by an unidentified road user who usually flees
immediately after the said collision.
A. Hit and Run cases C. motor vehicle non-traffic accident
B. Motor vehicle traffic accident D. non motor vehicle none traffic accident
3. It refers to the separation of traffic units in a vehicular accident.
A. final position B. hazards C. disengagement D. stopping
4. Refers to seeing, feeling or hearing and understanding an unusual or unexpected condition
indicative of a sign the accident might takes place.
A. perception of hazards B. starts of evasive action
C. initial contact D. maximum engagement
(Perception of hazard, start of evasive action, initial engagement,
maximum engagement, disengagement and stopping)
5. It refers to a dangerous conduct and attitude, which indicates lack of concern for injurious
consequences likely to result from such a behavior.
A. drunk driving B. reckless driving C. reckless imprudence D. reckless negligence
6. It is an enforcement action, wherein the violator is commanded to appear in court but without
detaining him.
A. traffic arrest B. traffic citation C. traffic warning D. dogwatch
Traffic Warning (Visual, Oral, Written)
7. Are marks left on the roadway by tires, which are not free to rotate? Usually brakes are applied
strongly and the wheels locked.
A. skid marks B. scuff marks C. key event D. debris
Skid mark = forward without rotating
Scuff mark = forward as well as rotating
Centrifugal skid = due to fast moving vehicle on a curve road.
8. A certain intersection, for several reasons, has more traffic accidents than any other does in
the area. The police unit assigned the area should…
A. park near the intersection, in plain view and wait for violators
B. cruise all the assigned area but give extra attention the intersection
C. park near the intersection, more or less, hidden from view
D. park your motorcycle at the center of intersection to caution to motorists
9. This traffic warning is usually used when you have observed a minor violation but are more
importantly occupied at a moment.
A. visual warning B. verbal warning C. written warning D. oral warning
10. It is a traffic observations or stationary observation in which the observer in which the observer
tries to attract attention by keeping in full view of traffic.
A. conspicuous B. visible C. concealed D. stationary
11. The first accident touching between traffic units involving in the collision.
A. start of evasive action B. perception of hazards
C. initial contact D. injury
12. This traffic warning is really form of safety education by telling the violator that he has violated
the law and explain the hazards of such actions.
A. visual warning B. verbal warning C. written warning D. traffic control
13. Traffic management is sole responsibility of police. The statement is….
A. true in highly urbanized places like cities B. absolutely false
C. absolutely true D. partly true
442) RA 8750 is otherwise known as.
A. clean air act B. seatbelt law C. LTO code D. anti car napping act
14. What should drivers do when an emergency vehicle approaches displaying legally authorized
red light and sounding a siren?
A. Continue driving slowly without regard of the emerging vehicle
B. Yield the right of way and wait for the passage of the vehicle
C. Pull aside and stop the car abruptly
D. Disregard the red light and siren
15. What method is used to determine whether a driver is under the influence of alcoholic
beverages or not?
A. walking thru straight line B. field sobriety test C. counting D. balance
16. Also known as “Clean Air Act”.
A. RA 7924 B. RA 8750 C. RA 8749 D. RA 9165
17. A driving privilege that allows the person to operate a motor vehicle for livelihood:
A. Non-professional license C. Professional license
B. sub-professional license D. professional driver’s license
18. Children who are prohibited to be seated in the front seat of any running motor vehicle:
A. Seven years old C. Under six years old
B. six years and old and under D. seven years old and under
19. Traffic management agencies’ failure in uplifting the driving behavior within the concept of
defensive driving is a result of the following, EXCEPT:
A. Management tolerance attitude C. Corruption within the bureaucracy
B. driver’s lack of concern D. absence of pro-active approach
20. When there are two motor vehicles approaching the intersection almost at the same time, one
is travelling along the national road and the other is in the secondary road. Who has the right
of way?
A. vehicle on the secondary road C. Vehicle on the right
B. vehicle on the national road D. Vehicle on the left
21. Person who is responsible for the holding of number of passenger, freights or cargo inside his
public utility motor vehicle:
A. Driver B. operator C. Dispatcher D. conductor
22. The international traffic and road signs and signals agreed in United Nations Convention was
adopted in the Philippines, on what year?
