



Subject Code Subject

Question Booklet Number

A-09-18 life sciences
hALL tICKET number PaPER
ii

OMR Sheet Number nUMBER OF qUESTIONS
100

dURATION mAXIMUM mARKS nUMBER OF pAGES

2 hOUrs 200 24
This is to certify that, the entries made in the above portion are correctly written and verified.

Candidates Signature Name and Signature of Invigilator

Instructions for the Candidates A¿æýÅǦMìü çÜ*^èþ¯èþË$
1. Write your Hall Ticket Number in the space provided on the top 1. D ç³#r ò³O ¿êVæü…ÌZ CÐèþÓºyìþ¯èþ çܦ˅ÌZ Ò$ àÌŒýsìýMðüsŒý ¯èþ…ºÆæÿ$ Æ>Äæý$…yìþ.
of this page. 2. D {ç³Ôèý² ç³{™èþÐèþ$$ Ðèþ…§æþ (100) ºçßý$âñýO_eMæü {ç³Ôèý²Ë¯èþ$ MæüÍW E…¨.
2. This paper consists of hundred multiple-choice type of questions.
3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet will
3. ç³È„æü {´ëÆæÿ…¿æýÐèþ$$¯èþ D {ç³Ô>²ç³{™èþÐèþ$$ Ò$Mæü$ CÐèþÓºyæþ$™èþ$…¨ Ððþ$$§æþsìý I§æþ$
be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested to open
°Ñ$çÙÐèþ$$ËÌZ D {ç³Ô>²ç³{™èþÐèþ$$¯èþ$ ™ðþÇ_ Mìü…§æþ ™ðþÍí³¯èþ A…Ô>˯èþ$ ™èþç³µ°çÜÇV>
the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below : çÜÇ^èþ*çÜ$Mø…yìþ.
(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper (i) D {ç³Ôèý² ç³{™èþÐèþ$$¯èþ$ ^èþ*yæþyé°Mìü MæüÐèþÆŠÿ õ³h A…^èþ$¯èþ E¯èþ² M>W™èþç³# ïÜË$¯èþ$
seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept a booklet _…^èþ…yìþ. M>W™èþç³# ïÜË$Ìôý° Ðèþ$ÇÄæý$$ C¨ÐèþÆæÿMóü ™ðþÇ_ E¯èþ² {ç³Ô>²ç³{™èþÐèþ$$¯èþ$
without sticker-seal and do not accept an open booklet. Ò$Ææÿ$ A…XMæüÇ…^èþÐèþ§æþ$ª.
(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions (ii) MæüÐèþÆæÿ$ õ³h ò³O Ðèþ$${¨…_¯èþ Ü ç Ðèþ*^éÆæÿ… {³ç M>Ææÿ… D {³ç Ôèý² ³ç {™þè Ðèþ$$ÌZ° õ³iË
in the booklet with the information printed on the Üç …Qůèþ$ Ðèþ$ÇÄæý$$ {³ç Ôèý²Ë Üç …Qůèþ$ Üç Ç^èþ*çÜ$Mø…yìþ.õ³iË Üç …QÅMæü$ çÜ…º…«¨…_
cover page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions V>± Ìôý§é çÜ*_…_¯èþ çÜ…QÅÌZ {ç³Ôèý²Ë$ ÌôýMæü´ùÐèþ#r Ìôý§é °f{糆 M>Mæü´ùÐèþ#r
missing or duplicate or not in serial order or any other Ìôý§é {ç³Ôèý²Ë$ {MæüÐèþ$糧æþ®†ÌZ ÌôýMæü´ùÐèþ#r Ìôý§é HÐðþO¯é ™óþyéË$…yæþ$r
discrepancy should be got replaced immediately by a Ðèþ…sìý §øçÙç³NÇ™èþÐðþ$O¯èþ {ç³Ôèý² ç³{™é°² Ððþ…r¯óþ Ððþ$$§æþsìý I§æþ$ °Ñ$ÚëÌZÏ ç³È„>
correct booklet from the invigilator within the period ç³ÆæÿÅÐóþ„æüMæü$°Mìü †ÇW C_aÐóþíÜ §é°Mìü º§æþ$Ë$V> çÜÇV>Y E¯èþ² {ç³Ôèý²ç³{™é°²
of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet ¡çÜ$Mø…yìþ. ™èþ§æþ¯èþ…™èþÆæÿ… {ç³Ôèý²ç³{™èþÐèþ$$ Ðèþ*Ææÿaºyæþ§æþ$ A§æþ¯èþç³# çÜÐèþ$Äæý$…
will be replaced nor any extra time will be given. CÐèþÓºyæþ§æþ$.
(iii) After this verification is over, the Test Booklet Number (iii) ò³O Ñ«§æþ…V> çÜÇ^èþ*çÜ$Mö¯èþ² ™èþÆ>Ó™èþ {ç³Ô>²ç³{™èþ… çÜ…Qůèþ$ OMR ç³{™èþÐèþ$$ ò³O
should be entered in the OMR Sheet and the OMR Sheet
Number should be entered on this Test Booklet.
A§óþÑ«§æþ…V> OMR ç³{™èþÐèþ$$ çÜ…Qůèþ$ D {ç³Ô>²ç³{™èþÐèþ$$ ò³O °Ç®çÙt çܦ˅ÌZ
4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C)
Æ>Äæý$ÐèþÌñý¯èþ$.
and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on the 4. {糆 {ç³Ôèý²Mæü$ ¯éË$Væü$ {ç³™éÅÐèþ*²Äæý$Ë$ (A), (B), (C) Ðèþ$ÇÄæý$$ (D) Ë$V>
correct response against each item. CÐèþÓºyézÆÿ$$. {糆 {ç³Ôèý²Mæü$ çÜÆðÿO¯èþ fÐéº$¯èþ$ G¯èþ$²Mö° OMR ç³{™èþÐèþ$$ÌZ {糆 {ç³Ô>²
Example : A   B   C   D çÜ…QÅMæü$ CÐèþÓºyìþ¯èþ ¯éË$Væü$ Ðèþ–™é¢ÌZÏ Üç Æðÿ¯O þè fÐéº$ Üç *_…^óþ Ðèþ–™é¢°² »êÌŒý ´ëÆÿ$$…sŒý
ò³¯Œþ™ø Mìü…§æþ ™ðþÍí³¯èþ Ñ«§æþ…V> ç³NÇ…^éÍ
where (C) is the correct response.
E§éçßýÆæÿ×ý : A  B   C  D
5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR Answer
Sheet given to you. If you mark at any place other than in the (C) çÜÆðÿO¯èþ {糆çܵ…§æþ¯èþ AÆÿ$$™óþ.
circle or half circle or semi circle in the Answer Sheet, it will not 5. {ç³Ôèý²ËMæü$ fÐéº$¯èþ$ D {ç³Ôèý²ç³{™èþÐèþ$$™ø CÐèþÓºyìþ¯èþ OMR ç³{™èþÐèþ$$ ò³O¯èþ CÐèþÓºyìþ¯èþ
be evaluated. Ðèþ–™é¢ÌZϯóþ ç³NÇ…_ Væü$Ç¢…^éÍ. AÌêM>Mæü çÜÐèþ*«§é¯èþ ç³{™èþ… ò³O ÐóþÆöMæü ^ør Væü$Ç¢…_¯èþ
6. Read instructions given inside carefully. ÌôýMæü çÜVæü Ðèþ–™èþ¢… Ìôý§é AçÜ…ç³NÆæÿ~ Ðèþ–™é¢°² °…í³¯èþ Ò$ fÐéº$ Ðèþ$*ÌêÅ…Mæü¯èþ…
7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet. ^óþÄæý$ºyæþ§æþ$.
8. If you write your name or put any mark on any part of the OMR 6. {ç³Ôèý² ç³{™èþÐèþ$$ ÌZç³Ë C_a¯èþ çÜ*^èþ¯èþ˯èþ$ gê{Væü™èþ¢V> ^èþ§æþÐèþ…yìþ.
Answer Sheet, except for the space allotted for the relevant 7. _™èþ$¢ç³°° {ç³Ôèý²ç³{™èþÐèþ$$ _ÐèþÆæÿ C_a¯èþ Rêä çܦËÐèþ$$ÌZ ^óþÄæý*Í.
entries, which may disclose your identity, you will render yourself
8. OMR³ ç {™èþÐèþ$$ ò³O °È~™þè Üç ˦ …ÌZ Üç *_…^èþÐèþËíܯèþ ÑÐèþÆ>Ë$ ™èþ³í µ…_ C™èþÆæÿ Üç ˦ …ÌZ Ò$
liable to disqualification.
9. The candidate must handover the OMR Answer Sheet to Væü$Ç¢…ç³#¯èþ$ ™ðþÍõ³ Ñ«§æþ…V> Ò$ õ³Ææÿ$ Æ>Äæý$yæþ… V>± Ìôý§é C™èþÆæÿ _à²Ë¯èþ$ ò³rtyæþ…
the invigilators at the end of the examination compulsorily V>± ^óþíܯèþrÏÆÿ$$™óþ Ò$ A¯èþÆæÿá™èþMæü$ Ò$Æóÿ »ê«§æþ$ÅËÐèþ#™éÆæÿ$.
and must not carry it with you outside the Examination Hall. 9. ç³È„æü ç³NÆæÿ¢Æÿ$$¯èþ ™èþÆ>Ó™èþ OMR ç³{™é°² ™èþç³µ°çÜÇV> ç³È„æü ç³ÆæÿÅÐóþ„æüMæü$yìþMìü CÐéÓÍ.
The candidate is allowed to take away the carbon copy of Ðésìý° ç³È„æü Væü¨ ºÄæý$rMæü$ ¡çÜ$Mæü$ÐðþâæýåMæü*yæþ§æþ$. ç³È„æü ç³NÆæÿ¢Æÿ$$¯èþ ™èþÆæÿ$Ðé™èþ
OMR Sheet and used Question paper booklet at the end of the A¿æýÅÆæÿ$¦Ë$ {ç³Ôèý² ç³{™é°² OMR ç³{™èþ… Äñý$$MæüP M>Ææÿ¾¯Œþ M>ï³° ¡çÜ$Mæü$ÐðþâæýåÐèþ^èþ$a
examination. 10. ±Í/¯èþËÏ Ææÿ…Væü$ »êÌŒý ´ëÆÿ$$…sŒý ò³¯Œþ Ðèþ*{™èþÐóþ$ Eç³Äñý*W…^éÍ.
10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen. 11. ÌêVæüÇ£æþÐŒþ$ sôýº$ÌŒýÞ, M>ÅÍMæü$ÅÌôýrÆŠÿË$, GË[M>t°MŠü ç³ÇMæüÆ>Ë$ Ððþ$$§æþËVæü$¯èþÑ ç³È„æü
11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited.
12. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers.
Væü¨ÌZ Eç³Äñý*W…^èþyæþ… °õÙ«§æþ….
12. ™èþ糚 çÜÐèþ*«§é¯éËMæü$ Ðèþ*Ææÿ$PË ™èþWY…ç³# Ìôý§æþ$.
II  1 A-09-18