A. 1968 B. 1978 C. 1958 D. 1988
23. All are considered as emergency vehicle, EXCEPT?
A. Police car on call B. ambulance on call C. Fire truck on call D. Physician’s car
24. Shall mean every and any driver hired or paid for driving or operating a motor vehicle whether
for private use or for hire to the public.
A. rig driver B. owner C. operator D. professional driver
25. Mrs. Pening Garcia, owner of a school bus service, with plate number ABC 334. Based on the
plate number, in what month should her vehicle registration be renewed?
A. March B. April C. May D. June
26. Given the above-question, in what week of the suppose month of registration her vehicle be
registered?
A. 1st B. 2nd C. 3rd D. 4th
27. A motor vehicle used by ambassador of Singapore.
A. government B. diplomatic C. for hire D. gate away
Yellow Plate = public vehicle, Blue = Diplomatic, Red = Government Green = private
28. When there are two or more emergency vehicles approaching the same intersection from
different directions creating a probability conflict, an officer directing traffic at the intersection
must give preference to one and cause the others to yield the right of way. Which vehicle
should generally be given least preference to proceed ahead?
A. ambulance B. police car
C. fire truck D. wrecker
29. What is the most common cause of road accident in the Philippines?
A. road condition B. pedestrian C. whether condition D. reckless driving
30. In the examination of the scene of accident, which of the following evidence will show how the
accident happened?
A. the driver under the influence of liquor C. vehicle has break failure
B. hole on the road pavement D. point of impact
31. What is the general rule for the movement of vehicular traffic in the Philippines?
A. “keep to the left” B. none of these C. “keep to the right” D. “watch out”
32. The privilege of immediate use of roadway in preference to another vehicle or pedestrian.
A. immunity B. leniency C. right of way D. giving way
33. What is that movement of persons, good, and vehicles either powered by an animal or an
animal- drawn vehicle on by combustion system from one place to another?
 A. Engineering B. Traffic C. Traffic management D. Construction
34. A systematic examination of all facts relating to conditions, actions and physical features
associated with motor collision is called:
A. traffic accident investigation C. traffic engineering
B. hit and run investigation D. traffic collision
35. Driving without due regard for the consequences likely to occur, ignoring the right and safety
of another is:
A. hit and run C. over speeding
B. none of these D. reckless driving
36. A device mounted on a portable support where a message is conveyed by means of words or
symbols.
A. traffic light C. traffic island
B. traffic signs D. pavement marking
37. Land transportation and traffic code is republic act number…
a. RA 4163 C. RA 4136
b. RA 9208 D. RA 7438
38. LTFRB literally means...
A. Land Transit for Fee Regulatory Board
B. Local Transport Franchising Regulation Board
C. Law on Transport and Foreign Relation Board
D. Land Transportation and Franchising Regulatory Board
39. These signs are intended to warn road users of the danger that lies ahead and its nature.
A. informative signs B. warning signs
C. regulatory signs D. all of these
40. Which of the following consideration does not act as a deterrent to motorist and pedestrian?
A. Loss of driving privilege C. increase of insurance premium
B. Fear of fine and punishment D. Possibility of being involve in an accident
41. Within the human element which is at fault in a large majority of the vehicular accidents, the
most important defect is attributed to what?
A. attitudinal B. perceptual
C. intellectual D. decision
42. The effectiveness of traffic law enforcement program is best measured by which of the
following.
A. a decrease in the ratio of convictions to enforcement actions
B. a reduction of traffic accidents and delay
C. an increase in traffic enforcement actions
D. None of the foregoing
43. What is the objective of traffic control?
A. To arrest traffic violator C. To prevent scalawags
B. To increase safety level D. To solve crimes
44. What is the combination of verbal warning and citations called?
A. Traffic rules implementation C. Citation warnings
B. Traffic consultation D. Written warnings
45. What is the occurrence in a sequence of or a chain of events which usually produce
unintended
injury, death, or damage to property?
A. Calamity C. Accident
B. crime D. Assault
46. What is the proof that one is given permission by the Land Transportation Office (LTO) to
operate
a vehicle on public highways?
A. driver’s ID C. driver’s license
B. franchise D. operator’s license
47. Which of the following is the basic objective of police traffic control?
A. Economized transport of goods and services
B. Prevention of traffic accidents
C. Movement of traffic with safety
D. Planning for safe roads
48. What kind of driver is one who shows a complete disregard for others, aggressive, impatient,
demanding and thoroughly selfish in his actions affecting other drivers?
A. Vociferous C. Defensive
B. Egotists D. Emotional
49. In taking photographs of traffic accident scene, it must be from GENERAL view to _________
view?
 A. Major C. Specific
B. Colonel D. Captain
50. In determining whether a driver is under the influence of intoxicating substance, which test
should be administer?
A. Counting C. Spelling
B. Walking thru a straight line D. Field Sobriety
51. How should a driver approach an intersection?
A. Be at the right of way C. Be at the full stop
B. Give a signal D. Overtake other vehicles
52. Safe use of the streets by drivers and pedestrians is a matter of
A. Adequate utilization of traffic resources
B. Sustained information campaign
C. Effective traffic enforcement
D. Correct attitude and habit
53. Which of the following evidence is important to gather from fatal motor crash?
A. Spare tire C. Unusual odor
B. All of these D. Footwear of driver and skid mark of vehicle
54. What is the first and most important step in enforcing traffic rules?
A. None of these C. Enforcement
B. Planning and enforcement D. Planning
55. When there is a collision between a train and bus, which unit of the police takes charge?
A. Homicide division C. General investigation unit
B. Traffic investigation unit D. Traffic management group
56. What is the most common cause of road accident in the Philippines?
A. Road condition C. Pedestrian
B. Whether condition D. Reckless driving
57. The first action taken by a traffic unit to escape from collision course or otherwise avoid
hazard.
A. State of evasive action C. Point of no escape
B. Point of possible perception D. Final position
58. With respect to minor traffic violations, the traffic police officer should be guided foremost by
the consideration that _________.
A. Some traffic violations are caused by negligence
B. Some traffic violations are intended
C. The aim is to discourage violation
D. Violations must be punished
59. In the Philippines, which of the following agencies must be accountable for an effective driver
control program?
A. Courts C. All of these
B. LTO D. Police
60. What country first used traffic signs and symbols?
A. Germany C. America
B. France D. England
61. It is painted on the pavement and placed at intersections and other places to provide
pedestrians with safety zone when crossing:
A. Center C. Cross walk
B. Lane D. Stop lines
62. These include pedestrians, pedal cyclists, drivers and passengers:
A. Road obstructions C. Traffic units
B. Road users D. Road ways
63. It is an object or vehicle on the road that hinders or prevent the smooth flow of traffic:
A. Obstruction C. Hazard
B. Hindrance D. Debris
64. What warning is usually used when you have observed a minor violation, where the violator
cannot be held accountable, either the enforcer is occupied on something else or is unable to
enforce law the violated due to other hindrances?
A. Verbal C. Written
B. Visual D. Citation
65. A device mounted on a portable support where a message is conveyed by means of words or
symbols, officially erected or installed for the purpose of regulating warning or guiding traffic:
A. Center line C. Refuge Island
B. Stop line D. Traffic Signs
66. The traffic action taken by the traffic police such as arresting, issuing traffic citation ticket and
giving warning to erring drivers for the purpose of deterring and discouraging and or
preventing such violations:
A. Education C. Citation
B. Enforcement D. Warning
67. It is any motor vehicle accident occurring entirely at a place other than on a highway:
A. Motor vehicle non-traffic accident C. Motor vehicle traffic accident
B. Non-motor vehicle traffic accident D. Motor vehicle accident
68. It was them who brought road building to its highest point of perfection in ancient times:
A. Romans C. Chinese
B. Arabs D. Greeks
69. These signs are intended to inform road users of special obligations, instructions or
prohibitions which motorists must comply:
A. Regulatory C. Place identification
B. Danger warning D. Bus and Jeepney stop
70. A traffic enforcement action that makes a violator to appear in court without physical arrest:
A. Arrest C. Warning
B. Citation D. Observation
71. What do you call a mark produced by a vehicle traveling in an arc or curved direction?
A. Centrifugal skid C. Scuff mark
B. Centrifugal force D. Skid mark
72. A friction mark on a pavement made by a tire, which is both rotating and slipping:
A. Centrifugal skid C. Scuff mark
B. Centrifugal force D. Skid mark
73. A motor vehicular accident resulting to the death of an animal.
A. Fatal accident C. Property damage
B. Non-fatal accident D. Vehicular accident
74. A Traffic Violator’s Receipt is provided for under what law?
A. RA 7924 C. RA 6425
B. RA 4136 D. RA 6975
75. It is a frontal collision usually of the vehicles:
A. Full impact collision C. Frontal collision
B. Head on collision D. Collision
76. These are activities that are normally resorted to by the courts on traffic violations:
A. Preventive C. Punitive
B. Persuasive D. Enforcement
77. What science deals about measuring traffic and travel?
A. Engineering C. Physics
B. Criminology D. Education
78. This refers to a group of stopped vehicle units due to an interruption:
A. Queuing C. Simultaneous stopping
B. Traffic jam D. Chain-reaction stopping
79. How do you call a person who just un-boarded a public utility vehicle?
A. Passenger C. Motorist
B. Driver D. Pedestrian
80. What do you call a person, possessing a driver’s license, who is on board a motor vehicle:
A. Driver C. Passenger
B. Pedestrian D. Traffic unit
81. An elevated structure built for the safety of the pedestrians in crossing busy highways:
A. Flyover C. Skyway
B. Underpass D. Overpass
82. When you see the triangle red and black signs it is precautions of the dangerous conditions
ahead such as the following, EXCEPT:
A. Men working C. Curves, hills ahead
B. Slippery roads D. Distance of places or landmarks ahead
83. This is a law pertaining to the authority to manage traffic in Metropolitan Manila Area:
A. RA 4136 C. RA 7924
B. RA 8750 D. RA 8551
84. A traffic police officer stationed along the route of a parade has been ordered by his superior
to allow no cars to cross the route. While the parade is in progress, an ambulance driver on an
emergency run attempts to drive his ambulance across the route while the parade is passing.
Under the circumstances, the traffic officer should…
A. hold up the ambulance in accordance with superior’s order
B. stop the parade long enough to permit the ambulance to cross the street
 C. direct the ambulance driver to the shortest detour which will add at least ten minutes to run.
D. ask the driver to wait until the traffic police officer contact his superior and obtains a
decision.
85. Every motor vehicle propelled by an internal combustion engine shall be equipped with a
___________ and said motor vehicle passes through a street of any city, municipality or
thickly populated district or barrio.
A. Wiper C. Muffler
B. Light D. Windshield
86. An accident involving traffic transportation on a traffic way:
A. Traffic accident C. Non-motor vehicle accident
B. Motor vehicle accident D. Motor vehicle non-traffic accident
87. Is that art of driving while preventing or minimizing the accident despite the wrong actions
aggravated by the existence of adverse driving conditions?
A. Racing C. Defensive driving
B. Drifting D. Offensive driving
88. In processing the traffic accident scene, the following object evidence must be collected,
EXCEPT?
A. Broken glass B. Mutilated side mirror
C. Cloth's fiber D. Skid mark
89. What is the special plate number designated to the director general of Philippine National
Police?
A. 12 B. 16
C. 14 D. 17
90. Mrs. Pening Garcia, owner of a school bus service, with plate number ABC 334. Based on the
plate number, in what month should her vehicle registration be renewed?
A. March B. April
C. May D. June
91. Given the above-question, in what week of the suppose month of registration her vehicle be
registered?
A. 1st B. 2nd
C. 3rd D. 4th