  *A0902*

RE
HE
ITE
WR
T
NO
DO

II  2 A-09-18
*A0902*
life sciences
Paper – ii

1. The processes of two or more related 4. Assertion (A) : Storage polysaccharides

species becoming more and more show more branches than structural
dissimilar is called polysaccharides in their structure.
(A) Convergent evolution Reason (R) : Branched polysaccharides
(B) Co-evolution have more free ends and can form more
(C) Homoplasy glycoside bonds.

(D) Divergent evolution
2. For culturing, plasma from the adult
chicken is preferred to mammalian plasma
because
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is
the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is
not the correct explanation of (A)

(A) It forms a semi-solid coagulum (C) (A) is true but (R) is false

(B) It is too opaque (D) (A) is false but (R) is true

(C) It does not produce solid clots 5. Match the following :

(D) I t f orms a clear and solid
    List – I     List – II
Coagulum even after dilution
I. Reverse transcriptase 1. Adenovirus
3. Assertion : Power pack employed for
II. DNA replication 2. Bacteriophage λ
protein electrophoresis converts sinusoidal
alternating current to direct current. III. Nucleic acid integration 3. Poliovirus

Reason : DC current dose not need IV. Glycoprotein biosynthesis 4. Influenza virus
ionized buffer molecules to separate
5. HIV
charged proteins.
I II III IV
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is
correct explanation of (A) (A) 5 3 4 2
(B) Both (A) and (B) are true, but (R) is
(B) 3 2 1 5
not correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false (C) 3 2 5 4

(D) (A) is false but (R) is true (D) 5 1 2 4

II  3 A-09-18
  *A0902*
6. Identify the correct statements with 9. The transport of the liberated ________
reference to DNA replication. electrons through the cytochrome b6
complex occurs with the translocation
I. A covalent bond is formed between 3′ -OH
of _______ protons from the stroma
and 5′ -p.
to the thylakoid lumen during
II. In general, the DNA replicating enzyme in photophosphorylation.
E-coli is DNA polymerase I. (A) 2 electrons, 4 protons
III. A single strand of DNA can be copied if the (B) 4 electrons, 8 protons
four types of nucleotides and polymerase
(C) 3 electrons, 6 protons
I are provided.
(D) 8 electrons, 4 protons
IV. A RNA primer must be complementary
in base sequence to some region of the 10. The path of urine drainage is
DNA.
(A) Renal pelvis → major calyx → Minor
(A) I, III calyx → Papillary duct → Ureter →
(B) II, III Collecting duct → Urinary bladder
(B) Minor calyx → Major calyx → Papillary
(C) I, IV
duct → Renal pelvis → Ureter →
(D) II, IV Urinary bladder → Collecting duct
(C) Urinary bladder → Renal pelvis →
7. Which of the following receptors are not
Ureter → Minor calyx → Major calyx
part of bacteria/plants ?
→ Collecting duct → papillary duct
(A) Adhesion receptors
(D) Collecting duct → Papillary duct →
(B) Nuclear steroid receptors Minor calyx → Major calyx → Renal
pelvis → Ureter → Urinary bladder
(C) Membrane proteins
(D) GPCR 11. Match the following :
  List – I     List – II
8. Assertion (A) : In Fritillaria and plumbagella,
the ploidy of endosperm is 5n. I. ZW-ZZ 1. Grasshopper
II. ZO-ZZ 2. Drosophila
Reason (R) : Triploid antipodals are
III. XX-XO 3. Hen
present in these two genera.
IV. XX-XY 4. Butterfly
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is
the correct explanation of (A) I II III IV

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is (A) 1 4 3 2
not the correct explanation of (A) (B) 3 2 1 4
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false (C) 3 4 1 2
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true (D) 2 4 1 3

II  4 A-09-18
*A0902*
12. Assertion (A) : Torsion is the characteristic 15. Match the type of vaccine given in
feature of class : Pelecypoda. section – A for preventing the disease
Reason (R) : Visceral mass is spirally given in section – B.
coiled and indicates torsion in Pila.
   Section – A      Section – B
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is
the correct explanation of (A) I. Whooping cough 1. Toxoid

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is II. Tetanus 2. Live attenuated
not the correct explanation of (A)
III. Tuberculosis 3. Inactivated virus
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
IV. Hepatitis-B 4. Whole cell
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true
inactivated
13. The sequence of formation of biomass V. Rabies 5. Recombinent
from the north pole to the equator of
earth

I. Grassland I II III IV V
II. Savannah (A) 4 2 1 5 3
III. Taiga
(B) 4 1 2 5 3
IV. Tundra
(C) 3 2 1 5 4
(A) IV, I, III, II
(D) 3 4 5 2 1
(B) IV, III, I, II
(C) IV, II, III, I 16. Assertion (A) : β-galactosidase is
(D) IV, III, II, I commonly incorporated in the plasmid
vectors used for cloning.
14. In a plant, red flower colour is dominant
over white and is single gene controlled. Reason (R) : β-galactosidase lyses E-coli
In a population of this plant species, the cells that do not contain the plasmid.
percentage of red-flowered plants is 64.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is
What would be the frequency of the allele
for white flowers ? the correct explanation for (A)

(A) 0.2 RR, Rr = 64 = 64/100 = 0.64 (B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not
rr = 1-0.64

(B) 0.4
= 0.36
r = √0.36
the correct explanation for (A)
= 0.6

(C) 0.8 (C) (A) is true but (R) is false

(D) 0.6 (D) (A) is false but (R) is true

II  5 A-09-18
  *A0902*
20. In terms of cell communication, what
17. If the pH of a solution is 8, its hydroxyl ion
concentration is do bacterial pathogens such as
(A) 10–8 vibrio cholerae and Bacillus anthracis
(B) ten times more than that of pH7 have in common ?
solution
(A) They destroy the receptors for key
(C) 10–2
signalling molecules
(D) 108
(B) They prevent the production of key
18. DNA synthesis occurs in a precisely
signalling molecules
limited portion of the cell cycle in
I. Mouse cells (C) They alter the chemical structure of

II. E.coli signalling molecules

III. Saccharomyces cerevisae (D) They block the normal functioning of

IV. Cyanobacteria signal transduction mechanisms
V. Hela cells
21. The protein of zona pellucida that induces
(A) I, III, IV are correct
sperm to undergo acrosome reaction
(B) I, III, V are correct
(C) II, III, IV are correct (A) Zona protein 1

(D) II, III, V are correct (B) Zona protein 2

19. Which of the following properties are (C) Zona protein 3

essential for the functioning of an amino-
acyl synthetase ? (D) Zona protein 4

I. Recognition of a codon.
22. Identify the correct sequence related to
II. Recognition of the anticodon of a tRNA
the direction of electron flow during light
molecule.
reaction.
III. Recognition of the amino acid-
recognition loop of a tRNA molecule. (A) PS II → PQ → Cytochrome b6–f →
IV. Ability to distinguish one amino acid PS I → Ferrodoxin
from another.
(B) PS I → PQ → Cytochrome b6–f →
(A) I, II are correct
PS II → Ferrodoxin
(B) I, III are correct
(C) II, III are correct (C) PS I → Ferrodoxin → PS II → NADP+

(D) III, IV are correct (D) PS I → PQ → PS II → NADP+

II  6 A-09-18
*A0902*
23. Thermoregulation in animals occurs by 26. Assertion (A) : Herbivore insects depend
the following :
on plants for energy, nutrients and getting
I. Counter correct blood flow
secondary metabolites.
II. Vasodilation
Reason (R) : Plants can synthesize primary
III. Increased aldosterone
metabolites. the energy generated is
IV. Vaso constriction
utilized by others only.
(A) I and II are correct

(B) II and III are correct (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is

(C) III and IV are correct the correct explanation of (A)

(D) I and IV are correct (B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not

24. If the environmental component of variance the correct explanation of (A)

is three times the genetic component, the
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
heritability is

1 (D) (A) is false but (R) is true

(A)
4
1 27. Genetic polymorphism is important to
(B)
2
1 evolution because
(C)
3
(A) individual variability provides the raw
3
(D)
4 material for natural selection to act
25. The following type is selected to serve as
(B) genes cannot mutate unless they are
the nomenclatural type from the original
material when no holotype was designated polymorphic
at the time of publication or when there
(C) only heterozygous individuals are
exists a syntype
selected in natural populations
(A) Lectotype

(B) Neotype (D) the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is less

(C) Isotype likely to be disturbed in polymorphic

(D) Paratype populations

II  7 A-09-18
  *A0902*
28. Monsanto’s Bollgard is a line of transgenic 31. Match the following :

cotton developed by stacking which of the     List – I       List – II

following second Bt gene ? I. DNA synthesis is 1. (3H)-Thymidine

cell free extracts
(A) cry 2AC
II. Determining chemical 2. (32P)-
(B) cry 2Ab
nature of the genetic Orthophosphate
(C) cry 1AC material

(D) cry 1Ab III. Chromosome 3. (35S)-amino acid

replication
29. The affinity of IgG molecule to a given IV. Electron transport 4. (18O)-oxygen
antigenic determinant can be determined
5. (a-32P)-dATP
by one of the following technique
I II III IV
(A) Equilibrium dialysis (A) 5 3 1 4

(B) LC-MS/MS (B) 5 2 4 3

(C) Capillary electrophoresis (C) 3 4 2 1

(D) 3 2 5 4
(D) ELISA
15
32. Assume that DNA labelled with N was
30. Combinations of secondary structural 14
allowed to replicate on a N containing
elements found in different proteins medium. After 3 generations of replication
molecules having similar functions are on this medium, the number of DNA
called strands with 14N and those with 15N + 14N
are, respectively
(A) Prosthetic groups
(A) 2, 6
(B) Pleated sheets
(B) 4, 2
(C) Epitopes (C) 6, 2

(D) Motifs (D) 2, 4

II  8 A-09-18
*A0902*
33. Which of the following statements is false 36. Assertion (A) : Enterokinase acts on
about phagocytosis ? trypsinogen and converts it to trypsin.
(A) Macrophages die after phagocytizing Reason (R) : Enterokinase breaks the
bacteria but neutrophils regenerate lysyl bond if there are three acidic amino
their Lysosomes and survive acid residues before it.
(B) Phagocytes have receptors that
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is
recognize complement proteins bound
the correct explanation of (A)
to bacteria
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is
(C) Phagocytes move towards an area
not the correct explanation of (A)
of infection by a process called
chemotaxis (C) (A) is true and (R) is false

(D) The vacuole in which bacteria are (D) (A) is false and (R) is true
exposed to degradative enzymes is
37. Nullisomy is represented as
called phagolysosome
(A) 2n – 1
34. Out of 1090 cells produced during
(B) 2n + 1
development of Caenorhabditis elegans,
how many cells are normally destined to (C) 2n – 2
die by apoptosis ? (D) 2n + 2

(A) 111
38. Assertion (A) : Malarial parasite is kept
(B) 121 under subclinical levels in the liver and
(C) 131 spleen of man.
Reason (R) : Liver and spleen cells
(D) 141
actively phagocytose malarial parasites.
35. Which one of the following acts as the
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is
precursor for the biosynthesis of lysine ?
the correct explanation of (A)
(A) Cysteine
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is
(B) Pyrroline-5-carboxylate not the correct explanation of (A)

(C) 2-oxoglutarate (C) (A) is true but (R) is false

(D) Ornithine (D) (A) is false but (R) is true

II  9 A-09-18
  *A0902*
39. Identify the correct statement. 41. Cheese cancer of swiss and similar
cheese is caused by
I. Species that are no longer known to
exist in the wild-EXTINCT (A) Oospora crustaceae

II. Species that have a high likelihood (B) Oospora caseovorans

of going to extinct in the near future- (C) Oospora auriamticum

ENDANGERED (D) Bacillus
III. Species that may become endangered
42. The structure of 25 KDa protein can be
in the near future-THREATENED
determined at atomic resolution by one of
IV. Species that have small total numbers- the following spectroscopic techniques
RARE (A) FT-IR spectroscopy
(A) I, II, IV are correct (B) NMR spectroscopy
(B) I, II, III are correct (C) Raman spectroscopy

(C) II, III, IV are correct (D) UV-Vis-NIR spectroscopy

(D) I, II, III, IV are correct 43. Based on the function, identify the odd
RNA sh RNA, si RNA, mi RNA -
40. Identify the correct statement among the silence the target gene
via RNA interference
following : (A) sh-RNA sn RNA - Processing of
pre-messenger RNA (hn RNA)
in the nucleus

(A) Monophyletic origin has many common (B) sn-RNA

ancestors (C) mi-RNA

(B) Paraphyletic origin has a recent (D) si-RNA

common ancestor but does not
44. Microtubules are responsible for
contain all descendants
(A) Cytokinesis
(C) Polyphyletic origin is consistent with
(B) The movement of chromosomes
recent common ancestor
during anaphase
(D) Paraphyletic origin has no recent
(C) Maintaining cell shape
common ancestor but contains all
(D) Dynamic cellular processes
descendants

II  10 A-09-18
 Terpenes: large group of volatile unsaturated hydrocarbons

*A0902*
found in the essential oils of plants,
They are cyclic molecule having the formula C10H16.

45. A certain protein has 124 amino acids. 48. Which of the following act as building
The minimum number of nucleotides blocks for the biosynthesis of terpenes in
expected in the gene encoding this plants ?
protein, assuming that methionine is not
(A) Activated isopentenyl pyrophosphate
the first amino acid, is
124 x 3 = and activated dimethylallyl
(A) 372 372 + Stop (3) + Start (3)
pyrophosphate
= 378
(B) 375 (B) G e r n a n y l p y r o p h o s p h a t e a n d
(C) 378 glutamate
(D) 381 (C) F a r n e s y l p y r o p h o s p h a t e a n d
aspartate
46. Which of the following act as endogenous
pyrogens ?
endogenous pyrogens are cytokines
that are a part of the immune system.
(D) Pyrophosphate and acetyl salicylic
They are produced by acid
I. Interleukin-1 activated immune cells
and cause the increase in the
II. Interleukin-10 thermoregulatory set point
in the hypothalamus.
49. Arctic and Antarctic fish have significant
ÿ
III. TNF-a þ resistance to freezing because their blood
e contains much of the following content that
IV. Histamine
n has remarkable antifreezing capacity
(A) I & III
d (A) Glycoproteins
(B) IV & II
o (B) Cholesterol
(C) I & II
g (C) Amino acids
(D) III & IV
e (D) Carbohydrates
47. Which of the following pairs is not correctly
n 50. When populations are small, gene
matched ?
o frequencies can change from generation
(A) Release of more than 2 sperms in an
to generation and some alleles may
embryo sac is called polyspermy
u
s become fixed in a population. This is
(B) Polysiphonous pollen grains are called Assortative mating/positive assortative mating/homogamy:

present in HaWa neglecta p It means that individuals with similar phenotypes mate
with one another more frequently than would be expected
y (A) Assortative mating under a random mating pattern.

(C) Nucellar adventive embryony isr Inbreeding:

Two closely related organisms
o
(B) Inbreeding
mate with each other and produce offspring.
common in Mangifera The two main negative consequences of inbreeding are
an increased risk of undesirable genes
and a reduction in genetic diversity.
g
(D) E n d o t h e l i u m i s h e l p f u l i n t h e (C) Heterosis Heterosis:
progeny of diverse varieties of a species
or crosses between species exhibit greater biomass,
dehiscence of anther atematurity (D) Genetic drift
speed of development, and fertility than both parents

n
II  s 11 A-09-18
a
47) Endothelial cells: Provide a barrier between the blood and the rest of the body tissues. Blood must be contained inside the transporting vessels, but substances need to move in and out of it in
a controlled manner. The endothelium provides this selectively permeable layeracross which chemicals and white blood cells move according to where they are needed. The role of the endothelium
r
as a barrier is particularly critical around the brain. The endothelial cells are part of the blood-brain barrier (BBB), a layer that separates the blood flowing through vessels surrounding the brain from
the brain tissue itself. The endothelial cells act like a sieve, restricting the passage of large molecules, toxic substances, and bacteria into the brain tissue while allowing necessary molecules like
e
oxygen, enzymes, and hormones to go through. They also allow waste substances like carbon dioxide produced by neurons to diffuse out of the brain and back into the blood.
  *A0902*
51. Which of the following is not an indirect 53. Match the following :

drives of Biodiversity change ?           List – I     List – II

(A) Demographic change I. Factor V 1. Hageman factor

(B) Deforestation II. Factor IX 2. Stuart factor

III. Factor X 3. Labile factor

(C) Socio-political factor
IV. Factor XII 4. Christmas factor
(D) Cultural and religious factor
I II III IV Factor I - Fibrinogen
Factor II - Prothrombin
Factor III - tissue factor

52. Assertion (A) : The atmospheric

Factor IV - Calcium ions

(A) 4 3 1 2
Factor VII - stabilizing factor
Factor VIII - antihemophilic factor A
Factor XI - plasma thromboplastin antecedent

concentration of CO2 at which

Factor XIII - Fibrin stabilizing factor

(B) 3 4 2 1 Note: There is no factor VI

photosynthesis just compensates

(C) 2 4 1 3
for respiration is referred to as CO 2
(D) 3 2 4 1
compensation point.
54. In a Co-transformation experiment the
Reason (R) : The CO2 compensation
following data were obtained
point is reached when the amount of CO2
      Co-transformed genes    Frequency
uptake is less than that generated through

respiration because the level of CO2 in the I. pil A and pil B 0.12%

atmosphere is more than that required for II. pil A and pil C 0.9%

achieving CO2 compensation point. III. pil B and pil C 0.78%

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is From the frequency of co-transformation,
find which gene(s) is/are in the middle
the correct explanation of (A)
position ?
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not (A) pil A
the correct explanation of (A)
(B) pil B
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false (C) pil C

(D) (A) is false but (R) is true (D) pil A and pil B

II  12 A-09-18
*A0902*
55. When heart contracts dorso ventrally, the 57. _________ speciation is genetic divergence
blood circulation in Herdmania is in the permitted by geographic location.
order of
(A) Allopatric
(A) Heart → Dorsal aorta → visceral
organs → ventral aorta → Branchial (B) Allosteric
vessels → Heart
(C) Sympatric
(B) Heart → Branchial vessels → Dorsal
aorta → visceral organs → ventral (D) Natural selection
aorta → Heart

(C) Heart → visceral organs → Dorsal 58. Consider the following statements in
aorta → Branchial vessels → ventral relation to continuous fermentation.
aorta → Heart
I. Steady state conditions do not exist
(D) Heart → ventral aorta → visceral
organs → Dorsal aorta → Branchial II. Rate of product formation changes
vessels → Heart
III. Mixed cultures can be maintained
56. Match the following :
using chemostat cultures
        List – I     List – II
IV. Substrate content and the biochemical
I. Shannon-Wiener index 1. (S1 – C) + (S2 – C)
S
n1(n1 − 1) reactions within the cells change
II. Simpson’s index      2. D = ∑
1=1 N(N − 1)
Which pair of the above statements is/are
III. Gamma diversity 3. H = Σ [Cpi.ln (Pi)]
correct ?
IV. Beta diversity 4. S1 + S2 – C

I II III IV (A) I and II

(A) 2 3 4 1 (B) II and III

(B) 2 4 1 3
(C) III and IV
(C) 3 1 4 2
(D) I and IV
(D) 3 2 4 1

II  13 A-09-18
  *A0902*
59. Assertion (A) : Dideoxy nucleoside 61. The generation and maintenance of a
triphosphates (dd NTPs) are used in DNA membrane electric potential requires
sequencing.
I. Selectively permeable membrane
Reason (R) : dd NTPs are incorporated
very efficiently into DNA. II. Ion-specific membrane channel
proteins
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is
the correct explanation for (A) III. Active pumping ions
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not IV. The presence of cardiolipin in the
the correct explanation for (A) membrane
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false (A) I, II, III are correct
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true
(B) I, II, IV are correct
60. Match the following : (C) I, III, IV are correct
  List – I          List – II (D) II, III, IV are correct
I. Nucleotide that is 1. Cistron
similar to adenosine 62. Exonuclease III attacks preferentially
monophosphate except (A) The 5′ end of a linear dna
that its phosphate group
is bonded back on to (B) The 5′ end of a linear dna with 5′
the sugar protruding ends
II. A ‘G’ nucleotide that 2. CAMP (C) The 3′ end of a linear dna
is added to the 5′ end
of eukaryotic m-RNA (D) The 3′ end of a linear dna with 5′
after transcription protruding ends

III. Regulatory protein that 3. CaP 63. Assertion (A) : p53 is a tumor-suppressor
activated by cyclic AMP protein.
and is involved in transcription
of the lac operon of E.coli Reason (R) : Several tumors contain
IV. Region of DNA comprising 4. CaP mutations in the gene coding for p53.
coding sequence for one (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is
protein CAP binds to a region of DNA
just before the lac operon
promoter the correct explanation for (A)
and helps RNA polymerase
I II III IV attach to the promoter,
driving high levels of
transcription (B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not
(A) 2 4 1 3
the correct explanation of (A)
(B) 4 3 2 1
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(C) 3 4 2 1
(D) 2 3 4 1 (D) (A) is false but (R) is true

II  14 A-09-18
*A0902*
64. In Plumbago zeylanica, the pollen is 66. The direction of light striking the retina is
3-celled and the two sperms and the in the order of

vegetative nucleus occur in intimate (A) Bipolar cells → Ganglionic cells

association. find out the correct sequence → Photo sensory cells → Sensory
nerves
of their association.
(B) Sensory nerves → Ganglionic cells →
I. Smaller sperm
Bipolar cells → Photo sensory cells
II. Vegetative nucleus (C) Ganglionic cells → Sensory nerves →
III. Larger sperm Photo sensory cells → Bipolar cells

(D) Photo sensory cells → Ganglionic cells

(A) I, II and III
→ Bipolar cells → sensory nerves
(B) III, II and I
67. How many genotypes are present at a
(C) II, III and I locus with five alleles ?
(D) III, I and II (A) 17 With n alleles, the number of genotypes = sum of number between and including 1 to n
Given, number of alleles = 5
number of genotypes = 1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + 5 = 15

(B) 15
65. Match the following :
(C) 27
List – I         List – II
(D) 10
I. Zinc 1. Photolysis of water
68. Assertion (A) : Peripatus is a terrestrial
II. Copper 2. N2 fixation
animal with elongated and cylindrical
III. Manganese 3. Cytochromosome body.
oxidase Reason (R) : Peripatus has haemocoel,
jaws, antennal and chitinous external
IV. Molybdinum 4. IAA biosynthesis
covering which are annelidan affinities.
I II III IV
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is
(A) 3 4 2 1 the correct explanation of (A)

(B) 3 2 4 1 (B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is
not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) 2 3 1 4
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) 4 3 1 2
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true

II  15 A-09-18
  *A0902*
69. Which are not the characters of Elephas 71. Consider the following in relation to the
maximus ? production of glutamic acid

I. Tip of trunk has two finger like lips I. Addition of penicillin to culture

II. Forehead is low and flat without cleft increases permeability of cells and

produces high amounts of glutamic

III. Both male and female have 3.5 meters
acid.
long tusks
II. Addition of saturated fatty acids to
IV. Five nails on each foot
culture increases permeability of
(A) I, II and III are correct
cells and produces high amounts of
(B) II, III and IV are correct glutamic acid.

(C) III, IV and I are correct III. Addition of biotin to culture increases

(D) IV, I and II are correct permeability of cells and produces

high amounts of glutamic acid.

70. Assertion (A) : Beelice invade the nests
IV. Creating oleic acid deficiency in
of bees and devour the food in it.
oleic acid auxotrophs decreases
Reason (R) : Robbing is a typical social permeability of cells and produces low
prey mechanism found in beelice. amounts of glutamic acid.

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is Which of the above pair of statements
the correct explanation of (A) is correct ?

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is (A) I and II

not the correct explanation of (A)

(B) III and I

(C) (A) is true but (R) is false (C) IV and III

(D) (A) is false but (R) is true (D) II and IV

II  16 A-09-18
*A0902*
72. A Kanamycin (k +) and Ampicillin (a +) 74. Match the following :

resistant plasmid is treated with Bgl I List – I         List – II

enzyme that cuts in ampicillin gene.

I. Tunica mycin 1. Dimeric proteins
The resulting plasmid is annealed to present as coating
Drosophila DNA and then was used to on vesicles

transform E.Coli. Which phenotype of the

II. Chaperones 2. B l o c k s a d d i t i o n
resulting bacterial colonies will have the of N-linked
Drosophila DNA ? oligosaccharides to

(A) k+ a+ proteins

III. Clathrin 3. Proteins that help

(B) k+ a–
folding of other
– +
(C) k a
proteins
(D) k– a–
IV. Flippases 4. Aid movement of

73. If the average molecular weight of an lipids from one side of

amino acid is 120 daltons, then what is the membrane to other

side
the weight in grams of a single molecule

of protein containing 300 amino acids ? I II III IV

molecular weight =(number of aminoacid residues)*

(A) 6.02 × 10 –23

g
(avaerage weight of aminoacid) -
(number of peptide bonds)* (A) 2 3 1 4
(average mass of water molecule)

(B) 2 1 4 3
(B) 270 × 10–18 g
1 dalton = 1.67 * 10 ^ 24g

(C) 3 2 4 1
(C) 53.85 × 10–22 g

(D) 3 4 1 2
(D) 5.98 × 10–20 g

II  17 A-09-18

75. Assertion (A) : A double-strand break in
DNA is difficult to repair.
Reason (R) : One strand of DNA acts as
a template for the synthesis of new strand
of DNA.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is
the correct explanation of (A) sections (T.S. and T.L.S.)
 *A0902*
77. The composition and nature of the rays in
the secondary xylem can be known in
(A) Transverse section (T.S.)
(B) Tangential Longitudinal section
(T.L.S.)
(C) Radial Longitudinal section (R.L.S.)
(D) Transverse and Tangential longitudinal

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not 78. Arrange the following processes of
Nitrogen cycle in correct sequence :
the correct explanation for (A)
I. Denitrification
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
II. Nitrogen fixation
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true III. Ammonification
IV. Nitrification
76. Match the following :
(A) II → III → IV → I
List – I         List – II
(B) I → II → III → IV
I. MAP kinase 1. Signal transduction (C) I → III → II → IV

II. Nitric oxide 2. Specific to serine (D) IV → III → II → I

and Threonine 79. Assertion (A) : Oxygen carrying capacity

of blood is reduced by carbon monoxide
III. Calcium 3. Lipid regulators
poisoning.
IV. Phosphoinositides 4. Free radical Reason (R) : Haemoglobin has more
affinity to oxygen than carbon monoxide
I II III IV
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is
(A) 1 2 3 4 the correct explanation of (A)

(B) 4 3 2 1 (B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is
not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) 2 4 1 3
(C) (A) is true and (R) is false
(D) 3 2 1 4 (D) (A) is false and (R) is true

II  18 A-09-18
*A0902*
80. How many types of X-linked haemophilia 83. Match the following :
have been recognised ?
    List – I List – II
(A) 2
I. Two groups are 1. Adaptive radiation
(B) 4
formed with few
(C) 3 common traits
(D) 5 from a single
initial population
81. Which of the following combinations is not
true ? II. Several groups 2. Stabilizing selection
(A) Dengue – virus – mosquitoes – are formed from
diptera a single initial
(B) Bubonic plague – bacteria – fleas – population with
siphonaptera increasing degree of
(C) Filaria – Nematode – Mosquitoes – difference in a single
Diptera trait
African sleeping sickness - Parasite - Tsestse fly - Glossina

(D) African sleeping sickness – protozoa III. Majority of individuals 3. Directional selection
– Mosquitoes – Diptera
showing a trait
82. Assertion (A) : The grazing food chain increases in a
which starts from a green plant, goes single population
to grazing herbivores and then on to
IV. Several small 4. Disruptive selection
carnivores.
populations with
Reason (R) : The detritus food chain
widely different
goes from non-living organic matter to
characters appear
microorganisms and then to detritus-
feeding organisms and their predators. 5. No selection

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is I II III IV
the correct explanation of (A)
(A) 3 4 5 2
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not
(B) 4 2 1 5
the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false (C) 4 3 2 1

(D) (A) is false but (R) is true (D) 5 1 3 4

II  19 A-09-18
  *A0902*
84. Avermectins (AVM) is a macrocyclic 86. An increase in entropy
lactones which have potent antihelminthic I. is an increase in order
and insecticidal action. They are generally
II. occurs when a NaCl solution is
derived from the mycelia of
diluted
(A) Streptomyces avermitilis
III. occurs when a hydrocarbon molecule
(B) Bacillus thuringiensis is removed from an aqueous
(C) Pseudomonas bluorescens environment

(D) Lycopersicum peruvianum IV. Occurs in the system when amino

acids are linked to form a protein
85. Match the correct methods of sterilization
(A) I, II are correct
from the given groupings
(B) I, IV are correct
  Group – I   Group – II
(C) II, III are correct
I. Biosafety hood 1. Autoclave
(D) II, IV are correct
II. Serum 2. γ-radiation

III. Disposable 3. Filter sterilization 87. The correct sequence of usage of

polycarbonate the following techniques during cell
plasticware fractionation is

IV. Luria broth 4. Shortwave UV I. Equilibrium density gradiation

light II. Sonication
5. Hot air oven III. Rate-zonal centrifugation
I II III IV IV. Binding to antibody-coated beads
(A) 4 1 5 3 (A) III, II, IV, I
(B) 2 4 3 1 (B) II, I, IV, III
(C) 2 3 1 5 (C) II, III, I, IV
(D) 4 3 2 1 (D) III, I, II, IV

II  20 A-09-18
*A0902*
88. Match the following : 90. Match the following :
        List – I     List – II       List – I  List – II
I. UV light 1. DNA strand I. Unipotent 1. Cell that can
breakage differentiate into
II. Ionizing radiations 2. Interstrand cell types of the
cross-linking in adult organism
DNA II. Oligopotent
2. Cell that differentiates
III. Alkylating agents 3. Thymidine into multiple
dimers different, but closely
related all types
IV. Nitrous Acid 4. Depurination
III. Pluripotent 3. Cell is more restricted
I II III IV than multipotent but
(A) 3 4 2 1 can still differentiate
into a few closely
(B) 2 3 1 4
related cell types
(C) 3 1 4 2
IV. Multipotent 4. Cell thatdifferentiates
(D) 2 3 4 1 into any one cell-
type but capable of
89. Some of the steps involved in the self renewal
production of Humulin are given below.
I II III IV
Choose the correct order of sequence of
events involved in the production of (A) 4 3 1 2
recombinant Humulin. (B) 2 3 4 1
I. Synthesis of gene (DNA) for human (C) 4 1 3 2
insulin artificially
(D) 4 3 2 1
II. Culturing recombinant E.coli in
bioreactors 91. A r r a n g e t h e i n t e r m e d i a t e c a r b o n
III. Purification of Humulin compounds in order of their occurrence
in the calvin cycle.
IV. Insertion of human insulin gene into
plasmid I. Hexose
V. Introduction of recombinant plasmid II. Heptose
into E.coli
III. Triose
VI. Extraction of recombinant gene
product from E.coli IV. Tetrose

(A) I, III, V, II, IV, VI (A) III, I, IV, II

(B) II, I, IV, III, V, VI (B) I, II, III, IV
(C) I, IV, V, II, VI, III (C) III, IV, I, II
(D) III, V, II, I, VI, IV (D) IV, III, II, I

II  21 A-09-18
  *A0902*
92. Match the following : 95. Which one is not one of the four models
of ecological succession ?
  List – I     List – II
Pumping of blood      Amount (A) Non-random colonization
to different organs (B) Facilitation (primary and secondary
I. Brain 1. 10% succession)
II. Heart 2. 20% (C) Tolerance
III. Kidneys 3. 25% (D) Inhibition
IV. Digestive system 4. 15% Read the passage and answer the
questions given below (96 – 100) :
I II III IV
Community is an assemblage of various
(A) 2 1 4 3
interacting populations living in a particular
(B) 4 3 2 1 ecosystem at a given point of time.
(C) 3 4 1 2 It comprises of many kinds of plants,
animals and microorganisms. The species
(D) 4 1 2 3
diversity differs from habitat to habitat. e.g.
93. Assertion (A) : Mendel’s law of segregation Marine, terrestrial and desert. Eichhornia
is also known as purity of gametes. crassipes is known as common water
hyacinth and Pistia stratiotes, is often
Reason (R) : The segregation of the called water cabbage or water lettuce.
two Mendelian factors of a trait results in Fishes, frogs, insects, crustaceans,
gametes receiving only one factor out of microorganism, etc., are found in a pond
a pair. community. Trees, shrubs, hare, buffalo,
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and R is the deer, foxes, tigers etc., are part of forest
correct explanation of A community. They interact with each other
and several types of interactions like prey-
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but R is not
predator, host-parasite etc., exist. The
the correct explanation of A
community study is not considered as
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false autecology and it is synecology. Similarly,
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true community dominance occurs due to few
species that play a dominant role. Grasses
94. Which of the following combination is not are the dominant group in grassland
permitted in the IUCN scale ? ecosystem and similarly trees in the
(A) Extinct/vulnerable (Ex/V) forest. It can be pine forest or Himalayan
cedar (Pinaceae) or teak or Bamboo
(B) Endangered/vulnerable (E/V) forest. Thus, the name of dominant plant
(C) Endangered/Rare (E/R) is given to the community. Community
exhibits stratification, which is two types,
(D) Vulnerable/Rare (V/R)

II  22 A-09-18
*A0902*
(i) Vertical (vertical distribution of organisms) 98. Which of the following are not related to
and (ii) Horizontal (horizontal distribution
community ?
in a community). Forest community comes
under first category as it has trees, shrubs (A) Dominance
and herbs. Thermal stratification is found
among different communities, especially (B) Stratification
in aquatic ecosystem. Interdependence Autecology: Ecological study of a particular species
among the members of community is for (C) Stable Synecology: Ecological study of whole plant or animal communities
food, shelter and reproduction. Finally, it
is recorded that a community is stable, (D) Autecology
dynamic and perennial in an ecosystem.
99. Thermal stratification among community
96. Himalayan cedar is a
is found in
(A) Shrub
(B) Epiphyte (A) Gut microflora

(C) Vesicular Arbuscular Mycorrhiya (B) Teak forest

dependent herb
(C) Grassland
(D) Three
(D) Aquatic ecosystem
97. Match the following :
   List – I     List – II 100. Assertion (A) : Grassland ecosystem is
I. Vertical stratification 1. Forest made up of grasses, other plants, animals
ecosystem
and microbes mainly.
II. Teak dominance 2. Food
III. Water lettuce and 3. Name of the Reason (R) : Dominant flora decides the
water hyacinth forest name of an ecosystem.
ecosystem
IV. Community 4. Aquatic (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is
interdependence community the correct explanation of (A)
I II III IV
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is
(A) 1 4 3 2
not the correct explanation of A
(B) 1 3 4 2
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(C) 4 2 3 1
(D) 2 4 1 3 (D) (A) is false but (R) is true

II  23 A-09-18
  *A0902*
Space for Rough Work

II  24 A-09-18